OYM Based on

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-03
PHYSICS

Based on Q.16. (Spherical Mirror) 4. A convex mirror of focal length f form an image
1
1. An object is placed at a distance 15 cm from which is times the object. The distance of the
n
a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm. The
object from mirror is
image will from at
 n – 1
(1) Infinity (1) (n –1)f (2)  n f
 
(2) Focus
 n  1
(3) Between centre and focus (3)  f (4)  n  1 f
 n 
(4) Between focus and pole
5. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror of
2. An object is placed at 20 cm from a convex
focal length f. Find the maximum and minimum
mirror of focal length 10 cm. The image formed
distance of an object from the mirror such that
by a mirror is
image formed is real and magnified
(1) Real and at 20 cm from the mirror
(1) 2f and  (2) f and 2f
(2) Virtual and at 20 cm from the mirror
(3) f and 0 (4) None of these
20
(3) Virtual and at cm from the mirror Based on Q.30(Combination of lenses)
3
1. Two plane concave lenses of glass of refractive
20
(4) Real and at cm from the mirror index 1.5 have radii of curvature 20 cm and 30
3
cm respectively. They are placed in contact with
3. At what distance from a convex mirror of focal the curved surface towards each other and the
length 2.5 m should a boy stand so that his space between them is filled with a liquid of
image has a height equal to half the original
5
refractive index . The focal length of
height? 2
combination is (in cm)
(1) 2.5 m from the mirror

(1) 6 (2) – 92
(2) 5 m from the mirror

(3) 108 (4) 12

(3) 7.5 m from the mirror

2. The two surfaces of biconvex lens has same radii

(4) 10 m from the mirror
of curvatures. This lens is made of glass of

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CSS-03 Physics

refractive index 1.5 and has a focal length 10 cm in Based on Q.25. (Refraction)
air. The lens is cut into two equal halves along a 1. A fish is at a depth of 12 cm in water is viewed
plane perpendicular to its principal axis to yield two by an observer on the bank of a lake. By what
plano-convex lenses. The two pieces are glued  4
height the image of the fish is raised  w  
such that the convex surfaces touch each other. If  3 
this combination lens is immersed in water of
(1) 9 cm (2) 12 cm
4
refractive index its focal length (in cm) is (3) 16 cm (4) 3 cm
3
2. An under water swimmer is at a depth of 12 m
(1) 5 (2) 40 below the surface of water. A bird is at a height
(3) 10 (4) 20 of 18 m from the surface of water, directly above
3. The effective focal length of the lens his eyes. For the swimmer the bird appear to be
combination shown in figure is – 60 cm. The a distance from the surface of water equal to
radii of curvature of the curved surface of the  4
 w  3 
plano-convex lenses are 12 cm each and  
refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5. (1) 12 m (2) 24 m
The refractive index of the liquid is (3) 18 m (4) 36 m
3. A microscope is focused on a coin lying at the
bottom of a beaker. The microscope is now
raised up by 1 cm. To what depth should the
water be poured in to the beaker so that coin is
 4 
again, in focus  W  
 3 

4
(1) 1 cm (2) cm
3
(1) 1.60 (2) 1.53 (3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm
(3) 1.42 (4) 1.33 4. In the situation shown. The object is 12 cm
4. A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. above the liquid water level and beaker
The magnitude of the ratio of their focal length containing water upto height 20 cm is kept on a
2 plane mirror. The distance between the object
is . Their equivalent focal length is 30 cm.
3 and its image will be
Their individual focal length are
(1) – 75 cm, 50 cm (2) – 10 cm, 15 cm
(3) – 15 cm, 10 cm (4) – 50 cm, 75 cm
5. Three lenses in contact have a combined focal
length of 12 cm. When the third lens is removed,
60
the combined focal length is cm. The third
7
lens is
(1) Converging lens of focal length 30 cm (1) 30 cm (2) 42 cm

(2) Converging lens of focal length 60 cm (3) 28 cm (4) 54 cm

(3) Diverging lens of focal length 30 cm Q.7. (Alternating Current )

1. A bulb of rated power P and voltage V is
(4) Diverging lens of focal length 60 cm connected across a house hold supply of

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CSS-03 Physics

alternating voltage V. The maximum value of

current through the filament is
P P
(1) (2) 2
V 2 V
P V
(3) (4)
V P
2. An inductive circuit contains a resistance of 10  (1) 2f (2) 3f
and an inductance of 2 H. If an ac voltage of 120 V (3) 4f (4) None of these
and frequency 60 Hz is applied to the circuit.
The value of current would be (nearly) 2. A point source S is placed midway between two
converging mirrors of same focal length. The
(1) 0.72 A (2) 0.16 A maximum distance between the mirrors so only
(3) 0.48 A (4) 0.80 A one image will formed.
3. A bulb rated 100 W, 220 V is connected in a (1) 2f (2) 4f
Circuit as shown in figure. The peak value of (3) 5f (4) Both (1) and (2)
current in bulb is
3. Two converging mirrors of same focal length f is
placed at a distance d (d > 4f). The number of
image formed of an object placed midway
between the mirrors
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Multiple image will formed
(4) No image will formed
4. A convex mirror and a concave mirror each of
focal length 25 cm are kept such that they have
(1) 0.64 A (2) 0.45 A a common principal axis and their reflecting
surfaces face each other with their poles 100
(3) 0.8 A (4) 0.25 A
cm apart. An object is placed midway between
4. An alternating voltage E = 200 2 sin (100 t) the two on their common principal axis. The
volt, is connected to a 1F capacitor through an position of image from the pole of concave
A.C. ammeter. The reading of ammeter will be mirror, produced by successive reflections, first
at convex then at concave, is
(1) 10 mA (2) 10 2 mA
50 50
(3) 20 2 mA (4) 20 mA (1) cm (2)  cm
3 3
5. A bulb rated 50 W, 100 V is connected in series 350 350
with an inductance of inductive reactance 200  (3)  cm (4) cm
and A.C. source of 200 V. The peak value of 11 11
current in bulb is 5. In the figure given below, the total magnification
produced after two successive reflections first
on M1 and then on M2

1
(1) 1 A (2) A
2 (1) 1 (2) –1

(3) 2A (4) 2 2 A. (3) 4 (4) None of these

Q.23 (Formation of image) Q.41. (Interference due to thin film)
1. A point source S is placed midway between two 1. A thin transparent film of thickness 3000 Å and
converging mirrors of same focal length f. refractive index 1.38 is deposited on a glass (
The minimum distance (d) between the mirrors = 1.5) sheet. Assuming normal incidence of
so only one image will be formed, is visible light, which wavelength (nearly) will be
strongly reflected?
(1) 5000 Å (2) 4100 Å
(3) 6500 Å (4) 7000 Å

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CSS-03 Physics

2. A thin soap film of uniform thickness of 4000 Å (3) remains constant

and refractive index 1.4. Assuming normal
incidence of visible light, which wavelength will (4) may increase or decrease
interfere constructively in transmitted light ?
(1) 5600 Å (2) 6000 Å 4. An alternating voltage given by V = 200 2 sin 100 t
(3) 6600 Å (4) 7200 Å volt is connected to 1F capacitor through an
3. When viewed in white light, soap bubbles ideal a.c ammeter in series. The reading of
shows colours because of
ammeter is
(1) Interference (2) Diffraction
(3) Dispersion (4) scattering (1) 20 mA (2) 10 mA
4. A thin film of uniform thickness has refractive
4 (3) 40 mA (4) 20 2 mA
index . This film is illuminated by white light
3
incident at an angle of 30°. The transmitted light 5. An alternating voltage E= 200 2 sin (100t) v is
is found to have a maximum value of intensity
for wavelength 720 nm. The minimum connected to R = 100 and C = 100F in
thickness of film is (nearly) series. The instantaneous current in circuit in
(1) 250 nm (2) 270 nm ampere, is
(3) 290 nm (4) 320 nm
Based on Q. No. 9 (Current R-C series circuit)  
(1) i  2 2 sin  100t  
1. A series R-C circuit is connected to an  4 
alternating voltage source, consider two
situations  
(2) i  2sin  100t  
(a) When capacitor is air filled  6 
(b) When capacitor is mica filled
 
Current through resistor is i and voltage across (3) i  2sin  100t – 
capacitor is v then  4
(1) ia > ib
 
(2) Va = Vb (4) i  2sin  100t  
(3) Va < Vb  4
(4) Va > Vb Based on Q.15 (Refraction at curved spherical)
2. When an AC source of emf E = E0 sin (100 t)
is connected across a circuit, the phase 1. A point object on the surface of a transparent
difference between emf E and current i is
glass sphere of radius 5cm is viewed from

observed to be as shown in figure. If diametrically opposite position. If the retractive
4
current consists of R-C or R–L in series, which index of glass material is 1.5, the position of
combination is possible
image is

(1) 20 cm from object

(2) 10 cm from object

(1) R = 1 k, C = 10F (3) 35 cm from object

(2) R = 1 k, C = 100F
(4) 15 cm from object
(3) R = 1 k, L = 10H
(4) R = 1 k, L = 100 H 2. A slab of material of refractive index 2 has
3. A bulb and a capacitor are connected is series convex curved surface of radius of curvature of
with an ac source of variable frequency. On 10 cm. An object is at distance of 15 cm from
increasing frequency of source, current in circuit the curved surface (inside). The position of
will image from curved surface is

(1) increase (1) 15 cm (2) 20 cm

(2) decrease (3) 30 cm (4) 25 cm

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CSS-03 Physics

3. An object is placed 60cm to left of P1. The
refractive index of material of glass sphere is
1.5 and radius of curvature 20 cm , first image
is formed
Based on Q.19 (Lens Power Combination)
1. A convex lens of focal length 25 cm is cut into
two equal halves to obtain two plano-convex
lenses which are then joined as shown in figure.
The focal length of this combination is

(1) 100 cm from P1

(1) 12.5 cm (2) 25 cm
(2) 180 cm from P1
(3) 50.0 cm (4) Zero cm
(3) 40 cm from P1
2. Concave and convex lenses are placed
(4) 60cm from P1
touching each other. The ratio of magnitude of
4. A parallel beam of light falls on crystal ball of their powers is 2:3. The focal length in (cm) of
radius 10 cm. The image is formed at second system is 30 cm, focal length in cm of individual
surface, as shown. The refractive index of lenses is
crystal ball is
(1) – 75, 50 (2) – 15, 10

(3) 75, – 50 (4) 20, – 30

3. A convex lens of focal length A and a concave

lens of focal length B are placed in contact. The
focal length of combination is
(1) 1.50 (2) 1.70
(1) (A + B) (2) (A – B)
(3) 1.90 (4) 2.00
AB AB
5. In a spherical glass paper weight of radius 2 cm (3) (4)
AB (B – A )
and refractive index 1.5, there is an air bubble
at a distance of 1 cm from centre as shown.
4. Two thin lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and 25
Where will bubble appear if seen from face A.
cm are placed in contact. The effective power of
combination is

(1) 9D (2) 45 D

(3) 4.5 D (4) 1D

(1) At 1.2 cm from C towards A 5. Two thin convex lenses of focal length 10 cm
and 15 cm are separated by a distance of 10
(2) At 1.8 cm from C towards A
cm. The power of combination is
(3) At 0.7 cm from C towards A
(1) 5 D (2) 9.3 D
(4) At 0.4 cm from C towards D
(3) 6 D (4) 10 D

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CSS-03 Physics

Based on Q.40 (Malus’s Law) them with a transmission axis at an angle of 45°
with respect to each other. The fraction of
1. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 Wm –2 passes
unpolarized light transmitted by three sheets is
through 3 polarisers such that transmission axis
of last polariser is crossed with the first. If the 1 1
(1) (2)
intensity of emerging light is 3 Wm–2. What is 2 4
angle between transmission axis of first two 1 1
(3) (4)
polarisers 8 16

(1) 30° (2) 45° 4 Two polarising sheets having polarizing

(3) 37° (4) 90° directions parallel so that maximum intensity of

light is transmitted. Through what angle must
2. Two polaroids are so oriented with their planes
either plate be turned if the intensity of the
perpendicular to incident light and transmission
transmitted beam is drop by half
axis makes an angle of 30 ° with each other.
The fraction of incident light (unpolarized) that (1) 30° (2) 45°

is transmitted is. (3) 135° (4) Both (2) and (3)

2 3 5. Two nicol prisms are so oriented that their

(1) (2)
5 5 principle planes making an angle of 60°. The

1 3 percentage of incident unpolarised light which

(3) (4)
8 8 passes through the system is

3. To polarising sheets are placed together with (1) 75% (2) 50%
their transmission Axis crossed so that no light
(3) 25% (4) 12.5%
is transmitted. A third sheet is inserted between



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CSS-03 Physics

Based on
AIATS-3 (OYM)

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CSS-01
Physics
ANSWERS

Based on Q.16 ( Spherical mirror) 3. (3)

1. (4) 4. (3)

2. (3) 5. (4)
Based on Q.41 (Interference due to thin film)
3. (1)
1. (2)
4. (1)
2. (1)
5. (4) 3. (1)
Based on Q.30 (Combination of lens) 4. (3)
Based on Q. No. 9 (Current R-C series circuit)
1. (4)
1. (4)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (1)
4. (3) 4. (1)
5. (4)
5. (3)
Based on Q.15 (Refraction at curved spherical)
Based on Q.25 (Refraction)
1. (1)
1. (4) 2. (3)
2. (2) 3. (2)
3. (1) 4. (4)
5. (1)
4. (4)
Based on Q.19 Lens (Power combination)
Based on Q.7 (Alternating Current)
1. (2)
1. (2) 2. (2)
2. (2) 3. (4)

3. (1) 4. (1)
5. (4)
4. (4)
Based on Q.40 (Malu’s Law)
5. (1)
1. (1)
Based on Q.23 (Formation of image)
2. (4)
1. (1) 3. (3)
4. (4)
2. (2)
5. (4)



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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-03
CHEMISTRY
Q.47. (Properties of Transition Elements) 4. Complex which shows maximum number of
1. Element with least melting point among the stereoisomers, is
following is (1) [Co(en)3]Br3 (2) Cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(1) Ti (2) V (3) Trans-[Co(en)2I2]Br (4) [Co(en)2Cl2]Br
(3) Cr (4) Mn 5. Which compound does not show any isomerism?
2. Element with highest melting point among the (1) [Co(en)2ClBr]I (2) [Zn(NH3)4]Cl2
following is (3) K2[Ni(CN)2(SCN)2] (4) [Pt(gly)2]
(1) Sc (2) Zr Q.61. (Magnetic properties of Transitions elements)
(3) Hf (4) W 1. Paramagnetic complex among the following is
3. Which among the following elements has least (1) [Zn(H2O)6]Cl2 (2) K3[Cu(CN)4]
enthalpy of atomization? (3) K2[CuBr4] (4) K2[Zn(CN)4]
(1) Ti (2) V 2. Diamagnetic complex among the following is
(3) Cr (4) Mn (1) K3[Co(CN)6] (2) K3[Fe(CN)6]
4. Element which has highest density among the (3) [Ni(en)3]Cl2 (4) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
following is 3. Which one of the following complex ions will exhibit
(1) V (2) Cr maximum paramagnetic behaviour?
(3) Cu (4) Zn (1) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Cr(CN)6]3–
5. Pair of elements which have minimum difference (3) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Co(CN)6]3–
in density, among the following is 4. Magnetic moment (in B.M) of complex ion of
(1) Ti, Mn (2) Cr, Mn [Fe(CN)6]3– is
(3) Mn, Fe (4) Ni, Cu (1) Zero (2) 3
Q.65. (Isomerism)
(3) 8 (4) 15
1. Optically active complex/ion is
5. Diamagnetic complex which can show linkage
(1) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (2) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)Cl2]
isomerism, is
(3) [Co(en)3]Cl3 (4) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) K3[CoF6]
2. Geometrical isomerism is shown by
(3) [Ni(NH3)6]SO4 (4) K2[Cu(SCN)4]
(1) [Ni(CO)4] (2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
Q.73. (Benzyne intermediate)
(3) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (4) [Co(en)(NH3)4]Cl3
3. Complex/ion shows both geometrical and optical
isomerism, is 1. (Major product); X is
(1) [Co(en)3]Cl3 (2) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(3) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (4) [NiCl4]2–

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CSS-03 Chemistry

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

Q.75. (Dipole moment of aryl halides)

2. , Major product in the reaction is 1. Highest dipole moment is shown by

(1) (2)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(3) (4)

2. If dipole moment of is x then dipole

3. Benzyne is
(1) Aromatic
(2) Non-aromatic moment of will be

(3) Anti-aromatic
(4) Extraordinarily stable
(1) 2x (2) x
x
4. (3) (4) Zero
2
3. Molecule(s) having least dipole moment is/are
Select the major product in the reaction

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4) Both (2) and (3)

4. Molecule with non-zero dipole moment is

5. Which of the following will involve benzyne
intermediate formation in SN reactions?

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CSS-03 Chemistry

(1) (2) 4. Major product in this

reaction is

(3) (4) (1) (2)

5. Molecule which has non-zero dipole moment is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

5. (Major product) (X) is

(3) (4)

Q.88. (Electrophilic substitution reactions given by

phenols) (1) (2)

1. (3) (4)

This reaction is known as

(1) Wurtz reaction
Q.53. (Properties of Actinoids)
(2) Williamson’s synthesis
1. In general, the oxidation state shown by actinoids
(3) Kolbe reaction
is
(4) Swartz reaction
(1) +2 (2) +3
(3) +4 (4) 1+
2. 2. In actinoids, the highest oxidation state shown by
the elements is

The attacking species in this reaction is (1) +6 (2) +8

(3) +5 (4) +7
(1) CO32– (2) CO2
3. Element which shows only +4 oxidation state is
(3) CO (4) CH3OH
(1) Ac (2) Th
(3) Pa (4) U
3. 4. Configuration of Cm (96) is
(1) [Rn] 5f7 6d1 7s2 (2) [Rn] 5f8 4s2
Electrophile in the above reaction is (3) [Rn] 5f10 (4) [Rn] 5f3 6d5 7s2
(1) –CHCl2 (2) –CCl3 5. Oxidation state shown by Lr (103) is
(3) (4) CHCl+2 (1) +2 (2) +3
(3) +4 (4) +5

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CSS-03 Chemistry

Q.54. (Properties of lanthanoids) (4)

1. Valence shell electronic configuration of Yb3+ (70)
is
(1) 4f11 6s2 (2) 4f14 6s2 4. For the compound, acidity is highest if X is

(3) 4f14 (4) 4f13

2. Total number of unpaired electrons present in Eu
(63) is (1) –NH2 (2) –Cl
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) –OH (4) –CN
(3) 7 (4) 8 5. Correct order of acidic character is
3. The number of unpaired electrons present in
f-orbital of Tb3+ (65) is (1)
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 7
4. The ion which does not show any colour is
(1) La3+ (2) Lu3+ (2)
(3) Tm3+ (4) Both (1) and (2)
5. When lanthanoids burns in O2, the compound so
formed is
(1) Ln2O3 (2) LnO (3)

(3) LnO2 (4) LnO3

Q.81. (Acidity of alcohols and phenols)
1. Most acidic compound among the following is
(4)

(1) (2)
Q.89. (Chemical properties of Ethers)
1. In the reaction

(3) (4)
The compound which is not obtained in the product
is

2. Compound with the highest pKa value is

(1) (2)

(1) (2)
(3) CH3CH2CH2I (4) Both (1) and (2)

2.
(3) (4)

3. The correct order of acidic character is A and B are

(1)
(2)
(3)

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CSS-03 Chemistry

The product(s) obtained is/are

(1)
(1) (2)

(2)
(3) (4) Both (1) and (2)

5. Which of the following reaction does not take

(3) place?

(1)

(4)
(2)

3. The correct order of reactivity of hydrogen halides

towards ether is
(3)
(1) HCl > HBr > HI (2) HBr > HCl > HI
(3) HI > HBr > HCl (4) HI > HCl > HBr
4. In the reaction
(4)



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CSS-03 Chemistry

OYM

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-03 (Chemistry)
Answers Key

Q.47. (Properties of Transition Elements) Q.88. (Electrophilic substitution reactions given by

1. (4) phenols)
2. (4) 1. (3)
3. (4) 2. (2)
4. (3) 3. (3)
5. (4) 4. (1)
Q.65. (Isomerism) 5. (4)
1. (3) Q.53. (Properties of Actinoids)
2. (2) 1. (2)
3. (2) 2. (4)
4. (4) 3. (2)
5. (2) 4. (1)
Q.61. (Magnetic properties of Transitions elements) 5. (2)
1. (3) Q.54. (Properties of lanthanoids)
2. (1) 1. (4)
3. (3) 2. (3)
4. (2) 3. (3)
5. (1) 4. (4)
Q.73. (Benzyne intermediate) 5. (1)
1. (3) Q.81. (Acidity of alcohols and phenols)
2. (2) 1. (1)
3. (1) 2. (2)
4. (2) 3. (4)
5. (4) 4. (4)
Q.75. (Dipole moment of aryl halides) 5. (4)
1. (2) Q.89. (Chemical properties of Ethers)
2. (4) 1. (2)
3. (4) 2. (1)
4. (3) 3. (3)
5. (1) 4. (4)

5. (2)
  

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-03
BOTANY
Q.111 (Microbes in human welfare: Microbes in 2. Taichung Native-1 is developed in Taiwan. It is a
industrial products) variety of
1. Lactobacillus (1) Wheat (2) Maize
(1) Commonly called lactic acid bacteria (3) Rice (4) Barley
(2) Converts curd into milk 3. A gene responsible for dwarfing in rice, i.e. dee-
(3) Is a fungus geo-woo-gen, was reported in
(4) Is a disease causing microbe (1) Philippines
2. Butyric acid is produced by (2) Taiwan
(1) Clostridium butylicum (3) India
(2) Yeast (4) Japan
(3) Aspergillus (4) Acetobacter 4. The headquarter of International Rice Research
3. Choose the wrong match Institute (IRRI) is in
(1) Citric acid - Aspergillus niger, a (1) Brazil (2) Argentina
bacterium (3) Thailand (4) Philippines
(2) Acetic acid - Acetobacter aceti, a 5. M.S Swaminathan contributed in green
bacterium Revolution through the introduction of __(i)__
(3) Ethanol - Yeast, a fungus varieties of __(ii)___ in India.
(4) Swiss cheese - Propionibacterium Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i)
sharmanii, a and (ii).
bacterium (1) (i) American; (ii) Maize
4. All of the following are produced by fungus, (2) (i) Mexican ; (ii) Wheat
except (3) (i) Russian ; (ii) Maize
(1) Bread (2) Penicillin (4) (i) Australian ; (ii) Wheat
(3) Cyclosporin A (4) Butyric acid Q.108 (Microbes in human Welfare: Microbes in
5. Which of the following is obtained by the activity household products)
of bacteria? 1. Swiss cheese is ripened by which of the given
(1) Roquefort cheese (2) Statin bacteria?
(3) Streptokinase (4) Citric acid (1) Lactobacillus
Q.105 (Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production: (2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
Plant Breeding) (3) Leuconostoc
1. Norman E. Borlaug developed semi-dwarf variety (4) Streptococcus
of wheat at International Centre for Wheat and 2. Roquefort cheese is ripened by which of the given
Maize Improvement in fungi?
(1) Japan (1) Penicillium roquefortii
(2) Mexico (2) Penicillium camembertii
(3) Australia (3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(4) China (4) Saccharomyces pireformis

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3. Camembert cheese is ripened by which of the 5. Which of the following Mexican wheat varieties
given fungi? were brought to India and modified through
(1) Penicillium notatum gamma irradiations, so that they can become part
(2) Penicillium camembertii of Indian Agriculture?
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (1) Sonora-64 and Lerma Rojo-64
(4) Saccharomyces ellipsoidens (2) Sharbati Sonora and Kalyan sona
(3) Jaya and Ratna
4. How many of the given household products in the (4) Sonalika and Sharbati sonora
box are prepared by using bacteria? Q.100 (Strategies for Enhancement in Food
Dosa, Idli, Curd, Swiss Cheese, Bread, production: Plant breeding)
Camembert cheese 1. Breeding of crops with higher levels of vitamins
and minerals or higher protein and healthier fats
is called
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) Eutrophication (2) Biomagnification
(3) 5 (4) 2 (3) Biofortification (4) Mineralization
Q.98 (Strategies for Enhancement in Food 2. Protina, Shakti and Rattan are varieties of
production: Plant breeding for disease (1) Rice (2) Maize
resistance) (3) Wheat (4) Bean
3. Pusa Sawani is a variety of
1. Select the correct pair of high-yielding and (1) Bhindi (2) Flat bean
(3) Mustard (4) Spinach
disease resistant varieties of wheat, which were
4. Pusa Sem 2 & Pusa Sem 3 are varities of
introduced all over the wheat growing belt of
(1) Radish
India, in 1963
(2) Carrot
(1) Sonalika and Kalyan sona
(3) Flat bean
(2) Jaya and Ratna
(4) Bathua
(3) IR-8 and IR-36
(4) Taichung Native-1 and Jaya 5. Pusa Sem 2 & Pusa Sem 3 are resistant to
2. The process by which chemicals or radiations like (1) Bacillus thuringiensis
gamma rays are used to create new character or (2) Yellow mosaic virus
trait in a plant variety and then plants with (3) Aphids and fruit borer
desirable character are selected as a source in (4) Bacterial blight
breeding programs is called: Q.101 (Strategies for Enhancement in Food
(1) Conventional breeding production: Plant breeding)
(2) Mutation breeding 1. Vitamin A enriched crop(s) is/are
(3) Protoplast fusion (1) Carrot (2) Pumpkin
(4) Hybrid vigour (3) Tomato (4) Both (1) & (2)
3. The variety of wheat developed by Dr. M.S. 2. Vitamin C enriched crop(s) is/are
Swaminathan by gamma irradiation from Mexican (1) Peas (2) Tomato
dwarf Wheat, which brought green revolution in (3) Bathua (4) Both (2) & (3)
our country is 3. Lablab & Garden peas are rich in
(1) Sonora-64 (1) Proteins (2) Fats
(2) Lerma Rojo-64 (3) Vitamin A (4) Vitamin C
(3) Sharbati sonora 4. Bathua is rich in vitamin C as well as
(4) Pusa A - 4 (1) Vit. A
4. Dr. N. Borlaug developed dwarf wheats in (2) Calcium & iron
Mexico, popularly known as Mexican wheats, by (3) Vit. B12 (4) Vit. K
using the dwarfing gene: Q.97 (Strategies for Enhancement in Food
(1) Sonora - 64 production : Plant Breeding)
(2) Norin - 10 1. Breeding crops with higher protein and healthier
(3) IR - 24 fats is called:
(4) dee-geo-woo-gen (1) Bioprospecting (2) Biomagnification
(3) Biofortification (4) Biotechnology

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2. Which varieties of wheat were introduced all over (1) Lactobacillus (2) Leuconostoc
the wheat growing belt of India in 1963? (3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(1) Atlas 66 and Kalyan Sona (4) Saccharomyces ellipsoidens
(2) Kalyan Sona and Sonalika 5. What are the traditional Indian foods made of
(3) IR-8 and Sonalika wheat, rice and black gram involving the use of
(4) IR-8 and Atlas 66 microbes?
3. Which of the following is correctly matched? (1) Bread, Idli, Dosa, Cheese, Curd and Yoghurt
(1) Maize hybrids - Iron enriched (2) Bread, Dosa, Idli, Cheese and Curd
(2) Fortified Rice variety - Lysine & tryptophan (3) Dosa, Bread, Yoghurt and Roquefort cheese
enriched (4) Dosa, Idli and Bread
(3) Atlas 66 - High protein content Q.118 (Microbes in Human Welfare: Microbes in
(4) SCP - Food deficient in production of biogas)
protein 1. Methanogens are
4. Breeding for improved nutritional quality is (1) Aerobic bacteria
undertaken with the objectives of enhancing all, (2) Anaerobic bacteria
except (3) Commonly found in aerobic sludge during
(1) Protein content & quality primary sewage treatment
(2) Oil content & quality (4) Aerobic bacteria but can survive without
(3) Mineral content oxygen for sometime
(4) Anti-nutritional factor 2. Major gases produced by the methanogens are
5. Choose correct option. (1) CH4 and CO2 (2) CO2 and H2S
Statement A: Several vegetable crops enriched (3) CO2 and O2 (4) O2 and CH4
in minerals have been released by IARI, New 3. Methanogens are mainly found in
Delhi. (1) Cattle dung
Statement B: Three billion people are suffering (2) Rumen of cattle
from hidden hunger in world, which attracts (3) Both (1) and (2)
breeding for improved food quality like Atlas 66 & (4) Fresh water
other varieties. 4. Methanogens produce the gobar gas
(1) Only A is correct (1) From cellulose present in rumen of cattle
(2) Both A and B are correct (2) That is composed of CO2 mainly
(3) Both A and B are incorrect (3) In the primary sludge of sewage
(4) Only B is correct (4) By growing aerobically on cellulose
Q.109 (Microbes in Human Welfare: Microbes in 5. Gobar gas has all of the following except
household products) (1) CH4 (2) CO2
1. Dosa and Idli are fermented preparation of (3) O2 (4) H2
(1) Wheat and gram Q.95 (Strategies for Enhancement in Food
(2) Rice and Green gram production: Plant breeding)
(3) Rice and Black gram 1. During development of new variety of a crop, very
(4) Soyabean and Wheat time-consuming and tedious process is
2. The dough, which is used for making foods such (1) Cross hybridization
as dosa & idli is fermented by (2) Evaluation and selection of parents
(1) Streptococcus species (3) Selection of recombinants
(2) Nostoc species (4) Commercialisation of new verities
(3) Propionibacterium species 2. Progeny which has desired characters after the
(4) Penicillium species cross hybridization of the parents, is
3. Bread is prepared from dough. The puffed-up (1) Always genetically inferior than their parents
appearance of dough is due to the production of (2) Called hybrid
(1) O2 (2) CO2 (3) Generally released without testing
(3) N2 (4) H2S (4) Not evaluated as it is more superior than the
4. Which is used for making bread by fermentation parents
process?

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3. 1st step of plant breeding programme is
(1) Germplasm collection
(2) Evaluation and selection of parents
(3) Cross hybridisation among the selected
parents
(4) Selection and testing of superior
recombinants
4. Testing, release and commercialisation of new
cultivars
(1) Is not necessary
(2) Is last and necessary step in plant breeding
programme
(3) The 1st step for recombinant development
(4) Is done in the laboratory only

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ANSWERS

Q.111 (Microbes in human welfare: Microbes in Q.101 (Strategies for Enhancement in Food
industrial products) production: Plant breeding)
1. (1) 1. (4)
2. (1) 2 (4)
3. (1) 3 (1)
4. (4) 4 (2)
5. (3) Q.97 (Strategies for Enhancement in Food
Q.105 (Strategies for Enhancement in Food production : Plant Breeding)
Production: Plant Breeding) 1. (3)
1. (2) 2. (2)
2. (3) 3. (3)
3. (2) 4. (4)
4. (4) 5. (2)
5. (2) Q.109 (Microbes in Human Welfare: Microbes in
Q.108 (Microbes in human Welfare: Microbes in household products)
household products) 1. (3)
1. (2) 2. (1)
2. (1) 3. (2)
3. (2)
4. (3)
4. (1)
5. (4)
Q.98 (Strategies for Enhancement in Food
production: Plant breeding for disease Q.118 (Microbes in Human Welfare: Microbes in
resistance) production of biogas)
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (3) 3. (3)
4. (2) 4. (1)
5. (1)
5. (3)
Q.100 (Strategies for Enhancement in Food
Q.95 (Strategies for Enhancement in Food
production: Plant breeding)
1. (3) production: Plant breeding)
2. (2) 1. (1)
3. (1) 2. (2)
4. (3) 3. (1)
5. (3) 4. (2)

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ZOOLOGY
5. Read the following statements w.r.t. Plasmodium
Q.147. (Disease caused by protozoans)
and choose the correct answer
1. In life cycle of Plasmodium, the sexual stages
A - Sporozoites initially multiply within the liver
(gametocytes) develop in
cells and then attack the red blood cells
(1) RBC’s of human resulting in their rupture.
(2) Liver cells of human B - The rupture of RBC’s is associated with
(3) Salivary glands of female Anopheles mosquito release of a toxic substance, haemozoin which
is responsible for the chill and high fever.
(4) WBC’s of human
(1) Both statements are correct
2. Which of the following species of Plasmodium
causes most serious and fatal malignant malaria in (2) Both statements are incorrect
humans? (3) Only A is correct
(1) P.vivax (4) Only B is correct
(2) P.malaria Q.171 (Mode of action of Aids virus)
(3) P.falciparum 1. Which of the following statement is incorrect for
(4) P.ovale HIV virus?

3. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. (1) They are retrovirus
Plasmodium (2) They have an envelope enclosing RNA
(1) It enters the human body as sporozoites genome
through the bite of infected female Anopheles (3) Their genome consists of three single stranded
mosquito RNA filaments
(2) The sporozoites initially multiply within the liver (4) The enzyme reverse transcriptase transcribes
cells and then attack the RBCs DNA from viral RNA
(3) Requires two hosts-human and female 2. The major cell infected by HIV virus is
Anopheles mosquito to complete life cycle
(1) Helper T-lymphocyte
(4) Sexual stages (gametocytes) develop in
(2) Neutrophils
stomach of female Anopheles mosquito
(3) Eosinophils
4. Choose the incorrect w.r.t. Plasmodium
(4) B-lymphocytes
(1) It reproduces sexually in human RBC’s
3. Which of the following body cells acts like an HIV
(2) It reproduces asexually in liver cells
factory?
(3) It reproduces sexually in female Anopheles
(1) Platelets
mosquito
(2) RBC’s
(4) Sporozoites develop in female Anopheles
mosquito (3) Macrophages
(4) Liver cells

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4. Read the following statements w.r.t. mode of 5. Which edible fungus does not contain
action of AIDS virus. hallucinogens?
A. HIV enters into helper T-lymph ocytes having CD4 (1) Morchella esculenta
receptor.
(2) Neurospora
B. HIV replicates inside the T-lymphocytes and
produces progeny virus (3) Ustilago
C. Number of helper T-lymphocytes in body decrease (4) Datura
progressively in AIDS
Q.162 (Vaccination & Immunisation)
From above
1. Choose the odd one out w.r.t second generation
(1) A and B are correct, C is incorrect
vaccines
(2) B and C are correct, A is incorrect
(1) Diptheria toxoid
(3) C and A are correct, B is incorrect
(2) Tetanus toxoid
(4) A, B and C are correct
5. With the help of which enzyme, RNA genome of (3) Hepatitis B vaccine
the virus (HIV) replicates to form viral DNA in the (4) BCG vaccine
macrophages of host (human)?
2. Which of the following recombinant vaccine were
(1) DNA polymerase produced from yeast?
(2) RNA polymerase
(1) BCG vaccine
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(2) Small pox vaccine
(4) DNAse
Q.174 (Major categories of psychoactive drugs, (3) Hepatitis-B vaccine
their effect and clinical uses) (4) Tetanus toxoid
1. All of the following plants/fungus contain 3. Vaccinations or immunization are included under
hallucinogens except
(1) Natural active immunity
(1) Cannabis sativa
(2) Atropa belladona (2) Artificial active immunity

(3) Amanita muscaria (3) Natural passive immunity

(4) Papaver somniferum (4) Artificial passive immunity
2. Which of the following plant/fungus does not 4. Which among the following can be a third
contain the hallucinogens? generation vaccine?
(1) Cannabis sativa
(1) DNA based vaccine
(2) Atropa belladona
(2) BCG
(3) Datura
(3) Salk
(4) Morchella esculenta
3. Cannabionoids have hallucinogenic property and (4) MMR
are obtained from the inflorescence of which of the 5. Read the following statements w.r.t. hepatitis B
following plant? vaccine and choose the correct option
(1) Atropa belladona A. The hepatitis B vaccine is a safe and effective
(2) Cannabis sativa vaccine that is recommended for all infants at
(3) Erythroxylum coca birth and for children upto 18 years.
(4) Amanita muscaria B. Hepatitis B vaccine provide natural active
4. Aerial parts of Atropa belladona are misused for immunity.
their (1) Both statements are correct
(1) Hallucinogenic properties
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Sedative properties
(3) Statement A is incorrect
(3) Stimulant action
(4) Statement B is incorrect
(4) Drowsiness action

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CSS-03 Zoology

Q.165 (Causes of cancer/carcinogenic agents) 3. Choose the option which fills the blank correctly
to complete the analogy
1. Read the following statement w.r.t. causes of
cancer and choose the correct answer. Wuchereria : Elephantiasis : : Plasmodium : ____
A. Transformation of normal cells into cancerous (1) Malaria (2) Dengue
neoplastic cells may be induced by physical,
(3) Chikungunya (4) Yellow fever
chemical or biological agents.
4. All the following viral diseases are transmitted by
B. Ionising radiations like X-ray and gamma rays
mosquitoes except
and non-ionizing radiations like UV cause DNA
damage leading to neoplastic transformation. (1) Chikungunya (2) Dengue

(1) Both statements are correct (3) Yellow fever (4) Malaria

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
2. Normal cells show a property called __A___ but
cancer cells appears to have lost this property.
5. Which of the following set of non-viral diseases are
transmitted by biting of female mosquitoes?
(1) Chikungunya and dengue
(2) Yellow fever and malaria
(3) Elephantiasis and malaria

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank A (4) Malaria and dengue

(1) Contact inhibition (2) Cell division Q.143 (Common human diseases)

(3) Cell growth (4) Metastasis 1. Which auto immune disease leads to muscular
weakness and paralysis?
3. Metastasis is the most feared property of
(1) Alzhiemer’s disease (2) Parkinson’s disease
(1) Benign tumors (2) Malignant tumors
(3) Huntington’s chorea (4) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Liver cells (4) Bone marrow cells
2. Antibodies are formed against acetylcholine
4. Compare to normal cells, the cancer cells show
receptors present on sarcolemma in
(1) Increase in telomerase activity
(1) Alzhiemer’s disease
(2) A contact inhibition
(2) Parkinson’s disease
(3) A controlled cell division
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Habit of metagenesis
(4) Hutington’s chorea
5. Read the following statements w.r.t. cancer and
3. Degeneration of dopamine secreting neurons of
choose the correct option.
substantia nigra region in basal nucleus leads to
A. Cells from Benign tumors sloughed and
reached distant sites through blood. (1) Parkinson’s disease

B. Metastasis is the most feared property of (2) Alzhiemer’s disease

Benign tumors. (3) Hutington’s chorea
(1) Both statements are correct
(4) Myasthenia gravis
(2) Both statements are incorrect
4. Which disease is caused due to degeneration of
(3) Statement A is correct
GABA secreting neurons of corpus straitum and
(4) Statement B is correct. acetylcholine secreting neurons of other parts of
Q.141 (Viral diseases/Human health and diseases) brain?

1. Malaria is a common human disease caused by a (1) Alzhiemer’s disease (2) Hutington’s disease

(1) Virus (2) Protozoan (3) Myasthenia gravis (4) Parkinson’s disease

(3) Bacterium (4) Fungus 5. A progressive disorder which leads to dementia

due to degeneration of cholinergic neurons is
2. Which of the following disease is caused by
roundworm? (1) Alzhiemer’s disease (2) Parkinson’s disease

(1) Elephantiasis (2) Yellow fever (3) Hutington’s chorea (4) Myasthenia gravis

(3) Dengue (4) Chikungunya

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CSS-03 Zoology

Q.159 (Immune system of the body) 4. Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the
1. Which of the following is main lymphoid organ respiratory, gastro-intestinal and urogenital tracts
where all blood cells including lymphocytes are is part of which barrier layer of innate immunity?
produced? (1) Physical barrier
(1) Bone marrow (2) Thymus
(2) Physiological barrier
(3) Spleen (4) Lymph node
(3) Cellular barrier
2. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid
organ? (4) Cytokine barrier
(1) Thymus (2) Spleen 5. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. innate immunity
(3) Lymph node (4) Tonsil
(1) Non-specific
3. Thymus is a bilobed organ situated near heart and
dorsal to (2) Present at the time of birth
(1) Vertebral column (2) Breast bone (3) Characterised by memory
(3) Lungs (4) Clavicle
(4) Skin and mucus are part of it
4. Which of the following structure is commonly
known as blood bank of the body? Q.178 (Drugs and alcohol abuse)

(1) Spleen (2) Bone marrow 1. Select a drug which is a very effective sedative and
(3) Thymus (4) Lymph nodes pain killer?
5. The secondary lymphoid organs provide the site (1) Morphine (2) Marijuana
for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen,
(3) Cocaine (4) Amphetamines
which then proliferate to become effector cells. In
a given box, how many of them are secondary 2. ______ among following is a hallucinogen at high
lymphoid organs? doses and is commonly called coke?
(1) Atropa belladona (2) Datura
Thymus, Spleen, Bone marrow, Lymph node, (3) Ganja (4) Cocaine
Tonsil, Appendix
3. Heroin is a/an
(1) Opioid (2) Cannabinoid
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 4 (4) 3 (3) Coca alkaloid (4) Stimulant
Q. 150 (Innate immunity) 4. Choose the mismatch
1. Interferons are included under which barrier of (1) Heroin - Depressant and
innate immunity? slows down body
(1) Physical barrier functions
(2) Cytokine barrier
(2) Cocaine - Potent stimulating
(3) Cellular barrier action on CNS
(4) Physiological barrier
(3) Hashish - Obtained from
2. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. Cannabis sativa
interferons?
(4) Morphine - Obtained from
(1) Secreted by virus infected cells
leaves of poppy
(2) Lipids in nature
plant
(3) Protect non-infected cells from virus infection
5. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. heroin
(4) They are part of non-specific immunity
3. Natural killer cells are part of (1) Commonly called smack
(1) Humoral immunity (2) Chemically is a diacetylmorphine
(2) Cell mediated immunity (3) Generally taken by snorting or injection
(3) Innate immunity
(4) White, odourless, sweet crystalline compound
(4) Acquired immunity

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ANSWERS

Q.147
Q.141
1. (1)
1. (2)
2. (3)
2. (1)
3. (4)
3. (1)
4. (1)
4. (4)
5. (1)
5. (3)
Q.143
Q.171
1. (4)
1. (3)
2. (3)
2. (1)
3. (1)
3. (3)
4. (2)
4. (4)
5. (1)
5. (3)
Q.159
Q.174
1. (1)
1. (4)
2. (1)
2. (4)
3. (2)
3. (2)
4. (1)
4. (1)
5. (3)
5. (1)
Q.150
Q.162
1. (2)
1. (4)
2. (2)
2. (3)
3. (3)
3. (2)
4. (1)
4. (1)
5. (3)
5. (4)
Q.178
Q.165
1. (1)
1. (1)
2. (4)
2. (1)
3. (1)
3. (2)
4. (4)
4. (1)
5. (4)
5. (2)
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