28/04/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 09 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

(for NEET - 2017 )

Topics Covered :
Physics : Optics, Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation, Atoms and Nuclei, Electronic Devices
Chemistry : Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen, Biomolecules,
Polymers; Chemistry in Everyday Life
Botany : Ecosystem, Biodiversity and Conservation, Environmental Issues.
Zoology : Animal Husbandry, Biotechnology: Principles and Processes; Biotechnology and its Applications

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(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. An air bubble inside a glass slab ( = 1.4) appears 4. Dispersive powers of the materials of two lenses
4 cm when viewed from one side and 6 cm from A and B are in the ratio 5 : 4. If the achromatic
when viewed from other side (opposite). The combination of these two lenses placed in contact is
thickness of the slab is a convergent lens, then focal length of lenses A and
(1) 15 cm (2) 14 cm B respectively are

(3) 10 cm (4) 12 cm (1) 25 cm, –40 cm

2. The refractive angle of a prism is A and the refraction (2) 15 cm, –12 cm
(3) 20 cm, –12 cm
A
index of the material of the prism is cot . The (4) –15 cm, 12 cm
2
angle of minimum deviation is 5. Parallel beam of light is incident on a system of two
(1) 180° – 3A (2) 180° + 2A convex lenses of focal length f 1 = 10 cm and
f2 = 5 cm. What should be the distance between the
(3) 90° – A (4) 180° – 2A two lenses so that rays after refraction from the
3. Image formed on retina is lenses pass undeviated?
(1) Virtual and inverted (1) 30 cm
(2) Real and inverted (2) 15 cm
(3) Real and erect (3) 45 cm
(4) Virtual and erect (4) 20 cm

(1)
Test-09 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
6. A beam of monochromatic light is incident at i = 48° 12. Critical angle of light passing from glass to water is
on one face of an equilateral prism, the angle of minimum for
emergence is 38°, then the angle of minimum
(1) Violet (2) Yellow
deviation is
(3) Green (4) Red
(1) < 26° (2) 26°
13. A planoconvex lens is made of glass of refractive
(3) > 26° (4)  26°
index 1.5. The radius of curvature of its convex
7. The graph shows part of variation of v with change surface is 10 cm its focal length is
in u for a concave mirror. Point plotted above the
point A on the curve are for value of v (1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 20 cm (4) 15 R
v
14. In optical fibre, the refractive index of the core is
(1) Equal to that of cladding
A
(2) Smaller than that of cladding
(3) Greater than that of cladding
45° (4) Independent of that of cladding
u
15. A telescope has an objective of focal length 99 cm
(1) Larger than 2f and an eye piece of focal length 11 cm. What is the
(2) Smaller than f magnifying power of the telescope when it is in
normal adjustment?
(3) Smaller than 2f
(4) Larger than f but less than 2f (1) 20 (2) 10

8. When plane surface of planoconvex lens is silvered (3) 9 (4) 8

its focal length comes out to be 28 cm. When 16. In YDSE, a thin glass slab ( = 1.5) is introduced
convex surface is silvered focal length comes out to in the path of one of the two interfering beams. The
be 10 cm. The refractive index of lens is central fringe moves to a position occupied by the
fifth bright fringe earlier. Thickness of the glass slab
14 is ( = 5000 Å)
(1) (2) 3.8
9
(1) 4000 Å (2) 6000 Å
(3) 1.9 (4) 2.0
(3) 2000 Å (4) 50000 Å
9. A short linear object of length b lies along the axis
17. In YDSE, the two slits are separated by 0.1 mm and
of a concave mirror of focal length f at a distance u
they are 0.5 m from the screen. The wavelength of
from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is
light used is 5000 Å. Distance between 7th and 4th
2 maxima
⎛ f ⎞ ⎛ f ⎞
(1) ⎜ ⎟b (2) ⎜ ⎟ b
⎝u f ⎠ ⎝u f ⎠ (1) 8.75 mm (2) 7.5 mm
(3) 8 mm (4) 10 mm
⎛ f ⎞ 2 ⎛ f ⎞
(3) ⎜ ⎟b (4) ⎜ ⎟ 18. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the
⎝u f ⎠ ⎝u f ⎠
monochromatic source of light is replaced by white
10. A concave mirror has a radius of curvature of 20 cm. light, the central maximma will be
The position of an object from the mirror, if a virtual (1) Red (2) Yellow
image of 2 times the size of object formed
(3) White (4) Violet
(1) 8 cm (2) 6 cm
19. In single slit diffraction pattern under bichromatic
(3) 5 cm (4) 10 cm
illumination. If the first minimum with the wavelength
11. The distance between two point sources of light is 1 is found to be coincident with third maximum of
24 cm find out where would you place a converging 2, then
lens of focal length 9 cm between the sources, so
(1) 0.31 = 32 (2) 31 = 0.32
that the image of both the sources are formed at the
same point (3) 1 = 3.52 (4) 31 = 2
(1) 5 cm 20. A wavefront is represented by plane y = 4. The
(2) 6 cm propagation of wave takes place along
(3) 4 cm (1) x-axis (2) y-axis
(4) 10 cm (3) z-axis (4) 45° with x-axis
(2)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-09 (Code A)
21. In YDSE, position of 4th dark fringe on screen in air 27. The total energy of an electron in the first excited
is occupied by 8th bright fringe, when whole state of the hydrogen atom is about –3.4 eV
apparatus is submerged in liquid. The refractive index (1) K.E. of e– in this state is +3.4 eV
of liquid is approximately
(2) P.E. of e– in this state is –6.8 eV
(1) 1.18 (2) 3.18
(3) If the choice of the zero of potential energy
(3) 2.28 (4) 0.81 change K.E. does not change
22. Two coherent light sources A and B are at a (4) All of these
distance 2 from each other, where  is wavelength.
The distance from A on x-axis at which first 28. The de-Broglie wavelength of a bullet of mass
constructive interference is obtained 0.020 kg travelling at the speed of 2 km/s
(1) 1.65 × 10–35 m (2) 2.65 × 10–35 m
(3) 3.69 × 10–35 m (4) 4.21 × 10–35 m
B 29. Wavelength of electromagnetic radiation
(1) Greater than de-Broglie wavelength of its
A x quantum
(1)  (2) 1.5 
(2) Equal to de-Broglie wavelength of its quantum
(3) 3  (4) 4 
(3) Less than de-Broglie wavelength of its quantum
23. Light of wavelength  is incident on a slit of width d.
(4) May be greater than de-Broglie wavelength of its
The resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a
quantum
screen at a distance D. The linear width of the
incident maxima is then equal to the width of the slit 30. The photoelectric cut-off voltage in a certain
if D equals experiment is 1.6 V, the maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons emitted
d 2 (1) 2.4 × 10–19 J (2) 2.56 × 10–19 J
(1) (2)
 d
(3) 1.86 × 10–19 J (4) 1.4 × 10–19 J
d2 2 2 31. In an accelerator experiment on high-energy collision
(3) (4) of electrons with positron, a certain event is
2 d
interpreted as annihilation of an electron-positron pair
24. In YDSE, the intensity of light at a point on the of total energy 8.2 BeV into two -photon of equal
screen, where the path difference is  is I ( is energy, wavelength associated with each -photon
wavelength of light used). The intensity at a point (1BeV = 109 eV)
 (1) 1 × 10–16 m (2) 2 × 10–16 m
where the path difference is , will be
6 (3) 3 × 10–16 m (4) 4 × 10–16 m
(1) Zero (2) I 32. The shortest wavelength present in Balmer series of
spectral line.
I 3I
(3) (4) (1) 912 Å (2) 3648 Å
4 4
25. A small pin fixed on a table top is viewed from (3) 8208 Å (4) 14592 Å
above from a distance of 50 cm. By what distance 33. The approximate ratio of nuclear radii of two element
would the pin appear to be raised if it is viewed from X27 and Y64
the same point through a 15 cm thick glass slab
held paralled to table? (R.I. = 1.5) 27 3
(1) (2)
64 4
(1) Pin appear raised by 5 cm
(2) Pin appear lowered by 5 cm 5 4
(3) (4)
4 3
(3) Position of pin remain unchanged
34. A and B are of two radioactive substances whose
(4) Depends on position of glass slab for small
half-lives are 2 and 4 years respectively. Initially 10 g
angle of incidence
of A and 5 g of B is taken. The time (approximately)
26. A difference of 2.3 eV separate two energy levels in after which they will have same remaining quantity.
an atom. What is the frequency of radiation emitted
(1) 10 years
when the electron make a transition from the upper
level to the lower level? (2) 6 years
(1) 2.6 × 1014 Hz (2) 2.3 × 1014 Hz (3) 3 years
(3) 4.2 × 1014 Hz (4) 5.6 × 1014 Hz (4) 4 years
(3)
Test-09 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
35. The fraction of radioactive nuclei that remains 41. The Boolean expression for the circuit given in the
undecayed after n mean life figure is

1 1 A
(1) n (2) y
e e
B
1
(3) en (4) 1 – (1) A  B (2) A  B
en
(3) A  B (4) A + B
36. The density of a nucleus of mass number A is
proportional to 42. If the voltage between terminal A and B is 15 V and
(1) A Zener breakdown voltage is 10 V then potential drop
across R is
(2) A0
(3) A3 A
(4) A1/3
R
37. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom the speed of
electron. (Where a 0 = radius of ground state,
m = mass of e–, e = charge on e–)

40 a0 m e
(1) (2) 0 a0 m B
e
(1) 5 V (2) 6 V
e
(3) Zero (4) (3) 7 V (4) 10 V
40 a0 m
43. In an n-p-n transistor in CE mode 1011 electrons
38. An electron is accelerated by a potential difference enter the emitter in 10–7s. Only 2% of the electron
of 25 V. de-Broglie wavelength associated with it are lost in the base. The amplification factor  is
(1) 5 Å (1) 98
(2) 10 Å (2) 9.8
(3) 2.5 Å (3) 49
(4) 2 Å (4) 4.9
39. Energy gap between conduction band (CB) and 44. A diode is connected to 220 V (rms) AC in series
valence band (VB) for silicon with a capacitor as shown in figure. The voltage
(1) 6 eV across the capacitor is

(2) 0.7 eV D
(3) 1.1 eV
(4) 3 eV 220 V
40. Current through 2  resistor in the circuit AC

D1 2
220
(1)
D2 2
4
(2) 110 V
(3) 220 V
(4) 311.1 V
10 V 45. The output of an AND gate is connected to both the
input of a NOR gate, then this circuit will acts as a
(1) 5 A
(1) NOT gate
(2) 2.5 A
(2) OR gate
(3) Zero
(3) NOR gate
(4) 1.75 Å
(4) AND gate
(4)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-09 (Code A)

CHEMISTRY
46. An organic compound C 3 H 6 O does not give a CHO
–
precipitate with 2, 4-dinitrophenyl reagent and does OH
52. ?
not react with sodium. It could be
CHO
(1) CH3CH2CHO (2) CH3COCH3
The product of the above reaction is
(3) CH2 = CHOCH3 (4) CH2 = CHCH2OH –
CH2O
47. In the following sequence of reactions, the end
product is (1)
2+
COOH
H2O Hg /H2SO4 [O]
CaC2 [A] [B] [C] CH2OH
Ca(OH)2 Heat
[D] [E] (2)
–
COO
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Formaldehyde –
CH2O
(3) Acetic acid (4) Acetone
(3)
–
48. In the following sequence of reactions, the end COO
product [B] is CH2OH
Condensation
CH3CHO [A] [B] (4)
Mild alkali 
COOH
(1) Aldol 53. In the following reduction, reducing agent used is
(2) Crotonaldehyde O

(3) Paraldehyde CH3 – C – O – CH(CH3)2  CH3CH2OH

(4) Metaldehyde + (CH3)2CHOH
(1) DIBAH
49. CH3CH2NH2 on reaction with CH3CH2Cl in basic
medium gives (2) LiAlH4

(1) 2° amine only (3) NaAlH4

(4) H2/Pd – BaSO4
(2) 3° amine only
O
(3) No reaction ||
(4) Mixture of 2°, 3° amine and salt 54. CH3–C–Cl reduces into CH3CHO in presence of
Pd/BaSO4. Reaction is called
50. The major organic compound formed from the
following reaction is (1) Stephen’s (2) Tishchenko
O (3) MPV (4) Rosenmund
(i) CH3NH2
55. Compound A (C5H10O) gives yellow precipitate on
(ii) LiAlH4 (iii) H2O
heating with Ca(OH)2 and I2, Calcium salt, formed in
NHCH3 the reaction forms B on heating
ONHCH 3
(1) (2) O
OH
B : (CH3)2CH – C CH(CH3)2
NHCH3
(3) NHCH3 (4) Thus, A is
OH
O
51. Compound ‘A’ undergoes formation of cyanohydrin
which on hydrolysis gives lactic acid (1) (CH3)2CH – C – CH3
[CH3CH(OH)COOH] therefore, compound ‘A’ is (2) (CH3)2CHCH2CHO
(1) Formaldehyde O
(2) Acetaldehyde (3) CH3CH2 – C – CH2 – CH3
(3) Acetone O
(4) Benzaldehyde (4) CH3 – C – CH2CH2CH3
(5)
Test-09 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
56. Which of the following is most basic? CH3 O O
H CH3 (3) H C
3

N N
(1) (2) CH3 CH3
(4) CH3 – C – CH2 – CH2 – C – CH3
H H OH OH
N N 62. The reaction intermediate of Curtius reaction is
(3) (4)
(1) Carbocation (2) Carbanion
O
(3) Carbene (4) Nitrene
57. Identify A in the following sequence of reactions
H3O
+
PCl5 (CH3)2CuLi 63. End product in the following sequence of reaction is
C3H5N (A)
O O3/H2O Ca(OH)2  NH2 – NH2
–
OH /glycol
CH3CH2 – C – CH3
(1) CH3CH2CN (2) CH3CH2NC
(1) (2)
(3) CH2 = CHCH = NH (4) None of these
58. Silver mirror test is not given by O
(1) Benzaldehyde (2) Acetaldehyde
(3) (4)
(3) Acetone (4) Fructose
59. Which is the best hydride donor?
NaOH, 
64. O A, A can be
H H (aldol)

–
(1) C6H5 – C – O (2) C6H5 – C – O O

OH O O
(1) (2)
H H
(3) C6H5 – C – Cl (4) C6H5 – C = O (3) (4)

H
D
60. Schotten Baumann reaction is shown by – Cannizzaro
65. 2D – C = O + OH X and Y
(1) Anisole (Y is alcohol, D is deuterium)
(2) Aniline X and Y will have structure
(3) Benzoic acid
O D
(4) Benzaldehyde
O O (1) D – C – O , D – C – OH

61. CH3 – C – CH2 – CH2 – C – OCH2CH3 D

(i) CH3MgBr (1 Mole)
+ A O D
(ii) H3O
A formed in this reaction is (2) D – C – O , D – C – OH

OH O H

(1) CH3 – C – CH2 – CH2 – C – OCH2CH3 O D

CH3 (3) H – C – O , D – C – OH
O O D
(2) CH3 – C – CH2CH2 – C – CH3 (4) None of these are correct
(6)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-09 (Code A)
70. Which of the following is most acidic?
NBS Mg/ether (i) CH3CN
66.
(ii) H3O
+ COOH COOH
| |
CH3
COCH3 (1) (2)
COCH 3
(1) (2) COOH COOH
| |
CN COOH (3) (4)
CH3 |
(3) (4) CH3
71. Most basic out of the following
67. What are A, B and C in the following? (1) C6H5CH2NH2 (2) C6H5NH2
O (1) N2H4 (3) Pyridene (4) Pyrrole
Raney Ni, H2 (2) Ethylene
B A 72. Product ‘P’ in the following reaction is
gy col/OH–
CN
NaBH4, CH3OH
+
H3O
C + CH3MgBr P
OCH3 1 Mol
O
(1) in all cases OH O
CH – CH3 C – CH3
OH
(2) in all cases
(1) (2)
OH OCH3 OCH3

(3) in all cases CHO COOH

(3) (4)
(4) A : OCH3 OCH3
OH 73. When m-chloro benzaldehyde is treated with 50%
B: KOH solution, the product(s) obtained is (are)
OH OH
OH
C: CH – CH
(1)

H Cl Cl

O OH OH
N
68. || H+
CH3–C–H +
Product. CH – CH
(2)
The product is
OH OH
(1) Imine (2) Enamine
–
(3) 1° amine (4) 3° amine COO CH2OH
69. Which of the following will not give Cannizzaro (3) ,
reaction?
OH OH
(1) CH3–CH–CHO (2) CCl3CHO
| –
COO CH2OH
CH3
(4) ,
CHO
(3) C6H5–CHO (4) |
CHO Cl Cl
(7)
Test-09 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
74. Identify A in the following reaction. 79. Fehling A and Fehling B are
NaOH/I2 Soda lime (1) CuSO4 solution and NH4OH solution
C8H8O B Benzene

(A) (2) CuSO4 solution and alkaline solution of sodium
potassium tartarate
CH3
(3) CuSO4 solution and alkaline solution of sodium
(1) CHO citrate
(4) CuSO4 solution and NaOH
(2) COCH3 80. Which of the following is sweetest?
(1) Sucralose
CH2OH (2) Aspartame
(3)
CH3 (3) Alitame
(4) All of these (4) Saccharin
HNO2
75. CH3–CH2–CH2NH2  81. Which of the following can be prepared by Gabriel
 [A] (major).
phthalimide synthesis?
In the above reaction the major product is
(1) C6H5NH2
(1) CH3 CH2 CH2 OH
(2) C2H5NH2
(2) CH3 CH CH3 (3) (CH3)2NH
|
OH (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) CH3 CH2 CH2 NO2 82. Ease of esterification of following acids with CH3OH
(4) CH3 CH2 CH2 ONO HCOOH CH3COOH CH3CH2COOH
76. The role of H3PO2 on reaction with C6H5N2Cl is to I II III
(1) Act as oxidizing agent (1) III < II < I
(2) Act as reducing agent (2) I < II < III
(3) Act as dehydrating agent (3) II < I < III
(4) Act as H+ acceptor (4) Equal for all
77. The major organic product formed from the following
83. End products of the following sequence of reactions
reaction is
are
O C6H5NHNH2 O
(i) I2 + NaOH, 
+
(ii) H
O – NHC6H5 NNHC6H5 C – CH3 (iii) 
(1) (2)
O
NHC6H5 O
NHC6H5
(3) (4) (1) Yellow ppt. of CHI3,
OH OH
COOH
78. The correct sequence of steps involved in the
mechanism of Cannizzaro’s reaction is O
(2) Yellow ppt. of CHI3,
(1) Nucleophilic attack, transfer of H– and transfer
of H+ CHO

(2) Transfer of H–, transfer of H+ and nucleophilic O

attack (3) Yellow ppt. of CHI3,
(3) Transfer of H+, nucleophilic attack and transfer
of H–
(4) Yellow ppt. of CHI3, COOH
(4) Electrophilic attack by OH–, transfer of H+ and COOH
transfer of H–
(8)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-09 (Code A)
84. Consider the following comparison of basic nature of
CH3I Ag2O, H2O  A, A is
amines. Correct comparisons are 86. N

I. >
NH (1) N – CH3
N
H

(2) N – CH3
II. > N NH >
N N
H
(3) N – CH3

O O
(4) N – CH3
III. NH > NH > NH

O 87. Which is the best method of preparing 2° amine?

(1) CH3Cl + NH3 

(1) I, II & III
KCN Sn/HCl
(2) I & II (2) CH3 Cl   
(3) II & III
AgCN LiAlH
(4) I & III (3) CH3 Cl 
 
4


85. Hoffmann’s elimination product of (A) is CHCl /KOH Sn/HCl

(4) CH3NH2 
3

 
H3C
88. The linkage between the two monosaccharide units
(A) OH
+ in lactose is
N
CH3 CH3 (1) C1 of -D glucose and C4 of -D galactose

(2) C1 of -D galactose and C4 of -D glucose

CH3 (3) C1 of -D galactose and C4 of -D glucose
(1)
(4) C1 of -D galactose and C4 of -D glucose
N
CH3 CH3 89. Glucose reacts with x number of molecules of
phenyl hydrazine to yield osazone. The value of x is

H3C (1) Three

(2) (2) Two
N
CH3 CH3 (3) One

(4) Four
CH3
90. Which of the following type of forces are present in
(3) nylon-66?
N
CH3 CH3 (1) van der Waal’s forces of attraction

(2) Hydrogen bonding

CH3
(3) Three-dimensional network of bonds
(4)
(4) Metallic bonding
(9)
Test-09 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017

BOTANY
91. Strict conservation of the biodiversity hotspots can 99. All are correct w.r.t. extinctions, except
reduce the ongoing mass extinctions by about
(1) Thylacine – Africa
(1) 25% (2) 20%
(2) Dodo – Mauritius
(3) 19% (4) 30%
(3) Stellar’s sea cow – Russia
92. The annual net primary productivity of whole
biosphere is ________, with contribution of terrestrial (4) Quagga – Africa
ecosystem is approximately ________.
100. Rivet Popper Hypothesis was proposed by
(1) 170 billion tons, 55%
(1) David Tilman’s (2) Paul Ehrlich
(2) 170 billion tons, 68%
(3) Robert May (4) Edward Wilson
(3) 115 billion tons, 33%
101. Identify A and B in the following representation of
(4) 170 billion tons, 70%
global biodiversity showing proportionate number of
93. Presence of more than 50,000 genetically different species of major taxa of invertebrates.
strains of rice in India is due to
(1) Species diversity (2) Genetic diversity
B
(3) Ecological diversity (4) Both (1) & (2)
A
94. Select the odd one out w.r.t. in-situ conservation of
biodiversity
(1) National parks (2) Sacred groves
(3) Sanctuaries (4) Botanical garden
95. How many of the following are broadly utilitarian
arguments for conserving biodiversity? (1) A - Molluscs B - Crustaceans
(a) Oxygen
(2) A - Molluscs B - Other animal groups
(b) Fibres
(3) A - Crustaceans B - Other animal groups
(c) Pollination
(4) A - Molluscs B - Insects
(d) Flood and erosion control
102. Tropics show rich biodiversity because,
(1) One (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Two (1) Tropical areas receive more solar energy
96. Match the column I with column II. (2) Tropical environment are relatively more constant
and predictable
Column I Column II
a. Khasi and Jaintia hills (i) Meghalaya (3) Tropical environment is less seasonal
b. Chanda and Bastar (ii) Madhya Pradesh (4) More than one option is correct
c. Aravalli Hills (iii) Sikkim 103. Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to
d. Khecheopalri lake (iv) Rajasthan (1) Decreased variability in plant productivity
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) Decline in plant production or productivity
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) Increased resistance to drought
97. Which of the following plant is related with the
groups facing more threat to extinction? (4) Decreased variability of ecosystem process like
pest and disease cycle
(1) Mango (2) Pinus
104. Which of the following statement is correct?
(3) Cycas (4) Both (2) & (3)
98. Select the correct statement. (1) Passenger pigeon become extinct due to
co-extinction
(1) Birds are less diverse than amphibians
(2) Species diversity increases from pole to equator
(2) Lichen are more diverse than algae
(3) High trophic level in food chain are less
(3) Amphibian species is more diverse in western
susceptible to extinction
ghats than eastern ghats
(4) Amphibian species is more diverse in eastern (4) Today, the tropical rain forest occupied 14% of
ghats than western ghats earth land area
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-09 (Code A)
105. A taxon facing high risk of extinction in the wild in (d) The concept of Joint Forest Management (JFM)
the near future is known as introduced by Government of India in 1971.
(1) Vulnerable (1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (a) & (c)
(2) Endangered (3) Only (a) & (b) (4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(3) Critically endangered 114. Which of the following is/are the major reason(s) of
deforestation?
(4) Lower risk
(1) Slash and burn agriculture
106. Which of the following statement about hotspots is
not correct? (2) Conversion of forest land into lands for
agricultural purpose
(1) India has 3 hotspots
(3) Green revolution
(2) High level of species richness
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Low degree of endemism
115. Which is not correct for recycling for e-waste?
(4) Total hotspots are 34
(1) Developing countries have specifically built
107. The elimination of 200 species of cichlid fish from
facilities for this
lake victoria of East Africa, by
(2) Recycling is not the only solution for treatment
(1) Nile perch (2) Clarias gariepinus
of e-waste
(3) Water hyacinth (4) Parthenium
(3) In the developed countries recycling is done by
108. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. function of ecosystem. manual participation
(1) Nutrient cycling (2) Energy flow (4) More than one option is correct
(3) Stratification (4) Decomposition 116. The second highest relative contribution of the green
109. Which of the following factor increase rate of house gases is of
decomposition? (1) N2O (2) CH4
(1) Nitrogen rich detritus (3) CO2 (4) CFC
(2) Aerobic condition and chitinous nature of detritus 117. Select incorrect statement.
(3) High pH (1) Ozone hole appears in Antarctic region between
late August and early October
(4) More than one option is correct
(2) Good ozone is found in the stratosphere
110. In an ecosystem, key industry animals represent
(3) CFC’s, CH 4 and CCl 4 are ozone depleting
(1) Primary carnivores
substances
(2) Top carnivores
(4) One ozone molecule can destroy
(3) Primary consumer 5000 molecules of chlorine in one month
(4) Producers 118. All are correct for integrated organic forming, except
111. The COP-22 was held in 2016 at (1) Maximum utilisation of resources
(1) Helsinki (2) Doha (2) Zero-waste procedure
(3) Marrakech (4) Brazil (3) Waste products of one process are used for
112. Find odd one out w.r.t. water pollution other process

(1) Biochemical oxygen demand (4) Extremely costly

(2) Acid rains 119. The Euro norms or Bharat stage aims to reduce the

(3) Eutrophication (1) Aromatic content

(4) Biological magnification (2) Sulphur

(3) Lead
113. How many statements are correct from the list given
below? (4) More than one option is correct
(a) “EcoSan” toilets are used in area of Kerala and 120. Find the odd one out w.r.t. effect of UV-B.
Sri Lanka. (1) Damage of DNA and mutation
(b) Water (prevention and control of pollution) (2) Aging of skin
Act, 1974.
(3) Blue-baby syndrome
(c) National forest policy (1988) of India has
recommended 67% forest cover for plains. (4) Snow-blindness
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Test-09 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
121. Select the mismatched 129. According to Robert Costanza average price tags for
ecosystem services, what is the cost distribution for
(1) Catalytic converter – Converts unburnt
habitat for wild life?
hydrocarbons into
CO2 and H2O (1) 6% (2) 50%
(2) Electrostatic – Removes more than (3) 16% (4) 10% of 18 trillion
precipitator 99% particulate matter 130. All the pyramids (Pyramid of number, Biomass and
(3) Scrubber – Removes gases like CO energy) are always upright for which of the following
ecosystem?
(4) Acid rains – Stone leprosy
(1) A large sized tree ecosystem
122. The fine powder of recycled modified plastic are (2) Grassland ecosystem
called
(3) Aquatic ecosystem
(1) Bitumen (2) Polyblend
(4) All of these
(3) e-wastes (4) Plastic waste
131. Which is not the characteristic feature of humus?
123. Noise pollution is controlled by
(1) Dark coloured
(1) Catalytic converters (2) Amorphous
(2) Electrostatic precipitators (3) No resistance to microbial action
(3) Green muffler (4) Slightly acidic
(4) Scrubber 132. Choose the correct option w.r.t. given flow chart of
124. “CNG is better than diesel” because it phosphorus cycle.

(1) Cannot be siphoned off by thieves and adulterated B C

(2) Burn more efficiently
(3) Is ecofriendly Litter fall
Detritus
(4) More than one option is correct
125. Montreal Protocol is related with the control of Decomposition
(1) Greenhouse gases A
(2) Ozone-depleting substances
Weathering Uptake
(3) Water pollution
(4) Noise pollution Rock minerals Run off
126. What will be the concentration of DDT in larger fish (1) A-Producer, B-Consumer, C-Detritus
if its concentration in the water body is 0.003 ppb? (2) A-Consumer, B-Soil solution, C-Detritus
(1) 0.25 ppm (2) 0.5 ppm (3) A-Detritus, B-Consumer, C-Producer
(3) 25 ppm (4) 2 ppm (4) A-Soil solution, B-Consumer, C-Producer
127. How many statement is/are correct? 133. In the hydrosere, the marsh-meadow stage is
(a) Sparrow is a primary consumer when it eats followed by
seeds. (1) Reed-swamp stage
(b) Jackals are both hervibores and carnivores. (2) Scrub stage
(c) 10% law of energy proposed by Lindeman. (3) Submerged plant stage
(d) 4 × 1013 kg of carbon is fixed in the biosphere (4) Forest
through photosynthesis per day. 134. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. detritus food chain
(1) (a) & (c) (2) (a), (b) & (c) (1) Is the major conduit of energy flow in terrestrial
ecosystem
(3) (a), (b) & (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(2) It is interconnected with GFC at some levels
128. Find the odd one out w.r.t. global warming
(3) DFC is not connected with GFC at any levels
(1) Rising of sea level
(4) More than one option is correct
(2) Change in rainfall pattern
135. What percentage of incident solar radiation is
(3) Warming of stratosphere and cooling of captured by plants to sustain the entire living world?
troposphere (1) 2-10% (2) 50%
(4) Melting of polar ice caps (3) 0.2-1% (4) 1-5%
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-09 (Code A)

ZOOLOGY
136. Lactation in sterile cow can be induced by 145. Sting apparatus in honeybee is a modified form of
(1) Sorbitol (2) Stilbestrol (1) Ovipositor (2) Wax gland
(3) Prolactin (4) Gonadotrophin (3) Alkaline glands (4) Podical valve
137. New castle or Ranikhet is a 146. Hinny is a hybrid of male
(1) Viral disease of poultry (1) Horse and female donkey
(2) Viral disease of dairy animals (2) Donkey and female horse
(3) Bacterial disease of poultry (3) Goat and female lamb
(4) Place known for its poultry breeds (4) Sheep and female goat
138. Excessive use of insecticides has endangered 147. HH260 is a breed of
honeybees. Over a period of time, this will lead to (1) Fowl (2) Pig
decline in yield of
(3) Buffalo (4) Cow
(1) Apple and pear
148. Cocoon of silkworm is composed of
(2) Maize and wheat
(1) Trypsin and amylopsin
(3) Cotton and soyabean
(2) Fibroin and sericin
(4) Paddy and peas
(3) Creatine and fibrin
139. Isinglass, a type of byproduct of fish industry is
principally used for (4) Fibrin and fibrinogen

(1) Feeding poultry (2) Preparation of varnish 149. Red biotechnology is applied to

(3) Clarification of wines (4) Production of insulin (1) Agriculture processes

140. Which of the following fish are rich in omega-3 fatty (2) Medical processes
acids and thus decrease LDL levels? (3) Industrial processes
(1) Catla, rohu, common carp (4) Horticulture
(2) Sardines, mackerel, pomfret 150. Bt cotton is resistant to
(3) Singhi, Clarias, tuna (1) Insects (2) Herbicides
(4) Shell-fish, oysters, Rohu (3) Pesticides (4) Drought
141. MOET is method of 151. How many of the following statements are true?
(1) Cloning in sheep (i) Golden rice has higher content of  carotene.
(2) Birth control in humans (ii) TPA is used in treatment of coronary thrombosis.

(3) Hybridisation in cattle (iii) Pathogen of anthrax is Pseudomonas anthracis.

(iv) In continuous culture, exponential phase is
(4) Fish cultivation
maintained.
142. Tassar silk is obtained from
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) Bombyx mori (2) Antherea roylei (3) 4 (4) 1
(3) Antheraea assama (4) Attacus ricini 152. Match the following :
143. Earliest animal to be domesticated by man was Column I Column II
(1) Dog (2) Horse a. Flavr Savr (i) Bt cotton
(3) Cat (4) Goat b. Insect resistance (ii) Antigen-Antibody
144. Find the correct match as combination generally c. ELISA (iii) Transgenic tomato
recommended for composite fish farming in India. d. SCID (iv) ADA
(1) Clarius, channa and mrigal (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) Catla, cyprinus and clarius (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Catla, rohu and mrigal (3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) Cirrhinus, cyprinus and channa (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
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Test-09 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
153. A thermostable DNA polymerase is isolated from 160. Recombinant proteins are
(1) E. coli (2) Salmonella (1) Proteins synthesized in animals
(3) Thermus coccus (4) Thermus aquaticus (2) Proteins synthesized by transgene in
154. Complete the analogy : heterologous host cell by rDNA technology
Molecular scissor : Restriction endonuclease : : (3) Proteins synthesized in cells that are produced
Molecular glue : X by protoplast fusion
(1) Alkaline phosphatase (4) Proteins synthesized in mutated cell lines
(2) Acid phosphatase 161. Large scale production of a recombinant protein
(3) Taq polymerase requires bioreactors. Which of the following in the
bioreactor helps in adding air that bubbles through
(4) DNA ligase
the culture medium?
155. A plasmid has two antibiotic-resistance genes, one
for ampicillin and one for tetracycline. It is treated (1) Pine oil (2) Thermometer
with a restriction enzyme that cuts in the middle of (3) Sparger (4) Stirrer
the ampicillin gene. DNA fragments containing a
haemoglobin gene were cut with the same enzyme. 162. Karan Swiss has been evolved at NDRI by breeding
The plasmids and fragments are mixed, treated with
_______ x ________
ligase and used to transform bacterial cells. Host
cells that have taken up the recombinant DNA are (1) Sahiwal cow x Brown swiss bull
the one that
(2) Holstein Friesian x Sahiwal cow
(1) Are blue and can grow on plates with antibiotics
(3) Holstein Friesian x Tharparkar
(2) Can grow on plates with ampicillin but not with
tetracycline (4) Brown Swiss x Holstein Friesian
(3) Can grow on plates with tetracycline but not with 163. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic
ampicillin engineering experiments are
(4) Cannot grow with any antibiotics (1) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
156. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a generic trait (2) Clostridium and Diplococcus
carried in the bacterial
(3) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
(1) Intron (2) Chromosome
(3) Plasmid (4) Centromere (4) Escherichia and Agrobacterium

157. The vector used to produce Humulin was 164. When a dicot plant is infected by Agrobacterium
tumefaciens, the T-DNA in Ti-plasmid induces the
(1) Cosmid (2) Plasmid pBR322
plant to produce
(3) Ti plasmid (4) Escherichia coli
(1) Growth hormones like auxins and cytokinins
158. To prevent self-ligation of vector DNA and to increase
the frequency of production of recombinant DNA (2) Growth inhibitors like abscissic acid
technology which enzyme is used?
(3) Fatty acids
(1) Reverse transcriptase
(4) Leghaemoglobin
(2) Alkaline phosphatases
165. Which of the following bacterium is considered as
(3) Restriction endonuclease
“natural genetic engineer”?
(4) Acid phosphatases
(1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
159. Animal biotechnology involves
(2) Agrobacterium radiobactor
(1) Production of valuable products in animals using
rDNA technology (3) Pseudomonas putida

(2) Rapid multiplication of animals of desired (4) Thermus aquaticus

genotypes 166. A bacterial cell is transformed by using any of the
(3) Alteration of genes to make the animal more following methods, except
desirable (1) Heat shock method (2) Electroporation
(4) All of these (3) Biolistics (4) Via bacteriophage
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-09 (Code A)
167. The vector commonly used for sequencing human 174. The enzymes required to obtain wall free/naked
genome protoplast are
(1) YAC (2) Plasmid (1) Cellulase and proteinase
(3) MV vector (4) M13 vector (2) Cellulase and pectinase
168. What is common between Eco RI and Hind II? (3) Cellulase and amylase

(1) Obtained from same source (4) Amylase and pectinase

(2) Produce sticky ends 175. Which of the restriction enzymes are commonly
used in rDNA technology?
(3) Hyrolyse phosphodiester bonds
(1) Type I (2) Type II
(4) Produce flush ends
(3) Type III (4) Type IV
169. The mechanism of intake of DNA fragments from the
176. Cry II Ab and Cry I Ab produce toxins that control
surrounding medium by a cell is called
(1) Corn borer and tabacco budworms respectively
(1) Transformation
(2) Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively
(2) Transduction
(3) Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively
(4) Conjugation
177. Which of the following is used as vector in gene
170. The PCR technique was developed by therapy for SCID?
(1) Kary Mullis (2) Kohler (1) pBR 322 (2) Retro virus
(3) Milstein (4) Altman (3) Ti plasmid (4) pUC 194
171. The process of binding primer to the denatured 178. In a PCR, which of the following components is not
strand is called required?
(1) Denaturation (2) Annealing (1) Nucleotide precursors
(3) Melting (4) Electroporation (2) A primer containing 3– OH
172. A plasmid vector should have which of the following
(3) DNA helicase to separate the strands
properties?
(4) DNA polymerase to catalyse the reaction
(i) MCS
179. Which statement about RNAi is not correct?
(ii) Multiple Ori
(1) RNAi was first discovered in plants
(iii) Small size
(2) The host transcribes dsRNA which is cut by
(iv) Selectable markers
Dicer into small fragments called siRNAs
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(3) siRNA unwinds and binds to a specific mRNA
(2) (ii), (iii) & (iv) preventing its translation
(3) (i), (ii) & (iv) (4) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as
(4) (i), (iii) & (iv) a method of cellular defense
173. Taq polymerase is used in PCR because of its 180. Molecular diagnostic methods like ELISA are used for
(1) Low thermal stability (1) Home pregnancy test
(2) High fidelity (2) Detection of pathogenic organisms in serum
(3) High speed (3) Detection of dairy and poultry diseases
(4) High thermal stability (4) All of these

  

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 28/04/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 09 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

(for NEET - 2017 )

Answers and Hints

PHYSICS
1. Answer (2)
28 1 
 
t 10 (  1) 1
Tap =

28 – 28 = 10
t = tapp.
18 = 28
t1 =  × 4 cm
t2 =  × 6 cm 28 14
  
18 9
t1 + t2 = (4 + 6)
= 1.4(10) = 14 cm 9. Answer (2)

2. Answer (4) 10. Answer (3)

3. Answer (1) R = – 20 cm

4. Answer (4) f = – 10 cm

5. Answer (2) |v|=2|u|

u=–x v = + 2x
1 1 1
  
2x x 10
1 2 1
 
d = f1 + f2 = 10 + 5 = 15 cm 2x 10
6. Answer (1) 1 1
  
 = (i + e) – A = 48 + 38 – 60 = 26 2x 10
min < 26 2x = 10
7. Answer (1) x = 5 cm
At A u = v which is possible only when u = 2f, at 11. Answer (2)
point above A v > 2f. 1 1 1
For S1,  
8. Answer (1) v1  x 9
R R 1 1 1
F1  28   
2(  1) 2(  1) v1 9 x
1 1 1
For S2,  
v 2 (24  x ) 9
R R
F2  10  1 1 1
2 2  
v2 9 24  x
(1)
Answers & Hints of Test-09 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
v1 = – v2 20. Answer (2)
1 1 1
  
v1 v2 x
On solving, x = 6 cm.
12. Answer (1) 135°

1 21. Answer (3)

sin C 

 ⎛ 1⎞
8 D ⎜ 4  2 ⎟ D

1  ⎝ ⎠
  d d

8
13. Answer (3)  35

R R 8
f    2R    2.28
  1 (1.5  1) 3.5
14. Answer (3) 22. Answer (2)
15. Answer (3) Say p be the point on x-axis, where constructive
interference is obtained
fo 99
m    9 B
fe 11 2 2
(2) + x
16. Answer (4) 2
Shift = 5 (fringe width)
A P
(  1) tD 5D x

d d BP – AP = n n = 1, x ....

5 4 2  x 2  x  
t   50000 Å
 1 42 + x2 = 2 + x2 + 2x

17. Answer (2) 32 = 2x

Dy = y(7) bright – y(4) dark x = 1.5

23. Answer (3)
7 D 4 D 3 D
   24. Answer (4)
d d d
25. Answer (1)
10
3  5000  10  0.5 ⎛ 1⎞
 4  x  f ⎜1  ⎟
10 ⎝ ⎠
 3 × 5 × 0.5 × 10–7+4 ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 0.5 ⎞
 15 ⎜ 1  ⎟  15 ⎜ 1.5 ⎟  5 cm
 7.5 × 10–3 m ⎝ 1.5 ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
= 7.5 mm 26. Answer (4)
18. Answer (3) E = 2.3 eV = 2.3 × 10–19 J
19. Answer (3) h  E  E2r  E1r
⎛ 1⎞ E 2.3119
1D ⎜ n  2 ⎟ 2D   
y (1) min  y (3) max  ⎝ ⎠ h 6.6  10 34
d d  5.6 × 1014 H2
⎛ 1⎞ 27. Answer (4)
1D ⎜⎝ 3  ⎟⎠  2D
2 28. Answer (1)

d d
h 6.6  1034
    1.655  1034
7 mv 0.020  2  1000
1   2  3.5  2
2 29. Answer (2)
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-09 (Code A)
30. Answer (2) 35. Answer (1)
KEmax = eV0 36. Answer (2)
= 1.6 × 10–19 × 1.6 37. Answer (4)
= 2.56 × 10–19 J
mv 2 1 e2
31. Answer (3) 
a0 4 0 a02
Energy of 2 -rays = 8.2 BeV = 8.2 × 109 eV
e2
Energy of each -rays, v2 
40 ma0
1
E= (8.2 × 109 eV) e
2 v 
1
40 ma0
= × 8.2 × 109 × 1.6 × 10–19 J
2 38. Answer (3)

= 8.2 × 109 × 0.8 × 10–19 J 150

 
v
= 6.56 × 10–10 J
150

hC 25
Using E =
  6
hC 6.6  1034  3  108  2.5 Å
    3 × 10–16 m
E 6.56  1010 39. Answer (3)
32. Answer (2) 40. Answer (3)
n1 = 2, n2 =  D1 is in reverse biased so it will not conduct hence
1 ⎛ 1 1 ⎞ R current through 2  is zero.
 R⎜ 2  2 ⎟ 
min ⎝ 2  ⎠ 4 41. Answer (3)
4 AB
 min   4(912 Å)  3648 Å
R 42. Answer (1)
33. Answer (2)
43. Answer (3)
1/ 3
R1 ⎛ 27 ⎞ 3
 ⎜ ⎟  1011  1.6  1019
R2 ⎝ 64 ⎠ 4 i .e 
10 7
34. Answer (4)  1.6  102 A
n1  16 mA
⎛ 1⎞
N1  N01 ⎜ ⎟
⎝2⎠ 2
n2
Ib  2% of Ie   16 mA  0.32 mA
⎛ 1⎞ 100
N2  N02 ⎜ ⎟
⎝2⎠ IC = Ie – Ib
n1  n2 = 16 mA – 0.32 mA
N02 ⎛ 1⎞
 ⎜ ⎟
N01 ⎝2⎠ = 15.68 mA
t t Ie 15.68
5 ⎛ 1 ⎞t

t2
    49
 ⎜ ⎟1 Ib 0.32
10 ⎝ 2 ⎠
44. Answer (1)
⎛ t t ⎞
t 2 1
1 ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎜⎝ t1t 2 ⎟⎠ The diode will conduct only the half cycle of AC
 ⎜ ⎟
2 ⎝2⎠ v0
v rms 
t 2
1 ⎛ 1 ⎞4 220 2

2 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ 
2
t 220
1 
4 2
t = 4 yr 45. Answer (4)
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Answers & Hints of Test-09 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (3) 55. Answer (1)
If it does not give 2, 4 DNP Test, it means it cannot C5H10O gives iodoform test, thus A is
be a carbonyl compound. O O
Ca(OH2)/I2 ⎛ ⎞
If it does not react with metallic sodium, it cannot ⎜⎝R – C – O⎟⎠ 2 Ca + CHI3
R – C – CH3 
be an alcohol.
O
47. Answer (4) 
R–C–R
H2O
2+
Hg /H2SO4 (B)
CaC2 Ca(OH2) + H – C  C – H
[A] O

Ca(OH2)
B  (CH3)2CH – C – CH(CH3)2
[O]
CH3COOH CH3 – CH2OH 56. Answer (1)
[C] [B]
2° Amine are more basic

CaCO3 + CH3 – COCH3 (CH3COO)2Ca 57. Answer (1)
(acetone) [E] [D]
O
48. Answer (2) +
H3O PCl5
CH3CH2CN CH3CH2 – C – OH
OH
O O
Condensation
CH3CHO CH3 – CH – CH2CHO (CH3)2Cu
mild alkali
[A] CH3CH2 – C – Cl CH3 – CH2 – C – CH3
Aldol 58. Answer (3)
Dehydrating Silver mirror test is not given by ketones.
CH 3 – CH = CHCHO
agent

Crotonaldehyde 59. Answer (2)
49. Answer (4) H
Fact R–C–O R–C=O+H
50. Answer (3) O O
O CH3NH2
NCH3 LiAlH4
NHCH3 60. Answer (2)
H2O O O
|| –
||
OH
51. Answer (2) C6H5NH2 + C6H5C–Cl C 6H 5–C–NH–C 6H 5
OH 61. Answer (3)
CH3CH = O + HCN CH3 – CH Keto group is more reactive for addition of Grignard
Acetaldehyde CN reagent.
Cyanohydrin
O O (i) CH3MgBr
HOH
(one mole)
OH CH 3 – C – CH2CH2 – C – OCH2 – CH3 +
(ii) H3O
CH3 – CH
CH3 CH3
COOH Intramolecular
Lactic acid CH3 – C – CH2 – CH2 CH3 – C – CH2
– C2H5OH
52. Answer (2)
OH C=O O CH2
CHO CH2OH
OH
– C
OC2H5
–
O
CHO COO
62. Answer (4)
(Cannizzaro's Reaction)
O O
53. Answer (2) || ||  –N2
LiAlH4 CH 3–C–Cl + N 3
–
CH3–C–N N N
R–COOR 
 RCH2OH + ROH
54. Answer (4) O
||
Fact. CH 3–C–N (Nitrene)
(4)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-09 (Code A)
63. Answer (2) 67. Answer (4)
OH Fact.
O3/H2O Ca(OH)2
O 68. Answer (2)

OH O
CH2=C–N will form
Due to ozonolysis, H2O2 is also formed which oxidise |
– CHO to – COOH H
NH2 – NH2 69. Answer (2)
O –
OH /glycol It will form CHCl3
(Wolff Kishner
Reduction) 70. Answer (2)
64. Answer (1) Ortho effect
71. Answer (1)
O  O
Lone pair on N–atom is not in resonance.
72. Answer (2)
O
CH3
CN C = N – MgBr COCH3
H2O
+
CH3MgBr H3O
O
OH O O OCH3 OCH3 OCH3
– H2O
73. Answer (4)
–
CHO COO CH2OH
–
OH
O +

65. Answer (1)

Cl Cl Cl
D D 74. Answer (2)
D–C=O D–C–O Going reversely :

–
OH Sodalime NaOH + I2
COONa
D
O
D–C=O+D D–C–O
C – CH3
OH OH
A
 C8H8O
D–C=O+H
75. Answer (2)
O HNO2
(I) CH 3–CH 2 CH 2 NH 2
D D D  –
H –Shift 
Addition of H
+ CH3–CH2 CH2 CH3–CH–CH3
D–C=O D–C–O D – C – OH
 and D OH
–

D
(II) CH3–CH–CH3
|
66. Answer (2) OH
NBS Mg/ether 76. Answer (2)
Br MgBr
Allylic 77. Answer (2)
substitution
(i) CH3CN
(ii) H3O
+ O C6H5NHNH2
N NHC6H5

O
78. Answer (1)
C – CH3
Fact.
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Answers & Hints of Test-09 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
79. Answer (2) 86. Answer (1)
Fehling solution A is CuSO4 solution and fehling
solution B is alkaline solution of sodium potassium CH3I
tartarate. N N – CH3I

80. Answer (3) Ag2O
H2O
Fact
81. Answer (2)
 
It is the method to prepare aliphatic primary amines. N – CH3 NCH3OH
82. Answer (1) Least substituted product
is major product
Fact.
87. Answer (4)
83. Answer (3)
NH3 CH3Cl CH3Cl
O O (1) CH3Cl CH3NH2 (CH3)2NH
(i) I2/NaOH, 
CH3Cl + –
+
(ii) H (CH3)3N (CH3)4N Cl
C – CH3 C – OH Mixture is
formed
O  O KCN Sn/HCl
(2) CH3Cl CH3CN CH3CH2NH2
O
1° amine
AgCN LiAlH4
(3) CH3Cl CH3NC CH3NHCH3
2° amine
When keto group is at -position w.r.t. – COOH,
heating eliminates CO2. LiAlH4
+ CH 3CN CH3CH2NH2
84. Answer (2) (1° amine)
CHCl3/KOH Sn/HCl
2° amine (aliphatic) (4) CH3NH2 
CH3NC CH3NHCH3
NH 2° amine (Pure)

(A) 88. Answer (2)

C-1 of -D-galactose and C-4 of -D glucose. In
2° amine (aromatic) lone pair on N lactose, -D-galactose is joined to C-4 of -D
is used in delocalisation of  e–s glucose.
N
(B) H 89. Answer (1)
Thus (A) is more basic than (B) CHO CH = NNHC6H5
Thus true 3C6H5NHNH2
(CHOH)3 2H2O, – NH3,
C = NNHC6H5
II. True – C6H5NH2
CH2OH (CHOH)3
III. Carbonyl group is EWG, thus e – density is
Glucose
decreased, first is least basic, last one is maximum CH2OH
basic, thus incorrect. Thus I, II true. Osazone (glucosazone)
85. Answer (1) 90. Answer (2)
Elimination is in such a way that least substituted In nylon-66, the intermolecular forces between the
alkene is formed. chains are hydrogen bonds.

BOTANY
91. Answer (4) 93. Answer (2)
The protection of hotspots could reduce the ongoing Genetic diversity
mass extinction of about 30%. 94. Answer (4)
92. Answer (2) Botanical garden – ex-situ conservation.
The annual net primary productivity of whole 95. Answer (2)
biosphere is 170 billion tons and contribution of
terrestrial ecosystem is 115 billion tons i.e., about Oxygen, pollination, flood and erosion control.
68%. 96. Answer (2)
(6)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-09 (Code A)
97. Answer (4) 117. Answer (4)
Pinus, Cycas i.e., gymospermic plants. One active chlorine can destroy 5000 molecules of
98. Answer (3) ozone in one month.
Amphibian species diversity is greater in western 118. Answer (4)
ghats than eastern ghats. Integrated organic forming is not costly.
99. Answer (1) 119. Answer (4)
Thylacine – Australia Euro norms aims to reduce the aromatic content and
100. Answer (2) sulphur.
Rivet Popper Hypothesis proposed by Paul Ehrlich. 120. Answer (3)
101. Answer (2) Blue-baby syndrome caused by nitrate.
A-Molluscs and B-other animal groups. 121. Answer (3)
102. Answer (4) Scrubber - Remove the gases like SO2.
All are correct for rich biodiversity in tropical region. 122. Answer (2)
103. Answer (2) Fine powder of plastic are called polyblend.
Plant production and productivity decreases due to 123. Answer (3)
loss of biodiversity.
Green muffler is used to control the noise pollution.
104. Answer (2)
124. Answer (4)
Species diversity increases from pole to equator.
125. Answer (2)
105. Answer (2)
Montreal Protocol is related with the control of ozone-
Endangered species facing high risk of extinction in
depleting substances.
the wild in the near future.
126. Answer (4)
106. Answer (3)
2ppm due to biomagnification.
High degree of endemism found in hotspots.
107. Answer (1) 127. Answer (1)

Nile perch is responsible for elimination of cichlid in Jackals are both carnivores and 4 × 1013 kg of
Victoria lake. carbon is fixed in the biosphere per year.
108. Answer (3) 128. Answer (3)
Stratification is structural component of ecosystem. Due to global warming, temperature increase in
troposphere.
109. Answer (1)
129. Answer (1)
Nitrogen rich detritus are easily decomposed.
The cost of distribution for habitat for wild life is 6%.
110. Answer (3)
Primary consumer i.e., herbivores is key industry 130. Answer (2)
animals. In grassland ecosystem, the pyramid of number,
111. Answer (3) biomass and energy is upright.
The COP22 was held at Marrakech. 131. Answer (3)
112. Answer (2) Humus provide resistance to microbial action.
Acid rains occur due to air pollution. 132. Answer (4)
113. Answer (3) A - Soil solution
National forest policy of India has recommended B - Consumer
33% forest cover for plains and JFM introduced in C - Producer
1980s.
133. Answer (2)
114. Answer (4)
During hydrarch succession marsh-meadow stage is
Green revolution is not the cause of deforestation. followed by scrub stage.
115. Answer (4) 134. Answer (3)
All are correct, except (2) option, because recycling DFC may be connected with GFC at same levels.
is the only solution for treatment of e-wastes.
135. Answer (4)
116. Answer (2)
1-5% of incident solar radiation is captured by
After CO2, the second highest contribution in green
plants to sustain the entire living world.
house gases is CH4.
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Answers & Hints of Test-09 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (2) 160. Answer (2)
Stilbestrol is a synthetic non-steroidal estrogen used 161. Answer (3)
to induce lactation
162. Answer (1)
137. Answer (1)
163. Answer (4)
138. Answer (1)
164. Answer (1)
139. Answer (3)
165. Answer (1)
140. Answer (2)
166. Answer (3)
141. Answer (3)
167. Answer (1)
MOET (Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer) has been
YAC and BAC vector is used in Human genome
demonstrated for cattle for obtaining high breeds of
project
females and bulls in a short time
168. Answer (3)
142. Answer (2)
169. Answer (1)
143. Answer (1)
Transduction - injection of foreign DNA by using virus
144. Answer (3)
Conjugation - transfer of genetic material between
Selection of fish in polyculture/composite farming is
two bacterial cells by direct contact
based on feeding habits
170. Answer (1)
145. Answer (1)
171. Answer (2)
146 Answer (1)
Ideal vector should have following properties.
147. Answer (1)
(a) Multiple cloning sites (MCS)
148. Answer (2)
(b) Small size
149. Answer (2)
(c) Selectable markers
150. Answer (1)
(d) Ori
151. Answer (2)
172. Answer (4)
152. Answer (4)
173. Answer (4)
153. Answer (4)
174. Answer (2)
154. Answer (4)
175. Answer (2)
DNA Ligase acts as Molecular glue in RDT
Type II restriction enzymes are commonly used in
155. Answer (3)
RDT as it cleaves at or near recognition site.
Fragments of desired Haemoglobin gene is inserted
176. Answer (3)
at amphicillin resistance gene site causing
177. Answer (2)
Insertional inactivation
Disarmed Retro virus are used as vector in theraphy
156. Answer (3)
for SCID.
157. Answer (2)
178. Answer (3)
158. Answer (2)
179. Answer (1)
159. Answer (4)
180. Answer (4)

  

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