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2020

NTA UGC NET/JRF/SET POLITICAL SCIENCE

25 SOLVED PAPERS AND 10 PRACTICE SETS
by Team Prabhat

Published by PRABHAT PAPERBACKS

4/19 Asaf Ali Road, New Delhi–110002
 CONTENTS

SOLVED PAPERS����������������������������������������������������������������������� 1–241

 Solved Paper-II (June-2012)......................................................................................3–9

 Solved Paper-III (June-2012).................................................................................. 10–20

 Solved Paper-II (December-2012)............................................................................ 21–27

 Solved Paper-III (December-2012)...........................................................................28–37

 Solved Paper-II (June-2013)...................................................................................38–45

 Solved Paper-III (June-2013)..................................................................................46–55

 Solved Paper-II (December-2013)............................................................................56–63

 Solved Paper-III (December-2013)...........................................................................64–75

 Solved Paper-II (June-2014)...................................................................................76–83

 Solved Paper-III (June-2014)..................................................................................84–92

 Solved Paper-II (December-2014)............................................................................93–99

 Solved Paper-III (December-2014)........................................................................100–110

 Solved Paper-II (June-2015)................................................................................111–118

 Solved Paper-III (June-2015)...............................................................................119–129

 Solved Paper-II (December-2015).........................................................................130–137

 Solved Paper-III (December-2015)........................................................................138–148

 Solved Paper-II (July-2016).................................................................................149–156

 Solved Paper-III (July-2016)................................................................................157–168

 Solved Paper-II (January-2017).............................................................................169–175

iv

 Solved Paper-III (January-2017)............................................................................176–185

 Solved Paper-II (November-2017).........................................................................186–192

 Solved Paper-III (November-2017)........................................................................193–202

 Solved Paper-II (July-2018).................................................................................203–217

 Solved Paper-II (June-2019)................................................................................218–228

 Solved Paper-II (December-2019 ).........................................................................229–241

PRACTICE SETS������������������������������������������������������������������������ 1–129

 Practice Set-1...................................................................................................... 3–15

 Practice Set-2.....................................................................................................16–29

 Practice Set-3.....................................................................................................30–39

 Practice Set-4.....................................................................................................40–48

 Practice Set-5.....................................................................................................49–62

 Practice Set-6.....................................................................................................63–77

 Practice Set-7.....................................................................................................78–90

 Practice Set-8................................................................................................... 91–102

 Practice Set-9..................................................................................................103–115

 Practice Set-10.................................................................................................116–129
SOLVED PAPERS
Solved Paper-II, June-2012 3

UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, June-2012
1. Which of the following book is not Codes: (c) Robert K. Merton
authored by Karl Marx? A B C D (d) Talcott Parsons
(a) German Ideology (a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 10. Structural functionalism as a
(b) Critique of the Gotha Programme (b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) method was developed to study the
(c) Paris Manuscripts politics of
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(a) Advanced capitalism
(d) Science of Logic (d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
2. Who wrote “Over himself, over (b) Developed socialism
his own body and mind, the 6. Match List–I with List–II and (c) Modern totalitarianism
individual is sovereign”? select the correct answer from the (d) Politics of developing countries
codes given below: 11. C. Wright Mill’s ‘The Power Elite’
(a) J.S. Mill
List–I is a study of the contemporary
(b) M.K. Gandhi A. Twentieth century Jacobinism
politics of
(c) Jeremy Bentham B. Voluntary Poverty
C. I was born a Hindu but will not (a) China
(d) Robert Nozick
die as one (b) The United States of America
3. Rajni Kothari’s book Politics in (c) The Soviet Union
D. Integrated theory of evolution
India is written on the basis of the List–II (d) Great Britain
methodology of (i) Gandhi 12. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g
(a) Structural functionalism (ii) Aurobindo identified the crises in political
(iii) Ambedkar
(b) Normative theory development on the basis of his
(iv) M.N. Roy
(c) Marxism study of England?
Codes: (a) A.F.K. Organski
(d) Utilitarianism
A B C D (b) Lucian W. Pye
4. Who is the first modern political
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (c) Edward Shils
thinker who deliberately ignores
(b) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (d) David Apter
Aristotle?
(c) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 13. Which one of the following pairs
(a) Machiavelli (b) Bodin is not correctly matched?
(d) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(c) Hobbes (d) Locke (a) C.W. Mills – The Power Elite
7. Gandhi described himself as a
5. Match List–I with List–II and (b) T.B. – Elites and
(a) Liberal
select the correct answer from the Bottomore Society
(b) Socialist
codes given below: (c) Pareto – The Ruling
(c) Social Democrat
List–I (d) Philosophical Anarchist Class
A. Dictatorship of the proletariat 8. The doctrine of overlapping con- (d) Ortega Y – The Revolt of
B. Communist Party sensus is advocated by Gasset the Masses
C. Hegemony (a) Berlin (b) Barry 14. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g
D. Polycentricism (c) Nozick (d) Rawls postulated the law “officials make
List–II 9. Who among the following first work for each other”?
(i) Gramsci developed the concept of general (a) Max Weber
(ii) Marx systems theory? (b) F.M. Marx
(iii) Lenin (a) Ludwig von Bertalanffy (c) H. Finer
(iv) Togliatti (b) Colin Cherry (d) N. Parkinson
 4 Solved Paper-II, June-2012
15. Which of the following pairs is not
correct?
(a) U.S.A. – Double
citizenship
(b) India – Procedure
established by
law
(c) Australia – Unitary form
of Government
(d) Switzerland – Plural
Executive
16. Michels’ Iron law of oligarchy
was formulated on the basis of the
study of
(a) German Social Democratic
Party
(b) British Labour Party
(c) Democratic Party of the U.S.A.
(d) Communist Party of the Soviet
Union
17. M o n t e s q u i e u ’ s t h e o r y o f
separation of powers emphasises
primarily on
(a) Accountability
(b) Efficiency
(c) Transparency
(d) Liberty
Each of the following four items consist
of two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R).
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true
and (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is flase.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
18. Assertion (A): The Information
Technology has made Staff Agency
indispensable.
Reason (R): Staff Agency assists the
Line Agency in decision making.
19. Assertion (A): While declaring war
on terrorism the US asserted that the
states which were not on the side of
the US were against it.
Reason (R): In the wake of war on
terrorism the US denied states the
liberty to be neutral.
20. Assertion (A): Ambedkar was in
favour of separate electorate for
depressed classes.
Reason (R): He was in agreement
with Gandhi.
21. Assertion (A): The presidential
system is successful only in the
U.S.A.
Reason (R): The United States of
America is the only nation with
minor contradictions that ensures
the success of the presidential
system.
22. Which one of the following was
not associated with the Hindustan
Republic Association?
(a) Chandrashekhar Azad
(b) Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) Bhagat Singh
23. Who gave the Indian National
Congress the Constitution and
made it a mass and cadre party?
(a) Tilak
(b) Gokhale
(c) Motilal Nehru
(d) Gandhi
24. Who appoints the Inter-State
Council?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Union Cabinet
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Union Home Minister
25. Identify the States whose State
Assemblies are meet at places
other than the State capital:
(a) Jammu-Kashmir & Madhya
Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Jammu-Kashmir and Maharashtra
26. W h i c h a m e n d m e n t o f t h e
Constitution of India limits the
number of Ministers?
(a) 73rd (b) 86th
(c) 87 th
(d) 91st
27. Which one of the following com-
mittees is not associated with
Panchayati Raj in India?
(a) Sadiq Ali Committee
(b) Dinesh Goswami Committee
(c) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(d) P.K. Thungan Committee
28. Identify the correct sequence
in which the following Deputy
Prime Ministers were appointed
in India?
(i) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(ii) Ch. Devi Lal
(iii) Ch. Charan Singh
(iv) Morarji Desai
Codes:
(a) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(b) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) (i) (iv) (iii) (iv)
29. Who of the following constituted an
oligarchy within the Constituent
Assembly of India?
(a) Nehru, Patel, Prasad, Azad
(b) Ambedkar, B.N. Rao, K.M.
Munshi, Nehru
(c) Patel, Azad, Munshi, Ambedkar
(d) Krishnamachari, Pannikar,
Nehru, Patel
30. Who describes Indian economy as
“Bullock Cart Capitalism”?
(a) Rajni Kothari
(b) Atul Kohli
(c) Granville Austin
(d) Lloyd and Sussane Rudolph
31. Who among the following defines
Public Administration as “the
activities of the Executive Braches
of the National, State and Local
Government”.?
(a) Morstein Marx
(b) Luther Gullick
(c) Herbert A. Simon
(d) Marshal E. Dimock
32. Public Accounts Committee has
the following Members. Tick the
correct answer:
Solved Paper-II, June-2012 5

Lok Rajya Total Concept (c) Rebuilding the economics of the

Sabha Sabha (i) Scalar North-American countries
(ii) Dissatisfier (d) Building the economics of
(a) 10 5 15
(iii) Zone of Acceptance
(b) 15 7 22 African countries
(iv) Incentive system
44. Russia has been given permanent
(c) 11 5 16 Select the correct order:
seat on the UN Security Council
(d) 17 10 27 Codes: by virtue of its being
33. ‘Span of Control’ is also known A B C D (a) Second most powerful country
as (a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) in the world
(a) The Repair Boss
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (b) Successor State to the former
(b) The Gang Boss
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) Soviet Union.
(c) Military Type of Foreman
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (c) Largest country in the world in
(d) Business Frontline
34. The word ‘Bureaucracy’ was first terms of area
39. Who stated that “Budget is a
coined by series of Goals with price tags (d) One of the oldest civilisations
(a) Max Weber attached”? in the world.
(b) Alexander Pope 45. The major argument of Neo-
(a) Wildavsky
(c) M. Crozier realism of Kenneth Waltz is that
(b) Walpole
(d) Vincent de Gournay (c) Betram Gross (a) Structures are more important
35. Which one of the following is the (d) Allen Schick than actors.
correct function of Staff Agency? 40. Which one of the following articles (b) Actors play more crucial role
(a) Issuing orders to the subordi- of the Constitution empowers than structures.
nates Parliament to create an All India (c) Human nature is crucial element
(b) Controlling the activities of the Service? in politics.
subordinates (a) Article 300 (d) The states override the const-
(c) Advising the Chief Executive (b) Article 312 raints imposed by international
(d) Providing Institutional Services (c) Article 320 structures.
36. Which of the following statements (d) Article 410 46. N o n - r e c i p r o c i t y p r i n c i p l e
is not correct with regard to 41. Which of the following resulted of India’s policy towards
Riggs’ Perspective of Societies? from Bretton Woods Conference? neighbouring countries envisages
(a) Fused societies are traditional. (a) United Nations
(a) hegemonic designs towards
(b) D e v e l o p e d s o c i e t i e s a r e (b) League of Nations
neighbouring countries.
diffracted societies. (c) Institutions meant for checking
(b) efforts for improving ties with
(c) Ascriptive values are found in nuclear proliferation
the neighbouring countries
diffracted societies. (d) World Bank and IMF
42. Which of the following is not without reciprocity.
(d) Traditional societies have
ascriptive values. the basic principle of Hans J. (c) non-aligned policy posture in
37. The Informal Channel of Commu- Morgenthou’s realism? the South Asian context.
nication is also know as (a) Politics is rooted in the human (d) t h e d i s c i p l i n i n g o f t h e
(a) Feedback nature. neighbouring countries.
(b) Grapevine (b) Politics is autonomous. 47. What is the correct chronological
(c) Loopline (c) National interest is defined in order of the developments listed
(d) Nerveline terms of power. below?
38. Match the thinkers with the (d) Politics is governed by Univer- (i) Indo-Soviet Treaty of Friend-
concepts: sal moral values. ship
Thinker 43. Marshall Plan was meant for (ii) India’s First Nuclear Explo-
(a) Building the economics of the sion at Pokhran
A. F.W. Taylor
B. Chester Bernard third world (iii) Cuban Missile Crises
C. Henry Fayol (b) Rebuilding Western European (iv) Adoption of Structural adjust-
D. Frederic Herzberg economics ment programme of India
 6 Solved Paper-II, June-2012
Select the correct answer from the
following codes:
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(c) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(d) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
48. Assertion (A): WTO pleads that
free trade brings prosperity for all
and therefore should be promoted.
Reason (R): Integration of the
countries with global economy
through the system of trade helps
them to export goods abroad as also
import goods which they need.
Answers with Explanations
1. (d) Science of Logic was not written
by Karl Marx. Science of Logic is the work
in which Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
outlined his vision of logic. Hegel’s logic
is a system of dialectics, i.e., a dialectical
metaphysics: It is a development of the
principle that thought and being constitute
a single and active unity.
2. (a) In the Introductory section of
his great work On Liberty J.S Mill states
clearly the limits to state power over the
liberty of the individual. In this book there
was a famous quote which ends with the
line “Over himself, over his own body
and mind, the individual is sovereign”.
3. (a) Rajni Kothari is one of the most
remarkable intellectuals independent India
has produced. Politics in India unfolds,
here with insight and acumen and the
vastness and confusion of the Indian
political scene is elaborately discussed.
This book is the first comprehensive
treatment of the Indian political system
examined from a Structural functional
approach and drawing together the
contribution of various disciplines into a
common framework.
4. (c) For Hobbes, Aristotle belongs
to a class of antique figures whose
attachment to notions of law outside
the commands of the sovereign of a
state provide a justification for rebellion
against sovereignty, leading to collapse
(a) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
a correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
49. 14th SAARC Summit held in New
Delhi in 2007, stressed
(a) Improving intra-regional
connectivity
(b) Commitment to bilateralism
within SAARC
into a natural state of war. Five anarchic
villains are mentioned by Hobbes: Plato,
Aristotle, Cicero, Seneca and Plutarch.
For Hobbes, living under law is necessary
for the benefits of civilisation to exist, and
law can only have real existence as the
laws of a sovereign which that sovereign
enforces. No higher laws can be used to
challenge the sovereign.
5. (a) The idea of dictatorship of
Proletariat was proposed by Karl Marx for
creation of Communist state. Communist
party for the first time was established by
Vladmir Lenin in Russia in 1912. The
Marxist intellectual Antonio Gramsci
developed the theory of cultural hegemony
to further the establishment of a working-
class worldview. Palmiro Togliatti was
an Italian politician and leader of the
Italian Communist Party from 1927. He
developed and named the polycentrism
theory which based on the concept of unity
in diversity within the communist parties
in all countries.
6. (b) Twentieth century jacobinism;
role of Marxism in democratic revolution
is a reports of the lectures and discussions
by M.N Roy in the All-India Political
Study Camp, Dehradun, May, 1940. In
this article titled “Voluntary Poverty”
Gandhi presents how he accepted poverty
willingly. Forced poverty can be tolerated.
(c) Connecting SAARC with other
regional organisations
(d) Not to extend SAARC member-
ship
50. Collective Security System of the
UN is based on the principle of
(a) All for one, one for all
(b) Imposing sanctions against the
belligerent state unilaterally
(c) Maintenance of security by the
major powers
(d) Balance of power to be maintained
by state of equilibrium.
But, imposing poverty on oneself willingly
is a matter of greatness. Dr. Babasaheb
Ambedkar quoted in “The bogey of forced
conversions”, in The Hindu that I was
born a Hindu but will not die one. The
idea of Integrated theory of evolution was
propagated by Aurobindo Ghosh.
7. (d) According to Dr. Dhawan,
Gandhi was a philosophical Anarchist
because he believed that the “the greatest
good of all can be realized only in
the classless, stateless democracy.”
While Gandhi advocated democracy, he
differentiated between direct democracy
and western democracy. Commenting
on the parliamentary system, Gandhi
says, “If India copies England, it is my
firm conviction that she will be ruined.
Parliaments are merely emblems of
slavery.”
8. (d) The term “overlapping consensus”
refers to how supporters of different
comprehensive normative doctrines can
agree on particular principles of justice
that underwrite a political community’s
basic social institutions. Comprehensive
doctrines can include systems of religion,
political ideology, or morality. Overlapping
consensus is a term coined by John Rawls
in A Theory of Justice and developed in
Political Liberalism.
9. (a) General systems theory (GST)
was outlined by Ludwig von Bertalanffy
Solved Paper-II, June-2012
(1968). Its premise is that complex
systems share organizing principles
which can be discovered and modeled
mathematically. The term came to relate
to finding a general theory to explain all
systems in all fields of science.
10. (d) Structural functionalists argued
that all political systems, including Third
World systems or developing countries
political system, could most fruitfully
be studied and compared on the basis of
how differing structures performed these
functions in the various political system.
Structural functionalism is based on a
systems model.
11.  (b) In his book, Mills presents his
theory of power and domination for mid-
twentieth century U.S. society. In the wake
of World War II and in the midst of the
Cold War era, Mills took a critical view on
the rise of bureaucratization, technological
rationality, and the centralization of power
in USA.
12. (b)
13. (c) The Ruling Class was written by
Gaetano Mosca in 1939. He was an Elitist
theorist. Vilfredo Pareto wrote The ruling
class in Italy before 1990.
14. (d) Parkinson’s law was first stated
by Cyril Northcote Parkinson as a part
of the first sentence of a humorous essay
published in The Economist in 1955.
Parkinson derives his law from “two
almost axiomatic statements”: An official
wants to multiply subordinates, not rivals.
“Officials make work for each other”.
15. (c) Australia’s government is,
a federal parliamentary constitutional
monarchy which means that there is a king
or queen who rules the nation but whose
power is checked by a constitution. That
constitution places power in the hands
of representatives and elected bodies, so
Australia is also a democracy.
16. (a) Iron law of oligarchy a principle
of organizational life under which even a
democratic organization will eventually
develop into a bureaucracy ruled by a
few individuals. Coined by the German
sociologist Robert Michels in his 1911
monograph Political Parties. As an
especially ironic example, he noted that in
a fundamentally democratic organization
such as his own German Social-Democratic
Party (SPD)—just as in the traditional
conservative parties—only a few people
in executive positions actually held power
and made all the important decisions.
17. (d) The Baron de Montesquieu’s
The Spirit of the Laws (1748), which
states that “There can be no liberty where
the legislative and executive powers are
united in the same person, or body of
magistrates or if the power of judging
be not separated from the legislative and
executive powers”. Montesquieu called
the idea of dividing government power
into three branches the “separation of
powers”. He thought it most important
to create separate branches of government
with equal but different powers. That way,
the government would avoid placing too
much power with one individual or group
of individuals.
18. (b) 19. (a)
20. (c) Ambedkar was supporting the
idea of separate electorate for depressed
class. On the other hand Gandhiji was
against it as he believed that this will
destroy the unity of India. Ambedkar latter
accepted Gandhiji’s suggestion because he
went on fast unto death.
21.   (a) The United States is the
originator and primary example of the
presidential system, a model that is
followed in only a few other democracies,
such as Argentina, Brazil, Mexico, and
the Philippines. In the U.S. presidential
system, the President is both the chief
executive of the government and the
head of state. The President oversees the
executive branch of government, which
includes the cabinet, or heads of various
executive departments, and various
administrative bureaus and agencies.
22.   (c) Hindustan Republican Association
(HRA) was a revolutionary organization
of India established in 1924 at village
Bholachang in East Bengal by Sachindra
Nath Sanyal, Narendra Mohan Sen and
Pratul Ganguly as an offshoot of Anushilan
Samiti. The perspective of the HRA was
socialistic and it wanted to establish a United
States of India by deposing the British. The
idea attracted the young champions; some
7
immediately joined the organization were
Bhagat Singh, Chandra Shekhar Azad,
Sukhdev, Ram Prasad Bismil, Roshan
Singh, Ashfaqulla Khan, Rajendra Lahiri
and many others.
23. (d)
24. (a) Article 263 of the Constitution
of India provides for the establishment of
an Inter-State Council. It says If at any
time it appears to the President that the
public interests would be served by the
establishment of a Council charged with
the duty of –
(a) inquiring into and advising upon
disputes which may have arisen
between States;
(b) i nvestigating and discussing
subjects in which some or all of
the States, or the Union and one or
more of the States, have a common
interest; or
(c) m aking recommendations upon
any such subject and, in particular,
recommendations for the better co-
ordination of policy and action with
respect to that subject,
it shall be lawful for the President by order
to establish such a Council, and to define
the nature of the duties to be performed
by it and its organization and procedure.”
25.   (d) The answer is correct for the
date of examination on 2012. The present
status is different as Jammu and Kashmir
is union territory now and Maharashtra’s
legislative assembly is now situated at
Nariman Point in Mumbai.
26. (d) The 91st Amendment to the
Constitution, limiting the size of the
Council of Ministers at the Centre and
the States to no more than 15 per cent of
the numbers in the Lok Sabha or the State
Legislature.
27.   (b) Dinesh Goswami Committee
was constituted for recommending
Electoral reform in India. The major
recommendations were as follows:
Time limit for bye-elections. Increase
in deposits from independents. A check
on advertisements on new papers and
strengthening of the election commission.
A series of legislative measures should be
set up to eradicate booth-capturing rigging
and intimidating. The committee also
 8 Solved Paper-II, June-2012
called for amendment of the anti-defection
law to restrict disqualification.
28.  (d) The first Deputy Prime Minister
of India was Vallabhbhai Patel, who was
also home minister in Jawaharlal Nehru’s
cabinet. After him in 1967 Morarji Desai
became the deputy Prime minister. The
next in line was Charan Singh 1979. Devi
Lal became Deputy Prime Minister in
1989 under National front government.
29.   (a) Granville Austin in his book
“The Indian Constitution” wrote that
Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel,
Rajendra Prasad and Abul Kalam Azad
were the “four leaders” of the Constituent
Assembly and constituted an “oligarchy”
within the assembly.
30.   (d) Llyod and Sussane Rudolph
were the two eminent political Scientist
who described the post Green revolution
transition of Indian economy as Bullock-
cart capitalism.
31. (c) According to H.A. Simon “By
Public Administration is meant in common
usage, the activities of the executive
branches of the national, state and local
governments.”
32. (b) The Public Accounts Committee
consists of not more than twenty-two
members, fifteen elected by Lok Sabha,
the lower house of the Parliament, and
not more than seven members of Rajya
Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament.
The members are elected every year
from amongst its members of respective
houses according to the principle of
proportional representation by means of
single transferable vote. The chairperson
is appointed by the Lok Sabha speaker.
The term of office of the members is
one year. It serves as a check on the
government especially with respect to its
expenditure bill and its primary function is
to examine the audit report of Comptroller
and Auditor General (C&AG) after it is
laid in the Parliament.
33. (c) Span of control is also knows as
Military Type of Foreman. This concept is
propagated by famous public administration
theorist F.W Taylor. He Introduced the idea
of Scientific management.
34. (d) The term “bureaucracy”
originated in the French language: it
combines the French word bureau – desk
or office – with the Greek word (kratos)
– rule or political power. The French
economist Jacques Claude Marie Vincent
de Gournay coined the word in the mid-
18th century.
35. (c) The primary purpose of staff
positions in most companies is to provide
assistance and specialized advice and
expertise to colleagues in line positions.
They basically help the chief executive in
taking an Informed decision.
36. (c)
37.  ( b) Grapevine is an informal,
unofficial and personal communication
channel or system that takes place within
the organization as a result of rumor
and gossip. It is a complex web of oral
information flow linking all the members
of the organization.
38. (d)
39. (a) This definition of Budget
was given by Aaron Wildavsky. Aaron
Wildavsky in his The Politics of Budgeting
Process has analysed the budgeting of
various countries along with problems
and complexities. He says that the final
structure of a budget is decided by various
bargains.
40. (b) Article 312 provides for the
creation of All India Services. An All
India Service is different from both the
Central and the State Services. Article 312
takes away to some extent the autonomy
of the States in this field by vesting in the
Centre the authority to create All India
Services. Article 312 provides that an All
India Service can be created only if the
Council of States (Rajya Sabha) declares,
by resolution supported by not less than a
two-thirds majority, that it is necessary in
the national interest to create one or more
such All India Services.
41. (d) The Bretton Woods Conference,
officially known as the United Nations
Monetary and Financial Conference,
was a gathering of delegates from 44
nations that met from July 1 to 22, 1944
in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire,
to agree upon a series of new rules for
the post-WWII international monetary
system. The two major accomplishments
of the conference were the creation of the
International Monetary Fund (IMF) and
the International Bank for Reconstruction
and Development (IBRD). The IBRD was
later named as world Bank.
42. (d) Political realism proposed
by Morgenthou believes that politics,
like society in general, is governed by
objective laws that have their roots in
human nature. Realism recognises that
the determining kind of interest varies
depending on the political and cultural
context in which foreign policy, not to
be confused with a theory of international
politics, is made. It does not give “interest
defined as power” a meaning that is fixed
once and for all.
43.   (b) The Marshall Plan, also known
as the European Recovery Program, was
a U.S. program providing aid to Western
Europe following the devastation of
World War II. It was enacted in 1948 and
provided more than $15 billion to help
finance rebuilding efforts on the continent.
It was the brainchild of U.S. Secretary of
State George C. Marshall, for whom it
was named, it was crafted as a four-year
plan to reconstruct cities, industries and
infrastructure heavily damaged during the
war and to remove trade barriers between
European neighbours – as well as foster
commerce between those countries and
the United States.
44.  (b) The USSR collapsed in late
1991. Eleven of the twelve members
of the Commonwealth of Independent
States signed a declaration on December
21, 1991, agreeing that “Member states
of the Commonwealth support Russia in
taking over the USSR membership in the
UN, including permanent membership in
the Security Council.” The succession
was supported by the USSR’s former
members and was not objected to by the
UN membership; Russia accounted for
about half the Soviet Union’s economy
and most of its land mass; in addition,
the history of the Soviet Union began in
Russia. If there was to be a successor to
the Soviet seat on the Security Council
among the former Soviet republics, these
factors made Russia seem like a logical
choice.
Solved Paper-II, June-2012
45.   (a) Structural realism as developed
by Waltz argues that the anarchic system
and the distribution of capabilities are
powerful constraints and inducements
which produce “sameness” in the
behaviour of states. Structural Realism
maintains that The International structure
or World order is determining factor of
all the action by State actors.
46. (b) The “Gujral Doctrine” sought
to end India’s endless contestations with
neighbours and offered to walk the extra
mile in resolving longstanding problem.
Gujral was aware of the dangerous
neighbourhood of India and this doctrine
basically projected India as a benign big
brother so that peace can be maintained.
As a benign big brother, India would
give concessions to all except Pakistan
without any reciprocal return expectation.
Thus, this policy was of Non-reciprocal
accommodation of India’s neighbours
was aimed for India’s own accelerated
economic development also.
47.  (b) Cuban missile crisis took place
in 1962 between USA and USSR. India
- Soviet Friendship treaty was signed in
1971. India’s first nuclear explosion test
was conducted at Pokhran on 18th May
1974. And the Adoption of Structural
adjustment programme in India started
in 1991 after the introduction of New
-Economic Policy in 1991.
48. (a)
49.   (a) The Fourteenth Summit
meeting of the South Asian Association
for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
held in New Delhi, India on April 3–4,
2007. The Heads of State or Government
recognised the importance of connectivity
9
in fulfilling these objectives. It was vital
to first have better connectivity within
South Asia and then with the rest of
the world. They agreed to improve
intra-regional connectivity, particularly
physical, economic and people-to-people
connectivity. They agreed to the vision of
a South Asian community, where there
was smooth flow of goods, services,
peoples, technologies, knowledge, capital,
culture and ideas in the region.
50. (a) Collective Security is currently
regarded as the most promising approach
to international peace. It is regarded as a
valuable device of crisis management in
international relations. Collective Security
is a device of crisis management which
postulates a commitment on the part of
all the nations to collectively meet an
aggression that may be committed by any
state against another.
qqq
 10
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-III, June-2012
1. Which among the following
statements is not correct?
(a) Post-behavioural political theory
interrelates value and fact.
(b) Post-behavioural political theory
is ethnocentric.
(c) Post-behavioural political theory
is tied to action and relevancy.
(d) Post-behavioural political theory
is change oriented.
2. Positive liberalism does not believe
in
(a) Welfare State
(b) Nanny State
(c) State as a moral agency
(d) Minimal State
3. Marx does not believe in
(a) Human consciousness deter-
mines social existence
(b) Ideas are the reflections of the
interplay of material forces
(c) The base determines the
superstructure
(d) Matter is active and dynamic
4. Rawlsian concept of justice is
10. Which one among the following
based on
(a) Distributive principle
(b) Agreement principle
(c) Difference principle
(d) Joint method principle
5. The term ‘Ideology’ was first used
in the year
(a) 1789 (b) 1792
(c) 1795 (d) 1797
6. Satyavir Ki Katha, translated into
Gujarati by Gandhiji was from
(a) The Prince
(b) Dialogues of Plato
(c) The Social Contract
(d) War and Peace
7. Who adopted communism to
Asiatic form?
(a) M.N. Roy
(b) Mao-Tse-Tung
(c) Lenin
(d) Trotsky
8. Which one among the following
statements is correct?
(a) Platonic justice is a legal
concept.
(b) The Greek word for Justice is
dikaiosune.
(c) Platonic justice meant true
in word and deed and paying
one’s debts to Gods and men.
(d) Platonic Justice consists in
conformity to the laws and
institutions laid down by the
Sovereign for his benefit and
enforced by his power.
9. Locke’s view on ‘state of nature’
is
(a) Pre-social
(b) Pre-political
(c) Pre-social and pre-political
(d) Social and Political
statements is true?
(a) The Prince deals with
providing requirements for
the maintenance of political
instability in the Republics.
(b) The Discourses expounds
the requirements for the
maintenance of political
instability in principalities.
(c) The Prince is concerned with
the qualities of Princes, the
Discourses place a greater
emphasis on the civic demands
on citizens.
(d) None of the above.
Solved Paper-III, June-2012
11. Who said: “Human nature is an
ensemble of social relations”?
(a) Gandhiji
(b) M.N. Roy
(c) Aurobindo
(d) Mao
12. Aurobindo is mainly famous
because of his
(a) Political Ideology
(b) Revolutionary Activities
(c) Life Divine
(d) Association with Mother
13. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Platonic justice
represents a disposition to do the
right thing.
Reason (R): It is good to be unjust
but bad to suffer injustice.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the right explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
14. Match the List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
List–I List–II
(Authors) (Books)
(A) Friedrich (i) The Politics
Hayek
(B) John Rawls (ii) Idea of
Justice
(C) Amartya (iii) The Road to
Sen Serfdom
(D) Plato (iv) A Theory of
Justice
Solved Paper-III, June-2012
Code:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
15. What is the correct sequence of
the following in the Aristotle’s
21. Which one of the following
Theory of Causation?
(i) Material cause
(ii) Formal cause
(iii) Final cause
(iv) Efficient cause
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
16. Who said that the structural–
functional approach was weak
in change, the social process
approach was weak in politics and
the comparative history approach
was weak in theory?
23. In which of the following forms
(a) Huntington
(b) Paul F. Kress
(c) Jean Blondel
(d) Samir Amin
17. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g
interpreted functionalism as an
alternative approach to Marxism?
(a) Paul F. Kress
(b) Nicholson and Reynolds
(c) W.G. Runciman
(d) Morton Kaplan
18. Which one of the following
has tried to give an essentially
engineering orientation to human
behaviour?
25. Match List–I with List–II and
(a) Input-output analysis
(b) Structural-functional approach
(c) Communications theory
(d) Behavioural approach
19. The characteristics of Almond’s
political system mostly resemble
those of the political system(s) of
(a) United States of America
(b) Scandinavian countries
(c) Developing countries
(d) Latin American countries
20. Who among the following identifies
political development with the
“institutionalisation of political
organisations and procedures”?
(a) Huntington
(b) Lucian Pye
(c) Organski
(d) Almond
approaches/theories was first
started as a critique of democracy
and socialism?
(a) Elite theory
(b) Structural–functional approach
(c) Communications theory
(d) Game theory
26. In which country all courts
22. Who among the following divided
the non-competitive party system
into one-party authoritarian, one-
party pluralistic and one-party
totalitarian?
(a) Alan Ball
(b) La Palombara and Myron
Weiner
(c) Harry Eckstein
(d) James Jupp
of Government is the second
chamber as indispensable part of
legislature?
(a) Presidential
(b) Parliamentary
(c) Unitary
(d) Federal
24. Which one of the following books
has a chapter on ‘Politics in
India’?
(a) The Civic Culture Revisited
(b) Politics and Government
(c) Political Development and
Social Change
(d) Comparative Politics Today
select the correct answer from the
codes given below the lists:
List–I List–II
(Form of (Name of the
Government) Country)
(A) Parliamentary, (i) The
Federal, United
Republican Kingdom
(B) Presidential, (ii) India
Federal,
Republican
11
(C) Parliamentary, (iii) France
Unitary,
Monarchical
(D) Parliamentary- (iv) The
cum- United
Presidential, States of
Unitary, America
Republican
Code:
A B C D
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv).
(d) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
including all levels of the State
Courts have the power of Judicial
review?
(a) India
(b) Switzerland
(c) America
(d) Australia
27. The Indian Federal System differs
from the American Federal
System in respect of the following:
(1) Representation of the States
in the Upper House of the
Federal Legislature.
(2) Existence of a Written
Constitution.
(3) Vesting of Residuary Powers.
(4) Dual Citizenship
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (1) and (2)
(b) (3) and (4)
(c) (1), (2) and (3)
(d) (4) only
28. Which one of the following is the
most important characteristic of
a Parliamentary Government?
(a) Majority Rule
(b) Rule of Law
(c) Direct election of Member of
Parliament
(d) Collective responsibility of the
Executive to the Legislature
 12
29. Which one of the following federal
systems was taken as a model by
K.C. Wheare for judging other
federal systems?
(a) Australian federal system
(b) American federal system
(c) Swiss federal system
(d) Canadian federal system
30. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer from
the codes.
Assertion (A): Presidential system
is suitable for meeting crises.
Reason (R): The President has a
fixed tenure.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
31. The Constituent Assembly was set
up under the
(a) Cripp Mission
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan
(c) Wavell Plan
(d) Nehru Report
32. Who said the following? ‘India’s
Constitution was born more in
fear and trepidation than in hope
and inspiration’
(a) Paul Brass
(b) Myron Weiner
(c) K.C. Wheare
(d) Jennings
33. Which of the following Articles
of the Constitution shields
legislation from being declared
unconstitutional and void?
(a) Art. 15 B (b) Art. 51 A
(c) Art. 31 B (d) Art. 29 A
34. Which of the following Amend-
ments to the Indian Constitution
has made Right to Education a
Fundamental Right?
(a) 92nd (b) 94th
(c) 93 rd
(d) 91st
35. Which of the following statements
is not correct?
(a) First Proclamation of Emer-
gency was declared in 1962.
(b) Second Proclamation of
Emergency was declared in
1971.
(c) Third Proclamation of Emer-
gency was declared in 1975.
(d) Second and Third Procla-
mations of Emergency were
revoked in 1978.
36. The power of Supreme Court
of India to decide the dispute
between the Centre and the States
falls under its
(a) Advisory Jurisdiction
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction
(c) Original Jurisdiction
(d) Advisory and Appellate Juris-
diction
37. Who tried to period Indian
politics in terms of the tussle
between a “demand polity” and
a “command polity”?
(a) Rajni Kothari
(b) Partha Chatterjee
(c) Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph
(d) Myron Weiner
38. Caste based reservations are
labelled as
(a) Affirmative Action
(b) Positive Discrimination
(c) State Intervention
(d) Society Egalitarianism
39. Which of the following was
headed by Raja Dhare and Nam
Devdhasal?
(a) Dalit Tiger
(b) Bheem Shakti
(c) Dalit Panther
(d) Dalit Elephant
40. Lloyd and Susanne Rudolf saw the
State in India as ‘Polymorphous’.
What does it mean?
(a) Creature of manifold forms
and orientation
(b) Creature of multiple layers
(c) Hybrid creature
(d) Constantly changing creature
Solved Paper-III, June-2012
41. Who is the author of ‘Political Eco-
nomy of Development in India’?
(a) Amartya Sen
(b) Subipta Kaviraj
(c) Pranab Bardhan
(d) Hanza Allavi
42. In order to ensure free and
fair elections and to conduct all
elections to the Panchayats, the
power is vested with
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
of India
(b) Chief Minister of the State
(c) State Election Commission
(d) Chief Secretary of the State
43. Assertion (A): The President of
India is the Constitutional Head of
the State.
Reason (R): All powers are vested
in the Council of Ministers headed
by the Prime Minister.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct explana-
tion of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
44. Match List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
List–I  List–II
(A) Emergence of (i) 1940
Muslim League
(B) Lucknow Pact (ii) 1906
(C) Motilal Nehru (iii) 1916
Report
(D) Two-Nation (iv) 1928
Theory
Code:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(d) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
45. What is the correct sequence of
the following Presidents of India?
Use the code given below:
Solved Paper-III, June-2012 13
(i) Dr. Zakir Hussain 48. According to Chester I. Barnard (c) Harmony and Cooperation
(ii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad which one of the following is (d) Economy, Cooperation and
(iii) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma not correct about an order to be restricted output.
(iv) R. Venkataraman authoritative? 54. Which of the following committee
(a) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (a) It should conform to the recommended two-tier Panchaya-
(b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) purpose of the organization. tiraj institutions?
(c) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (b) It should be intelligible. (a) Ashok Mehta Committee
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (c) It should be motivating mone- (b) G.V.K. Rao Committee
tarily. (c) R.R. Diwakar Committee
46. Consider the following statements:
(d) It should be feasible. (d) L.M. Singhvi Committee
In the area of organizational
49. According to Mooney, conferring 55. When was the Central Vigilance
principles
of specified authority by a higher Commission set up by the
(1) In working out organisa- authority is Government of India?
tional principles, Gulick (a) Decentralization (a) 1961 (b) 1964
was influenced by Fayol’s (b) Delegation (c) 1967 (d) 1971
fourteen principles. (c) Deconcentration 56. Arrange the following committees
(2) Urwick warns against the ‘use (d) Disintegration in chronological order and choose
of committees for the purpose 50. Who defined development adminis- the correct answer from the codes
of administration’ tration as “Action-oriented, goal- given below:
(3) Gulick gives no regard to the oriented administrative system”?
(i) Kripalani Committee
bases on which work may be (a) Fred W. Riggs
(ii) Santhanam Committee
divided. (b) Dwight Waldo
(iii) Tek Chand Committee
(4) Fayol believed in the principle (c) Robert Dahl
(iv) Vivian Bose Committee
of ‘unity of command’. (d) Edward Weidner
Codes:
Which of these statements is/are 51. According to David Nachmias and
D.H. Rosenbloom, which one of (a) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
correct? (b) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
the following is not a feature of
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
participatory bureaucracy?
(b) 1, 2 and 3 (d) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(a) Civil Service Associations to
(c) 1 and 4 57. Which of the following committees
protect them from political
(d) 1, 2 and 4 recommended Block Level Plan-
tyranny.
47. Match List–I with List–II and ning?
(b) High level of social representa-
select the correct answer from the tiveness in a national bureau- (a) Hanumantha Rao Committee
codes given below: cracy. (b) G.V.K. Rao Committee
List–I List–II (c) Participation of bureaucratic (c) L.N. Singhvi Committee
(A) Frederick (i) The Need employees in decisions. (d) Dantwala Committee
(d) Citizen participation in 58. Which among the following is not
Herzberg Hierarchy
bureaucratic policy making. a feature of Liberalisation?
(B) Abraham (ii) The existence
Maslow of ‘Clects’ 52. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g (a) Deregulation
introduced the concept of ‘Zone of (b) Debureaucratisation
(C) Fred W. (iii) Motivator -
Indifference’ in an organization? (c) Disinvestment
Riggs Hygiene
(a) Herbert Simon (d) Statisation
Approach
(b) Douglas McGregor 59. The institution of ‘Ombudsman’
(D) M.P. Follett (iv) Concept of
(c) Chester I. Barnard was first introduced in
Partnership
(d) Chris Argyris (a) Denmark
Codes: 53. Taylor’s concept of Mental (b) UK
A B C D Revolution stands for (c) Sweden
(a) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (a) Cooperation, Harmony and (d) Switzerland
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Restricted output 60. Given below are two statements,
(c) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (b) Restricted output and Coopera- one labelled as Assertion (A) and
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) tion the other labelled as Reason (R).
 14
Assertion (A): Talking about
responsibility, Follett maintains that
“the distinction between those who
manage and those who are managed
is somewhat fading.”
Reason (R): ‘Each individual
function must be seen in terms
of its interdependence with other
functions’ in the organization.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are
individually true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are
individually true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
61. Which of the following was
an important figure in the
development of liberal perspectives
on international politics?
(a) Thomas Hobbes
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Hans J. Morganthan
(d) Henry Kissinger
62. Match List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
List–I List–II
(A) Samuel P. (i) Retreat of
Huntington the State
(B) Joseph Nye (ii) World
Systems
(C) Susan (iii) Clash of
Strange Civilizations
(D) Immanuel (iv) Soft Power
Wallerstein Assertion (A): India is for nuclear
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) at the regional level.
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Reason (R): India’s nuclear policy
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) has dual objectives.
(d) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) Codes:
63. The Bretton Woods Agreement
(a) led to a campaign to save the
rainforest
(b) argues that the Soviet Union
was a success of the unmixed
economy
(c) led to the establishment of the
International Monetary Fund
(IMF)
(d) led to the establishment of the
World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
64. According to many realists, how is
international peace best secured?
(a) Concessions by peaceful States
to powerful ones.
(b) A balance of power between
States.
(c) Trying to spread democratic
values throughout the world.
(d) A worldwide federation of
States.
65. In the field of nuclear strategy
what does MAD stand for?
(a) Missiles Are Dangerous
(b) Mammals Are Doomed
(c) Make America Die
(d) Mutually Assured Destruction
66. Who said the following, “War is
Foreign Policy by other means”?
(a) Carl von Clausewitz
(b) Napoleon Bonaparte
(c) Quincy Wright
(d) Hugo Clausewitz
67. Non-alignment as India’s foreign
policy meant
(a) neutrality
(b) equidistance between the three
blocs during the cold war
(c) independence and judging
each issue on its relevance to
our national interest.
(d) interference into the internal
affairs of other States.
68. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R):
disarmament at the global level and
for a credible minimum deterrence
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
Solved Paper-III, June-2012
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
69. What is the correct sequence
of the following Ministers of
External Affairs of India?
(i) S.M. Krishna
(ii) Atal. B. Vajpayee
(iii) Pranab Mukherjee
(iv) Swarna Singh
Arrange the following chronolo-
gically from who came first:
(a) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
70. “Indira Doctrine” is considered
an important aspect of India’s
foreign policy for it defines
(a) The objectives of India’s
foreign policy.
(b) It equates India’s security
with that of the region and the
predominance of India.
(c) India’s security is coterminous
with the region and any
interference of external
powers is taken as a threat to
India’s security.
(d) Doctrine enunciated by Prime
Minister Indira Gandhi which
was for the neighbours.
71. The United Nations Charter is
mainly
(a) largely concerned with indivi-
dual human rights.
(b) wholly concerned with the
relationship between States.
(c) devoted to a wide range of
subjects including peace,
justice, freedom and economic
and social rights.
(d) devoted to duties and rights
of great, medium and small
powers.
72. International society tradition is
also known as the
(a) Anglo-American School of
International Relations.
(b) English School of International
Relations.
Solved Paper-III, June-2012
(c) European School of Interna-
tional Relations
(d) Alternative School of Interna-
tional Relations
73. The main purpose of the Indo-Sri
Lanka Accord was
(a) India’s war against Tamils.
(b) India’s intention to partition
Sri Lanka.
Answers with Explanations
1. (b) The post-behavioural political
theory made its domain of political
study global in nature. It eliminated
the ethnocentric nature presented in
behavioural approach. The central
feature of post-behavioural political
theory is its vehement opposition to
empiricism post-behavioural political
theory does not deny the importance
of empiricism in political science. It
believes that empiricism is a potent way
of making political science as a science.
The application of empirical data and
improved scientific methods will improve
its status and ensure viability. But it must
not be forgotten that political science is
a social science as well as a normative
science. Values and judgments pass
through all the aspects and corners of
politics.
2. (d) The concept of Minimal state
was related to the concept of negative
liberalism, which believes that state is a
necessary evil and should have minimal
role to play. The concept of positive
liberalism manifest a welfare state,
which plays a active role in providing the
socio-economic condition to its citizen
for the realization of liberty.
3. (a) with the social configuration of China or
4. (c) The difference principle is
the second part of the second principle
of John Rawls’s theory of justice. The
first principle requires that citizens
enjoy equal basic liberties. The first
part of the second principle requires fair
equality of opportunity. These rules have
(c) To end the ethnic strife
between the Sinhalese and
Tamils.
(d) To legalise Tamil Militant
groups.
74. The Asia-Pacific Economic Coop-
eration (APEC) forum
(a) is part of a more general trend
towards regional blocs.
(b) accounts for over half the
world’s GDP
priority over the difference principle;
the difference principle cannot justify
policies or institutions that abrogate
them. The difference principle governs
the distribution of income and wealth,
positions of responsibility and power,
and the social bases of self-respect. It
holds that inequalities in the distribution
of these goods are permissible only if
they benefit the least well-off positions
of society.
5. (d) The Oxford English Dictionary
notes that “Ideology” first appears in
English in 1796 via French philosopher
Antoine Destutt de Tracy. W. Taylor
writes, “Tracy read a paper and
proposed to call the philosophy of mind,
ideology.” In 1797, Taylor writes,
“Tracy...proposes that the science which
results from this analysis, be named
ideology, or the science of ideas, in
order to distinguish it from the ancient
metaphysics.”
6. (b)
7. (b) Mao Tse-tung get influenced
by the European concept of communism
which was propagated by Karl Marx. But
Mao transformed its while implementing
it in china. He reframed it in accordance
Asiatic societies. His idea of communism
is also famously known as Maoism.
8. (b)
9. (b) In Locke’s state of nature, no
person has control over another, natural
law governs and renders all people equal,
and every individual holds the executive
15
(c) has member states which
include authoritarian regimes
as well as democracies.
(d) All of the above are true.
75. The US approach to the Cold War
was originally set out in
(a) The Nixon Doctrine
(b) The Marshall Plan
(c) The Monroe Doctrine
(d) The Truman Doctrine
power of natural law. This means state
of nature does not have any political
authority. In state of nature people are
governed by ‘Natural Laws’.
10. (c) Machiavelli’s primary
assertion is that a leader is there to make
the difficult decisions for his subjects.
It is not his responsibility to be liked
or loved, but instead to be feared and
respected that isn’t to say that he should
be cruel. The prince is there to provide
for his subjects stability and governance.
The Prince is a shockingly direct how-
to manual for rulers who aim either to
establish and retain control of a new state
or to seize and control an existing one.
11. (b)
12. (c) “Life Divine” is Sri
Aurobindo’s principal philosophic
work, a theory of spiritual evolution
culminating in the transformation of man
from a mental into a supramental being
and the advent of a divine life upon earth.
13. (c) Justice to Plato is like a
manuscript which exists in two copies,
and one of these is larger than the other.
It exists both in the individual and the
society. But it exists on a larger scale
and in more visible form in the society.
Individually “justice is a ‘human
virtue’ that makes a man self consistent
and good: Socially, justice is a social
consciousness that makes a society
internally harmonious and good.”
14. (c)
15. (d) Aristotle’s four causes are
each a different way of explaining why
a thing is as it is. The four causes are
 16
four aspects of the purpose of a thing.
All four causes together bring a complete
view of the object under consideration.
To understand an object, one must
understand:
•• material cause – the matter underly-
ing that form, a material
•• efficient cause – the agency that
brings about the change, something
to act upon it, an if - then sequence
of causality, cause based on what
went on before the current state
•• formal cause – the form received
by a thing, a form taken by the
movement or development
•• the final cause – the purpose or goal
served by the change
16. (a)
17. (c) System approach has been
cultivated as an alternative approach to
Marxism. W.G. Runciman rightly says,
“Functionalism can indeed be interpreted
as a conscious alternative to Marxism.
Some of its writers have wanted to
interpret it as a political ideology condi-
tioned by the structure of American
capitalism.”
18. (c) Karl Deutsch developed
it and applied it in Political Science.
Deutsch stated that the political system
is a network of communication channels
and it is self-regulative. Additionally,
he emphasized that the government is
responsible for administering different
communication channels. This approach
treats the government as the decision
making system. Deutsch described that
there are four factors of analysis in
communication theory which include
lead, lag, gain and load.
19. (a) •• Leadership of the Prime Minister
20. (a) In his book “Political Deve-
lopment and Political decay” Samuel
P. Huntington expressed political
development as the process of instu-
tionalisation of political organizations
and procedures.
21. (a) Elite theory argues either that
democracy is a utopian folly, as it is
traditionally viewed in the conservative
Italian tradition, or that democracy is
not realizable within capitalism, as is
the view of the more Marxist-compatible
contemporary elite theory permutation.
22. (b)
23. (d) Second Chamber or Upper
house is basically council of states. It
represent the collective will of all the
constituent unit of a federation. Under
federal form of government having
Second Chamber (Upper house or Rajya
Sabha) is extremely necessary to ensure
the federal nature of Polity.
24. (d) In “Comparative Politics
Today” the 17th chapter is ‘Politics in
India’ it was written by Subrata K.
Mitra. The book was written by G.
Bingham Powell, Russell J. Dalton,
Irvine Kaare Strom.
25. (d)
26. (c) Judicial Review is the power
of the U.S. Supreme Court to review
laws and actions from Congress and the
President to determine whether they are
constitutional. This is part of the checks
and balances that the three branches of
the federal government use in order to
limit each other and ensure a balance of
power. Judicial review was established in
the landmark Supreme Court decision of
Marbury v. Madison. In the 1821 case of
Cohens v. Virginia, the Supreme Court
expanded its power of constitutional
review to include the decisions of state
criminal courts.
27. (b) the new elected Labour government in
28. (d) Features of Parliamentary
Government
•• Nominal or Titular Head
•• Collective Responsibility and
Individual Responsibility
•• Harmony between Executive and
Legislature
•• Rigidity of Party Discipline
29. (b) K.C. Wheare in his
comparative study of various forms of
federal system, considered American
federal system as the Model federal
system. He categorized various federal
government in world by cross checking
there with American model of federal
system.
30. (b) The presidential form of
government is that in which the executive
is not responsible to the legislature. An
example of such a system of Government
is the United States of America (U.S.A)
Solved Paper-III, June-2012
Essential features
1. The president is the real executive.
There is no nominal or ceremonial
executive. All the powers are
vested in the hands of the president.
2. The powers of the three organs
namely, legislature, executive and
judiciary are separated and vested
in different persons.
3. Though the three organs of the
government are kept apart, they
are also connected by the system of
checks and balances. Each organ
of government exercises checks on
the other two organs so that a sort
of balance is established.
4. The tenure of the president is
fixed. The tenure of office cannot
be lessened or increased under any
circumstances. President can be
removed by the legislature only by
a process of impeachment.
31. (b) The Cabinet Mission Plan was
a statement made by the Cabinet Mission
and the Viceroy, Lord Wavell, on May
16, 1946, that contained proposals
regarding the constitutional future of
India in the wake of Indian political
parties and representatives not coming
to an agreement. In September 1945,
Britain expressed its intention of creating
a Constituent Assembly for India that
would frame India’s Constitution; the
Cabinet Mission was sent to India in
March 1946 to make this happen.
32. (a)
33. (c) Article 31-C was to usher in
the country at an early date the era of a
socialist pattern of society. Article 31-C
had two parts. The first part protected
a law giving effect to the policy of the
state towards securing the principles
specified in Articles 39 (b) and (c)
from being challenged on the ground of
infringement of the Fundamental Rights
under Article 14, 19 and 31. The second
part of Article 31-C originally sought
to oust the jurisdiction of the courts to
find out whether the law in question gave
effect to the principles of Articles 39 (b)
and 39 (c).
Solved Paper-III, June-2012
34. (*) The Constitution (Eighty-sixth
Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article
21-A in the Constitution of India to
provide free and compulsory education
of all children in the age group of six to
fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in
such a manner as the State may, by law,
determine.
35. (d) The first proclamation
instance was between 26 October 1962 to
10 January 1968 during the India-China
war, when “the security of India” was
declared as being “threatened by external
aggression”. The second instance was
between 3 December 1971 to 21 March
1977, which was originally proclaimed
during the Indo-Pakistan war. It was later
extended along with the third proclamation
between 25 June 1975 to 21 March 1977
under controversial circumstances of
political instability under Indira Gandhi’s
prime ministership, when emergency
was declared on the basis of “internal
disturbance”.
36. (c) Original jurisdiction of
supreme court refers to a matter for
which the supreme court is approached
first. In the case of the Supreme Court
in India, its original jurisdiction is
covered under Article 131. It involves
the following cases:
•• Any dispute between the Indian
Government and one or more
States.
•• Any dispute between the Indian
Government and one or more States
on one side and one or more States
on the other side.
•• Any dispute between two or more
States.
•• Article 32 of the Constitution
provides original jurisdiction
to the SC for matters regarding
the enforcement of Fundamental
Rights.
•• The SC can issue writs, directions,
or orders including writs in the
nature of mandamus, habeas
corpus, quo warranto, prohibition
and certiorari.
•• The SC also has the power to direct
the transfer of a criminal or civil
case from the High Court in one
State to the High Court in another
State.
•• It can also transfer cases from one
subordinate court to another State
High Court.
•• If the SC deems that cases involving
the same questions of law are
pending before it and one or more
High Courts, and that these are
significant questions of law, it can
withdraw the cases before the High
Court or Courts and dispose off all
these cases itself.
•• The Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996 gives the SC the authority
to initiate international commercial
arbitration.
37. (c) vising them. For all these functions, the
38. (b) Protective discrimination is the
policy of granting special privileges to
the downtrodden and the underprivileged
sections of society. These are affirmative
action programs, most visible in both
the United States and India, where there
has been a history of racial and caste
discrimination.
39. (c) Educated youth from the
slums of Mumbai, India started the
Dalit Panther Movement (DPM) i n aid and advise the President, who shall
June 1972, inspired by Dr. Bhimrao
Ambedkar and the U.S. Black Panthers.
DPM co-founders Namedo Dhasal, Raja
Dhale, J. V. Pawar, and Arun Kamble
were poets and writers. Their anti-
establishment poetry and short stories
published in Dhasal’s magazine Vidroh
(“Revolt”) were powerful realistic
descriptions of the oppression of Dalits
and their revolutionary struggles for
change.
40. (a) 2
41. (c) Pranab Bardhan examines
the political and social constraints on
Indian development in his book “Political
Economy of Development in India”.
Bardhan comments on the process of
liberalization in the 1990’s and examines
the feasibility of the exercise in the light
17
of ground realities. This ambitious and
controversial book is essential reading
for students of economics, politics and
the general interested reader.
42. (c) Under Article 243K of the
Constitution of India, State Election
Commission has been entrusted with
the function of conducting free, fair
and impartial elections to the local
bodies in the state. State election
commission carries out activities related
to preparation of wards/election division
as per local bodies rules, decision of
boundaries and distribution of seats
along with preparation of voters list
for the local bodies organizations like
Gram Panchayat, Taluka and District
Panchayat/Municipality and Municipal
Corporation of the state and conducting
general/mid-term/bye-elections and super-
authority is vested in the State Election
Commission under Article 243K under
which it has been empowered with
Superintendence, Direction and Control
of elections of local bodies.
43. (a) The constitutional head of the
Executive of the Union is the President.
Article 74(1) of the Constitution provides
that there shall be a Council of Ministers
with the Prime Minister as its head to
exercise his/her functions in accordance
to the advice. The real executive power
is thus vested in the Council of Ministers
with the Prime Minister as its head.
44. (b)
45. (b) List of Presidents of India is
as follows:
S.No Name Period
1 Rajendra Prasad 26-Jan-1950 to
13-May-1962
Sarvepalli 13-May-1962 to
Radhakrishnan 13-May-1967
Zakir Hussain 13-May-1967 to
3-May-1969
Varahagiri 3-May-1969 to
3
Venkata Giri 20-Jul-1969
Muhammad 20-Jul-1969 to
Hidayatullah 24-Aug-1969
 18 Solved Paper-III, June-2012

4 Varahagiri 24-Aug-1969 to 49. (b) According to Mooney, delega-
Venkata Giri 24-Aug-1974 tion means conferring of specified
Fakhruddin Ali 24-Aug-1974 to authority by a higher to a lower authority.
Ahmed 11-Feb-1977 It means that delegation is the devolution
5
Basappa Danappa 11-Feb-1977 to of authority by a superior person to
Jatti 25-Jul-1977 his agent or subordinate subject to his
6 Neelam Sanjiva 25-Jul-1977 to supervision and control. Legally, the
Reddy 25-Jul-1982 delegated authority still belongs to the
7 Giani Zail Singh 25-Jul-1982 to principal, but in practice, its exercise is
25-Jul-1987
allowed to the subordinate or agent.
Ramaswamy 25-Jul-1987 to 50. (d) Edward Weidner defined
8 Venkataraman 25-Jul-1992 development administration as “an action-
9 Shankar Dayal 25-Jul-1992 to oriented, goal-oriented administrative
Sharma 25-Jul-1997 system”. In addition, he observed
10 Kocheril Raman 25-Jul-1997 to that development administration is the
Narayanan 25-Jul-2002
process of guiding an organization
11 A.P.J. Abdul 25-Jul-2002 to towards the achievement of progressive
Kalam 25-Jul-2007
political, economic and social objectives
12 Pratibha Patil 25-Jul-2007 to
that are authoritatively determined in one
25-Jul-2012
manner or another.
13 Pranab Mukherjee 25-Jul-2012 to
25-Jul-2017 51. (a) •• A district should be the first point
14 Ram Nath Kovind 25-Jul-2017 till
52. (c) In order to substantiate Autho-
now rity, Chester Barnard used a concept
called as the Zone of Indifference. Within
46. (d)  47. (a)
the organization, individuals carry Zone
48. (c) Barnard formulated two of Indifference as well as Zone of Denial.
interesting theories: one of authority and There are individuals who have more of
the other of incentives. Both are seen in Zone of Indifference. On the other hand,
the context of a communication system there are also individuals who have more
grounded in seven essential rules: of Zone of Denial. An individual who
•• The channels of communication carries of Zone of Indifference, command
should be definite; issued towards them is more likely to
•• Everyone should know of the fall within the Zone of Indifference
channels of communication; and thereby will be complied. On the
other hand, Command issued towards
•• Everyone should have access to the
the individuals having more of Zone of
formal channels of communication;
Denial is more likely to fall within the
•• Lines of communication should be
Zone of Denial and thereby is liable to
as short and as direct as possible;
be disobeyed. The executives within
•• Competence of persons serving as
the organization should always strive to
communication centres should be
increase the Zone of Indifference while
adequate; decreasing the Zone of Denial. This
•• The line of communication should can be done by working on individual’s
not be interrupted when the Contribution-Satisfaction Equilibrium.
organization is functioning; Zone of Indifference or Denial refers
•• Every communication should be to a psychological condition of being
authenticated. obedient or disobedient.
Thus, what makes a communication 53. (c) Taylor introduced the concept
authoritative rests with the subordinate, of “Mental Revolution”. He said that the
rather than with his superior. management and workers should have a
positive attitude towards each other. This
will result in close cooperation between
them. This will increase productivity and
profits.
54. (a) In December 1977, the Janta
Government appointed a committee
on Panchayati Raj institutions under
the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta. It
submitted its report in August 1978 and
made 132 recommendations to revive
and strengthen the declining Panchayati
Raj System in the country. Its main
recommendations are:
•• The three-tier system of Panchayati
Raj should be replaced by the two-
tier system, that is, Zila Parishad
at the district level, and below it,
the Mandal Panchayat consisting
of a group of villages covering a
population of the 15000 to 20000.
for decentralization under popular
supervision below the state level.
•• Zila Parishad should be the executive
body and made responsible for
planning at the district level.
•• There should be an official
participation of political parties at
all levels of Panchayat elections.
•• The Panchayati Raj institutions
should have compulsory powers
of taxation to mobilize their own
financial resources.
55. (b) Central Vigilance Commission
is an apex Indian governmental body
created in 1964 to address governmental
corruption. In 2003, the Parliament
enacted a law conferring statutory status
on the CVC.
56. (d)
57. (d) The Working Group on Block
level Planning headed by Prof. M.L.
Dantwala submitted a report in 1978.
It identified the remoteness of planning
agencies, at the District Level from
the grassroots as the major weakness
of local area planning. Dantwala
committee made the recommendation
that Block level planning, (the same
area which was covered by Community
Solved Paper-III, June-2012
Development Blocks) should be the
appropriate sub-state planning level for
proper appreciation of the felt needs of
the people.
58. (d) Features of Liberalisation:
(i) Deregulation (Freedom of opening/
starting production units)
(ii) Use of new machines and tech-
nology.
(iii) Debureaucratization (No gover-
nment interference in production)
(iv) Free flow of foreign investment.
(v) Disinvestment (sale of shares in
PSUs to public)
59. (c) Ombudsman is an official
who is charged with representing the
interests of the public by investigating
and addressing complaints of mal-
administration or a violation of rights.
The ombudsman is usually appointed by
the government or by parliament but with
a significant degree of independence.
Officially the institution of ombudsman
was inaugurated in the year 1809 in
Sweden. This institution did not become
very famous till it was adopted by
Denmark.
60. (b) than simply material capabilities, shape
61. (b) Liberal Internationalism
emerged during the nineteenth century,
notably under the auspices of British
Foreign Secretary and Prime Minister
Lord Palmerston, and was developed in
the second decade of the 20th century
under U.S. President Woodrow Wilson.
In this form it became known as
Wilsonianism.
62. (a)
63. (c) The Bretton Woods Institutions
are the World Bank and the International
Monetary Fund (IMF). They were
set up at a meeting of 43 countries in
Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, USA
in July 1944. Their aims were to help
rebuild the shattered postwar economy
and to promote international economic
cooperation.
64. (b) Some realists maintain that the
presence of an especially powerful state
facilitates peace. A preponderant power,
so the argument goes, is likely to feel
secure because it is so powerful relative
to its competitors; therefore, it will have
little need to use force to improve its
position in the balance of power.
65. (d) Mutually Assured Destruction,
or mutually assured deterrence (MAD),
is a military theory that was developed
to deter the use of nuclear weapons. The
theory is based on the fact that nuclear
weaponry is so devastating that no
government wants to use them.
66. (a) Carl Von Clausewitz was
one of the first writers to condemn
the militarism of the Prussian general
staff and its war-proneness, based on
Clausewitz’s argument that “war is a
continuation of politics by other means.”
67. (c) Non-alignment means a foreign
policy which while keeping herself free
from cold war and military alliances,
actively participates in international
relations. It means a foreign policy based
on national interest as well as on the
demands of international objectives of
peace and security.
68. (a)
69. (a) The Minister of External
Affairs or simple words the Foreign
Minister is the head of the Ministry of
External Affairs of the Government of
India. The first Foreign Minister of India
was the former first Prime Minister of
India Shri Jawaharlal Nehru. Who hold
the post of Foreign Minister throughout
his 17-year premiership of the country;
he remains the country’s longest-serving
Foreign Minister.
Swaran Singh 18 July 1964 to
14 Nov. 1966
Atal Bihari 26 March 1977 to
Vajpayee 28 July 1979
(Janata Party )
Pranab Mukherjee 10 February 1995
to 16 May 1996
S. M. Krishna 22 May 2009 to
26 Oct. 2012
Subrahmanyam 30 May 2019
Jaishankar - Incumbent
19
70. (c) India has always felt that it
has a right and a duty to protect and
support its South Asian brethren. In
the 20th century, this sustained belief
was known as the “Indira Doctrine,”
and it justified Indira Gandhi’s decision
to support East Pakistan militarily in
1971, to help it secure independence and
become Bangladesh. The Indira Doctrine
was essentially India’s Monroe Doctrine;
it declared India’s intent to keep foreign
powers away from its immediate sphere
of influence.
71. (c) The UN Charter sets out four
main purposes: Maintaining worldwide
peace and security. Developing
relations among nations. Fostering
cooperation between nations in order
to solve economic, social, cultural, or
humanitarian international problems.
72. (b) The English School of interna-
tional relations theory also referred to as
liberal realism, the International Society
school or the British institutionalists. It
maintains that there is a ‘society of states’
at the international level, despite the
condition of anarchy. The English school
stands for the conviction that ideas, rather
the conduct of international politics, and
therefore deserve analysis and critique. In
this sense it is similar to constructivism,
though the English School has its roots
more in world history, international law
and political theory, and is more open to
normative approaches than is generally
the case with constructivism.
73. (c)
74. (d) The Asia-Pacific Economic
Cooperation (APEC) Forum is the
main forum for promoting growth,
technical and economic cooperation,
trade facilitation and liberalization, and
investment in the Asia-Pacific region.
It was created in 1989, at the behest of
Australia and Japan, to strengthen the
community of the Asia-Pacific region.
It has 21 members, which are known
as “economies”. These are: Australia;
Brunei Darussalam; Canada; Chile;
China; Hong Kong; Indonesia; Japan;
Republic of Korea; Malaysia; Mexico;
 20
New Zealand; Papua New Guinea; Peru;
Philippines; Russia; Singapore; Chinese
Taipei; Thailand; United States and Viet
Nam. The moratorium was revoked in
2010 with regard to the entry of new
members. However, this issue has not
been addressed since then. The last
economies to join were Peru, Russia and
Vietnam in 1998. Together, these 21
economies currently represent the most
dynamic economic region in the world
with 40% of world’s population, 60% of
global GDP and 50% of total trade.
75. (d) The Truman Doctrine was
issued by President Harry S. Truman in
Solved Paper-III, June-2012
1947. In this doctrine, President Truman
said that the United States would go to
whatever lengths possible to contain
the spread of communism and stop the
United States’ former ally, the Soviet
Union. This doctrine determined the US
cold war strategy.
qqq
Solved Paper-II, December-2012 21

UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, December-2012
1. In Hegel’s notion the highest 6. Match List–I with List–II and 8. Match List–I with List–II and
possible achievement of Mind as select the correct answer from the select the correct answer from the
expressed in social life was in codes given below: codes given below:
List–I List–II
(a) The Contemporary Prussian List–I  List–II (A) Perpetual peace 1. Plato
State (A) On Liberty 1. Amartya (B) Golden Mean 2. Kant
(b) Rome Sen (C) Analogy of the 3. Aristotle
(c) Athens (B) Lectures on 2. T.H. cave
(d) Contemporary Great Britain the Principles Green (D) Fortune as a 4. Machia-
2. Machiavelli advised the Prince to of Political woman velli
pursue Obligation Codes:
(C) Idea of Justice 3. Robert A B C D
(a) Moderate behaviour
Nozick (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) Extreme generosity (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) Perfect strictness (D) Anarchy, State 4. J.S. Mill
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) Great kindness and Utopia
(d) 4 3 2 1
3. Which is not a part of Rawl’s well Codes: Given below are two statements, one
ordered society? A B C D labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
(a) 3 1 2 4 labelled as Reason (R). Select the
(a) Stable (b) Efficient
(b) 1 3 2 4 correct answer from the codes given
(c) Just (d) Equal below:
(c) 2 4 3 1
4. Who among the following wrote, 9. Assertion (A): Marx was a revolu-
(d) 4 2 1 3
“Laws are the rules of just and tionary.
7. Match List–I with List–II and
unjust; nothing being reputed Reason (R): Marx was not concerned
select the correct answer from the
unjust that is not contrary to some about the processes of history.
codes given below:
law”? Codes:
List–I List–II
(a) Bentham (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(A) Justice as one 1. Plato
(b) Hegel (R) is the correct explanation
person, one of (A).
(c) Hobbes duty, one class (b) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(d) Rousseau one work but (R) is not the correct
5. Arrange the following works of (B) Justice as 2. Aristotle explanation of (A).
Rousseau chronologically, using fairness (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
the codes given below: (C) Justice as 3. Rawls (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(A) The Social Contract proportionate 10. A s s e r t i o n ( A ) : A r i s t o t l e i s
(B) A Discourse on the Arts and equality justifiably called the Father of
Political Science.
Sciences (D) Justice as the 4. Thrasy-
Reason (R): His criticism of Plato’s
(C) Emile interest of the machas
idealism justifies this claim.
(D) A Discourse on the Origin of strong
Codes:
Inequality Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and
Codes: A B C D (R) is the correct explanation
(a) D, C, B, A (a) 1 2 3 4 of (A).
(b) A, C, D, B (b) 2 1 3 4 (b) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(c) C, A, B, D (c) 2 1 4 3 but (R) is not the correct
(d) B, D, C, A (d) 1 3 2 4 explanation of (A).
 22
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
11. The operational part of the
general systems theory in social
sciences has been developed first
in
(a) Psychology
(b) Sociology
(c) Political Science
(d) Anthropology
12. Who said, “Functionalism can
indeed be interpreted as a conscious
alternative to Marxism”?
(a) W.G. Runciman
(b) Robert K. Merton
(c) Oran Young
(d) David Easton
13. Who among the following stated
that a developing society in order
to reach the goals of development
would have to pass through the
stages of political unification,
industrialization, national welfare
and abundance?
(a) Rustow
(b) Organski
(c) Lucian Pye
(d) David Apter
14. Which one of the following pairs
is not correctly matched?
(a) Lucian Pye : Modernisation
Theory
(b) Wallerstein : World System
Theory
(c) Theda Skocpol : New
Institut-
ionalism
(d) Karl Deutsch : Communi-
cations
Theory
15. Which one of the following pairs
is not correctly matched?
(a) Pareto : The concept of
residues
(b) Michels : The concept of
mass mind
(c) Mills : The concept of
political formula
(d) Gasset : The theory of the
masses
16. The concept of civic culture
developed out of a survey of
(a) Mexico, India, Pakistan,
U.S.A. and U.K.
(b) U.S.A., U.K., Mexico,
Germany and Italy.
(c) U.S.A., U.K., Australia,
Pakistan and India.
(d) Australia, Canada, U.S.A.,
U.K. and France.
17. Unequal exchange is the formula-
tion of
(a) Samir Amin
(b) Amartya Sen
(c) Paul Sweezy
(d) Andre Gunder Frank
18. Duverger’s classification of the
party system is derived from the
experience of political parties in
(a) Western Europe
(b) All the democracies of the
world
(c) Party system in the developing
world
(d) Political party system in the
communist world
19. Which of the following statements
are correct about the President of
America?
1. He is the head of the State
and also the head of the
Government.
2. All executive powers are vested
in him.
3. He is bound by the advice of his
Cabinet.
4. He has the power to dissolve
the legislature.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 are correct.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(d) 1 and 2 are correct.
20. Which one of the following is not a
feature of F.M. Marx’s guardian
bureaucracy?
(a) Custodian of Public interest
(b) Competent
(c) Authoritarian
(d) Corrupt
Solved Paper-II, December-2012
21. Which of the following Committee
was appointed by the Government
of India to Identify the creamy
layer among Backward Classes
in India?
(a) Justice R.N. Mishra
Committee
(b) Justice R.N. Madholkar
Committee
(c) Justice Ram Nandan Com-
mittee
(d) Justice Rajender Sachar Com-
mittee
22. Who described Indian Politics as
“Politics of Scarcity”?
(a) Myron Weiner
(b) Paul R. Brass
(c) Atul Kohli
(d) Morris-Jones
23. Which Congress President during
British Raj initiated the idea of a
Planning Commission?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Maulana Azad
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose
24. Which of the following statements
are correct about Indian Govern-
ment?
(i) Rajya Sabha represents the
local interests of the States.
(ii) A member of Rajya Sabha
must be a resident of the State
from which he is elected.
(iii) Number of seats allotted to a
State has to be proportionate
to its population.
(iv) The term of a member of
Rajya Sabha is same as that
of Senator in the US.
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (ii)
25. Who of the following was the first
Satyagrahi of the Individual Civil
Disobedience Movement started
by Gandhiji in October 1940?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) J.B. Kripalani
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
Solved Paper-II, December-2012
26. Who prefers to characterize the
Indian federalism as “bargaining
federalism”?
(a) A.K. Chanda
(b) Morris Jones
(c) K.C.Wheare
(d) D.D. Basu
27. Who was the Chairman of Mandal
Commission?
(a) B.N. Mandal
(b) B.P. Mandal
(c) D.L. Mandal
(d) R.N. Mandal
28. When was the Inter-State Council
set up in India?
(a) 1987 (b) 1989
(c) 1990 (d) 1992
29. When were the Lok Sabha rules
amended to provide for Department
Related Parliamentary Standing
Committees?
(a) 1988 (b) 1989
(c) 1991 (d) 1995
30. Which one of the following Acts/
Reports created the Federal Court
in India?
(a) Government of India Act,
1909
(b) Government of India Act,
1919
(c) Montague-Chelmsford Report
(d) Government of India Act,
1935
31. The Book ‘Introduction to Public
Administration’ was authored by
(a) W.F. Willoughby
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) M.P. Follet
(d) Leonard D. White
32. The concept of ‘Informal Organi-
sation’ was profounded by
(a) F.W. Taylor
(b) Herbert Simon
(c) Elton Mayo
(d) F.M. Marx
33. ‘Clect’ is the sub-system of Riggs’
Prismatic society
(a) Social system
(b) Administrative system
(c) Economic system
(d) Political system
34. ‘Jacksonian Theory’ is also called
(a) Merit system
(b) Outsource theory
(c) Spoils system
(d) Contract system
35. Which of the four major issues
of Public Administration were
debated in the Minnowbrook
Conference, 1968?
(a) Relevance, values, equity and
change.
(b) History, qualities, values and
development.
(c) Text, context, relevance and
status.
(d) Norms, values, context and
progress.
36. Who said, “Successful Management
involves Management by Objec-
tives”?
(a) F.W. Taylor
(b) Peter F. Drucker
(c) Kothari Committee
(d) Edwin B. Flippo
37. In which book of the following,
Robert Dahl explained the Theory
of Decision Making?
(a) Democracy, Liberty and
Equality
(b) Democracy at Cross Roads
(c) Who Governs?
(d) Modern Political Analysis
38. Which Committee recommended
“Unified Grading Structure” for
the British Civil Service?
(a) Masterman
(b) Fulton
(c) Asheton
(d) MeGraw
39. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Find the correct answer using the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Adequate measures
must be taken by the Government to
ensure the stoppage of the practice
of corruption.
Reason (R): Corruption leads to
decline of democratic process.
23
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not correct explanation
of (A).
(b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is correct explanation of
(A).
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
40. Match the following:
The Office of Ombudsman was
set up in these countries in the
following years:
 (Countries)  (Years)
(A) Sweden 1. 1967
(B) Finland 2. 1809
(C) New Zealand 3. 1978
(D) United Kingdom 4. 1919
5. 1962
Select the correct answer:
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 5 1
(b) 1 5 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 5
(d) 4 3 5 1
41. In the post Soviet era Russia’s
outlook at global level is marked
by
(a) Rigid Ideological positions.
(b) Enhanced role for Soviet era
legacies.
(c) Pragmatic de-ideologised world
view.
(d) Rigidities of cold war era.
42. Who of the following has coined
the term under-development?
(a) Antonio Gramsci
(b) Rosa Luxemburg
(c) Emmanual Wallerstein
(d) Kenneth Waltz
43. The policy of containment for-
mulated by the U.S. aimed at
(a) Checking globally the
influence of the Soviet Union.
(b) Checking the nuclear proli-
feration of Iran.
(c) Containing defiant North
Korea.
(d) Countering the expansionist
policies of People’s Republic
of China.
44. The Kyoto Protocol of 1997 adop-
ted the programme for
 24
(a) ending global poverty.
(b) the democratisation of U.N.
system.
(c) broadening the participation
within I.M.F. and World
Bank.
(d) reducing greenhouse emissions.
45. Match List–I with List–II and
select correct answer from the
codes given below:
List–I
(A) Morton Kaplan order of the events listed below?
(B) Andre Gunder Frank
(C) Hans J. Morgenthau
(D) Mikhail Gorbachev
List–II
1. Perestroika and Glasnost
2. Theory of Realism
3. Systems Theory
4. Dependency Theory
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
Answers with Explanations
1. (a) The entire historical or cosmo-
logical process reached its climax
and conclusion, according to Hegel,
in the Germany of his own day: the
contemporary Prussian state was the
highest possible achievement of mind as
expressed in social life; Protestantism,
the highest expression of religion;
Romanticism the highest perfection of art
— all of which, in their different ways,
expressed the full maturity of spirit.
2. (a) According to Machiavelli, it is
important for a Prince to be both loved
and fears. When using fear and force, he
must act like two types of beasts; lions
and foxes. He must act like a lion in order
to recognize traps and avoid them and he
must act like a for in order to frighten
off “wolves [enemies]”. When a Prince
is dealing with people, he must always
let go of the promises which put him in
a negative situation, or at disadvantage.
46. The principle of reciprocity within
WTO framework envisages
(a) lowering of trade barriers by a
State to be matched in return.
(b) creation of trade barriers on
uniform basis.
(c) protection of intellectual
property rights.
(d) enhanced role for State
controls on trade.
47. What is the correct chronological
i. U.S. Policy of Containment of
the Soviet Union.
ii. Dissolution of the former
Soviet Union.
iii. Iran-Iraq War.
iv. US War on terrorism in
Afghanistan.
Choose the right answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) iv, ii, iii, i
(b) ii, iv, i, iii
(c) iii, ii, iv, i
(d) i, iii, ii, iv
He must realize that although promises
are important at gaining trust, promises
are not something on which a Prince can
rely, since deceit and wretch exist among
humanity.
3. (d) Rawls lays out seven conditions
characterizing the well-ordered society.
They are as follows:
(1) Everyone accepts, and
knows that others accept, the
same principles (the same
conception) of justice.
(2) Basic social institutions and
their arrangement into one
scheme (the basic structure of
society) satisfy, and are with
reason believed by everyone
to satisfy, these principles.
(3) The public conception
of justice is founded on
reasonable beliefs that have
been established by generally
acceptable methods of inquiry.
Solved Paper-II, December-2012
48. The dictum, ‘Imperialism is the
highest stage of Capitalism’ was
propounded by
(a) Karl Marx
(b) V.I. Lenin
(c) Andre Gunder Frank
(d) Emmanual Wallerstein
49. Hans Blix was head of U.N. body
for
(a) Peace-keeping operations in
Somalia.
(b) Inspecting places in Iraq for
verification of Weapons of
Mass Destruction.
(c) Working modalities for the
creation of NIEO.
(d) Rebuilding war-torn
Afghanistan
50. Nagorno Karabakh is a disputed
territory between
(a) Armenia and Azerbaijan
(b) Georgia and Ukraine
(c) Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan
(d) Russian Federation and China
(4) All citizens have, and view
themselves as having, a sense
of justice (the content of which
is defined by the principles of
the public conception) that is
normally effective (the desire
to act on this conception
determines their conduct for
the most part).
(5) All citizens have, and view
themselves as having, funda-
mental aims and interests (a
conception of their good)
in the name of which it is
legitimate to make claims on
one another in the design of
their institutions.
(6) All citizens have, and view
themselves as having, a
right to equal respect and
consideration in determining
Solved Paper-II, December-2012
the principles by which the
basic structure of their society
is to be regulated.
(7) Basic social institutions gene-
rate an effective supporting
sense of justice.
4. (c) Hobbes in his famous work
Leviathan wrote that “Laws are the rules
of just and unjust; nothing being reputed
unjust that is not contrary to some laws.”
5. (d) In 1742, Rousseau entered
an essay competition sponsored by the
Academie de Dijon. The question asked
whether the development of the arts
and sciences had a positive effect on
morals. Rousseau won the competition,
and his essay, “Discourse on the Arts
and Sciences,” garnered him significant
respect and fame. In 1755, he finished
his second major work, Discourse on the
Origin and Basis of Inequality Among
Men, the Emile, and his major work
on political philosophy, The Social
Contract: both published in 1762.
6. (d) On Liberty is a philosophical
essay by the English philosopher John
Stuart Mill. Published in 1859, it applies
Mill’s ethical system of utilitarianism to
society and state. The phrase “political
obligation” is apparently no older than
T. H. Green’s Lectures on the Principles
of Political Obligation, delivered at
Oxford University in 1879–80. The Idea
of Justice is a 2009 book by the economist
Amartya Sen. The work is a critique
and revision of John Rawls’s ideas in
A Theory of Justice (1971). Anarchy,
State, and Utopia is a 1974 book by the
American political philosopher Robert
Nozick.
7. (d) functions according to a “political
8. (b) The term perpetual peace
became acknowledged when German
philosopher Immanuel Kant published
his 1795 essay Perpetual Peace: A
Philosophical Sketch. In philosophy,
especially that of Aristotle, the golden
mean is the desirable middle between
two extremes, one of excess and the
other of deficiency. The ‘Allegory Of
The Cave’ is a theory put forward by
Plato, concerning human perception.
Fortune is a woman is concept gave by
Machiavelli.
9. (c) Karl marx was revolutionary
he propagated the theory class struggle.
He also gave the theory of Historical
determinism.
10. (a) Aristotle gives us definite and
clear-cut dogmas, instead of groping in
illusions and imaginations. He does not
believe in abstract notions of justice and
virtue, but has a concrete approach. He
discarded utopian philosophy of Plato and
advocated logical and scientific theories
based upon realism. Aristotle supported
the principle of unity through diversity.
He was of the view that reality lay in
the concrete manifestation of things. He
separated ethics from politics.
11. (d)
12. (a) A critic of Structural func-
tionalism W.G. Runciman has said
that functionalism “can, indeed, be
interpreted as a conscious alternative to
Marxism.
13. (b) Kenneth Organski saw political,
development in terms of: Firstly, Political
unification. Secondly, Industrialization.
Thirdly, National Welfare. Fourthly,
Abundance (material affluence).
14. (a) Lucian pye is regarded as one of
the foremost contemporary practitioners
and proponents of the concept of political
culture and political psychology. Pye
chose to focus on the characteristics of
specific cultures in forming theories of
political development of modernization
of Third World nations, rather than
seeking universal and overarching
theories like most political scientists.
15. (c) The concept of political formula
is related to Mosca. The elite ordinarily
formula,” in Mosca’s term, is what
makes its rule effective and acceptable to
the masses.
16. (b) The Civic Culture: Political
Attitudes and Democracy in Five Nations
is a 1963 political science book by
Gabriel Almond and Sidney Verba. In
the text Almond and Verba examine the
democratic systems in five countries,
the United States, Germany, Mexico,
Italy, and the United Kingdom. They
interviewed about a thousand individuals
in each country on their views of
25
government and political life. As they
define it, the “civic culture” (singular)
is “based on communication and
persuasion, a culture of consensus and
diversity, a culture that permits change
but moderates it”.
17. (a) Samir Amin in 1970 presented
a new version of unequal exchange by
considering wages as an endogenous
variable, and he showed that unequal
exchange allowed capitalist countries to
protect profits. To him, the dominance
of foreign capital in least developed
countries means distorted export activity
and the hypertrophy of the tertiary sector.
18. (a) The classification of political
parties that was presented by Maurice
Duverger in 1951 became popular,
and is now generally accepted. He had
classified parties as
(i) the elitist or traditional parties, and
(ii) mass parties.
His classification of political parties
was derived from his experience of
parties in western Europe.
19. (d) The president of America is
head of the state as well as the head of
American government. The Constitution
of USA explicitly assigns the president
the power to sign or veto legislation,
command the armed forces, ask for the
written opinion of their Cabinet but he is
not bound by the advice of cabinet. He
convene or adjourn Congress but can’t
dissolve it.
20. (d)
21. (c) Ram Nandan Committee was
appointed to identify the creamy layer
among the OBCs. It submitted its report
in 1993, which was accepted.
22. (a) The book ‘Politics of Scarcity:
Public Pressure and Political Response
in India’ is written by Myron Weiner.
He attempted to present his perspective
on Indian politics through this book as
well as by using the phrase “Politics of
Scarcity”.
23. (d) The first attempt to develop a
national plan for India came up in 1938.
In that year, Congress President Subhash
Chandra Bose had set up a National
Planning Committee with Jawaharlal
Nehru as its president. However the
 26
reports of the committee could not be
prepared and only for the first time in
1948–49 some papers came out.
24. (c)
25. (d) The Individual Satyagraha
Movement or Personal Satyagraha
Movement was launched by the Indian
National Congress as proposed by
Mahatma Gandhi on October 17, 1940.
This movement constituted of individual
Satyagrahis as selected by Gandhiji
speaking against the inclusion of India
in the Second World War in a public
place, in a nonviolent manner. The first
satyagrahi thus selected was Acharya
Vinoba Bhave, who was arrested and
jailed for three months.
26. (b) William Morris-Jones held
the view that Indian federalism was a
kind of Co-operative federalism where
bargaining took place between the centre
and the states, but ultimately a solution
came out and both agreed to co-operate.
27. (b) The commission was headed by
then Member of Parliament Bhindeswari
Prasad Mandal from Bihar. Mandal
commission was started and pushed
forward by National Janata Party.
The Mandal commission was set up
to identify in the country, various
socially, economically and educationally
backward castes and classes.
28. (c) Inter State council is a constitu-
tional body set up on the basis of provisions
in Article 263 of the Constitution of
India by a Presidential Order dated
28th May, 1990 on recommendation of
Sarkaria Commission. Article 263 of the
Constitution envisages establishment of
an institutional mechanism to facilitate
coordination of policies and their
implementation between the Union and
the State Governments.
29. (b) 45. (a)
30. (d) The Federal Court of India
was a judicial body, established in
India in 1937 under the provisions of
the Government of India Act 1935,
with original, appellate and advisory
jurisdiction. It functioned until the
Supreme Court of India was established
in 1950.
31. (d) “Introduction to Public Admini-
stration” was written by L. D. White.
Leonard Dupee White was an American
historian who specialized in public
administration in the United States.
32. (c) 38. (b) In UK on 8th February 1966,
33. (a) There are 3 basic features of
Prismatic-Sala Models:
HETEROGENEITY, FORMALISM,
OVERLAPPING. Overlapping shows
that differentiated structures [clubs] co-
exist with undifferentiated structures
[Sects]. This denotes overlapping of
administrative behaviour of both the
societies. Riggs called these elements as
“CLECTS” (club + sects).
34. (c) The Spoils System advocated
by Andrew Jackson was based on
rotation in office and rewarding loyal
supporters. Jackson had good cause in
placing so much importance on loyalty.
The Spoils System was also based on
the democratic principle that anyone
who held an office for too long became
corrupt and led Andrew Jackson to
advocate rotation in office. Jackson was
a ‘man of the people’ and firmly believed
that there were too many aristocratic,
career politicians in the upper-class
Congress that were out of touch with the
American public. He adopted the policy
of removing the old officeholders and
replacing them with those recommended
by the winning candidates in his party.
The implementation of the system of
rotation in office, and Jackson’s belief in
loyalty, evolved into the spoils system.
35. (a)
36. (b) Management By Objectives
(MBO) is an performance management
approach in which a balance is sought
between the objectives of employees
and the objectives of an organization.
The essence of Peter Drucker’s basic
principle: Management By Objectives
is to determine joint objectives and to
provide feedback on the results. Setting
challenging but attainable objectives
promotes motivation and empowerment
of employees. By increasing commitment,
managers are given the opportunity
to focus on new ideas and innovation
that contribute to the development and
objectives of organizations.
Solved Paper-II, December-2012
37. (c) Who Governs?: Democracy
and Power in an American City is a book
in American political science by Robert
Dahl. Robert propagated his theory of
Decision making in this book.
the Prime Minister Harold Wilson
announced in the House of Commons
the appointment of a Committee on the
Civil Service (which became known as
the Fulton Committee) ‘to examine the
structure, recruitment and management,
including training, of the Home Civil
Service, and to make recommendations’.
39. (a)  40. (a)
41. (c) In post Soviet era Russia started
viewing world politics from pragmatic
perspective. It liberalized its ideological
views of socialism. This process is also
known as de-ideologisation.
42. (c) The American sociologist
Immanuel Wallerstein refined the
Marxist aspect of the theory, and called
it the “world system.” He also coined the
term Under-development.
43. (a) Containment was a foreign
policy of the United States of America,
introduced at the start of the Cold
War, aimed at stopping the spread of
Communism and keeping it “contained”
and isolated within its current borders of
the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
(USSR or the Soviet Union) instead of
spreading to a war-ravaged Europe.
44. (d) The Kyoto Protocol is an
international agreement linked to the
United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change, which commits its
Parties by setting internationally binding
greenhouse emission reduction targets.
The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in
Kyoto, Japan, on 11 December 1997.
46. (a) Lowering of import duties and
other trade barriers in return for similar
concessions from another country.
Reciprocity is a traditional principle
WTO, but is practicable only between
developed nations due to their roughly
matching economies.
47. (d)
Solved Paper-II, December-2012
48. (b) The book “Highest Stage of
Capitalism” (1917), by Vladimir Lenin,
describes the function of financial capital
in generating profits from imperialist
colonialism as the final stage of capitalist
development to ensure greater profits.
49. (b) Hans Blix was also the head
of the United Nations Monitoring,
Verification and Inspection Commission
from March 2000 to June 2003, when he
was succeeded by Dimitris Perrikos. In
2002, the commission began searching
Iraq for weapons of mass destruction,
ultimately finding none.
50. (a) The Nagorno-Karabakh conflict
is a territorial and ethnic conflict between
27
Armenia and Azerbaijan over the
disputed region of Nagorno-Karabakh
and seven surrounding districts, which
are de facto controlled by the self-
declared Republic of Artsakh, but are
internationally recognised as de jure part
of Azerbaijan.
qqq
 28 Solved Paper-III, December-2012

UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-III, December-2012
1. The word ‘theory’, derived from 6. The term ‘Leninism’ was coined 13. Assertion (A): Social Contract
the Greek word ‘Theoria’ means by established a sovereign Government.
(a) A well organized political (a) Trotsky (b) Stalin Reason (R): Citizens do have an
system (c) Marx (d) Mao absolute obligation to obey all laws
(b) A well focused mental look 7. Who is the author of the book The
or accept any form of Government.
(c) A well articulated economic Good Boatman?
In the context of the two statements,
structure (a) Erikson
which one of the following is
(d) A system of physical arrange- (b) Rajmohan Gandhi
(c) Romain Rolland correct?
ment
(d) Noema (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
2. Who, among the following, is not
8. Which one among the following (R) is correct explanation of
associated with decline of political
statement is true? (A).
theory?
(a) Plato’s Republic is a book on (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
(a) Peter Laslett
ethics
(b) David Easton is not the correct explanation of
(b) It is book on politics
(c) Jean Blondel (A).
(c) It is both on ethics and politics
(d) Alfred Cobban (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) It is a book on education
3. Who said ‘negative liberty is (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
9. Which one among the following is
superior to positive liberty’? not written by M.N. Roy? 14. Match the List–I with List–II and
(a) J.S. Mill (a) The Future of Indian Politics select the correct answer from the
(b) Isaiah Berlin (b) Gandhism, Nationalism and codes given below with reference
(c) T.H. Green Socialism to Aristotle and Plato:
(d) Ernest Barker (c) New Humanism   List–I
4. Which one among the following (d) Nationalism, Rationality and (Pure form)
statements is true? Revolution
A. Monarchy
(a) Social Justice violates the 10. Who among the following has
B. Aristocracy
principles of equality. compared fortune with a woman?
C. Polity
(b) Social Justice is derived from (a) M.N. Roy D. Ideal State
moral reasonableness. (b) Rousseau
List–II
(c) Social justice is a negation of (c) Hobbes
(Degenerated form)
justice (d) Machiavelli
(d) Social justice is an instrument 11. Which one among the following is (i) Democracy
of political manipulation. not a work about alienation? (ii) Tyranny
5. Which one among the following (a) Paris Manuscripts (iii) Oligarchy
was the first mass movement Mao (b) Theses on Feuerbach (iv) Timocracy (First stage)
led? (c) Poverty of Philosophy Codes:
(a) The Cultural Revolution (d) The German Ideology
A B C D
(b) The Great Leap Forward 12. General Will means
(a) Actual Will (a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(c) Let hundred flowers blossom
(b) Majority Will (b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
and hundred schools of thought
contend. (c) Sum total of Wills (c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(d) None of the above (d) Real Will (d) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Solved Paper-III, December-2012 29
15. What is the chronological correct 18. Almond borrowed most of the (c) Harry Eckstein
sequence of the following books? terminology of his approach from (d) Jean Blondel
(i) Richard In Search of (a) Robert K. Merton 24. Which of the following statements
Attenborough Gandhi. (b) Talcott Parsons are not correct?
(ii) Louis Fisher The Life of (c) Malinowski 1. The Swiss Federal Tribunal
Mahatma (d) Arthur Bentley has the power to declare
Gandhi 19. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g unconstitutional a law passed
(iii) E.H. Erikson Gandhi’s Truth attached great importance to a by the Federal Legislature.
(iv) J. Eaton Gandhi: balance between the principles of 2. The Communist Party is
Fighter equality and capacity in political banned in the U.S.A.
Without a development? 3. The Constitution of India on
Sword (a) Lucian Pye (b) Huntington the date of its commencement
Select the correct answer from the (c) Fred Riggs (d) Danil Lerner did have a provision that
codes given below: 20. Who among the following is the advice of the Council of
associated with the “will and Ministers would be binding on
(a) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
capacity” approach to the study the President.
(b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) 4. Tories in England are known as
of political development?
(c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (ii) (a) Lucian Pye Conservatives.
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (b) Organski Select the correct answer from the
16. Match List–I with List–II and (c) Halpern codes given below:
select the correct answer from the (d) David Apter Codes:
codes given below: 21. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
  List–I has connected cultures with (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
(System Theorists) civilizations?
25. “There can be no comparison
(i) Bertallanfy (a) Almond and Verba
between the positions of number
(ii) Hall and Fagen (b) Huntington
one and numbers two, three or
(iii) Easton (c) Lucian Pye
(iv) Colin Cherry four.” Who said this about the
(d) Edward Shils
List–II British Prime Minister?
22. “We are under the Constitution
(System) but the Constitution is what the (a) Harold Laski
A. a set of elements standing in judges say it is.” Which of the (b) Margaret Thatcher
interaction following countries can this be (c) Harold Wilson
B. a whole which is compounded applicable to? (d) Winston Churchill
of many parts 1. India 26. Given below are two statements,
C. a set of objects together with 2. America one labelled as Assertion (A) and
relationships between the 3. Switzerland
objects and their attributes the other labelled as Reason (R):
4. Australia
D. a set of interactions Assertion (A): Once the leaders
Select the correct answer from the
reach the pinnacle of power, nothing
Codes: codes given below:
can bring them down.
A B C D Codes:
Reason (R): The majority of human
(a) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 beings, according to Michels, are
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 apathetic, indolent and slavish.
(c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 23. Who among the following has (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
associated the origins of political
(d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (R) is the correct explanation
parties with three theories –
17. Who among the following presents of (A).
institutional theories, historical
a ‘flow model’ of political system? crisis theories and development (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
(a) Gabriel Almond theories? is not the correct explanation of
(b) David Easton (a) La Palombara and Myron (A).
(c) Morton Kaplan Weiner (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) Oran Young (b) Peter K. Merkl (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
 30 Solved Paper-III, December-2012
27. Which of the following pairs are (a) Russian Revolution (c) Morris-Jones
not correctly matched? (b) Irish Revolution (d) Paul Brass
1. Pareto Circulation of (c) French Revolution 38. Who described the nature of
elites (d) Cultural Revolution Indian State as ‘incremental
2. Mosca Theory of the 32. The name of a candidate for the democratic modernization’?
masses Office of President of India is (a) Morris John
3. Michels Concept of mass proposed by (b) Rajni Kothari
(a) any five citizens of India (c) Francine Frankel
mind
(b) any five Members of the (d) Susan and Lloyd Rudolph
4. Gasset Political formula
Parliament 39. ‘An alliance of national elites and
Select the correct answer from the
(c) and fifty Members of the the entrepreneurial class as a basis
codes given below:
Electoral College of development at the Centre
Codes: (d) any ten members of the does not preclude re-distributive
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 Electoral College concessions automatically.’ Who
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 33. Which of the following Articles said?
28. Which of the following countries were not part of the original (a) Partha Chatterjee
have dual citizenship – National Constitution of India? (b) Atul Kohli
citizenship and State citizenship? (i) Art. 52A (ii) Art. 51A (c) Yogendra Yadav
(a) India and U.S.A. (iii) Art. 14 (iv) Art. 300A (d) Paul Brass
(b) India and Switzerland Select the correct answer from the 40. Match List–I with List–II and
(c) Switzerland and U.S.A. codes given below: choose the correct answer from
(d) U.S.A. and U.K. (a) (i) and (ii) the codes given below:
29. Which of the following statements (b) (i) and (iii) List–I
are not correct? (c) (ii) and (iii) (Books)
1. The U.S. President can seek (d) (ii) and (iv) A. Language, Religion and Politics
34. Who among the following former B. Party building in a New Nation
election to the office of President
Presidents of India kept the C. The Painful Transition: Bourgeois
for any number of times.
‘Indian Post Office Amendment Democracy in India
2. The President of India has been Bill’ pending? D. India in Transition: Freeing the
sending messages to Parliament. (a) Zakir Hussain Economy
3. Two-thirds members of Rajya (b) V.V. Giri   List–II
Sabha retire every two years. (c) Zail Singh  (Authors)
4. The residuary powers rest with (d) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma (i) Jagdish Bhagwati
the States in the United States of 35. Who said ‘All Communalism is (ii) Paul Brass
America. harmful’? The logic of minority (iii) Myron Weiner
Select the correct answer from the Communalism is separatism, and (iv) Achin Vanaik
codes given below: majority communalism culminates
Codes:
Codes: in Fascism?
(a) Bhikhu Parekh A B C D
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) T.N. Madan (a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(c) Bipin Chandra (b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
30. The elite theory was first started
(d) Ashish Nandy (c) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
in
36. Who wrote the book, “Democracy
(a) the United States of America (d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
and Discontent”?
(b) the United Kingdom (a) James Manor 41. Identify the correct sequence in
(c) Central and Western European (b) Atul Kohli which the following Committees
Countries (c) Zoya Hasan were appointed. Use the code
(d) Australia (d) MSA Rao given below:
31. The Preamble of the Constitution 37. Who emphasized the emergence i. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
of India enshrines the ideals of of “a market polity” in India? ii. L.M. Singhvi Committee
liberty, equality and fraternity – (a) Stanley A. Kochanek iii. G.V.K. Rao Committee
ideals mainly inspired by the (b) James Manor iv. Ashok Mehta Committee
Solved Paper-III, December-2012 31
Codes: List–II 48. Which one of the following was
A B C D (Authors) not included as a principle of
(i) Zoya Hasan administration by Willoughby
(a) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(ii) V. Venkatesan in his ‘Principles of Public
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) Administration’?
(iii) Gail Omvedt
(c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (a) G e n e r a l a n d o v e r h e a d
(iv) D.N. Dhanagre
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) administration
Codes:
(b) Coordination
42. Assertion (A): Political parties in
A B C D (c) Finance
India have expanded their reach but
their legitimacy has been deeply (a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (d) Personnel administration
eroded. (b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 49. The principle of unity of command
Reason (R): The consolidation of mainly ensures
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
the party system at the State level (a) Accountability
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
cannot be aggregated at the National (b) Specialization
level. 46. Consider the following statements (c) Acceptability
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and about Civil Service in a developing (d) Coordination
(R) is the correct explanation society: 50. Which of the following is not one
of (A). 1. It should act as an instrument of of the main characteristics of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true change. Taylor’s scientific management?
and (R) is not the correct 2. It should have concern for social (a) Time and motion studies
explanation of (A). equity. (b) Participation in decision making
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 3. It should have common concern (c) Differential piece-rate system
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. for vested interests. (d) Functional foremanship
43. Which among the following 4. It should be politically neutral. 51. Who among the following has
Articles of the Constitution Select the correct statements from called Weber’s ideal type of
of India has ensured through bureaucracy as unsuitable for
the codes given below:
legislation the participation of developing societies?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) H. Simon
workers in management?
(b) 1, 3 and 4 (b) Chester I. Barnard
(a) Article 42
(b) Article 43 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (c) Fred W. Riggs
(c) Article 43A (d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Dwight Waldo
(d) Article 49A 47.
Match List–I with List–II and 52. The Committee on Assurances
44. Who among the following termed choose the correct answer from of the Parliament of India is an
Art. 356 as a “safety valve”? the codes given below: instrument of
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (a) Executive Control
List–I
(b) Judicial Control
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar A. Span of attention
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru B. Scalar process (c) Civil-Society Control
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel C. Human Relations Theory (d) Legislative Control
53. According to Herbert Simon, if
45. Match List–I with List–II and D. Functional Foremanship
choose the correct answer from a decision is directed towards
List–II
the codes given below: individual’s goal, it is
(i) Mooney and Reiley
List–I (a) Organizationally rational
(ii) F.W. Taylor
(Books) (b) Personally rational
(iii) V.A. Graicunas
(c) Objectively rational
A. Dalit Visions: The Anti-Caste (iv) Elton Mayo
Movement and the Construction (d) Subjectively rational
Codes: 54. The most logical criterion to
of Indian Identity
B. Peasant Movements in India A B C D distinguish a line function from
C. Foreign Identities, Gender (a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) staff is
Communities and the State (a) the functional relationship
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(Ed.) (b) the authority relationship
(c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
D. Institutionalising Panchayati (c) the grouping of functions
Raj in India (d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (d) the departmentalization
 32 Solved Paper-III, December-2012
55. Central Vigilance Commission was Select the correct answer from the (i) Reinhold Niebuhr
set up on the recommendations of codes given below: (ii) Immanuel Kant
(a) First Administrative Reforms (a) Both (A) and (R) are individually (iii) Antonio Gramsci
Commission true and (R) is the correct (iv) Rebert W. Cox
(b) Gorwala Committee Report explanation of (A). Codes:
(c) Kripalani Committee Report (b) Both (A) and (R) are individually (a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) Santhanam Committee Report true, but (R) is not the correct (b) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
56. The Lokpal and Lokayukta Bill explanation of (A). (c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
1968 passed by the Lok Sabha (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
lapsed because (d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(a) Rajya Sabha rejected the Bill 61. What is neorealism? 64. What does RMA stand for?
(b) President withheld the Bill (a) An attempt to ignore the (a) Revolution in Martial Affairs
(c) Joint Committee of the two unpleasant realities of the (b) Revolution in Military Affairs
Houses rejected the Bill world. (c) Referendum in Military Affairs
(d) of early Dissolution of Fourth (b) An attempt to restate the basic (d) Raison d’etat in Mass Adminis-
Lok Sabha ideas of realism in a more tration
57. Which one of the following ‘scientific’ form. 65. What does Raison d’etat mean?
committee’s report said that (c) A claim that international (a) The national interest
Community Development Progra- (b) The State ought to act reasonably
society is basically orderly and
mme and National Extension at all times.
peaceful.
Service had failed to evoke (c) Citizens need to be given very
(d) A c l a i m t h a t i n d i v i d u a l
popular enthusiasm? good reasons for obeying the
human nature is central to an
(a) Sarkaria Committee Report State.
understanding of international
(b) L.M. Singhvi Committee (d) Citizens should consume as
politics.
Report many raisins as possible for a
62. Match List–I with List–II and
(c) G.V.K. Rao Committee Report good and healthy life.
select the correct answer from the
(d) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 66. Why is reform of the Security
codes below:
Report Council problematic?
  List–I
58. Which one of the following was (a) Enlarging the permanent
 (Author)
not included by C. Rajagopala-
A. Hedley Bull membership could impair
chari in the list of six fundamental
B. Noam Chomsky decision making.
requirements of a good adminis-
C. Robert Kaplan (b) None of the existing permanent
trator?
D. Kenneth Boulding members are keen to give up
(a) Character
  List–II their seats.
(b) Capacity to judge matters
 (Book) (c) It is difficult to make an
(c) Expertise in technical matters
(i) Failed States uncontroversial case for any
(d) Firmness in decision making
(ii) Conflict and Defense of the potential new permanent
59. Santhanam Committee on Preven-
(iii) Anarchial Society members.
tion of Corruption was appointed
in (iv) Monsoon (d) All of the above.
Codes: 67. Structural adjustment progra-
(a) 1961 (b) 1962
mmes require that
(c) 1963 (d) 1964 A B C D
(a) Governments of poor countries
60. Given below are two statements, (a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
one labelled as Assertion (A) and should adopt privatization and
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) other ‘liberalizing’ measures.
the other labelled as Reason (R).
(c) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (b) States with weak economies
Assertion (A): Practical application
of unity of command is not always (d) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) should redistribute more
possible. 63. Arrange the following interna- resources to the poor.
R e a s o n ( R ) : Te c h n i c a l a n d tional politics theorists in a (c) Governments of poor countries
administrative tasks require different chronological order from the should knock down all ugly or
kinds of supervision. codes given below: dilapidated buildings.
Solved Paper-III, December-2012
(d) Ministers in under-performing
countries should go on diets and
keep fit.
68. Bandung Conference held in 1955
had the participation of represen-
tatives from
(a) Twenty two Asian countries
(b) Eighty Afro-Asian countries
(c) Twenty six African countries
(d) Twenty nine Afro-Asian
countries
69. Who said, “Thus far the chief
purpose of our military establish-
ment has been to win wars. From
now on its chief purpose must be
to avert them.”?
(a) Paul Nitze
(b) George Kennan
(c) Bernard Brodie
(d) Robert Jervis
70. Arrange the following treaties
and agreements in a chronological
order.
(i) Indo-US Nuclear Treaty
(ii) Indo-Soviet Friendship Treaty
(iii) Tashkent Agreement
(iv) Shimla Agreement
Select the answer from the codes
given below:
33
Codes: (i) India is a member of the Indian
(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) Ocean Rim Association for
Regional Cooperation [IOR-
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
ARC].
(c) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(ii) [ I O R - A R C ] h e l p s b e t t e r
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) relations with Pakistan.
(iii) It defines the Exclusive Economic
71. Expand SORT.
Zones.
(a) Strategic Offensive Reduction
(iv) Indian Ocean has no sea piracy.
Treaty Codes:
(b) State Organization Replan (a) (i) and (ii) are correct.
Treaty (b) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(c) Strategic Order Reorganization (c) (i) and (iii) are correct.
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Treaty
74. The Axis of evil is a phrase
(d) Security Organization Replan
deliberately used by President
Treaty George W. Bush in January 2002
72. Which of the following statements to characterize
are correct? (a) Iran, North Korea and Iraq
1. India has signed the NPT. (b) Taliban, Al-Queda and LeT
2. China has not signed the NPT. (c) Cuba, Venezuela, Nicaragua
3. India and Pakistan have not (d) Pakistan, Afghanistan, Sri
signed the NPT. Lanka
4. NPT has been signed by Iran, 75. M a r t i n W i g h t e m p h a s i z e d
North Korea. three philosophical traditions of
International politics, they are
(a) All are correct.
(a) Realism, Liberalism, Marxism
(b) All are false.
(b) Realism, Rationalism, Revolu-
(c) 3 & 4 are correct.
tionism
(d) 1 & 2 are correct. (c) Radicalism, Realism, Religion
73. Identify which of the following are (d) Neo-Realism, Neo-Liberalism,
correct statements: Constructivism

Answers with Explanations

1. (b) The word theory comes from the
Greek theoria, apparently first coming into
its more modern use in the works of Plato,
where theoria meant “contemplation,
speculation, a looking at, things looked
at”. 1610 saw the first recorded use of
theory to mean “principles or methods of
a science or art (rather than its practice)”,
while in 1630, it was upped all the way
to “an explanation based on observation
and reasoning”.
2. (c) Easton points out Political Theory
“lives parasitically on ideas a century
old and what is more discouraging, we
see little prospect of the development
of new political synthesis. Writers such
as Easton and Cobban declared it to be
declining. Peter Laslett and Robert Dahl
declared it as already dead. Jean Blondel
never supported or propagated the idea of
decline of Political theory.
3. (b) Isaiah Berlin In his Two Concepts
of Liberty, he had written that “I am
normally said to be free to the degree to
which no human being interferes with
my activity. Political liberty in this sense
is simply the area within which a man
can do what he wants.” This represents
the Negative manifestation of concept of
Liberty by Berlin.
4. (b)
5. (c) Under Mao Zedong’s leadership,
China had one unique experience during the
socialist transition. He led numerous mass
movements in China. Mass movements
accompanied all major changes during this
period: the Land Reform, the Three-anti,
the Five-anti movements, the Anti-rightist
movement in the early 1950’s; the Great
 34
Leap Forward in 1958; and the Cultural
Revolution in 1966–1976.
6. (b) From 1917 to 1922, Leninism
was the Russian application of Marxist
economics and political philosophy,
effected and realised by the Bolsheviks,
the vanguard party who led the fight for
the political independence of the working
class. In the 1925–1929 period, Joseph
Stalin established his interpretation
of Leninism as the official and only
legitimate form of Marxism in Russia by
amalgamating the political philosophies as
Marxism–Leninism, which then became
the state ideology of the Soviet Union.
7. (b) The Good Boatman was written
by Rajmohan Gandhi, A Grandson Of
Mahatma Gandhi. He Attempts To
Understand The Phenomenon that was
Gandhi. In this book He By Examining
In Detail Dominant And Varied Themes
Of Gandhi’s Life. His Unsuccessful
Bid To Keep India United, His Attitude
Towards Caste And Untouchability;
His Relationship With Those Whose
Empire He Challenged; His Controversial
Experiments With Chastity; His Views
On God, Truth And Non-Violence; And
His Selection Of Heirs To Lead A New-
Born Nation.
8. (c) Republic is Plato’s best-known
work, and has proven to be one of
the world’s most influential works of
philosophy and political theory. The
central question of this book is “What is
Justice?”. It is written by Plato around
380 BC, concerning justice, the order
and character of the just city-state, and
the just man.
9. (a) The book The Future of Indian
Politics is written by Annie Besant.
10. (d) Niccolò Machiavelli, in his
book The Prince said that “ For my part I
consider that it is better to be adventurous
than cautious, because fortune is a
woman, and if you wish to keep her under
it is necessary to beat and ill-use her; and
it is seen that she allows herself to be
mastered by the adventurous rather than
by those who go to work more coldly.”
11. (c) The Poverty of Philosophy is
a book by Karl Marx published in Paris
and Brussels in 1847, where he lived in
exile from 1843 until 1849. The book,
formally titled The Poverty of Philosophy:
Answer to the Philosophy of Poverty by
M. Proudhon.
12. (d) The idea of the general will is at
the heart of Rousseau’s philosophy. The
general will is not the will of the majority.
Rather, it is the will of the political
organism that he sees as an entity with a
life of its own. The general will reflects
the real will of each member of society.
By definition, the general will is always
right. The general will is the overriding
good to which each person is willing to
sacrifice all other goods, including all
particular private wills.
13. (c)  14. (b)
15. (a) Gandhi’s Truth: On the Origins of
Militant Nonviolence is a 1969 book about
Mahatma Gandhi by the German-born
American developmental psychologist
Erik H. Erikson. Gandhi, Fighter Without
a Sword is a biography of Mohandas
Karamchand Gandhi written for children
by Jeanette Eaton. It is illustrated by Ralph
Ray. The biography was first published
in 1950. Louis Fischer’s memorable
biography of Mahatma Gandhi, the man
who led the fight for Indian independence
and Gandhi’s assassination by a Hindu
fanatic only a few months after freedom
from colonial rule was won. This book was
published in 1950. In Search of Gandhi
was written by Richard Attenborough in
1982.
16. (a)
17. (b) The Flow Model of Political
system is given by David Easton in his
System theory.
18. (b)
19. (c) Fred Riggs is known for his works
in Comparative Public Administration,
especially his Riggsian Model. Fred
Riggs is the father of Comparative Public
Administration. In 1962 Fred Riggs in his
article “Trends in comparative study of
Public Administration”.
Solved Paper-III, December-2012
20. (c) Halpern talked of structural
change and demands let loose by
uncontrolled force of transformation and
“will and Capacity” of political authority
to cope with the changes and demands.
21. (b) Samuel P. Huntington in his
famous work “Clash of Civilization”
made a relation between the Culture and
Civilization. He also determine that nature
of future clash or war in world.
22. (b)
23. (a) La Palombara and Myron
Weiner trace the origins and development
of political parties, explore their impact on
the system in which they exist, and raise
new questions about the potential role of
parties. The book “Political parties and
political development” was written by La
Palombara and Myron Weiner.
24. (d)
25. (d) Winston Churchill said “In
any sphere of action there can be no
comparison between the positions of
number one and number two, three, or
four. The duties and the problems of all
persons other than number one are quite
different and in many ways” he says,
perhaps surprisingly, “more difficult.”
26. (a)  27. (a)
28. (c) In USA and Switzerland the
people are the Citizen of nation as well as
the citizen of the particular State to which
they belong.
29. (b) The Twenty-Second Amendment
to American constitution says a person can
only be elected to be president two times
for a total of eight years. Rajya Sabha is
a permanent body and is not subject to
dissolution. However, one third of the
members retire every second year, and
are replaced by newly elected.
30. (c) Elite theory was first started
in central and western Europe. Vilfredo
Pareto, Gaetano Mosca, and Robert
Michels, were co-founders of the Italian
school of elitism, which influenced
subsequent elite theory in the Western
tradition.
31. (c) French slogan of “Liberty,
Equality and Fraternity” as an ideal has
been borrowed from French Revolution
to Indian constitution.
Solved Paper-III, December-2012
32. (c) The candidature of each candidate
running for Presidency should be backed
by 100 people from this electoral college
- 50 as proposers and 50 as seconders.
This is just to ensure that candidates who
are not considered as favourable at all to
not even get the backing of 100 electors
are not included in the race for President.
33. (d) Article 51A of the Indian
Constitution deals with Fundamental
Duties. As of now, there are 11
Fundamental duties. Originally, the
Constitution of India did not contain these
duties. Fundamental duties were added by
42nd and 86th Constitutional Amendment
acts. Earlier Right to property was part
of fundamental rights but in 1977 it was
shifted to Article 300A.
34. (c) Zail Singh, President of India
from 1982 until 1987, exercised a pocket
veto to prevent the Indian Post Office
(Amendment) Bill from becoming law.
35. (c)
36. (b) Democracy and Discontent:
India’s Growing Crisis of Governability is
written by Atul Kholi. In this book, Atul
Kohli analyzes political change in India
from the late 1960s to the late 1980s. He
combines rich empirical investigation,
extensive interviews and theoretical
perspectives.
37. (c) In the words of Morris Jones,
outcome of elections indicated the
emergence of ‘market polity.’ By this, it
meant, a system in which large number
of decisions are taken by a substantial
number of participants, who stand in both
positions, being dependent on with each
other as well as in conflicts. The decisions
in this alliance are reached by a process of
bargaining, where no one is strong enough
to impose his decisions.
38. (b)  39. (b)
40. (a) Language, Religion, and
Politics in North India authored by Paul
Brass. This book, published in 1974, is
concerned with the ways in which two
powerful symbols of group identity,
i.e. language and religion, have been
manipulated by political elites to promote
communal and national movements and
with the consequences of such movements
for the political cohesion of India. Party
building in a New Nation is written by
Myron Weiner. The painful Transition
was written by Achin Vanaik. India
in a Transition was written by Jagdish
Bhagwati.
41. (a) The Balwant Rai Mehta
Committee was a committee originally
appointed by the Government of India
in January 16, 1957 to examine the
working of the Community Development
Programme. Ashok Mehta Committee
was appointed in December 1977, the
Janta Government appointed a committee
on Panchayati Raj institutions under
the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta.
The G.V.K. Rao Committee was set
up by the Planning Commission in
1985. It recommended for the revival of
Panctiayati Raj institutions and highlighted
the need to transfer powers to democratic
bodies at the local level. The Government
of India set up in 1986 L.M. Singhvi
Committee to prepare a concept paper on
the revitalisation of the Panchayati Raj
institutions.
42. (b)
43. (c) Article 43A of the Constitution
of India deals with ‘Participation of
workers in management of industries’ and
falls under Part IV - Directive Principles
of State Policy.
44. (b) Article 356 of the Constitution,
empowers the President of India to impose
President’s rule in states and dissolve
(state) assemblies. This provision was
intended to be a ‘safety valve’ by the
framers of the Constitution Dr. B. R
Ambedkar.
45. (b)  46. (c)
47. (b) A French management
consultant, V.A. Graicunas, introduced
a theory on span of attention which
explains three kinds of relationships that
a superior can have with subordinates.
Mooney and Reiley emphasized hierarchy
35
in organizational design and called it the
‘scalar processes.’ To them, it constitutes
the universal process of coordination,
through which the supreme coordinating
authority operates throughout the whole
organisation. Professor Elton Mayo
began his experiments (the Hawthorne
Studies), to prove the importance of
people for productivity - not machines.
The human relations management theory
is a researched belief that people desire to
be part of a supportive team that facilitates
development and growth. Functional
foremanship is a management technique
that spreads the duties. It is an effective
worker management concept postulated
by Taylor.
48. (a)
49. (a) Unity of command is a manage-
ment principle that establishes a hierarchy
where a subordinate reports or is only
responsible to a single superior directly
above their own position. The principle
is important as it forms the basis of an
accountable management system.
50. (b)
51. (c) Fred W. Riggs while criticising
Weber’s Ideal type bureaucracy claimed
that this model is not suitable for
Developing societies as these society
does not have appropriate administrative
structure.
52. (d) Committee on Government
Assurances scrutinize the assurances,
promises, undertakings, etc., given by
Ministers, from time to time, on the
floor of the Council and to report on
the extent to which such assurances,
promises, undertakings, etc., have been
implemented and when implemented
whether such implementation has taken
place within the minimum time necessary
for the purpose.
53. (b)
54. (b) Line and staff functions indicate
the pattern of distribution of authority in
an organization. Simply stated, authority
is the right to act. According to Koontz
and others (1984), AUTHORITY in an
organization is the power in a position to
exercise discretion in making decisions
affecting others.
 36
55. (d) The Central Vigilance Comm-
ission was set up by the Government in
February, 1964 on the recommendations
of the Committee on Prevention of
Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam,
to advise and guide Central Government
agencies in the field of vigilance.
56. (d) The bill was first brought
before the fourth Lok Sabha in 1968 and
passed in 1969. However, the House was
dissolved, resulting in the first death of
the bill.
57. (d) In January 1957, the Government
of India appointed a committee to
examine the working of the Community
Development Programme (1952) and the
National Extension Service (1953) and to
suggest measures for their better working.
58. (c)
59. (b) In 1962, Lal Bahadur Sastri
appointed Santhanam to preside over the
committee on anti-corruption. Because
of its thorough investigative work and
recommendations, the Committee earned
a reputation as Santhanam’s Committee
on Anti-Corruption.
60. (a)
61. (b) Neorealism is an outgrowth of
traditional balance-of-power (or “realist”)
theories of international relations and
was first articulated by Kenneth Waltz
in 1975 and 1979. Neorealism is also
termed “structural realism,” and a few
neorealist writers sometimes refer to their
theories simply as “realist” to emphasize
the continuity between their own and
older views. Its primary theoretical claim
is that in international politics, war is a
possibility at any time.
62. (b) Failed States: The Abuse of
Power and the Assault on Democracy is
a book by Noam Chomsky, first published
in 2006, in which Chomsky argues that the
United States is becoming a “failed state”,
and thus a danger to its own people and the
world. Conflict and Defense, written by
Kenneth Boulding was first published in
1962, presents a general theory of conflict,
drawing on theoretical analyses from
sociology and economics. The Anarchical
Society is one of the masterworks of
political science and the classic text on
the nature of order in world politics
was written by Hedley Bull. Originally
published in 1977, it continues to define
and shape the discipline of international
relations. Monsoon: The Indian Ocean
and the Future of American Power was
written by Robert D. Kaplan.
63. (d)
64. (b) Revolution in Military Affairs
(RMA) is a theory about the evolution of
warfare over time. An RMA is based on
the marriage of new technologies with
organizational reforms and innovative
concepts of operations. The result is often
characterized as a new way of warfare.
There have been a number of RMAs just
in the past century.
65. (a) The national interest, often
referred to by the French expression
raison d‘Etat is a country’s goals and
ambitions, whether economic, military,
cultural or otherwise. The concept is an
important one in international relations,
where pursuit of the national interest is
the foundation of the realist school.
66. (d)
67. (a) Structural Adjustment refers to a
set of economic policies often introduced
as a condition for gaining a loan from
the IMF. Structural adjustment policies
usually involve a combination of free-
market policies such as privatisation, fiscal
austerity, free trade and deregulation.
68. (d) The Bandung Conference,
also known as Asian-Africa Conference
was a meeting of third world countries
which took place on April 18 – 24,
1955 in Bandung, Indonesia. The five
countries viz, Pakistan, India, Burma,
Sri Lanka, and Indonesia were the co-
sponsored of the Conference. They also
brought together other twenty four states
from Asia, Africa, and Middle East. So
the representatives from 29 countries
including Egypt, Indonesia, India, Iraq,
and China, met to consider the issues
they deemed more pressing. The main
purpose for which the conference held was
Solved Paper-III, December-2012
to discuss peace, the role of third world
countries in Cold War, the promotion
of Afro-Asian countries economic and
cultural cooperation, and decolonization.
69. (c) Bernard Brodie said “ Thus
far the chief purpose of our military
establishment has been to win wars.
From now on its chief purpose must be
to avert them. It can have almost no other
useful purpose.” Bernard Brodie was an
American military strategist well known
for establishing the basics of nuclear
strategy.
70. (a) The Tashkent Declaration was
a peace agreement between India and
Pakistan signed on 10 January 1966
that resolved the Indo-Pakistani War of
1965. The Indo–Soviet Treaty of Peace,
Friendship and Cooperation was a treaty
signed between India and the Soviet
Union in august 1971 that specified
mutual strategic cooperation. The Simla
Agreement signed by Prime Minister
Indira Gandhi and President Zulfikar Ali
Bhutto of Pakistan on 2nd July 1972 was
much more than a peace treaty seeking
to reverse the consequences of the 1971
war. India and the US signed a historic
agreement to cooperate in civil nuclear
energy sector in October 2008.
71. (a) The May 2002 Strategic
Offensive Reductions Treaty (SORT), also
known as the Moscow Treaty, commits
the United States and Russia to reduce
their deployed strategic nuclear forces
to 1,700–2,200 warheads apiece. This
warhead limit takes effect and expires on
the same day, December 31, 2012. After
this date, both sides are free to decrease
or increase the size of their deployed
strategic forces.
72. (c) Currently only five countries
have not signed NPT which are, India,
Pakistan, Israel, South Sudan and North
Korea. North Korea became a party to
the NPT in 1985 as a non-nuclear-weapon
state. On January 10, 2003, North Korea
announced that it was withdrawing from
the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty
(NPT).
73. (c)
Solved Paper-III, December-2012
74. (a) Axis of evil, expression used
to describe the aggressive tendencies of
Iran, North Korea, and Iraq in the early
21st century. The phrase axis of evil was
first used by U.S. President George W.
Bush in his State of the Union address on
January 29, 2002.
75. (b) International theory, understood
in Martin Wight’s own terms of “realism,”
“rationalism,” and “revolutionism,”
proves on examination to be a theory of the
good life and therefore a branch of political
theory in its own right. Reconstituted and
published in 1990, International Theory:
37
The Three Traditions seeks to make
sense of the history of thought about
international politics by dividing it into
the categories of realism, rationalism
and revolutionism, sometimes known as
the Machiavellian, Grotian and Kantian
traditions.
qqq
 38
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Solved Paper-II, June-2013
1. What constitutes the mean in
Aristotle’s social structure?
(a) Wealthy class
(b) Poor citizen
(c) Middle class
(d) Artisan class
2. Whom did Machiavelli blame for
the moral degradation of Italy?
(a) The Prince
(b) The Church
(c) The Aristocracy
(d) Corrupt People
3. For Hegel which one of the
following is correct?
(a) Family is the thesis, Bourgeois
society is the anti-thesis and
the State represents synthesis.
(b) The rational is real and the
real is rational.
(c) Contradictions are not
obstacles preventing
reaching truth.
(d) All of the above
4. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g
criticised Bentham’s Philosophy
as “Pig Philosophy”?
(a) Leslie Stephen
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Carlyle
(d) J.S. Mill
5. Which of the following is correct
so far as John Rawls’ writings are
concerned?
(a) A theory of Justice
(b) Political Liberalism
(c) The Law of Peoples
(d) All of the above Paper
6. Which one of the following Mao
has not said?
(a) Political power grows out of
barrel of gun.
(b) Three years of hard work: ten
thousand years of happiness.
Political Science
(c) Atom bombs are real tigers.
(d) A revolution is not a dinner
party.
7. Which one among the following
statements is true?
(a) Behaviouralism is based on
Stimulus-Response paradigm.
(b) Post-behaviouralism consists
of seven tenets.
(c) Post-behaviouralism wholly
negates behaviouralism.
(d) There are no differences
between behaviourism and
behaviouralism.
8. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Karl Marx termed
early socialists as Utopian socialists.
Reason (R): They attacked the
us capitalist system itself.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the right explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
9. Identify the correct sequence of
the Plato’s four components of
virtue:
(i) Justice
(ii) Courage
(iii) Temperance
(iv) Wisdom
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(c) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(d) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
Solved Paper-II, June-2013
10. Match List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
codes given below the lists:
 List–I
(A) Savarkar
(B) M.N. Roy
(C) Aurobindo Ghose
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan
List–II
(i) Associated with a secret
society “Lotus and Daggers.”
(ii) Author of the book A Plea
for Reconstruction of Indian
Polity
(iii) Convicted in the Kanpur
conspiracy case
(iv) Hinduize all politics and
militarize Hinduism
Code:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
11. Notion of uneven development was
a response to the 19th century ideas
of
(a) Capitalism
(b) Evolution and gradualism
(c) Positivism
(d) Anarchism
12. Match List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
List–I
(Dependency Theorists)
(A) Samir Amin
(B) A.G. Frank
(C) F. Henrique Cardoso
(D) Paul Swezey
Solved Paper-II, June-2013 39
List–II (c) A small elite is modernized III. A no-confidence motion must
(Books) while the vast majority remains set out the grounds on which
(i) Dependency and Develop- in rigid ascriptive patterns of it is based.
ment tradition. IV. If a no-confidence motion is
(ii) Accumulation on a world (d) It is separation of the sacred passed by the Lok Sabha, the
scale from the secular. Council of Ministers is bound
(iii) Capitalism and under devel- 17. Identify the correct sequence of to resign.
opment in Latin America
the following input functions of Select the correct answer from the
(iv) Monopoly Capital
Almond’s Political System: codes given below:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (i) Interest aggregation (a) I and II (b) I and III
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (ii) Interest articulation (c) I, II and III (d) II and III
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (iii) Political socialisation and 22. The Avadi Session of the Congress
(d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) recruitment (1956) accepted the policy of
13. Who among the following is (iv) Political communication
(a) Cooperative Farming
associated with Institutional Select the correct answer from the
(b) Import Substitution
Approach? codes given below:
(c) Garibi Hatao
(a) James Bryce (a) (ii), (iii), (i) and (iv) (d) Socialistic pattern of society
(b) Merriam (b) (iii), (ii), (i) and (iv)
(c) Arthur Bentley 23. What was the main findings of the
(c) (iii), (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) Lasswell Union Government administrative
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
14. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g committee headed by Home
18. The classical theory of admini-
challenged the idea of political Secretary N.N. Vohra in 1993?
stration is also known as
development as an unilinear (a) Electoral Reforms
process? (a) Locational theory
(b) Minimum qualification for
(a) Shils (b) Historical theory
politicians
(b) Huntington (c) Mechanistic theory
(c) Nexus between politicians,
(c) Almond (d) Human Relations theory
criminals and bureaucrats
(d) Halpren 19. Pareto’s description of elites as
(d) Internal security priorities
15. Which of the following pairs are ‘speculators’ and ‘rentiers’ resembles
24. Partha Chatterjee has commented
not correctly matched? the characterisation of governing
cliques of that the latest phase of the
List–I List–II
globalization of capital will witness
(Thinkers) (Concepts) (a) Plato (b) Aristotle
(i) Easton – Regulatory an emerging opposition between
(c) Machiavelli (d) Marx
mechanisms 20. The difference between order (a) Modernity and Democracy
(ii) Deutsch – Modernising and disorder is more important (b) Feudalism and Democracy
oligarchy than the difference between (c) Inclusion and Democracy
(iii) Shils – Structural communism and liberal democracy (d) Elitism and Mass cultures
differentiation 25. The President can make a procla-
is advocated by
(iv) Lucian Pye – Negative mation of Financial Emergency
Feedback (a) Lipset (b) Lijphart
(c) Dahl (d) Huntington under Art. 360
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: 21. Which of the following statements (a) for the whole of India or any
are not correct? part of India
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii) I. As per the provisions of the (b) for the whole of India except
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) Constitution, the Council of Nagaland, Tripura, Manipur,
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) Ministers is both collectively Meghalaya, Mizoram and
16. What is “Cultural Dualism”? and individually responsible Arunachal Pradesh
(a) The existence of two religious to the Lok Sabha. (c) for the whole of India except
cultures. II. A motion expressing lack of Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Newly emerging nations have confidence in an individual (d) for the whole of India except
two languages. minister is not admissible. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
 40
26. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The secular ideology
of the Indian State appears to be
paradox in view of the deeply
religious orientation of the Indian
society.
Reason (R): India’s secularism
was invented for integrating the
multicultural plurality of the society
into a common nation- state as well
as for containing potentialities of
the imperial ‘divide and rule’ and
‘Muslim Leagues’ ‘two-nation’
theory in British India.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true but (A) is false.
27. Dharamsala model of Indian capi-
talism was propounded by
(a) Dandekar and Rath
(b) Arjun Sengupta
(c) Raj Krishna
(d) Amartya Sen
28. The 1963 Kamraj Plan was
initiated by Nehru
(a) to revive Congress party
commitments
(b) to attract the youth to the party
(c) to plan and execute succession
procedure in the party
(d) to plan gender parity in the
party
29. Which of the following statements
about the Central Vigilance Com-
missioner is not true?
(a) The Central Vigilance Comm-
issioner is appointed by the
President of India.
(b) The post of Central Vigilance
Commissioner is a statutory
post.
(c) He holds office for a term of
five years.
(d) He is empowered to exercise
superintendence over the
functioning of CBI.
30. Which of the following statements
are not true?
(i) The Election Commission of
India has created a Special
Election Expenditure Mon-
itoring Division in the
Commission.
(ii) The accounts of political
parties are audited annually.
(iii) Paid news in connection
with elections is an electoral
offence.
(iv) Videography of the poll pro-
ceedings inside the polling
stations is permissible.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
31. Assertion (A): The arguments of C.
Wright Mill’s power elites are based
on the classical elitist framework.
Reason (R): Elitist formulation is
not possible without reference to
classical elitism.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the correct expla-
nation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
32. The theory of “Prismatic Society”
is based on
(a) Historical studies of public
administration in different
societies.
(b) Study of public services in
developed and developing
countries.
Solved Paper-II, June-2013
(c) Institutional comparison
of public administration in
developed countries.
(d) Structural-functional analysis
of public administration in
developing countries.
33. Job loading means
(a) Deliberate upgrading of
responsibility, scope and
challenges.
(b) Shifting of an employee from
one job to another.
(c) Making the job more interesting
(d) All of the above
34. Negative motivation is based on
(a) Anxiety (b) Threat
(c) Money (d) Fear
35. Simon was positively influenced
by the ideas of
(a) L.D. White
(b) Terry
(c) Barnard
(d) Henry Fayol
36. Assertion (A): Classical theory
of organisation is based on formal
principles.
Reason (R): Classicists lacked
behavioural analysis.
(a) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true but (A) is false.
37. What is the methodology proposed
by Herbert Simon?
(a) Bounded Rationality
(b) Logical Positivism
(c) Decision making
(d) Satisfying
38. Who among the following thin-
kers rejected the principles of
administration as myths and
proverbs?
(a) Herbert Simon
(b) W.F. Willoughby
(c) L.D. White
(d) Chester Bernard
Solved Paper-II, June-2013
39. The concept of the “zone of indiff-
erence” is associated with
(a) Power
(b) Decision making
(c) Authority
(d) Leadership
40. Name the scholar who analysed
leadership as “circular response”.
(a) Taylor
(b) Millet
(c) M.P. Follett
(d) C.I. Barnard
41. Non-state dimension of warfare is
also called
(a) Westphalian warfare
(b) Post-westphalian warfare
(c) New war
(d) Pre-westphalian warfare
42. Tehran Declaration of 1 December
1943 drew a plan for
(a) Trusteeship
(b) New-membership
(c) Peace-keeping
(d) Conflict resolution
43. Who coined the term “Functionalist
theory of Integration”?
(a) David Mittarany
(b) Ernst Haas
(c) Joseph Nye
(d) Andrew Linklater
44. The CEPA (Comprehensive
Economic Partnership Agreement)
was officially endorsed in October
2010 between
(a) India and Japan
(b) India and China
(c) India and Russia
(d) India and South Korea
Answers with Explanations
1. (c) Aristotle asserts that a life
of virtue consists of finding the mean
between two extremes. In the case of
politics, the middle class is the mean
between the rich and the poor. In a city
that consists only of rich and poor, the
rich will feel contempt for the poor and
the poor will feel hatred and envy for the
rich.
45. What is the correct sequence of
Morton Kaplan’s models of systems
analysis?
(i) Balance of Power
(ii) Loose Bipolarity
(iii) Tight Bipolarity
(iv) Universal International System
Codes:
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
46. Who wrote the book “Stable
Peace”?
(a) Johan Galtung
(b) Gunnar Myrdal
(c) Kenneth Boulding
(d) Peter Wallerstein
47. Security Council Resolution No.
1441 of Nov 2002 deals with
(a) U.N. involvement in Somalia.
(b) Enforced the no fly zone in
Bosnia
(c) Sanctioned intervention at the
end of the Gulf War to protect
the Kurds in Northern Iraq.
(d) Resolution on Iraq, which
threatned serious conseque-
nces, if Saddam Hussain failed
to reveal his weapons of mass
destruction to team of U.N.
Inspectors.
48. Who enunciated International
society theory as a combination of
three schools of thought – Realism,
Rationalism and Revolutionism?
(a) Martin Wight
(b) Kenneth Waltz
2. (b) Machiavelli believed Rome
declined because of religious changes. He
highly valued the old Roman religion which
was manipulated by leaders to motivate
armies or civilian populations, and he
advised rulers to use religious ceremonies
to their advantage in the pursuit of ambition
and glory. He also opposed Christianity
because it emphasized humility and blessing
through pain and suffering instead of a zeal
41
(c) Hedley Bull
(d) Raymond Aron
49. Assertion (A): The decisions of the
security council are binding, and
must only be passed by the majority
of nine out of the 15 members, as
well as each of the five permanent
members.
Reason (R): These five permanent
members have veto power over all
Security Council decisions.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
50. Which of the following are part of
Morganthau’s realist principles?
(i) Politics is rooted in a perma-
nent and unchanging human
nature.
(ii) Self-interest is a basic fact of
the human condition.
(iii) Coercion is only part of
foreign policy.
(iv) National interest defined in
terms of power.
Codes:
(a) All are correct.
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(c) (i), (iii) and (ii) are correct.
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
to achieve great things and thus enfeebled
the militaristic Roman mindset. Decades
of religious weaknesses caused Rome to
fall to barbarian invasions. Machiavelli
compared Roman Christianity to the
Renaissance Catholic Church, and he
bemoaned the power that the current
church wielded over the secular state,
a fact he blamed on Rome’s religious
failures.
 42
3. (d) they made it clear that these should
4. (c) Thomas Carlyle described
Bentham’s utilitarianism as “pig
philosophy”. Given the abysmal way we
treat our fellow creatures, such an absence
of arbitrary anthropocentric bias is scarcely
a reproach. However, Carlyle shared an
equal aversion from Burke’s “swinish
multitude” and their simple pleasures.
In response, JS Mill sought to improve
Bentham’s theory by invoking “higher”
and “lower” pleasures: “Better to be
Socrates dissatisfied than a fool satisfied”.
5. (d) Rawls published three main
books. The first, A Theory of Justice,
focused on distributive justice and
attempted to reconcile the competing
claims of the values of freedom
and equality. The second, Political
Liberalism, addressed the question of
how citizens divided by intractable
religious and philosophical disagreements
could come to endorse a constitutional
democratic regime. The third, The Law
of Peoples, focused on the issue of global
justice.
6. (c) Mao Tse-Tung said ‘The atom
bomb is a paper tiger which the United
States reactionaries use to scare people.
It looks terrible, but in fact it isn’t.’ Mao
Zedong first introduced his idea of paper
tigers to Americans in an August 1946
interview with American journalist Anna
Louise Strong. In a 1956 interview with
Strong, Mao used the phrase “paper
tiger” to describe American imperialism
he said “In appearance it is very powerful
but in reality it is nothing to be afraid
of; it is a paper tiger. Outwardly a tiger,
it is made of paper, unable to withstand
the wind and the rain. I believe that it is
nothing but a paper tiger.”
7. (b) The seven principles of Post
Behaviouralism as laid down by David
Easton can be summarized as follows:
•• Importance of Substance: Post
Behaviouralist did not under
estimate the importance of tools
and methods but at the same time
have much less importance than the
substance. Tools should be used for
a purpose.
•• Stress on Social Change: The
Post-Behaviouralist condemned
Behaviouralist trying to preserve
social order which was bound to
hamper the understanding of facts
in the broadest sense. They wanted
that stress of contemporary political
science should be on social change
and not on social preservation.
•• Emphasis on Reality: The
Behaviouralist had lost touch
with realities and kept away from
brute realities of politics. Post-
Behaviouralist want that barriers of
silence which behavioural language
has created should be ended and
realities of life situation accepted
and problems of life solved.
•• Stress on Value Loaded Political
Science: Post – Behaviourailst
however, did not agree with
this viewpoint and stressed on
value loaded political Science.
According to them all knowledge
stands on values and that unless
value is considered as the basis of
knowledge there is every danger
that knowledge will become
purposeless.
•• Stress on Human Values: Post-
Behaviourailsts are of the opinion
that as learned scholars’ political
scientists falls under the category of
intellectuals and as such it becomes
their most important duty to protect
human values civilization.
•• Stress on Action Science: Post-
Behaviourailsts puts a lot of
emphasis on action rather than on
contemplative science.
•• Stress on Politicization of Profe-
ssion: The Behaviourailsts were
not in favour of politicization
of political science but Post-
Behaviourailsts hold the opposite
view. According to the post
Behaviourailsts, to achieve the
goals mentioned above there was
Solved Paper-II, June-2013
a growing need for politicization
of profession of all professional
associations and institutions.
8. (c)
9. (c) In Plato’s theory of virtue, we
found that he considered virtue to be an
excellence of the soul. Insofar as the soul
has several components, there will be
many components of its excellence. The
excellence of reason is wisdom, of the
passions, attributes such as courage, and
of the spirit, temperance.
10. (a)
11. (a) Historically, one of the most
striking characteristics of the general
process of capitalist development is the
phenomenon of uneven development,
defined as persistent differences
in levels and rates of economic
development between different sectors
of the economy. Uneven development
refers to the unequal distribution of
people, resources, and wealth that is a
fundamental characteristic of human
geography. Uneven development is
evident at the global, regional, national,
and urban scales.
12. (d)
13. (a) Institutional approach primarily
deals with the formal features of
government and politics accentuates the
study of the political institutions and
structures. Therefore, the institutional
approach is concerned with the study
of the formal structures like legislature,
executive, judiciary, political parties,
and interest groups. The supporters of
this approach includes both ancient and
modern political philosophers. Among
the ancient thinkers, Aristotle had
significant role in shaping this approach
while the modern thinkers include
James Bryce, Bentley, Walter Bagehot,
Harold Laski contributed to develop this
approach.
14. (b)  15. (d)
16. (c) Cultural dualism is a political
and cultural program designed to affirm
cultural duality in a legally symmetrical
way, based on hopes of achieving
harmony that are well intended but often
largely abstract and illusory.
Solved Paper-II, June-2013 43
17. (b) official agencies on the criminal network
Outline of Almond-Coleman’s Paradigm of Political System: which was virtually running a parallel
Performance Style government. It also discussed criminal
gangs who enjoyed the patronage
C
INPUTS OUTPUTS of politicians, of all parties, and the
O
1. Political Socialization N protection of government functionaries.
V 1. Rule-making It revealed that political leaders had
  and Recruitment
E become the leaders of gangs. They were
R connected to the military. Over the
S years criminals had been elected to local
2. Interest-articulation I 2. Rule-application bodies, State Assemblies and Parliament.
O The unpublished annexures to the Vohra
N Report were believed to contain highly
3. Rule-adjudication explosive material.
3. Interest-aggregation P 24. (a)  25. (c)  26. (a)
R 27. (c) Raj Krishna was an Indian
O
economist who taught at the Delhi School
C
of Economics. He is most famous for the
E
phrase “Hindu rate of growth” which
4. Political Communication S
S he coined for India’s low rate of GDP
growth between the 1950s and 1980s. He
18. (c) Classical administration theory ministers (including the ones selected also propounded the Dharamsala model
are also known as Mechanistic theory which from the Rajya Sabha) are jointly of Indian Capitalism.
fails to explain dynamism in organization responsible for the Lok Sabha. The 28. (a) During 1963 Congress had
behaviour. They treats workers as cogs in opposition parties (or any member) been in power for over 15 years, Prime
machine. can move a motion expressing want of Minister Jawaharlal Nehru was ageing
19. (d) Pareto has explained two confidence (no confidence) in the Council and factors like the defeat in the war with
classes in economical field – Speculators of Ministers. The procedure is laid down China in 1962 had contributed to some
and Rentier. According to him, people under Rule 198 of the rules of procedure erosion in the party’s popularity. The
of first class do not have definite income. and conduct of business of the LS. A no- Congress also lost three key bypolls to
Their income may be some times less and confidence motion need not set out any Opposition stalwarts Acharya Kripalani,
sometimes more. The people of this class grounds on which it is based. Even when Rammanohar Lohia and Minoo Masani.
earn wealth by their intelligence. They grounds are mentioned in the notice and K Kamaraj, then chief minister of Tamil
are inventors, industrialists, or skilled read out in the House, they do not form Nadu and one of strongest regional
businessmen. Conversely, the income part of the no-confidence motion. leaders in the Congress, provided a
of other class i.e. Rentiers is definite. 22. (d) Through the 1955 Avadi formula for revitalising the party. One 2
The people of first class use power and Resolution of the Indian National October 1963, Gandhi Jayanti, Kamaraj
cunningness to protect their interest. Congress, a socialistic pattern of deve- resigned as chief minister and urged
Also they adopt corrupt techniques. lopment was presented as the goal other chief ministers and Union ministers
Because of this corruption they are of the party. A year later, the Indian to follow suit. An impressed Prime
ruined and people of second class who parliament adopted ‘socialistic pattern of Minister Nehru is said to have offered
are honest occupy their place. Along with development’ as official policy, a policy his own resignation as well but Kamaraj
this change in class, change also occurs that came to include land reforms and is said to have urged him not to quit. Six
in economy of the society. This theory regulations of industries. Union Ministers including Lal Bahadur
by Pareto is similar to the theory of class 23. (c) The Vohra Committee Report Shastri, Jagjivan Ram and Morarji Desai,
struggle presented by Karl Marx. was submitted by the former Indian and six chief ministers, including Biju
20. (d) Union Home Secretary, N.N. Vohra, Patnaik, S K Patil and Kamaraj himself,
21. (b) Collective Responsibility is in October 1993. It studied the problem resigned from their posts. Plan actually
the basis of the Parliamentary system of of the criminalisation of politics and of revitalised the Congress and it unleash a
Government. The Council of Ministers the nexus among criminals, politicians major churn in the party. Kamaraj, the
is collectively responsible to the House and bureaucrats in India. The report architect of the organisational overhaul,
of the People. This means that all the contained several observations made by became party president.
 44
29. (c) The Central Vigilance Commi-
ssioner and the Vigilance Commissioner
shall hold office for a term of four years
from the date on which he/she enters
upon his/her office or till he/she attains
the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
30. (d)  31. (c) beings as different components/parts of
32. (d) Fused-Prismatic-Diffracted
Model deals with underdeveloped,
developing & developed societies. For
this Riggs used the example from Thailand
[Underdeveloped Society] & contemporary
U.S.A [i.e. developed society]. Between
both of these extremes, there exists the
PRISMATIC SOCIETY which has
administrative sub-system known as
“SALA” Model. Riggs mainly focussed
on Prismatic Society & its features by a
diagram of PRISM.
33. (a) Job loading is the terminology
used by Herzberg to describe his
principles for enriching positions and
giving employees more challenging
work. It’s intended to contrast with job
enlargement or horizontal job loading,
which often involves giving employees
more work without changing the
challenge level.
34. (d) Negative motivation is about
punishment and fear. It’s the sort of
motivation that gets you to quit smoking
because you’ve witnessed someone
struggle with cancer. Of course, not
every motivation needs to be dramatic
or dreadful. You could be motivated to
stay at your job because you don’t want
to lose the house, or could be paying
the bills on time because you want to
avoid the penalty. Negative motivation
is likely to work just as well as positive
motivation, but for some people it’s a lot
more effective. Certain people are driven
by fear and anxiety. The looming threat
of loss is too much to bear for some
individuals and they tend to take action
more quickly in such scenarios.
35. (c) Herbert Simon himself believed
that he was influenced by Chester Irving
Barnard. In an interview in 1988, Simon
indicated that he “built squarely on
Barnard” Simon followed Chester Barnard
who pointed out that “the decisions that
an individual makes as a member of an
organization are quite distinct from his
personal decisions”.
36. (b) The Classical Theory is the
traditional theory, wherein more emphasis
is on the organization rather than the
employees working therein. According
to the classical theory, the organization is
considered as a machine and the human
that machine. It is more concerned with
the amount of output than the human
beings. The human beings are considered
to be relatively homogeneous and un-
modifiable. Thus, labour is not divided
on the basis of different kinds of jobs to
be performed in an organization.
37. (b) Logical positivism is a 20th
century philosophical movement holding
that all meaningful statements are either
analytic or conclusively verifiable or at
least confirmable by observation and
experiment and that metaphysical theories
are therefore strictly meaningless. Simon
used the logical positivist perspective as
developed by the Vienna circle in the
1920s to mount much of his subsequent
work in public administration.
38. (a)  39. (c) and Japan successfully concluded a
40. (c) The concept of circular
response, developed in Creative
Experience and in later essays and
lectures, is M.P. Follett’s principal
contribution to the analysis of failures
of integration and theory of leadership.
Circular response rests upon the theory
that the unit of social analysis is the
pattern of relations between actors,
conceived as a single situation produced
by a union of their interests.
41. (b) The most recent transformation
of world order is often depicted as a shift
from a Westphalian to a post-Westphalian
era in which international organizations
are becoming increasingly independent
sites of authority. Post-Westphalian
warfare intends to indicate a system in
which nation-states are no longer the sole
or even the predominant powerful actors
in the international system.
42. (c) The Tehran Conference was a
meeting between U.S. President Franklin
Delano Roosevelt, British Prime
Minister Winston Churchill, and Soviet
Premier Joseph Stalin in Tehran, Iran,
between November 28 and December
Solved Paper-II, June-2013
1, 1943. During the Conference, the
three leaders coordinated their military
strategy against Germany and Japan and
made a number of important decisions
concerning the post World War II era.
The declaration says that “we are sure
that our concord will win an enduring
peace. We recognize fully the supreme
responsibility resting upon us and all the
United Nations to make a peace which
will command the good will of the
overwhelming mass of the peoples of the
world and banish the scourge and terror
of war for many generations.”
43. (a) Divid Mittarany recommended
lean functional agencies for the
execution of international cooperation
on all issue-related, mainly technical
and economic sectors. But Mitrany’s
functionalism also referred to intrastate
combinations: to special-purpose
associations. David Mitrany gets to
propose a new international order, based
on the transnational cooperation.
44. (a) On February 16, 2011, India
historic bilateral free trade agreement
- the Comprehensive Economic
Partnership Agreement (CEPA) - in
Tokyo. The CEPA follows from the
commitment made by both the countries’
Prime Ministers in October 2010. India
has already signed similar comprehensive
agreements with Singapore and South
Korea. Japan CEPA is the third such
comprehensive agreement and the first
such agreement with one of the largest
economies in the world. The CEPA is
expected to boost bilateral trade between
India and Japan to $25 billion from the
present $10.3 billion.
45. (d) Morton Kaplan has been the
chief exponent of the Systems Approach
in international Relations. He advocates
that international politics offers the best
sphere for the application of the concept
of ‘system’ as a tool for investigating
all its phenomena. Morton Kaplan’s Six
Models of International System: On the
basis of such a conceptual framework,
Morton Kaplan discusses six models of
international system:
Solved Paper-II, June-2013
(1) The Balance of Power System
(2) The Loose Bi-polar System
(3) The Tight Bi-polar System
(4) The Universal System
(5) The Hierarchical System
(6) The Unit Veto System
46. (c) In 1978, Kenneth Boulding
introduced the term “stable peace.” It
can serve to clarify the peace we are
seeking in intractable conflict. He defines
stable peace as “a situation in which the
probability of war is so small that it does
not really enter into the calculations of
any of the people involved.”
47. (d) The United Nations Security
Council, in Resolution 1441 (November
8, 2002), unanimously deplored Iraq’s
lack of compliance with Resolution 687
(1991) on inspection, disarmament and
renunciation of terrorism in Iraq, and
went on to make several decisions under
Chapter VII of the U.N. Charter.
45
48. (a)
49. (a) Article 27 of the UN Charter,
and rule 40 of the Provisional Rules of
Procedure, concern voting in the Security
Council. To be approved, a Council
resolution must have nine “YES” votes
out of 15 and no “NO” votes from any
of the five permanent members. Each
Council member has one vote. A “NO”
vote from one of the five permanent
members kills the resolution.
50. (b)
qqq
 46
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-III, June-2013
1. Who among the following said that
Political theory contains factors of
three kinds-the factual, the causal
and the valuational?
(a) Leo Strauss
(b) Dunning
(c) G.H. Sabine
(d) Ebenstein
2. Who among the following said that
political theory is in the doghouse
in the 1950’s?
(a) Easton
(b) Laslett
(c) R.A. Dahl
(d) Riemer
3. Who among the following said,
“We can not shed our values in the
way we remove our coats”?
(a) Peter Laslett
(b) David Easton
(c) Isaiah Berlin
(d) Robert Dahl
4. Who among the following is
associated with the resurgence of
political theory?
(a) David Easton
(b) Alfred Cobban
(c) Vogelin
(d) Laslett
5. Which one of the following state-
ments is false?
(a) The term ‘Liberal’ has referred
to a class of free men who are
neither serfs nor slaves.
(b) The term ‘liberalism’ was first
employed in Spain in 1812.
(c) Classical liberalism and modern
liberalism have differences.
(d) The moral minuses of the anti-
marketeers are the moral minuses
of the pro-marketeers.
6. Whose ideas are sometimes referred
as ‘Manchester Liberalism’?
(a) Adam Smith and David Ricardo
(b) Richard Cobden and John Bright
(c) John Locke and J.S. Mill
(d) Berlin and McPherson
7. Who said, “My own existence is a
social activity and mind are social
in their context as well as in their
origin, they are social activity and
social mind”?
(a) Robert Owen
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Hegel
(d) J.S. Mill
8. From whom did Hobbes borrow the
principle of resolutive composite?
(a) Galileo
(b) Euclid
(c) Descartes
(d) Aristotle
9. Who said, “J.J. Rousseau is the
Father of Jacobin despotism, of
Caesarian dictatorship and the
inspirer of the absolute doctrines
of Kant and of Hegel”?
(a) H.J. Laski
(b) Duguit
(c) Berlin
(d) Karl Popper
10. Who among the following made
the State a moral institution with
a moral end?
(a) Bentham
(b) Machiavelli
(c) James Mill
(d) J.S. Mill
11. Who among the following formed
“The League of Radical Congres-
smen”?
Solved Paper-III, June-2013
(a) M.K. Gandhi
(b) M.N. Roy
(c) Aurobindo
(d) B.R. Ambedkar
12. Which one among the following is
not written by Aurobindo?
(a) Life Divine
(b) Essays on the Gita
(c) Yoga: Concept and Practice
(d) The Ideals of Human Unity
13. Identify the correct sequence of the
events undertaken by Mahatma
Gandhi.
(i) Organised the industrial workers
in Ahmedabad for higher wages.
(ii) Protest against the Indigo planters
at Champaran.
(iii) Satyagraha movement in Kaira
against the collection of land
revenue.
(iv) Protest against the Asiatic
Registration Act.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(b) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
14. Match the List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
List–I List–II
(Authors) (Books)
(A) R.J. Bernstein i. Spheres of
Justice: A
Defence of
Pluralism
and Equality
(B) M. Sandel ii. The
Restructuring
of Social and
Political
theory
Solved Paper-III, June-2013
(C) M. Waltzer iii. Contemporary
Political
philosophy
(D) W. Kymlicka iv. Liberalism
and the
Limits of
Justice
Codes:
A B C D
(a) i ii iii iv
(b) iii iv i ii
(c) ii iv i iii
(d) iv i iii ii
15. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): For Daniel Bell there
is the ‘end of ideology’.
Reason (R): This is to validate a
single ideology and to discredit every
other ideology.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
16. Structuration as a concept is a
way of analyzing the relationship
between structures and actors was
suggested by
(a) Talcott Parsons
(b) Anthony Giddens
(c) Robert Nisbet
(d) Michael Focault
17. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
 (Theories of (Propounders)
Political Parties)
(A) Development i. Giovomin
Theory Sartori
(B) Spatial Theory ii. Joseph la
Palombara
(C) Re-alignment iii. Maurice
Theory Duverger emerged after
(D) Permeation iv. Bunham and
Theory Sandquist
Codes:
A B C D
(a) i ii iii iv of 1937.
(b) ii i iv iii (d) After the Second World War.
(c) iii iv ii i 22. Which one of the following is not
(d) iv ii i iii a feature of the Bipolar Party
18. According to Almond, which one
is not a condition for political
development?
(a) Availability of resources
(b) Adequate response to challenges
(c) Overlapping of stages of devel-
opment
(d) Congruent development of the
other social systems
19. Corporatism is an approach that is
centrally concerned about
(a) Structures of the public sector
(b) Functions of the political system
(c) Class conflict is interest based
(d) Stresses the state and society
interactions, especially the role of
social interests influencing policy
20. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(Thinkers) (Books)
(A) Anthony i. An Economic
Downs theory of
Democracy
(B) Gabrial ii. The Three Worlds
Almond of Welfare
and Sidney Capitalism
Verba
(C) Stein iii. The Civic
Rokkan Culture
(D) Gosta iv. Citizens,
Esping- Elections,
Anderson Parties
Codes:
A B C D
(a) i iii iv ii
(b) ii i iii iv
(c) iii iv ii i
(d) iv ii i iii
47
21. The term “Cooperative Federalism”
(a) The First World War.
(b) A t t h e t i m e o f N e w D e a l
Legislations in the USA.
(c) As part of the Soviet Constitution
System?
(a) Elements of both multi and two
party systems
(b) Coalition government
(c) Alternation of power between
parties
(d) Two large coalitions composed of
several parties
23. In the electoral studies, rational
choice models have been the most
popular which is developed by
(a) Elinor Ostrom
(b) Hardin
(c) Karl Deutsch
(d) Anthony Downs
24. Conveyance theory between
advanced capitalism and developed
by
(a) Huntington (b) Putman
(c) Miliband (d) Marcuge
25. Who among the following elite
theorists said, “A man is effective
in society as a whole, not so much
because of his individual qualities
as because of the social energies
which have been deposited in him
by the mass”?
(a) Pareto (b) Gasset
(c) Michels (d) Mosca
26. What is the correct chronological
sequence of Edward Shils’ catego-
ries of political system?
(i) Political Democracy
(ii) Tutelary Democracy
(iii) Modernizing Oligarchy
(iv) Totalitarian Oligarchy
(v) Traditional Oligarchy
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
 48
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(b) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) and (iii)
(d) (ii), (i), (iii), (v) and (iv)
27. Assertion (A): Samir amin argued that
Marx foresaw that no colonial power
would be able to continue for long the
local development of capitalism.
Reason (R): This was because
of a dearth of knowledge of non-
European societies.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
28. Which of the following statements
about the US President are true?
(i) The US President can seek re-
election only once.
(ii) He can be impeached for treason,
bribery and other crimes.
(iii) At the impeachment trials the
Chief Justice of the Supreme
Court presides.
(iv) Both the President and the Vice-
President can be from the same
state.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(b) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) & (iv)
29. The politics of sex is no longer on
the fringe of politics, but it is a
central concern for policy and law
makers. Which category will this
issue be placed under?
(a) Political Development
(b) Political Modernization
(c) Political Culture
(d) Political Elites
Solved Paper-III, June-2013
30. W h o h o l d s t h e v i e w t h a t  List–I List–II
bureaucracy as an organisation (Lok Sabha) (Speaker)
cannot correct its behaviour by (A) 3rd Lok Sabha i. Shivraj
learning from its errors? Patil
(a) M. Crozier (B) 5th Lok Sabha ii. Balram
Jakhar
(b) H.J. Laski
(C) 7th Lok Sabha iii. G.S.
(c) F.M. Marx
Dhillon,
(d) Max Weber Bali Ram
31. Who said the following: Bhagat
“New light has been poured on (D) 10th Lok Sabha iv. Hukam
us, teaching us the new lesson that Singh
Kings are made for the people and Codes:
not the people for the Kings.” A B C D
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (a) iv iii ii i
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (b) iv i ii iii
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji (c) i ii iii iv
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (d) iii iv ii i
32. Who among the following had 35. Who characterized India as “A
favoured Panchayati Raj System million mutinies” in 1990?
by giving the following statement in (a) V.S. Naipaul
the Indian Constituent Assembly?
(b) M.S.A. Rao
“...in the interest of democracy,
the villages may be trained in the (c) Ghanshyam Shah
art of self-government... We must (d) Tedd Gurr
be able to reform the villages and 36. “Roses in December” is the
introduce democratic principles of autobiography of
government there...” (a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(a) Ananthasayanam Ayyangar
(b) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Hakim Ajmal Khan
(c) B. N. Rao
(d) Mohammad Karim Chhagala
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
37. Match List–I with List–II and select
33. Which of the following is not within
the correct answer from the codes
the jurisdiction of the State High
given below:
Court?
List–I List–II
(a) It can hear appeals from lower
  (Regional (State of Origin)
courts.
Political Party)
(b) It can issue writs for restoring
(A) Rashtriya i. Bihar
Fundamental Rights.
(c) It can decide the river water Lok Dal
dispute between the two states. (B) Indian National ii. Karnataka
(d) It exercises superintendence and Lok Dal
control over courts below it. (C) Janta Dal iii. Uttar
34. Match the List–I with List–II and (Secular) Pradesh
select the correct answer from the (D) Rashtriya iv. Haryana
codes given below: Janta Dal
Solved Paper-III, June-2013 49
Codes: 42. Match the List–I with List–II and 46. Which one of the following Gullick
A B C D select the correct answer from the has not covered under administrative
codes given below: functions of the Chief Executive?
(a) iii iv ii i
List–I List–II (a) Staffing
(b) i ii iii iv
(Types)   (Pressure groups) (b) Adjudicating
(c) iv iii ii i (A) Institutional i. Association (c) Directing
(d) iv i iii ii pressure of Indian
(d) Coordinating
38. Who among the following is Editor/ groups Universities
47. Which of the following principles
Author of the book “The New (B) Associational ii. All India
figure in the list of fourteen
Regional Politics of Development”. Pressure Schedule
principles propounded by Henry
groups Caste
(a) Reinhard Bendix Foyal?
Federation
(b) Arie M.M. Kacowiez (i) Subordination of individual
(C) Non- iii. All India
(c) Anthony Payne interest to general interest.
Associational Federation
pressure of University (ii) Appointment on the basis of a
(d) Partha Chatterjee
groups Teachers contract.
39. Who among the following has
Association (iii) Espirit de corps
described India as “weak-strong
(D) Anomic iv. Gopalgarh (iv) Equity
state”? pressure communal Codes:
(a) Lloyd and Susan Rudolph groups riots in (a) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(b) Gunnar Myrdal Rajasthan
(b) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(c) Rajni Kothari Codes:
(c) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(d) K.C. Wheare A B C D
(d) (i), (ii) & (iv)
40. Who has called India a Democratic (a) i ii iii iv
48. Under the code developed by
Developmental State? (b) i iii ii iv
workers at the Western Electric
(c) iii ii iv i
(a) Paul Brass Company, one who passes
(d) iv i ii iii
(b) James Manor unfavourable information about his
43. Who has termed India as an example
(c) Christopher Jefferlot colleagues to his superior is called
of “Polycentric Nationalism”?
(d) Atul Kohli (a) A squealer (b) A puzzler
(a) Partha Chatterji
41. Match the List–I with List–II and (c) A rate-buster (d) A chiseller
(b) Anthony D. Smith
select the correct answer from the 49. According to Herbert Simon, a
(c) Will Kymlicka
codes given below: decision is usually compounded of
(d) Benedict Anderson
List–I List–II (a) one fact statement and one value
44. Who is the author of the book
(States) (No. of Lok Sabha statement
“India after Gandhi: The History of
seats reserved for (b) one value statement and several
the World’s Largest Democracy”?
the Scheduled fact statements
(a) Ramchandran Guha
tribes) (c) several value statements and one
(b) Akhil Gupta
fact statement
(A) Andhra Pradesh i. 4 (c) Achin Vanaik
(d) several value statements and
(B) Chhattisgarh ii. 5 (d) Ashutosh Varshney
several fact statements
(C) Jharkhand iii. 6 45. Which of the following was the first
50. Which one of the following
(D) Madhya Pradesh iv. 3 all Indian women’s organization
principles of organisation has not
Codes: which came into force in 1926?
been enunciated by Mooney and
A B C D (a) All India Women’s Conference Reiley?
(a) i ii iii iv (b) National Council for Women in India (a) Equity principle
(b) iv i ii iii (c) National Federation of Indian
(b) Scalar principle
Women in India.
(c) iv iii ii i (c) Staff/Line principle
(d) Self-Employed Women’s Associ-
(d) ii iv i iii (d) Functional principle
ation
 50 Solved Paper-III, June-2013
51. Which one of the following books (a) Accounting of bipolar system as compared to
contains the most comprehensive (b) Filling multipolar system?
enunciation of the classical theory? (c) Managerial techniques (a) Stanley Hoffmann
(a) Introduction to the study of (d) Scope and complexity (b) Charles Kindelberger
Public Administration 57. The Fiscal Five Year Plan was (c) John Mearshemier
(b) Public Administration started in India after independence (d) John Gaddis
(c) Papers on the Science of Admini- in the year 62. Democratic Peace Theory is placed
stration (a) 1950–1951 (b) 1951–1952 under which theoretical approach
(d) Policy and Administration (c) 1952–1953 (d) 1953–1954 of International relations?
58. Assertion (A): The District Collector (a) Structural Realism
52. According to Max Weber which one
is the most important functionary at (b) Republican Realism
of the following is not a feature of
the apex of the district administration. (c) Neo-Realism
bureaucracy?
Reason (R): After independence, his (d) Institutional Liberalism
(a) Separation of office from its
role has become increasingly multi-
incumbent 63. Which of the following statements
dimensional.
(b) Rigid adherence to rules are not true?
Codes:
(i) Security dilemma is an important
(c) Selection by Patronage (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) paradox of the state system.
(d) Fix remuneration of officials is the correct explanation of (A).
(ii) Arms race increases insecurity of
53. Which one of the following is not (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
states.
an element of decision making? not the correct explanation of (A).
(iii) Arms control is a solution.
(a) It is an unconscious activity. (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(iv) Standing armies contribute to
(b) It is not one time process. (d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
security of all.
(c) It is an environment linked activity. 59. Match List–I with List–II and select Codes:
the correct answer from the codes
(d) It needs studying and finding (a) (i), (ii) & (iv)
given below:
alternatives before taking final (b) (i) & (iii)
List–I List–II
decisions.  (Authors) (Books) (c) (iii) & (iv)
54. Who among the following are called (A) Chester i. Philosophy (d) (i) & (iv)
staff officials? Barnard of administration 64. The “Clash of Civilizations and
(a) Field workers (B) Herbert ii. Ideas and New World Order” predict an
Simon Issues in Public
(b) Advisory staff ideological shift in the Post-Cold
Administration
(c) Those who help the chief executive War period from
(C) Dwight iii. Administrative
in the performance of his primary (a) Political ideology to economic
Waldo (ed). Behaviour
functions. (D) Marshall iv. The Functions liberalism
(d) Those who help the chief Dimock of the Executive (b) Geopolitics to geo-economics
executive in the implementation Codes: (c) Nation-state to the civilization
of his functions. area.
A B C D
(d) Political ideology to culture and
55. Which of the following concepts of (a) iii iv ii i
religion.
administration is action oriented (b) iv iii ii i
65. Assertion (A): Modern technology
rather than structure oriented? (c) i iv ii iii
enhances the importance of war and
(a) Democratic Administration (d) ii i iii iv threats of war.
(b) Autocratic Administration 60. Performance Budgeting became Reason (R): War no longer is just
(c) Development Administration popular in the a contest of strength. It is more a
(d) All of the above (a) 1950s (b) 1960s contest of nerve and risk taking.
56. Point out from the following the (c) 1970s (d) 1980s Codes:
uncommon factor between public 61. Who builts on Kenneth Waltz’s (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
and private administrations argument concerning the stability is the correct explanation of (A).
Solved Paper-III, June-2013
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
66. What is a “Quasi-State”?
(a) A State that possess juridical
statehood but severely deficient
in empirical statehood.
(b) A State that possesses empirical
statehood.
(c) A State that possesses neither
juridical statehood nor empirical
statehood.
(d) A State that has divided loyalties.
67. With which approach would one
associate the following statement?
Economic globalization is an
uneven, hierarchical process and
benefits only a tiny minority?
(a) Economic Liberalism
(b) Economic Realists
(c) Mercantilism
(d) Neo-Marxism
68. Match the List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
List–I  List–II
 (Foreign Policy (Country)
think tank)
(A) Foreign Policy i. USA
Institute
(B) Institute for ii. UK
Defense &
Strategic
Analysis
(C) Carnegie iii. Turkey
Endowment
(D) International iv. India
Institute for
strategic studies
Answers with Explanations
1. (c) G.H. Sabine in his book
‘Introduction to Political Theory’
wrote that political theory contains
factors of three kinds–the factual, the
causal and the valuational.
2. (d) During the 1950s most political
scientists were writing about the death
of political philosophy or that political
51
Codes: List–I List–II
A B C D  (Countries) (Problems)
(a) i ii iii iv (A) Sri Lanka i. Kachativu
(B) Pakistan ii. Wular Barrage
(b) ii iii iv i
(C) Nepal iii. Susta Border
(c) iii iv i ii
(D) Bangladesh iv. New Moore
(d) iv ii iii i
Island
69. Match List–I with List–II and select Codes:
the correct answer from the codes A B C D
given below:
(a) i ii iii iv
List–I List–II
(b) iv iii ii i
 (Terrorist (Countries)
Organisations) (c) iii iv i ii
(A) LTTE i. Peru (d) ii iii iv i
(B) Hizbullah ii. Nigeria 73. Which one of the following is not a
(C) Bako Haram iii. Iran Indo-Pak dispute?
(D) Shining Path iv. Sri Lanka (a) Siachin dispute
Codes: (b) Sir Creek dispute
A B C D (c) Cross Border terrorism
(a) i ii iii iv (d) Dahagram dispute
(b) iv iii ii i 74. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
(c) ii i iv iii
given below:
(d) iii iv i ii
List–I List–II
70. The Panel on United Nations Peace (State) (Minorities)
Operations was set up by the earlier
(A) Myanmar i. Hindus
Secretary General Kofi Annan.
(B) Malaysia ii. Rohingas
Name the report
(C) Indonesia iii. Tamils
(a) Hammarskjold Report
(D) Laos iv. Vietnamese
(b) Rajeshwar Dayal Report Codes:
(c) Brahimi Report A B C D
(d) Kofi Annan Report (a) iv iii ii i
71. Indian troops, military observers and (b) iii ii i iv
civilian police personnel served in (c) ii iii i iv
U.N.O. peace keeping operation in (d) i ii iii iv
(a) Western Sahara 75. Recently there were tensions
(b) Bosnia between Cambodia and Thailand.
(c) Herzegovina What is the issue in conflict?
(d) All of the above (a) Illegal migrations
72. Match the List–I with List–II and (b) Prachvihar
select answer from code given (c) Emerald Buddha
below: (d) Minorities
philosophy should be consigned to the that “We can not shed our values in the
doghouse. Riemer was one among those way we remove our coats”.
political scientists who said that political 4. (c) Eric Voegelin was a German–
theory is in the doghouse in the 1950s. American political philosopher. Voegelin
published scores of books, essays, and
3. (b) David Easton in his system
approach while expressing his view on reviews in his lifetime. An early work
the importance of behaviour. He said was Die politischen Religionen (1938;
 52
The Political Religions), on totalitarian
ideologies as political religions due to
their structural similarities to religion.
Voegelian was also associated with the
resurgence of political theory.
5. (d) Richard Bellamy in his book
“Theories and Concepts of Politics: An
Introduction” wrote that ‘The moral
minuses of the anti-marketeers are the
moral pluses of the pro-marketeers.
6. (b) Manchester Liberalism compri-
ses the political, economic and social
movements of the 19th century that
originated in Manchester, England. Led
by Richard Cobden and John Bright, it
won a wide hearing for its argument that
free trade would lead to a more equitable
society, making essential products
available to all.
7. (b) Barbara Goodwin in his book
‘Using Political Ideas’ mentioned the
words quoted by Karl Marx which says
“My own existence is a social activity
and mind are social in their context as
well as in their origin, they are social
activity and social mind”.
8. (a) Aubrey claims that when Hobbes
was at Florence he contracted a friendship
with the famous Galileo Galilei. And from
Galileo, Hobbes borrow the principle of
resolutive composite.
9. (b) Duguit comments that
J.J. Rousseau is the father of Jacobin
despotism, of Caesarian dictatorship, and
the inspirer of the absolutist doctrines of
Kant and Hegel.
10. (d) The ethical theory of John
Stuart Mill is most extensively articulated
in his classical text Utilitarianism. Its goal
is to justify the utilitarian principle as the
foundation of morals. This principle says
actions are right in proportion as they
tend to promote overall human happiness.
11. (b) M.N. Roy proposed an
alternative leadership, seized the crisis
following Bose’s re-election as the
Congress President, in 1938: in Pune, in
June, he formed his League of Radical
Congressmen. Disillusioned with both
bourgeois democracy and communism,
he devoted the last years of his life to the
formulation of an alternative philosophy
which he called Radical Humanism and
of which he wrote a detailed exposition
in Reason, Romanticism and Revolution.
12. (c) Aurobindo wrote, ‘The Integral
yoga’ and not ‘Yoga: Concept and
Practice’.
13. (b) Protest against the Asiatic
Registration Act in 1906. Protest against
the Indigo planters at Champaran in
1917. Satyagraha movement in Kaira
against the collection of land revenue
1918. Organised the industrial workers
in Ahmedabad for higher wages in 1918.
14. (c)
R.J. Bernstein – The Restructuring
of Social and
Political theory
M. Sandel – Liberalism and the
Limits of Justice
M. Walzer – Spheres of Justice:
A Defense of
Pluralism and
Equality
W. Kymlicka – Contemporary
Political
philosophy
15. (c) ‘The End of Ideology’
by Daneil Bell was one of the most
influential, most controversial, and
most misunderstood books about the
1950s. But it is not simply a central
text of the intellectual history of those
years (although it certainly is that). It
is also a provocative discussion by one
of America’s most creative thinkers of
political and philosophical issues that
concern us still.
16. (b) Structuration Theory devel-
oped by Anthony Giddens, a British
sociologist, in response to claims post-
structuralism, holds that the structures
that humans find themselves in are
determined for them, and volunteerism,
that suggests that humans are completely
free to create their lived environment.
17. (b)
Development – Joseph la
Theory Palombara
Spatial Theory – Giovomin Sartori
Realignment – Burnham and
Theory Sandquist
Permeation – Maurice Duverger
Theory
Solved Paper-III, June-2013
18. (c) In order to increase its capabi-
lities, “the political system”, according
to Almond and Powell, has to “develop”.
They define such “political development”
as “the increased differentiation and
specialization of political structures and
the increased secularization of political
culture” Overlapping is not a condition
for political development.
19. (d) Corporatism is a political
ideology which advocates the organization
of society by corporate groups, such as
agricultural, labour, military, scientific,
or guild associations on the basis of their
common interests. This is sometimes
also referred to as neo-corporatism and
is associated with social democracy.
20. (a)
Anthony Downs – An Economic
theory of
Democracy
Gabrial Almond – The Civic
and Sidney Verba Culture
Stein Rokkan – Citizens,
Elections,
Parties
Gosta Esping – The Three
Andersen Worlds of
Welfare
Capitalism
21. (d) Federalism, as an ever chang-
ing concept, morphed from Dual
Federalism and Cooperative Federalism
from the 1930s through to the 1970s.
Under Cooperative Federalism the
federal government saw a huge expan-
sion in its role.
22. (b) Coalition formation is a feature
of Multi-Party system and not Bipolar
Party System. In Bipolar Party system
either of the party form the government.
23. (d) In An Economic Theory of
Democracy (1957), an early work in
rational choice theory, Downs posited
the paradox of voting, which claimed
that significant elements of political life
could not be explained in terms of voter
self-interest.
24. (d) Conveyance is the act of
transferring an ownership interest in
Solved Paper-III, June-2013
a property from one party to another.
Conveyance also refers to the written
instrument, such as a deed or lease, that
transfers legal title of a property from
the seller to the buyer. Marcuge was the
propounder of Conveyance Theory.
25. (b) José Ortega y Gasset (1883–1955)
was a prolific and distinguished Spanish
philosopher in the twentieth century. In the
course of his career as a philosopher, social
theorist, essayist, cultural and aesthetic
critic, educator, politician and editor of the
influential journal, Revista de Occidente,
he has written on a broad range of themes
and issues.
26. (a) Edward Shils make empirical
analysis of transitional political systems
and classified them in five categories:
(i) Political democracy;
(ii) Tutelary democracy;
(iii) Modernising oligarchy;
(iv) Totalitarian oligarchy; and
(v) Traditional oligarchy.
These patterns of transi­tional societies
can be taken as stages of political
development. In fact, they can display
political development in ascending order
with the western model as his ‘ideal type’
though, not expressly mentioned.
27. (a) Yes, Samir Amin argued that
and the reason he proposed was the dearth
of knowledge of Non‑European societies.
Both the statement are correct and
Assertion is correctly based on reason.
28. (a) A US president can have a
maximum tenure of 8 year, which means
he/she can seek re-election only once.
He can be impeached for treason, bribery
etc. by an impeachment trial headed by
Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
29. (c) Political culture approach deals
with all the cultural aspect of society.
It studies gender, caste, race, religion,
ethnicity etc. Hence Politics of Sex can
be categorised under Political Culture.
30. (a) Michel Crozier in his work
‘The Bureaucratic Phenomenon’ has
suggested that a bureaucratic organization
is one that cannot correct its behavior by
learning from its errors.
31. (c) Dada Bhai Naoroji has made
this comment in relation to Democratic
system. He said new light has been
poured on us, teaching us the new lesson
that Kings are made for the people and
not the people for the Kings.
32. (a) On this issue, the Constituent
Assembly debates reflect the emergence of
two conflicting ideas that sharply divided the
political leaders into two camps. One group
of leaders 38 highly favored the Panchayat
system as the school of democracy and
instrument of village upliftment. And they
recommended a suitable constitutional
position, equipped with financial resources
and some measure of autonomy, in the
Indian polity. Amendments were moved
in this regard by M. Ananthasayanam
Ayyangar and N.G. Ranga, according
to which, “the State shall establish self-
governing Panchayats for every village or
a group of villages with adequate powers
and funds to give training to rural people in
democracy and pave the way for effective
decentralisation of political and economic
power”.
33. (c) The jurisdiction power of High
Courts does not involve giving decision
on Inter-State River Water Disputes. This
power is solely given to Supreme Court
of India under its Original Jurisdiction.
34. (a)
(Lok Sabha) (Speaker)
3rd Lok Sabha – Hukam Singh
5th Lok Sabha – G.S. Dhillon, Bali
Ram Bhagat
7th Lok Sabha – Balram Jakhar
10th Lok Sabha – Shivraj Patil
35. (a) India: A Million Mutinies Now is
a nonfiction book written by V. S. Naipaul.
It was published in 1990. It is a travelogue
written by Naipaul during his sojourn to
his ancestral land of India. It was the third
of Naipaul’s acclaimed Indian trilogy.
36. (d) ‘Roses In December: An
Autobiography’ presents the life of
M. C. Chagla, in the midst of India’s
most historical events. It was originally
published in 1973, is the autobiography
of Mahommedali Currim Chagla, who
53
was the Chief Justice of the Bombay
High Court from 1948 to 1958.
37. (a)
(Regional Political (State of Origin)
Party)
Rashtriya Lok Dal – Uttar Pradesh
Indian National – Haryana
Lok Dal
Janta Dal (Secular) – Karnataka
Rashtriya Janata – Bihar
Dal
38. (c) ‘The New Regional Politics
of Development’ was edited by Anthony
Payne. The book assesses the various
development strategies being pursued in
each of the major regions of the world.
39. (a) The three volumes, ‘Explaining
Indian Democracy’, bringing together the
research publications of Lloyd Rudolph
and Susanne Rudolph over a period of
fifty years. According to the Rudolphs,
the Indian state is strong and weak at
the same time. They characterize it as a
‘weak-strong state’.
40. (b) James Manor described
India as Democraticlly developmental
state. He categorised India in such a
way considering it zeal for democraatic
institution and process.
41. (b)
(States) (No. of Lok
Sabha seats
reserved for the
Scheduled tribes)
Andhra Pradesh – 3
Chhattisgarh – 4
Jharkhand – 5
Madhya Pradesh – 6
42. (b)
(Types) (Pressure groups)
Institutional – Association of
pressure Indian
groups Universities
Associational – All India
pressure groups Federation of
University
Teachers
Association
Non- – All India
Associational Schedule Caste
pressure groups Federation
Anomic – Gopalgarh
pressure communal
groups riots in Rajasthan
 54
43. (b) Anthony David Stephen Smith
was a British historical sociologist. He
is considered one of the founders of the
interdisciplinary field of nationalism
studies. He termed India as an example
of Polycentric Nationalism.
44. (a) India after Gandhi: The History
of the World’s Largest Democracy is a
book by Indian historian Ramchandra
Guha published by HarperCollins in
August 2007. Ramachandra Guha’s India
after Gandhi is a magisterial account of
the pains, struggles, humiliations and
glories of the world’s largest and least
likely democracy.
45. (b) The National Council for
Women in India, working to develop
the condition socio-economic status of
women in India. Chaired by Durgabai
Deshmukh the National Council of
Women was established in 1926. The
organisation is set up to ensure the equal
rights of women in society.
46. (b) POSDCORB is an acronym
which represents the functions of Chief
Executive as Planning, Organizing,
Staffing, Directing, Coordinating,
Reporting and Budgeting which was
first coined in a paper on administrative
management that was written for the
Brownlow Committee by Luther Gulick
and Lyndall Urwick.
47. (b) Fayol’s principles are listed
below:
•• Division of Work
•• Authority
•• Discipline
•• Unity of Command
•• Unity of Direction
•• Subordination of Individual Interests
to the General Interest
•• Remuneration
•• Centralization
•• Scalar Chain
•• Order
•• Equity
•• Stability of Tenure of Personnel
•• Initiative
•• Esprit de Corps
48. (a) Squealer – one who reveals
confidential information in return for
money. Betrayer, blabber, informer, rat.
Canary, fink, snitch, stool pigeon, stoolie,
stool pigeon, sneaker, snitcher, sneak –
someone acting as an informer or decoy
for the police. Informant, source – a
person who supplies information.
49. (b) Decision-making is a process
in which the decision-maker uses to
arrive at a decision. The core of this
process is described by Herbert Simon
in a model. Simon says that a decision
consist a value statement and several fact
statement.
50. (a) Mooney and Reiley were con-
cerned with certain universal principles
and contributed four principles of
organization, namely, the coordinative
principle, the scalar principle, the
functional principle, and staff-line
principle. They are not associated with
Equity principle.
51. (c) ‘Papers on the Science of
Administration was published by Luther
Gulick in 1937. The papers brought
together in this collection are essays
by men scientifically interested in the
phenomena of administration. Most of
these writers did their thinking indepen-
dently, in some cases without any
acquaintance with the others, or with
their writings.
52. (c) Max Weber argued that the
bureaucratic organizational form is
characterized by six features:
(1) Specialization and Division of
Labor;
(2) Hierarchical Authority Struc-
tures;
(3) Rules and Regulations;
(4) Technical Competence Guide-
lines;
(5) Impersonality and Personal
Indifference;
(6) A Standard of Formal. Selection
by Patronage can’t be derived
from these features mentioned
above.
53. (a) Simon explains that decision-
making basically involves choice
between alternative plans of action,
and choice in turn, between facts and
values. To him, every decision consists
of a logical combination of fact and value
propositions. Decision making involves
3 stages: Intelligence Activity, Design
Activity, Choice Activity.
Solved Paper-III, June-2013
54. (c) The Staff officials are those
who have the responsibility to support
the chief executive in the performance of
his primary function. The Staff officials
are considered as the backbone of office
administration system.
55. (c) Development Administration
is about projects, programs, policies
and ideas which are focused on the
development of a nation, with the
point of view of socio-economic and
socio-political development of society
in general, carried out by talented and
skilled bureaucrats.
56. (d) Scope and Complexity are
among the uncommon factor between
public and private administrations.
57. (a) India launched its fiscal First
Five year plan in 1951, immediately after
independence, under socialist influence
of the first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal
Nehru. The First Five-Year Plan was
one of the most important, because it had
a great role in the launching of Indian
development after Independence.
58. (a) District Collector/Magistrate
in India.... The main functions of the
district collector were to supervise
general administration, to collect land
revenue and to maintain law and order
in the district. He was the head of the
revenue organization. The role of
Collector increased multi-dimensionally
after Independence.
59. (b)
(Authors) (Books)
Chester Barnard – The Functions
of the
Executive
Herbert Simon – Administrative
Behaviour
Dwight Waldo (ed.) – Ideas and
Issues in Public
Administration
Marshall Dimock – Philosophy of
administration
60. (a) The official name “performance
budgeting” originates in the Report by
the first Hoover Commission in 1949.
Together with other scholars, Schick
argued that performance budgeting was
just the official label the Commission
attached to what had been known as
“functional” or “activity” budgeting.
Functional budgeting can be traced
Solved Paper-III, June-2013
back to the early years of the 1900s.
Performance budgeting was, however,
short-lived; program budgeting replaced
it by the early 1960s.
61. (c) John Mearsheimer suggests
that the world will miss the stability and
predictability that the Cold War forged.
He argues that more conflict pairs would
develop and hence more possibilities
for war. Theoretically, in multipolar
systems, the regulation of system
stability ought to be easier than in bipolar
systems.
62. (d) Democratic peace theory is
reliant on the ideology of liberalism.
The liberal ideology of civil liberties
such as personal and political freedoms,
democracy and economic growth, are
paired with the concepts of democratic
institutions and fairly elected governments
that have been selected from a choice of
political groups. It reinforces the idea of
Institutional liberalism in international
relations theory.
63. (c) Arms control is not a solution,
but a mitigation strategy. It is basically a
necessary step for the world’s stability.
Standing armies contribute to security to
their specific countries and not all.
64. (d) The Idea of ‘Clash of
Civilizations’ as proposed by Hung-
tington and ‘new world order by US
president Bush. Both these ideas are
representation of political ideology of
culture and religion.
65. (b) Both the statements are correct.
The Reason statement does not constitute
the correct or appropriate reason behind
the assertion statement.
66. (a) the Third World consists of
“quasi-states” that exist because of their
formal acceptance by the international
community rather than their post-colonial
attributes. These countries, it is asserted,
are unable to protect human rights or
provide social benefits and economic
welfare. A proto-state, also known as a
quasi-state, is a political entity that does
not represent a fully institutionalized or
autonomous sovereign state.
67. (d) Neo-marxist principle look
towards Globalization as a process as an
uneven hierarchical process and benefits
only a tiny minority.
68. (c)
(Foreign Policy (Country)
think tank)
Foreign Policy Institute – Turkey
Institute for Defense – India
& Strategic Analysis
Carnegie Endowment – USA
International Institute – UK
for strategic studies
69. (b)
(Terrorist (Countries)
Organisations)
LTTE – Sri Lanka
Hizbullah – Iran
Boko Haram – Nigeria
Shining Path – Peru
55
70. (c) The Brahimi Report was
written in the year 2000 by a panel of
ten experts in response to the dramatic
failures of UN peacekeeping in the 1990s,
especially in Rwanda and Srebrenica. In
alignment with Boutros Boutros Ghali’s
1992 Agenda for Peace, the Brahimi
report aimed at renewing the commitment
of UN member states to the “maintenance
of international peace and security.”
71. (d) India was the part of the UN
peacekeeping mission in Western Sahara,
Bosnia and Herzegovina.
72. (a)
(Countries) (Problems)
Sri Lanka – Kachativu
Pakistan – Wullar Barrage
Nepal – Susta Border
Bangladesh – New Moore Island
73. (d) Dahagram dispute is related
to India and Bangladesh. It is solved
after India–Bangladesh treaty on enclave
exchange.
74. (c)
(State) (Minorities)
Myanmar – Rohingyas
Malaysia – Tamils
Indonesia – Hindus
Laos – Vietnamese
75. (b) The main purpose of the
temple is the mountain temple which is
the symbol of sacred mountain “Meru”
where is the abode of all the gods of
Hindu. The temple was mainly dedicated
to the supreme god “Shiva” (Rooney
2006). Prachvihar temple is the reason
of arguments between Cambodia and
Thailand.
qqq
 56
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, December-2013
1. Who among the following is not
a principal character in Plato’s
Republic?
(a) Polemarchus (b) Adeimantus
(c) Protagoras (d) Glaucon
2. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below the lists:
 List–I List–II
(Authors) (Books)
A. A. Arblaster i. Participation
and
Democratic
Theory
B. C.B. Mac ii. Models of
Pherson Democracy
C. C. Pateman iii. The Real
World of
Democracy
D. D. Held iv. Democracy
Codes:
A B C D
(a) i ii iii iv 6. Who was the founder of Utilitari-
(b) iv iii i ii anism?
(c) ii i iv iii (a) Bentham
(d) iii iv ii i
3. Identify the correct sequence of
Marx’s Writings in ascending
order:
i. Contribution to the Critique of
Political Economy
ii. Poverty of Philosophy
iii. Thesis on Feuerbach
iv. Communist Manifesto
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) i, ii, iii, iv (b) ii, iii, iv, i
(c) iii, ii, iv, i (d) iv, i, ii, iii
4. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): For behaviouralists,
it was better to be wrong than vague.
Reason (R): It was better to be vague
than non–relevantly precise.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
5. Who said, “Each person possesses
an inviolability founded on justice
that even the welfare of society as
a whole cannot override”?
(a) John Rawls
(b) Robert Nozick
(c) Friedrich Hayek
(d) Habermas
(b) James Mill
(c) David Hume
(d) Priestley
7. Which one of the following writings
is not written by Mao?
(a) On New Democracy
(b) On Coalition Government
(c) People’s War
(d) On People’s Democratic Dictator-
ship
8. Why did Gandhiji go to South
Africa?
(a) On invitation by the Indians in
South Africa.
(b) To study Bar-at-Law.
Solved Paper-II, December-2013
(c) To fight a case of a Gujarati
Business-man.
(d) To visit South Africa with family.
9. Who founded the ‘Mexican Socialist
Workers’ Party’ which was later
named as ‘Mexican Communist
Party’?
(a) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) M.N. Roy
(d) Lenin
10. Whom did Lord Minto describe as
the most ‘dangerous man’?
(a) B.G. Tilak
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Gandhiji
(d) Sardar Patel
11. Arrange in ascending order the
following stages of Political
Development as enunciated by A.F.K.
Organski. Select the correct answer
from codes given below:
i. Primitive National Unification
ii. Abundance
iii. Industrialisation
iv. National Welfare
Codes:
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) i, iii, ii, iv
(c) i, iii, iv, ii
(d) iv, ii, iii, i
12. Who among the following talks of
pseudo-pressure groups?
(a) Jean Blondel
(b) Almond
(c) Maurice Duverger
(d) V.O. Key
13. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Solved Paper-II, December-2013 57
 List–I List–II Codes: List–I List–II
(Thinkers)  (Ideas) A B C D (Books) (Authors)
A. Karl Marx i. State of (a) i ii iii iv A. Approaches to i. R. Young
paternalistic (b) ii i iii iv the Study of
bond between (c) iv iii ii i Politics
peasantry (d) iii i iv ii B. Dynamics of ii. C.E. Black
and property 15. The process of Socialisation in Modernization
owners Modern Society is C. Influencing iii. R. Rose
B. Chalmers ii. Aggregate- 1. Specific Voters
Johnson psychological D. Studies in iv. J.S.
2. Universalistic
perspective
3. Instrumental Political   Coleman
C. Ted Gur iii. Revolution as
4. Ascriptive Development
a process
Select the correct answer from the Codes:
through
which codes given below: A B C D
structural Codes: (a) i ii iii iv
inequalities (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4 (b) ii iii iv i
could be (c) 3, 4, 1 (d) 4, 2, 1 (c) iv iii ii i
eliminated 16. Which one of the following is not a (d) iii iv ii i
D. Barrington iv. Value totalitarian form of Government? 21. Given below are two statements,
Moore co-ordinated (a) Military Government one labelled as Assertion (A) and
social system (b) Fascist Government the other labelled as Reason (R).
model (c) Communist Government Choose the correct answer from
Codes: (d) Parliamentary form of Govern- the codes:
A B C D ment Assertion (A): Secularization does
(a) i iii ii iv 17. Who among the following writers not necessarily imply that people
(b) ii i iii iv classified Elites into broad types? have become anti-religious, or that
(c) iii iv ii i (i) Organising and directing elites. religion has disappeared from both
(d) iv i iii ii (ii) Informally organised and diff- the public domain and the domain of
14. Match List–I with List–II and select used elites personal belief.
the correct answer from the codes (a) Vilfredo Pareto Reason (R): Religion is not just
given below the list. (b) Robert Michaels one, and not necessarily the most
 List–I   List–II (c) Gaetano Mosca important way in which people
(Type of (Principal (d) Karl Mannheim understand themselves and their
  Government) Attributes) 18. Who among the following classified relationships.
A. Military i. Based on parties under competitive system Codes:
Regime deference into two major categories? (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
B. Dynastic ii. Based on (i) Turnover and Hegemonic (R) is the correct explanation of
Regime coercion (ii) Ideological and Pragmatic (A).
C. Psuedo iii. Trappings of
(a) Myron Weiner and Lapalombara (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
Democracy a liberal
(b) G.A. Almond and Verba (R) is not the correct explanation
democracy
(c) Neil A. Mcdonald of (A).
like periodic
(d) Peter H. Merkel (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
elections
but power 19. The concept of dependency evolved
(d) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.
rests in the in the 1960s in
22. Given below are two statements,
hands of (a) Europe
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
oligarchy (b) Africa
(c) Asia the other labelled as Reason (R).
D. Liberal iv. Voluntary
Democracy participation (d) Latin America Assertion (A): The 1980s, a period
in govern- 20. Match List–I with List–II and select of great turbulence in Indian Politics,
ment process the correct answer from codes marked the appearance of several
is extensive given below: new political parties.
 58
Reason (R): National Parties got
marginalized or became adjuncts to
State Parties in many States.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
23. Arrange the following in their
chronological sequence:
i. Nehru Committee Report
ii. Quit India Movement
iii. Civil Disobedience Movement
iv. Declaration of Complete Inde-
pendence
Codes:
(a) ii, i, iv, iii
(b) iii, ii, iv, i
(c) i, iv, iii, ii
(d) iv, ii, i, iii
24. In which of the following case the
Supreme Court of India held that,
the power of amendment belonged
to the Parliament, and this power
was an unlimited one?
(a) Sankari Prasad V. Union of India
(b) Bela Banerjee and Others V. State
of West Bengal
(c) Kesavananda Bharati V. State of
Kerala
(d) Romesh Thapar V. State of
Madras
25. Which one of the following
States does not have a Bicameral
Legislature?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala
26. Identify the correct chronological
order of the following Prime
Minister/ Chief Minister of J & K:
(a) Sheikh Abdullah, Bakshi Ghulam
Mohammad, Farooq Abdullah,
Omar Abdullah.
(b) Sheikh Abdullah, G.M. Sadiq,
Mir Qasim, Farooq Abdullah.
(c) Sheikh Abdullah, G.M. Sadiq
Shamsuddin, Mufti Mohammad
Sayeed.
(d) Sheikh Abdulla, Bakshi Ghulam
Mohammad, Shamsuddin, G.M.
Sadiq.
27. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(Conspiracy (Revolutionaries
Cases) Punished)
A. Nasik case i. Sachindranath
(1909–10) Sanyal
B. Benares case ii. Ram Prasad
(1916) Bismil
C. Kakori case iii. Bhagat Singh
(1924)
D. Lahore case iv. Vinayak
(1929–30) Savarkar
Codes:
A B C D
(a) i iii iv ii
(b) i ii iii iv
(c) iv i ii iii
(d) iii iv i ii
28. Which one of the following is not
a sufficient ground for convening
a joint sitting of both Houses of
Parliament?
(a) Rejection of a bill by one House
of the Parliament when the other
House has passed it.
(b) Both Houses have finally disagreed
as to the amendments to be made
in a bill.
(c) More than six months has elapsed
from the date of the reception
of the Bill by the other House
without the Bill being passed by
it.
(d) President has refused to give his
assent to the Bill.
29. Who is the author of Federal India:
A Design for Change?
(a) Balveer Arora
(b) K.C. Wheare
(c) Rasheeduddin Khan
(d) Ronald Watts
Solved Paper-II, December-2013
30. Who among the following has made
pioneering contribution in the area
of subaltern studies?
(a) Ramachandra Guha
(b) Ranjit Guha
(c) Rajni Kothari
(d) James Manor
31. Who among the following questioned
the claim that Public Administration
is a Science?
(a) Robert Dahl
(b) Luther Gulick
(c) L. Urwick
(d) Frank Goodnow
32. F.W. Taylor, the founding father of
Scientific Management Movement,
propounded the theory which
was conceived to be a scientific
methodology of
(a) Careful observation
(b) Managerial techniques
(c) Generalization
(d) All of the above
33. Who among the following is not a
protagonist of the managerial view
of Public Administration?
(a) Simon (b) Smithburg
(c) Gulick (d) Henry Fayol
34. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
 List–I List–II
A. Line 1. Collection of
Agency data and its
analysis.
B. General 2. Maintenance of
Staff diary of
different
engagements of
line officials.
C. Specialised 3. Functions
Staff directly contri-
buting to goal
achievement
D. Personal 4. Looking
Staff after Personnel
Administration
Solved Paper-II, December-2013
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 4 1 2 3
35. The role of the Finance Commission
in Centre-State fiscal relations has
been undermined by the
(a) The State Governments
(b) The Zonal Councils
(c) The Planning Commission
(d) The Election Commission
36. To which of the following classes of
job in the public service in India,
merit-cum-seniority principle is
adopted in promotion?
(a) Class-I
(b) Class-II
(c) Class-III
(d) Class-I and II
37. Which of the following, according
to Kautilya, are the principles of
good governance for a king?
1. Merging individuality with
duties.
2. Leading a disciplined life with a
code of conduct.
3. Maintaining law and order.
4. Replacing bad ministers by
lekhaks (writers).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
38. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Position – classi-
fication is the foundation of modern
personnel administration.
Reason (R): Position – classification
allows rationalization in Civil
Services.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
39. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The relation between
a generalist and a specialist is one of
a senior and a subordinate.
Reason (R): A specialist is required to
assist the generalist in the formulation
and implementation of public policy.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
40. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Public Administration
is generally characterised by an
absence of profit motive.
Reason (R): Governmental activities
are not undertaken simply to maximize
profit but to promote societal welfare.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
41. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In the Post Soviet
era, Nuclear armed states are likely
to have military run or weak civilian
governments.
59
Reason (R): They will lack the
positive constraining mechanisms of
civilian control.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
42. Where is India’s Hi-Tech Naval
Base “Project Varsha” located?
(a) Rambilli (b) Ezhimalai
(c) Araku Valley (d) Kochi
43. “Atoms for Peace” was a disarma-
ment plan put forward by which
world leader?
(a) J. Nehru (b) Krushchev
(c) Eisenhower (d) Kennedy
44. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I   List–II
 (Thinkers) (Concepts)
A. William Cohen i. New Wars
B. Martin Shaw ii. Revolution
in Military
Affairs
C. Raymond iii. Degenerate
Aron War
D. Mary Kaldor iv. Hyperolic
Wars
Codes:
A B C D
(a) ii iii iv i
(b) i ii iii iv
(c) iii iv i ii
(d) iv i ii iii
45. Who created the Global Environ-
mental Facility (GEF) as an
international mechanism specifically
for funding environmental projects
in developing countries?
(a) IMF (b) UNDP
(c) UNEP (d) World Bank
46. Chronologically arrange the
following treaties in the correct
ascending order:
 60
i. The Charter of the UN
ii. The Treaty of Westphalia
iii. Treaties of Utrecht
iv. Treaty of Paris
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) iv, i, ii, iii (b) iii, iv, i, ii
(c) ii, iii, iv, i (d) i, ii, iii, iv
47. What are the four defining elements
of a regime?
(a) Principles, Norms, Rules,
Decision making procedures.
(b) Principles, Rules, Regulations,
Procedures.
Answers with Explanations
1. (c) Protagoras was not related
to Plato’s republic dialogue. He was a
pre-Socratic Greek philosopher. He
is numbered as one of the sophists by
Plato. In his dialogue Protagoras, Plato
credits him with inventing the role of
the professional sophists. Protagoras
taught as a Sophist for more than 40
years, claiming to teach men “virtue”
in the conduct of their daily lives. He
is best known for his dictum “Man is
the measure of all things,” probably an
expression of relativity to the individual
of all perceptions and, according to
some, of all judgments as well.
2. (b) Anthony Arblaster examines the
history of both the theory and practice
of democracy in his book Democracy.
In “The Real World of Democracy,” C.
B. Macpherson examines the rival ideas
of democracy–the communist, Third
World, and Western-liberal variants–and
their impacts on one another. The major
contributions the debate of democracy
are listed in Carole Pateman’s recent
book, Participation and Democratic
Theory. David held’s ‘Models of
democracy’ combines a succinct but
far-reaching introduction to democracy
from classical Greece to the present with
a critical discussion of what democracy
means today.
(c) Norms, Rules, Regulations,
Precedents.
(d) Principles, Precedents, Proce-
dures, Practices.
48.
Chronologically arrange the
following milestones in the
Women’s movement in the correct
ascending order.
i. Mexico City – UN Conference
ii. Copenhagen – UN Conference
iii. Beijing
iv. Nairobi
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) iv, i, iii, ii
(b) i, ii, iv, iii
3. (c) Thesis on Feuerbach – 1845
Poverty of philosophy – 1847
Communist manifesto – 1848
Contribution to the – 1859
critique of political
economy
4. (b) Post-behaviouralism arose in
response to behaviouralism, with
its emphasis on quantitative, value-
free research, the kind of research
that seems to take place in a vacuum,
without any incorporation of societal
values or movements, without any
consideration for solving real problems
in the complexities of the modern-day
world. Since research and results in
behaviouralism are largely quantitative
and precise, this slogan is meant to
attack that aspect of the movement.
The post-behaviourist finds it better to
be vague than non-relevantly precise.
A vague result might result in more
meaningful application to the problems
of society than a precise answer that is
completely irrelevant to the problems
that must be solved in a society.
5. (a) John Rawls said “Each person
possesses an inviolability founded on
justice that even the welfare of society as
a whole cannot override.” For this reason
justice denies that the loss of freedom for
some is made right by a greater good
shared by others.
Solved Paper-II, December-2013
(c) ii, iii, i, iv
(d) iii, iv, ii, i
49. When did India and Nepal sign the
revised Double Taxation Avoidance
Agreement (DTAA)?
(a) 2011
(b) 2012
(c) 2010
(d) 2009
50. Which of the following countries
are included in ASEAN Plus Three?
(a) China, India, Japan
(b) China, South Korea, Russia
(c) China, Russia, Japan
(d) China, Japan, South Korea
6. (a) The father of utilitarianism is
considered to be Jeremy Bentham, who
believed the pleasure should be measured
quantitatively. For example, if ten people
wanted to eat chocolate, and one person
wanted to read Shakespeare. Jeremy
Bentham was an English philosopher
and political radical. He is primarily
known today for his moral philosophy,
especially his principle of utilitarianism,
which evaluates actions based upon their
consequences.
7. (c) People’s War was also known
as Protracted People war was a maoist
military strategy and not a book.
8. (c) After completion of legal
education, Mahatma Gandhi struggled to
find work as a lawyer. In 1893, he got
an offer from Dada Abdullah who owned
a shipping business in South Africa to
serve as his cousin’s lawyer in South
Africa. He accepted the offer and went to
South Africa, which was a turning point
in his political career.
9. (c) The Mexican Workers’ Party
was an old Mexican political party of
the left, that had legal registration in the
1980s, its main political figures were
Heberto Castillo and Demetrio Vallejo.
It was founded in 1917 as the Socialist
Workers’ Party (Partido Socialista
Obrero, PSO) by Manabendra Nath Roy,
a left-wing Indian Bengali.
Solved Paper-II, December-2013
10. (b) Viceroy Lord Minto spoke
of Aurobindo Ghose as Most dangerous
man, he was a proponent of Purna Swaraj
against the mighty British Empire in the
early 20th century.
11. (c) The Stages of Political Develop-
ment as enunciated by A.F.K. Organski
are; Primitive National Unification,
Industrialisation, National Welfare and
Abundance.
12. (a) Duverger refers to, what he
calls pseudo-pressure groups. These
groups include specialists who use
pressure politics not for themselves, but
for others. This is often done for monetary
consideration. Duverger includes in this
category, the technical experts as well as
information (mass) media.
13. (c)
(Thinkers) (Ideas)
Karl Marx – Revolution as a
process through
which structural
inequalities could
be eliminated
Chalmers – Value co-ordinated
Johnson social system
model
Ted Gurr – Aggregatepsy-
chological
perspective
Barrington – State of
Moore paternalistic bond
between peasantry
and property
owners
14. (b)
 (Type of (Principal
Government) Attributes)
Military Regime – Based on
coercion
Dynastic Regime – Based on
deference
Psuedo Democracy – Trappings of a
liberal
democracy like
periodic
elections but
power rests in
the hands of
oligarchy.
Liberal Democracy – Voluntary
participation in
government
process is
extensive
15. (a)
16. (d) A parliamentary system or
parliamentary democracy is a system of
democratic governance of a state where
the executive derives its democratic
legitimacy from its ability to command
the confidence of the legislature,
typically a parliament, and is also held
accountable to that parliament.
17. (d) Karl Mannheim classified
Elites into broad types: Organising and
directing elites and, Informally organised
and diffused elites.
18. (a) Joseph La Palombara &
Myron Weiner in their book ‘Political
parties and political development’ trace
the origins and development of political
parties, explore their impact on the
system in which they exist, and raise
new questions about the potential role of
parties. Originally published in 1966.
19. (d) Dependency theory argues that
under-development as experienced in
Latin America and elsewhere is the direct
result of capital intervention, rather than
a condition of “lacking” development or
investment.
20. (a)
(Books)  (Authors)
Approaches to the – R. Young
Study of Politics
Dynamics of – C.E Black
Modernization
Influencing Voters – R. Rose
Studies in Political – J.S. Coleman
Development
21. (a) Secularism seeks to defend the
absolute freedom of religious and other
beliefs, and protect the right to manifest
religious belief insofar as it does not
impinge on the rights and freedoms of
others. Secularism ensures that the right
of individuals to freedom of religion is
always balanced by the right to be free
from religion. Secularism seeks to ensure
and protect freedom of religious belief
and practice for all citizens. Secularists
61
want freedoms of thought and conscience
to apply equally to all – believers and
non-believers alike. They do not wish to
curtail religious freedoms.
22. (a) The 1980s fundamentally
altered India’s political landscape and
also planted the seeds of an economic
revolution. This ostrich-like decade saw
the old verities vanish and new ones raise
their heads, some quite unwholesome
and others hugely promising. Two
political developments of the decade
stood out for their long-run significance:
the end of Congress hegemony in politics
and the emergence of what Amartya Sen
has called “illusion of singular identity”,
which meant the obsessive identification
of human beings with their religious
selves.
23. (c) The correct chronological seq-
uence of these historic event is:
Nehru Committee – 1928
Report
Declaration of – 1929
Complete Independence
Civil Disobedience – 1930
Movement
Quit India Movement – 1942
24. (a) In Shankari Prasad Singh Deo
v. Union of India (AIR. 1951 SC 458),
the Supreme Court unanimously held,
“The terms of article 368 are perfectly
general and empower Parliament to
amend the Constitution without any
exception whatever.
25. (d) The two houses in the state
legislature are called – Legislative
Assembly and Legislative Council.
There are only Six states which have
two – tier of legislature – Uttar Pradesh,
Maharashtra, Bihar, Karnataka, Andhra
Pradesh, and Telangana.
26. (d) The correct chronological order
of the following Prime Minister/Chief
Minister of J & K is: Sheikh Abdulla,
Bakshi Ghulam Mohammad, Shamsuddin,
G.M. Sadiq.
27. (c)
(Conspiracy (Revolutionaries
Cases) Punished)
Nasik case – Vinayak Savarkar
(1909–10)
Benares case – Sachindranath Sanyal
(1916)
 62
Kakori case – Ram Prasad Bismil
(1924)
Lahore case – Bhagat Singh
(1929-30)
28. (d) Joint sitting of both Houses in
certain cases-
(1) If after a Bill has been passed by
one House and transmitted to the
other House-
(a) the Bill is rejected by the other
House; or
(b) the Houses have finally disagreed
as to the amendments to be made
in the Bill; or
(c) more than six months elapsed
from the date of the reception
of the Bill by the other House
without the Bill being passed by
it, the President may, unless the
Bill has elapsed by reason of a
dissolution of the House of the
People, notify to the Houses by
message if they are sitting or by
public notification if they are not
sitting, his intention to summon
them to meet in a joint sitting for
the purpose of deliberating and
voting on the Bill: Provided that
nothing in this clause shall apply
to a Money Bill.
29. (c) Federal India: A Design for
Change was written by Rasheeduddin
Khan in 1992. Rasheeduddin Khan was
an Indian author and parliamentarian.
He was nominated to the Rajya Sabha
in 1970 and served for two terms until
1982. He wrote a number of papers and
studies on socio-economic problems and
culture.
30. (b) Subaltern Studies emerged
around 1982 as a series of journal articles
published by Oxford University Press in
India. The primary leader was Ranajit
Guha who had written works on peasant
uprisings in India.
31. (a) In a journal article published
in Public Administration Review “The
Science of Public Administration:
Three Problems” Robert A. Dahl
challenged the scientific status of public
administration. He said it is impossible
to exclude normative consideration from
public administration.
32. (d) Frederick Winslow Taylor
(1856–1915) is called the father of
Scientific Management. His experience
from the bottom-most level in the
organization gave him an opportunity
to know at first the problems of the
workers. Taylor’s principal concern
was that of increasing efficiency in
production, not only to lower costs and
raise profits but also to make possible
increased pay for workers through their
higher productivity.
33. (a) Decision-making is a process
in which the decision-maker uses to
arrive at a decision. The core of this
process is described by Herbert Simon
in a model. He describes the model in
three phases. According to managerial
view of administration, the managerial
activities of people who are involved
in planning, organising, commanding,
coordinating and controlling (POCCC-
according to H. Fayol) constitute Public
Administration.
34. (a)
Line Agency – Functions directly
contributing to
goal achievement
General Staff – Looking after
Personnel
Administration
Specialised – Collection of
Staff data and its
analysis
Personal Staff – Maintenance of
diary of different
engagements of
line officials.
35. (c) The role of the Finance
Commission is only advisory in nature
and no recommendation of commission
is binding on the Government. This
provision is criticized by experts.
Because of the planning commission the
union government does not give much
importance to finance commission. In
planning commission there is monarchy
of prime minister and its council.
36. (d) The seniority-cum-merit is the
governing principle of promotion in India.
The relative weight to the two factors
varies from jurisdiction to jurisdiction
Solved Paper-II, December-2013
but on the whole, seniority basis is firmly
entrenched and departures from it are
made but rarely unless the senior person
is declared unfit. This kind of promotion
is allowed for the Class- I and II public
servant.
37. (b) Kautilya said that good
governance and stability go hand in
hand. According to him, there is stability
if rulers are responsive, responsible,
accountable, removable and recallable,
otherwise there would be instability. For
good governance, all administrators,
including the King, were considered
servants of the people.
38. (a) Position-classification is the
foundation of modern personnel
administration. Glenn Stahl is of
the opinion that “the foundation of
job-oriented career system is a position
classification plan. Such a plan is a
prerequisite for any system that regards
the nature and content of each position
as central to good organization and
motivation based on the work to be
performed” In other words, systematic
classification of jobs and standardization
of all staff are two of the most essential
features of the personnel system.
39. (c) The relation between a
generalist and a specialist is not of a
senior and a subordinate. A specialist
is required to assist the generalist in
the formulation and implementation of
public policy. The correct option will be
‘d’ as the assertion is false, and reason
statement was true.
40. (a) Governmental activities are
not undertaken simply to maximize profit
but to promote societal welfare. Due
to this feature Public Administration is
generally characterised by an absence of
profit motive.
41. (*) Question was wrong and no
answer was provided by UGC.
42. (a) INS Varsha is a naval base
being developed under this project
by Indian Navy at Rambilli, Andhra
Pradesh located 50 kms away from
Visakhapatnam. This will provide home
for the Navy’s fleet of expanding nuclear
powered submarines and ships.
Solved Paper-II, December-2013
43. (c) Atoms for Peace speech,
speech delivered to the United Nations
by U.S. Pres. Dwight D. Eisenhower
on December 8, 1953. In this address,
Eisenhower spelled out the necessity of
repurposing existing nuclear weapons
technology to peaceful ends, stating that
it must be humanity’s goal to discover
“the way by which the miraculous
inventiveness of man shall not be
dedicated to his death, but consecrated to
his life.” The speech marked one of the
earliest calls to curb the global nuclear
arms race, and it inspired the creation of
the International Atomic Energy Agency
in 1956.
44. (a)
(Thinkers)  (Concepts)
William Cohen – Revolution in
Military Affairs
Martin Shaw – Degenerate Wars
Raymond Aron – Hyperbolic Wars
Mary Kaldor – New Wars
45. (d) The Global Environment
Facility (GEF) was established in 1991
to provide new funding to achieve global
environmental benefits in initially four
and later six focal areas: biological
diversity, climate change, international
waters, land degradation, ozone layer
depletion, and persistent organic
pollutants. The World Bank serves as
the GEF Trustee, administering the GEF
Trust Fund.
46. (c) Correct ascending order is:
The Treaty of Westphalia – 1648
Treaties of Utrecht – 1713
Treaty of Paris – 1783
The Charter of the UN – 1945
47. (a) Stephen D. Krasner defined
International Regimes as “Implicit or
explicit principles, norms, rules and
decision-making procedures around
which actors’ expectations converge in
a given area of international relations.”
63
48. (b)
i Mexico City – UN Conference
1975
ii. Copenhagen – UN Conference
1980
iii. Beijing – UN Conference
1995
iv. Nairobi – UN conference
1985
49. (a) India and Nepal on 27
November 2011 signed a revised Double
Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA).
This will help prevent tax evasion and
facilitate exchange of information on
banking between the two countries.
DTAA, will allow Indian traders and
investors to enjoy tax relaxation in India
once they pay taxes in Nepal.
50. (d) ASEAN+3 includes the 10
members of the Association of Southeast
Asian Nations (Brunei Darussalam,
Cambodia, Indonesia, Lao People’s
Democratic Republic, Malaysia,
Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore,
Thailand, and Viet Nam) plus China,
Japan, and Korea.
qqq
 64 Solved Paper-III, December-2013

UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-III, December-2013
1. Which one of the following factors Codes: (c) Marx
is not responsible for the decline of A B C D (d) Jayaprakash Narayan
Political Theory? (a) iii iv i ii 8. The reappearance of Plato is found
(a) Positivism (b) iv iii ii i in the
(b) Historicism (c) ii i iii iv (a) Utopia of Sir Thomas More
(c) Moral Relativism (d) i ii iv iii (b) City of the Sun of Campanella
5. Who defined an ideology as ‘a (c) New Atlantis of Bacon
(d) Ideological Pluralism
set of ideas by which men posit, (d) All the above
2. Neo-liberalism does not believe in explain and justify the ends and 9. Which one of the statements is not
(a) Deregulation means of organized social action, correct in respect of Aristotle?
(b) Debureaucratisation irrespective of whether such action
(a) Men are by nature unequal.
(c) Disinvestment aims to preserve, amend, uproot or
rebuild a given social order’? (b) There is subordination of inferior
(d) Statisation to superior.
(a) de Tracy
3. Who said, ‘Taxation equals forced (c) Women are, by nature, subor-
(b) Martin Seliger
labour’? dinated to men.
(c) D. McLellan
(a) John Rawls (d) Slavery is justified because it does
(d) J. Larrain
not secure the best conditions for
(b) Hayek 6. Given below are two statements, the slave.
(c) Nozick one is labelled as Assertion (A) and
10. W h o d i d h e l p t o h u m a n i z e
(d) Berlin the other labelled as Reason (R).
J.S. Mill’s revised version of
4. Match List-I with List-II and select Assertion (A): All Political Philoso-
Utilitarianism?
phers are political theorists.
the correct answer from the codes (a) James Mill
Reason (R): All Political Theorists
given below: (b) Mrs. Harriet Taylor
are not necessarily Political Philoso-
 List-I List-II (c) Priestley
phers.
(Authors) (Books) (d) Hutcheson
Select the correct answer from the
A. Richard i. Red China codes given below: 11. For Hobbes, ‘Felicity’ means
Lowenthal Today (a) Pleasure
Codes:
B. Benjamin L. ii. Mao’s (b) A continued success in obtaining
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
Schwartz Revolution is the right explanation of (A). those things which a man from
and the (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) time to time desires.
Chinese is not the correct explanation of (c) Empathy
Political (A). (d) None of the above
Culture (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 12. ‘The “natural” man will be one
C. Edgar Snow iii. World (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. in whom strong conscience and
Communism 7. Who said that Labour power equals stead fast reason have successfully
D. Richard H. iv. Communism the brain, muscle, and nerve of the harmonized self-love and sym-
Solomon and Chinese Labourer? pathy’. Who advocated this?
Ideology in (a) Lenin (a) Hobbes (b) Rousseau
Flux (b) M.N. Roy (c) Bentham (d) Locke
Solved Paper-III, December-2013
13. Locke’s Essay Concerning Human
Understanding was a refutation of
(a) Hobbes’ Leviathan
(b) Priestley’s Essay on Government
(c) Bentham’s Fragment on Govern-
ment
(d) Sir Robert Filmer’s Patriarcha.
14. The Politics of Society must be
based on two principles as
(i) ‘Treat others as self’ and
(ii) ‘help the other persons in need’.
Whose saying is this?
(a) Rammohan Roy
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Aurobindo
(d) Savarkar
15. Identify the correct sequence of
M.N. Roy’s activities/events in
ascending order:
(i) Formed “The League of Radical
Congressman’.
(ii) Founded “The Indian Renais-
sance Movement”.
(iii) Expelled from “Comintern”
(iv) F o u n d e d a w e e k l y , “ T h e
Independent India”.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
16. Who among the following was
elected as U.S. President for the
fourth term?
(a) George Washington
(b) Franklin D. Roosevelt
(c) Theodore Roosevelt
(d) Andrew Jackson
17. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer from
the codes:
65
Assertion (A): Democratic values 21. Match List-I with List-II and select
command widespread acceptance the correct answer from the codes
within liberal democracies as an given below:
ideal, but at the same time citizens List-I Lis-II
have become more critical of the (Model of (Features)
working of the core institutions of Development)
representative democracy. A. Bourgeoisie i. Urban
Reason (R): The declining faith in model Economic
government represents a deflation growth
of the political culture, reducing the development
capacity of the political system to of Legislature
achieve shared goals. and Electoral
Codes: process.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and B. Autocratic ii. Suppress
(R) is the correct explanation of model nuiddle class.
(A). C. Technocratic iii. Low politica
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but model participation
(R) is not the correct explanation and high
of (A). foreign
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is correct. investment.
(d) (A) is correct, but (R) is false. D. Populist iv. Stresses
18. Which of the following countries model high political
has a simple constitution-amending participation
procedure? as well as
(a) U.S.A. (b) U.K. economic
inequality.
(c) India (d) France
19. In reference to Presidential system Codes:
which President of U.S.A. said, A B C D
“for the folly of just one man (a) i ii iii iv
may spell disaster for the whole
(b) iv iii ii i
nation.”?
(c) iii ii i iv
(a) Jimmy Carter
(d) ii iii iv i
(b) Barrack Obama
(c) George W. Bush 22. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
(d) Woodrow Wilson
given below:
20. Which one of the following state-
 List-I List-II
ments about the U.S. President is
 (Authors) (Books)
not correct?
(a) No U.S. President has ever been A. Robert i. Democracy
impeached. Michaels and its critics
(b) Richard Nixon’s impeachment B. Samuel ii. State
failed by one vote. Huntington Building:
(c) The House of Representatives has Governance
the power to initiate impeachment and World
proceedings. order in the
(d) The case is tried by the Senate Twenty First
with the Chief Justice presiding. Century
 66 Solved Paper-III, December-2013
C. Robert Dahll iii. Political (i) An innovative social system (c) Diffused, National integration,
Parties (ii) Differentiated, flexible social Community building, Mobilisa-
D. Francis iv. The Third structure tion.
Fukuyama Wave: (iii) Social basis for skill and (d) Comprehensive, Clientele orien-
Democrati- knowledge, in technologically ted, Pragmatic support.
zation in the advanced world. 29. Which of the following, according
Late to Lucian Pye, are the crises of
(a) C.E. Black
Twentieth Political development?
Century. (b) David E. Apter
1. Crisis of Identity
Codes: (c) Samuel P. Huntington
2. Crisis of Legitimacy
A B C D (d) S.N. Eisenstadt
3. Crisis of Leadership
(a) i iii iv ii 26. Which of the following statements
4. Crisis of Integrity
are correct about the Swiss Political
(b) iii iv i ii Select the correct answer from the
System?
(c) iv ii iii i codes given below:
1. The Centre in Switzerland is
(d) ii i iii iv Codes:
more powerful than that of the
23. Who among the following has (a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 3
U.S.A.
adopted the ‘Political-conflict (c) 3, 4 (d) 1, 4
2. Swiss Government has right to
approach’ in the analysis of 30. Match List-I with List-II. Select
military intervention in case of
revolution? correct answer from the codes
secession. given below:
(a) Thdeda Skocpol 3. The residuary powers belong to List-I  List-II
(b) Alexis de Tocqueville the units. (Elites) (Functions)
(c) Charles Tilly 4. Swiss political system is unitary. A. Current Political i. Goal
(d) Emile Durkheim Codes: Elites attainment
B. Economic ii. Adaptation
24. Match List-I with List-II and select (a) 1, 2, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4
Military,
the correct answer from the given (c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 Scientific,
codes below: 27. Match List-I with List-II and select Diplomatic
 List-I   List-II the correct answer from the codes Elites
(Books) (Authors) given below: C. Priest, iii. Integration
A. The Politics i. Amartya List-I List-II Philosophers,
of Moderniza- Sen  (Thinkers) (Concepts) Educators
tion A. M. Focault i. Will to power D. Artists, iv. Pattern
B. Development ii. Samuel P. B. Steven Lukes ii. Bio power Writers, Mainten-
as Freedoms Huntington C. Stewart Clegg iii. Radical view ance
C. Political order iii. Celso of power Codes:
in Changing Furtado D. F. Nietzche iv. Circuits of
A B C D
Societies power
(a) i ii iii iv
D. Development iv. David E. Codes:
and Under- Apter (b) iv iii ii i
A B C D
development (c) iii ii i iv
(a) iv i ii iii
Codes: (d) ii i iv iii
(b) iii ii i iv
A B C D 31. Who made the following statement
(c) i iv iii ii
in the Constituent Assembly in
(a) i ii iii iv (d) ii iii iv i connection with the Amendment
(b) iv i ii iii 28. Which one is not the attribute of Procedure of the Constitution of
(c) ii iii iv i one party system? India?
(d) iv i iii ii (a) Sectarian (Exclusive, regional, ‘That while we want this Consti-
25. Which of the following thinkers class, ideological) support. tution to be solid and as permanent
defined modernization in terms of (b) Closed, Authoritarian, Direct as a structure we can make it,
three conditions: action, Repressive organization. nevertheless there is no permanence
Solved Paper-III, December-2013
in Constitutions. If you make
anything rigid and permanent, you
stop the Nation’s growth, the growth
of a living, vital organic people’.
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
32. Which of the following Articles
cannot be suspended during
National Emergency?
(a) Articles 14 and 15
(b) Articles 19 and 20
(c) Articles 21 and 22
(d) Articles 20 and 21
33. Who among the following called
Jayaprakash Narain, Ram
Manohar Lohia and other Socialists
as Japanese agents during 1942
movement?
(a) Communist Party of India
(b) Akali Dal
(c) Rashtriya Swayam Sevak Sangh
(d) Muslim League
34. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Choose the Assertion Reason
Codes.
Assertion (A): Caste system was an
epitome of the traditional society, a
‘closed system’, where generation
after generation of individuals and
similar kinds of work and lived more
or less similar kinds of lives.
Reason (R): Caste system encapsula-
ted within it the features of a social
structure and normative religious
behavious, and even provided a
fairly comprehensive idea about the
personal lives of individuals living in
the Hindu Caste Society.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.
35. Given below are two statement,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer from
the codes.
Assertion (A): Over the years, the
Supreme Court of India has failed
to demonstrate a commitment to
preserving constitutional liberty,
and expanding and protecting human
rights.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court has
played and continues to play a critical
role in shaping India’s constitutional
democracy far beyond that which the
drafters of the Constitution envisaged
or what courts in other countries
play.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
36. Which one of the following is
not applicable to Public Interest
Litigation?
(a) Constitutional obligation of
the Judiciary towards the
marginalised sections of society.
(b) Locus standi.
(c) Public spirited citizens can move
the court on behalf of the poor.
(d) Judiciary overlooks a strict
construction of procedural formal-
ities in entertaining petitions.
37. Which among the following pertains
to the sixty first Constitutional
Amendment?
(a) Ninth Schedule
(b) Defection
(c) Amendment of Article 368
(d) Lowering of voting age
67
38. The Sikhs got special electorates in
which of the following Acts?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
39. Which of the following Committees
of the Constituent Assembly was
chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru?
(a) Steering Committee
(b) Union Powers Committee
(c) Committee on Fundamental
Rights and Minorities
(d) Provincial Constitution Committee
40. Who among the following developed
the concept, ‘derivative discourse’?
(a) Ashish Nandy
(b) Partha Chatterjee
(c) Ashutosh Varshney
(d) Sudipta Kaviraj
41. MNREGA is not associated with
which of the following?
(a) Providing Employment Opportu-
nities
(b) Reduction of poverty
(c) Preventing Distress Migration
(d) Agrarian crises
42. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
Commission/ Issues
Committee
A. Mahajan i. Maharashtra-
Commission Karnataka
Boundary
Dispute
B. Sri Krishna ii. Muslim
Commission Minority
C. Punchi iii. Telengana/
Commission A.P.
D. Sachar iv. Centre-State
Committee Relations
Codes:
A B C D
(a) ii iv i iii
(b) i iii iv ii
(c) iii ii i iv
(d) iv i iii ii
 68 Solved Paper-III, December-2013
43. Who among the following first 47. Which of the following is concerned 53. The process of transferring funds
initiated the study of State Politics with the substantive functions of from one budget head to another of
in India? the Government? the same department where there
(a) Iqbal Narain (a) Staff Agency is a need for more expenditure is
(b) Paul R. Brass (b) Line Agency called
(c) Stanley Kochanak (c) Auxiliary Agency (a) transfer
(d) Myron Weiner (d) Staff and Auxiliary Agencies (b) re-allocation
44. Which one of the following was 48. Who among the following termed (c) re-appropriation
the largest Opposition party in the the four different bases of organiza- (d) sectoral allocation
Eighth Lok Sabha (1984)? tion as four Ps? 54. Promotion generally means
(a) Bhartiya Janata Party (a) Luther Gulick (b) L.D. White 1. Change in position
(b) Communist Party of India (c) Henry Fayol (d) Herbert Simon 2. Change in duties
(c) Telugu Desam Party 49. The chief reason for delegation of 3. Change in title
(d) National Lok Dal authority from headquarters to 4. Change in pay
45. With which of the following States, field officers is to Select the correct answer from the
was the Programme, Janmabhoomi (a) facilitate decision-making at the codes given below:
associated? local level. Codes:
(a) Kerala (b) inculcate skills in the field officers. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Karnataka (c) control the field office. (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) decongest the headquarters. 55. Which of the following statements
(d) Andhra Pradesh 50. Which of the following are the are correct?
46. Match List-I with List-II and select characteristics of development 1. Panchayati Raj is mentioned in
the correct answer from the codes administration? the Constitution as a Directive
given below: 1. Change-orientation Principle.
 List-I   List-II
2. Client orientation 2. Sadiq Ali Committee was
(Approach) (Characteristics)
A. Behavioural 1. Agrarian- 3. Citizen-participative orientation appointed to report on the
Transition 4. Ecological perspective working of the Panchayat system
Industriali- Select the correct answer from the in India.
zation codes given below: 3. G.V.K. Rao Committee was
B. Bureaucratic 2. Administra- appointed by the Planning
Codes:
tive system Commission.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
as a sub- 4. Local Government figures in
system of the (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
State List.
society 51. Domicile qualification for public
Select the correct answer from the
C. Ecological 3. Analyses of services was first prescribed by
codes given below:
human (a) The United States of America
behaviour Codes:
(b) U.K.
in administra- (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
tive settings (c) India
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. General 4. Legal- (d) France
56. Who among the following has
Systems Rational 52. Which one of the following is the termed bureaucracy as “an
Authority Cadre-controlling authority for the organization that cannot correct
Codes: Indian Police Service? its behaviour by learning from its
A B C D (a) The Ministry of Personnel, Public errors”?
(a) 2 3 4 1 Grievances and Pensions (a) R.K. Merton
(b) 3 4 1 2 (b) The Ministry of Home Affairs (b) M. Crozer
(c) 1 2 3 4 (c) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) (c) Max Weber
(d) 4 1 2 3 (d) Cabinet Secretary (d) C.N. Parkinson
Solved Paper-III, December-2013
57. Who is the Chairperson of the
National Council of Joint Consulta-
tive Machinery (JCM)?
(a) Cabinet Secretary
(b) Secretary for Home Affairs
(c) Personnel Secretary
(d) Finance Secretary
58. Of all the controls over Public
Administration the one which is
more continuous and self-corrective
is
(a) controlled by the Legislature
(b) controlled by the Executive
(c) controlled by the Judiciary
(d) controlled by the Media
59. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A few years back, the
Government of India started what is
known as “file-jumping experiment”.
Reason (R): Hierarchical structure
causes inordinate delay in the disposal
of work.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
60. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Planning Commission
in India is neither a Statutory Body
nor a Constitutional Body.
Reason (R): It was established by an
Act of Parliament.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
61. With which liberal thinker would
you associate “Democratic Peace
Theory”?
(a) Michael Doyle
(b) James Rosenau
(c) Richard Falk
(d) Michael Walzer
62. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Regimes represent an
important feature of globalization.
Reason (R): The onset of détente,
the loss of hegemonic status by the
USA and the growing awareness of
environmental problems sensitized
social scientists.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
63. Who said, “Power in International
Politics is like the weather.
Everyone talks about it, but few
understand it”?
(a) Hans J. Morganthau
(b) Henry Kissinger
(c) Joseph Nye
(d) Susan Strange
64. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I   List-II
(Reasons of failure) (States)
A. Tribal conflict i. Rwanda
B. Endless violence ii. Somalia
for nonpolitical
purposes
C. Ethnic genocide iii. Congo
D. Transnational iv. Liberia
war
69
Codes:
A B C D
(a) ii iv i iii
(b) i iii iv ii
(c) iv ii iii i
(d) iii i ii iv
65. Chronologically arrange the
arms control and disarmament
agreements in an ascending order.
1. Strategic Offensive Reduction
Treaty (SORT) – 2002
2. Chemical Weapons Convention
– 1993
3. Open Skies Treaty – 1992
4. Ottawa Landmine Convention –
1997
Codes:
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2 (b) 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 2, 3, 1, 4
66. Given below are two statements
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Post-Cold War
period is a multi polar moment in an
uni polar world.
Reason (R): America remains the
world’s pre eminent actor, but it
is also stretched militarily, in debt
financially, divided domestically and
unpopular internationally.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
67. With which Doctrine is “Contain-
ment” associated?
(a) Dulles Doctrine
(b) Truman Doctrine
(c) Nixon Doctrine
(d) Roosevelt Doctrine
68. Which country has the world’s
largest reserves of natural gas, the
second largest coal reserves, and
the eighth largest oil reserves?
 70
(a) Iran (b) USA
(c) Saudi Arabia (d) Russia
69. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below the lists:
 List-I List-II
  (Books) (Authors)
A. A Hundred i. C. Raja
Horizons: Mohan
The Indian
Ocean in the
Age of Global
Empire.
B. Global Swing ii. Sugato Bose
States: Brazil,
India, Indonesia,
Turkey and the
Future of
International
Order.
C. War in the iii. David Kliman
Indian Ocean & Richard
Fontaine
D. Samundra iv. Vice-Admiral
Manthan: Mihir Kumar
Sino Indian Roy
Rivarly in the
Indo-Pacific
Answers with Explanations
1. (d) Positivism, historicism and
Moral Relativism is considered as the
factor responsible for decline of political
science. According to David Easton the
ever-increasing role of historicism is a
major cause of the decline of political
theory. In his words: “Political theory
has been devoted to a form of historical
researches that has robbed it of its earlier,
constructive role”. Ideological pluralism
led to the resurgence of political theory.
2. (d) Neo-liberalism is an ideology
which supports the idea of Free-
Market. It basically ask for minimum
role of government in economic affairs.
Deregulation Debureaucratisation and
Disinvestment are component of Neo-
liberal ideology.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) iv i ii iii
(b) iii iv i ii
(c) ii iii iv i
(d) i ii iii iv
70. Which countries were identified
as the “Axis of Evil” by President
Bush in his State of Union Speech
in 2002?
(a) Russia, China, Iran
(b) Iran, Iraq, Syria
(c) Cuba, Venezuela, Russia
(d) Iraq, Iran, North Korea
71. When was the UN Peace building
Commission established?
(a) January 2003
(b) December 2004
(c) December 2005
(d) January 2006
72. As part of a regional initiative,
India initiated the 2004 Tokyo
Agreement. Name the organization
which emerged as a result.
3. (c) In his most famous work,
Anarchy, State, and Utopia (1974), Nozick
argued that income taxes are “on a par
with forced labour,” because they force
a “person to work n hours for another’s
purpose. ” This supposedly forced labour,
again, is measured by the “n hours” that
one must work for someone else’s benefit.
4. (a)
(Authors) (Books)
Richard – World Communism
Lowenthal
Benjamin
L. Schwartz – Communism and
Chinese Ideology
in Flux
Solved Paper-III, December-2013
(a) BRICS (b) ARF
(c) ReCAAP (d) IOR-ARC
73. Name the military strategist who
stated that all war is based on
deception and praised it as the
‘divine art of subtlety and secrecy.’
(a) Clausewitz (b) Kautilya
(c) Sun Tzu (d) Machiavelli
74. Name the person who headed
the United Nations Monitoring,
Verification and Inspection Com-
mission (UNMOVIC) to Iraq in
2002?
(a) Kofi Annan
(b) Hans Blix
(c) David Petraeus
(d) Colin Powell
75. Which among the following States
least influences India’s Foreign
Policy?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) West Bengal
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Edgar Snow – Red China Today
Richard H. – Mao’s Revolution
Solomon and the Chinese
Political Culture
5. (b) Martin Seliger in his book
‘Ideology and Politics’ published in
1970 wrote that ‘a set of ideas by which
men posit, explain and justify the ends
and means of organized social action,
irrespective of whether such action aims
to preserve, amend, uproot or rebuild a
given social order’
6. (b) ‘All Political Philosophers are
political theorists’ is a correct statement.
‘All Political Theorists are not necessarily
Political Philosophers.’ is also correct,
but it is not a reason behind the assertion.
B is the correct option.
Solved Paper-III, December-2013
7. (c) Labour power is a key concept
used by Karl Marx in his critique of
capitalist political economy. Marx
distinguished between the capacity to do
work, labour power, from the physical
act of working, labour. Labour power
exists in any kind of society, but on
what terms it is traded or combined with
means of production to produce goods
and services has historically varied
greatly. Under capitalism, according to
Marx, the productive powers of labour
appear as the creative power of capital.
Indeed, “labour power at work” becomes
a component of capital, it functions as
working capital. Work becomes just
work, workers become an abstract labour
force, and the control over work becomes
mainly a management prerogative.
8. (d) The reappearance of Plato can
be found in the Utopia of Sir Thomas
More, in City of the Sun of Campanella
and in New Atlantis of Bacon.
9. (d) Aristotle strongly believed and
justified the institution of slavery. He
opined slaves as the possession of the
family or, in other words, was considered
the property of the master or the family.
He stated that slavery is natural and
beneficial to both the masters as well
as the slaves. Slaves are considered
necessary because they provide leisure
that was most essential for the welfare
of the state. Aristotle stated that slavery
benefited the slaves as well. Because by
being a slave, he would be able to share
the virtues of the master and elevate
himself.
10. (b) Harriet Taylor wife of J.S. Mill
help him in introducing humanitarian
values in the concept of Utilitarianism.
11. (b) Hobbes’ felicity is a kind of
perpetual motion rather than a particular
static mental state or state of being. He
describes it as that which vanishes at the
attainment of a desire brought about by
means of the exercising of one’s power.
12. (b) Rousseau proclaimed the
natural goodness of man and believed that
one man by nature is just as good as any
other. For Rousseau, a man could be just
without virtue and good without effort.
According to Rousseau, man in the state
of nature was free, wise, and good and
the laws of nature were benevolent.
13. (a) A dominant theme of the Essay
is the question with which the original
discussion in Exeter House began: What
is the capacity of the human mind for
understanding and knowledge? In his
prefatory chapter, Locke explains that the
Essay is not offered as a contribution to
knowledge itself but as a means of clearing
away some of the intellectual rubbish that
stands in the way of knowledge. He had
in mind not only the medieval Scholastics
and their followers but also some of his
older contemporaries. Locke’s Essay
Concerning Human Understanding was
a refutation of Hobbes’ Leviathan which
considered human as a selfish being.
14. (c) Aurobindo Ghosh believed
that the Politics of Society must be based
on two principles as;‘Treat others as self’
and, ‘help the other persons in need’.
15. (a) Roy met Lenin in Moscow
in 1920, and went on to become an
international ranking communist leader.
Nevertheless, in September 1929 he
was expelled from the Communist
International “Comintern” for various
reasons. He returned to India in
December 1930 and was sentenced to
six years imprisonment for his role in
the Kanpur Communist Conspiracy
Case. Immediately after his release from
jail on 20 November 1936, Roy joined
Indian National Congress along with his
followers. He organized his followers
into a body called League of Radical
Congressmen. Roy formed the Radical
Democratic Party of his own. This
signaled the beginning of the last phase
of Roy’s life in which he developed his
philosophy of new humanism. In 1946,
Roy established the Indian Renaissance
Institute at Dehradun. Roy was the
founder-director of the Institute. Its
main aim was to develop and organize
a movement to be called the Indian
Renaissance Movement.
16. (b) Franklin D. Roosevelt was
elected President of the United States
four times: 1932, 1936, 1940, and 1944.
71
Prior to the third-term election of 1940,
it was a presidential tradition set by
George Washington that presidents only
held the office for two terms. As a result
of FDR’s unprecedented four terms,
the Twenty-second Amendment to the
United States Constitution was ratified
in 1951, limiting all future presidents to
two elected terms.
17. (b) The declining faith in
government represents a deflation of the
political culture, reducing the capacity
of the political system to achieve shared
goals. But Democratic values command
widespread acceptance within liberal
democracies as an ideal, but at the same
time citizens have become more critical
of the working of the core institutions of
representative democracy.
18. (b) As an unwritten constitution,
the UK constitution is highly flexible and
can easily amend and adapt to changing
times, Unlike the unwritten constitution,
the written constitution is rather rigid
and makes it difficult to modify.
19. (a) Jimmy Carter, in full James
Earl Carter, Jr., was 39th president of
the United States (1977–81), who served
as the country’s chief executive during
a time of serious problems at home and
abroad. His perceived inability to deal
successfully with those problems led to
an overwhelming defeat in his bid for
reelection. However, for his work in
diplomacy and advocacy, both during
and after his presidency, he was awarded
the Nobel Prize for Peace in 2002.
20. (a) Johnson became the first
president impeached by the House, but
he was later acquitted by the Senate by
one vote. The Constitution gives the
House of Representatives the sole power
to impeach an official, and it makes the
Senate the sole court for impeachment
trials.
21. (a) Bourgeoisie model of
development urge for ‘Urban Economic
growth development of Legislature and
Electoral process’. Autocratic model
of development call for Suppression
of middle class. Technocratic model
of development supports ‘Low
 72
political participation and high
foreign investment’. Populist model
of development Stresses high political
participation as well as economic
inequality.
22. (b) Political Parties: A Sociological
Study of the Oligarchical Tendencies of
Modern Democracy is a book by the
sociologist Robert Michels, published in
1911. The Third Wave: Democratization
in the Late Twentieth Century is a 1991
book by Samuel P. Huntington which
outlines the significance of a third wave
of democratization to describe the global
trend that has seen more than 60 countries.
Democracy and Its Critics is a book in
American political science, written by
Robert Dahl. The book was published
by Yale University Press in 1989. In the
following years Democracy and Its Critics
won the 1991 Elaine and David Spitz
Book Award and the 1990 Woodrow
Wilson Foundation Book Award. State
Building: Governance and World order in
the Twenty First Century was published
in 2004 by Francis Fukuyama.
23. (c) Charles Tilly adopted the
‘Political-conflict approach’ in the
analysis of revolution. Charles Tilly
was a pioneer in joining sociology
and history. Throughout his career,
he was especially concerned with the
ways in which ordinary people made
political claims, and how this was
shaped by transformations in the state
and in capitalism. Most often seen as
a structuralist, Tilly was nevertheless
deeply concerned with how to understand
actors.
24. (b) The Politics of Modernization
was written by David E. Apter. Develop-
ment as Freedoms was written by
Amartya Sen. Samuel P. Huntington
wrote Political order in Changing
Societies and Celso Furtado wrote
Development and Underdevelopment.
25. (b) David Apter in his book
‘The Politics of Modernization’
defined modernization in terms of three
conditions: An innovative social system,
Differentiated, flexible social structure
and Social basis for skill and knowledge,
in technologically advanced world.
26. (c) The federal constitution defines
Switzerland as a federal state composed of
26 cantons with far reaching autonomy.
Switzerland’s government, parliament
and courts are organized on three levels:
•• federal
•• cantonal (based on 26 cantonal
constitutions)
•• communal (in a few small cantons
and in some 2500 small villages
reunions of all citizens are held
instead of cantonal and communal
parliaments; local courts are usually
common to several communities)
27. (d)
(Thinkers) (Concepts)
M. Focault – Bio power
N. Steven – Radical view
Lukes of power
Stewart Clegg – Circuits of power
F. Nietzche – Will to power
28. (d) Political parties have sectarian
support base. They can be a closed,
authoritarian, Direct action, or a
repressive organization. Political parties
might be diffused, or may work for
national integration, community building,
and people mobilisation. But political
does not have comprehensive, clientele
oriented, and Pragmatic support base.
29. (a) Lucian W. Pye, one of
the outstanding experts on political
development identified three levels, viz.,
population, government performance
and organization of the polity; where
political development could be
observed. According to him, there are
three essential attributes of political
development. Firstly, Equality which
signifies, mass participation, universal
laws, recruitment on the basis of merit
rather than a scripture criterions.
Secondly, Capacity which signifies
governmental performance efficiency
and effectiveness secular orientation
Thirdly, Differentiation which meant
diffusion and specialization of structures
division of labour specialization based on
integration.
30. (a)
  (Elites) (Functions)
Current Political – Goal
Elites attainment
Solved Paper-III, December-2013
Economic Military, – Adaptation
Scientific, Diplomatic
Elites
Priest, Philosophers, – Integration
Educators
Artists, Writers, top – Pattern
Actors Maintena-
nce
31. (b) At the time of the framing of
the constitution, Pandit Nehru remarked
that: “While we want this Constitution to
be as solid and as permanent a structure
as we can make it, nevertheless there is
no permanence in Constitutions. There
should be a certain flexibility. If you
make anything rigid and permanent, you
stop a nation’s growth, the growth of a
living, vital, organic people.”
32. (d) Article 21 of Indian Constitution
cannot be suspended during emergency
because it states that no person shall be
deprived of his life or personal liberty
except according to procedure state by
law. Article 20 safeguards certain right
of accused from conviction.
33. (a) Communist party of India
did not support the stand of socialist
party on world war II. They were also
critical of socialist party support to
quit India movement. Hence, the called
Jayaprakash Narain, Ram Manohar
Lohia and other Socialists as Japanese
agents during 1942 movement.
34. (b) Caste system was an epitome of
the traditional society, a ‘closed system’,
where generation after generation of
individuals did similar kinds of work
and lived more or less similar kinds of
lives. Caste system encapsulated within
it the features of a social structure and
normative religious behaviour, and even
provided a fairly comprehensive idea
about the personal lives of individuals
living in the Hindu Caste Society. Both
the statement are correct and informing
about the features of caste system in
India, the second statement is not an
explanation to the first one.
35. (d) It will be wrong to say that over
the years, the Supreme Court of India
has failed to demonstrate a commitment
to preserving constitutional liberty, and
Solved Paper-III, December-2013
expanding and protecting human rights.
The truth is that supreme Court has
played and continues to play a critical
role in shaping India’s constitutional
democracy far beyond that which the
drafters of the Constitution envisaged or
what courts in other countries play.
36. (b) In law, locus standi means the
right to bring an action, to be heard in
court, or to address the Court on a matter
before it. Locus standi is the ability of
a party to demonstrate to the court
sufficient connection to and harm from
the law or action challenged to support
that party’s participation in the case.
37. (d) Constitution 61st Amendment
Act, 1988 was enacted to reduce the voting
age from 21 years to 18 years. Keeping
in view of the literacy, enlightenment
and politically awareness among the
youth, the lowering of the voting age was
carried out by the amendment.
38. (c) The government of India act
1919 extended the principle of communal
representation by providing separate
electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians,
Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
39. (b) Union power committee
and union constitution committee were
headed by Nehru. Steering Committee
was headed by Rajendra Prasad.
Committee on Fundamental Rights and
Minorities and Provincial Constitution
Committee was headed by Sardar Patel.
40. (b) In Nationalist Thought and the
Colonial World (1986), he argued that
Indian nationalism was to some extent
derivative, but it did not come to its central
tenets, represented for him in the thinking
of Jawaharlal Nehru, via a straight line.
‘Sometimes the shortest route between
two points is a crooked line’, he wrote.
Still, a hypersensitive Indian academic
public latched on to the subtitle of the
book, A Derivative Discourse?, ignored
the question mark, and were offended
because Partha Chatterjee seemed to be
denying originality to Indian ‘nationalist
thought’.
41. (d) The National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act 2005 (NREGA) is a
social security scheme that attempts to
provide employment and livelihood to
rural labourers in the country. It was
later renamed the Mahatma Gandhi
National Rural Employment Guarantee
Act (MGNREGA). The MGNREGA is
an entitlement to work that every adult
citizen holds.
42. (b)
Commission/   Issues
Committee
Mahajan – Maharashtra
Commission Karnataka
Boundary
Dispute
Sri Krishna – Telengana/A. P.
Commission
Punchi – Muslim Minority
Commission
Sachar – Centre–State
Committee Relations
43. (d) Myron Weiner was the first to
start studies on the topic of state politics
in India. He wrote a book named “State
politics in India” in 1968.
44. (c) The General Elections of 1984
were held after the assassination of the
then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. The
country received a great blow after the
death of Indira Gandhi and thus voted
for the Congress leading it to a landslide
victory. The INC won 414 seats out of
a total of 533 seats. The TDP with 30
seats became the second largest party. It
was for the first time that a regional party
came into Opposition. Rajiv Gandhi
became the new Prime Minister of India.
45. (d) AP Janmabhoomi is a flagship
social initiative by the Govt of Andhra
Pradesh comprising of three schemes–
Digital Classrooms, Anganwadis
Centers, and Crematorium. The Project
acts as a bridge between the NRIs and
their homeland by connecting them
to their roots and giving them the
opportunity to help achieve these goals
for their motherland. The project,
launched in 2016, has digitised over 3000
government schools and affected over a
million students in the state. Through
concerted efforts of the Honorable Chief
Minister of Andhra Pradesh, Sri Nara
Chandrababu Naidu, and the Special
Representative for North America, Sri
73
Jayaram Komati, the state has achieved
this breakthrough in the public education
system. The project has paved the way to
development of the sunrise state.
46. (b) Behavioural approach analyses
the human behaviour in administrative
settings Bureaucratic approach deals with
Legal-Rational Authority. Ecological
approach has components like agrarian
transition industrialization. General
Systems approach consider administrative
system as a subsystem of the society.
47. (b) Line agency is an agency
which performs the tasks for which the
organization exists. Executive Office of
the President (EOP) An organization
of several agencies staffed by the
President’s closest advisors.
48. (a) Gullick identified 4 basis of
departmental organization (popularly
known as 4 p): Purpose, Process, Person
and Place. Gulick lays special emphasis
on division of work. According to him
large scale organizations require many
men to carry out their different tasks.
Wherever many men work together best
results can be achieved when there is a
division of work among these men. The
theory of organization, therefore, has to
do with the promotion of coordination
among different units of an organization
created by the principle of division of
work. Thus, Gulick says that “division of
work and integration are the boot straps
by which mankind lifts in the process of
civilization”.
49. (c)
50. (d) Development administration
is a dynamic concept which brings about
socio-economic and politico-economic
changes in society. Aiming towards
development, it strives for change,
growth, progress and overall development
in every sphere of a country. It was first
introduced by Edward W. Weidner.
The following are the characteristics of
development administration:
•• Change-oriented
•• Result-oriented
•• Client-oriented
•• Citizen participation oriented
•• Commitment to fulfill public demands
 74
•• Concerned with innovation
•• Administration of industrial societies
•• Effectiveness of coordination
51. (a) A domicile certificate not
only prove the residence status of a
person but also makes him eligible to
avail various benefits based on his or
her domicile such as education, job and
other benefits such as resident quotas in
the government service and educational
institutions. USA was the first country to
introduce domicile condition for public
administration servant job.
52. (a) The position minister of
Personnel, public grievance and pensions
considered to be a powerful one as of it
is the cadre controlling authority of the
Indian Administrative Service (IAS),
and is the administering agency of the
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
and the Public Enterprises Selection
Board (PESB).
53. (c) Reappropriation, which implies
the transfer of funds from one primary
unit of appropriation to another such unit
within a grant, can be sanctioned under
formal orders of a competent authority,
only when it is known or anticipated that
the appropriation for the unit from which
funds are to be diverted.
54. (d) The advancement of an
employee within a company position
or job tasks. A job promotion may be
the result of an employee’s proactive
pursuit of a higher ranking or as a reward
by employers for good performance.
Typically is also associated with a higher
rate of pay or financial bonus.
55. (a) Sadiq Ali Committee was
appointed to report on the working of
the Panchayat system in Rajasthan by
government of Rajasthan and not in for all
over India. G. V. K. Rao Committee was
appointed by the Planning Commission
to study the Panchayati Raj structure in
India.
56. (b) M. Crozer has termed
bureaucracy as “an organization that
cannot correct its behaviour by learning
from its errors”.
57. (a) The scheme of Joint Consul-
tative Machinery is a platform for
constructive dialogue between the
representatives of the staff side and the
official side for peaceful resolution of
all disputes between the Government
as employer and the employees. The
scheme was introduced in 1966 with
the objectives of promoting harmonious
relations and securing the greatest
measure of cooperation between the
Central Government as the employer
and the employees in matters of common
concern and with the object of further
increasing the efficiency of the public
service combined with the well being of
those employed. The Cabinet Secretary
is the Chairman of the Council. He
is the leader of the official side and is
connecting link between the government
and the employees.
58. (b) Executive Control Over
Administration is a type of control works
automatically and spontaneously with the
movement of Government machinery. It
is a sort of self-regulating device which
controls the movement of machinery
of which it is a part. Administrative
structure is hierarchical in nature.
59. (a) Due to the delay caused by
hierarchical structure in the disposal
of work. The Government of India
started what is known as “file jumping
experiment”. Both the statement are
correct and second one is an appropriate
explanation behind the first statement.
60. (c) Planning Commission in
India is neither a Statutory Body nor a
Constitutional Body. It is not a statutory
body it is an executive body formed by
the executive resolution of 1951.
61. (a) Democratic peace theory is a
theory which posits that democracies are
hesitant to engage in armed conflict with
other identified democracies. A 1983
paper by political scientist Michael W.
Doyle contributed further to popularizing
the theory.
62. (b) The onset of détente, the loss
of hegemonic status by the USA and the
growing awareness of environmental
problems sensitized social scientists.
The regimes are an important feature of
globalization. The multi polar world is
the present reality in the absence of an
absolute hegemone.
63. (c) In a journal article “The Changing
Nature of World Power” Published in
Solved Paper-III, December-2013
Political Science Quarterly Joseph S. Nye
wrote that “Power in International Politics
is like the weather. Everyone talks about it,
but few understand it”
64. (a)
(Reasons of failure) (States)
Tribal conflict – Somalia
Endless violence – Liberia
for nonpolitical
purposes
Ethnic genocide – Rawada
Transnational war – Congo
65. (c) Dates are already present in
the question.
66. (b) The Post-Cold War period
is a multi polar moment in an unipolar
world during this period various other
countries like Japan, China, India are
becoming powerful and converting world
into a multi polar power world. America
remains the world’s pre eminent actor,
but it is also stretched militarily, in debt
financially, divided domestically and
unpopular internationally.
67. (b) The key element of the Truman
Doctrine was the policy of containment.
Containment was the policy of restricting
communist expansion by diplomatic,
military and economic actions. The
Truman Doctrine warned that it was the
duty of the United States to quash the
communist aggression in Turkey and
Greece.
68. (d) The world’s biggest natural
gas reserves. Nearly 80% of the world’s
total proven natural gas reserves are
located in ten countries. Russia tops the
list, holding about a quarter of world’s
total gas reserves, followed by Iran and
Qatar in the Middle East. Russia has the
second largest coal reserves in the world,
equalling 19% of the world’s total. The
total coal reserves in Russia amount to
173 billion tons. This puts Russia behind
the United States in total coal reserves,
which has 263 billion tons. Russia has
the world’s eighth-largest proven oil
reserves, at 80 billion barrels. Russia is
the second-largest crude oil exporter by
volume.
69. (c) A Hundred Horizons: The
Indian Ocean in the Age of Global Empire
was written by Sugato Bose. Global
Swing States: Brazil, India, Indonesia,
Solved Paper-III, December-2013
Turkey and the Future of International
Order was written by David Kliman &
Richard Fontaine. War in the Indian
Ocean was written by Vice Admiral
Mihir Kumar Roy. Samundra Manthan:
Sino Indian Rivalry in the Indo-Pacific
was written by C Raja Mohan.
70. (d) The phrase axis of evil was
first used by U. S. President George W.
Bush in his State of the Union address
on January 29, 2002, and often repeated
throughout his presidency, to describe
foreign governments that, during his
administration, sponsored terrorism and
sought weapons of mass destruction.
Axis of evil, expression used to describe
the bellicose tendencies of Iran, North
Korea, and Iraq in the early 21st century.
71. (c) The Peacebuilding Commi-
ssion (PBC) was jointly established
by the General Assembly and the
Security Council in 2005 as a new
intergovernmental advisory body of the
United Nations that supported peace
efforts in countries emerging from
conflict. Its aim is to propose integrated
strategies for post-conflict peacebuilding
and recovery, bring together all of the
relevant actors and marshal resources.
72. (c) The Regional Cooperation
Agreement on Combating Piracy and
Armed Robbery against Ships in Asia
(ReCAAP) is the first regional government-
to-government agreement to promote and
enhance cooperation against piracy and
armed robbery against ships in Asia.
The ReCAAP Agreement was
launched in November 2006 with 14
Asian Contracting Parties including North,
Southeast, and South Asian countries. It
has 20 Contracting Parties today, including
Europe (Norway, the Netherlands,
Denmark, and the United Kingdom),
Australia, and the United States.
73. (c) Sun Tuz wrote that “O divine
art of subtlety and secrecy! Through you
we learn to be invisible, through you
inaudible; and hence we can hold the
enemy’s fate in our hands.”
74. (b) The United Nations Monito-
ring, Verification and Inspection Com-
mission (UNMOVIC) was created through
75
the adoption of Security Council resolution
1284 of 17 December 1999. UNMOVIC
was to replace the former UN Special
Commission (UNSCOM) and continue
with the latter’s mandate to disarm Iraq of
its weapons of mass destruction (chemical,
biological weapons and missiles with
a range of more than 150 km), and to
operate a system of ongoing monitoring
and verification to check Iraq’s compliance
with its obligations not to reacquire the
same weapons prohibited to it by the
Security Council. The Secretary-General
of the United Nations appointed Dr. Hans
Blix of Sweden to be the Commission’s
Executive Chairman. In addition, the
Secretary-General appointed 16 individuals
to serve on the College of Commissioners
of UNMOVIC which provides advice and
guidance to the Chairman in the execution
of his duties.
75. (c) Madhya Pradesh lies at the centre
of India and it didn’t share boundary with
any of India’s neighbouring countries.
qqq
 76
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, June-2014
1. To Kautilya, the concept “rupadar-
shaka” means:
(a) Beautician
(b) Magistrate
(c) Inspector of coins
(d) Zamindar
2. Plato appropriated the ideas of
(a) Heraclitus
(b) Parmenides
(c) Socrates
(d) All the above
3. For whom “All existence is simply
a matter in motion.”?
(a) Plato
(b) Hobbes
(c) T.H. Green
(d) Rousseau
4. Rousseau won the prize in an essay
contest sponsored by the Academy
of Dijon in 1749 on the subject
(a) “Has the progress of the sciences
and the Arts contributed to corrupt
or purify morals?”
(b) “Has the progress of the sciences
contributed to corrupt morals?”
(c) “Has the development of the
sciences contributed to corrupt
or purify morals?”
(d) None of the above
5. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): For Plato, knowledge
is neither perception nor opinion.
Reason (R): Right opinion is
knowledge.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
Solved Paper-II, June-2014
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false. List–I List–II
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. A. Charles E. i. The
6. The laws of the dialectic of Marx Merriam Governmental
does not include Process
B. Heinz ii. What is
(a) The law of transformation of
Eulan Political
quantity into quality and vice-
Philosophy?:
versa.
And Other Studies
(b) The law of the unity of opposites. C. Leo iii. New Aspects of
(c) The law of the negation of the Strauss Politics
negation. D. D. Truman iv. The Behavioural
(d) Dialectic is confined to its Persuasion in
operation to the understanding Politics
of the past only. Codes:
7. Who said “Leninism is Marxism of A B C D
the era of imperialism and of the (a) iii iv ii i
proletarian revolution”?
(b) ii iii i iv
(a) Marx (b) Lenin
(c) i ii iii iv
(c) Stalin (d) Mao
(d) iv i iii ii
8. Identify the correct sequence of
11. Who among the following political
the tenets of Behaviouralism as
thinkers are generally regarded
advocated by David Easton.
as founders of philosophical
(i) Regularities
approach?
(ii) Techniques
(a) Plato and Aristotle
(iii) Quantification
(b) Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau
(iv) Verification
(c) Jeremy Bentham and J.S. Mill
Select the correct answer from the
(d) Kant, Hegel
codes given below:
12. Which of the following are the
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
characteristics of Weber’s ideal
(b) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
bureaucracy?
(c) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
1. Staff and line
(d) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
2. Impersonality
9. In which place of South Africa did
3. Hierarchy
Gandhiji for the first time organize
mass protest? 4. Informal organization
(a) Cape Town Select the correct answer from the
(b) Johannesburg codes given below:
(c) Soweto (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) Pretoria (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
10. Match List–I with List–II and select 13. Which of the following does not
the correct answer from the codes figure in Almond and Verba’s
given below: classification of political cultures?
Solved Paper-II, June-2014 77
(a) Cognitive orientation D. Single iv. Ireland Codes:
(b) Affective orientation Transferable A B C D
vote system (a) i ii iii iv
(c) Evaluative orientation
Codes: (b) ii iii iv i
(d) Empirical orientation
A B C D (c) iii iv ii i
14. Given below are two statements,
(a) i ii iii iv (d) iv iii i ii
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R). (b) iv iii ii i 21. Which one of the following pairs
(c) iii iv i ii are not correctly matched?
Assertion (A): Dependency is a List–I List–II
relationship between the groups of (d) ii i iv iii
(President) (Vice-President)
economies those, who condition 18. Match List–I with List–II and select (a) Dr. Rajendra – Dr. S. Radha
others and those, who are conditioned the correct answer from the codes Prasad Krishnan
by others. given below: (b) Dr. Zakir – V.V. Giri
List–I  List–II Hussain
Reason (R): Dependency is dependent
 (Books) (Authors) (c) Sanjeeva – B.D. Jatti
on the core periphery relationship of
A. Interest groups i. H.W. Reddy
the international political economy. in American Ehrmann (d) Dr. S. Radha – Dr. Zakir
Codes: Society Krishnan Hussain
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) B. Interest groups ii. H.Zeigler 22. What is the percentage fixed by the
is the correct explanation of (A). of four Continents constitution regarding the strength
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is C. Anonymous iii. Graham of the Ministers including the chief
Empire Wallas minister in a state?
not the correct explanation of (A).
D. Human Nature iv. Samuel (a) 10% (b) 12%
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. in Politics Finer (c) 15% (d) 16%
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Codes: 23. Which one of the following is
15. Who said “A state is human A B C D mainly associated with Panchayati
activity that successfully claims (a) i ii iii iv Raj in tribal areas?
the monopoly of the legitimate use (a) P.K. Thungan committee
(b) ii iii i iv
of physical force within a given (b) Dilip Singh Bhuria committee
(c) iii iv ii i
territory”? (c) Sadiq Ali committee
(d) ii i iv iii
(a) David Easton (d) Doomarlal Baitha committee
19. Which one of the following approa-
(b) G.A. Almond 24. Arrange the following writs in the
ches studies, among others, public
(c) Karl Marx opinion and people’s political correct sequence as given in the
(d) Max Weber Indian Constitution:
choices?
i. Certiorari
16. The traditional approaches to the (a) Political Philosophical Approach
ii. Habeas Corpus
comparative politics neglected the (b) Institutional Approach
iii. Quo Warranto
(a) Study of Government (c) Behavioural Approach
iv. Prohibition
(b) Institutional studies (d) Legal Approach
v. Mandamus
(c) Comparison of the constitutions 20. Match List–I with List–II and select
Codes:
(d) Empirical investigations the correct answer from the codes
(a) i, iii, v, ii, iv
given below:
17. Match List–I with List–II and select (b) ii, iv, iii, i, v
List–I List–II
the correct answer from the codes (c) ii, v, iv, i, iii
(Political Culture) (Countries)
given below: (d) iii, i, ii, iv, v
A. Homogeneous i. Uganda
List–I List–II
culture 25. Arrange the following in their
(Electoral System) (Countries) chronological sequence:
A. First-Past-the- i. India B. Elite mass ii. U.K.
culture i. Cripps Mission
post system
C. Subject political iii. India ii. Montague Chelmsford Report
B. Two Rounds of ii. Egypt
system culture iii. Simon Commission
C. List System iii. Brazil D. Parochial culture iv. China iv. Morley – Minto Reforms
 78
Codes:
(a) ii, iii, i, iv
(b) iv, ii, iii, i
(c) iii, i, ii, iv
(d) i, iv, iii, ii
26. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(Parties) (Characteristic)
A. Indian National i. National
Congress Party
B. Telugu Desam ii. State Party
Party
C. Kerala Congress iii. Umbrella
Party
D. Communist Party iv. Regional
of India (Marxist) Party
Codes:
A B C D
(a) ii i iv iii
(b) i iii iv ii
(c) iii iv ii i
(d) iv ii i iii
27. Which one of the following
was denounced by congress as
“inadequate, unsatisfactory and
disappointing”?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Montague Chelmsford Report,
1918
(c) Simon Commission Report, 1930
(d) Communal Award, 1932
28. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A federal arrangement
aims at reconciling freedom with
unity and diversity of political
cultures and identities with effective
collective action.
Reason (R): India opted for a
pluralistic model of nation building.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is not
correct.
(d) (R) is correct, but (A) is not
correct.
29. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Bulk of the provisions
of the constitution of India were
adopted from the Government of
India Act of 1935.
Reason (R): The congress party
passed a resolution adopting the
government of India Act of 1935 as
the basis of the constitution.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
30. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
 List–I List–II
(Articles) (Provisions)
35. Which one of the following is not a
A. 359 i. Financial Emergency
B. 312 ii. Finance Commission
C. 280 iii. Suspension of
Fundamental Rights
D. 360 iv. All India Services
Codes:
A B C D
(a) iii iv ii i
(b) ii iii i iv
(c) i ii iv iii
(d) iv i iii ii
Solved Paper-II, June-2014
31. Who among the following has
created eighteen definitions of
public administration and put them
in four categories of political, legal,
occupational and managerial?
(a) Gulick and Urwick
(b) Shafritz and Russell
(c) David H. Rosenbloom
(d) Paul H. Appleby
32. Who among the following has not
made a distinction between public
and private administration?
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Herbert Simon
(c) Paul H. Appleby
(d) John Gaus
33. What is the correct chronological
sequence of the following reports?
1. A.D. Gorwala Report
2. Paul H. Appleby Report
3. Santhanam Committee Report
4. First Administrative Reforms
Commission Report.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2
34. Max Weber used the Greek word
‘Charisma’ to refer to
1. qualities acquired by experience
2. inherited qualities
3. supernatural qualities
4. super human qualities
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
base of organization?
(a) Function (b) Budgeting
(c) Process (d) Clientele
36. Which of the following statement
is not correct in respect of India?
(a) Tax can be levied except by
authority of law
(b) No expenditure can be incurred
from public funds except in
the manner provided in the
constitution and in accordance
with law
Solved Paper-II, June-2014
(c) Executive is bound to spend
money in the manner as sanctioned
by parliament
(d) None of the above
37. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I  List–II
A. Hierarchy i. Dr. K.S.
Kothari
B. Report on Public ii. House
Administration keeping
(1951)
C. Preliminary iii. Scalar
screening process
examination in
Indian civil
service
D. Auxilliary Agency iv. A.D.
Gorwala
Codes:
A B C D
(a) i iii ii iv
(b) iv ii iii i
(c) iii iv i ii
(d) ii i iv iii
38. Which one of the following was the
first state to establish the institution
of the Lokayukta in India?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
39. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Under the spoils
system the public offices are
distributed to the members of the
party victorious at the polls.
Reason (R): The public offices are
considered spoils to be enjoyed by
the victors.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
40. Who among the following are the
protagonists of the integral view of
public administration?
1. Henry Fayol
2. Marshall Dimock
3. Simon
4. Gulick
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
41. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(Authors) (Books)
A. E.H. Carr i. Neorealism
and Its Critics
B. R. Keohane ii. From Wealth
to Power
C. J. Mearsheimer iii.The Twenty
Year Crisis
D. F. Zakaria iv.The Tragedy
of Great Power
Politics
Codes: features of the modern institution
A B C D
(a) i ii iii iv
(b) iv iii i ii
(c) iii i iv ii
(d) ii iv i iii
42. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Globalization is a
multidimensional process.
Reason (R): It involves economic,
political, social and cultural globaliza-
tions.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the right explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
79
43. When two combatants are so
different in their characters, and in
their areas of comparative strategic
advantage, that a confrontation
between them comes to turn one
side’s ability to force, the other side
to fight on their own terms. Name
the type of war?
(a) Unequal war
(b) Asymmetric war
(c) New war
(d) Post-westphalian war
44. Name the UN fact finding mission
on the Gaza Conflict 2009 Report
(a) Golding Report
(b) Goldstone Report
(c) Goldman Sachs Report
(d) Gaza Report
45. Under which chapter and article
does the UN security council
consider a threat to international
peace; first explores ways to settle
the dispute peacefully,
(a) Chapter VI, Article 36
(b) Chapter VI, Article 33
(c) Chapter VII, Article 47
(d) Chapter VII, Article 42
46. Which of the following are correct
of international law?
(i) Unilateral legislation
(ii) Consent and legal obligation
(iii) Language and practice of justi-
fication
(iv) Discourse of institutional anto-
nomy
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
47. The United Nations Conference
well known as Copenhagen, COP
15 dealt with the issue of
(a) Global Warming
(b) Climate Change
(c) Environment
(d) Population Explosion
 80
48. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(Regional (Year of Origin)
Organization) (c) iv ii iii i
A. Organization of i. 1989
American States
(OAS)
B. North Atlantic ii. 1948
Free Trade
Agreement
(NAFTA)
C. Arab Maghreb iii. 1954
Union (AMU)
D. South East Asian iv. 1994
Treaty Organization
(SEATO)
Answers with Explanations
1. (c) Kautilya in his administrative
model provided various posts to various
officers. Rupadarshaka is the inspector
of coins under his administration system
provided in Arthashastra.
2. (d) Plato is one of the world’s
best known and most widely read
and studied philosophers. He was a
student of Socrates and the teacher of
Aristotle, and he wrote in the middle
of the fourth century B.C.E. in ancient
Greece. Though influenced primarily
by Socrates, to the extent that Socrates
is usually the main character in many of
Plato’s writings, he was also influenced
by Heraclitus, Parmenides, and the
Pythagoreans.
3. (b) Thomas Hobbes saw Society as
a giant machine (perpetually in motion),
thus the title of his great work, Leviathan,
which is founded on Mechanics (the
Motion of Bodies/Matter). Hobbes
tried to explain that reality exists as an
interconnected ‘machine’. And that the
motion was fundamental to reality (it was
real, not metaphorical).
4. (a) Rousseau wrote Discourse
in response to an advertisement that
appeared in a 1749 issue of Mercure de
France, in which the Academy of Dijon
set a prize for an essay responding to
the question: “Has the restoration of
Codes:
A B C D
(a) i iii ii iv
(b) ii iv i iii
(d) iii i iv ii
49. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): India is pursuing a
positive asymmetry in South Asia.
Reason (R): India is strategically
contained by China-Pakistan
partnership.
the sciences and arts contributed to the
purification of morals?” According to
Rousseau, “Within an instant of reading
this [advertisement], I saw another
universe and became another man.”
Rousseau found the idea to which he
would passionately dedicate the rest
of his intellectual life: the destructive
influence of civilization on human
beings. Rousseau went on to win first
prize in the contest and he had newfound
fame as a philosopher.
5. (c) According to Plato, knowledge
is virtue, its neither perception nor
opinion, and right opinion is not
necessarily a form of knowledge.
6. (d) Dialectical materialism, a
philosophical approach to reality derived
from the teachings of Karl Marx and
Friedrich Engels. For Marx and Engels,
materialism meant that the material
world, perceptible to the senses, has
objective reality independent of mind or
spirit. They did not deny the reality of
mental or spiritual processes but affirmed
that ideas could arise, therefore, only
as products and reflections of material
conditions. The dialectic talks about past,
present as well as future understanding.
7. (c) The pamphlet, The Foundations
of Leninism, contains a definition
of Leninism which seems to have
Solved Paper-II, June-2014
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the right explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
50. Who is the author of the book
“Pakistan’s Arms Procurement
and Military build-up 1979–99: In
search of a policy”?
(a) Ahmed Rashid
(b) Ayesha Jalal
(c) Ayesha Siddiqa Ada
(d) Stephen Cohen
received general recognition. It runs as
follows: “Leninism is Marxism of the
era of imperialism and the proletarian
revolution. To be more exact, Leninism
is the theory and tactics of the proletarian
revolution in general, the theory
and tactics of the dictatorship of the
proletariat in particular.” This is how
Stalin define Leninism.
8. (b) The eight characteristics
features of behaviouralism as given by
David Easton are as follows:
(1) Regularities;
(2) Verification;
(3) Techniques;
(4) Quantification;
(5) Values;
(6) Systematisation;
(7) Pure Science; and
(8) Integration.
9. (b) Mahatma Gandhi, South Africa
and Satyagraha. Articles - On and By
Gandhi. A century ago, on 10 January
1908, M. K. Gandhi, an attorney with
a lucrative practice in Johannesburg,
appeared before the magistrate’s
court for defying an anti-Asiatic law
and disobeying an order to leave the
Transvaal within 48 hours.
Solved Paper-II, June-2014
10. (a)
Charles E. – New Aspects of
Merriam Politics
Heinz Eulan – The Behavioural
Persuasion in
Politics
Leo Strauss – What is Political
Philosophy?: And
Other Studies
D. Truman – The Governmental
Process
11. (a) Plato and Aristotle are
considered as the founder of philosophical
approach of political philosophy. Both of
them belong to Greek school of political
thoughts. They provided there model of
political state for Greek city states.
12. (b) Max Weber argued that the
bureaucratic organizational form is
characterized by six features:
(1) Specialization and Division of
Labor;
(2) Hierarchical Authority Struc-
tures;
(3) Rules and Regulations;
(4) Technical Competence Guide-
lines;
(5) Impersonality and Personal
Indifference;
(6) A Standard of Formal.
13. (d) According to Almond and
Verba’s 1963 study, there are three basic
types of political culture: parochial,
subject, and participatory. Theories
developed by other political and social
scientists explain how political culture
takes root and is passed down from
generation to generation through political
socialization.
14. (a) Both the statements are correct
and the second statement is right reason
behind the assertion in the first statement.
15. (d) In his lecture “Politics as a
Vocation” (1918), the German sociologist
Max Weber defines the state as a “human
community that (successfully) claims
the monopoly of the legitimate use of
physical force within a given territory.”
The modern state, according to Weber,
emerged by expropriating the means of
political organization and domination,
including violence, and by establishing
the legitimacy of its rule.
16. (d) Traditional approaches are
principally concerned with the study of the
organization and activities of the state and
principles and the ideas which motivate
political organizations and activities.
These approaches were normative and
principled. Traditional approach did not
consider empirical investigation under it.
17. (a)
First-Past-the-post system – India
Two Rounds of system – Egypt
List System – Brazil
Single Transferable – Ireland
vote system
18. (d)
Interest groups in – H. Zeigler
American Society
Interest groups of – H.W.
four Continents Ehrmann
Anonymous Empire – Samuel
Finer
Human Nature in – Graham
Politics Wallas
19. (c) Behavioural approach to
politics or behaviouralism denotes
that it is an “attempt to improve our
understanding of politics by seeking to
explain the empirical aspects of political
life by means of methods, theories and
criteria of proof that are acceptable
according to the canons, conventions
and assumption of modern empirical
science.” Behavioural approach inquire
about public choice and their political
opinion.
20. (b)
Homogeneous culture – U.K.
Elite mass culture – India
Subject political culture – China
Parochial culture – Uganda
21. (c)
22. (c) 91st amendment act states that
the size of the council of ministers and
the respective state governments should
not be more than 15% (Fifteen Percent)
of the total members of lower house
(i.e. 15% strength of Lok Sabha in the
parliament and 15% strength of lower
houses of respective states legislatures
(the minimum strength in the case of
small states (Sikkim, Mizoram, Goa)
is being 12 due to lower strength of
the Legislative assembly of that states)
Sikkim - 32, Mizoram - 40, Goa - 40.
81
23. (b) Government sets up Dileep
Singh Bhuria Committee for extending the
provisions of 73rd and 74th amendments
to scheduled areas in 1994. In January
1995 Bhuria Committee submits its
report. It recommends Panchayat
Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA)
for rural tribal areas and Municipalities
Extension to the Scheduled Areas
(MESA) for urban tribal areas.
24. (c) The correct sequence as per
Constitution of India of all the writs
under Article 32 are: Habeas Corpus,
Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and
Quo Warranto at last.
25. (b) The sequence of political as
well as the administrative steps taken by
the British administration in India is as
follows: Morley-Minto Reform in 1909,
Montague-Chelmsford Report in 1919,
Simon Commission in 1927 and Cripps
Mission in 1942.
26. (c)
Indian National – Umbrella Party
Congress
Telugu Desam – Regional Party
Party
Kerala Congress – State Party
Communist Party – National Party
of India
27. (b) The Montague-Chelmsford
reforms were set out in the government
of India act of 1919. If the British thought
that they would be welcomed by Indians
but they were mistaken. Many Indians
had fought with British in the war. The
Congress and the League had come
together, calling for safe rule, and they
were disappointed by the new structure.
At a session of Congress in August
1918 the reforms were condemned
as ‘inadequate, unsatisfactory and
disappointing’. Only moderates in
Congress supported the measures and
they were excluded from the party. The
local people had more say in how their
country was governed but the British
maintained their power by ensuring that
the viceroy had the authority to govern
India.
28. (b) Both the statements are true
but they don’t have any relation among
them. The second statement is not a
reason behind the assertion made in the
first statement.
 82
29. (c) Yes, Its true that bulk of
provisions in Indian constitution were
borrowed from Government of India Act
1935. But Congress party newer passed
any kind of resolution for adopting
Government of India Act 1935 as the
basis of the Indian constitution.
30. (a)
Article 359 – Suspension of
Fundamental Rights
Article 312 – All Indian Services
Article 280 – Finance Commission
Article 360 – Financial Emergency
31. (b) Shafritz and Russell has
provided 18 definitions of public
administration. They have categorised
all these definitions under four heads
that are political, legal, occupational and
managerial.
32. (a) The administrative management
theory by Henry Fayol. He did not made
any distinction between public and private
administration. Fayol was a French who
had worked in a coal industry for over
thirty years. This theory focuses on the
organization as a whole. In his book,
Henry identified five key functional areas
which include: controlling, coordinating,
planning, organising and directing.
33. (a) The correct sequence of
the report related to administration
are as follows: A.D. Gorwala Report
in 1951, Paul H. Appleby Report in
1953, Santhanam Committee Report in
1962 and First Administrative Reforms
Commission Report in 1966.
34. (d) Weber applies the term
charisma to certain quality of an
individual personality, by virtue of which
he is set apart from ordinary men and
treated as endowed with supernatural,
superhuman, or at least specifically
exceptional powers or qualities. These
are such as are not accessible to the
ordinary person, but are regarded as of
divine origin or as exemplary, and on the
basis of them the individual concerned is
treated as a leader.
35. (b) Budgeting is not one among the
bases of organisation structure according
to public administration theorists.
36. (a) In India taxation is a power
that is derived from the constitution.
The law says that any kind of taxation
can be levied only under the legislation
made by Parliament of India. Any kind
of tax not notified by parliamentary act
or any legislative law by state legislative
is invalid and unconstitutional.
37. (c)
Hierarchy – Scalar Process
Report on public – A.D Gorwala
Administration
(1951)
Preliminary – Dr. K.S.
Screening Kothari
Examination in
Indian Civil Service
Auxiliary Agency – House keeping
38. (d) The State of Maharashtra is
the first and pioneer state in India to
introduce the concept of Lokayukta by
enacting the Maharashtra Lokayukta
and Upa-Lokayuktas Act, 1971 in view
of the recommendations made by the
Administrative Reforms Commission
headed by Late Shri Morarji Desai in 1966.
39. (a) Spoils system is a practice in
which a political party, after winning an
election, gives government civil service
jobs to its supporters, friends, and
relatives as a reward for working toward
victory, and as an incentive to keep
working for the party. Both assertion and
reason is true and second statement is a
reason behind assertion statement.
40. (a) According to the Integral view,
Public Administration is a sum total of
all the activities undertaken in pursuit of
and in fulfillment of public policy. These
activities include not only managerial and
technical but also manual and clerical.
Public Administration scholars like
L.D. White, Henry Fayol and Gulick
propagated this view of administration.
41. (c)
E.H. Carr – The Twenty Year
Crisis
R. Keohane – Neorealism and Its
Critics
J. Mearsheimer – The Tragedy of
Great Power
Politics
F. Zakaria – From Wealth to
Power
42. (a) Yes, it’s true that globalization is
a multidimensional process and it involves
interaction of economic, political, social,
Solved Paper-II, June-2014
cultural aspects of different countries with
each other.
43. (b) Asymmetrical warfare, uncon-
ventional strategies and tactics adopted
by a force when the military capabilities
of belligerent powers are not simply
unequal but are so significantly different
that they cannot make the same sorts of
attacks on each other. Guerrilla warfare,
occurring between lightly armed partisans
and a conventional army, is an example of
asymmetrical warfare. Terrorist tactics,
such as hijackings and suicide bombings,
are also considered to be asymmetrical,
both because they tend to involve a
smaller, weaker group attacking a stronger
one and also because attacks on civilians
are by definition one-way warfare. War
between a country that is both able and
willing to use nuclear weapons and a
country that is not would be another
example of asymmetrical warfare.
44. (b) A UN fact-finding mission,
headed by Judge Richard Goldstone,
was established in April 2009. The
mission published its 574-page report
in September 2009. The report called
for both parties, Hamas and Israel, to
investigate their own actions and accused
both of deliberately targeting civilians.
45. (b) Article 33 of the Charter states
that any dispute that is likely to endanger
the maintenance of international peace
and security should first be addressed
through negotiation, mediation or other
peaceful means, and states that the
Council can call on the parties to use
such means to settle their dispute.
46. (d)
47. (b) World leaders struck a new
political accord to address climate
change at the 2009 U.N. Climate Summit
in Copenhagen, Denmark. The accord
provided for explicit emission pledges
by all major economies – including, for
the first time, China and other major
developing countries.
48. (b)
Organisation of American – 1948
States (OAS)
North Atlantic Free Trade – 1994
Agreement (NAFTA)
Arab Maghreb Union – 1989
(AMU)
South East Asian Treaty – 1954
Organisation (SEATO)
Solved Paper-II, June-2014
49. (b) Yes, its true that India is
pursuing a positive asymmetry in
South Asia. India is also contained by
Pakistan and China partnership. Both
the statement are true but the second
statement is not a true reason behind the
assertion statement.
50. (c) Pakistan’s Arms Procurement
and Military Buildup, 1979–99: In
Search of a Policy was written by
Ayesha Siddiqa Ada. This book presents
a fundamental departure in presenting
an analysis of the internal dynamics
of defence management and decision
83
making in Pakistan - a new nuclear
weapon state. This is an in-depth study
of Pakistan’s security link with its arms
suppliers and defence industrial capacity,
and the influence of Pakistan’s Army
on conventional and non-conventional
defence decisions.
qqq
 84
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-III, June-2014
1. Who described political theory as
‘the systematic thinking about the
purpose of the government’?
(a) Leacock (b) Garner
(c) Plamenatz (d) Berlin
2. Who is the author of the book ‘The
Philosophy of J.S. Mill’?
(a) M. Cowling
(b) J. Gray
(c) R.P. Anschutz
(d) J.W. Mueller
3. Who is the author of ‘Savitri’?
(a) M.N. Roy
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Aurobindo
(d) R. Tagore
4. “Once God is let in, there is an end
to the sovereignty of man.” Who
said this?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Vivekananda
(c) M.N. Roy
(d) J. Nehru
5. Who said “Man is what he eats”?
(a) Marx (b) Engels
(c) Lenin (d) Feuerbach
6. Who is the propounder of labour
theory of value?
(a) Hobbes (b) Locke
(c) Rousseau (d) Bentham
7. Which one of the following is
correct regarding the writings of
Machiavelli?
(a) Discourses
(b) The Golden Ass
(c) The Art of War
(d) All the above
8. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I List–II
  (Thinker) (Dominent Concept)
A. Beitz i. Justice as mutual
advantage
B. Gauthier ii. Entitlement
Theory of Justice
C. Dworkin iii. On Global Justice
D. Nozick iv. On equality
Codes:
A B C D
(a) i ii iii iv
(b) iii i iv ii
(c) ii iii i iv of Mao?
(d) iv i ii iii
9. Plato developed his theory of
the nature of the ultimate reality
explaining the actual world in
(a) The Republic
(b) The Politics
(c) The Laws
(d) The Timaeus
10. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): For Rawls the Right
is prior to good.
Reason (R): The loss of freedom for
some is made right by greater good
shared by others.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the right explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
11. Identify the correct sequence
in ascending order of Lenin’s
writings:
i. Left Wing Communism
ii. The State and Revolution
Solved Paper-III, June-2014
iii. The Proletarian Revolution and
the Renegade Kautsky
iv. T h e W a r a n d t h e S e c o n d
International
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) iv, ii, iii, i
(b) i, ii, iii, iv
(c) iii, iv, ii, i
(d) ii, iii, iv, i
12. Which one of the following is not
included in the well known sayings
(a) Weapons are an important factor
in war but not the decisive one.
(b) Politics is war without bloodshed.
(c) The party commands the gun and
the gun must never be allowed to
command the party.
(d) Let a hundred flowers blossom
and a hundred schools of thought
contend.
13. Which one of the following books
is not written by Tilak?
(a) The Orion
(b) Arctic Home in Vedas
(c) Gita Rahasya
(d) Life Divine
14. Marx’s theory of the state and
revolution is taken from
(a) German classical philosophy
(b) British political economy
(c) French revolutionary tradition
(d) American war of independence
15. Aristotle devoted himself to a
critical study of the ideal states
projected by
(a) Phaleas
(b) Hippodamus
(c) Plato
(d) All the above
Solved Paper-III, June-2014
16. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to Lucian
W. Pye political development is
characterized by equality, capacity
and differentiation.
Reason (R): A state should attempt
to strengthen these aspects.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
17. The process of socialization in
Traditional Society is
1. diffuse
2. particularistic
3. ascriptive
4. instrumental
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 4, 3, 1 (d) 1, 2, 4
18. Which one of the following is not a
kind of power mentioned by Alvin
Tofler in his book Powershift?
(a) Violence
(b) Social structure
(c) Wealth
(d) Knowledge
19. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(Schools of (Authors)
Modernization)
A. Structural School i. Daniel
Lerner
B. Normative School ii. G.A.
Almond
C. Technological iii. Mahatma
School Gandhi
D. Psychological iv. David
School Apter
Codes:
A B C D
(a) ii iii iv i
(b) ii i iii iv 25. In which of the following countries
(c) iii ii iv i the courts do not have the power of
(d) i iii ii iv
20. The Presidents and Vice-presidents
of the following countries can not
seek re-election for a third term.
1. The US President
2. The French President
3. Indian President
4. Indian Vice-President
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Which one is not the feature of the
Presidential form of government of
U.S.A.?
(a) Direct election of the President
(b) Fixed terms of offices for the
president and legislature
(c) F u s i o n o f p o w e r b e t w e e n
legislature and executive
(d) President serves as head of the
state
22. Which one among the following
countries, according to Almond
and Verba, came closest to their
conception of civic culture?
(a) U.S.A. (b) West Germany
(c) Mexico (d) Great Britain
23. “Efficiency Record” method
for determining the merit for
promotion is practised in
(a) The USA
(b) Switzerland
(c) The U.K.
(d) India
24. In which of the following countries
judges are elected by the people?
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
i. U.S.A. ii. Switzerland
iii. India iv. U.K.
85
Codes:
(a) i, ii (b) i, ii, iii
(c) ii, iii (d) ii, iii, iv
Judicial Review?
i. USA ii. UK
iii. France iv. India
Codes:
(a) iii (b) ii and iii
(c) i and iii (d) ii
26. Who among the following said
“Federalism is obsolescent, it is
essentially negative in its effect. It
is not suitable for positive action,
it is financially expensive due to
duplication of work.”?
(a) David Easton
(b) S.P. Huntington
(c) K.C. Wheare
(d) H.J. Laski
27. Who among the following has
argued that modernization could
be associated with a highly
differentiated political structure
and the diffusion of political power
and authority into all spheres of
society?
(a) Max Weber
(b) Talcott Parson
(c) S.N. Eisenstadt
(d) Walt W. Rostow
28. Consider the following statements
about a constitutional government.
A constitutional government is
1. a form of limited government
2. one where authority is derived
from the constitution
3. one where the constitution and the
laws limit the exercise of power
4. where the head of the state enjoys
nominal powers
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
29. Who among the following thinkers
gave the concept of “lions” and
“foxes”?
 86
(a) Robert Michaels
(b) C. Wright Mill
(c) Vilfred Pareto
(d) Burham
30. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Parliamentary form
of government is the most acceptable
system in the entire world today.
Reason (R): In the parliamentary
system, ministers get their democratic
legitimacy from the legislature and
are accountable to it.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
31. Which of the following is not
related to electoral reforms in
India?
(a) Santhanam Committee
(b) Tarkunde Committee
(c) Indrajeet Gupta Committee
(d) Dinesh Goswami Committee
32. Who of the following gave the idea
of a dominant caste?
(a) Rajni Kothari
(b) Paul R. Brass
(c) M.N. Srinivas
(d) Lloyd I. Rudolph
33. Which one of the following states
in India has instituted Ombudsman
For Local Governments until 2013?
(a) Bihar (b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka (d) Uttar Pradesh
34. Who is the author of “Factional
Politics in an Indian State”?
(a) Paul R. Brass
(b) Myron Weiner
(c) James Manor
(d) S.K. Mitra
Solved Paper-III, June-2014
35. Which one of the following pairs List–I List–II
are not correctly matched? (Deputy Prime (Government)
List-I List-II Ministers)
A. Morarji Desai i. Janata Party
(Political Parties) (Leaders)
B. Jagjivan Ram ii. Congress
(a) Telangana – Chandra Shekhar
C. Devilal iii. National
Rastriya Rao Democratic
Samiti Alliance
(b) Peoples – Mahbooba Mufti D. L.K. Advani iv. United
Democratic Front
Party Codes:
(c) Bhartiya – Kalyan Singh A B C D
Janata Party (a) i iii ii iv
(d) Shiromani – Navjot Singh (b) ii iv iii i
Akali Dal Siddhu (c) ii i iv iii
36. In which one of the following cases (d) iii ii i iv
the supreme court of India held 39. Who one of the following was not
that both Fundamental Rights and a member of states reorganization
Directive Principles of state policy commission, 1953?
are equally important and one (a) Fazl Ali
cannot be sacrificed for the other? (b) H.N. Kunzru
(a) S.R. Bommai v/s Union of India (c) V.P. Menon
(b) Balaji v/s State of Mysore (d) K.N. Panikkar
40. The governor of a state has the
(c) Minerva Mills v/s Union of India
power to dismiss a chief minister.
(d) A.K.Gopalan v/s State of Madras Which of the following pairs are
37. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
arranged in chronological order?   Governor Chief Minister
(a) Anandpur sahib resolution, Dismissed
Rajamannar committee report, (a) Dharma Vira – Ajoy
West Bengal government memo- Mukherjee
randum, Sarkaria commission (b) Gopal Reddy – Charan Singh
report. (c) Kumud Joshi – N.T. Rama
(b) Rajamannar committee report, Rao
West Bengal government (d) Romesh – Kalyan Singh
memorandum, Anandpur sahib Bhandari
resolution, Sarkaria commission 41. Who among the following talked
report. about the politics of scarcity in
India?
(c) Sarkaria Commission report,
(a) Paul R. Brass
West Bengal government
(b) Paul Wallace
memorandum, Anandpur sahib
(c) Myron Weiner
resolution, Rajamannar com-
(d) Morris Jones
mittee report.
42. In which case the Supreme Court
(d) Rajamannar committee report,
decided that the confidence of the
Anandpur sahib resolution, West house in the ministry should be
Bengal government memorandum, tested on the floor of the house
Sarkaria commission report. itself?
38. Match List–I with List–II and select (a) B.R. Kapoor v/s State of Tamil
the correct answer from the codes Nadu
given below: (b) S.R. Bommai v/s Union of India
Solved Paper-III, June-2014
(c) Jagdambika Pal v/s Union of India
(d) Shamsher Singh v/s State of
Punjab
43. Different parts of the constitution
will act and react on each other and
the (supreme) court will have to
decide questions arising from such
a situation...discharging its duties
as perhaps no other court has so
far been called upon to do. Whose
statement is this?
(a) Justice Patanjali Sastri
(b) Justice Harilal Kania
(c) Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
44. Which one among the following
authorities has the power to declare
a caste, race or tribe or part of
group within the caste as scheduled
castes in relation to a state or union
territory?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Parliament
(c) Judiciary
(d) President of India
45. Which one of the following is the
chief function of the inter-state
council?
(a) To settle inter-state river water
disputes
(b) To settle disputes relating to the
movement of good between states
(c) To debate on reforming centre
state relations
(d) To act as a forum for settling
inter-state boundary disputes
46. Which one among the following
is considered as the first coherent
theory of organization?
(a) The Human Relations Theory
(b) Scientific Management Theory
(c) The Systems Theory
(d) The Bureaucracy Theory
47. Which one of the following was
the first committee to demand
constitutional recognition for
Panchayats?
(a) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Santhanam Committee
(d) G.V.K. Rao Committee
48. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Central service
officers are not all India service
officers, but the nature of their job
and postings make them truly all
India in character.
Reason (R): Unlike officers of the
All-India services, central service
officer’s do not work under the state
governments while working in the
states.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
49. Which one of the following is not a
function of the UPSC?
(a) Advise the union government on
all matters relating to the method
of recruitment and principles to be
followed in making appointments
to civil service.
(b) Advise the government on the
suitability of candidates for
promotion.
(c) Advise the government on
disciplinary matters affecting
civil servants.
(d) Advise the government on all
matters relating to the transfer of
civil servants.
50. Name the country which was the
first to evolve a sound recruitment
system?
(a) Prussia (b) India
(c) China (d) USA
51. Which one among the following
is described as the ‘corner-stone’
of the whole public personnel
structure?
(a) Promotion
(b) Recruitment and selection
(c) Discipline
(d) Morale
87
52. The term ‘spoil system’ applies to:
(a) Guardian bureaucracy
(b) Caste bureaucracy
(c) Patronage bureaucracy
(d) Merit bureaucracy
53. Chronologically arrange the correct
sequence of the following landmarks
in the growth and emergence of
New Public Administration:
1. The minnowbrook conference
2. The honey report on higher
education for public service
3. The Philadelphia conference on
the theory & practices of public
administration
4. Publication of ‘Towards a new
public administration: The
Minnowbrook perspective’
Codes:
(a) 4, 3, 1, 2 (b) 2, 3, 1, 4
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
54. Who amongst the following
emphasized development admini-
stration as an approach?
1. Riggs 2. Fainsod
3. Heady 4. Weidner
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
55. Which of the following political
rights are not available to a civil
servant in India?
1. Expressing a political view
2. Supporting a political movement
3. Contributing financially to a
political party
4. Voting in state and national
elections
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
56. Which among the following is not
a principle of organization?
(a) Collective Responsibility
(b) Hierarchy
(c) Span of Control
(d) Integration
57. Who among the following has
divided the scope of public admini-
stration into administration theory
and applied theory?
 88 Solved Paper-III, June-2014
(a) H. Walker (c) The growth of supra-territorial List–I List–II
(b) Ferral Heady relations between people (UN conference (Issues)
(c) F.A. Nigro (d) All the above place)
(d) Nicholas Henry 63. Who said the following “In crucial A. Rio de i. Population
58. “Officials make work for each situations, however the ultimate Janeiro (1992)
other”. This is said by: concern of states is not for power B. Vienna (1993) ii. Women
(a) Peter Drucker but for security”? C. Cairo (1994) iii. Human
Rights
(b) Ramsay Muir (a) Thomas Schelling
D. Beijing (1995) iv. Environ-
(c) Parkinson (b) Kenneth Waltz
ment
(d) H. Finer (c) Barry Buzan
Codes:
59. The first country in the world to (d) John Mearshemier
introduce the right to information A B C D
64. Institutionalist approach of interna-
was: (a) i iv ii iii
tional political economy draws on
(a) Norway (b) USA (b) ii i iii iv
theories from
(c) Sweden (d) Finland (c) iii ii iv i
(a) Incentive structures
60. Which one among the following (d) iv iii i ii
(b) Delegation and agency
statements is false? 69. Bay of pigs is associated with which
(a) The first hour of every parliament (c) Historical factors
crisis during the cold war?
day is reserved for questions. (d) Sociological factors
(a) Cuban Missile
(b) Zero hour is a typical Indian 65. Who has proposed a three tiered
innovation in the field of parlia- conception of international (b) Hungary
mentary practice. law based on Moravsik’s new (c) Korea
(c) New public administration is an liberalism? (d) Suez Canal
uniquely American phenomenon. (a) M. Byers 70. Black widows are women terrorists.
(d) Judicial control over administrative (b) A.M. Slaughter To which country do they belongs?
acts stems from natural law. (a) Palestine (b) Chechenya
(c) Koskenniemi
61. Match List–I with List–II and select
(d) A. Guzman (c) Sri Lanka (d) Lebanon
the correct answer from the codes
given below: 66. Identify the correct sequence of the 71. Chronologically arrange the
List–I List–II process as recommended by the following treaties on environment
(Approaches- (Feminist seminal report, ‘An Agenda for in the correct ascending order
Feminism) thinkers) Peace’ (1992) i. UN Law of the Sea
A. Critical Theory i. Elisabeth i. Peace keeping ii. Kyoto Protocol
Prugl
ii. Preventive diplomacy iii. Antarctic Treaty
B. Social ii. Chandra
Constructivism Mohanty iii. Peace building iv. Cartogena protocol on Biosafety
C. Post iii. Sandra iv. Peace making Codes:
Structuralism Whiteworth Codes: (a) iii, i, ii, iv (b) ii, iv, i, iii
D. Post iv. Charlotte
(a) ii, iv, i, iii (b) i, ii, iii, iv (c) iv, ii, iii, i (d) i, iii, iv, ii
Colonialism Hooper
Codes: (c) iii, i, iv, ii (d) iv, iii, ii, i 72. Match List–I with List–II and select
A B C D 67. Who said that ‘the United States the correct answer from the codes
(a) iv iii ii i is not simply a superpower; it is a given below:
hyper power’? List–I List–II
(b) i ii iii iv
(a) Hubart Vedrine (Authors) (Books)
(c) ii iv i iii A. S.D. Muni i. Crossing the
(d) iii i iv ii (b) Robert Gates
Rubicon
62. Globalization signifies which of the (c) Richard Haas
B. C. Rajamohan ii. Anatomy
following: (d) Paul Kennedy of a flawed
(a) Time-space compression 68. Match List–I with List–II and select Inheritance/
(b) The integration of the world- the correct answer from the codes Indo Pak
economy given below: relations
Solved Paper-III, June-2014
C. Urmila Phadnis iii. Pangs of
proximity
D. J.N. Dixit iv. Ethnicity
and nation-
building in
South Asia
Codes:
A B C D
(a) iii i iv ii general assembly resolution 2832
(b) ii i iii iv have either been mitigated to an
(c) i ii iv iii extent, or redefined.
(d) iv iii ii i
73. India’s tryst with Asia was enun-
ciated in the vision of engagement
which was articulated by:
Answers with Explanations
1. (c) John Plamenatz defined Political
theory as ‘systematic thinking about the
purposes of government’. This is not
conceived as a descriptive exercise, qua
political science. It seeks to evaluate
rather than explain. However, this
conception of theory embodies a number
of sub-approaches. The main normative
foundational contenders are utilitarianism,
consequentialism, Aristotelianism
and deontology – with many subtle
overlappings and variations.
2. (c) The Philosophy of J.S. Mill Book
was written by Richard Paul Anschutz
in 1953. This book attempts to unravel
the tangled skein of Mill’s speculative
thinking by stressing the ideal of scientific
knowledge which he derived from the
study of Newton’s physics.
3. (c) Savitri was written by Aurobindo
Gosh in 1940. In Savitri, a legend from
the Mahabharata becomes the symbol
of the human soul’s spiritual destiny. In
poetic language, Sri Auro­bindo describes
his vision of existence and explores the
reason for ignorance, darkness, suffering
and pain, the purpose of life on earth
and the prospect of a glorious future
for humanity. The writing of the epic
extended over much of the later part of
his life.
4. (c) M.N. Roy said that “Once god
is let it, there is an end to the sovereignty
of man”. By this he mean to state
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
74. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The factors and forces
that constrained Nehru’s India from
playing its legitimate role in Asia
Reason (R): The end of the cold
war and expansion of the strategic
space for India to pursue its national
interests has widened.
that mixing of religion in leads to the
undermining of human rights.
5. (d) The statement ‘man is what he
eats’ was coined by Ludwig Feuerbach,
thus emphasizing the worldliness of
human nature as a challenge to the
general concentration on the life after
and the religious belief of his time.
6. (b) Locke’s concept of labor refers
to production, which is both an intellectual
and physical activity. His concept of value
refers to what serves the flourishing life of
a rational being, which is a conception of
the good that is more robust than merely
physical status or economic wealth.
7. (a) ‘Discourses on Livy’, by
Niccolo Machiavelli, is a collection of
Machiavelli’s thoughts on politics, war,
and affairs of state. His writings are
plain and straightforward commentaries
using the ancient Roman Empire as a
general backdrop on which to paint his
own philosophies.
8. (b)
Beitz – On Global Justice
Gautheir – Justice as Mutual
Advantage
Dworkin – On Equality
Nozick – Entitlement Theory
of Justice
9. (d) Timaeus is one of Plato’s
dialogues, mostly in the form of a long
monologue given by the title character
Timaeus of Locri, written c. 360 BC.
89
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
75. When did the United Nations
on the declaration of the Indian
Ocean as a zone of peace, adopt?
(a) 1970
(b) 1971
(c) 1972
(d) 1973
The work puts forward speculation on
the nature of the physical world and
human beings and is followed by the
dialogue Critias.
10. (b) Under Rawls theory of justice
he proposed two principle: Equality
principle and Difference principle. Both
the statement in question are in resonance
with those principle. But not dependent
on each other for explanation.
11. (a) The State and Revolution
was published in 1917. The Proletarian
Revolution and the Renegade Kautsky
was published in 1919. Left Wing
Communism was published in 1920. The
War and the Second International was
published in 1937.
12. (b) ‘Politics is war without blood
shed’ was not said by Mao.
13. (d) Life Divine is not written by
Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It was written by
Aurobindo Ghosh.
14. (c) Marx’s theory of the state
and revolution is derived from his Com-
munist Manifesto which is central to
French Revolutionary tradition.
15. (d) Aristotle tried to provide
a practical theory of State against the
Utopian and Ideal state theories presented
by Phaleas, Hippodamus and Plato.
Aristotle did a critical study of the work
by all the three philosopher and identified
the drawback in provided remedies.
 90
16. (b) Lucian Pye characterized
political development as the process of
creating equality, raising capability, and
recognising differentiation. He also claim
that a state should attempt to strengthen
these aspects.
17. (a) The process of socialization
in Traditional Society is of three type.
It can be diffused, particularistic as
well as ascriptive. Socialization is never
Instrumental in nature.
18. (b) The combination of know-
ledge, wealth and force or violence
is described by Toffler as providing
individuals or other entities power.
Knowledge is the most powerful form of
power, considering we are now living in
a knowledge-based civilization. Tofler
introduced this concept in his book
‘Powershift’.
19. (a)
Structural School – G.A. Almond
Normative School – Mahatma
Gandhi
Technological – David Apter
School
Psychological – Daniel Lerner
School
20. (a) The Twenty-second Amendment
to the United States Constitution was an
addition to the United States Constitution
that put a limit on how many times a
person could be elected to be President.
A person is limited to eight (and possibly
ten) years as president. Congress passed
the amendment on March 21, 1947. It
was ratified on February 27, 1951.
21. (c) Under USA’s Presidential
form of government the legislature and
executive have separate role. Power
among executive and legislature is
strictly divided.
22. (d) Gabriel Almond and Sidney
Verba published their classic work of
comparative politics. The Civic Culture:
Political Attitudes and Democracy in
Five Nations. 52 Using survey evidence,
they sought to identify the orientations
and behaviours associated with stable
and well-functioning democracies.
Among the five countries they studied,
it was Britain which came closest to
exemplifying what Almond and Verba
dubbed ‘the civic culture.’ Here, voters
had achieved a healthy mix of activism
and passivity, sustained by strong
representative institutions, a rich civil
society and the historic legacy of a
peaceful transition from absolutism to
democracy in the 19th century.
23. (a) Efficiency Record is used by
American government for the promotion
of official. The system consider merit on
the basis of efficiency of officials at their
work place.
24. (a) In Switzerland judges are
elected by the Federal Assembly for
6-year terms. In USA also, in some
states judges are elected by people.
25. (b) Judicial Review power
is available in USA and India. The
Judiciary of India and America can
question the validity of a law made by
Legislature. On the other hand UK and
France Judiciary didn’t have any kind of
Judicial review power.
26. (d) H.J. Laski said that federalism
is obsolescent, it is essentially negative
in its effect. It is not suitable for positive
action, it is financially expensive due to
duplication of work.
27. (c)
28. (a) Constitutional government is
defined by the existence of a constitution—
which may be a legal instrument or
merely a set of fixed norms or principles
generally accepted as the fundamental law
of the polity—that effectively controls the
exercise of political power. The essence of
constitutionalism is the control of power
by its distribution among several state
organs or offices in such a way that they
are each subjected to reciprocal controls
and forced to cooperate in formulating the
will of the state.
29. (c) Vilfredo Pareto identified two
types of elite rulers. The first, whom
he called the “foxes”, are those who
dominate mainly through combination:
deceit, cunning, manipulation and co-
optation. Their rule is characterised
by decentralisation, plurality and
scepticism, and they are uneasy with the
use of force. “Lions”, on the other hand,
are more conservative. They emphasise
unity, homogeneity, established ways,
the established faith, and rule through
small, centralised and hierarchical
bureaucracies, and they are far more
at ease with the use of force than the
Solved Paper-III, June-2014
devious foxes. History is the slow swing
of the pendulum from one type of elite to
the other, from foxes to lions and back
again.
30. (a) Yes, Its true that parliamentary
form of government is the most acceptable
system in the entire world today. In
parliamentary system, minister are
collectively accountable to legislature.
Both the statement are true and second
statement is right reason behind the
assertion statement.
31. (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri appointed
Santhanam in 1962 to preside over the
committee on anti-corruption. Because
of its thorough investigative work and
recommendations, the Committee earned
a reputation as Santhanam’s Committee
on Anti-Corruption. It is not a committee
for electoral reforms.
32. (c) M.N. Srinivas has been one of
the researchers in the field of Dominant
caste in any group. He defined it as a
particular caste economically, spiritually
and politically above any other castes.
For example in India, Brahmin caste is
considered as a dominant caste, thus it
is having a superior frame over other
castes.
33. (b) The objectives of Ombudsman
for Local Governments are to deal with
corruption and mal-administration in local
governments in Kerala. Ombudsman can
conduct investigation and or enquiry in
respect of any action involving corruption
or maladministration or irregularities in
the discharge of administrative functions
by Local Self Government Institutions.
The Institution started functioning in
the year 2000 as a 7 member body with
a Retd. Judge of the High Court as its
Chairman. The successor government
changed the constitution and made
it a single member body through an
amendment of the Panchayat Raj Act in
the year 2001.
34. (a) Factional Politics in an Indian
State: The Congress Party in Uttar
Pradesh book was written by Paul Brass
in 1965.
35. (d) Sukhbir Singh Badal is the
leader of Shiromani Akali Dal. Navjot
Singh Siddhu was initially the member of
BJP and latter he joined Congress party.
Solved Paper-III, June-2014
36. (c) In Minerva mills case the
Supreme Court settled the debate between
the fundamental rights and Directive
principle of State policy. The court said
that both of them are equally important
and one cannot be sacrificed for the other.
37. (d) The correct chronological
order is: Rajamannar committee report,
Anandpur sahib resolution, West Bengal
government memorandum, Sarkaria
commission report.
38. (c)
Morarji Desai – Congress
Jagjivan Ram – Janata Party
Devilal – United Front
L.K. Advani – National
Democratic
Alliance
39. (c) Prime Minister Jawaharlal
Nehru appointed the States Reorganisation
Commission in December 1953, with
the remit to reorganise the Indian states.
The new commission was headed by
the retired Chief Justice of the Supreme
Court, Fazal Ali; its other two members
were H. N. Kunzru and K. M. Panikkar.
V. P. Menon was not a member of the
commission.
40. (c) On 15 August 1984, NTR
was removed from office by the then
Governor of Andhra Pradesh Thakur
Ram Lal, while NTR was in the USA
to undergo open heart surgery. He is not
dismissed by Kumud Joshi.
41. (c) The book ‘Politics of Scarcity’
was written by Myron Weiner in 1962.
42. (b) In S.R. Bommai case the
supreme court ruled that the confidence
of the house in the ministry should be
tested on the floor of house itself and
not otherwise by governor by his own
discretion.
43. (b) Hari Lal Kania was the first
Chief Justice of Independent India.
He claimed that different provision of
constitution will entangle with each other
and supreme court will be responsible
to solve all the issue arising due to that
conflict.
44. (d) According to the Constitution
of India, under Article 341(1), the
President of India, after consultation
with the Governor, may specify, “the
castes, races, tribes or parts of groups
within castes or races, which shall be
deemed to be Scheduled Castes”.
45. (c) Article 263 of the Constitution
of India provides for the establishment of
an Inter-State Council. The text of the
Article reads as under: “263. Provisions
with respect to an inter-State Council – If
at any time it appears to the President that
the public interests would be served by
the establishment of a Council charged
with the duty of – (a) inquiring into and
advising upon disputes which may have
arisen between States; (b) investigating
and discussing subjects in which some or
all of the States, or the Union and one
or more of the States, have a common
interest; or (c) making recommendations
upon any such subject and, in particular,
recommendations for the better co-
ordination of policy and action with
respect to that subject, it shall be lawful
for the President by order to establish
such a Council, and to define the nature
of the duties to be performed by it and its
organization and procedure.”
46. (b) Scientific management involves
the application of a scientific approach to
managerial decision-making (consisting
of collection of data, an analysis of data
and basing decisions on the outcome of
such analyses); and discarding at the
same time, all unscientific approaches,
like – rule of the thumb, a hit or miss
approach and a trial and error approach.
47. (b) In December 1977, the Janta
Government appointed a committee
on Panchayati Raj institutions under
the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta. It
submitted its report in August 1978
and made 132 recommendations to
revive and strengthen the declining
Panchayati Raj System in the country.
This committee was the first to demand
constitutionalization of Panchayati Raj
system in India.
48. (b) There are only three All India
Services namely Indian Administrative
Service [IAS], Indian Police Service
[IPS] and Indian Forest Service [IFS].
The officers of these services are allotted
a state [called as cadre state] and have
to work in that state government only
till retirement. However, they can also
work for Government of India at its
Central Secretariat in New Delhi while on
91
deputation for some years. On the other
hand, there are too many Central Civil
Services namely Indian Revenue Service,
Indian Information Service, Indian
Customs & Central Excise Service, Indian
Postal Service, Indian Audit & Accounts
Service, Indian Defence Estates Service,
Indian Defence Accounts Service, Indian
Civil Accounts Service, Indian Railway
Traffic Service, Indian Railway Accounts
Service, Indian Railway Personnel
Service, Indian Trade Service, etc.
49. (d) UPSC is not responsible for
the matter related to the transfer of
civil servant. This function is dealt by
department of personnel.
50. (c) China have evolved a Sound
recruitment system for the recruitment of
government officials.
51. (b) Recruitment and selection is
considered as the one of the main piller
of Public Personnel structure.
52. (c) In politics and government, a
spoils system (also known as a patronage
system) is a practice in which a political
party, after winning an election, gives
government civil service jobs to its
supporters, friends, and relatives as a
reward for working toward victory, and as
an incentive to keep working for the party.
53. (b) The chronological sequence
of the events related to new public
administration is: The honey report
on higher education for public service
then, The Philadelphia conference on
the theory & practices of public admini-
stration followed by The minnow-
brook conference and at last comes the
publication of ‘Towards a new public
administration: The Minnowbrook
perspective’.
54. (d) Development Administration
is an instrumental means for defining,
consolidating, and implementing national
goals in developing countries. The
concept of development administration
emerged shortly after the Second World
War. It was propagated by Riggs,
Fainsod, Heady, and Weidner.
55. (c) The public servant in India have
to maintain Political neutrality. They
can’t commit any act that has political
implication. They need to maintain
 92
themselves as politically impartial. They
can vote in election and nothing more
then that.
56. (a) Collective responsibility is
a principle of Parliamentry form of
government under which all the minister
of government are collectively responsible
to the Lok Sabha or House of peoples. It
is not a Administrative Principle.
57. (a) H. Walker has divided public
administration into multiple scope. He
distinguished between Public admini-
stration and administration theory based
on their functioning and application in
organization.
58. (c) Parkinson derives his law from
“two almost axiomatic statements”: An
official wants to multiply subordinates,
not rivals. Officials make work for
each other. Nowadays Parkinson’s Law
is usually condensed to saying work
expands to the time allowed. It is applied
to individuals as well as a burgeoning
bureaucracies.
59. (c) Sweden’s Freedom of the Press
Act 1766 (Act) is widely considered the
oldest piece of freedom of information
legislation in the world. The initial
purpose of the Act was to abolish the
political censorship of public documents
and to ensure the right for everyone to
publish written documents.
60. (d) Judicial control over the
administrative act raise from the
constitutional right to safeguard the right
of citizen. The judiciary is responsible
to challenge any kind of unconstitutional
measures taken by administration or
executive.
61. (d)
Critical Theory – Sandra
Whiteworth
Social Constru- – Elisabeth Prugl
ctivism
Post Structuralism – Charlotte
Hooper
Post Colonialism – Chandra
Mohanty
62. (d) Globalization leads to the
compression of time-space and leads to
integration of economy. Globalisation
also build up supranational relation
among people.
63. (b) In crucial situations, however,
the ultimate concern of states is not for
power but for security”. Kenneth Waltz
argues that power is risky if one has too
little or too much.
64. (b) Institutionalist approach of
international political economy draws on
theories from the concept of Delegation
and agency.
65. (b) Andrew Moravsik, Anne-
Marie Slaughter, and Duncan Snidal
... led to a widespread disregard of the
importance of international law. A.M.
Slaughter’s writing builds on a few
distinct ideas: International law should
be based on developments in IR, i.e.,
on liberal IR, where the individual is the
fundamental actor.
66. (a) An Agenda for Peace:
Preventive diplomacy, peacemaking
and peace-keeping, and Peace Building
more commonly known simply as An
Agenda for Peace, is a report written for
the United Nations by Secretary-General
Boutros Boutros-Ghali in 1992.
67. (a) French foreign minister Hubert
Védrine popularized the term in 1998,
because from France’s position, the
United States looked like a hyperpower,
although the validity of classifying the
United States in this way was disputed.
68. (d)
Rio De Janeiro – Environment
(1992) behind the assertion statement.
Vienna (1993) – Human Rights
Cairo (1994) – Population
Beijing (1995) – Women
69. (a) On April 17, 1961, 1,400
Cuban exiles launched what became a
botched invasion at the Bay of Pigs on
the south coast of Cuba. In 1959, Fidel
Castro came to power in an armed revolt
that overthrew Cuban dictator Fulgencio
Batista.
Solved Paper-III, June-2014
70. (b) Black Widow or shahidka, is a
term for Islamist Chechen female suicide
bombers, willing to be a manifestation
of violent jihad. They became known
at the Moscow theater hostage crisis of
October 2002.
71. (a)
Antarctic Treaty – 1959
UN Law of the Sea – 1982
Kyoto Protocol – 1997
Cartogena Protocol – 2000
on Biosafety
72. (a)
S.D. Muni – Pangs of
Proximity
C. Rajamohan – Crossing the
Rubicon
Urmila Phadnis – Ethnicity and
nation-building in
South Asia
J.N. Dixit – Anatomy of a
flawed
Inheritance/Indo
Pak relations
73. (d) Tryst with Destiny was a
speech made by Jawaharlal Nehru, the
first Prime Minister of independent
India. The speech was made to the Indian
Constituent Assembly, on the eve of
India’s independence, towards midnight
on 14 August 1947. It focuses on the
aspects that transcend India’s history.
74. (a) Both the statement are true
and second statement is a correct reason
75. (b) In 1971 by 2832 UNGA
resolution the Indian Ocean was declared
as the Zone of Peace. It called upon the
great Powers to enter into immediate
consultations with the littoral States of
the Indian Ocean with a view to halting
the further escalation and expansion
of their military presence in the Indian
Ocean.
qqq
Solved Paper-II, December-2014
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, December-2014
1. Who among the following defined
civil power as “the right of making
laws with penalties ... for the
regulating and preserving of
property, and of employing the
force of the community, in the
execution of such laws ... all this
only for the public good.”?
(a) Rousseau (b) Karl Marx
(c) John Locke (d) J.S. Mill
2. Who of the following said that, “the
emancipation of the working class
is the work of the working class
itself”?
(a) Mao Tse Tung (b) V.I. Lenin
(c) Engels (d) Karl Marx
3. Who of the following gave the
slogan “Turn the imperialist war
into a civil war, that is, into a
proletarian revolution.”?
(a) Kautsky (b) Trotsky
(c) Engels (d) Lenin
4. Which of the following is not a
feature of liberal communitarian
debate?
(a) Conception of self: ‘encumbered’
vs. ‘unencumbered’
(b) ‘Universalism’ vs. ‘Particularism’
(c) ‘State neutrality’ vs. ‘non-
neutrality of State’
(d) Totalitarianism: ‘procedural’ vs.
‘communitarian’
5. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): For Plato great
diversity of wealth was inconsistent
with good government.
Reason (R): He saw no way to
abolish the evil except by abolishing
wealth itself, so far as soldiers and
rulers are concerned.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
6. Identify the correct sequence of the
books written on Mahatma Gandhi
on ascending order:
i. Richard – In Search
Attenborough of Gandhi
ii. C.F. Andrews – Mahatma
Gandhi’s
Ideas
iii. B. Bhatta- – Evolution of
charya the Political
Philosophy
of Mahatma
Gandhi
iv. J.B. Kripalani – Gandhian
Thought
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) ii, iv, iii, i
(b) i, ii, iii, iv
(c) iii, i, iv, ii
(d) iv, iii, i, ii
7. St. Augustine’s De Civitate Dei is
divided into
(a) 19 books (b) 20 books
(c) 21 books (d) 22 books
8. Which of the following is not a
reason for the decline of political
theory of David Easton?
(a) Historicism
(b) Moral Relativism
(c) Ideological Reductionism
(d) Hyperfactualism
93
9. Which of the following is not a
feature of Jayaprakash Narayan’s
partyless democracy?
(a) Dispersal of political power
(b) Constant watch of the represen-
tatives by the electing bodies
(c) Maximum propaganda
(d) Comparatively less expensive
elections
10. Who of the following advocated
economic theory of democracy?
(a) J. Lively
(b) C.B. Macpherson
(c) Anthony Downs
(d) D. Held
11. C o m p a r a t i v e p o l i t i c s a s a n
autonomous discipline emerged
(a) in the 1970s (b) in the 1960s
(c) in the 1950s (d) in the 1930s
12. Which of the following are the
characteristics of a system, accor-
ding to Almond?
1. Comprehensiveness
2. Inter-dependence
3. Existence of boundaries
4. Availability of resources
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Who among the following has used
the concepts of goal changing,
feedback and learning?
(a) David Easton
(b) Karl Deutsch
(c) Gabriel Almond
(d) Lucian Pye
14. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
 94
List–I  List–II
A. Positive feedback i. Edward
Shils
B. The development ii. Karl
of underdevelopment Deutsch
C. Modernising iii. Ortega
Oligarchy Gasset
D. Nation – an iv. Andre
organised human Gunder
mass Frank
Codes:
A B C D
(a) ii iv i iii (c) Rajni Kothari
(b) i iv iii ii started to show solidarity with the
(c) i ii iii iv Sultan of
(d) ii iv iii i
15. The cultural thrust in comparative
politics became prominent during
(a) the 1950s (b) the 1960s
(c) the early 1970s (d) the late 1970s
16. Riots and demonstrations are the
examples of
(a) Institutional interest groups
(b) Associational interest groups
(c) Non-associational interest groups
(d) Anomic interest groups
17. Who among the following has
defined legitimacy as “conviction
on the part of the member that it
is right and proper to accept and
obey the authorities”?
(a) David Easton
(b) Seymour Lipset
(c) Mark Suchman
(d) Karl Friedrich
18. Who among the following has
classified dependency into ‘Colonial
dependency’, ‘Financial-industrial
dependency’ and ‘Technological-
industrial dependency’?
(a) Andre Gunder Frank
(b) Dos Santos
(c) Maurice Wallerstein
(d) Samir Amin
19. Who said, “Revolutions are the
festivals of the oppressed and the
exploited”?
(a) Karl Marx (b) Lenin
(c) Mao (d) Skocpol
20. Which of the following are the
characteristics of Weber’s bureau-
cracy?
1. Selection on the basis of profe-
ssional qualifications
2. Appointment on contract basis
3. Staff members personally free
4. Officials free to leave the post
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
21. Khilafat Movement in India was
(a) Saudi Arabia (b) Turkey
(c) Iran (d) Iraq
22. Which one of the following writs is
issued against an inferior tribunal
which has declined to exercise its
jurisdiction?
(a) Certiorari (b) Prohibition
(c) Quo Warranto (d) Mandamus
23. Who was the protem speaker of the
16th Lok Sabha?
(a) Sumitra Mahajan
(b) Meira Kumar
(c) Kamal Nath
(d) L.K. Advani
24. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
 (Authors) (Books)
A. S. Khilnani i. India After
Gandhi: The
History of the
World’s
Largest
Democracy
B. Rajni Kothari ii. The Idea of
India
C. R. Guha iii. The State
Against
Democracy:
In Search of
Human
Governance
D. Atul Kohli iv. The Success
of India’s
Democracy
Solved Paper-II, December-2014
Codes:
A B C D
(a) ii iii i iv
(b) i iv iii ii
(c) iii iv ii i
(d) iv ii i iii
25. Who of the following is associated
with the concept “Congress
System”?
(a) Morris Jones
(b) Paul R. Brass
(d) Subrata K. Mitra
26. In India, ‘Collegium System’ was
first introduced in relation to
(a) Executive
(b) Legislature
(c) Judiciary
(d) Union-State Relations
27. Which one of the following does not
qualify for curtailing the freedom
of speech and expression under
Indian Constitution?
(a) Security of the state
(b) Public order, decency, morality
(c) Demand for autonomy
(d) Contempt of Court
28. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The transformation
of the party system in India has
centralized power at tier two of the
government, namely at the State
level.
Reason (R): Regional parties have
less willingness to decentralize
power.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Solved Paper-II, December-2014
29. Which one of the following,
bearing names of Chief Election
Commissioners of India, is
arranged in chronological order?
(a) S.P. Sen Verma, Sukumar Sen,
J.M. Lyngdoh, T.N. Seshan
(b) Sukumar Sen, S.P. Sen Verma,
T.N. Seshan, J.M. Lyngdoh
(c) S.P. Sen Verma, T.N. Seshan,
Sukumar Sen, J.M. Lyngdoh
(d) Sukumar Sen, T.N. Seshan, S.P.
Sen Verma, J.M. Lyngdoh
30. Which of the following kinds of
special provisions are made for the
Scheduled Tribes in India?
1. Reservation of seats in Lok Sabha
and State Legislative Assemblies.
2. Central Government to give
special grants for welfare.
3. Reservation of seats in public
services and in employment.
4. Reservation of seats in educational
institutions.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. Which one of the following state-
ments about the disadvantages
of territorial principle of admini-
strative organization is wrong?
(a) Not suitable for large areas
(b) Uniformity of administration
becomes difficult
(c) Encourages localism
(d) Dominated by regional interests
32. Which one of the following was not
a substitute of Merit System found
earlier?
(a) Exchange System
(b) Spoils System
(c) Sale of Offices
(d) Patronage System
33. What is the bill called that contains
all the demands voted by the Lok
Sabha and the consolidated fund
charges?
(a) The Appropriation Bill
(b) Voting of Demands Bill
(c) Fiscal Policy Bill
(d) The Finance Bill
34. Money received by the government
of India under the State Provident
Fund is credited to
(a) Consolidated Fund
(b) Treasury
(c) Public Account
(d) Contingency Fund
35. Arrange the following in correct
chronological order of the hierarchy
of human needs given by Maslow:
(a) Security – Social – Self-esteem –
Biological – Self-actualization
(b) Self-esteem – Social – Biological
– Self-actualization – Security
(c) Self-actualization – Self-esteem –
Social – Security – Biological
(d) Biological – Security – Social –
Self-esteem – Self-actualization
36. In UK, merit-based recruitment was
adopted on the recommendation of
which report?
(a) Fulton Committee Report
(b) Northcote – Trevelyan Report
(c) Redcliff – Maud Commission
Report
(d) Tomlin Commission Report
37. Which one of the following was
not included in the minimum
criteria for ensuring good national
governance by Nayef Al-Rodhan in
his book ‘Sustainable History and
Dignity of Man’?
(a) Equity and Inclusiveness
(b) Rule of Law
(c) A system of checks and balances
(d) Transparency
38. Regarding the liability of holders of
public office, when an official fails
to perform a legal duty, it is known
as
(a) Malfeasance (b) Nonfeasance
(c) Disfeasance (d) Misfeasance
95
39. Ombudsman in Sweden can take
the following actions:
1. Can act against the judiciary
2. Can act on individual complaints
3. Can act against members of
Parliament
4. Can act suo moto
Choose the correct answer from the
code below:
Codes:
(a) 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 2, 4
40. Match List–I with List–II and
choose the correct answer with the
help of the code given below:
List–I List–II
(Committees/ (Year of
Commissions) appointment)
A. Ashok Mehta i. 1953–54
Committee
B. The Taxation ii. 1949–51
Enquiry Committee
C. The Local Finance iii. 1978
Enquiry Committee
D. G.V.K. Rao iv. 1985
Committee
Codes:
A B C D
(a) iii ii iv i
(b) ii i iii iv
(c) iii i ii iv
(d) iv iii i ii
41. Game theory owes a heavy debt to
the seminal work entitled, “The
Theory of Games and Economic
Behaviour”. It has been written by
(a) Mortan Kaplan
(b) John von Neumann and Oskar
Morgenstern
(c) Karl Deutsch
(d) Michael Hass
42. Who among the following has
remarked that, power in a political
context means “the power of man
over the minds and actions of other
men”?
(a) George Schwarzenberger
(b) Herman Heller
(c) Hans Morgenthau
(d) Bertrand Russell
 96
43. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(Treaties/Proposals) (Year)
A. SALT II (Strategic i. 1987
Arms Limitation
Talks)
B. PTBT (Partial Test ii. 1979
Ban Treaty)
C. Atom for Peace iii. 1963
Proposal
D. INF Treaty iv. 1953
(Intermediate
Nuclear Force
Treaty)
Codes:
A B C D
(a) i ii iii iv
(b) ii iii iv i
(c) iv ii i iii
(d) iii ii i iv
44. Which one of the following factors
contributed to the emergence of
‘New Detente’ after Cold War?
(a) Pressure by the Non-aligned
Movement
(b) The signing of INF Treaty by
Reagan and Gorbachev.
(c) Emergence of Namibia as a free
African Nation
(d) Deployment of RDF (Rapid
Deployment Force) in Persian
Gulf
Answers with Explanations
1. (c) In John Locke’s book ‘Two
Treaties on civil Government’ he explained
the concept of civil power. According to
him civil power is “a right of making laws,
with penalties of death, and consequently
all less penalties for the regulating and
preserving of property and of employing
the force of the community in the execution
of such laws, and in the defence of the
commonwealth from foreign injury, and all
this only for the public good.” Government
is thus a trust, forfeited by a ruler who fails
to secure the public good.
2. (d) In 1879 in a private letter to
Engels, Karl Marx wrote that “At
45. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): India chose Non-
alignment as a foreign policy choice
in the post independence period.
Reason (R): NAM was an assertion
of independence, equality and
sovereignty.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
46. The demand for New International
Economic Order was first made at
(a) Tehran Summit
(b) Durban Summit
(c) Kuala Lumpur Summit
(d) Algiers Summit
47. Which one of the following is not
correct about Association of South
East Asian Nations (ASEAN)?
(a) First India ASEAN Summit was
held in November, 2002.
(b) ASEAN declared South East
Asian Nuclear Weapon free zone
in 1995.
the founding of the International, we
expressly formulated the battle cry: The
emancipation of the working class must
be the work of the working class itself.”
3. (d) In 1915 Lenin wrote a
socialist appeal and asked the people
of imperialised countries to “turn the
imperialist war into a civil war, that is,
into a proletarian revolution.
4. (d) The liberal-communitarian
debate, which took its present form in
the early 1980s, can be traced back to
the beginning of the modern age, when
liberalism emerged as a political and
philosophical movement. John Locke
Solved Paper-II, December-2014
(c) ASEAN is working to remove
trade barriers and develop econo-
mic relationship with China,
Japan and South Korea.
(d) India became full dialogue partner
of ASEAN in 1991.
48. Who among the following used the
phrase – The United Nations is
‘sharing in the name of solidarity’ for
underlining the necessity of the U.N.?
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) Dag Hammarskjold
(c) Trygve Lie
(d) Woodrow Wilson
49. Which one of the following is
not a feature of ‘Shopkeeper
diplomacy’?
(a) It is based on peaceful approach.
(b) It is a means of diplomacy
for maintaining peace through
compromise.
(c) It is based on the sound business
principles of moderation.
(d) It tries to safeguard national
interest through war only.
50. Positive peace implies
(a) a ceasefire
(b) stopping the formation of death
squads
(c) transformation of relationship
(d) social construction of war
in 17th-century England and Immanuel
Kant in 18th-century. Totalitarianism:
Procedural vs. Communitarian concept
were not part of this debate.
5. (a) Yes, Its true Plato believed that
diversity of wealth will create disturbance
in achieving good government. The
reason he saw that there is no way to
abolish the evil expert by abolishing
wealth itself.
6. (a) C.F. Andrews wrote ‘Mahatma
Gandhi’s Ideas’ in 1931. J.B. Kripalani
wrote ‘Gandhian Thought’ in 1964.
B. Bhattacharya wrote ‘Evolution of the
Political Philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi
Solved Paper-II, December-2014
in 1972. Richard Attenborough Wrote
‘In Search of Gandhi’ in 1982.
7. (d) The greatness of the ‘De
Civitate Dei’ is not in dispute. No student
of the fifth century can afford to overlook
it. No one can understand the Middle
Ages without taking it into account. It is
divided into 22 books.
8. (c) According to David Easton the
reason behind the decline of political
theory are insertion of historicism, moral
relativism and hyperfactualism in Political
theory. Ideological Reductionism is not a
reason behind it, it is the consequence of
decline of political theory.
9. (c) Partyless democracy is a
democracy devoid of political parties
and the traditional parliamentary and
presidential forms of government
popular across the world. The idea was
first ushered by M.N. Roy, furthered
by Mahatma Gandhi and put to action
and solidified by Jayaprakash Narayan,
by the infamous JP movement in Bihar.
JP movement was started by JP against
corruption and misrule. Maximum
Propaganda was not a feature of Partyless
democracy.
10. (c) An Economic Theory of
Democracy is a treatise of economics
written by Anthony Downs, published
in 1957. Downs’ theory abstains from
making normative statements about
public policy choices and instead focuses
on what is rational, given the relevant
incentives, for government to do.
11. (c) Comparative politics emerged
as a distinct field of political science in
the United States in the late 1950s and
the subsequent evolution of the field was
driven largely by research associated
with US universities.
12. (d) Almond in his structural
functional approach described various
elements of a political system that is
common in almost each and every
political system. These elements are
Comprehensiveness of the system, Inter-
dependence, Existence of boundaries,
Input, Output, Feedback loop, Environ-
ment. Availability of Resources is not a
feature of system model.
13. (b) Karl Deutsch applied cyberne-
tics to political system and his analysis
abandoned the traditional power theory
and other concepts. People’s behaviour,
activities of the political system and many
others are controlled by the communication
of information and news which pass
through the channels. The concepts of goal
changing, feedback and learning is part of
communication theory of Karl Deutsch.
14. (a)
Positive Feedback – Karl Deutsch
The Development of – A.G. Frank
Underdevelopment
Modernising – Edward Shils
Oligarchy
Nation - An – Ortega
Organised
Human Mass Gasset
15. (b) The behavioural movement in
Comparative Politics led to the inclusion
of cultural trust in study of comparative
politics. It started in 1960s.
16. (d) Almond under interest
articulation classified Social movements.
He classified the spontaneous groups
with a collective response to a particular
frustration, who recure to violence and
cause riot and demonstration as Anomic
groups.
17. (a) David Easton in a journal ‘A
Re-Assessment of the Concept of Political
Support’ published in 1975 defined
legitimacy as “conviction on the part of
the member that it is right and proper to
accept and obey the authorities.”
18. (b) Das Santos under his
theory of Dependency classified
dependency into ‘Colonial dependency’,
‘Financial-industrial dependency’, and
‘Technological-industrial dependency’.
19. (b) Lenin under article ‘Two-
Tactics of Social Democracy’ wrote
that “Revolution are the festivals of the
oppressed and the exploited”.
20. (d) Max Weber argued that the
bureaucratic organizational form is
characterized by six features:
97
1) Specialization and Division of
Labor;
2) Hierarchical Authority Struc-
tures;
3) Rules and Regulations;
4) Technical Competence Guide-
lines;
5) Impersonality and Personal Indif-
ference;
6) A Standard of Formal, Written.
21. (b) The Khilafat Movement
(1919–1924) was a major pan-Islamic
movement started to save the Ottoman
Empire and it extended to India against
the British power. During the World
War-I, Turkey helped Germany to war
against British. Muslim leaders started
the Khilafat movement to protest the
allied act and to save the Ottoman.
22. (d) A mandamus writ is an order
from a court to an inferior government
official ordering the government official
to properly fulfill their official duties or
correct an abuse of discretion.
23. (c) The protem Speaker Kamal
Nath was administered oath on 4 June
2014 & presided over the election of
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Sumitra
Mahajan was elected as its Speaker on
6 June 2014 and would remain in office
until the day before the first sitting of the
17th Lok Sabha.
24. (a)
S. Khilnani – The Idea of India
Rajni Kothari – The State Against
Democracy: In
Search of Human
Governance
R. Guha – India After
Gandhi: The
History of the
World’s Largest
Democracy
Atul Kholi – The Success of
India’s Democracy
 98
25. (c) Rajni Kothari in 1971 gave the
concept of Congress system. She defined
the one party dominance of congress in
India as Congress system.
26. (c) The Collegium System is
a system under which appointments/
elevation of judges/lawyers to Supreme
Court and transfers of judges of High
Courts and Apex Court are decided by
a forum of the Chief Justice of India
and the four senior-most judges of the
Supreme Court.’
27. (c) Demand for autonomy is a
democratic right and not qualify for
curtailing the freedom of speech and
expression under Indian Constitution.
28. (c) Yes, Its true that the transfor-
mation of the party system in India has
centralized power at tier two of the
government, namely at the state level.
But its not right to say that regional parties
have less willingness to decentralized
power.
29. (b) The correct chronological
order of Chief election Commissioners of
India is: Sukumar Sen, S.P. Sen Verma,
T.N. Seshan, J.M. Lyngdoh.
30. (d) Article 46 of the Constitution
provides that the State shall promote
with special care the educational and
economic interests of the weaker sections
of the society and in particular, of the
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
and shall protect them from social
injustice and all forms of exploitation.
31. (a) In large countries having
vast stretch of land and difficult
communication, the territorial principle
can be adopted for domestic administrative
organisation. It leads to better
coordination and more effective control
over the services provided within the
geographical area.
32. (a) In Exchange system the jobs
are exchanged of officials. It is not a
substitute for merit system.
33. (a) Appropriation is the process of
setting aside the money for a particular
purpose or expenditure. As per Article
114 of the Constitution of India, no amount
can be withdrawn from the consolidated
fund of India without authorisation from
the Parliament of India or legislature
of the states. The Appropriation Bill is
passed by the Parliament/state legislature
and then it is presented to the President
/Governor after budgetary estimates are
approved every year. It becomes an act
after the assent by the President/Governor
to the bill.
34. (c) The Public Account of India
was constituted by Article 266(2) of
the Indian Constitution. It deals with
the money received by the government,
i.e. state provident funds, various pre-
deposits under income tax, depreciation
and reserve funds of departmental
undertakings are paid into public
accounts.
35. (d) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
is a motivational theory in psychology
comprising a five-tier model of human
needs, often depicted as hierarchical
levels within a pyramid. From the bottom
of the hierarchy upwards, the needs are:
physiological, safety, love and belonging,
esteem, and self-actualization.
36. (b) Northcote and Trevelyan’s
report was published in February 1854 and
recommended a system of examination
ahead of entry and promotion.
37. (c) Sustainable History and the
Dignity of Man is a new philosophy
of history. This volume outlines how
sustainable history is propelled by
good governance, which balances the
tension between the attributes. In this
book Nayef Al-Rodhan mentioned some
minimum criteria for ensuring good
national governance. The criteria are
Equity and Inclusiveness, Rule of Law
and Transparency. A system of check
and balance is not considered by him as
minimum criteria.
38. (b) Nonfeasance is a legal concept
that refers to the willful failure to execute
or perform an act or duty required by
Solved Paper-II, December-2014
one’s position, office, or law, whereby
that neglect results in harm or damage
to a person or property. The perpetrator
can be found liable and subject to
prosecution.
39. (b) The powers of the Parlia-
mentary Ombudsman are to supervise
the observance of laws by judges,
government officials and other civil
servants employees and to advise or
prosecute officials who have acted
illegally or have neglected their duties.
He is not empowered to against the
member of Parliament.
40. (c)
Ashok Mehta Committee – 1978
The Taxation Enquiry – 1953–54
Committee
The Local Finance – 1949–51
Enquiry Committee
G.V.K. Rao Committee – 1985
41. (b) Theory of Games and
Economic Behaviour book was written
by John von Neumann and Oskar
Morgenstern in 1944. It is considered
the groundbreaking text that created the
interdisciplinary research field of game
theory.
42. (c) Morgenthau said “When we
speak of power, we mean man’s control
over the minds and actions of other men.
It gives the former control over certain
actions of the latter through the influence
which the former exert over the latter’s
minds.
43. (b) SALT II – 1979
PTBT – 1963
Atom for Peace – 1953
INF Treaty – 1987
44. (b) Intermediate range Nuclear
force agreement between USA and
USSR in 1979 created a New Detente.
It reduced the chances of fight and
aggression among cold war rival.
45. (a) India adopted Non-alignment
as its foreign policy after independence
to remain away from the cold war
politics. The Non-Alignment Movement
was started with the objective of
Independence. Equality and Sovereignty.
Solved Paper-II, December-2014
46. (d) The demand for a New Interna-
tional Economic order for the upliftment
of least developed countries was initiated
in Algeria summit. The objective of
NIEO was to make poor countries viable
in new age of Globalisation.
47. (d) India became an Asean
Sectoral Dialogue Partner in 1992, a full
Asean Dialogue Partner in 1995, and
participated in the East Asia Summits
(EAS) from 2005.
48. (b) Dag Hammarskjold defined
Unite Nation as the “Sharing in the name
of solidarity’. By this statement he tried
to elaborate the utility of United Nation.
49. (d) The shopkeeper diplomacy
is characterized as practical, open-
minded, candid and compromising. This
characterization was put forth by some
99
scholars and who either observed or
participated in North-Korea United states
negotiations and in the inter-Korean
summit.
50. (c) The elements of Positive
Peace are cohesive because they target
key elements of society: attitudes, insti-
tutions, and structures. For example,
high levels of human capital will likely
result in a sound business environment.
qqq
 100
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-III, December-2014
1. Who among the following said that
“Political theory is, quite simply,
man’s attempt to consciously
understand and solve the problems
of his group life and organization”?
(a) Ernest Barker
(b) G.H. Sabine
(c) Leo Strauss
(d) David Easton
2. Who of the following lamented the
‘death’ of political philosophy?
(a) Robert Dahl
(b) Peter Laslett
(c) Peter Winch
(d) David Easton
3. Which one of the following ans-
wers is incorrect regarding neo-
liberalism?
(a) Neo-liberal vision largely evolved
during the governments of Ronald
Reagan and Margaret Thatcher.
(b) It attacked the Keynesian notion of
the international economic order.
(c) It emerged as a total negation of
Laissez-faire economics.
(d) Its emphasis is on free markets
and liberal reforms.
4. Which one of the following answers
is correct regarding Post-Marxism?
(a) The working class has not evolved
into a revolutionary movement.
(b) Economic class interests are
relatively autonomous from
ideology and politics.
(c) The working class holds no basic
position within socialism.
(d) All the above
5. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
 List–I List–II
(Authors)  (Dominant
Concept)
A. Thomas i. Distributive
Pogge Justice
B. Michael ii. Communitarian
Walzer Perspective of
Justice
C. Susan Moller iii. Feminist
Okin Conception of
Justice
D. John Rawls iv. Global Justice
Codes:
A B C D over his subjects is quite different
(a) i ii iii iv from that of a master over his slaves.
(b) iv ii iii i
(c) ii iii i iv inferior from birth and incapable of
(d) i ii iv iii ruling himself.
6. Which one of the following state-
ments is incorrect regarding
political ideology?
(a) It is a belief system which helps
to structure how the world is
understood and explained.
(b) It is a set of ideas which provides
the basis for some kind of political
action.
10. Match List–I with List–II and select
(c) It is an action-oriented belief
system.
(d) Political ideology is not the same
thing as political theory.
7. Who of the following said “Lenin’s
party was designed to be an elite,
a minority chosen for intellectual
and moral superiority, the most
advanced part of the working class
and so its vanguard”.?
(a) C.B. MacPherson
(b) D. McLellan
(c) G.H. Sabine
(d) R. Miliband
Solved Paper-III, December-2014
8. Nocturnal Council finds a mention
in Plato’s
(a) The Republic
(b) The Statesman
(c) The Laws
(d) None of the above
9. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): For Aristotle the
authority of a constitutional ruler
Reason (R): Because the slave is
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
 List–I List–II
(Authors) (Books)
A. Willmoore i. John Locke,
Kendall A Biography
B. J.W. Gough ii. John Locke and
the Doctrine of
Majority-rule
C. M.W. iii. John Locke’s
Cranston Political
Philosophy
D. Richard iv. Locke on Peace
Cox and War
Solved Paper-III, December-2014
Codes:
A B C D of
(a) ii iii i iv (a) institutions and functions
(b) i ii iv iii
(c) iii iv ii i governmental as well as non-
(d) iv i iii ii governmental and all political
11. For whom of the following, science
is the fruit of idle curiosity;
philosophy is mere intellectual
frippery; the amenities of polite life
is tinsel?
(a) Thomas Hobbes
(b) John Locke
(c) J.J. Rousseau
(d) Karl Marx
12. Which one of the following is not
correct regarding Marx’s theory of
alienation?
(a) Alienation from the product
(b) Alienation from the activity of
labour
(c) Disalienation from species-being
(d) Alienation of man from man
13. Who of the following is of the view
that it is not Gandhi who made
Satyagraha but it is Satyagraha
which made Gandhi the Mahatma?
(a) R.R. Diwakar
(b) C.F. Andrews
(c) G.N. Dhawan
(d) Louis Fisher
14. In which of the following countries
Narendranath Bhattacharya settled
under the name of Manabendra
Nath Roy?
(a) Java
(b) United States of America
(c) Germany
(d) Mexico
15. Who of the following said that God
had appeared to him in prison,
placed the Gita in his hands and
made him realize the simple truths
of the Sanatana Dharma?
(a) Vivekananda
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Aurobindo Ghose
(d) Savarkar
16. Comparative Politics is the study
(b) all forms of political activity-
phenomena
(c) political processes
(d) techniques and tools of com-
parative inquiry
17. What is the correct sequence in
which the following approaches to
the study of ‘Comparative Politics’
emerged?
1. Philosophical Approach
2. Systems Approach
3. New Institutional Approach
4. Behavioural Approach
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 2 (b) 1, 4, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 3 (d) 3, 1, 2 and 4
18. Identify the correct sequence of the
following input functions and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
1. Interest-aggregation
2. Interest-articulation
3. Political communication
4. Political socialization and
recruitment
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 4 and 3
(c) 2, 1, 4 and 3 (d) 4, 2, 1 and 3
19. The sociologists who influenced
Gabriel Almond in his structural
functionalism were
1. Max Weber
2. Talcott Parsons
3. David Truman
4. Karl Deutsch
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
101
20. Which of the following statements
about the Vice-President of India
and Vice-President of America are
true?
1. Both the Vice-Presidents are
elected.
2. Both of them are the presiding
officers of their respective upper
Houses.
3. Both the Vice-Presidents are not
the members of their respective
Houses.
4. Both of them do not have a
casting vote in case of a tie.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
21. Which one of the following govern-
mental systems is considered to be
the off-spring and successor of the
theory of separation of powers?
(a) Swiss (b) American
(c) Indian (d) French
22. According to Riggs, lack of balance
between equality and capacity is
(a) Developmental syndrome
(b) Developmental trap
(c) Political decay
(d) Goal-changing
23. Arrange the following books in
order in which they appeared:
1. Political Order in Changing
Societies
2. The Politics of Modernization
3. How Europe Underdeveloped
Africa
4. Capitalism and Underdevelopment
in Latin America
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 2, 1, 4 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 4 and 3
 102
24. Which one of the following articles
of the US Constitution vests the
executive powers in the President?
(a) Article 1 (b) Article 2
(c) Article 3 (d) Article 4
25. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I  List–II
A. Both Houses have i. America
equal powers
B. Upper House is ii. India
more powerful
than Lower House
C. Lower House is iii. France
more powerful than
Upper House
D. National Assembly iv. Switzer-
can overthrow the land
government
Codes:
A B C D
(a) iv i ii iii
(b) iii ii i iv
(c) iv iii ii i
(d) i ii iii iv is sovereign.
26. Consider the following:
1. Pocket Veto
2. President message to federal
legislature
3. Caucus system
4. Pigeon hole-a bill
These are the parts of constitutional
practice of
(a) Indian Political System
(b) American Political System
(c) The Swiss Political System
(d) The British Political System
27. Who among the following former
British Prime Ministers belonged
to the Labour Party?
1. Harold Wilson
2. Edward Heath
3. John Major
4. Tony Blair
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Solved Paper-III, December-2014
Codes: 32. Who has described Indian society
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 as ‘Apolitical Society’?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 (a) Rajni Kothari
28. The Judges of the US Supreme (b) Morris Jones
Court hold office (c) Stanley Kochanak
(a) upto the age of 65 years (d) Paul R. Brass
(b) upto the age of 70 years 33. Match List–I with List–II and select
(c) upto the age of 75 years the correct answer from the codes
(d) until death or resignation or given below:
removal by the Congress
 List–I List–II
29. Which one of the following Federal
(States) (Chief Ministers
Courts has the power to declare
[2014])
laws passed by the state or the
constituent unit of the federation A. Arunachal i. T.R.
invalid but not the federal laws? Pradesh Zeliang
(a) The Supreme Court of America B. Mizoram ii. Lal Thanhawla
(b) The Supreme Court of India
C. Nagaland iii. Manik Sarkar
(c) The Swiss Federal Tribunal
D.
Tripura iv. Nabam Tuke
(d) The French Superior Courts
Codes:
30. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and A B C D
the other labelled as Reason (R). (a) ii i iv iii
Choose the correct answer from (b) iv ii i iii
the codes given below: (c) iii iv ii i
Assertion (A): The British Parliament (d) i iii iv ii
34. Match List–I with List–II and select
Reason (R): The Queen in England the correct answer from the codes
is a nominal head of the State. given below:
Codes:
List–I List–II
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
(Features of Indian   (Sources)
is the correct explanation of (A).
Constitution)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of A. Judicial Review, i. British
(A). Fundamental
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. Rights
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. B. Single Citizenship ii. Irish
31. “Since Indians wish to unite and
C. Nomination of iii. Canadian
develop a common culture, it is
the bounden duty of all Indians to Members to
own up Hindi as their language... Rajya Sabha
Any Indian who does not accept D. Residuary Powers iv. American
this proposal..., has no right to be
Codes:
Indian.” Who among the following
said this? A B C D
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (a) iv i ii iii
(b) Bala Saheb Deoras (b) iii ii i iv
(c) Dr. K.M. Munshi (c) ii iii iv i
(d) Seth Govind Das (d) i iv iii ii
Solved Paper-III, December-2014
35. In which of the following Acts the 40. Who among the following was a
provincial subjects were divided into member of the Justice J.S. Verma
transferred and reserved subjects? Committee constituted following
Nirbhaya case?
(a) Indian Council’s Act, 1892
(a) Justice Fatima Beevi
(b) Indian Council’s Act, 1909
(b) Justice Leila Seth
(c) Montague Chelmsford Reforms
(c) Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra
Act, 1919
(d) Justice G. Rohini
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
41. Which one of the following is not
36. Who of the following gave the
the function of the Election Com-
idea of ‘Saintly Idiom’ in Indian
mission of India?
politics?
(a) Conduct of election to Parliament,
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan State Legislatures, President and
(b) Rajni Kothari Vice-President
(c) Morris Jones (b) Preparation of electoral rolls
(d) James Manor (c) Counting of votes and declaration
37. Arrange the following in chrono- of results
logical order: (d) Declaring an election void
i. Navnirvan Movement in Gujarat 42. On which date National Integration
Day is celebrated in India?
ii. Formation of Maharashtra as a
(a) 14th November
State
(b) 19th November
iii. Split of the Communist Party of
(c) 10th December
India
(d) 30th October
iv. Formation of Janata Party
43. Which one of the following principles
Codes:
did not emerge out of Bommai case
(a) i, iii, ii, iv in relation to Article 356?
(b) iii, ii, i, iv (a) Proclamation issued under Art.
(c) ii, iii, iv, i 356 is subject to judicial review.
(d) ii, iii, i, iv (b) State Assembly should be
38. Who describes social movements as dissolved only after the approval
of proclamation by Parliament.
‘non-party political formations’?
(c) If a new political party assumes
(a) Ramchandra Guha
power at the Centre, it has the
(b) Rajni Kothari
authority to dismiss Ministries
(c) Partha Chatterjee formed by other parties in the
(d) T.K. Oommen States.
39. Arrange the following in chrono- (d) The Court may require the
logical sequence: Union Government to disclose the
i. Naxalite Movement materials on the basis of which
Art. 356 was invoked.
ii. Sarvodaya Movement
44. Match List–I with List–II and select
iii. Narmada Bachao Andolan
the correct answer from the codes
iv. Chipko Movement given below:
Codes:  List–I  List–II
(a) i, iii, ii, iv   (Committees of   (Number of
 Parliament) Members)
(b) ii, i, iv, iii
A. Public Accounts i. 45
(c) iv, ii, i, iii Committee
(d) ii, iv, iii, i B. Estimates Committee ii. 22
103
C. Department related iii. 15
Parliamentary
Standing Committee
D. Rules Committee of iv. 30
Lok Sabha
Codes:
A B C D
(a) iii ii iv i
(b) ii iv i iii
(c) i iii ii iv
(d) iv i iii ii
45. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Courts follow
the principle of natural justice while
deciding cases.
Reason (R): Justice should not only
be done but should manifestly and
undoubtedly be seen to be done.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
46. The post 1970 phase in the develop-
ment of Public Administration was
characterized by
(a) Status-quoism
(b) Stability
(c) Development theory
(d) Value orientation
47. What was he referring to when
Mooney said ‘conferring of specified
authority by a higher authority’?
(a) Division of powers
(b) Responsibility
(c) Conferring authority
(d) Delegation
48. Which one of the following was not
in the list of functional requisites
for any society, given by Fred W.
Riggs?
 104
(a) Economic
(b) Administrative
(c) Political
(d) Communicational
49. Which one of the following is not
a stage in decision-making process
given by Herbert Simon?
(a) Intelligence activity
(b) Speculative activity
(c) Choice activity
(d) Design activity
50. Which one of the following is not
one of the styles of leadership given
by Likert?
(a) Exploitative authoritative
(b) Benevolent authoritative
(c) Cooperative authoritative
(d) Participative
51. Choose the correct code for the
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) as
given below:
Assertion (A): To be valid and part
of a science of public administration,
hypothesis developed in the American
cultural context should be tested in
cross-cultural settings.
Reason (R): Comparative study
has brought Politics and Public
Administration closer to each other.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
52. What is the name of the Committee
in Britain that takes up voting of
demands and of taxes (revenue
part)?
(a) Appropriation Committee
(b) Committee of Ways and Means
(c) Committee of Supply
(d) Estimates Committee
53. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Solved Paper-III, December-2014
  List–I   List–II (a) Objectives – Classification –
(Books) (Authors) Analysis – Evaluation
A. The Administrative i. Ordway (b) Analysis – Objectives – Evaluation
State Tead – Classification
B. The Art of ii. Piffner
(c) Classification – Analysis –
Administration and
Objectives – Evaluation
Presthus
(d) O b j e c t i v e s – A n a l y s i s –
C. Public Admini- iii. Dwight
stration Waldo Classification – Evaluation
D. Organization and iv. Seckler- 58. Public Service Commissions for
Management Hudson the Union and States in India are
Codes: created under which Article of the
A B C D Constitution?
(a) i iii iv ii (a) 268
(b) iv ii iii i (b) 315
(c) iii i ii iv (c) 312
(d) ii iv i iii (d) 371(A)
54. ‘Rule of Lapse’ is essential for the 59. Which one of the following was not
effective financial control by the recommended for Panchayatiraj by
(a) Estimates Committee Thungon Committee?
(b) Parliament (a) Constitutional Status
(c) Department of Expenditure (b) Planning at Zila Parishad Level
(d) Public Accounts Committee (c) Dist. Collector to be Chief
55. Desk Officer System in the mini- Executive of Zila Parishad
stries of government of India had (d) Three Year Term
the following advantages:
60. Match List–I with List–II and select
1. Speedy disposal of cases the correct answer with the help of
2. Dual records were available the code given below:
3. Reduced expenditure List–I  List–II
4. Qualitative improvement (Acts/Agencies)  (Year)
A. All-India Services i. 1941
Choose the correct answer from the
(Conduct) Rules
code given below:
B. Central Bureau of ii. 1860
(a) 1, 2, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3
Investigation
(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 2, 3, 4
C. Indian Penal iii. 1963
56. Which one of the following institu-
Code
tions was established in India on
D. Special Police iv. 1954
the recommendations of Paul A.
Establishment
Appleby?
Codes:
(a) L.B.S. Academy of Administration
A B C D
(b) I n d i a n I n s t i t u t e o f P u b l i c
Administration (a) i ii iii iv
(c) Indian Council of Social Science (b) iv iii ii i
Research (c) iii i iv ii
(d) Indian Police Academy (d) i iv ii iii
57. Arrange the following in correct 61. Match List–I with List–II and select
chronological sequence in the the answer from the codes given
stages of performance budgeting: below:
Solved Paper-III, December-2014 105
List–I  List–II iii. The main goal of states is 68. Operation Enduring Freedom 2001
(Statements) (Scholar) survival. is related to
A. “There is no i. Haushofer iv. All states do not posses power (a) Eviction of terrorists from Iraq
possibility of to inflict some harm on its (b) Eviction of Taliban regime from
drawing a sharp neighbour. Afghanistan
line between the Choose your answer from the codes
will to live and (c) Eviction of Cremean forces from
given below: Russia
the will to power.”
Codes: (d) Eviction of Arabs from Gaza strip
B. “In its essence ii. Hans
power is an Morgent- (a) i, iv, ii (b) i, iii, iv
69. Which one of the following countries
indivisible whole.” hau (c) ii, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iii is not a member of BIMSTEC that
C. “For military iii. Reinhold 64. Who defined Non-alignment started in 1997?
reasons a state Neibuhr as a “Policy of keeping out of (a) Bangladesh (b) India
should be alliances”?
(c) Thailand (d) China
economically self (a) K.M. Pannikar
sufficient.” 70. What is not true about ASEAN
(b) George Schwarzenberger
D. “The struggle for iv. E.H. Carr (Association of South East Asian
(c) Marshall Tito Nations)?
power is universal
in time and space (d) John Burton
(a) Its declared objectives is regional
and is an undeniable 65. The North American Free Trade peace and stability.
fact of experience.” Agreement 1994 (NAFTA) includes:
(b) It stands for strategic cooperation
Codes: (a) U.S.A., Canada and Mexico at regional level.
A B C D (b) Mexico, Japan and South Korea
(c) It is intended to promote co-
(a) i iii iv ii (c) Brazil, Mexico and New Zealand operation in social, economic,
(b) iii iv i ii (d) Canada, New Zealand and U.S.A. cultural, scientific and admini-
(c) ii iii i iv 66. Who among the following realist strative spheres.
thinkers identifies ‘three images of (d) Malaysian Prime Minister Abdul
(d) i ii iv iii
politics’? Razak announced that ASEAN
62. Arrange the following in their
(a) Hans Morgenthau was not committed to any political
chronological sequence and choose
(b) Kenneth Waltz ideology.
your answer from the codes given
below: (c) Thucydides 71. Which one of the following is the
i. Churchill’s Fulton Speech (d) E.H. Carr report that triggered the process of
67. Read the following statements U.N. reform?
ii. Launching of the African Union
about South-South Co-operation: (a) Secretary General Kofi Annan’s
iii. A treaty to create South East
1. South-South Co-operation is an Report 2005 entitled ‘In Larger
Asian Nuclear weapon free zone
alternative to North-South Aid. Freedom’
iv. Recognition of South Sudan
2. It refers to co-operative mutually (b) Secretary General Boutros
as a sovereign State and 193rd
beneficial activities in the field of Boutros Ghali Report 1992 ‘An
member of the U.N.
trade, service and technology. Agenda for Peace’
Codes:
3. UN General Assembly declared (c) Secretary General Kofi Annan’s
(a) i, ii, iii, iv 19 December the annual UN Day Report 2005 entitled, Investing
(b) i, iii, ii, iv for South-South Co-operation. in the UN: For a Stronger
(c) i, iv, ii, iii 4. W.T.O. came into existence Organisation World Wide.
(d) iv, iii, i, ii for facilitating South-South Co- (d) Amnesty International Report
63. Which one of the following state- operation. 1997 entitled, ‘Refugees’: Human
ments regarding realism are true? Select your answer from the codes Rights have no Borders’.
i. Thucydides is called the first given below:
72. Which one of the following Reports
classical realist. Codes: cites the unjust global trade regime
ii. Power is the key to international (a) 1, 3, 4 (b) 2 and 4 as primary cause in increasing
politics. (c) 1, 2, 3 (d) Only 4 global inequality?
 106
(a) Doha Round (of GATT) Resolu-
tion, 2003
(b) Development Assistance Com-
mittee Report, 2003
(c) Human Development Report
(HDR) of 2005
(d) World Bank Report of 1989
73. Read the following statements and
choose your answer from the codes
given below:
1. “While all politics is necessarily
pursuit of power, ideologies
render involvement in that contest
for power, psychologically and
morally acceptable to the actors
and their audience”. Organization)?
2. The Ideals of Peace and of
International law are eminently
qualified to serve as ideologies
for a policy of status quo. Politics
Answers with Explanations
1. (b) G.H. Sabine in his book
‘Introduction to Political Theory’ defined
Political theory as “man’s attempt to
consciously understand and solve the
problems of his group life and organiza-
tion.
2. (b) Peter Laslett is probably best
remembered for his 1956 declaration
concerning the death of political
philosophy. Laslett’s argument was them-
atically close to the contemporaneous
debate on ‘the end of ideology’, as well
as to the worries voiced by scholars
such as Leo Strauss of traditional
philosophical wisdom being threatened
by a new scientism and historicism.
3. (c) Neoliberalism or neoliberalism
is the 20th-century resurgence of 19th-
century ideas associated with laissez-
faire economic liberalism and free market
capitalism, which constituted a paradigm
shift away from the post-war Keynesian
consensus that had lasted from 1945 to
1980.
4. (d) All the statement given are
representing the properties of Post-
Marxism. Post-Marxism, is a theoretical
viewpoint that elaborates and revises
3. The Ideology of Peace has a
tremendous role in attaining the
objectives of the U.N.
4. Ideology has always an edge over
National Interest.
Codes:
(a) All statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are
correct
(b) Only 1 is correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) Only 4 is correct
74. Match List–I with List–II and
choose your answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
 (Authors) (Books)
A. Walden i. A Globalizing
Bello World? Culture,
Economics,
the work of Louis Althusser and Michel
Foucault. Unlike traditional Marxism,
which emphasizes the priority of class
struggle and the common humanity of
oppressed groups, post-Marxism reveals
the sexual, racial, class, and ethnic
divisions of modern Western society.
5. (b)
Thomas Pogge – Global Justice
Michael Walzer – Communitarian
Perspective of
Justice
Susan Moller – Feminist
Okin conception of
Justice
John Rawls – Distributive
Justice
6. (*) Question was wrong and UGC
did not provided any answer for this
question.
7. (c) In his criticism of Lenin led
revolution and his theory of revolution in
Russian, G.H. Sabine said that “Lenin’s
party was designed to be an elite, a
minority chosen for intellectual and
moral superiority, the most advanced part
of the working class and its vanguard”.
Solved Paper-III, December-2014
B. Jagadish ii. Globalization and
Bhagwati its Discontents
C. D. Held iii. In Defence of
Globalization
D. Joseph iv. Deglobalization:
E.Stiglitz Ideas for a New
Economy
Codes:
A B C D
(a) iv iii i ii
(b) iii i iv ii
(c) ii iv iii i
(d) i ii iii iv
75. Which one of the following is
not an IGO (Intergovernmental
(a) United Nations
(b) Amnesty International
(c) Arab League
(d) African Union
8. (c) The Nocturnal Council is, as
it were, the finishing strokes of Plato’s
Laws. Because in Book XII it is going to
be introduced as a perfect and permanent
safeguard for the regime and its laws of
Magnesia. The Nocturnal Council is to
consist of the ten oldest Guardians of
the Laws; the Supervisor of Education
and his predecessors; the Auditors; and
younger citizens between the ages of
thirty and forty whom each elder member
of this body is to associate himself with.
9. (a) Yes. Its true that for Aristotle
the authority of a constitutional ruler over
his subjects is quite different from that of
a master over his slaves. According to
Aristotle the slave is inferior from birth
and incapable of ruling himself.
10. (a)
Willmoore Kendall – John Locke
and the
Doctrine of
Majority-rule
J.W. Gough – John
Locke’s
Political
Philosophy
Solved Paper-III, December-2014
M.W. Cranston – John Locke, A
Biography
Richard Cox – Locke on
Peace and War
11. (c) According to Jean Jacques
Rousseau, the feelings, affections and
bond of family life the joy and beauty
of motherhood, man’s love for arts and
beauty are of eternal value and man
should cultivate all these seriously and
sincerely. The cultivation of all these
will give man real joy and satisfaction.
He believes that there is no place of
reason in all these things. He believes
that science cannot give man proper
satisfaction in life. He said, “Science is
the fruit of idle curiosity, philosophy is
mere intellectual frippery the amenities
of polite life are tinsel”.
12. (c) In the Economic and
Philosophic Manuscripts, Marx discusses
four aspects of the alienation of labour,
as it takes place in capitalist society: one
is alienation from the product of labour;
another is alienation from the activity of
labour; a third is alienation from one’s
own specific humanity; and a fourth is
alienation from others, from society.
There is nothing mysterious about this
fourfold breakdown of alienation. It
follows from the idea that all acts of
labour involve an activity of some sort
that produces an object of some sort,
performed by a human being (not a work
animal or a machine) in some sort of
social context.
13. (a) According to R.R. Diwakar “it
is not Gandhi who made Satyagraha but
it is Satyagraha which made Gandhi the
Mahatma”. He also said that Satyagraha
would outlive him, the Gandhian model
offers norms and techniques for our age.
14. (d) Naren arrived in San
Francisco on 14 June 1916. Next
morning newspapers carried the news
in banner headline ‘a dangerous Hindu
revolutionary, German spy, lands in
the USA’. Naren quickly left his hotel
and went to Stanford University to meet
Professor Dhana Gopal Mukherjee, the
younger brother of a co-revolutionary,
who changed Naren’s name to
Manabendra Nath Roy. Dhana Gopal
introduced him as Manabendra Nath Roy
to Dr. David Jordan, the progressive
minded President of the University. In
Dr. Jordan’s house, Roy met Evelyn
Trent whom he later married in New
York where Roys took shelter in the
house of Lala Lajpat Rai.
15. (c) Aurobindo Ghose in Savitri
said ‘God had appeared to him in prison,
placed the Gita in his hands and made
him realize the simple truths of the
Sanatana Dharma’.
16. (b) Comparative Politics is the
study of all forms of political activity-
governmental as well as non-governmental
and all political phenomena.
17. (b) In Comparative Politics,
Philosophical Approach was evolved in
the primary stage and then evolved the
Behavioural Approach, this was followed
by Systems Approach and the next in line
was New Institutional Approach.
18. (d) Input Functions:
(i) Political socialisation and recrui-
tment
(ii) Interest articulation
(iii) Interest aggregation
(iv) Political communication.
19. (b) Max Weber and Talcott
Parsons ideas influenced Gabriel Almond
in deriving his model of Structural
Functionalism. For Talcott Parsons,
“structural-functionalism” came to
describe a particular stage in the
methodological development of social
science, rather than a specific school of
thought.
20. (b) As the Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha, the Vice-President presides over
the meetings of the House. He has no vote
except when there is a tie (Article 100).
Under the Constitution, the Chairman
exercises only a casting vote in the case
of a tie. The Vice-President of America
doesn’t have this kind of power.
21. (b) The model of Separation
of Power in Political theory ask for
separation of among, Legislature,
Executive and Judiciary. American
political system is considered as a replica
of model of Separation of Power.
107
22. (b) F.W. Riggs gave the concept
of development trap. His contention is
that there should be a balance between
equality and capacity. An emphasis on
the one will lead to neglect of another
and get into ‘development trap’.
23. (a) The politics of modernization
book was written by David Apter in
1965. Political Order in Changing
Societies book by Samuel P. Huntington
was written in 1968. Capitalism and
Underdevelopment in Latin America:
Historical Studies book by Andre Gunder
Frank was written in 1967. How Europe
Underdeveloped Africa Book was written
by Walter Rodney in 1972.
24. (b) Article II, Section 2:
Treaty Power and Appointments. The
Constitution provides, in the second
paragraph of Article II, Section 2, that
“the President shall have Power, by
and with the Advice and Consent of the
Senate to make Treaties, provided two
thirds of the Senators present concur.”
25. (a) In Switzerland both Houses
have equal powers. In America upper
house is more powerful than lower house.
In India Lower House is more powerful
than Upper House. In France national
assembly can overthrow the government.
26. (b) A pocket veto occurs when
a bill fails to become law because the
president does not sign the bill and cannot
return the bill to Congress within a 10-
day period because Congress is not in
session. The Caucus System, used by the
New Jersey State Senate between 1949
and 1966, and again from 1968 to 1974,
was a rule utilized by Republicans that
no bill could advance to the Senate floor
for a vote unless a majority of members
of the majority caucus supported it.
When a bill reaches a committee it is
placed on the committee’s calendar. A
bill can be referred to a subcommittee or
considered by the committee as a whole.
It is at this point that a bill is examined
carefully and its chances for passage are
determined. If the committee does not
act on a bill, it is the equivalent of killing
it. The Committee Chair has the right to
“pigeonhole” (not assign or hear debate
on the bill) thus killing it.
 108
27. (a) Harold Wilson and Tony Blair
both belong to the Labour party. Wilson
holds a number of other records: he was
the first Labour prime minister to be
elected for 13 years, following his win
at the general election of 1964; he is the
longest-serving Labour prime minister of
the 20th century; and he won four out
of the five general elections he contested
– more than any other postwar British
leader. Anthony Charles Lynton “Tony”
Blair (born 6 May 1953) is a former
Labour Party Prime Minister of the
United Kingdom. He was Prime Minister
from May 1997 until June 2007.
28. (d) The U.S. Constitution doesn’t
specifically grant Supreme Court justices
a lifetime appointment. Instead, Article
III, Section 1, states that federal judges
“shall hold their Offices during good
Behaviour” and … that’s it. As long as
federal judges don’t commit a crime—
and remember their pleases and thank
yous—they keep their seat. The phrase
“during good behaviour” translates
to a lifetime appointment because the
founders set no specific term or age limit
for service. This means that the only
actions that can remove a federal judge
are death, resignation, or impeachment
by Congress.
29. (c) The Swiss Federal Tribunal
has the power to declare laws passed
by the state or the constituent unit of
the federation invalid but not the federal
laws.
30. (b) Britain is a Constitutional
Monarchy. It has a queen as its nominal
head, but all the decision of the
government and policy is taken under
parliamentary system set under the
constitution. Hence, both the statement
are correct and second statement is
a correct reason behind the assertion
statement.
31. (a) B.R. Ambedkar said “Since
Indians wish to unite and develop a
common culture, it is the bounden duty
of all Indians to own up Hindi as their
language…. Any Indian who does not
accept this proposal…, has no right to be
Indian.”
32. (a) Rajni Kothari in his scholarly
work described India as an Apolitical
Society.
33. (b)
Arunachal Pradesh – Nabam Tuke
Mizoram – T.R. Zeliang
Nagaland – Lal Thanhawla
Tripura – Manik Sarkar
34. (a)
Judicial Review, – American
Fundamental Rights
Single Citizenship – British
Nomination of – Irish
Members to Rajya
Sabha
Residuary Powers – Canadian
35. (c) The system of ‘Diarchy’
or a kind of double government in the
Provinces was introduced by Montague
Chelmsford Reform Act 1919.
Provincial subjects were divided into two
categories “Transferred and Reserved.”
Transferred subjects which were public
health, education, local self-government,
and agriculture were under the control
of Minister; likewise all transferred
subjects were unimportant. Reserved
subjects included administration, police,
land revenue etc. which were under the
control of Governor with the help of his
secretaries. It was an indirect control
over transferred department by reserved
department. Hence, Governor was the
head of transferred and reserved subjects.
36. (c) W.H. Morris-Jones, a leading
scholar of South Asian Studies, has
identified three distinctive idioms or
languages of Indian Politics which he
has termed as modern, traditional and
saintly. The modern idiom can be noticed
in the languages of the constitution
and of the law courts and the higher
administration, the traditional idiom
is the language of the villages, of the
castes and of the tribes and communities
whereas the idiom of saintly politics
refers to the politics of Mahatma Gandhi
and Vinoba Bhave.
37. (d)
Navnirman Movement – 1974
in Gujarat
Solved Paper-III, December-2014
Formation of – 1 May
Maharashtra 1960
as a State
Split of the Communist – 1964
Party of India
Formation of Janata – 1977
Party
38. (b) Rajni Kothari in his classi-
fication of Political organisation in
India, listed Social movement under
the category of Non-Party Political
organisation. This means that they
did not directly participate in electoral
competition and did not involve in Party
Politics.
39. (b)
•• Sarvodaya Andolan under Vinoda
Bhave during the 1950s and 1960s
•• Naxalite Movement under Charu
Majumdar and Kanu Sanyal in 1967
•• Chipko Movement under Sunder
Lal Bahuguna in 1973
•• Narmada Bachao Andolan under
Medha Patkar in 1985
40. (b) In the aftermath of the 2012
gang rape in Delhi, Justice Verma was
appointed chairperson of a three-member
commission tasked with reforming
and invigorating anti-rape law. His
committee members were Ex-Solicitor
General Gopal Subramaniam and Justice
Leila Seth.
41. (d) The Election Commission
prepares, maintains and periodically
updates the Electoral Rolls, which show
who is entitled to vote, supervises the
nomination of candidates, registered
political parties, monitors the election
campaign, including the funding and
exponential by candidates. It did not
declare election void.
42. (b) National Integration Day
is observed on 19 November 2013 all
over India. It is celebrated as the birth
anniversary of the first woman Prime
Minister of India, Indira Gandhi. The
National Integration Day is celebrated to
enhance the love and unity among people
all across India.
43. (c) S. R. Bommai case was a
landmark judgment of the Supreme Court
of India, where the Court discussed at
length provisions of Article 356 of the
Solved Paper-III, December-2014
Constitution of India and related issues.
This case had a huge impact on Centre-
State Relations. If a new political party
assumes power at the Centre, it has the
authority to dismiss Ministries formed by
other parties in the States. This is not art
of Bommai case.
44. (b)
Public Accounts Committee – 22
Estimates Committee – 30
Department related – 45
Parliamentary Standing
Committee
Rules Committee of Lok Sabha – 15
45. (a) The principles of justice says
that justice should not only be done
but should manifestly and undoubtedly
be seen to be done. To manifest this
commitment toward just the Courts
follow the principle of natural justice
while deciding cases.
46. (d) There are five stages in the
chronology of the evolution of Public
Administration as a discipline:
Stage 1: politics administration dicho-
tomy (1887–1926)
Stage 2: principles of administration
(1927–1937)
Stage 3: era of challenge (1938–1947)
Stage 4: crises of identity (1948–1970)
Stage  5: public policy perspective
(1970–Present). The Public Policy pers-
pective ask for move value orientation in
administration principles.
47. (d) According to Mooney, dele-
gation means conferring of specified
authority by a higher to a lower authority.
It means that delegation is the devolution
of authority by a superior person to
his agent or subordinate subject to his
supervision and control.
48. (b) According to F.W. Riggs,
there are five functional requisites for
any society 1. Economic, 2. Social, 3.
Communicational, 4. Symbolic and 5.
Political. He has been of the opinion
that the same set of functional requisites
applies to an administrative subsystem.
49. (b) Herbert Simon, the Nobel
Prize winning researcher, showed that
humans went through three essential
stages in the act of problem solving. He
called these the Intelligence, Design,
and Choice stages. Decision making can
also be considered as a type of problem
solving.
50. (c) The four management systems
as identified by Likert were: Exploitative
Authoritative, Benevolent Authoritative,
Consultative and Participative. In his
view, the closer the organisational
characteristics are to the Participative
system, the more satisfied and therefore
more productive employees will be.
51. (b)
52. (b) A Ways and Means Committee
is a government body that is charged with
reviewing and making recommendations
for government budgets. Because the
raising of revenue is vital to carrying
out governmental operations, such a
committee is tasked with finding the
ways and means with which to raise that
revenue.
53. (c)
The Administrative – Dwight
State Waldo
The Art of – Ordway
Administration Tead
Public Administration – Piffner and
Presthus
Organization and – Seckler-
Management Hudson
54. (b) Principle of Annuality also
implies that the money left unspent
in a year must also lapse to the public
treasury and government should not be
able to spend it unless it is re-sanctioned
in next year’s budget. This is called Rule
of Lapse and is useful as an effective
tool of financial control. When the Lok
Sabha is dissolved, all business including
bills, motions, resolutions, notices,
petitions and so on pending before it
or its committees lapse. They must be
reintroduced in the newly-constituted
Lok Sabha to be pursued further.
55. (c) The system of filling senior post
in the Central Secretariat by officers who
come from states for a particular period
and who after serving their tenure, revert
back to their parent state or services is
known as the tenure system.
56. (b) On the invitation of the
Government of India, Dean Paul H.
Appleby, a US consultant in Public Adm-
inistration, Ford Foundation conducted a
109
survey of public administration in India.
Accepting his recommendations, Indian
Institute of Public Administration was
created under the Societies Act of 1860.
The Institute was formally inaugurated
by the first Prime Minister of India, as
the first President of the Society, on
March 29,1954 in New Delhi.
57. (d) Performance budgeting states
clearly the purpose & objectives for
which funds are needed. It improves
performance of units in a continuous
manner. It brings transparency in the
budget formulation process. It helps in
decision making regarding allocation of
funds. The chronological sequence in
the stages of performance budgeting is:
Objectives – Analysis – Classification –
Evaluation.
58. (b) Articles 315 to 323 in Part
XIV of the Constitution of India provides
for the establishment of Public Service
Commission for the Union and a Public
Service Commission for each State.
59. (c) A new initiative was taken
under the leadership of Rajiv Gandhi
in 1988, when a committee headed
by P.K. Thungon recommended that
Panchayati Raj bodies should be
constitutionally recognized and the
Constitution should have a provision
to ensure timely and regular election
to these bodies and their term should
be five years. It did not recommended
for setting Dist. Collector to be Chief
Executive of Zila Parishad.
60. (b)
All-India Services – 1954
(Conduct) Rules
Central Bureau of – 1963
Investigation
Indian Penal Code – 1860
Special Police Establishment – 1941
61. (b) Reinhold Neibuhr said “There
is no possibility of drawing a sharp line
between the will to live and the will to
power.” According to E.H. Carr “In its
essence power is an indivisible whole.”
According to Reinhold Neibuhr said
“For military reasons a state should be
economically self sufficient.” According
to Hans Morgenthau “The struggle for
power is universal in time and space and
is an undeniable fact of experience.”
 110
62. (b)
Churchill’s Fulton Speech – 1946
Launching of the – 2002
African Union
A treaty to create – Bangkok
Southeast Asian Treaty
Nuclear weapon 1995.
free zone
Recognition of South – 2011
Sudan as a sovereign
State and 193rd member
of the U.N.
63. (d)
64. (b) Non-alignment was defined by
George Schwarzenberger as “a policy of
keeping out of alliances”.
65. (a) The North American Free
Trade Agreement (NAFTA) is a treaty
entered into by the United States,
Canada, and Mexico; it went into effect
on January 1, 1994. (Free trade had
existed between the U.S. and Canada
since 1989; NAFTA broadened that
arrangement.)
66. (b) Kenneth Waltz in his book
‘Man, the State and War’ he discussed
the three images of politics.
67. (c) South-South Cooperation is
an alternative to North-South Aid. It
refers to co-operative mutually beneficial
activities in the field of trade, service
and technology. UN General Assembly
declared 19 December the annual UN
Day for South-South Cooperation.
WTO came into existence for facilitating
Globalisation.
68. (b) The operation was launched to
stop the Taliban from providing a safe
haven to al Qaeda and to stop al Qaeda’s
use of Afghanistan as a base of operations
for terrorist activities.
69. (d) The BIMSTEC member
states—Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri
Lanka, Thailand, Nepal and Bhutan—are
among the countries dependent on the
Bay of Bengal.
70. (b) Objectives of ASEAN are
to accelerate economic growth, social
progress and cultural development in
the region through joint endeavours.
To promote regional peace and stability
through abiding respect for justice and
the rule of law. To encourage active
collaboration and mutual assistance on
matters of common interest in Economic,
Social, Cultural, Technical, Scientific
and Administrative fields.
71. (b) An Agenda for Peace:
Spearheading of Reform Culture at the
United Nations report was published
by Secretary General Boutros Boutros-
Ghali (1992). The changing and evolving
context of the international community
urges the modification of traditional
peacekeeping measures pursued by
the United Nations. Conflicts should
be resolved by preventive diplomacy,
peacemaking, and peace-keeping.
72. (b) The authoritative source of
information on the foreign aid policies
and programmes of donor countries,
Solved Paper-III, December-2014
the annual Development Co-operation
Report by the Chair of the OECD
Development Assistance Committee
(DAC) presents detailed statistics and
analysis on foreign aid flows and related
policy developments. This issue focuses
on policy coherence for development
co-operation and delivery of more, and
more effective aid. The reports cites the
unjust global trade regime as primary
cause in increasing global inequality.
73. (c) It’s not necessary that ideology
always prevail over national interest. In
present nation - States national interest
determine the action of a country and not
just the ideology.
74. (a)
Walden Bello – Deglobalization:
Ideas for a New
Economy
Jagadish – In Defence of
Bhagwati Globalization
D. Held – A Globalizing
World? Culture,
Economics,
Politics
Joseph E. – Globalization and
Stiglitz its Discontents
75. (b) Amnesty International is a
Nobel Peace Prize-winning grassroots
activist organization with more than
three million supporters, activists
and volunteers. It is an NGO (NON-
Governmental Organisation).
qqq
Solved Paper-II, June-2015
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, June-2015
1. In Arthashastra, how many
departments of the government
find mention?
(a) 32 (b) 33
(c) 34 (d) 35
2. Who of the following fled Athens
for Calchis, ‘in order that the
Athenians might not commit a
second crime against philosophy’?
(a) Socrates (b) Plato
(c) Aristotle (d) Euclid
3. Who among the following said
of Rousseau, “Ardent apostle of
Reason, he has done more than
most to prepare the way for the age
of unreason in which he live”?
(a) Maxey (b) Sabine
(c) Wayper (d) Karl Popper
4. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(A) Hobbes (i) defence of
sovereignty and
assertion of the
claims of
political
authority over
religion
(B) Locke (ii) defence of
Individual
freedom of
thought and
expression
(C) Rousseau (iii) limited form of
constitutional
government
(D) J.S. Mill (iv) claim that
sovereignty has
its origin in the
people and
remains with
the people
Codes:
A B C D a feature of Easton’s intellectual
(a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) foundation stones of behaviou-
(b) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(c) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(d) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
5. Who among the following compares
the organisations of civil society to
a powerful system of ‘Fortresses
and earthworks’ standing behind
the state?
(a) McLellan (b) Bernstein
(c) Lenin (d) Gramsci
6. Which one of the following social
contract traditions has not been
revitalised by John Rawls in his
book A Theory of Justice?
(a) Hobbes
(b) John Locke
(c) J.J. Rousseau
(d) Immanuel Kant
7. Who among the following said that
Bhakti in religion may be a road
to the salvation of the soul. But in
politics, Bhakti or hero worship
is a sure road to degradation and
eventual dictatorship?
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan
(b) M.N. Roy
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Savarkar
8. Who said, therefore, the sword
of Brutus is holy. Therefore the
Baghanakha of Shivaji is of fair
fame. Therefore, the beheading of
Charles I is a just deed. Therefore
the arrow of William Tell is divine?
(a) M. N. Roy
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose
(c) Aurobindo Ghose
(d) V.D. Savarkar
111
9. Which one of the following is not
ralism?
(a) Regularities (b) Values
(c) Pure Science (d) Stratification
10. Which one of the following is not
a factor, for Fukuyama, leading to
the triumph of liberal democracy?
(a) The struggle for ‘recognition’.
(b) The logic of science’s mastery
over nature.
(c) The absence of major contra-
dictions in liberal democracy.
(d) The triumph of liberalism is
more in terms of economics than
ideologies.
11. Since mid - 1950s, the major trends
in comparative politics have been
in the areas of:
(A) systems theories
(B) culture theories
(C) development theories
(D) class theories
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
12. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
  (Thinkers) (Concepts)
(A) Karl (i) Modernisation
Deutsch - a multifaceted
process
(B) Huntington (ii) Circulation
of elites
(C) Pareto (iii) The gate -
keepers
(D) David (iv) Receptors
Easton
 112
Codes:
A B C D (b) India
(a) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (c) U.K.
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (d) Russia
(c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
13. Who among the following makes
a distinction between system
maintenance and system persis-
tence?
(a) Gabriel Almond
(b) David Easton
(c) Lucian Pye
(d) F.W. Riggs
14. Arrange the following books in
order in which they appeared. Use
the code given below:
(A) Comparative Federalism
(B) Democratisation: Theory and
Practice
(C) The End of History and the last
man
(D) The Civic culture: Political
attitude and Democracy in five
nations
Codes:
(a) (C), (D), (B), (A)
(b) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(c) (A), (C), (D), (B)
(d) (D), (C), (B), (A)
15. Arrange the following concepts in
order in which they appeared. Use
the code given below:
(A) Democratic Centralism
(B) Feed - Back System
(C) New Democracy
(D) Due Process of Law
Code:
(a) (D), (B), (A), (C)
(b) (B), (D), (C), (A)
(c) (D), (A), (C), (B)
(d) (A), (C), (D), (B)
16. “We are under the Constitution,
but the constitution is what the
Judges say it is”. Besides U.S.A.
to which one of the following
countries can this be applicable?
(a) Switzerland
17. Who among the following has
written “The Federalist Papers”?
(a) B. Anderson
(b) C. Reynoldes
(c) James Madison
(d) Theodor Andorno
18. Who among the following argued
that “The belief in the principle of
authority is the only reliable means
of securing order”.
(a) Joseph de Maistre
(b) Max Weber
(c) Friedrich Nietzsche
(d) Giovanni Gentile
19. Who among the following has
argued that the electoral system
determines the nature of the party
system?
(a) Duverger (b) Mitchels
(c) Schumpeter (d) Weber
20. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Political development
approach came under criticism in the
mid - 1960s.
Reason (R): The approach based on
the experiences of the United States
and Western Europe had limited
relevance in the Third world.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
21. What is the correct order in which
the following terms are enshrined
in the Preamble to the Constitution
of India?
(A) Equality (B) Liberty
(C) Justice (D) Fraternity
Solved Paper-II, June-2015
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (C), (B), (A) and (D)
(c) (B), (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (C), (A), (B) and (D)
22. Which of the following rights are
available to foreigners living in
India?
(A) Equality before law
(B) Right to education
(C) Freedom of speech
(D) Freedom of movement
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (B) only
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (C)
23. Who is the First Law Officer of the
Government of India?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Law Secretary
(c) Solicitor - General of India
(d) Attorney - General of India
24. Which one of the following cannot
be dissolved but can be abolished?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Council
(d) State Legislative Assembly
25. Who among the following Governor
- appointees can be removed only
by the Governor?
(A) Advocate - General
(B) Members of the State Finance
Commission
(C) Members of the State Public
Service Commission
(D) Vice - Chancellor of a State
University
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (A), (B) and (D)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Solved Paper-II, June-2015
26. The maximum period of the
President’s Rule in a state under
Article 356 can be:
(a) One year
(b) Two year
(c) Three year
(d) Four year
27. Which of the following statements
are not true about the process
of constitutional Amendment in
India?
(A) The Parliament can amend the
Constitution with a special majority.
(B) State Assemblies can propose
amendment in the Constitution.
(C) A Bill for Constitutional Amend-
ment can be introduced only in the
Lower House of the Parliament.
(D) Deadlock between the two Houses
of Parliament over a Bill for
Constitutional Amendment can
be removed by a joint session of
the Parliament.
(E) The President of India enjoys the
veto power over Constitutional
Amendment Bills passed by the
Parliament.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (B), (C), (D) and (E)
(c) (A), (D) and (E)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
28. Which of the following is not
a condition for Parliament to
legislate on the subjects mentioned
in the State List?
(a) If Lok Sabha decides that a
subject mentioned in state list is
of national importances
(b) If two or more states assemblies
pass a resolution to such an effect
(c) If a state of Emergency is declared
(d) If a treaty with a foreign country
has to be put into effect
29. Any resolution passed by the
Parliament for removing a Judge
of the Supreme Court has to
be investigated by a Committee
comprising of:
113
(a) Two Judges of Supreme Court (a) Section of American Public
(b) Two Judges of Supreme Court Administration (SAP)
and Attorney General of India (b) Section on Comparative Admini-
(c) Two Judges of Supreme Court stration (SCA)
and a legal luminary (c) Section on International Public
(d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court Administration (SIP)
and two Judges of the Supreme (d) Section on International and Com-
Court parative Public Administration
30. Match List–I with List–II and select (SICA)
the correct answer from the codes 33. Arrange Maslow’s perceived human
given below: needs in correct chronological
List–I List–II order:
Movements Leader
(a) Self esteem - physiological
(A) India Against (i) Aruna Roy
- security - self actualization -
Corruption
belongingness.
(B) Narmada (ii) Mahendra
Bachao Singh (b) Self actualization - security -
Andolan Tikait belongingness - physiological
(C) Right to (iii) Anna - self esteem.
Information Hazare (c) Security - self actualization -
Movement belongingness - physiological
(D) Bhartiya (iv) Medha - self esteem.
Kisan Union Patkar
(d) P h y s i o l o g i c a l - s e c u r i t y -
Codes: belongingness - self esteem - self
A B C D actualization.
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 34. Given below are two statements,
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) one labelled as Assertion (A) and
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) the other labelled as Reason (R).
(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) Choose the correct answer by using
the codes given below:
31. Match List–I with List–II and select
Assertion (A): “Both staff and
the correct answer by using the
codes given below: auxiliary agencies assist the line
List–I List–II agencies but are distinct from each
(Administrative (Administrative other”.
Thinker) Approach) Reason (R): “Auxiliary agencies
(A) M.P. Follett (i) Garbage have no operating responsibilities”
can Model
Codes:
(B) Herbert (ii) Mixed
Simon scanning (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
(C) Michael (iii) Psycholo- is the correct explanation of (A)
D. Cohen gical (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
approach is not the correct explanation of
(D) Amitai Etzioni (iv) Rational (A)
approach (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
Codes: (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
A B C D 35. Which one of the following types of
(a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) leaders does not figure in Mooney
(b) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
and Reiley’s classification of
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
leaders?
(d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(a) Formal leaders
32. What was the name of the section
which replaced Comparative Admini- (b) Titular leaders
stration Group of the American (c) Controllers
Society of Public Administration? (d) True organizers
 114 Solved Paper-II, June-2015
36. Which one of the following is not (C) Martin Wright (C) Article 53
included in the elements of Public (D) Hoffson (D) Article 54
Policy by Austin Rammey? Select the correct answer from the Select the correct answer from the
(a) A set of objectives codes given below: codes given below:
(b) A selected line of action (a) (A), (B) and (C) Codes:
(c) An implementation of intent (b) (B), (C) and (D) (a) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) Reconsideration of objectives (c) (C), (D) and (A) (b) (A), (C) and (D)
37. Assheton committee (1944) did not (d) (A), (B) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
include one of the following in the 42. Which of the following pairs
(d) (A), (B) and (C)
objects of training of civil servants: correctly match. Choose your
answer from the codes given below: 47. Which of the following country is
(a) To produce reliable work-skill
(A) The control of the Arms Race - not a member of ASEAN:
(b) Flexibility
Hedley Bull (a) Laos
(c) To broaden the mind of the trainee
(B) Some Economic Aspects of (b) Cambodia
(d) To develop leadership qualities
Disarmament - L. Gromoo and (c) Vietnam
38. Which one among the following
V. Strigachow (d) North Korea
is the correct ascending order of
(C) The challenge of the Nineteen
Commission/Committees appointed 48. Originally what was the total
sixties - James P. Warbarg
in the USA? strength of security council of
(D) Winning without war - Emile United Nations?
(a) Hoover Commission, Taft Com-
Benoit
mission, The Grace Commission, (a) 9 (b) 10
Codes:
Brownlow Committee. (c) 11 (d) 15
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) The Grace Commission, Hoover 49. Recently France has agreed to set
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
Commission, Taft Commission, up atomic power plant in India at:
Brownlow Committee. (c) (D), (C) and (A)
(a) Kudankulam
(c) Taft Commission, Brownlow (d) (B), (D) and (A)
43. Who among the following is not (b) Tarapur
Committee, Hoover Commission,
related to Bargaining Theory? (c) Kakarapar
The Grace Commission.
(d) Brownlow Committee, Taft Com- (a) Kenneth Waltz (d) Jaitapur
mission, The Grace Commission, (b) J.F. Nash 50. Match List–I with List–II and select
Hoover Commission. (c) Thomas Schelling the correct answer from the codes
39. Who called bureaucrats as ‘ruling (d) Roger Fisher given below:
servants’? 44. Which one of the following was not List–I List–II
feature of Old Diplomacy? (A) Second summit (i) Colombo
(a) F.M. Marx
of Non-
(b) Martin Krygier (a) Limited
alignment
(c) Robert K. Merton (b) Aristocratic
(B) Third summit (ii) Algiers
(d) Joseph La Palombara (c) Transparency of Non-
40. Which constitutional amendment (d) Freedom of Action for Ambas- alignment
provided for the setting up of sadors (C) Fourth summit (iii) Lusaka
Administrative Tribunals in India? 45. In which year Brezhnev had of Non-
propounded the concept of Asian alignment
(a) 24th Amendment
Collective Security System? (D) Fifth summit (iv) Cairo
(b) 59th Amendment
(a) 1967 (b) 1968 of Non-
(c) 42nd Amendment
(c) 1969 (d) 1970 alignment
(d) 44th Amendment
46. Which of the following Articles Codes:
41. Who among the following regards of the charter of United Nations A B C D
International Politics as an autono- Organisation are related to (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
mous discipline? Regional Organisations? (b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(A) C.A.W. Manning (A) Article 51 (c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) Karlin M. Copper (B) Article 52 (d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Solved Paper-II, June-2015
Answers with Explanations
1. (c) There are 34 departments of the
government in Arthashastra. It involves
various administrative, legislative as
well as judicial units. These department
is in resonance with the Saptang theory.
The book was written by Kautilya on
3rd century BC during Muryan rule, it
gives details information on almost every
aspect of governance aspects of polity
and administration.
2. (c) In 322 BCE, Aristotle was
forced to flee Athens with his family
when the political leadership reacted
against the Macedonians again and his
previously published works supporting
Macedonian rule left him a target. He
passed on his Lyceum to Theophrastus
and died later that year in Chalcis, near
his hometown.
3. (c) C.L. Wayper in his book
‘Political Thoughts’ while admiring the
theory of Rousseau said that he was the
“Ardent apostle of Reason, he has done
more than most to prepare the way for
the age of unreason in which he lives.”
4. (d) Hobbes in his social contract
theory gave supreme importance to the
sovereignty and assertion of the claims
of Political authority over the position of
religion. Locke in his ‘Two treaties of
government’ asked for limited form of
constitutional government or as he said
‘A night watchmen’. Rousseau through
his concept of general will claim that
sovereignty has its origin in the people
and remains with the people. J.S. Mill
work ‘On Liberty’ gave a defence for
individual freedom of thought and
expression.
5. (d) Italian Communist Antonio
Gramsci wrote at length in his “Prison
Notebooks” on the obstacles to the
revolution he advocated. For him, “civil
society,” meaning all the social structures
outside the state, was the “hegemonic”
force capable of “turning necessity into
‘freedom.’” He said in the West, there
was a proper relation between State and
civil society, and when the State trembled
a sturdy structure of civil society was at
once revealed. The State was only an
outer ditch behind which there stood
a powerful system of fortresses and
earthworks.”
6. (a) Rawls theory of justice does not
contain the characteristics of hobbesian
social contract. The hobbesian social
contract is forming a absolute authority
that is infaliable and hid human nature
hypothesis presented human as cruel and
selfish being.
7. (c) B.R. Ambedkar was against
the mixing of religion with politics. He
respected the tradition of Bhakti but
rejects its use in political activity. He
believed that it will result into creation
of dictatorship.
8. (d) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar,
commonly known as Swatantryaveer
Savarkar was a fearless freedom fighter,
social reformer, writer, dramatist,
poet, historian, political leader and
philosopher. He remains largely
unknown to the masses because of the
vicious propaganda against him and
misunderstanding around him that has
been created over several decades.
9. (d) According to Easton,
(1962) the intellectual foundations of
Behaviouralism consist of eight major
tenets:
•• Regularities: Discoverable uniformities
in political behaviour which can be
expressed in theory-like statements.
•• Verification: Validity of such theory
like statements can be verified.
•• Techniques: Means for acquiring
and interpreting data.
•• Quantification: Precision in the
recording of data.
•• Values: Objective scientific inquiry
has to be value free or value neutral.
•• Systematization: Close interrelationship
between theory and research.
•• Pure Science: Directed towards
forging a link between theoretical
understanding of politics and
application of theory to practical
problem-solving.
•• Integration: Integration of political
science with other social sciences.
10. (d) Fukuyama is known for his
book ‘The End of History and the Last
Man’ (1992), which argued that the
worldwide spread of liberal democracies
and free market capitalism of the West
115
and its lifestyle may signal the end point
of humanity’s sociocultural evolution
and become the final form of human
government.
11. (d) The Major trends in
comparative studies since 1950s include
system theories, culture theories, class
theories and development theories.
12. (c) The circulation of elite is a
theory of regime change described by
Italian social scientist Vilfredo Pareto.
Hungtington gave the concept of
modernization as a multifaceted process.
David Easton in his system theory discuss
about the role of political institution as
gate kepper. Karl Deutsch propagated
the concept of receptor.
13. (b) David Easton’s ‘systems
theory’, though developed for ‘construc-
tivist’ purposes and is a conceptual
framework for analysing politics, yet it
is useful for constructing an empirical
theory of Political Science as well as
using it in understanding actual forces
operating in a political system. Under
this theory he made a distinction
between system maintenance and system
persistence.
14. (d) The civic culture was written
by Gabriel Almond in 1963. The end of
history was published in 1992 by Francis
Fukuyama. Democratization: Theory
and Practice was published in 2011.
Comparative Federalism was published
in 2017.
15. (c) The phrase due process of law
first appeared in a statutory rendition of
Magna Carta in 1354 during the reign of
Edward III of England. The text What
Is to Be Done? from 1902 is popularly
seen as the founding text of democratic
centralism. At this time, democratic
centralism was generally viewed as a
set of principles for the organizing of
a revolutionary workers’ party. Lenin
described democratic centralism as
consisting of “freedom of discussion,
unity of action”. New Democracy, or
the New Democratic Revolution, is a
concept based on Mao Zedong’s “Bloc
of Four Social Classes” theory in post-
revolutionary China in 1950s which
 116
argued originally that democracy in
China would take a decisively distinct
path to that in any other country.
Feedback concept is part of system
theory proposed David Easton in 1965.
16. (b) The Indian judiciary is consi-
dered as the guarantor and coustodian of
Indian constitution. It has the sole power
to interpretate the constitution. The
Supreme Court of India has the review
power to declare any parliamentary
legislation as unconstitutional.
17. (c) The Federalist Papers consist of
eighty-five letters written to newspapers
in the late 1780s to urge ratification of the
U.S. Constitution. With the Constitution
needing approval from nine of thirteen
states, the press was inundated with
letters about the controversial document.
Celebrated statesmen Alexander
Hamilton, James Madison and John Jay
weighed in with a series of essays under
the pseudonym “Publius,” arguing that
the proposed system would preserve the
Union and empower the federal govern-
ment to act firmly and coherently in the
national interest.
18. (a) Joseph-Marie, Comte de Maistre
(April 1, 1753 - February 26, 1821) was
a Savoyard lawyer, diplomat, writer, and
philosopher who, after being uprooted by
the French Revolution, became a great
exponent of the conservative tradition.
He was one of the most influential
spokesmen for a counter-revolutionary
and authoritarian conservatism in the
period immediately following the French
Revolution of 1789. De Maistre argued
for the restoration of hereditary monarchy,
which he regarded as a divinely sanctioned
institution, and for the indirect authority
of the Pope over temporal matters as a
prerequisite for stability in Europe.
19. (c) Political parties may be princi-
pally defined by their common aim. They
seek political power either singly or in co-
operation with other political parties. As
Joseph Schumpeter has observed: ‘The
first and foremost aim of each political
party is to prevail over the others in order
to get into power or to stay in it.’ It is
this goal of attaining political power that
distinguishes political parties from other
groups in the political system, although
the distinction is rather blurred at times,
especially in regard to pressure groups.
20. (a) The Political development
approach basically focus on the process
of political transformation of any
country. This approach before second
world war focuses on the study of
developed countries like USA and UK.
Due to this it had been severely criticized
by the scholar of post-colonial era.
21. (a) The preamble of the Indian
Constitution serves as a brief introductory
statement of the Constitution that sets
out the guiding purpose, principles and
philosophy of the Indian Constitution.
The Preamble of Indian Constitution–
•• We, The People of India, having
solemnly resolved to constitute India
into a Sovereign Socialist Secular
Democratic Republic and to secure
to all its citizens:
•• Justice, social, economic and political;
•• Liberty of thought, expression, belief,
faith and worship;
•• Equality of status and of opportunity;
•• Fraternity assuring the dignity of the
individual and the unity and integrity
of the Nation.
22. (b) The Fundamental Rights guar-
anteed by Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22,
23, 24, 25, 26, 27 and 28 are available to
all persons whether citizens or foreigners.
These are as follows: Equality before law
and equal protection of laws (Article 14).
Protection in respect of conviction for
offences (Article 20). Protection of life
and personal liberty (Article 21). Right
to elementary education (Article 21A).
Protection against arrest and detention in
certain cases (Article 22). Prohibition of
traffic in human beings and forced labour
(Article 23). Prohibition of employment
of children in factories etc., (Article
24). Freedom of conscience and free
profession, practice and propagation of
religion (Article 25) an other.
23. (d) Attorney General of India is
appointed by the President of India under
Article 76 (1) of the Constitution and holds
office till the pleasure of the President. He
must be a person qualified to be appointed
as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Articles 76 and 78 of the Indian
constitution, envisages that there
should be an Attorney General of India.
The Attorney General of India is the
highest law officer of the country. He is
Solved Paper-II, June-2015
responsible to assist the Central govern-
ment in its all legal matters.
24. (c) The Union Parliament has the
power to create or abolish the legislative
Council in various States on the basis
of resolutions adopted by two thirds
majority in the respective Assembly.
Article 169 has given power to the States
to set up the Council or abolish it.
25. (b) The chairman and member of
State public service commission occupy
office for 6 years or till they reach 62 years.
They can resign by writing to Governor
and also be removed by president before
their term expires. Grounds for removal
are proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
In this case president has to refer matter
to SC and if SC inquiry finds him guilty
then SC can advice removal. This advice
is binding on president. Other grounds are
engages in paid employment, becomes
bankrupt or in presidents opinion is unfit
to continue due to infirm body or mind.
Governor can suspend the chairman or
member pending investigation. Governor
can appoint acting chairman from amongst
the members if the office of chairman falls
vacant or chairman can’t discharge duties.
26. (c) If approved by both houses
of Parliament then President Rule
shall continue for 6 months and it can
be renewed for maximum of 3 yrs by
approval of Parliament after every 6
months.
27. (b) Constitution Amendment Bills
passed by Parliament by the prescribed
special majority and, where necessary,
ratified by the requisite number of
State Legislatures are presented to
the President under Article 368 of the
Constitution under which the President
is bound to give his assent to such Bills.
28. (a) Parliament makes laws on
subjects in State List in the following
scenarios -
•• When Rajya Sabha passes a
resolution to that effect
•• During a National Emergency
•• When States make a request for it
•• For implementing International
Agreements
•• During President’s Rule
Solved Paper-II, June-2015
29. (c) If the motion is admitted, the
Speaker or Chairman (who receives it) will
constitute a three-member committee to
investigate the complaint. It will comprise:
(i) a Supreme Court Judge; (ii) Chief Justice
of a High Court; and (iii) a distinguished
jurist. The committee will frame charges
based on which the investigation will be
conducted. A copy of the charges will be
forwarded to the judge who can present
a written defence. After concluding its
investigation, the Committee will submit
its report to the Speaker or Chairman, who
will then lay the report before the relevant
House of Parliament. If the report records
a finding of misbehaviour or incapacity,
the motion for removal will be taken up for
consideration and debated.
30. (b)
India Against – Anna Hazare
Corruption
Narmada Bachao – Medha Patkar
Andolan
Right to Informa- – Aruna Roy
tion Movement
Bhartiya Kisan – Mahendra
Union Singh Tikait
31. (c)
M.P. Follett – Psychological
Approach
Herbert Simon – Rational Approach
Michael D. – Garbage can
Cohen Model
Amitai Etzioni – Mixed Scanning
32. (d) SICA seeks to bring together
members of the American Society
for Public Administration committed
to introducing an international and
comparative perspective into public
administration practice and academic
endeavors. SICA provides a forum for
practitioners, instructors and researchers
to share experiences and to reflect on
challenges facing the field worldwide.
33. (d)
34. (c) Auxiliary agencies are the
agencies which serve the line agencies
rather than the public. They perform
functions common to all the departments.
For example; PWD.
35. (a) Formal Leader is not one among
the category of leaders classified by
Mooney and Reiley in their classification
of leadership.
36. (d) According to Austin Rammey
public policy include following element:
•• A particular object or set of object
•• A desired course of events
•• A selected line of action
•• A declaration of intent
37. (d) The Assheton Committee on
the Training of the Civil Servants in
U.K. (1944) has very well explained the
main objectives of training in the words.
“In any large-scale organisation,
efficiency depends on two elements, the
technical efficiency of the individual to
do the particular work allotted to him
and the less tangible efficiency of the
organisation as a corporate body derived
from the collective spirit and outlook
of the individuals of which the body is
composed. Training must have regard to
both elements.”
38. (c) Taft Commission was a body
appointed by the President to exercise
legislative and limited executive powers
in the Philippines. It was first appointed
by President McKinley in 1900 under his
executive authority.
The President’s Committee on
Administrative Management, commonly
known as the Brownlow Committee
or Brownlow Commission, was a
committee that in 1937 recommended
sweeping changes to the executive
branch of the United States government.
The Hoover Commission, officially
named the Commission on Organization
of the Executive Branch of the
Government, was a body appointed by
President Harry S. Truman in 1947 to
recommend administrative changes in
the Federal Government of the United
States. The Private Sector Survey on
Cost Control (PSSCC), commonly
referred to as The Grace Commission,
was an investigation requested by
United States President Ronald Reagan,
authorized in Executive Order 12369 on
117
June 30, 1982. In doing so President
Reagan used the now famous phrase,
“Drain the swamp”.
39. (c) Robert K. Merton described
bureaucracy as the class of ruling
servant. As he believes that bureaucrats
have excessive control over governance
in bureaucratic model of government.
40. (c) The 42nd Amendment to the
Constitution introduced Part XIV-A
which included Article 323A and 323B
providing for constitution of tribunals
dealing with administrative matters and
other issues.
41. (d)
42. (a) Winning Without War was
written by Amitai Etzioni in 1964.
43. (a) In international relations theory,
the bargaining model of war is a means to
represent the potential gains and losses
and ultimate outcome of war between
two actors as a bargaining interaction.
In the 1960s, Thomas Schelling claimed
that most conflicts was a bargaining
interaction and defined the end of World
War II in bargaining rather than military
terms. Formal BMoWs were introduced
in the 1980s.
44. (c) Old diplomacy is a term
which has been used both politically and
analytically since the French Revolution.
Politically, it emerged as a term of abuse,
used to criticize all which had been
wrong with interstate interaction before
1789, in particular secrecy, duplicity,
and the reliance on aristocracy.
45. (c) Asian collective security system
was founded in 1969 by Soviet Union
leader Brezhnev.
46. (a) Article 52 provides for the
involvement of regional arrangements
or agencies in the peaceful settlement
of disputes; Article 53 allows such
arrangements to take enforcement action,
but only with explicit authorization by the
Security Council. Article 53, therefore,
creates a mechanism that allows the
Council to utilize regional arrangements
to implement its enforcement measures.
Finally, Article 54 stipulates that
regional arrangements or agencies shall
inform the Council of their activities for
the maintenance of international peace
and security at all times.
 118
47. (d) The Association of Southeast
Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was
established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok,
Thailand. There are 10 permanent
members of this association. The basic
objective behind the establishment of this
organisation is to promote economic co-
operation in South-East Asia and ensure
the economic stability in this region. Its
headquarters is in Jakarta (Indonesia).
Indonesia, Thailand, Philippines,
Singapore, Malaysia, Vietnam, Brunei,
Cambodia, Myanmar (Burma), Laos.
48. (c) The Security Council originally
consisted of 11 members—five permanent
members (the Republic of China
[Taiwan], France, the Soviet Union, the
United Kingdom, and the United States)
and six nonpermanent members elected
by the UN General Assembly for two-year
terms. An amendment to the UN Charter
in 1965 increased council membership to
15, including the original five permanent
members and 10 nonpermanent members.
49. (d) In March, India and France
inked on an agreement to expedite the
Jaitapur nuclear power plant project, with
the aim of commencing work at the site
by year-end. Once installed, the Jaitapur
Solved Paper-II, June-2015
project will be the largest nuclear power
plant in the world, with a total capacity
of 9,600 MW.
50. (b) Listed below are the Summit
Conferences held by the Non-Aligned
Movement (NAM) up until today:
•• 1st Summit: 1961, Belgrade,
Yugoslavia
•• 2nd Summit: 1964, Cairo, Egypt
•• 3rd Summit: 1970, Lusaka, Zambia
•• 4th Summit: 1973, Algiers, Algeria
•• 5th Summit: 1976, Colombo, Sri
Lanka
qqq
Solved Paper-III, June-2015
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-III, June-2015
1. Who among the following said
that “post-behaviouralism was a
genuine revolution, not a reaction;
a becoming, not a preservation; a
reform, not a counter reformation”?
(a) James Bryce
(b) Charles E. Merriam
(c) David Easton
(d) G. A. Almond
2. Who among the following said, ‘we
can not shed our values in the way
we remove our coats’?
(a) Leo Strauss
(b) Alfred Cobban
(c) Jean Blondel
(d) David Easton
3. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g
characterised early liberalism as
‘possessive individualism’?
(a) F. A. Hayek
(b) Robert Nozick
(c) C. B. MacPherson
(d) Rawls
4. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Identify the correct answer.
Assertion (A): F. A. Hayek portrayed
state intervention and collectivism,
even in their moderate forms, as
inevitably leading to an erosion of
Liberty.
Reason (R): He is a supporter
of Laissez-faire and opponent of
Keynesian economics and the welfare
state.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
5. Which one of the following state-
ments is not true?
(a) Marx drew distinction between
‘ideology’ and ‘science’.
(b) Napoleon denounced ideology as
cloudy metaphysics that ignored
history and reality.
(c) de Tracy coined the term ideology.
(d) Daniel Bell talked of ‘ideology
without an end’.
6. For whom, “ideas” and not the
“material conditions of production”
are the effective causes of revolu-
tion?
(a) Karl Marx (b) Lenin
(c) Engels (d) Stalin
7. Which of the following statements
is false with respect to Platos ideas?
(a) Division of functions does not rest
on difference of aptitude.
(b) State is assumed to be merely
individual writ large.
(c) Athenian women were not allowed
to participate in politics.
(d) Ignorance and incompetence
of politicians is the cause of
democracy.
8. Which of the following is not an
expression of the constitutional rule
of Aristotle?
(a) Rule in public interest
(b) A lawful rule
(c) A Government of willing subjects
(d) Inconsistent with the dignity of
the subjects
9. Who of the following said that
felicity is “continued success in
obtaining those things which a man
from time to time desires”?
119
(a) Bentham (b) J.S. Mill
(c) Hobbes (d) Rousseau
10. Who of the following notes the
existence of legislative, executive
and federative powers of the state?
(a) Hobbes (b) Locke
(c) Rousseau (d) J. Bentham
11. Which of the following is not an
idea of Rousseau?
(a) A thinking man is a depraved
animal
(b) Science is the fruit of idle curiosity
(c) Philosophy is mere intellectual
frippery
(d) General will is the sum total of
wills
12. For J.S. Mill which one of the
following is not true?
(a) Pleasures differ in quality
(b) The felicific calculus is absurd
(c) The principle of utility is the final
end of life
(d) Liberty consists in doing what one
desires
13. For Karl Marx who among the
following is not a Utopian socialist?
(a) St. Simon (b) Proudhon
(c) Fourier (d) Engels
14. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R). Select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Assertion (A): For Gandhiji,
satyagraha is not identical to passive
resistance.
Reason (R): Satyagraha denoted a
legitimate, moral and truthful form of
political action by the people against
the Brutal state power.
 120
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
15. Who coined the slogan “No control,
no co-operation”?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) J. Nehru
(c) Aurobindo
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
16. What is the correct sequence of the
following characteristics of political
development?
(A) Capacity
(B) Equality
(C) Differentiation
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (B), (A) and (C)
(c) (C), (A) and (B)
(d) (C), (B) and (A)
17. What is according to David Easton,
the correct sequence of the following
regulatory mechanisms?
(A) Socio-cultural norms
(B) Communication channels
(C) Gate-keeping at the boundary
(D) Reduction processes
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (C), (B) and (D)
(b) (C), (A), (B) and (D)
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (D), (B), (A) and (C)
18. Match the following and select the
correct pairs:
List–I List–II
 (Authors) (Books)
(A) Arend (i) Comparative
Lijphart Federalism
(B) Thomas (ii) Comparing
Hueglin Federal System
Solved Paper-III, June-2015
(C) Giovanni (iii) Patterns of (B) It is simply an advisory body.
Sartori Democracy: (C) It is collectively responsible to
Government the congress.
forms and (D) The members of the cabinet quite
performance often take part in the congress
in thirty-six debates to defend the policy of
countries the Government.
(D) Ronald (iv) Comparative Select the correct answer from the
L. Watts constitutional codes given below:
Engineering:
(a) (A) and (C)
An Inquiry into
structures, (b) (A) and (B)
(c) (B) and (D)
incentives and
outcomes (d) (A), (B) and (D)
Codes: 22. Direct democracy is not possible in
A B C D the modern times because:
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (a) People are indifferent towards the
affairs of state.
(b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(b) Political parties are opposed to it.
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c) Propertied classes oppose it.
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(d) Of the practical difficulties posed
19. Which of the following statements by the size and population of
is not correct? modern state.
(a) Political culture is a set of basic 23. Who among the following has given
political attitudes. ‘sleeping dogs’ theory of democratic
(b) Political culture cannot be culture?
empirically studied. (a) Lucian Pye and Robert E. Ward
(c) The study of political culture (b) James S. Coleman and Myron
focuses on attitude of people and Weiner
their likely effects on politics. (c) James C. Charlesworth and F.W.
(d) Political culture has a companion Riggs
approach i.e. political socialisa- (d) Almond and Verba
tion. 24. Who among the following has
20. In which of the following countries coined the terms ‘The stick’, ‘The
the residuary powers rest with the deal’, ‘The kiss’, for influencing the
decisions?
states/units?
(a) E.E. Schattschneider
(A) U.S.A. (B) India
(b) Keith Boulding
(C) Switzerland (D) Australia
(c) Robert Dahl
Select the correct answer from the
(d) Kate Millet
codes given below:
25. Which one of the following is a
Codes:
character of “Co-operative Federa-
(a) (A) and (C)
lism”?
(b) (C) and (D)
(a) A spirit of competition and rivalry
(c) (A) and (D) between the centre and the state.
(d) (A), (C) and (D) (b) Co-operation secured on the basis
21. Which of the following statements of strong centre.
are correct? (c) Decentralization and more state
(a) Cabinet is an extra-constitution responsibility.
institution in the United States (d) A spirit of co-operation among
of America. states.
Solved Paper-III, June-2015
26. Which one of the following practices
is employed in the American
legislative process in order to delay
a particular legislation?
(a) Gerrymandering
(b) Filibustering
(c) Log Rolling
(d) Spoils System
27. The power that makes the Supreme
Court of America the third
Chamber of the legislative is:
(a) Original
31. Match List–I with List–II and
(b) Appellate
(c) Advisory
(d) Judicial Review
28. Who among the following has  
defined “political power” as the  
“relationship in which one person
or a group is able to determine the
actions of another in the direction
of the former’s own end”?
(a) Bertrand Russel
(b) Habermas
(c) Morgenthau
(d) David Easton
29. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Bureaucracy is an
important feature of all democratic
governments.
Reason (R): Bureaucracy is an
ancient institution.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
32. The Constituent Assembly of India
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
30. Given below are two statements,
one is labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Identify the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Comparative politics
is a science of politics.
Reason (R): Comparative politics
relies on empirical method of study.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
identify the correct answer from
the codes given below:
List–I List–II
(Approach to study (Name of Book
Indian Politics) and Author)
(A) Historical (i) Parliament in
Approach India, Morris
Jones
(B) Institutional (ii) The
Approach Integration of
Indian States,
V.P. Menon
(C) Legal (iii) The
Approach modernity of
Tradition,
Rudolph and
Rudolph
(D) Politico- (iv) The Republic
sociological of India,
Approach Allen
Gledhill
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (i) (iii) (ii) iv)
(b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
comprised of:
(a) 292 members from British
provinces, 4 from Chief Com-
missionaires and 93 from Princely
States
(b) 294 members from British
provinces, 4 from Chief Com-
missionaires and 91 from Princely
States
121
(c) 291 members from British
provinces, 3 from Chief Com-
missionaires and 95 from Princely
States
(d) 292 members from British
provinces, 5 from Chief Com-
missionaires and 92 from Princely
States
33. Match List–I with List–II and
identify the correct answer from
the codes given below:
List–I List–II
(Name of (Directive
Philosophy) Principle)
(A) Welfarism (i) Promotion of
cottage
industry
(B) Socialism (ii) Better health
and living
standard
(C) Gandhian (iii) Promotion of
philosophy international
peace and
security
(D) Internationa- (iv) Equal pay
lism for equal
work
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
34. In which part and article of the
Constitution of India, Fundamental
Duties have been mentioned:
(a) Part IV, Article 51
(b) Part III, Article 51
(c) Part IV (A), Article 51 (A)
(d) Part III (A), Article 51 (A)
35. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer using
the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Ordinances provide
minority governments with a
useful device, but one that is now
increasingly difficult to convert
into legislation once parliament has
covered.
 122
Reason (R): Recent coalition
governments have used ordinances
to avoid debating legislation with
their partners as much as with the
opposition.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
36. Under which article/articles, the
High Courts and the Supreme
Court can issue writs?
(a) Articles 44 and 45
(b) Articles 123 and 213
(c) Articles 32 and 226
(d) Articles 53 and 153
37. Identify the incorrect pair.
(Name of State) (Demand for
New State)
(a) Gujarat : Saurashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh : Gorkhaland
(c) Rajasthan : Marupradesh
(d) Maharashtra : Vidarbha
38. Which of the following Committee
voiced concern about ‘Criminaliza-
tion of politics and politicization of
criminals’?
(a) Tarakunde Committee
(b) Sachhar Committee
(c) Vohra Committee
(d) Indrajeet Gupta Committee
39. The study of state politics as an
autonomous discipline has been
primarily an outcome of:
(a) Rise of regional parties
(b) Rise of voter’s turn out
(c) New local governance system
(d) Non-party political movements
40. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from codes
given below:
Solved Paper-III, June-2015
List–I List–II (c) (C) and (D)
(Concept) (Thinkers) (d) (A), (C) and (D)
(A) Multi-culturalism (i) Friedrik
44. For the First time the communist
A.
Hayek party of India came into power in
the state of:
(B) Post-modernism (ii) Bhikhu
Parekh (a) West Bengal (b) Tripura
(C) Libertariansim (iii) Amitai (c) Kerala (d) Goa
Etzioni
45. Which one of the following rights
(D) Communitari- (iv) Michel
was recognized by the Supreme
anism Foucault
Court in the Selvy Case Judgement
Codes:
(2010)?
A B C D
(a) Right to Mental Privacy
(a) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(b) Right to purchase property in
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Jammu and Kashmir
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(c) Right to form pressure groups
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(d) NOTA (None of the above)
41. Which one of the following pairs is
46. Arrange the following phases in the
not correctly matched:
(Authors)  (Books) evolution of public administration
(a) S.M. Lipset : Political man: as a discipline in chronological
The Social Bases order using the codes given below:
of politics (A) Ecological approach
(b) Lenin: : Neo-colonialism: (B) Principles approach
The highest stage (C) Politics-Administration dicho-
of Imperialism tomy
(c) L. Anderson : Transitions to (D) Public Policy approach
Democracy Codes:
(d) Charles Tilly : From (a) (C), (A), (D), (B)
Mobilisation to (b) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Revolution (c) (B), (C), (A), (D)
42. Who was the Chairman of the (d) (C), (B), (A), (D)
inaugural session of constituent 47. Match List–I with List–II and select
assembly?
the correct answer from codes
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar given below:
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad List–I List–II
(c) Dr. Sacchidanand (Books) (Authors)
(d) Sardar Patel (A) Frontiers of (i) Braibanti
43. Which of the following are statutory Development
bodies? Administration
(A) University Grants Commission (B) Political and (ii) Ferrel
(B) Union Public Service Commission Administrative Heady
(C) National Commission for Human Development
Rights (C) Bureaucracy (iii) Fred W.
(D) N a t i o n a l C o m m i s s i o n f o r and Political Riggs
Minorities Development
Select the correct answer from the (D) Public (iv) J. La-
codes given below: Administration: Palombara
(a) (A) and (B) A Comparative
(b) (B) and (C) Perspective
Solved Paper-III, June-2015
Codes:
A B C D and choose the correct answer
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) using the codes given below:
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) The Civil Service Reform Act 1978
(c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (A) Procurator (i) France
48. Which one of the following
statements about systems approach
to organisation is not correct?
(a) It is derived from one general
systems theory
(b) It leads to certain fundamental
principles of organisation
(c) It studies the organisation as a
whole in relation to its environ-
ment
(d) It views the organisation and its
environment as interdependent
for inputs and resources
49. In his ‘Principles of administration’,
Pfiffner did not include:
(a) Material and supply
(b) Functions and powers of local
authorities
(c) Methods and procedure
(d) Administrative accountability
50. ‘Public Choice Approach’ to public
administration came into existence
in the:
(a) 1890s (b) 1920s
(c) 1940s (d) 1960s
51. Who has analyzed leadership in
terms of ‘circular response’?
(a) L. Urwick (b) H. Simon
(c) C.I. Barnard (d) M.P. Follett
52. Which one of the following is not
a feature of Barnard’s theory of
formal organisation?
(a) General incentives
(b) Common purpose
(c) Communications
(d) Willingness to cooperate
53. Which one of the following com-
mittees dealt with political activities
of civil servants in Britain?
(a) Masterman Committee
(b) Plowden Committee
(c) Assheton Committee
(d) Northcote-Trevelyan Committee
54. Consider the following statements
of the United States of America
introduced:
(A) Performance budgeting system
(B) Merit pay provision for middle
managerial personnel
(C) Performance appraisal system
(D) Office of Personnel Management
Codes:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (B) and (D)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A) and (D)
55. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer using
the codes given below:
Assertion (A): “Henry Fayol
identified five elements as the primary
functions of management activity”.
Reason (R): According to Henri
Fayol, “knowledge of administration
is needed at higher levels of an
organisation, rather than technical
knowledge”.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
56. Functional specialization in the
Indian Administrative service was
recommended by:
(a) First Administrative Reforms
Commission
(b) Satish Chandra Committee
(c) Appleby Report
(d) Sarkaria Commission
57. ‘Delegated legislation’ is not:
(a) Subordinate legislation
(b) Executive legislation
(c) Ordinance making power
(d) Rule making power
123
58. Match List–I with List–II and
choose the correct answer using the
codes given below:
List–I List–II
(Citizen’s grievance (Countries)
redressal)
system
(B) Administrative (ii) Russia
Courts
(C) Ombudsman (iii) Britain
(D) Parliamentary (iv) Sweden
commissioner
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(b) (ii) (i) (iv) iii)
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
59. The system of Efficiency Rating
for scientifically assessing the
performance of public officials for
promotion first originated in:
(a) China (b) Japan
(c) U.S.A. (d) U.K.
60. Ashok Mehta Committee in 1977
recommended for the establishment
of:
(a) Nagar Panchayat
(b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Maha Panchayat
(d) Mandal Panchayat
61. Who among the following is
associated with the concept of
Realistic Liberalism?
(a) E.H. Carr
(b) Robert Byrd
(c) George Kennan
(d) John Herz
62. Bachract and Baratz have men-
tioned about the three classes of
International Relations to control
the conduct of states. Which of the
following are the three classes?
(A) Influence Relationship
(B) Force Relationship
(C) Legitimate Relationship
(D) Power Relationship
 124
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (D), (C) and (B)
(d) (B), (C) and (A)
63. Which one of the following books
was written by E.H. Carr?
(a) The open society and its enemies
(b) Twenty years crisis
(c) Political Realism and Political
Idealism
(d) The Realities of American Foreign
Policy
64. Frants Faron was the first scholar
to use the term “Third World”. To
which country he belonged?
(a) France (b) England
(c) Algeria (d) Egypt
65. Which of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
  Author Book
(a) William : The Growth of
C. Olson a Discipline
(b) G.F. : American
Kennan Diplomacy
(c) Russel H. : The
Fifield Introductory
Course in
International
Relations
(d) Robert : International
Strausz-Hupe Relations: A
and Stefan General Theory
Possony (b) Military Power
Answers with Explanations
1. (c) Dealing with post-behaviouralism
as a revolution Easton makes the following
observation: “Post-behaviouralism seeks to
propel political science in new directions….
This new deve­lopment is then a genuine
revolution, not a reaction, a becoming,
not a preservation, a reform and not a
counter-reformation”. So we find that post-
behaviouralism never makes any attempt to
66. Who condemned Non-alignment as
a selfish policy?
(a) Morgenthau
(b) William Johnstone
(c) Schwarzenberger
(d) Edward Crankshaw
67. Who among the following are
supporters of Realistic Approach
in International Politics?
(A) Couloumbis and Wolfe
(B) Fredrick schuman
(C) Nicholas spykman
(D) E.H. Carr
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (C)
68. Who among the following had
declared that arms race in itself is
experience of terror?
(a) Hadley Bull
(b) Arnold Toynbee
(c) Kenneth Boulding
(d) Lynn Miller
69. Which of the following countries
was a part of recently concluded
P5+1 Nuclear Argument?
(a) Japan (b) Australia
(c) India (d) Germany
70. Which of the following is not a form
of National Power?
(a) Social Power
look backwards, it is not willing to remain
satisfied with what has happened. Its motto
is to go ahead.”
2. (d) David Easton while elaborating
his behavioural theory made a statement
that “we cannot shed our values in the
way we remove our coats”. By this he
mean to explain that values are integral
to human beings and cannot be separated
from them.
Solved Paper-III, June-2015
(c) Psychological Power
(d) Economic Power
71. Which of the following countries is
not a member of SAARC?
(a) Maldives (b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal (d) Afghanistan
72. Which of the following scholars
of International Politics did not
subscribe to this view that no
social science can survive without
idealistic aspects?
(a) Herbert Butterfield
(b) E.H. Carr
(c) Reinhold Niebuhr
(d) Arnold Wolters
73. Which of the following is also called
as Total Disarmament?
(a) Qualitative Disarmament
(b) Quantitative Disarmament
(c) General Disarmament
(d) Comprehensive Disarmament
74. Who stated that, “International
Politics includes analysis of political
relations and problems of peace
among nations”?
(a) Charles Scheichar
(b) Norman Padelford
(c) Harold Sprout
(d) H.J. Morgenthau
75. Which member State of ASEAN had
joined this regional organisation in
1999?
(a) Laos
(b) Myanmar
(c) Combodia
(d) Vietnam
3. (c) C. B. Macpherson was a political
philosopher who placed a genuinely
novel interpretation on the history of
political thought in ‘The Political Theory
of Possessive Individualism: Hobbes to
Locke’ in 1962. The individualism that
Macpherson identifies is of a specific
sort; it is “possessive” individualism.
4. (a)
Solved Paper-III, June-2015
5. (d) “Daniel Bell’s The End of
Ideology is one of the Times Literary
Supplement’s “100 most influential non-
fiction books published since the Second
World War.” A total ideology,” Bell
explained in his most famous book, “is
an all-inclusive system of comprehensive
reality, it is a set of beliefs, infused with
passion, and seeks to transform the whole
of a way of life. This commitment to
ideology—the yearning for a ‘cause,’ or
the satisfaction of deep moral feelings—is
not necessarily the reflection of interests
in the shape of ideas. Ideology, in this
sense, and in the sense that we use it
here, is a secular religion.”
6. (b) Vladimir Lenin was a Russian
revolutionary leader and theorist, who
presided over the first government
of Soviet Russia and then that of the
Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
(USSR). Lenin was the leader of the
radical socialist Bolshevik Party (later
renamed the Communist Party), which
seized power in the October phase of the
Russian Revolution of 1917. After the
revolution, Lenin headed the new Soviet
government that formed in Russia. He
became the leader of the USSR upon its
founding in 1922.
7. (a) Plato distributed the function
among people based on their aptitude.
He said the ruling class will be learned
or philosopher and the people with
courage will be soldier and people with
appetite will be indulge in agricultural
and bussiness activity.
8. (d)
9. (c) Thomas Hobbes claims that
we aim at felicity, which he defines
as “continual success in obtaining
those things which a man from time to
time desireth, that is to say, continual
prospering”. In the broader context of
Hobbes’ thought, felicity is associated
with power, or the means to obtain
some good and one’s capacity to fulfill
their desires. For Hobbes, power, rather
than happiness, is the central human
motivation and he believes that we seek
happiness only in so far as we seek
power.
10. (b) In chapter 12–13 of his book
Second treaties on civil government,
John Locke specially elaborated about
the legislative, executive and federative
power of the commonwealth or
government and of the subordination of
the powers of the commonwealth.
11. (d) Jean-Jacques Rousseau’s concept
of the General Will roughly means “that
which is in the best interest of the people”
or “the public good,” and not just popular
consensus. It is not the sum of all wills
(as people can be influenced by corporate
wills, and then at that point they have a
roadblock to expressing the General Will).
It is not purely what the majority thinks
is best or what the smartest person in the
room thinks is best. The common good (an
ends of the general will) is a moral concept,
a concept of fairness and justice. It is that
which causes the most happiness and least
pain in the sovereign citizens. Even the
most enlightened version of the Utilitarian
theory only begins to describe the ideal of
the “General Will”.
12. (c) In On Liberty, J.S. Mill writes:
“I regard utility as the ultimate appeal on
all ethical questions; but it must be utility
in the largest sense, grounded on the
permanent interests of man as a progressive
being.” Mill believes that humans beings
are shaped by their experiences and
education, and, therefore, that they can
augment their higher capacities. Thus,
Mill’s utility principle aims not only
at the satisfaction of existing desires,
but also at human improvement. This
progressive dimension of his thought
recurs throughout his political writings.
13. (d) Marx and Engels used the
term “scientific socialism” to describe
the type of socialism they saw themselves
developing. According to Engels,
socialism was not “an accidental discovery
of this or that ingenious brain, but the
necessary outcome of the struggle between
two historically developed classes – the
proletariat and the bourgeoisie. The term
“utopian socialism” was introduced by
Karl Marx in “For a Ruthless Criticism of
Everything” in 1843 (and then developed
in The Communist Manifesto in 1848),
although shortly before its publication
Marx had already attacked the ideas
of Pierre-Joseph Proudhon. Utopian
socialism is a label used to define the
first currents of modern socialist thought
as exemplified by the work of Henri de
Saint-Simon, Charles Fourier, Étienne
Cabet and Robert Owen.
125
14. (a) Gandhian Way does not
seek to avoid conflict, but seeks to
face it squarely. Satyagraha is clearly
distinguished from passive resistance.
Satyagraha is the weapon of the strong,
one who is capable of self-suffering can
use it. That strength can come only by
following the path of truth with non-
violence as is emphasized in Satyagraha.
‘He who has not overcome all fear cannot
practice ahimsa to perfection. Just as love,
for Gandhi, was the other side of ahimsa,
courage for him was the counterpart of
self-suffering. He distinguished self-
suffering from cowardice. He said:
‘Where there is only one choice between
cowardice and violence, I would advise
violence.’ Truth plus non-violence plus
self-suffering constitute the essence of
Satyagraha.
15. (c) According to Aurobindo, law
imposed by the people on themselves had
a binding force, but a law imposed by
the outsiders had a moral sanction, and
if the law was unjust or oppressive, it
becomes a duty to disobey the same. He
further coined the slogan ‘no control, no
cooperation.
16. (b)
17. (b) The sequence of regulatory
mechanism by Easton is: Gate-keeping
at the boundary, Socio-Cultural norms,
communication channels and Reduction
processes.
18. (c)
Arend Lijphart – Patterns of
Democracy:
Government
forms and
performance in
thirty-six
Countries
Thomas Hueglin – Comparative
Federalism
Giovanni Sartori – Comparative
Constitutional
Engineering:
An Inquiry
into
structures,
incentives
and Outcomes
Ronald L. Watts – Comparing
Federal System
 126
19. (b) Political culture approach has
been very popular for conducting comp-
arative studies and making empirical
analyses of transitional societies.
Scholars have liked to investigate political
behaviour and processes in the context of
their political cultures. Almond, Verba
and Pye have been its pioneers. For
Almond, political system is a system
of roles which can be empirically
observed and understood scientically. He
studied, besides legal-institutions, family
relations, mass-behaviour, electoral
system, power, influence and the like.
20. (d) While residuary power is vested
with federal governments in Canada.
India, Belgium, it rests with the state
governments in the U.S.A., Australia,
Switzerland.
21. (b) Established in Article II, Section
2 of the Constitution, the Cabinet’s role is
to advise the President on any subject he
may require relating to the duties of each
member’s respective office. The United
States Constitution does not explicitly
establish a Cabinet. Members of the
Cabinet (except for the vice president)
are appointed by the President, subject
to confirmation by the Senate; once
confirmed, they serve at the pleasure of
the president, who can dismiss them at any
time without the approval of the Senate.
22. (d) There are several reasons.
Direct democracy comes with high costs
and high risks, it may lead to conflicts and
be emotional. As direct democracy often
requires nationwide votes and assemblies,
its economic, social and political costs will
be considerable. It may particularly give
rise to an over-politicisation of society,
resulting in the dominance of politics
over everything else. Direct democracy
is indeed a zero-sum game, an instrument
that aggravates social conflicts, it splits a
society between majorities and minorities,
and the minorities will find their positions,
interests and rights suppressed. Therefore,
direct democracy tends to bring about
unrest, intolerance and injustice.
23. (d) The classic work in Political
Culture was Almond and Verbas’s The
Civic culture, which used opinion surveys
to analyse political attitudes in democracy
in five countries; The USA, The UK,
West Germany, Italy and Mexico.
Almond and Verba’s sleeping dog theory
of democratic culture emphasises the
importance of passivity and deference.
24. (b) Decision-making – associated
with liberal and pluralist perceptions
focussing on who actually makes the
decisions. Boulding argues decision-
making influenced in three ways: the
stick (coercion), the deal (mutual benefit
through negotiation), and the kiss (sense
of loyalty and commitment to individual,
thus he has power).
25. (c) In Cooperative federalism
the Centre and states share a horizontal
relationship, where they “cooperate” in
the larger public interest.
•• It is an important tool to enable states’
participation in the formulation and
implementation of national policies.
•• Union and the states are constitu-
tionally obliged to cooperate with
each other on the matters specified
in the constitution.
26. (b) Using the filibuster to delay or
block legislative action has a long history.
The term filibuster—from a Dutch word
meaning “pirate”—became popular in the
1850s, when it was applied to efforts to
hold the Senate floor in order to prevent
a vote on a bill. In the early years of
Congress, representatives as well as
senators could filibuster. As the House
of Representatives grew in number,
however, revisions to the House rules
limited debate. In the smaller Senate,
unlimited debate continued on the grounds
that any senator should have the right to
speak as long as necessary on any issue.
27. (d) Judicial review is the power of
the U.S. Supreme Court to decide whether
a law or decision by the legislative or
executive branches of federal government,
or any court or agency of the state
governments is constitutional. The power
of judicial review was established in the
1803 Supreme Court case of Marbury v.
Madison.
28. (d) The view “Politics involves
power” has led a number of political
scientists of study the aspect of power in
public life. David Easton defines political
power as “a relationship in which one
person or group is able to determine the
actions of another in the direction of the
formers own ends”. Hans Morgenthau
Solved Paper-III, June-2015
defines it as “mans control over minds
and actions of other men”.
29. (b) Both the statement are true
in it self, but neither of them have any
relation with each other.
30. (a) Yes, its correct to say that
comparative politics is a science of
politics as it uses empirical data to for
research and study. Under comparative
politics political system are compared on
the basis of factual data.
31. (b) The Integration of Indian
states by V.P. Menon presented a
historical approach about Indian politics.
Parliament in India by Morris Jones used
institutional approach to the study of
Indian Politics. The Republic of India by
Allen Gledhill used legal approach in the
study of Indian Politics. The modernity
of tradition by Rudolph and Rudolph
presented Politico-Sociological approach
to the study of Indian Politics.
32. (a) 292 members were elected
through the Provincial Legislative
Assemblies. 93 members represented
the Indian Princely States. 4 members
represented the Chief Commissioners’
Provinces. The total membership of the
Assembly thus was to be 389.
33. (d)
Welfarism – Better health and
living standard
Socialism – Equal pay for
Equal work
Gandhian – Promotion of
philosophy cottage industry
Internationalism – Promotion of
international
peace and security
34. (c) The fundamental duties were
incorporated in Part IV-A of our constitution
by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act,
1976. Presently we have 11 fundamental
duties in our constitution under Article
51-A, which are statutory duties and are
enforceable by law. The idea behind the
incorporation of the fundamental rights
was to emphasise the obligation of the
citizen in exchange of the comprehensive
fundamental rights enjoyed by them.
35. (b) Both the statements are correct
separately, but they don’t have any relation
with each other. The second statement is
not a reason behind the comment made in
assertion.
Solved Paper-III, June-2015
36. (c) The Supreme Court issues the
Writ (under Art. 32) only in cases of
the violation of the Fundamental Rights,
whereas the High Courts (under Art.
226) can issue the writs not only for the
enforcement of the Fundamental Rights
but also for redressal of any other injury
or illegality, provided certain conditions
are satisfied. Thus in a way, the writ
jurisdiction of the High Court is wider
than the Supreme Court.
37. (b) Gorkhaland consists of Nepali-
speaking people of Darjeeling, Kalimpong,
Kurseong and other hilly districts of West-
Bengal. The people belonging to these
areas have ethical, cultural and language
differences with the Bengali community of
West-Bengal. The demand of Darjeeling
as a separate administrative region dates
back to 1907. But, the term “Gorkhaland”
was coined recently, in the 1980s, by
Subhash Ghising, the founder of Gorkha
National Liberation Front (GNLF). The
Gorkhaland Movement is a movement
mainly focused in the Darjeeling Hills of
West Bengal, which demands the creation
of a separate state of Gorkhaland.
38. (c) N.N. Vohra Committee, was
set up following a public outcry after the
blasts, submitted its report in October
1993 after its study of the problem
of criminalisation of politics and the
nexus among criminals, politicians and
bureaucrats in India. The committee
had concluded that agencies, including
the CBI, IB, RAW, had unanimously
expressed their opinion that the criminal
network was virtually running a parallel
government.
39. (a) A sharp rise in number of
regional parties in India during 1980s
opened the door for the study of state
politics of India. This created a separate
domain within the discipline of Indian
Politics and Government.
40. (b)
Multi-culturalism – Bhikhu Parekh
Post-modernism – Michel
Foucault
Libertarianism – Friedrik A.
Hayek
Communitarianism – Amitai Etzioni
41. (b) Lenin wrote ‘Imperialism:
The Highest Stage of Capitalism’ in
1916 in the middle of the carnage of the
First World War. The pamphlet was an
intervention in the sharp political debate
that had torn apart the international
socialist movement at the start of the
war, with nearly every socialist party in
Europe backing its own government in
the conflict.
42. (c) The Constituent Assembly
met for the first time in New Delhi on
9 December, 1946 in the Constitution
Hall which is now known as the Central
Hall of Parliament House. The inaug-
ural session began at 11 a.m. with the
introduction of Dr. Sachchidananda
Sinha, the temporary Chairman of the
Assembly.
43. (d) The University Grants Com-
mission (UGC) is a statutory body set up
under UGC Act 1956 ,with the Ministry
of Human Resource Development,
Government of India, entrusted with the
task of determination, coordination and
maintenance of standards in University
education. The National Human Rights
Commission (NHRC) and State Human
Rights Commission (SHRCs) are
statutory, non-constitutional bodies,
established in 1993 under an act of
Parliament, the Protection of Human
Rights Act, 1993. National Human
Rights Commission is a quasi-judicial
body and not a constitutional body.
With the enactment of the National
Commission for Minorities Act,
1992, the Minorities Commission was
transformed into a statutory body and
renamed as National Commission for
Minorities. The Commission derives
its powers from the provisions of NCM
Act, 1992.
44. (c) Communist Party of India for
the first time came to power in Kerala
in 1957. It was for the first time in
independent India that a non-congress
party came into power in any state.
45. (a) The 2010 judgment of the
Supreme Court in Selvi vs State of
Karnataka where, in striking down police
interrogation techniques such as narco-
analysis and brain-mapping, the Court
provided its most detailed and considered
analysis of bodily (and mental) privacy
under Articles 20(3) and 21 of the
Constitution.
127
46. (d) There are five stages in the
chronology of the evolution of Public
Administration as a discipline:
Stage 1: politics administration dicho-
tomy (1887–1926)
Stage 2: principles of administration
(1927–1937)
Stage 3: era of challenge (1938–1947)
Stage 4: crises of identity-ecological
approach (1948–1970)
Stage 5: Public policy perspective
(1971–Onwards)
47. (b)
Frontiers of – Fred.W.Riggs
Development
Administrative
Political and – Braibanti
Administrative
Development
Bureaucracy – J. LaPalombara
and Political
Development
Public admini- – Ferrel Heady
stration: A
Comparative
Perspective
48. (b) The system approach implies
that the organization is seen as a complete
entity. A general system definition, such
as it is found in the Oxford Dictionary,
sounds thus: “Complex whole, set of
connected things or parts, organized
body of material or immaterial things.”
49. (b) Pfiffner did not include the
power and functions of local administra-
tion in his ‘Principle of Administration’.
50. (d) Public Choice theory is the
application of economics to the study
of public administration. Public choice
is defined by Dennis Mueller as “the
economic study of non-market decision
making or simply the application of
economics to political science”. It came
into existence in 1960s.
51. (d) The concept of circular response,
developed in Creative Experience and in
later essays and lectures, is her principal
contribution to the analysis of failures of
integration. Circular response rests upon
the theory that the unit of social analysis
is the pattern of relations between actors,
conceived as a single situation produced
by a union of their interests. No response
by an actor is wholly predictable for he
 128
must continually modify his behavior to
adjust to the expected responses of others,
who constitute his environment. This
modulation of both the activity and the
sentiments of the actors in an environment
constitutes circular response. As Follett
put it: “The most fundamental thought
about all this is that reaction is always
reaction to a relating. ... I never react to
you but to you-plus-me; or to be more
accurate, it is I-plus-you reacting to You-
plus-me”.
52. (a) Barnard gave a theory of formal
organisation. He defined it as “a system
of consciously co-ordinated activities
of forces of two or more persons.”
According to him, organisation consisted
of human beings whose activities were
co-ordinated and therefore becomes a
system: According to Barnard initial
existence of organisation depends upon
three elements: (i) the willingness of
persons to contribute efforts to the co-
operative system (ii) there should be an
objective of co-operation and (iii) proper
communication system is necessary.
53. (a) Masterman Committee
was established by Government of
Britain under the chairmanship of
J.C. Masterman to study the political
responsibility of civil servants in Britain
in 1948.
54. (b) The Civil Service Reform
Act of 1978 (CSRA) reaffirmed the
merit system selection process, codified
collective bargaining procedures, and
identified prohibited practices in the
federal workforce, including nepotism
and discrimination on the basis of age,
sex, race, religion, or other specified
factors.
55. (b) Henry Fayol put forth an
argument that management in their
everyday routine carries our five major
functions. They are Planning, Organi-
zing, Commanding, Coordinating, and
controlling. According to Henry Fayol,
planning is the most crucial of all the
five functions of management, which
requires an active participation of the
entire organization. Following time
and implementation, planning must be
coordinated at various levels. It must
consider the resources available in the
organization and the flexibility of the
personnel; as this guarantees continuity.
Hence, Both the statements are correct,
but not related to each other.
56. (a) The First Administrative Reforms
Commission (ARC) as a Commission of
Inquiry was set up in January, 1966, to
examine the public administration of the
country and make recommendation for
reform and reorganisation. One of its
main recommendation was the Functional
specialisation of Civil Services for better
effectiveness.
57. (c) Delegated (or Subordinate or
Subsidiary) Legislation refers to those
laws made by persons or bodies to whom
Parliament has delegated law-making
authority. Where Acts are made by
Parliament, a Principal Act may make
provision for Subsidiary Legislation
to be made, and will specify who has
the power to do so under that Act.
The ordinance making power is not a
delegated legislation, it is a constitutional
power given to President and governor
and is equivalent to law made by
Parliament.
58. (b)
59. (c) USA was the first country
to introduce a performance accessing
system for the public official by using
scientific method.
60. (d) In 1977, the Janata government
appointed a Committee with Ashok
Mehta as Chairman. It was entrusted
with the task of enquiring into the causes
responsible for the poor performance
of Panchayat Raj Institutions. It was
also asked to suggest measures to
strengthen Panchayat Raj Institutions.
The committee suggested two tire system
of Panchayat Raj consisting of Zilla
Parishads at the district level and Mandal
Panchayats at the grass root level as
against three tier system suggested by
the Balwantrai Mehta Committee. The
committee recommended constitutional
protection to the Panchayat Raj
Institutions and further decentralization
of power at all levels.
61. (d) John H. Herz’s model of the
‘security dilemma’ is regularly cited
in textbooks and has become common
usage among students of international
relations. His work deserves substantial
reassessment, for three main reasons:
Solved Paper-III, June-2015
first, Herz contributed significantly to the
emergence and development of realism
in the 1950s, most notably through
his concept of ‘Realist Liberalism’.
Second, the development of Herz’s
ideas paradigmatically reflects the
‘pilgrimage’ of a German-Jewish émigré
to the US, who witnessed and analysed
almost all of the twentieth century,
and a little beyond. Third, Herz was a
pioneer in understanding that the new
global challenges could not be overcome
with classic realist instruments and in
accepting the centrality of ‘non-realist’
insights.
62. (b) The three classes of Interna-
tional relationship identified by Bachract
and Baratz are Influence Relationship,
Legitimate Relationship and Power
Relationship.
63. (b) The Twenty Years’ Crisis:
1919–1939: An Introduction to the Study
of International Relations is a book on
international relations written by E. H.
Carr.
64. (*) French demographer, anthro-
pologist and historian Alfred Sauvy,
in an article published in the French
magazine L’Observateur, August 14,
1952, coined the term Third World,
referring to countries that were unaligned
with either the Communist Soviet bloc
or the Capitalist NATO bloc during the
Cold War.
65. (d) International Relations: A
General Theory Book was written by
John Burton and published in 1965.
66. (c) Initially several western scholars
used such terms as “Neutrality” or
“Neutralism” or “Neutralisation” to define
non-alignment. George Schwarzenberger
referred to six term—isolationalism, non-
commitment, neutrality, neutralisation,
unilateralism and non-involvement,
which were in some way similar to non-
alignment but none of which could be
used for defining Non-alignment. He
also called it selfish policy.
67. (a) The supporters of Realistic
approach were nicholas spykman, E.H.
Carr and Fredrick Suhuman.
68. (a) The challenging and sensitive
field of arms control proved to be Hedley
Bull’s route to international prominence.
Solved Paper-III, June-2015
Hedley Bull declared arms race in itself
is an experience of terror.
69. (d) The P5+1 refers to the UN
Security Council’s five permanent
members (the P5); namely China,
France, Russia, the United Kingdom,
and the United States; plus Germany. The
P5+1 is often referred to as the E3+3
by European countries. It is a group of
six world powers which, in 2006, joined
together in diplomatic efforts with Iran
with regard to its nuclear program.
70. (a) National Power is the ability or
capability of a nation to secure the goals
and objectives of its national interests in
relation with other nations. It involves
the capacity to use force or threat of
use of force or influence over others for
securing the goals of national interest.
The major dimensions of national power
in international politics are as: Military
Power, Economic Power, Psychological
Power. The three forms of national
power are inseparable from each other.
Without economic power no nation can
develop her military power, and without
the latter no nation can play an active role
in international relations. Psychological
power can be enduringly and really
effective only when it is backed by
economic and military power.
71. (b) Myanmar is not the member
of the SAARC. All the members of the
SAARC are: Afghanistan, Bangladesh,
Bhutan, India, Nepal, the Maldives,
Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
72. (d) Arnold Wolters was not of the
view that no social science can survive
without Idealistic aspects.
73. (d) Total disarmament can also be
known as Comprehensive disarmament.
Disarmament is the act of reducing, limiting,
or abolishing weapons. Disarmament
generally refers to a country’s military or
129
specific type of weaponry. Disarmament
is often taken to mean total elimination
of weapons of mass destruction, such
as nuclear arms. Total disarmament is
impossible because arms are required for the
protection of country. Total disarmament is
not achievable because armaments are too
vital of an advantage in evading regular
combat from unhappy acquaintances that
falling it up seems impracticable at least so
far.
74. (d) Hans Morgenthau stated that
“International Politics includes analysis
of Political relation and problem of peace
among nations.”
75. (c) Laos and Myanmar joined two
years later on 23 July 1997. Cambodia
was to join at the same time as Laos
and Myanmar, but an internal political
struggle delayed its entry. It then
joined on 30 April 1999 following the
stabilisation of its government.
qqq
 130 Solved Paper-II, December-2015

UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, December-2015
1. Which of the following is not an (C) Normative (iii) August Codes:
organ of Kautilyas state? political Comte A B C D
(a) Swami theory
(a)(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) Amatya (D) Scientific/ (iv) Aristotle
inductive (b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(c) Varna system
method (c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(d) Danda
Codes: (d) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
2. Plato’s communism of family and
A B C D 7. Match the items of List-I with items
property was largely derived from
the experience of: (a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) of List-II by selecting the correct
(A) Stagira (B) Sparta (b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) answer from the codes:
(C) Athens (D) Venice (c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) List-I List-II
Choose the correct answer: (d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)  (Thinkers)  (Theories)
5. Given below are two statements, (A) Mao Tse (i) Proletarian
(a) (A) and (B)
one labelled as Assertion (A) and Tung Dictatorship
(b) (A) and (C) (B) Lenin (ii) Cultural
(c) (C) only the other labelled as Reason (R).
Revolution
(d) (B) only Assertion (A): Power corrupts and (C) Marx (iii) One Country
3. Scholasticism of middle ages sought absolute power corrupts absolutely. Socialism
to establish: Reason (R): Democracy is the best (D) Stalin (iv) Communist Party
(A) Supremacy of political domain check against the misuse of power as the Vanguard
over the spiritual. as the power is distributed among of the proletariat
(B) The autonomy of intellectual various groups. Codes:
freedom over the political In the context of the above two A B C D
regimes. statements which one of the (a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) The ascendency of theology over following is correct ?
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
the philosophy. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A). (c) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(D) The subordination of rational
element to the theological element (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) (d) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
of the church. is not correct explanation of (A). 8. Rearrange the following works of
Select the correct answer from the (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. Karl Marx in sequential order in
codes given below: (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. terms of Publication Year.
(a) (C) and (D) 6. Match the following: (A) Critique of Political Economy
(b) (A) and (D) List-I List-II (B) Poverty of Philosophy
(c) (A) and (C) (Thinker) (Idea)
(C) Communist Manifesto
(d) (B) and (D) (A) John Locke (i) Partyless
democracy (D) The Holy Family
4. Match the following:
List-I List-II (B) Hobbes (ii) Consent theory Codes:
(A) Modern (i) Plato (C) Jaya (iii) Neo-liberalism (a) (D), (B), (C) and (A)
political Prakash
(b) (A), (C), (D) and (B)
thinker Narain
(B) Positivist (ii) Machiavelli (D) Robert (iv) Absolute (c) (B), (A), (D) and (C)
school Nozick sovereignty (d) (D), (C), (B) and (A)
Solved Paper-II, December-2015
9. Communitarian theory lays empha-
sis on:
(a) Community as an inescapable
ideal
(b) U n l i m i t e d f r e e d o m o f t h e
individual
(c) Limited role of the state
(d) Partial regulation of market
economy
10. Given below are the two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
Assertion (A): Behavioural political
theory sought to eliminate the role of
values and make Political Science a
pure science and quantitative.
Reason (R): Political Science, being
a social science, can never be value-
free as it deals with human beings
who are value-bound.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
11. In whose description Maulana Azad,
Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai
Patel and Rajendra Prasad formed
‘an oligarchy within the (Constituent)
Assembly’?
(a) Granville Austin
(b) Morris Jones
(c) V.P. Menon
(d) Richard Sisson
12. Which one of the following Acts
has not been passed under Article
34 of the Indian Constitution?
(a) The Border Security Force Act
(b) The Police Forces (Restriction of
Rights) Act
(c) Armed Forces Special Power Act
(d) The Army Act
13. “The Supreme Court of India is at
long last becoming, after thirty two
years of the Republic, the Supreme
Court for Indians”. Who said this?
(a) Justice V.R. Krishna Aiyyer
(b) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(c) Upendra Baxi
(d) Nani Palkhiwala
14. “India has a hallowed place in
discussions of democracy......
But it has become less tolerant,
less secular, less law-abiding, less
liberal. And these two trends -
democratization and illiberalism
- are directly related.” Who writes
this?
(a) Atul Kohli
(b) Sunil Khilnani
(c) Fareed Zakaria
(d) Paul R. Brass
15. In which one of the following cases
the Supreme Court of India has
laid down exhaustive guidelines
for preventing sexual harassment
of working women in place of their
work?
(a) Hussainara Khatoon V. State of
Bihar
(b) Delhi Domestic Working Women’s
Forum V. Union of India
(c) Olga Tellis V. Bombay Municipal
Corporation
(d) Vishaka V. State of Rajasthan and
others
16. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(Leaders)   (Political Parties)
(A) Ram Vilas (i) Samajwadi
Paswan Party
(B) H.D. (ii) Nationalist
Kumarswamy Congress
Party
(C) Praful Patel (iii) Janata Dal
(Secular)
(D) Akhilesh (iv) Lok Janshakti
Yadav Party
131
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
17. How many functional items have
been placed within the purview
of municipalities by the Twelfth
Schedule to the Constitution?
(a) 18 (b) 30
(c) 35 (d) 40
18. Rearrange the following in chrono-
logical order:
(A) Punchhi Commission
(B) Anandpur Sahib Resolution
(C) Administrative Reforms Com-
mission
(D) Rajamannar Committee
Choose the correct code:
(a) (D), (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (B), (D), (A) and (C)
(c) (A), (B), (D) and (C)
(d) (C), (D), (B) and (A)
19. Who among the following was not
the speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(a) Rabi Ray
(b) Hukum Singh
(c) Baliram Bhagat
(d) Gopal Swarup Pathak
20. Match the following and select the
correct pairs:
List-I List-II
[Authors] [Books]
(A) Norman (i) The Success
D. Palmer of India’s
Democracy
(B) Granvelli (ii) Elections and
Austin Political
Development:
South Asian
Experience
(C) Myron (iii) Indian
Weiner Constitution:
The
Cornerstone of
A Nation
(D) Atul Kohli (iv) Politics of
Scarcity
 132 Solved Paper-II, December-2015
Codes: (C) Gaetano (iii) The Power (c) The government is more effective
A B C D Mosca Elite and stable when rulers govern in
(D) Roberto (iv) Circulation of the long interest.
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Michels Elites (d) The government is captured
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Codes: by shared interest and remains
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A B C D insensitive to shared interests of
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) the whole community.
21. Which of the following were
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) 28. The crises described by Leonard
described by David Easton as intell-
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Binder et al. in their book “crises and
ectual foundations of the System
Analysis? Give the correct answer (d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) sequences in Political Development”
from the codes given below: 25. Which of the following is not true are:
(A) Regularities of pressure groups? (A) Identity crises
(B) Verification (A) interest articulation (B) Integration crises
(C) Techniques (B) funding the political parties (C) Legitimacy crises
(D) Quantification (C) influencing the policies of the (D) Resource Mobilisation crises
government Codes:
Codes:
(D) implementation of policies (a) (A)
(a) (A)
Choose the correct answer from the
(b) (A), (B) (b) (A), (B)
below:
(c) (A), (B), (C) (c) (A), (B), (C)
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C), (D) (d) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(c) (D) only (d) (C) only
22. The study of comparative politics 29. Which of the following factors
26. Match List-I with List-II and select
became significant after the: are related to load capacity in the
the correct answer from the codes
(A) World War I given below: communications theory?
(B) World War II List-I List-II (A) responsiveness
(C) Emergence of new nations (A) India (i) Rule of Law (B) fidelity
(B) U.S.A. (ii) Judicial Review (C) background noise
(D) Rise of middle eastern nations
(C) U.K. (iii) Two sets of
Choose the correct answer: (D) distortion
courts
(a) (A) and (B) (D) France (iv) Due process of Select the correct answer from the
(b) (B) and (C) law codes given below:
(c) (A) and (D) Codes: (a) (A) and (B)
(d) (B) and (D) A B C D (b) (B) and (C)
23. Who among the following is (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (c) (A), (B) and (C)
regarded as the Father of Com- (b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
parative Politics? (c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 30. Which one of the following said,
(a) Plato (d) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) “the power is a matter of getting
(b) Aristotle 27. Which one of the following state- people to do what they would not
(c) Lucian Pye ments is not correct in regard to have otherwise done”?
(d) G.A. Almond Aristotle’s classification of govern- (a) Hannah Avendt
ments? (b) Robert Dahl
24. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer by using the (a) The classification of governments (c) Max Weber
codes given below: was on the basis of number of
(d) Hans Morgenthau
 List-I List-II people involved in the task of
governing. 31. Who among the following is not
(Author) (Title)
(b) Whether rulers governed in associated with evolving the prin-
(A) C.W. Mills (i) The Ruling
common interest (the genuine ciples of organisation?
Class
(B) Vilfredo (ii) Iron Law form) or in their own (perverted (a) Henri Fayol
Pareto of Oligarchy form). (b) L.D. White
Solved Paper-II, December-2015
(c) L.F. Urwick
(d) Luther Gulick
32. Who among the following remained
chairman of the Comparative
Administrative Group in the United
States of America for 10 years?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) D. Waldo
(c) Fred Riggs
(d) Herbert Simon
33. The ‘one best way’ in scientific
management means:
(a) Equal division of work
(b) Intensive analysis of work
processes
(c) Mental revolution on the part of
workers and management
(d) Standardisation of work methods
34. Which one of the following is not a
staff agency in U.S.A.?
(a) State Department
(b) Office of Budget and Management
(c) National Security Council
(d) The White House
35. What is the correct sequence
of F.M. Marx’s classification of
bureaucracy?
(A) Merit
(B) Guardian
(C) Patronage
(D) Caste
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (B), (C), (D) and (A)
(c) (B), (D), (C) and (A)
(d) (C), (D), (A) and (B)
36. Performance Budgeting was intro-
duced in India on the recom-
mendation of:
(a) Paul Appleby Report
(b) Gorwala Report
(c) First Administrative Reforms
Commission Report
(d) Santhanam Committee Report
37. Domicile qualification for public
appointments was first used in:
(a) the U.K. (b) the U.S.A.
(c) India (d) Australia
38. The Chief Information Comm-
issioner and Information Comm-
issioners in India are appointed for
a term of:
(a) 3 years (b) 4 years
(c) 5 years (d) 6 years
39. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): The practical
application of the principle of unity
of command is not always feasible.
Reason (R): Administrative and
technical tasks generally need
different kinds of supervision.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
40. The aim of E-Government is to
make the interaction between
government and citizens.
(A) more friendly
(B) convenient
(C) transparent
(D) inexpensive
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
41. Economic diplomacy is also termed
as:
(a) cultural diplomacy
(b) oil diplomacy
(c) crisis diplomacy
(d) development diplomacy
133
42. Which of the following is not a
characteristic feature of non-
alignment?
(a) Non-alignment stands for plurality
and democratic equality among
community of nations.
(b) It opposes all forms of racialism
and discrimination and it cham-
pions the cause of fundamental
freedoms. Economic and social
justice is the motto of non-
alignment.
(c) Non-alignment rests on the
presumption that national security
is linked with national strength of
individual nations.
(d) Non-alignment asserts that
international peace is an alienable
prerequisite for attaining national
aspirations and for the exercise of
sovereign independence.
43. Which of the following is not a tech-
nique to exercise National Power?
(a) Diplomacy
(b) Economic state craft
(c) Use of military force
(d) To join a world organisation
44. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(Book) (Author)
(A) International (i) Gerhard
Relations Wahlers
Theory: The
Three Traditions
(B) The North (ii) Tadjbaksh
South Divide Shakbanon
and the Interna- and
tional System Anuradha
Chenoy
(C) Human (iii) N.B. Adams
Security
(D) India and (iv) Martin
the European Wight
Union
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
 134
45. Which one of the following can be
regarded as the currency of power?
(a) Food
(b) Nuclear Weapons
(c) Industrial Capacity
(d) Military Preparedness
46. Which of the following statements
are correct?
(A) According to Article 3 of the
charter, the countries that
attended the San Francisco
conference, June 1945 and those
who signed the United Nations
Declaration on 1st January 1942
became original members of
United Nations.
(B) Switzerland became a member of
United Nations in 2003.
(C) The regular session of General
Assembly commences in
September and usually goes on
till the end of the year.
(D) The retiring members of econo-
mic and social council are eligible
for immediate re-election also.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (C) and (D)
Answers with Explanations
1. (c) Varna system is part of
Manusmriti and not Arthashastra.
Kautilya’s Arthashastra is a complete
treaty of Statecraft. Arthashastra talks
about seven elements of State, and
Swami, Danda, Amatya are three among
those seven elements.
2. (d) The Political system of Sparta
has great influence over the ideas of
Plato. Plato admires the victory of
Spartan over Athens. In his concept of
Ideal state, he proposed the model of
Communism of family and property for
guardian and soldier class.
47. Who was of opinion that, “the end of
cold war represented the victory of
ideal state”, and liberal capitalism?
(a) Michael Doyle
(b) Thomas Dunne
(c) Francis Fukuyama
(d) Samuel Huntington
48. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(A) Soviet Union - (i) September,
German non- 1939
aggression pact (a) (A), (B) and (C)
(B) Germany (ii) March,
invaded Soviet 1939
Union
(C) Germany (iii) June, 1941
occupied
Czechoslovakia
(D) Germany (iv) April, 1941
invaded Poland
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) special agreements, armed forces,
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
49. Which of the following statements
are correct?
(A) The convening of Bandung
conference, 1955 was suggested
by Sri Lanka.
3. (a) Scholasticism is best known
for its application in medieval Christian
theology, especially in attempts to
reconcile the philosophy of the ancient
classical philosophers (particularly
Aristotle) with Christian theology.
However, in the High Scholastic
period of the 14th Century, it moved
beyond theology, and had applications
in many other fields of study including
Epistemology, Philosophy of Science,
philosophy of nature, psychology and
even economic theory.
Solved Paper-II, December-2015
(B) The immediate provocation to
convene this conference was
conclusion of a treaty between
Taiwan and the United States,
and creation of SEATO and
Baghdad Pact.
(C) The idea of holding this con-
ference was welcomed by USSR
and China.
(D) Bandung is a city of Indonesia.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (C) and (D)
50. Which of the following article
of charter of United Nations
provides that “all the members
of the UN undertake to make
available to the security council,
on its call and in accordance with
assistance and facilities, including
rights of passage, necessary
for the purpose of maintaining
international peace and security”.
(a) Article 41
(b) Article 42
(c) Article 43
(d) Article 44
4. (a)
Modern Political – Machiavelli
thinker
Positivist School – August Comte
Normative – Plato
Political theory
Scientific/Inductive – Aristotle
method
5. (a) Assertion statement is made by
Lord Acton “Power corrupts and absolute
power corrupts absolutely” in his criticism
to Plato’s idea of philosopher king and
choice of monarchy over democracy.
Solved Paper-II, December-2015
The Reason statement is also correct and
a true reason behind the assertion.
6. (a)
(Thinker) (Idea)
John Locke – Consent Theory
Hobbes – Absolute
Sovereignty
Jaya Prakash – Partyless
Narayan democracy
Robert Nozick – Neo-Liberalism
7. (a)
(Thinker) (Theories)
Mao Tse Tung – Cultural
Revolution
Lenin – Communist Party
as Vanguard of the
Proletariat
Marx – Proletarian
Dictatorship
Stalin – One Country
Socialism
8. (a) The correct sequence of publica-
tion of Marx’s work is:
The Holy Family – 1845
Poverty of Philosophy – 1847
Communist Manifesto – 1848
Critique of Political – 1859
Economy H.D. Kumarswamy – Janta Dal
9. (a) The central argument of
communitarian theorist is that community
living is an integral part of any society
or a political system. An individual
attains his/her identity in the community.
Michael Walzer, Sander and Taylor are
few famous Communitarian theorist.
10. (b) Assertion is correct as the key
objective of Behavioural moments to
make Political science a pure science. The
reason is correct but not an explanation
behind the assertion.
11. (a) Granville Austin in his
famous work ‘Indian Constitution: The
Cornerstone of A Nation’ mentioned that
the group of leader like Maulana Azad,
Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel and Rajendra
Prasad have an extensive control over
the constituent assembly, they basically
forms an Oligarchy within the Constituent
assembly.
12. (c) The Armed Forces (Special
Powers) Act-(AFSPA) was passed
on September 11, 1958 to help the
army in tackling the disturbed areas
of the Northeast India. AFSPA was
implemented in the Kashmir amid
increase in the insurgency in 1990.
13. (c) Upendra Baxi in his book
‘The Indian Supreme Court and Politics’
quoted that “The Supreme Court of India
is at long last becoming, after thirty
two years of the republic, The Supreme
Courts of Indians”.
14. (c) Fareed Rafiq Zakaria is an
American journalist, political scientist,
and author. He is the host of CNN’s
Fareed Zakaria GPS and writes a weekly
paid column for The Washington Post.
15. (d) “Vishaka Guidelines” were
stipulated by the Supreme Court of
India, in Vishaka and others v State of
Rajasthan case in 1997, regarding sexual
harassment at workplace. The court
stated that these guidelines were to be
implemented until legislation is passed to
deal with the issue.
16. (b)
(Leaders) (Political Parties)
Ram Vilas Paswan – Lok Janshakti
Party
(Secular )
Praful Patel – Nationalist
Congress Party
Akhilesh Yadav – Samajwadi
Party
17. (a) The Functions assigned to
Municipality by 74th Amendment Act
are mentioned in Twelfth Schedule
(Article 243 W):
1. Urban planning including town
planning.
2. Regulation of land use and
construction of buildings.
3. Planning for economic and social
development.
4. Roads and bridges.
5. Water supply for domestic, indu-
strial and commercial purposes.
6. Public health sanitation, con-
servancy and solid waste manage-
ment.
7. Fire services.
135
8. Urban forestry protection of the
environment and promotion of
ecological aspects.
9. Safeguarding the interests of
weaker sections of society,
including the handicapped and
mentally retarded.
10. Slum improvement and upgra-
dation.
11. Urban poverty alleviation.
12. Provision of urban amenities and
facilities such as parks, gardens,
playgrounds.
13. Promotion of cultural, educational
and aesthetic aspects.
14. Burials and burial grounds,
cremations, cremation grounds
and electric crematoriums.
15. Cattle pounds, prevention of
cruelty to animals.
16. V i t a l s t a t i s t i c s i n c l u d i n g
registration of births and deaths.
17. Public amenities including street
lighting, parking lots, bus slops
and public conveniences.
18. Regulation of slaughter houses
and tanneries.
18. (d) The Correct Chronological
Order of Commissions is:
Administrative Reform – 1966
Commission
Rajamannar Committee – 1969
Anandpur Sahib Resolution – 1973
Punchhi Commission – 2007
19. (d) Gopal Swarup Pathak was the
fourth Vice President of India from August
1969 to August 1974. He never became a
Governor of any of the State in India.
20. (a)
(Authors) (Books)
Norman D. – Election and
Palmer Political
Development:
South Asian
Experience
Granvelli Austin – Indian Constitu-
tion: The
Cornerstone of A
Nation
Myron Weiner – Politics of Scarcity
Atul Kohli – The Success of
Indian’s
Democracy
 136
21. (d) The Intellectual foundation of
behaviouralism as given by David Easton
are as follows:
(1) Regularities;
(2) Verification;
(3) Techniques;
(4) Quantification;
(5) Values;
(6) Systematisation;
(7) Pure Science; and
(8) Integration.
22. (b) The end of second world war
resulted into significant changes in world
like, decolonisation, emergence of new
nation, formation of United Nation, etc.
These changes in world order has created
the opportunity for research in field of
Comparative Politics.
23. (b) Aristotle is regarded as the
Father of Comparative Politics as he was
the first to use institutional method of
comparison among nations by comparing
Constitution of 158 Countries.
24. (d)
(Author)   (Title)
C.W. Mills – The Power Elite
Vilfredo Pareto – Circulation of
Elite
Gaetano Mosca – The Ruling Class
Robert Michels – Iron Law of
Oligarchy
25. (c) Pressure group are destined
to push government to pass any law or
dissolve any law that they believe is not
in their favour. The Pressure groups
can’t practice implementation of Policies.
It is done by Executive department of
Government.
26. (b)
(Country) (Principle of Justice)
India – Judicial Review
U.S.A. – Due Process of Law
U.K. – Rule of Law
France – Two Sets of Courts
27. (d) Aristotle’s classification of
states is based on two principles:
(1) The number of persons who
exercise supreme power;
(2) The ends they seek to serve
self-interest or benefit of the
community.
28. (d) The crises and sequence in
Political development described by
Leonard Binder are Identity crises,
Integration crises, Legitimacy crises and
Resource Mobilisation crises.
29. (d) All the factor mentioned in
Option are factors of load capacity under
Communication theory.
30. (b) Robert Dahl in his work
‘Concept of Power’ quoted that “The
power is a matter of getting people to
do what they would not have otherwise
done”.
31. (b) L.D. White is one of the sowers
and cultivators of the intellectual seeds
of US public administration. He is not
related with the principles of organisation.
32. (c) Fred W. Riggs is a Professor
in the Department of Government at
Indiana University, and also Chairman
of the Comparative Administration
Group of the American Society for
Public Administration for 10 years. He
has published two books and a number
of articles specifically on comparative
administration.
33. (d) ‘One best way’ is a principle
of Scientific management theory by F.W.
Taylor. By this principle he mean to
suggest that work method can be standar-
dised for increasing efficiency and speed.
34. (a) State Department is not a staff
Agency. A staffing agency is an entity
that has employees that can be hired out
for temporary or long term work. A
staffing agency is also referred to as an
employment agency.
35. (c) Bureaucracy is categorized
into four types by Morstein Marx viz.
Guardian Bureaucracy, Caste Bureau-
cracy, Patronage Bureaucracy and Merit
Bureaucracy.
36. (c) Performance Budgeting in
India was introduced on the recommen-
dation of First Administrative Reform
Commission.
37. (b) U.S.A. was the first country
to introduce Domicile qualification
for public appointment. Domicile is a
person’s permanent place of dwelling.
For purposes of jurisdiction, “domicile”
means a legal residence which is the
place where a person has fixed dwelling
Solved Paper-II, December-2015
with an intention of making it his/her
permanent home.
38. (c) The office tenure of Chief
Information Commissioner and Infor-
mation Commissioners in India is 5
year. They have a fixed tenure to ensure
their independence from government
interference.
39. (a) Both the statement are
correct, and the reason statement is
correct explanation behind the assertion
statement.
40. (d) The E-Governance measures
are used during Government and citizen
interaction because they are more user
friendly, they ensure transparency,
convenient to use and inexpensive also.
41. (d) Firstly, it endeavours to define
the concept of development diplomacy
(that is, diplomacy done through develop-
ment aid) as a part of public diplomacy
that realises its aims thanks to soft power
resources.
42. (d) In 1961, Nehru, Nasser and
Tito accepted the following five essentials
or tests of a non-aligned foreign policy:
(a) Independent foreign policy based
upon Non-alignment and Peaceful Co-
existence.
(b) Opposition to colonialism and
support for liberation movements.
(c) Non-membership of any military
alliance or bloc.
(d) Absence of bilateral military base/
bases on the territory of the state.
(e) Absence of a foreign military base
on the territory of the state.
43. (d) Joining a World Organisation
means that the country is ready from
mutual cooperation and stability and
peace in world order. On the other
hand Using National Power is to utilize
national resource to show strength and
attain power by use of war.
44. (a)
(Book) (Author)
International Relation – Martin
Theory: The Three Wight
Traditions
The North-South – N.B. Adams
Divide and the
International System
Solved Paper-II, December-2015
Human Security – Tadjbaksh
Shakbanon
& Anuradha
Chenoy
India and the – Gerhard
European Union Wahlers
45. (b) Power of country can be
calculated in its military strength. Nuclear
weapon is also a means to enhance Military
strength. Hence, Nuclear weapon can be
considered as the currency of Power.
46. (d) On 10 September 2002,
Switzerland became a full member of
the United Nations, after a referendum
supporting full membership won in a
close vote six months earlier; Swiss
voters had rejected membership by a
3-to-1 margin in 1986. The 2002 vote
made Switzerland the first country to join
based on a popular vote.
47. (c) Francis Fukuyama in his
famous book ‘The End of History and
Last Man’ quoted that “The end of cold
war represented the victory of ideal
state”. For him here ideal state mean a
liberal or capitalist state.
48. (d)
(Event) (Date)
Soviet Union - German – September,
non-aggression Pact 1939
Germany Invaded – June, 1941
Soviet Union
Germany occupied – March, 1939
Czechoslovakia
137
Germany invaded – April, 1941
Poland
49. (c) The Bandung conference which
gave birth to idea of Non-Alignment
movement was not supported by USSR,
USA and China. The Conference held in
Indonesia.
50. (c) For more than 75 years, the
United Nations Charter has functioned
without the benefit of Chapter VII,
Article 43, which commits all United
Nations member states “to make available
to the Security Council, on its call,
armed forces, assistance and facilities,
including rights of passage, necessary for
the purpose of maintaining international
peace and security.”
qqq
 138
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-III, December-2015
1. Who among the following referred
to the ‘decline’ of political theory?
(A) David Easton and Alfred Cobbon
(B) Lasslett and Robert Dahl
(C) Will Durant
(D) Nathenial Hawthorn
(a) (B) and (C) (b) (C) and (D)
(c) (A) and (C) (d) (A) and (B)
2. Which of the following statements
are true regarding Political theory?
(A) It accepts scientism and repudiates
the normativism.
(B) It synthesises political philosophy
and scientific enquiry of political
phenomenon.
(C) It is structural and institutional
and examines the logic and
basis of political institutions and
organizations.
(D) Political theory is philosophical
as well as scientific, normative
as well as empirical evaluative as
well as explanatory; historical as
well as analytical.
Choose the correct answers from
the below:
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (B) and (C)
(c) (D) only (d) (C) and (D)
3. Which of the following is true of
modern liberalism?
(A) Freedom of the individual as
against the authority of the state.
(B) Recognise the importance of
group.
(C) Supports the limited role of the
state.
(D) Supports the state regulation to
safeguard the weak.
Choose the correct answer.
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (A) and (D) (d) (C) and (D)
4. Which of the following statements
relating to Maos theory of contra-
dictions are true?
(A) Contradictions are universal in
all times and in all societies.
(B) Antagonistic contradictions exist
among the hostile classes in
terms of ownership of productive
forces.
(C) Non-antagonistic contradictions
could exist among people which
could be resolved without
resorting to violence.
(D) Contradictions have no place in
a socialist system.
Choose the correct answer from the
below:
(a) (D) and (A)
(b) (B) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
5. Given below are two statements
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): For John Locke,
Natural Rights are a product of
nature.
Reason (R): State has to protect and
safeguard these rights.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the right explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Solved Paper-III, December-2015
6. Which of the following is not true
of Aristotle’s theory of state?
(A) Organic conception of State.
(B) State as a magnified individual.
(C) Rights of the individual can exist
only as a member of the state.
(D) There is no conflict between the
end of the individual and end of
the state.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (D) and (C)
(c) (C) only (d) (D) only
7. Machiavelli is regarded as the first
modern political thinker because
of:
(a) Separation of ethics and religion
from politics.
(b) Forerunner of nation state.
(c) Represented the spirit of renais-
sance.
(d) Subordination of Church to state.
8. Which one of the following state-
ments of Hobbes was wrong?
(a) State of Nature was pre-political
and pre-social.
(b) Sovereign was a party to the
contract.
(c) Human nature was dominated by
acquisitive instinct, possessive
instinct and love of glory.
(d) Man in the state of Nature was
solitary, nasty, brutish and short.
9. John Lockes contribution chiefly
lies in his:
(A) Consent theory.
(B) Limited Government.
(C) Theory of state as a corporate
body.
(D) Organic conception of state.
Solved Paper-III, December-2015
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (A) and (C)
(c) (B) and (C) (d) (A) and (B)
10. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
  List–I  List–II
 (Concepts) (Thinker’s)
(A) Veil of (i) Karl Popper
Ignorance
(B) Alienation (ii) Robert Nozic
(C) Piecemeal (iii) John Rawls
Social
engineering
(D) Nigh (iv) Karl Marxt
Watchman
State
Codes:
A B C D ensure compliance with the laws.
(a) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) ‘Sarvodaya’?
(b) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (A) Welfare of the majority of people
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (B) Government by the majority party
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (C) Protection of the minorities
11. “Man must eat before he thinks. To
eat he must produce. Production is
a basic activity”. Who said this?
(a) Mao
(b) Rosa Luxumburg
(c) Luis Althusser
(d) Karl Marx
12. Which of the following thinkers
held the view that the probable
mischiefs of obedience are less
than the probable mischiefs of
resistence.
(a) J.S. Mill (b) James Mill
(c) Bentham (d) Black stone
13. Dialectical materialism of Karl
Marx postulates that:
(A) Matter is in a state of motion.
(B) Motion in the matter is due to the
pressure of environment.
(C) Law of transformation is both
quantitative and qualitative.
(D) Conflict in matter is continuous
and endless.
Identify the correct answer:
(a) (A), (B) and (D)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (B) and (D)
(d) (C) and (D)
14. Which of the following statement
is correct regarding J.S. Mill?
(A) State is justified in confirming
itself to limited functions
(B) Welfare policies are more
important.
(C) State intervention into ‘self-
regarding’ action.
(D) State intervention into ‘other
regarding action’ is justified.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) (B) and (C) (b) (A) and (B)
(c) (A) only (d) (D) only
15. Which of the following is true
regarding Gandhian concept of
(D) Welfare of all sections of the
society
Choose the correct answer from the
below:
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (A) and (B)
(c) (D) only (d) (B) only
16. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(A) Charter Act (i) Separate
of 1813 electorate
(B) Charter Act (ii) Abolition of
of 1833 the trade
monopoly
of East India
Company
(C) The Govern- (iii) Complete
ment of India abolition of
Act, 1858 monopoly in
trade by
East India
Company
(D) Government (iv) Secretary
of India Act, of State for
1909 India
139
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
17. Who presided over the All Party
Conference (1928)?
(a) Pt. Motilal Nehru
(b) Dr. M.A. Ansari
(c) Madan Mohan Malviya
(d) C.R. Das
18. Which of the following statements
are correct?
Select your answer from codes
given below:
(A) The Union of India has power
to issue directions to a state to
(B) In case of failure, the President
may assume to himself all the
functions of the Government of
that state.
(C) The Governor of a state is appoin-
ted by the President and holds
office during his pleasure.
(D) The Governor is not responsible
to state.
Codes:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
19. Which of the following is not
recognised as a ‘tension’ area in
Indian federation?
(A) Inter-State Council
(B) Article 356
(C) Role of the Governor
(D) Union-State Financial Relations
Choose the correct answer:
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (D) only
(c) (A) only (d) (C) and (D)
20. 74th Constitutional Amendment
Act of 1992 does not apply to the
scheduled areas in the states of:
 140
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Odisha
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
21. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
 (Movements) (Personalities)
(A) Chipko (i) Medha Patker
movement
(B) Narmada (ii) K. Chandra-
Bachao sekhar Rao
Andolan
(C) Right to (iii) Sunder Lal
Information Bahuguna
movement
(D) Telangana (iv) Aruna Roy
movement
Codes:
A B C D of India
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (C) Keshavanand (iii) Judges
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Bharti Vs Transfer
(c) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) A B C D of Kerala
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (a) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (D) Common (iv) Petrol
22. Arrange the following Vice-
Presidents of India in chronological
order and select the correct answer
from the codes given below:
(A) K.R. Narayanan
(B) Gopal Swarup Pathak
(C) Krishan Kant
(D) Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah
Codes:
(a) (D), (B), (A), (C)
(b) (B), (D), (C), (A)
(c) (D), (B), (C), (A)
(d) (B), (D), (A), (C)
23. Which of the following pairs
showing the state and dominant
caste is not correct?
(a) Punjab – Jat Sikh
(b) Rajasthan – Rajput
(c) Kerala – Velma
(d) Karnataka – Lingayat
24. Who among following classifies
regional movements in India in
terms of ‘ethnic’ and ‘nativist’
movements?
(a) Sajal Basu (b) Myron Weiner
(c) James Manor (d) Rob Jenkivs
25. When was Inter-State Council
under Article 263 of the constitution
of India set up in India?
(a) 1961 (b) 1972
(c) 1990 (d) 1998
26. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
 (Student  (Party
Organization)   Affiliation)
(A) Akhil Bharatiya (i) CPI
Vidyarthi Parishad
(B) All Indian student (ii) CPIM
federation
(C) National Students (iii) BJP
Union of India
(D) Students (iv) Congress
Federation of (I)
India
Codes:
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
27. Since when consensus has emerged
in India that the post of Deputy
Speaker should go to opposition
party?
(a) 1984 (b) 1989
(c) 1996 (d) 2001
28. Match the following and select the
correct pairs:
List–I  List–II
 (Authors) (Books)
(A) Selig G. (i) Green
Harrison Revolution
in India
(B) Rudolf and (ii) Indian
Rudolf Paradox
Solved Paper-III, December-2015
(C) Frankline (iii) In pursuit of
Frankel Laxmi: The
political
Economy of
the Indian
State
(D) Myron (iv) India: The
Weiner Most
Dangerous
Decades
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(c) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
29. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(A) S.P. Gupta (i) Taj Pollution
Vs Union
of India
(B) M.C. Mehta (ii) Basic
Vs Union Structure
The State
cause Vs Pump
Union Allotment
of India
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(d) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
30. Which one of the following Acts has
been made under Article 34 of the
Indian Constitution?
(a) The Army Act
(b) The Armed Forces Special Power
Act (AFSPA)
(c) The Border Security Force Act
(d) The Navy Act
Solved Paper-III, December-2015
31. Which of the following statements
is not correct?
(a) The U.S. House of Representatives
is weaker than the British House
of Commons.
(b) The House of Representatives is
weaker than Senate.
(c) U.S. Executive is not accountable
to U.S. Legislature.
(d) The House of Representatives
has overshadowed the American
senate.
32. Which one of the following state-
ments is not correct?
(a) Swiss federal legislature is
bicameral.
(b) The Lower House is called the
National Council.
(c) The Upper House is called
Council of states.
(d) The qualification of voters and
candidate is decided by National
Council.
33. Which one of the following is not a
feature of United Kingdom judiciary?
(a) Based on common law tradition.
(b) Devolution to Scotland have given
more scope to a traditionally rest-
rained Judiciary.
(c) Devolution to Wales have given
more scope to a traditionally
restrained Judiciary.
(d) Judges of Higher Courts are
appointed by the Crown on the
recommendations of the House
of Commons.
34. The Magna Carta, the Glorious
Revolution and the writings of
John Locke all contributed to the
strengthening of Great Britain:
(a) Absolute Monarchy
(b) Ethnic Rivalaries
(c) Parliamentary Democracy
(d) Imperialist Policies
35. Which one of following is correct?
(a) K.C. Wheare: The English
Constitution
(b) Robert Michel: Iron Law of
Oligarchy
(c) G.Savtori: Moderate and Extreme
Multi Party System
(d) Bagehot: Party Politics
36. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(A) Pareto (i) Circulation of
elites
(B) Mosca (ii) History is a
graveyard of
aristocracies
(C) Michels (iii) Theory of the
masses
(D) Gasset (iv) Iron Law of
Oligarchy
Codes:
A B C D (d) Winston Churchill
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 41. What are the three types of political
(b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
37. Political institutionalisation invol-
ves:
(A) Political mobilisation
(B) Political integration
(C) Political representation
(D) Political Fragmentation
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C)
(b) (A), (B), (C),(D)
(c) (A), (D)
(d) (C), (D)
38. Which countries were the basis of
the study of Almond and Verba’s
‘Civic Culture’?
(a) Chile, US, UK, France, Spain
(b) US, France, Mexico, Italy,
Germany
(c) Mexico, Germany, Italy, US, UK
(d) US, UK, Chile, Mexico, Spain
39. The five stages of economic growth
proposed by W.W. Rostow are:
(a) Traditional society, mercantile
capitalism, industrial capitalism,
financial capitalism, globalisation.
141
(b) Preconditions for take-off, take-
off, maturing of industry, industrial
capitalism, full employment.
(c) Traditional society, preconditions
for take-off, take-off, drive to
maturity, the epoch of high mass
consumption.
(d) Preconditions for take-off,
mechanisation, industrialisation,
take-off, financial capitalism.
40. Which world leader gave a special
concept of ‘Development’ after the
Second World War?
(a) Franklin Delano Roosevelt
(b) Harry Truman
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
culture according to Almond and
Verba’s study ‘Civic Culture’?
(a) Parochial, subject, participant
(b) Citizen, communal, democratic
(c) Associative, adjudicative, paro-
chial
(d) Feudal, semi-feudal, democratic
42. Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Arrange the steps in the working of
the general system of Proportional
Representation in the correct sequ-
ence:
(A) the candidates are arranged in
order of the votes they receive.
(B) each party puts up a list of
candidates equal to the number
of seats being fought.
(C) the leftover votes, or remainder
votes are divided up between the
candidates.
(D) Lists can be closed or open,
open lists allow votes to indicate
individual candidate preferences
and vote for individual candidates.
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (C), (B), (D), (A)
(c) (B), (D), (A), (C)
(d) (D), (B), (C), (A)
 142
43. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reasoning (R).
Choose the correct answer using
the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Only when power is
combined with authority does it have
legitimacy.
Reasoning (R): Power is the use of
force over others.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
44. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
  List–I List–II
  (Author) (Title of book)
(A) Gane (i) Europe in
Beinton Revolutions
(B) Ted Gurr (ii) Anatomy of a
Revolution
(C) Charles Tilly (iii) States and
Revolutions
(D) Theda (iv) Why Men
Skocpol Rebel
Codes:
A B C D Select the correct answer from the
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) codes given below:
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (a) (A) and (B)
(c) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (c) (A), (B) and (D)
45. Tick the correct option from the
codes given below:
The theories of modernisation were
criticised by:
(A) dependency theories
(B) liberal theories
(C) underdevelopment theories
(D) world-systems theories
Codes:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (A), (B), (C)
(c) (A), (C), (D)
(d) (B), (D)
46. Who among the following do not
make a distinction between public
and private administration?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) M.P. Follet
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) L. Urwick
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
47. Who among the following laid down
‘Seven principles of organisation’?
(a) Gulick and Urwick
(b) Mary P.Follet
(c) Henri Fayol
(d) F.W.Taylor
48. Which one of the following is not a
principle of organisation?
(a) Hierarchy
(b) Span of Control
(c) Unity of command
(d) Staffing
49. The literature on new public admi-
nistration lays emphasis on:
(A) Relevance (B) Values
(C) Equity (D) Change
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
50. In an informal organisation, autho-
rity always flows:
(a) upwards
(b) downwards
(c) upwards and across
(d) across and downwards
51. Garbage Can Model was developed
by:
(A) Michael D. Cohen
(B) James G. March
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Johan P. Olsen
Solved Paper-III, December-2015
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (A), (B) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (B), (C) and (D)
52. The traditional home of patronage
bureaucracy is:
(a) U.K. (b) U.S.A.
(c) China (d) France
53. Who among the following coined the
term ‘representative bureaucracy’?
(a) Donald Kingsley
(b) Peter Blau
(c) Max Weber
(d) Martin Albrow
54. Which one of the following was
the first country to enact a Law-
Freedom of the Press Act-as early
as in 1766?
(a) U.K. (b) U.S.A.
(c) Sweden (d) Denmark
55. Which of the following statements
about Gender Budgeting are
correct?
(A) It is a separate budget.
(B) It is passed along with the general
budget.
(C) It seeks to translate gender
commitments into budget commi-
tments.
(D) It addresses the needs of women
in the areas of education, health,
employment, etc.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (A) and (D) (d) (C) and (D)
56. Which of the following are the
compulsory provisions of the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act
(1992)?
(A) Indirect election to the post of
Chairperson of Panchayats at the
intermediate level.
(B) Reservation of one-third seats for
women.
Solved Paper-III, December-2015
(C) Reservation of seats for backward
classes.
(D) Constitution of a state Finance
Commission.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
57. Which of the following statements
is not correct?
(a) India is a signatory to the UN
Convention against corruption.
(b) India ranked 95 th out of 178
countries according to the Trans-
parency International’s Index.
(c) Lokpal and Lokayukta Bill was
first introduced in Parliament in
1986.
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
was set up on the recommendation
of Santhanam Committee.
58. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
Assertion (A): The ambit of RTI Act
needs to be widened.
Reason (R): At present, there is trend
toward privatisation and outsourcing
of many erstwhile government acti-
vities.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
59. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
Assertion (A): Authority and respon-
sibility are the two sides of the same
coin.
Reason (R): Authority is divisible,
responsibility is not.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
60. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): The concept of
development administration is of
recent origin.
Reason (R): Many countries became
independent after World War II.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
61. Which of the following terms of
International Relationships was
coined by Nicholas Onuf in his
book-World of our Making?
(a) Realism
(b) Neo-realism
(c) Neo-liberalism
(d) Constructivism
62. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(Authors) (Books)
(A) B. Buzan (i) Man, the State
and War
(B) I. Hansen (ii) Social Theory
of International
Politics
143
(C) K.N. (iii) The Evolution
Waltz of International
Security
Studies
(D) A. Wendt (iv) People, States
and Fear
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
63. Which of the following is not
correct regarding W.T.O?
(a) It administers W.T.O. trade agre-
ements.
(b) It acts as a forum for trade nego-
tiations.
(c) It monitors national trade policies.
(d) It supplies technical assistance
and training for developing and
developed countries.
64. Which country is the example of
Latent Nuclear Capacity?
(a) India (b) Japan
(c) China (d) North Korea
65. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(A)
Counter (i) Types of
force nuclear strategy
strategy that threatens
assets that are
valuable to
an adversary,
such as cities
with industrial
assets and large
populations.
(B) Counter- (ii) International
proliferation lawyers who
argue that there
is a legal right
of humanitarian
intervention
 144
in both UN (a) The rise in the number and type
charter law and of states.
customary (b) The great potential for destruction
international by those who possess nuclear
weapons and modern delivery
law.
systems.
(C) Counter- (iii) Term used
(c) The predominant position of
restrictionist to describe influences that has been achieved
a variety of by the three essentially non-
efforts to European states: Russia, China
obstruct slow, and the United States.
or roll back (d) The large number of states
nuclear are keen to join political and
economic alliances.
weapons
69. The Principal purpose of India’s
programmes
foreign policy vis-a-vis the UN
and nuclear is to pursue three closely related
proliferation. goals. Which of the following is not
(D) Counter (iv) Type of included among them?
value strategy nuclear strategy (a) A significant role in the shaping
of international relations in the
that targets an
21st century.
adversary’s
(b) A movement towards a non-
military and
violent and humane international
nuclear system.
capabilities. (c) The promotion of conditions
Codes: for a sustainable and relatively
A B C D equitable pattern of international
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) development.
(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (d) To help UN to develop its own
financial resources.
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
70. Which of the following is not
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
included in the Doctrine of Panch-
66. Who is given credit to coin the
sheel, 1954?
term-Soft Power?
(a) Mutual respect for each other’s
(a) Joseph Nye
territorial integrity and sove-
(b) N. Alarcon reignity.
(c) A. J. Bellamy (b) Not to develop nuclear weapons.
(d) S. Chesterman (c) Equality and mutual benefit.
67. Marshall Plan, 1947 was also (d) Peaceful Co-existence.
formally known as:
71. Match List–I with List–II and select
(a) European Reconstruction Progr- the correct answer from the codes
amme given below:
(b) European Revival Plan List–I List–II
(c) European Recovery Programme  (Regional (Region)
Organisations)
(d) European Restrengthening Plan
(A) OSCE (i) Europe
68. According to K.J. Holsti, which one
(B) V4 (ii) Eurasia
of the following is not a feature of (C) BSEC (iii) Euro-Atlantic
the contemporary state system? (D) NAFTA (iv) North America
Solved Paper-III, December-2015
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
72. The roots of newly emerging
forces of globalisation have been
traced in specific economic and
political developments in the late
1980s or early 1990s. Which of the
following can not be included in
this category?
(a) The end of Cold War.
(b) Testing of nuclear devices by
India and Pakistan in 1998.
(c) Dismantling of state socialism in
the USSR.
(d) The collapse of the Berlin wall.
73. Who among the following is
associated with Democratic Peace
Theory?
(a) Kenneth Waltz
(b) Michael Doyle
(c) Jackson and Sorenson
(d) John Mearsheimer
74. In which country did Saudi Arabia
militarily intervene in March, 2015?
(a) United Arab Emirates
(b) Yemen
(c) Egypt
(d) Kuwait
75. Which of the following are organs
of organisation of American States?
(A) Secretariat
(B) The Inter-American Conference
(C) The treaty of consultation of
Ministers of Foreign Affairs
(D) The Council
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (C) and (D)
Solved Paper-III, December-2015
Answers with Explanations
1. (*) Question does not have correct
combination of options.
2. (c) Political Theory as discipline
is based on philosophical blocks. It is
derived on the one hand by normative
value approach and by Scientific evalua-
tion on the other hand. Political theory
also has historical as well as analytical
approaches within it.
3. (b) Modern liberalism emerged as
a reaction against free-market capitalism,
believing this had led to many individuals
not being free. Freedom could no
longer simply be defined as ‘being left
alone. Modern liberalism recognises
the importance of group and not just of
individual. It works on the principles of
welfare state where state regulation are
higher to safeguard the weak.
4. (c) In 1937 Mao Zedong wrote an
essay ‘On Contradiction’. Mao suggests
that all movement and life is a result of
contradiction. Nothing is constant as in
metaphysics and can only exist based
on opposing contradictions. He uses
the concept of contradiction to explain
different Chinese historical time periods
and social events.
5. (a) In John Locke’s theory of
Natural rights, he claimed that some
rights are provided to every individual by
nature itself. Hence it is the duty of State
or government to protect those rights at
every cost. Those Natural Rights are Right
to Life, Liberty and Estate (Property).
6. (c)
7. (a) Niccolò Machiavelli can be
considered the father of modern political
science, and his book The Prince one of the
first works of modern political philosophy
(if not just modern philosophy). He gave
a pure treaty of Statecraft. He separated
ethics and religion from Politics.
8. (b) In Hobbes Social Contract,
Sovereign is infallible, Sovereign is
permanent. The Sovereign is not one
among the people. Hence, Sovereign is
not a party to the Contract.
9. (d) John Locke’s Political theory
is mainly based on the principles of
Consent. By achieving the Consent
of People John Locke tries to create a
Limited Government. The Government
is limited because its supreme and only
function is to protect the Rights of the
citizens.
10. (c)
(Concepts) (Thinker’s)
Veil of Ignorance – John Rawls
Alienation – Karl Marx
Piecemeal Social – Karl Popper
Engineering
Night Watchman – Robert Nozick
State
11. (d) Karl Marx quoted that “Man
must eat before he thinks. To eat he must
produce. Production is a basic activity”.
Marx here tried to create foundation for
his Relation of Production Theory.
12. (c) For Bentham, justification of
obedience to government depends upon
utility, that is upon calculation of whether
the ‘probable mischiefs of obedience
are less than the probable mischiefs of
resistance.’ A contract will not work here
for Bentham because, just like rights, all
real contracts are legal contracts.
13. (a) Basic Laws of Dialectical
Materialism:
•• Law of Transformation of Quan-
titative to Qualitative Change.
•• Law of Unity and Struggles of Opp-
osites.
•• The Law of Negation of Negation.
14. (*) Option are incorrect
15. (c) Sarvodaya is a term meaning
‘Universal Uplift’ or ‘Progress of All’.
The term was first coined by Mohandas
Gandhi as the title of his 1908 translation
of John Ruskin’s tract on political
economy, “Unto This Last”, and Gandhi
came to use the term for the ideal of his
own political philosophy.
145
16. (b)
(Acts) (Features)
Charter Act of 1813 – Abolition of
the Trade
monopoly
of Company
Charter Act of 1833 – Complete
abolition of
monopoly
in trade of
Company
The Government of – Secretary of
India Act 1858 State of
India
Government of India – Separate
Act 1909 Electorate
17. (a) The Nehru Committee Report
of 10 August 1928 was a memorandum
outlining a proposed new dominion
status for a constitution for India. It
was prepared by a committee of the All
Parties Conference chaired by Motilal
Nehru with his son Jawaharlal Nehru
acting as secretary. There were nine
other members in this committee.
18. (d) All the statement given related
to centre-state relations in India are
correct.
19. (c) Inter-State Council is platform for
Centre-State and State-State Cooperation
in India. It works as an institution where
state can solve their problem with mutual
cooperation.
20. (a)
21. (b)
(Movements) (Personalities)
Chipko Move- Sunder Lal
ment Bahuguna
Narmada Bachao Medha Patker
Andolan
Right to Infor- Aruna Roy
mation Movement
Telangana K. Chandrasekhar
Movement Rao
22. (d) The Correct Chronological
order of Vice-President of India is:
Gopal Swarup Pathak – 1969–74
Justice Hidayatullah – 1979–84
K.R Narayanan – 1992–97
Krishna Kant – 1997–2002
 146
23. (c) Velama. Velama is a caste
found mainly in Andhra Pradesh and
Telangana. The earliest occurrence of
Velama as a term for a community dates
from the 17th century.
24. (b) Myron Weiner in his Study of
Regional Movements in India, Classified
all the movement under two heads- Ethnic
movement and nativist Movement.
25. (c) Inter State council is a con-
stitutional body under Article 263 of
the constitution. It was established by
Presidential Order dated 28th May,
1990 on recommendation of Sarkaria
Commission. The purpose of the
Interstate council is to facilitate coordi-
nation between states and the centre.
26. (c)
(Student  (Party
Organisation) Affiliation)
Akhil Bharatiya – BJP
Vidyarthi Parishad
All Indian Students – CPI
Federation
National Students – Congress (I)
Union of India
Student Federation – CPIM
of India
27. (c) Since 1990 that was a parlia-
mentary consensus that the deputy
Speaker of the Lok Sabha should belong
to the opposition Party.
28. (c)
(Authors) (Book)
Selig G. Harrison – India: The
Most
Dangerous
Decades
Rudolf and Rudolf – In Pursuit of
Laxmi: The
Political
Economy
Franklin Frankel – Green
Revolution in
India
Myron Weiner – Indian Paradox
29. (a)
(Case) (Issue)
S.P. Gupta Vs Union – Judges
of India Transfer
M. C. Mehta Vs – Taj Pollution
Union of India
Kesavananda Bharati – Basic
Vs The State of Kerala Structure
Common cause Vs – Petrol Pump
Union of India Allotment
30. (b) Armed Forces (Special
Powers) Act (AFSPA), 1958 is an act of
the Parliament of India that grant special
powers to the Indian Armed Forces
the power to maintain public order in
“disturbed areas”.
31. (d) The House of Representative
is chamber of election representative of
America. It does not have any influence
over American Senate. Senate represent
the equal membership of all state.
32. (d)
33. (d) High Court judges are
appointed by The Queen on the advice
of the Lord Chancellor. Under the
Constitutional Reform Act 2005 the
Judicial Appointments Commission has
removed the appointment of judges from
the overtly political arena.
34. (c) The first English Parliament
was convened in 1215, with the creation
and signing of the Magna Carta, which
established the rights of the barons
(wealthy landowners) to serve as
consultants to the king on governmental
matters in his Great Council.
35. (b) The iron law of oligarchy
is a political theory, first developed
by the German sociologist Robert
Michels in his 1911 book, Political
Parties. Michels’s theory states that all
complex organizations, regardless of
how democratic they are when started,
eventually develop into oligarchies.
36. (b)
(Author) (Concept)
Pareto – History is a graveyard of
Aristocracies
Mosca – Circulation of Elites
Michels – Iron law of oligarchy
Gasset – Theory of the Masses
37. (a) Political fragmentation is
not part of Political institutionalisation.
Institutionalisation involve mobilisation,
Integration, Representation.
38. (c) In the text Almond and Verba
examine the democratic systems in five
countries, the United States, Germany,
Mexico, Italy, and the United Kingdom.
Solved Paper-III, December-2015
They consider political culture to be
the element that connects individual
attitudes with the overall political system
structure.
39. (c) There are five stages in
Rostow’s Stages of Development:
traditional society, preconditions for
takeoff, takeoff, drive to maturity, and
age of high mass consumption. In the
1960s, American economist called W.W.
Rostow developed this theory. It is based
off of the models of economic activities.
40. (b) In his inauguration speech
before Congress, US President Harry
Truman defined the largest part of the
world as ‘underdeveloped areas’. There
it was, suddenly, a permanent feature of
the landscape, a pivotal concept which
crammed the immeasurable diversity of
the globe’s South into a single category
- underdeveloped. For the first time, the
new worldview was thus announced: all
the people of the earth were to move
along the same track and aspire to only
one goal - development.
41. (a) According to Almond and
Verba’s 1963 study, there are three basic
types of political culture: parochial,
subject, and participatory.
42. (c) Proportional representation
(PR) is a democratic principle specifying
that people should be represented in
proportion to how they voted. This means
the percentage of seats a party has in the
legislature should reflect the percentage
of people who voted for that party.
43. (b) Yes, Power become legitimate
once it recognition of Authority or when
authority attaches with it. The second
statement is also correct as Power is
the use of Force over others. But it is
not an appropriate reason for assertion
statement.
44. (b)
  (Author)   (Title of Book)
Jane Beinton – Anatomy of a
Revolution
Ted Gurr – Why Men Rebel
Charles Tilly – Europe in
Revolution
Theda Skocpol – States and
Revolution
Solved Paper-III, December-2015
45. (c) From the 1970s, modernization
theory has been criticized by numerous
scholars, including Dependency Theories
by Andre Gunder Frank (1929–2005) and
World- System by Immanuel Wallerstein
(1930–2019).
46. (d) The theorist belonging to
classical theory of Administration did
not make distinction between Private
and public administration. Henri Fayol,
M.P Follet, Gulick and Urwick are few
among them.
47. (a) POSDCORB was envisioned
in an effort to develop public service
professionals. In Gulick’s own words,
the elements are as follows: Planning,
Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Co-
ordinating, Reporting and Budgeting.
48. (d) Staffing is not one of the
Organisational principles suggested by
Gulick and Urwick.
49. (d) Goals of New Public Admini-
stration can be summarized under five
major themes: relevance, values, social
equity, change and client focus.
50. (d) Informal authority flows
upwards to downwards or horizontally
in informal organization. An informal
organization is the social structure of the
organization, as opposed to the formal
structure of an organization. It establishes
how an organization functions from a
practical standpoint.
51. (b) The garbage can model is an
irrational model of decision-making,
which assumes that problems, solutions
and participants are disconnected and
exist as separate organizational streams.
The model originated in the 1972
seminal paper, A Garbage Can Model
of Organizational Choice, written by
Michael D. Cohen, James G. March,
and Johan P. Olsen.
52. (b) In politics and government, a
spoils system (also known as a patronage
system) is a practice in which a political
party, after winning an election, gives
government civil service jobs to its
supporters, friends, and relatives as a
reward for working toward victory,
and as an incentive to keep working for
the party. This system was prevalent in
USA.
53. (a) The notion of a representative
bureaucracy was first articulated by
Donald Kingsley in 1944. Kingsley coined
the term “representative bureaucracy”
in response to what he observed in the
British civil service during World War
II.
54. (c) On 2 December 1766 Sweden
became the first country in the world to
have freedom of the press written into the
constitution. The Swedish Freedom of
the Press Act also broke ground for the
principle of public access to information,
which made it legal to publish and read
public documents.
55. (d) Gender Budgeting is a powerful
tool for achieving gender mainstreaming
so as to ensure that the benefits of
development reach women as much as
men. It is not an accounting exercise
but an ongoing process of keeping a
gender perspective in policy/ programme
formulation, its implementation and
review.
56. (c) Compulsory Provisions under
73rd Amendment Act:
1. Organization of Gram Sabha in
a village or group of villages
2. Establishment of panchayats at
the village, intermediate and
district levels
3. Direct elections to all seats
in panchayats at the village,
intermediate and district levels
4. Indirect elections to the post of
chairperson of panchayats at the
intermediate and district levels
5. 21 years to be the minimum
age for contesting elections to
panchayats
6. Reservation of seats (both mem-
bers and chairpersons) for SCs
and STs in panchayats at all the
three levels
7. Reservation of one-third seats
(both members and chairpersons)
for women in panchayats at all
the three levels
147
8. Fixing tenure of five years for
panchayats at all levels and
holding fresh elections within
six months in the event of
supersession of any panchayat
9. Establishment of a State Election
Commission for conducting
elections to the panchayats
10. Constitution of a State Finance
Commission after every five
years to review the financial
position of the panchayats
57. (c) The concept of a constitutional
ombudsman was first proposed in
parliament by Law Minister Ashoke
Kumar Sen in the early 1960s. The first
Jan Lokpal Bill was proposed by Adv
Shanti Bhushan in 1968 and passed in the
4th Lok Sabha in 1969, but did not pass
through the Rajya Sabha.
58. (a) Considering the extent of
privatization and Outsourcing in India,
the issue of transparency became
excessively important. This requires the
ambit of RTI Act needs to be Widened.
Both the statement are correct and the
Reason statement is appropriate reason
behind the assertion.
59. (b) Yes, Authority is divisible
and responsibility is not. Authority and
Responsibility are the two sides of the
same coin they go hand in hand.
60. (a) Many countries became inde-
pendent after World War II and the
emergence of new nation give birth to the
concept of Development administration.
Hence it is considered that development
administration is of recent origin. Both
the statement are correct and the Reason
statement is appropriate reason behind
the assertion.
61. (d) Nicholas Onuf is a leading
scholar in international relations and
introduced constructivism to interna-
tional relations, coining the term con-
structivism in his book World of Our
Making (1989).
 148
62. (a)
(Authors) (Books)
B. Buzan – People, States and
Fear
I. Hansen – The evolution of
International Security
Studies
K.N Waltz – Man, the state and
War
Wendt – Social Theory of
International Politics
63. (d) WTO does not provide any
kind of technical assistance and trading
for developing and developed countries.
64. (b) Nuclear latency or a Nuclear
threshold state is the condition of a
country possessing the technology to
quickly build nuclear weapons, without
having actually done so. Japan is one
among such countries.
65. (a)
66. (a) Joseph Nye introduced the
concept of “soft power” in the late
1980s. For Nye, power is the ability to
influence the behavior of others to get the
outcomes you want. Soft power can be
wielded not just by states but also by all
actors in international politics, such as
NGOs or international institutions.
67. (c) The Marshall Plan (officially
the European Recovery Program, ERP)
was an American initiative passed in
1948 to aid Western Europe, in which
the United States gave over $12 billion
(nearly $100 billion in 2018 US dollars)
in economic assistance to help rebuild
Western European economies after the
end of World War II.
68. (d) Forming Political and Econo-
mic alliances is not one of the features of
contemporary State system as suggested
by K.J Holsti.
69. (d) Helping UN in developing its
own Financial resource is not one among
the objective Indian foreign policy.
70. (b) The five principles of Panch-
sheel between India-China are;
•• Mutual respect for each other’s
territorial integrity and sovereignty
•• Mutual non-aggression
•• Mutual non-interference
•• Equality and cooperation for mutual
benefit
•• Peaceful coexistence
71. (a)
 (Regional (Region)
Organisation)
OSCE – Euro-Atlantic
V4 – Europe
Solved Paper-III, December-2015
BSEC – Euro-Atlantic
NAFTA – North America
72. (b) The testing of Nuclear
weapons by India and Pakistan in 1998
has nothing to do with Globalisation. The
political development like, the collapse
of the Berlin Wall, the disintegration of
the USSR and the end of the Cold War
created the situation Globalisation.
73. (b) Democratic peace theory is
a theory which posits that democracies
are hesitant to engage in armed conflict
with other identified democracies.
Michael Doyle is one of the proponents
of Democratic peace theory.
74. (b) Saudi-led intervention in
Yemen also called the Arab coalition is
an invasion that was launched by Saudi
Arabia in 2015, leading a coalition of
nine countries from the Middle East
and Africa, in response to calls from
the internationally recognized pro-Saudi
president of Yemen.
75. (d) The Inter-American Con-
ference is not an organ of American
administration organisation. It is a
conference for the interaction among
various federal unit of America.
qqq
Solved Paper-II, July-2016
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, July-2016
1. For Plato which of the following
statements is not true?
(A) Ideas are substances.
(B) Ideas are essences of all things.
(C) Ideas are reflections of things.
(D) Ideas are universal.
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (B) only (d) (C) only
2. Who among the following called
Machiavelli’s “Prince” the great
and true conception of a real
political genius with the highest and
noblest purpose?
(a) Bentham (b) J.S. Mill
(c) Hegel (d) Karl Marx
3. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I (Authors)
(A) Quentin Skinner
(B) Michael Sandel
(C) Giovanni Sartori
(D) Charles Taylor
List–II (Books)
(i) Philosophy and Human Sciences
(ii) The Foundations of Modern
Political Thought
(iii) Liberalism and the Limits of
Justice
(iv) Democratic Theory
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
4. Who among the following considers
Marxism to be an ideology rather
than a political theory?
(a) Germino (b) David Held
(c) R.A. Dahl (d) G.H. Sabine
5. Arrange the following works of
Isaiah Berlin in chronological
order of his publications. Select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
(A) Concepts and Categories: Philo-
sophical Essays
(B) Four Essays on Liberty
(C) Vico and Herder: Two Studies in
the History of Ideas
(D) K a r l M a r x : H i s L i f e a n d
Environment
Codes:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (C), (B), (A) and (D)
(c) (D), (B), (C) and (A)
(d) (B), (D), (A) and (C)
6. Who among the following conceived
the society as ‘a cooperative venture
for mutual advantage’?
(a) Rawls (b) Nozick
(c) Hayek (d) Gramsci
7. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): For Rousseau a
thinking man is a depraved animal.
Reason (R): Common emotions give
value to life.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
149
8. Who among the following rejected
the idea that caste status was
the result of divine reward or
punishment?
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(b) M.A. Jinnah
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) M.K. Gandhi
9. Who among the following said:
“Research untutored by theory
may prove trivial, and theory
unsupported by data, futile”?
(a) B. Crick
(b) Charles Merriam
(c) David Easton
(d) R.A. Dahl
10. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): For Fukuyama,
liberal democracy may constitute the
end point of mankind’s ideological
evolution.
Reason (R): The earlier forms of
government were characterised by
grave defects and irrationalities that
led to their eventual collapse.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
11. Which of the following constitutes
the political elite?
(a) Subalterns and marginalized
leaders
(b) Rulers and subjects
(c) Leader and the followers
(d) Oligarchy and Aristocracy
 150
12. Who among the following is
associated with the initial stages in
the growth of comparative politics?
(a) Karl Popper
(b) Arthur Bentley
(c) E.H. Carr
(d) Graham Wallas
13. Which branch of comparative
politics seeks to examine the formal
and informal mechanisms by which
political attitudes are inculcated?
(a) Political socialization
(b) Political communication
(c) Political modernization
(d) Political development
14. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g
contended that political
development is administrative and
legal development?
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(A) R.R. Rostow
(B) Talcott Parsons
(C) Sorokin
(D) Max Waber
Codes:
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (A) and (C) (d) (B) and (C)
15. Who became the first ever Prime
Minister in a Parliamentary
government?
(a) William Pitt, the Elder
(b) Henry Pelham
(c) William Putenny
(d) Robert Walpole
16. Who among the following were
associated with institutional
approach?
(A) Carew Hunt
(B) Herman Finer
(C) Roy C. Macridis
(D) Carl Friedrich
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (B) and (C) (d) (A) and (D)
17. Arrange the following revolutions
in the sequence in which they took
place:
(A) Chinese Revolution
(B) Cuban Revolution
(C) Bolshevik Revolution
(D) Puritan Revolution
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(b) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(c) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(d) (C), (D), (B), (A)
18. Identify the correct sequence of the
following input functions?
(i) Political communication
(ii) Political socialization and
recruitment
(iii) Interest aggregation
(iv) Interest articulation
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (iv), (i), (iii) and (ii)
(c) (ii), (iv), (iii) and (i)
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i)
19. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
A s s e r t i o n ( A ) : I r o n l a w o f
oligarchy established that ultimate
decision-making in all democratic
organizations including the political
parties is done by few leaders or a
small elite group.
Reason (R): Decision making is very
complex process which necessarily
involves the role of few who function
on behalf of many.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
Solved Paper-II, July-2016
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
20. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Military is predominant
in non-western democracies.
Reason (R): Social fragmentation
and cleavages largely contribute to
political instability.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
21. Identify the correct chronological
order of the formation of the
following political parties in India:
(a) Justice Party, Hindu Maha Sabha,
National Conference, Shiromani
Akali Dal
(b) National conference, Shiromani
Akali Dal, Hindu Maha Sabha,
Justice Party
(c) Hindu Maha Sabha, Shiromani
Akali Dal, National Conference,
Justice Party
(d) Justice Party, Shiromani Akali
Dal, Hindu Maha Sabha, National
Conference
22. Which one of the following pairs is
not correctly matched?
(a) Conditions of eligibility of a
Governor : Article 158
(b) Dismissal of a Governor by the
President : Article 156 (2)
(c) Nomination of members of
Legislative Council by the
Governor : Article 171 (5)
(d) Power of the Governor to
recommend ‘Money Bill’: Article
207
23. Consider the following statements
and select the correct answer from
the codes given below:
Solved Paper-II, July-2016
Statement I: The only mode of
initiating a proposal for amendment
is to introduce a bill in either house
of the Union Parliament.
Statement II: If there is a disagree-
ment between the two Houses of
Parliament regarding the passage of
a bill, the deadlock may be resolved
by a joint session of the two Houses.
Codes:
(a) Only Statement I is true.
(b) Only Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statements I and II are true.
(d) Both Statements I and II are false.
24. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I
(A) 36th Constitutional Amendment
Act
(B) 61st Constitutional Amendment
Act
(C) 97th Constitutional Amendment
Act
(D) 99th Constitutional Amendment
Act
List-II
(i) Transparency in judicial appoint-
ments
(ii) Declaration of Sikkim as a full
fledged state
(iii) Lowering of voting age from 21
to 18 years
(iv) Formation and functioning of
co-operative societies
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
25. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
  List-I
(A) Granville Austin
(B) K.C. Wheare
(C) Appleby
(D) Ivor Jennings
  List-II
(i) ‘Quasi federal’
(ii) ‘Federation with strong centrali-
sing tendency’
(iii) ‘Cooperative federalism’
(iv) ‘Extremely federal’
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) Reason (R): Till 1967, the Congress
26. Match List-I with List-II and
identify the correct answer from
the codes given below:
List-I (Acts)
(A) Government of India Act, 1858
(B) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(C) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(D) Government of India Act, 1919
List-II (Provision)
(i) Introduction of bi-cameral
legislature for the first time
(ii) Complete imperial control by
Secretary of State for India
(iii) Inclusion of non-official members
in the Executive Council of
Governor General for the first time
(iv) Separate representation of the
Muslim community
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
27. Which of the following statements
about the Writ of Habeas Corpus
is correct?
(a) It can be issued to secure the
release of a person who has been
imprisoned by a court of law on
a criminal charge.
(b) It can be issued to interfere with
the proceeding for contempt by a
Court of record or by Parliament.
(c) The writ is a very powerful
safeguard to the subject against
151
arbitrary acts not only of private
individuals but also of the
executive.
(d) By this writ, the Court can
obtain knowledge of the reason
a person has been imprisoned
but cannot set her/him free if the
imprisonment is unlawful.
28. Assertion (A): In the first three
general elections, India produced a
‘one party dominance’ model, which
is different from one party system.
party had exclusive control over
governmental power both at the
Centre and also in most of the states
of India.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
29. Arrange the following Speakers of
Lok Sabha of India in chronological
order and select the correct answer
from the codes given below:
I. Dr. Balram Jakhar
II. Dr. Gurdial Singh Dhillon
III. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
IV. Bali Ram Bhagat
Code:
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, III, I, IV
(c) III, II, IV, I (d) III, IV, II, I
30. Which of the following High Courts
have Bench/Benches?
(a) Allahabad, Bombay, Jabalpur
(b) Jodhpur, Bombay, Hyderabad
(c) Calcutta, Guwahati, Bangalore
(d) Jabalpur, Madras, Guwahati
31. According to Peter Self, the study
of public administration developed
as an offshoot of which one of the
following?
(a) Political Science or Public law
(b) Politics or Ethics
 152
(c) Public Policy or Policy making
(d) Political system or interest
aggregation
32. Which one of the following is not
a part of the underlying ideas of
traditional or mechanistic theory
of organization?
(a) It takes an administrative view
of human relationship.
(b) It considers economic incentives
to be the sole motivating factor.
Codes:
(c) It ignores the dynamics of
organizational behaviour.
(d) It gives more importance to
informal relationship.
33. Which one of the following key
components of ‘governance’
was not identified by OECD,
38. What is common among Duncan
while laying down conditions for
receiving economic assistance?
(a) Participatory development
(b) Strict auditing
(c) Human rights
(d) Democratisation
34. Cybernetics means:
(a) Science of communicating
(b) Communication methods
(c) Artificial intelligence
(d) Science of control and commu-
39. Match List-I with List-II and select
nication
35. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g
thinkers advocated ‘effective
communication’ as a basic pre-
requisite for the attainment of
organizational goals?
(a) Herbert Simon
(b) Peter Self
(c) Chester Barnard
(d) Woodrow Wilson
36. Taking an extreme view of the
distinction between public and
private administration, who said
that all organizations share public
and private features?
(a) Dwight Waldo
(b) E.S. Savas
(c) Barry Bozeman
(d) James W. Fesler
37. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Some departments
are concerned not only with purely
administrative work but some authority
to make rules and regulations is also
delegated to them by the legislature.
Reason (R): John M. Pfiffner prefers
single head of the department under
certain circumstances.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Black, Anthony Dowas, James
Buchanan, and Kenneth Arrow?
(a) They are all advocates of
Public Choice Theory in public
administration.
(b) They are all ex-Cabinet Secretaries
of UK.
(c) They are all supporters of Whitley
Councils in UK.
(d) They are all exponents of classical
theories of administration.
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
L
ist-I (Books)
(A) An Introduction to Administrative
Law
(B) Justice and Administrative Law
(C) Comparative Administrative Law
(D) Introduction to the Study of the
Law of the Constitution
L
ist-II (Author)
(i) Frank J. Goodnow
(ii) A.V. Dicey
(iii) James Hart
(iv) W.A. Robson
Codes:
A B C D developing economically.
(a) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (c) Negotiating is better than
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) fighting.
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (d) Other states are viewed as
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Solved Paper-II, July-2016
40. Which one of the following is the
correct chronological order of
the Committees/Commissions/
Reports?
(a) M a s t e r m a n C o m m i t t e e –
Brownlow Committee –
Gladstone Committee – Aitchison
Commission
(b) A i t c h i s o n C o m m i s s i o n –
Gladstone Committee – Brownlow
Committee - Masterman
Committee
(c) A i t c h i s o n C o m m i s s i o n –
Masterman Committee
– Brownlow Committee –
Gladstone Committee
(d) Gladstone Committee – Aitchison
Commission – Masterman
Committee – Brownlow
Committee
41. Who among the following declared
that the state is retreating in the
face of the superior power of
globalization?
(a) McLean and McMillan
(b) George Schwarzenberger
(c) Kenneth Waltz
(d) Susan Strange
42. Who among the following argued
that ‘realism is likely to remain
the single most useful instrument
in our intellectual toolbox’?
(a) Holsti
(b) E.H. Carr
(c) Hans Margenthau
(d) Stephen Walt
43. Which of the following is not the
basic norm of the balance of power
system that are clear to each of the
state actors engaged in the process
of balancing:
(a) Any actor or coalition that tries
to assume dominance must be
constrained.
(b) States want to increase their
capabilities by acquiring territory,
increasing their population or
potential enemies.
Solved Paper-II, July-2016
44. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I (Scholar)
(A) McLean and McMillan
(B) Morgenthau
(C) George Schwarzerberger
(D) Van Dyke
L
ist-II (Statement)
(i) It is not so much the absolute
power of a state as its power
position in relation to other states
that counts.
(ii) Defined power as the capacity to
impose one’s will on others by
reliance on effective sanctions in
the case of non-compliance.
(iii) Defined power as man’s control
over the minds and actions of
other men.
(iv) Power is the ability to make
people do what they would not
otherwise have done.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
45. Article 25 of the Charter of the
United Nations provides that
(a) Use of force is allowed for self-
defence.
(b) Only peace loving states can
become members of UN.
(c) All UN members agree to accept
and carry-out the decisions of the
Security Council.
Answers with Explanations
1. (d) According to Plato things are a
reflection of Ideas and not vice-versa. In
his theory of form, Plato elaborated the
importance of Ideas and how they shape
the world around us.
2. (c) Hegel said that Machiavelli is the
man of genius who saw the need for uniting
a chaotic collection of small and feeble
principalities into a coherent whole. He also
stated that “The march of world history
stands outside virtue, vice and justice.”
(d) T h e S e c u r i t y C o u n c i l h a s
primary responsibility under the
Charter for the maintenance of
international peace and security.
46. Which of the following has not
been incorporated into Indian law,
either fully or partially?
(a) The Tokyo Convention Act, 1975
(b) T h e R o m e S t a t u t e o f t h e
International Criminal Court.
(c) The Anti-Apartheid (United
Nations Convention) Act, 1981
(d) The Geneva Convention Act,
1960
47. Which of the following statements is
not correct regarding International
Criminal Court?
(a) The statute of International
Criminal Court was adopted by
United Nations Conference on
18th July, 1998.
(b) The International Criminal
Court is not an organ of United
Nations but it is an independent
organization.
(c) Its statute came into force on 1st
July, 2002.
(d) The four organs of International
Criminal Court are the Presidency,
the Judicial Division, the office of
the Prosecutor and the Registry.
48. In which year the UN General
Assembly adopted the Convention
on the Rights of Persons with
Disabilities?
(a) 2006 (b) 2007
(c) 2008 (d) 2009
49. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
3. (a) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(Author)
(A) Quentin Skinner
(B) Michael Sandel
(C) Giovanni Sartori
(D) Charles Taylor
(Books)
(ii) The Foundations of Modern
Political Thought
153
List-I (Committee of General
Assembly of UN)
(A) First Committee
(B) Second Committee
(C) Third Committee
(D) Fourth Committee
List-II (Issues related to Committee)
(i) Economic and financial
(ii) Disarmament and international
security
(iii) Special political and decoloni-
sation
(iv) Social, humanitarian and cultural
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
50. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): End of Cold War
signified a shift from ideological
politics in International relations.
Reason (R): Religious fundamen-
talism is posing a threat to security.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(iii) Liberalism and the Limits of Justice
(iv) Democratic Theory
(i) Philosophy and Human Sciences
4. (a) Sushila Ramaswamy in her book
‘Political Theory: Idea and Concept’ wrote
that “Germino considers Marxism to be an
ideology rather than a political theory.”
5. (c) The correct chronology of
Berlin’s work is:
Karl Marx: His Life and Environment–
1939
 154
Four Essays on Liberty – 1969
Vico and Herder: Two Studies in the
History of Ideas – 1976
Concept and Categories: Philosophical
Essays – 1978
6. (a) In A Theory of Justice,
Rawls explicitly states that “society
is a cooperative venture for mutual
advantage”. The characterization of
a society as a cooperative venture for
mutual advantage seems to imply that
the society has some sort of collective
identity.
7. (a) Rousseau formulates the famous
thesis, “If nature destined man to be
healthy, I venture to declare that a state of
reflection is a state contrary to nature, and
that a thinking man is a depraved animal.”
The reason behind it is that Common
emotions give value to life.
8. (d) M.K Gandhi although support
the social order of Varna Vyavastha
mentioned in Hinduism, but he clearly
rejected the idea that people are born
to particular caste due to divine reward
or punishment for their Karma. He just
supported the functional or occupational
distribution suggested by Varna
Vyavastha.
9. (c) According to David Easton,
research ought to be systematic, i.e.,
theory and research are to be seen as
closely intertwined parts of a coherent
and orderly body of knowledge. In
his words, “research untutored by
theory may prove trivial, and theory
unsupported by data, futile”.
10. (a) According to Fransis Fukuyama,
the earlier forms of government were
characterised by grave defects and
irrationalities that led to their eventual
collapse. Hence, the liberal democracy
according to him may constitute the end
point of mankind’s ideological evolution.
11. (d) The Oligarchic system of
government contain few individuals
who run the government take important
decision. They constitute Political Elite
class. Similarly in Aristocracy, aristocrats
play a significant role in Ruling .
12. (b) Arthur Bentley is credited
with the first modem articulation of
politics through the field of comparative
politics. He was among those scholars
who created the foundation comparative
study of politics as a discipline.
Solved Paper-II, July-2016
13. (a) The level of Political Socializa- 20. (b) Yes, Its true that presence of
tion of a society is studied in Comparative social cleavages and social fragmentation
Politics. Political socialization helps results into political instability. And
in examining the formal and informal this instability sometimes became the
mechanisms by which political attitudes reason behind the military predominance
are inculcated. in non-western democracies. Both the
14. (a) Max Weber and R.R. Rostow statements are true, but reason statement
gave the principles of administration. is not an appropriate reason behind the
Both of believes that any kind of assertion statement.
political development is either a type of 21. (d) The correct chronological
administrative development or a legal order of the formation of Political Parties
development. in India is:
15. (d) Britain is the first country to Justice Party – 1917
Shiromani Akali Dal – 1920
have parliamentary democracy. Hence,
Hindu Maha Sabha – 1921
the first Prime Minister of Britain can
National Conference – 1932
be considered as the first ever PM 22. (b) Article 156(2) Talks about
in Parliamentary government. This
resignation of Governor by writing to
appellation is traditionally given to Sir President. He is not dismissed under
Robert Walpole, who became first lord Article 156(2).
of the treasury of Great Britain in 1721. 23. (c) Joint session is allowed for
ordinary legislation but not in case of a
16. (b) The institutional approach
money bill or constitutional amendment
to comparative political analysis,
bill. Rest both the statement are correct.
simply put, is a comparative study of
24. (d) (A) (B) (C) (D)
institutions. The nature (comparative)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
and subject matter (institutions) of study
     (Amendments)
are thus quite evident. A significant
(A)  36th Constitutional Amendment
component of these studies was the
Act
concern to study ‘practice’ through an
(B)  61st Constitutional Amendment
analysis of ‘facts’ about the working of
governments. This effort was sustained Act
(C)  97th Constitutional Amendment
by later comparativists like Herman
Finer (Theory and Practice Institutional Act
Approach of Modern Government, (D)  99th Constitutional Amendment
1932) and Carl Friedrich (Constitutional Act
Government and Democracy, 1932).      (Features)
17. (c) The correct sequence of (ii) Declaration of Sikkim as a full
Revolutions is: fledged state
Puritan Revolution – 1653–58 (iii) Lowering of voting age from 21
Bolshevik Revolution – 1917 to 18 years
Chinese Revolution – 1949 (iv) Formation and functioning of
Cuban Revolution – 1953–59 cooperative societies
18. (c) Almond in his system theory (i)  Transparency in judicial
included following inputs - Political appointments
socialization and recruitment, Interest 25. (c)
articulation, Interest aggregation and last (Author)   (Concept)
one is Political communication. Granville – ‘Cooperative
19. (a) The “Iron law of oligarchy” Austin federalism’
states that all forms of organization, K.C. – ‘Quasi federal’
regardless of how democratic they Wheare
may be at the start, will eventually
Appleby – ‘Federation with
and inevitably develop oligarchic strong centralising
tendencies, thus making true democracy tendency’
practically and theoretically impossible,
Ivor – ‘Extremely federal’
especially in large groups and complex
Jennings
organizations.
Solved Paper-II, July-2016
26. (a) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(Acts)
(A) Government of India Act, 1858
(B) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(C) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(D) Government of India Act, 1919
(Provision)
(ii)  Complete imperial control by
Secretary of State for India
(iii) Inclusion of non-official members in
the Executive Council of Governor
General for the first time
(iv)  Separate representation of the
Muslim Community
(i)  Introduction of bi-cameral
legislature for the first time
27. (c) The writ of habeas corpus,
often shortened to habeas corpus, is the
requirement that an arrested person be
brought before a judge or court before
being detained or imprisoned. The writ is
a very powerful safeguard to the subject
against arbitrary acts not only of private
individuals but also of the executive.
28. (a) Yes, In initial 3 general
election have dominance of one party that
is congress. But it does not like the one
party system, where other parties are not
allowed to contest. In India all parties are
allowed to contest but during this phase
they did not get public support. Congress
in early 20 year has control over centre
as well as state government in majority
of states.
29. (c) The Correct chronological
order of Lok Sabha Speaker of India:
N.S. Reddy – 1967–69
Gurdial Singh Dhillon – 1969–75
Bali Ram Bhagat – 1976–77
Balram Jakhar – 1980–89
30. (a)
31. (a) Peter Self claimed that Political
Science and Public Laws result into the
development of Public Administration.
32. (d) According to Black’s Law
Dictionary mechanistic organization
is “the organization is hierarchical and
bureaucratic. It is characterized by its
(1) highly centralized authority, (2)
formalized procedures and practices, and
(3) specialized functions. Mechanistic
organization is relatively easier and
simpler to organize, but rapid change
is very challenging. Contrast to organic
organization.” It did not give importance
to informal relationship.
33. (b) ODA flows are provided by the
29 OECD members of the Development
Assistance Committee (DAC). Official
Development Assistance (ODA) is defined
as government aid designed to promote
the economic development and welfare of
developing countries. Strict adulting is not
among the governance criteria.
34. (d) Cybernetics is the science
of communication and control theory
that is concerned especially with the
comparative study of automatic control
systems (such as the nervous system
and brain and mechanical-electrical
communication systems).
35. (c) Chester Barnard suggested
7 principles of communication which
are important in establishing and
maintaining objective authority in an
organization. These principles are - The
channels of communication should be
definite. Everyone in the organization
must have a definite formal channel of
communication, etc.
36. (b) In his work ‘Privatization and
Public-Private Partnership’ E.S. Savas
mentioned that all organisations share
public and private features.
37. (b) John M. Pfiffner prefers single
head of the department under certain
circumstances. As some departments
are concerned not only with purely
administrative work but some authority to
make rules and regulations is also delegated
to them by the legislature. Both the
statement are correct, but reason statement
is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
38. (a) Public Choice theory is the
application of economics to the study
of public administration. Public choice
is defined by Dennis Mueller as “the
economic study of non-market decision
making or simply the application
of economics to political science”.
Duncan Black, Anthony Dowas, James
Buchanan, and Kenneth Arrow all are
propagators of Public Choice theory.
39. (c) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(Books)
(A) An Introduction to Administrative
Law
(B) Justice and Administrative Law
155
(C) Comparative Administrative Law
(D) Introduction to the Study of the
Law of the Constitution
  (Author)
(iii) James Hart
(iv) W.A. Robson
(i) Frank J. Goodnow
(ii) A.V. Dicey
40. (b) Chronology of Committee/
Reports:
Aitchison Commission – 1886
Gladstone Committee – 1895
Brownlow Committee – 1937
Masterman Committee – 1950
41. (d) Susan Strange wrote a book
‘The Retreat of State’. The central
argument of the book is that the state
is retreating in the face of the superior
power of globalization.
42. (d) Stephen Walt has written
that even in the post–Cold War period,
“realism is likely to remain the single
most useful instrument in our intellectual
toolbox” for understanding world politics.
43. (d) Five Principal Assumptions of
Balance of Power are:
(a) Firstly, Balance of Power assumes
that states are determined to protect their
vital rights and interests by all means,
including war.
(b) Secondly, vital interests of the
states are threatened.
(c) The relative power position of states
can be measured with a degree of accuracy.
(d) Balance of Power assumes that
“balance” will either deter the threatening
state from launching an attack or permit
the victim to avoid defeat if an attack
should occur.
(e) The statesmen can, and they do
make foreign policy decisions intelligently
on basis of power considerations.
44. (a) According to McLean and
McMillan “Power is the ability to
make people do what they would not
otherwise have done”. Morgenthau
defined power as man’s control over the
minds and actions of other men. George
Schwarzerberger defined power as the
capacity to impose one’s will on others
by reliance on effective sanctions in
the case of non-compliance. Van Dyke
said that “It is not so much the absolute
power of a state as its power position in
relation to other states that counts.”
 156
45. (c) Article 25 of the UN Charter
directs all nation that “The Members of
the United Nations agree to accept and
carry out the decisions of the Security
Council in accordance with the present
Charter.”
46. (b) India has neither signed
nor ratified the Rome Statute on the
International Criminal Court (ICC).
The reason is that the Rome Statute on
the International Criminal Court (ICC)
defines war crimes including the ‘armed
conflict not of an international character’.
47. (a) 1 July 2002, in accordance
with Article 126. The Statute was
adopted on 17 July 1998 by the United
Nations Diplomatic Conference of
Plenipotentiaries on the Establishment of
an International Criminal Court.
48. (a) The Convention on the Rights
of Persons with Disabilities and its
Optional Protocol (A/RES/61/106) was
adopted on 13 December 2006 at the
United Nations Headquarters in New
York, and was opened for signature on
30 March 2007. The Convention entered
into force on 3 May 2008. It takes to a
new height the movement from viewing
persons with disabilities as “objects” of
charity, medical treatment and social
protection towards viewing persons with
disabilities as “subjects” with rights, who
are capable of claiming those rights and
making decisions for their lives based on
their free and informed consent as well
as being active members of society.
49. (a) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Solved Paper-II, July-2016
(Committee of the General
Assembly of UN)
(A) First Committee
(B) Second Committee
(C) Third Committee
(D) Fourth Committee
(Issues related to Committee)
(ii)  Disarmament and international
security
(i) Economic and financial
(iv) Social, humanitarian and cultural
(iii) Special political and decolonisation
50. (b) Yes, Religious fundamentalism
is posing a threat to security. It is a creating
condition for terrorism. It is believed by
various scholars that the end of the cold
war has shifted the ideological politics in
international relations in significant way.
qqq
Solved Paper-III, July-2016
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-III, July-2016
1. Who among the following said
that political theory stands for
an abstract model of the political
order?
(a) T.P. Jenkin
(b) R.A. Dahl
(c) W.T. Bluhm
(d) Weinstein
2. Which one of the following
statements is not true?
(a) Classical political theory is
qualitative.
(b) Behavioural political theory is
quantitative.
(c) Post-behavioural political theory is
both qualitative and quantitative.
(d) Behavioural theory is not specially
concerned with Anglo-American
model.
3. Which one of the following
statements is not true?
(a) Neo-liberalism refers to significant
revival of interest in classical
liberalism.
(b) Neo-liberal ideas were taken up
by the political parties of the New
Right in Britain.
(c) The revival of classical liberalism
occurred as a reaction against the
onset of a world recession in the
1970s.
(d) T.H. Green accepted the classical
liberal notion of liberty only.
4. Who among the following dismissed
John Rawl’s concept of social
justice as a ‘mirage’?
(a) Macpherson
(b) Friedrich Hayek
(c) Isaiah Berlin
(d) Robert Nozick
5. Who among the following said that
ideology should neither be thought
157
of as liberating or oppressive, nor Codes:
as true or false. It can be any these A B C D
things? (a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(a) Andrew Heywood
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) John Rawls
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c) Andrew Gamble
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) Bill Coxall
8. Who among the following said:
6. Match List–I with List–II and select
“Most religious men I have met are
the correct answer from the codes
politicians in disguise. I, however,
given below:
who wear the guise of a politician
List–I (Year)
in disguise, am at heart a religious
(A) 1917
man”?
(B) 1918
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) 1921
(D) 1934 (b) C.R. Das
List–II (Event) (c) M.K. Gandhi
(i) Mao started his historic ‘Long (d) M.A. Jinnah
March’ 9. Given below are two statements,
(ii) Mao participated in the first one labelled as Assertion (A) and
Congress of the CCP the other labelled as Reason (R).
(iii) Mao became a Library Assistant Select the correct answer from the
in Peking University codes given below:
(iv) Mao met Liu Shao-Chi Assertion (A): Platonic theory of
Codes: ideas is based upon the theory of
A B C D knowledge.
(a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) Reason (R): For him, knowledge is
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) perception.
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Codes:
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and
7. Match List–I with List–II and select (R) is the correct explanation of
the correct answer from the codes (A).
given below:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
List–I (Philosopher)
is not the correct explanation of
(A) Machiavelli
(A).
(B) Hobbes
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) Locke
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) Rousseau
10. Who among the following said:
List–II (Idea)
“Aristotle’s new general science
(i) Revolt against Reason
of politics was not only empirical
(ii) Moral Indifference and descriptive, but even in some
(iii) Instinct of self-preservation respects independent of any ethical
(iv) Natural Right to Property purpose, since a statesman might
 158 Solved Paper-III, July-2016
need to be expert in governing even 14. Arrange the following works of 17. The term ‘legitimation crisis’, in
a bad state.”? Amartya Sen in chronological terms of erosion of confidence
(a) E. Barker order of his publications. in public institutions resulting in
(b) G.H. Sabine (A) Idea of Justice coercive apparatus of states, was
developed by:
(c) E.B. England (B) Inequality Re-examined
(a) David Apter
(d) G.C. Field (C) Development as Freedom
(b) S.P. Huntington
11. For Locke, which of the following (D) Choice, Welfare and Measurement
statements is not true? (c) Edward Shills
Select the correct answer from the
(A) The state must be a constitutional (d) Habermas
codes given below:
state. 18. Which of the following is not true
Codes: of a Constitution?
(B) G o v e r n m e n t m u s t p o s s e s
(a) (D), (B), (C), (A) (a) It safeguards the political
discretionary power.
(b) (A), (B), (C), (D) institutions.
(C) It is a tolerant state.
(D) The right to property is not a (c) (C), (D), (A), (B) (b) It is the source of all authority of
natural right. (d) (B), (A), (D), (C) the organs of the government.
Select the correct answer from the 15. Given below are two statements, (c) It promotes transnational
codes given below: one labelled as Assertion (A) and security.
(a) (A) and (C) the other labelled as Reason (R). (d) It incorporates fundamental laws.
(b) (A) and (B) Select the correct answer from the 19. Who among the following are
(c) (B) only codes given below: European thinkers associated with
(d) (D) only Assertion (A): There was great deal the theory of political elites?
12. For Rousseau, which of the of similarity between the ideas of (A) Pareto (B) Mosca
following statements is not true? Mazzini and those of Aurobindo. (C) Schumpeter (D) Lasswell
(A) Two original instincts i.e. self- Reason (R): Both believed that faith Select the correct answer from the
love and sympathy make up in God was the basis of morality, that codes given below:
man’s nature. politics could not be separated from (a) (A) and (B)
(B) A thinking man is a depraved morality.
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
animal. Codes: (c) (A), (B) and (D)
(C) Family is the only natural society. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(D) General will is not a group mind. (R) is the correct explanation of
20. Who among the following do not
Select the correct answer from the (A).
make any distinction between
codes given below: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) interest groups and pressure
(a) (A) and (B) is not the correct explanation of groups?
(b) (B) and (C) (A).
(A) Jean Blondel
(c) (C) only (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (B) Myron Weiner
(d) (D) only (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (C) Robert C. Bone
13. For J.S. Mill, which of the following 16. Identify the correct sequence in (D) James Coleman
statements is not true? which general systems theory has
(A) Pleasures differ in quality as well Select the correct answer from the
been adopted in social sciences?
as in quantity. codes given below:
i. Psychology
(B) Mill makes use of the non- (a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C)
ii. Sociology (c) (A) and (D) (d) (D) only
utilitarian arguments.
iii. Anthropology 21. Identify the basic contentions of
(C) The felicific calculus is absurd.
(D) Pleasures can be objectively iv. Political Science Dependency theory. Select the
measured. Select the correct answer from the correct answer from the code given
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: below:
codes given below: Codes: (A) Development of colonies is
(a) (B) and (C) (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) viewed as Whiteman’s burden.
(b) (A) and (B) (b) (iii), (ii), (i) and (iv) (B) Third world nations provide
(c) (A), (B) and (C) (c) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i) natural resources and cheap
(d) (D) only (d) (iii), (i), (ii), and (iv) labour.
Solved Paper-III, July-2016
(C) Industrialization and market
economy are conducive for
development.
(D) Advanced western nations
perpetuate a state of dependency
by various means.
Codes:
(a) (B) and (C) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (A) and (C) (d) (A) and (D)
22. Which of the following is/are the
common feature(s) between the
Indian political system and the US
political system?
(A) Residuary powers belong to the
centre.
(B) Residuary powers are with the
states.
(C) Presidents have the power of
pocket veto.
(D) U p p e r h o u s e s h a v e s o m e
nominated members.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (C) and (D)
(d) (C) only
23. Which one of the following types
of bureaucracy exhibits a bias
towards party interests?
(a) Guardian bureaucracy
(b) Caste bureaucracy
(c) Patronage bureaucracy
(d) Merit bureaucracy
24. In a single transferable vote system,
each voter is required to:
(a) Indicate one preference more than
the seats to be filled up.
(b) Indicate one preference less than
the total seats to be filled up.
(c) Indicate as many preferences as
there are candidates to be elected.
(d) Indicate only a single preference.
25. Which of the following are true of
presidential system of government?
(A) President is both Head of the State
and Head of the Government.
(B) It is based on separation of
powers.
(C) President’s term of office is fixed
(D) Secretaries are responsible to the
president as well as to the Senate.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (C) and (D)
26. Which of the following Houses has
had the longest speeches by the
members?
(a) House of Lords
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) US Senate
(d) Swiss Council of States
27. Which of the following statements
are correct about the Vice-
Presidents of India and America?
(A) Both the Vice-Presidents are
elected for a fixed term.
(B) They are the presiding officers
of the upper house.
(C) They appoint the committees of
the house.
(D) They have a casting vote in case
of a tie.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A), (B) and (D)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
28. Which one of the following
characteristics is not true of
Anomic interest groups?
(a) They are spontaneous groups that
are formed suddenly.
(b) They are formed on the basis of
prior organisation and planning.
(c) Eruption of violent behaviour
at times to ventilate the
discontentment.
(d) They are short lived and transitory
as they cease to operate once the
purpose is achieved.
29. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
159
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): In the advanced
liberal democracies of the western
nations, military is subordinate to the
civilian authority.
Reason (R): Military plays a key role
in countries where democracy has not
been institutionalized.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
30. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I (Writer)
(A) Robert Mitchels
(B) James Burnham
(C) C.Wright Mills
(D) Harold Lasswell
List–II (Concept/Model)
(i) Communication Model
(ii) Power Elites
(iii) Managerial Revolution
(iv) Iron Law of oligarchy
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
31. Which of the following statement/s
about the Right to negative vote
is/are correct? Select the correct
answer from the codes given below:
I. The Election Commission of
India wanted that ‘None of the
above’ button on Electronic
voting machine should be offered
to voters.
II. The public interest litigation, in the
Supreme Court for NOTA option
was filed by the Association for
Democratic Reforms.
 160
III. Elections in a constituency will
be held again if NOTA gets the
highest votes.
IV. The candidate with highest
number of votes will be declared
elected even if she/he receives
less than the NOTA votes.
Codes:
(a) Only I and II are correct.
(b) Only II and III are correct.
(c) Only III and IV are correct.
(d) Only I and IV are correct.
32. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Federalism is not dead
in India.
Reason (R): New regions are
constantly demanding statehood.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
33. Which one of the following pairs is
not correctly matched?
(a) Laxmi Kant Pandey v/s Union
of India: Inter-country adoption
of Indian babies.
(b) S.P. Gupta v/s President of India
and others: enabling citizens to
file public interest litigation for
social cause.
(c) Mohini Jain v/s State of Karnataka:
enjoyment of pollution-free water
and air.
(d) Olga Tellis vs/ Bombay Municipal
Corporation: right to livelihood.
34. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I (Presidents of India)
(A) Varahgiri Venkatgiri
(B) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(C) R. Venkatraman
(D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
List–II (Tenure)
(i) July 1987 – July 1992
(ii) July 1977 – July 1982
(iii) August 1969 – August 1974
(iv) May 1967 – May 1969
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
35. Which one of the following is the
correct break-up of the composition
of Lok Sabha Constituencies?
Total General Scheduled Scheduled
Constit- Constit- Caste Tribe
uencies uencies Constit- Constit-
uencies uencies
(a) 545 423 80 42
(b) 543 423 79 41
39. Match List–I with List–II and select
(c) 543 425 78 40
(d) 545 427 79 39
36. According to the Supreme Court of
India, the foundation of ‘composite
culture’, as mentioned in clause (f)
of Article 51 A, is:
(a) the diverse culture of India
(b) the Sanskrit language and
literature
(c) the secular fabric of India
(d) the values evolved during the
freedom movement
37. Which of the following Fundamental
Rights are granted only to citizens
of India? Select the correct answer
from the code given below:
I. Cultural and educational rights.
II. Equality before the law.
III. Right against exploitation.
IV. Protection from discrimination on
40. Consider the following statements
grounds only of religion, race,
caste, sex or place of birth.
Codes:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and IV only
(c) III and IV only
(d) I and IV only
38. Which of the following statement/s
about the Government of India
Act, 1935 is/are not true? Select
Solved Paper-III, July-2016
the correct answer from the code
given below:
I. In six of the provinces, the
legislature was bi-cameral.
II. The Governor-General had the
power to make permanent acts
but not ordinances.
III. T h e r e s i d u a r y p o w e r s o f
legislation were vested in the
Central Legislature.
IV. Education as a subject was with
Central Legislature.
V. Separate representation was
provided only to the Muslim
community.
Codes:
(a) I, II, III and V
(b) II, IV and V
(c) II, III, IV and V
(d) I, III, IV and V
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I (Farmer’s Organization)
(A) Shetkari Sangathana
(B) Bhartiya Kisan Sangh
(C) Samata Sangathan
(D) Kisan Mazdoor Sangathan
List–II (State)
(i) Gujarat
(ii) Maharashtra
(iii) Rajasthan
(iv) Orissa
(v) West Bengal
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (v)
and select the correct answer from
the codes given below:
I. S u b j e c t t o l e g i s l a t i o n b y
Parliament, the power to declare
any area as a ‘Scheduled area’ is
given to the President.
II. The 5th Schedule of the Constitution
deals with administration of
‘Scheduled Areas’ in Assam,
Meghalaya and Tripura.
Solved Paper-III, July-2016
III. The Government of the states
having ‘Scheduled Areas’ have
to submit reports to the President
regarding the administration of
such ‘Areas’.
IV. The executive power of the Union
shall extend to giving directions
to the respective states regarding
administration of the ‘Scheduled
Areas’.
Which of the above statements are
correct?
Codes:
(a) Only I and III
(b) Only I and IV
(c) Only I and II
(d) Only II and III
41. Which one of the following is
correctly matched about the
outcome of the XVI Lok Sabha
elections?
(a) National Democratic Alliance:
336 seats and 35 percent vote
share.
(b) United Progressive Alliance: 54
seats and 23 percent vote share.
(c) Left Front: 10 seats and 4.8
percent vote share.
(d) Congress: 44 seats and 17 percent
vote share.
42. Match List–I with List–II and give
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I (Author)
(A) R.M. Jenkins
(B) Myron Weiner(ed)
(C) Christophe Jafferlot
(D) Paul R. Brass
List–II (Book)
(i) State Politics in India
(ii) Language Religion and Politics
in North India
(iii) Regional Reflections Comparing
Politics Across India’s States
(iv) India’s Silent Revolution: The
rise of the Low Castes in North
Indian Politics
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
43. Which of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
(a) Rajni Kothari – Congress
system
(b) Yogendra Yadav – Third
Electoral
System
(c) Paul Brass – Disintegration
of Congress
organisation
(d) James Manor – Post-Congress
polity
44. Who among the following wrote,
“In the context of society today,
the caste system and much that goes
with it are wholly incompatible,
reactionary, restrictive, and
barriers to progress.”?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) M.K. Gandhi
(d) R.M. Lohia
45. Consider the following statements
about lower courts and identify
the false statements from the codes
given below:
(A) The Panchayat Courts have only
civil jurisdiction.
(B) The Munsiff Courts are lower
in hierarchy to the court of
Subordinate Judges.
(C) The Sessions cases are the more
serious civil cases in the Court of
the District Judge.
Codes:
(a) (A) only
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (A) and (C)
(d) (A), (B) and (C)
46. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
161
List–I (Books)
(A) The Art of Judgment: A Study of
Policy Making
(B) Understanding Public Policy
(C) The New Science of Management
Decision
(D) Personality and Organization
List–II (Authors)
(i) Thomas R. Dye
(ii) Herbert Simon
(iii) Sir Geoffrey Vickers
(iv) Chris Argyris
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
47. At present, Public Account
Committee consists of 22 members:
(a) 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from
Rajya Sabha.
(b) 14 from Lok Sabha and 8 from
Rajya Sabha.
(c) 12 from Lok Sabha and 10 from
Rajya Sabha.
(d) 11 from Lok Sabha and 11 from
Rajya Sabha.
48. A h o r i z o n t a l g r o u p i n g o f
specialized activities is attained in
an organization that is:
(a) Centralized
(b) Integrated
(c) Decentralized
(d) Disintegrated
49. Which of the following statements
about the Right to Information Act
2005 is/are correct?
(A) The Act came into force in
October 2005.
(B) It repealed the Official Secrets
Act, 1923.
(C) It has not repealed the Freedom
of Information Act, 2002.
(D) It is available to Indian citizens
only.
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
 162
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (C) and (D) (d) (A) and (D)
50. Which one of the following is not
included as a cause for disciplinary
action against public servants by
L.D. White?
(a) Inefficiency
(b) Long absence from duty
(c) Immorality
(d) Intoxication
51. T h e n a m e s a s s o c i a t e d w i t h
behavioural theory of organization
are:
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) J.L. Moreno
(C) Thomas Carlyle
(D) A.H. Maslow
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)
52. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Decision making is a
process of selection and the aim is to
select the best alternative.
Reason (R): Decision making
involves rationality.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
53. R i g g s i a n A g r a r i a m o d e l i s
characterized by which of the
following?
(A) Clan-based organization
(B) Communalistic value
(C) Impersonal human actions
(D) Divine authority source
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
54. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): “The issue of
decentralisation is more complex in
concept and practice than is generally
acknowledged”.
R e a s o n ( R ) : ‘ T h e d u a l r o l e
approach to decentralisation is a
kind of rehearsal of the area function
dichotomy in a new setting.’
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
55. Which one of the following was
not supported by Taylor in his
Scientific Management theory?
(a) Efficiency evaluation experts
(b) Concept of ‘Economic Man’
(c) Functional foremanship
(d) Standardization of tools
56. Chester Barnard developed a
concept in respect of acceptance of
authority by a subordinate from
his manager. Identify it.
(a) Motivation matrix
(b) Decision making authority
(c) Zone of indifference
(d) Zone of coercive authority
57. Summarising the defects of
bureaucracy, W.A. Robson did
not include:
(a) Excessive sense of self-importance.
(b) G e n e r a l i s t d o m i n a t e d
administrative system.
(c) Indifference towards the feelings
of individual citizens.
(d) A failure to recognize the relations
between the governors and the
governed.
Solved Paper-III, July-2016
58. Max Weber and Fred W. Riggs
have a commonality between them
in the context of:
(a) They constructed ideal type
models.
(b) They studied administrative
systems in their environmental
settings.
(c) T h e y c o n c e n t r a t e d o n t h e
problems of change.
(d) They used deductive approach.
59. Upward communication is basically
unconventional, but can be
improved by:
(A) Management to give evidence
that it is really interested in the
opinions of employees.
(B) Superior should state his own
position before he listens to
subordinates.
(C) Chief should act upon the ideas
and problems reported to him.
(D) S u p e r i o r s h o u l d a s k h i s
subordinates for reactions to his
own ideas.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)
60. How many ways to embezzlement
of government money have been
mentioned by Kautilya in his
Arthasastra?
(a) 75 (b) 40
(c) 50 (d) 30
61. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I (Secretary General of UN)
(A) Kofi Annan
(B) Boutros-Boutros Ghali
(C) Javier Perez de Cuellar
(D) Kurt Waldheim
List–II (Tenure)
(i) January 1972 to December 1981
(ii) January 1982 to December 1991
(iii) January 1997 to December 2006
(iv) January 1992 to December 1996
Solved Paper-III, July-2016
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
62. Which of the following rights is not
included in the second generation
human rights?
(a) Right to education
(b) Right to health
(c) Right to be free from torture and
slavery
(d) Right to housing
63. Which one of the following peace
keeping operations of the United
Nations is not an example of
first generation peacekeeping
operations?
(a) UN Transitional Authority in
Cambodia
(b) U N T r u c e S u p e r v i s i o n
Organization
(c) UN Emergency Force
(d) UN Disengagement Observer
Force
64. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I (Writer)
(A) Immanual Wallerstein
(B) Von Newmann
(C) Morgenthau
(D) Francis Fukuyama
List–II (Idea)
(i) Game theory
(ii) End of history
(iii) Realism
(iv) Dependency theory
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
65. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Non-alignment policy
was more relevant during cold war
period.
Reason (R): Non-aligned countries
are divided on ethnic and religious
differences.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
66. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): American foreign
policy supported the democratic
regimes.
Reason (R): At times the military
systems were also supported by
America.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
67. Which of the following statements
is/are not true of dependency
theory?
(A) Unequal relation between core
and periphery.
(B) Developmental process in the
third world nations reinforces
underdevelopment.
(C) Industrialization leads to new
forms of democratization and
equity in global order.
(D) Strengthening of neo-colonialism.
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
163
(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (C) only
68. “Uniting for Peace Resolution” is
also called as:
(a) Truman plan
(b) American plan
(c) Acheson plan
(d) Eisenhower plan
69. ‘Balance of Power’ is an important
principle of:
(a) Liberal thought in international
politics.
(b) Marxist thought in international
politics.
(c) Traditional thought in international
politics.
(d) Realist thought in international
politics.
70. According to Iris L Calude Jr.
which of the following is not a
device for the management of
power?
(a) Arms control
(b) Collective security
(c) Balance of power
(d) World Government
71. How many Asian countries are
members of G–20?
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
72. The modern state system with its
territorial sovereignty came into
existence first in Europe in the
wake of the
(a) Treaty of Versailles
(b) Congress of Vienna
(c) Treaty of Westphalia
(d) Congress of Berlin
73. Which of the following statements
are correct regarding Economic
and Social Council of U.N.? Choose
your answer from the codes given
below:
(i) The Council has 54 members.
(ii) The Council generally hold
several short sessions and many
 164
preparatory meetings, and panel
discussions with the members of
civil society throughout the year.
(iii) It also holds a three-week
substantive session in July.
(iv) Voting in the Council is by simple
majority, each member has one
vote.
75. Match List–I with List–II and select
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
74. According to Karen. A. Mingrt,
which of the following conditions
is not essential to make first
generation peacekeeping operations
most effective?
(a) A clear and practical mandate or
purpose for the operation.
(b) U.S. forces must also be present
in the peace-keeping operations.
(c) Consent of the parties involved as
to the mandate and composition of
the force.
(d) Strong financial and logistical
support of the members of the
UN Security Council.
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I (Term)
(A) Preventive diplomacy
(B) Peace making
(C) Peace keeping
(D) Post-conflict peace building
List–II (Contents)
(i) It is like classical peace-keeping.
It refers to the deployment of a
UN force in the field with the
consent of all parties.
Solved Paper-III, July-2016
(ii) It involves developing social,
political and economic infra-
structure to prevent further
violence and consolidate peace.
(iii) It involves confidence-building
measures, fact finding and
preventive deployment of UN
authorised forces.
(iv) It is designed to bring hostile
parties to agreement essentially
through peaceful means.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answers with Explanations

1. (c) W.T Bluhm in his work
‘Theories of the Political System’
mentioned that political theory stands for
an abstract model of the political order.
2. (d) The Anglo-US model is based
on a system of individual or institutional
shareholders that are outsiders of the
corporation. The other key players that
make up the three sides of the corporate
governance triangle in the Anglo-US
model are management and the board
of directors. It is within the domain of
Behavioural theories.
3. (d) Green’s concept of freedom
is not negative. He says freedom does
not consist in the absence of restraint or
compulsion. Green’s theory of liberty,
secondly, is a positive thing. It is a positive
power of doing or enjoying something
north doing or enjoying. Individuals will
enjoy freedom in cooperation with other
fellow-citizens. This views are against
the Classical liberal notion of liberty.
4. (b) Friedrick Hayek in his criticism
to the Idea of social justice of John Rawls
claimed that it is like a mirage. By this he
means to establish that the idea of Social
justice is unachievable and an illusion.
5. (a) Andrew Heywood in his famous politicians in disguise. I, however, who
publication ‘Political Ideologies’ quoted wear the guise of a politician, am at heart,
that “Ideology should neither be thought of a religious man,’ remains the key to the
as liberating or oppressive, nor as true or value system of the political philosophy
false. It can be any of these things. that he adhered to.
9. (c) For Plato Knowledge is Virtue
6. (b)
and not perception. So the Statement R
(Year) (Event) is false. Assertion statement is correct as
1917 Mao met Liu Shao-Chi Plato based his theory of Ideas is centred
around the concept of Knowledge of the
1918 Mao became a Library
idea of a form.
Assistant in Peking
University 10. (b) G.H. Sabine in his book
‘The History of Political theory’ quoted
1921 Mao participated in the
that “Aristotle’s new general science
first Congress of the CCP
of politics was not only empirical and
1934 Mao started his historic descriptive, but even in some respects
‘Long March’ independent of any ethical purpose, since
7. (a) a statesman might need to be expert in
governing even a bad state.”
(Philosopher) (Idea) 11. (d) According to John Locke the
Machiavelli Moral Indifference Right to Property is a natural right which
Hobbes Instinct of self- include within; Right to life, liberty and
preservation Estate.
Locke Natural Right to 12. (d) General will is what a fully-
Property informed body politic (community of
citizens) would unanimously do if, by
Rousseau Revolt against
using good reasoning and judgment
Reason
unclouded by bias and emotion, it would
8. (c) The obiter dictum of Gandhi, make general laws and decisions intended
‘Most religious men I have met are to ensure the common good.
Solved Paper-III, July-2016
13. (d) Mill distinguishes higher
and lower pleasures in his essay on
“Utilitarianism.” Presumably higher
pleasures are generally more intellectual
pleasures and lower pleasures are more
sensual pleasures. Mill’s utilitarianism
is an ethics that says the highest good is
what produces the most pleasure. Hence
its a subjective concept and not objective.
14. (a) The correct sequence of
Amartya Sen publications:
Choice,welfare and Measurement- 1982
Inequality Reexamined - 1992
Development as Freedom - 1999
Idea of Justice - 2009
15. (a) Yes, it’s true that there was
resonance in the revolutionary ideas of
Mazzini and Aurobindo. Both of them
claimed that faith in God is the basis
of morality. Hence religious moral
principles should not be separated from
Politics.
16. (b) General System theory was
evolved by Ludwig von Bertalanffy in
1968. This model subsequently adopted
by various disciplines of social science
in following sequence: Anthropology,
Sociology, Psychology and Political
Science.
17. (d) Habermas’s concept of
“legitimation crisis” refers to periods
when, “the ‘organizational principle’ of
a society does not permit the resolution
of problems that are critical for its
continued existence.”
18. (c) Any constitution of a country
majorly deals with the national Security.
The issues of Transnational security is
dealt by Multilateral cooperation.
19. (a) Vilfredo Federico Damaso
was an Italian engineer, sociologist,
economist, political scientist, and
philosopher. Gaetano Mosca was an
Italian political scientist, journalist
and public servant. He is credited with
developing the elite theory and the
doctrine of the political class and is one
of the three members constituting the
Italian school of elitism together with
Vilfredo Pareto and Robert Michels.
20. (d) James Coleman is credited
with the foundation of Social Theory.
His research topic did not involve
classification interest or pressure group.
21. (b) The Dependency theory
begins with a study of the colonial impact
or whiteman’s burden on the indigenous
socio-economic and political structures,
then seeks to analyse the characteristics
of the new socio-economic structure,
and finally seeks to trace its evolution
in relation to both the internal changes
and developments in the World capitalist
system. The underdevelopment of the
Third World countries is explained by it
in terms of the socio-economic-politico-
cultural processes which link these
countries to the developed countries.
22. (d) In both the USA and India
President enjoy’s the power of Pocket
veto, which means he can keep a bill
sent by legislature for indefinite period
of time. By this he prevent that bill from
becoming an Act.
23. (c) Political patronage is the
appointment or hiring of a person to a
government post on the basis of partisan
loyalty. Elected officials at the national,
state, and local levels of government use
such appointments to reward the people
who help them win and maintain office.
24. (c) The Single Transferable
Vote (STV) is a form of proportional
representation created in Britain. Northern
Ireland, the Republic of Ireland, Malta,
Scotland and Australia use this system
for some or all of their elections. To get
elected, a candidate needs a set amount
of votes, known as the quota. The people
counting the votes work out the quota
based on the number of vacancies and
the number of votes cast. Each voter has
one vote. Once the counting is finished,
any candidate who has more number ones
than the quota is elected. But, rather than
ignore extra votes a candidate received
after the amount they need to win,
these votes move to each voter’s second
favourite candidate.
25. (a) In Presidential system of
government Secretaries are responsible
to the president only and not to the senate.
It takes direct orders from President.
26. (c) In US Senate members are
have longest speech time provided by the
house.
27. (a) While members of standing
committees are formally designated by
Senate resolution, members of select and
special committees are officially appointed
by the Senate’s president or president pro
tempore, not by Vice- President.
165
28. (b) An anomic group consists of
persons whose demands are not properly
defined or articulated and arise as and
when there is no organization for the
defined or articulated and arise as and
when there is no organization for the
expression of their demand.
29. (b) In developed countries where
liberal democracies are working, there
civilian authority has control over the
military. On the other hand, in developing
countries where democracy has not
been institutionalized, the military have
control over civilian administration.
30. (c)
(Writer) (Concept/Model)
Robert Mitchels Iron Law of oligarchy
James Burnham Managerial Revolution
C.Wright Mills Power Elites
Harold Lasswell Communication Model
31. (d)
32. (b) Federalism is an integral part
of Indian constitution and Indian Political
system. In India various regions are
continuously asked for statehood in past
and new states are made even today as
demands raised.
33. (c) Mohini Jain v. State of
Karnataka, a 1989 Supreme Court of India
case, occurred when the Government
of Karnataka issued a notification that
permitted the private medical colleges
in the State of Karnataka to charge
exorbitant tuition fees from the students
admitted other than the “Government
seat quota”.
34. (b)
(Presidents of (Tenure)
India)
Varahagiri August 1969 –
Venkatagiri August 1974
Dr. Zakir Hussain May 1967 – May
1969
R. Venkatraman July 1987 – July
1992
Neelam Sanjiva July 1977 – July
Reddy 1982
35. (b) The correct break-up of the
composition of Lok Sabha Constituencies;
Total Constituencies - 545
General Constituencies - 423
Scheduled Caste Constituencies - 79
Scheduled Tribe Constituencies - 41
 166
36. (b) There is no provision in the
Indian constitution for direct enforcement
of any of these duties nor any sanction
to prevent their violation. Supreme
Court pointed out the foundation of
the “composite culture” expressed in
clause (f) of article 51-A in the Sanskrit
language and literature.
37. (d) Fundamental Rights are
granted only to citizens of India are:
Prohibition of discrimination on
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex
or place of birth (Article 15). Equality
of opportunity in matters of public
employment (Article 16). Protection
of six rights regarding freedom of: (i)
speech and expression, (ii) assembly,
(iii) association, (iv) movement, (v)
residence, and (vi) profession (Article
19). Protection of language, script and
culture of minorities (Article 29). Right
of minorities to establish and administer
educational institutions (Article 30).
38. (c) It introduced bicameralism in
six out of eleven provinces. Thus, the
legislatures of Bengal, Bombay, Madras,
Bihar, Assam and the United Provinces
were made bicameral consisting of a
legislative council (upper house) and
a legislative assembly (lower house).
However, many restrictions were placed
on them.
39. (d)
(Farmer’s Organization) (State)
Shetkari Sanghatana Rajasthan
Bhartiya Kisan Sangh Gujarat
Samata Sangathan Orissa
Kisan Mazdoor Sangathan West Bengal
40. (b) Subject to legislation by
Parliament, the power to declare any
area as a ‘Scheduled area’ is given to the
President. The executive power of the
Union shall extend to giving directions
to the respective states regarding
administration of the ‘Scheduled Areas’.
41. (b) The United Progressive
Alliance, led by the Indian National
Congress, won 59 seats, 44 (8.1%)
of which were won by the Congress,
that won 19.3% of all votes. It was
the Congress party’s worst defeat in a
general election. UPA won 54 seats and
23 percent vote share.
Solved Paper-III, July-2016
42. (a) by Lok Sabha, the lower house of the
(Author) (Book) Parliament, and not more than seven
members of Rajya Sabha, the upper
R.M. Jenkins – Regional house of the Parliament.
Reflections 48. (c) Horizontal grouping of
Comparing specialized activities is attained in an
Politics Across organization that is Decentralized in
India’s States
Nature. The nature of decentralization
Myron Weiner(ed) – State Politics in provide appropriate space for horizontal
India grouping.
Christophe – India’s Silent 49. (d) The Right to Information Act
Jafferlot Revolution: The 2005 came into force in October 2005. The
act is available to only Indian Citizens.
rise of the Low
Castes in North 50. (b) The cause mentioned for
disciplinary action against public servants
Indian Politics
by L.D. White includes; Inefficiency,
Paul R. Brass – Language Immorality and Intoxication.
Religion and 51. (d) Thomas Carlyle was a Scottish
Politics in philosopher, satirical writer, essayist,
North India translator, historian, mathematician,
43. (d) Electoral Politics in Post- and teacher. Considered one of the most
Congress Polity is written by Yogendra important social commentators of his
Yadav not by James Manor. time, he presented many lectures during
44. (b) In his book ‘Discovery of his lifetime with certain acclaim in the
India’ Jawaharlal Nehru quoted that Victorian era. He never presented any
“In the context of society today, the kind of behavioural theory of organisation.
caste system and much that goes with 52. (a) Herbert Simon suggested for
it are wholly incompatible, reactionary, the first time the decision-making model
restrictive, and barriers to progress.” of human beings. His model of decision-
45. (c) Munsiff court is the lowest making has three stages:
• Intelligence which deals with the
court of appeal for civil cases in the
problem identification and data
district. It has the authority to try the
offence under certain pecuniary limits. collection on the problem.
Munsiff Magistrate/Judicial Collector • Design which deals with the
have control over these courts. The generation of alternative solutions
territorial jurisdiction of the District to the problem at hand.
Munsiff Court was prescribed by the • Choice which is selecting the ‘best’
State Government. solution from amongst the alternative
46. (b) solutions using some criterion.
(Books) (Authors) This process makes decision making
a Rational activity.
The Art of – Sir Geoffrey 53. (c) Riggs classified societies into
Judgment: A Vickers agricultural and industrial societies i.e.
Study of Policy the agrarian and the industrial. The
Making models were developed to study the
Understanding – Thomas R. political and administrative transitions
Public Policy Dye in such societies. The features of the
The New Science – Herbert Simon agraria were described as follows:
of Management • Ascriptive, particularistic and
Decision diffuse patterns were predominant
in such societies.
Personality and – Chris Argyris
• Limited social and spatial mobility
Organization
• Relatively simple and stable
47. (a) The Public Accounts occupational differentiation
Committee consists of not more than • Existence of differential stratification
twenty-two members, fifteen elected system
Solved Paper-III, July-2016
54. (b) Yes, it’s true that the issue
of decentralisation is more complex in
concept and practice than it is generally
acknowledged. The dual role approach
to decentralisation is a kind of rehearsal
of the area function dichotomy in a new
setting.
55. (a) Scientific management involves
the application of a scientific approach to
managerial decision­ -making (consisting
of-collection of data, an analysis of data
and basing decisions on the outcome of
such analyses); and discarding at the
same time, all unscientific approaches,
like – rule of thumb, a hit or miss
approach and a trial and error approach.
It doesn’t include efficiency evaluation
experts.
56. (c) The acceptance of authority
in organizations, according to Barnark,
depends upon the zone of indifference. If
the orders for action are arranged in order
of their acceptability to the person affected,
they fall under three categories viz. Those
which will clearly be unacceptable. Those
which are on neutral line. Those which
are unquestionably acceptable.
57. (b) Prof W.A. Robson has
summarized its defects in the following
words “The maladies from which
bureaucracy most frequently suffers are
an excessive sense of self-importance
on the part of officials or an undue idea
of the importance of their office; an
indifference towards the feeling or the
convenience of individual.
58. (b) Max Weber, the famous German
sociologist, first drew our attention to the
enormous importance of bureaucracy in
the administrative systems of capitalist
states. In his opinion, capitalism
provided an impetus to the expansion
of rational administration. In his noted
work Economy and Society (vol. 2) he
has further said that day after day the
public administration of all industrialised
capitalist states is constantly being
bureaucratised. Riggs had extensively
studied the administrative systems of
several countries in a comparative
way. He said that in the administrative
system of every country there is an
ineluctable influence of environment
on administration and, hence, any
comparative public administra­tion must
take note of it.
59. (b) Upward Communication is
the process of information flowing from
the lower levels of a hierarchy to the
upper levels. It can become better if;
Management start giving evidence that
it is really interested in the opinions of
employees and Chief executive act upon
the ideas and problems reported to him.
60. (b) The Arthashastra states that
an increase in expenditure and lower
revenue collection (parihapan) was an
indication of embezzlement of funds
by corrupt officials. Kautilya provides
a comprehensive list of 40 kinds of
embezzlement. In all these cases, the
concerned functionaries such as the
treasurer (nidhayaka), the prescriber
(nibandhak), the receiver (pratigrahaka),
the payer (dayak), the person who caused
the payment (deepika) and the ministerial
servants (mantri-vaiyavrityakara) were
to be separately interrogated.
61. (a)
(Secretary (Tenure)
General of UN)
Kofi Annan – January 1997 to
December 2006
Boutros-Boutros – January 1992 to
Ghali December 1996
Javier Perez de – January 1982 to
Cuellar December 1991
Kurt Waldheim – January 1972 to
December 1981
62. (c) Second-generation, “socio-
economic” human rights guarantee equal
conditions and treatment. They are not
rights directly possessed by individuals
but constitute positive duties upon the
government to respect and fulfill them.
Socio-economic rights began to be
recognized by the government after World
War II and, like first-generation rights,
are embodied in Articles 22 to 27 of the
Universal Declaration. They are also
enumerated in the International Covenant
on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights.
Right to be free from torture and slavery
is a first generation right.
63. (a) First-generation forces typically
possess a mandate under Chapter VI
of the UN Charter, are lightly armed,
and operate under strictly limiting rules
of engagement. The first two such
missions—the United Nations Truce
167
Supervision Organization, deployed
in the Middle East, founded in 1948,
and the United Nations Monitoring and
Observation Group in India and Pakistan,
active in Kashmir since 1949—are still
active today, as is a force, UNFICYP,
deployed to Cyprus following that island’s
partition in 1964. The first instance of
groundbreaking innovation would come
in 1956 with the sending of the United
Nations Emergency Force (UNEF) to the
Suez.
64. (c)
(Writer) (Idea)
Immanual – Dependency
Wallerstein theory
Von Newmann – Game theory
Morgenthau – Realism
Francis – End of history
Fukuyama
65. (b) The Non-Alignment policy was
originated while considering the world
order during the Cold War era. Hence,
It automatically became significantly
relevant during that phase. The Countries
which were part of Non- Alignment
movement are culturally heterogeneous.
But this has nothing to do with the
relevancy of Non- alignment during the
Cold War.
66. (b) America being a democratic
country usually give preference to the
democratic principles in its foreign
policy, But at times we have noticed
events, where American government has
tool sides with undemocratic regimes.
For example its relation with Saudi
Arabia is well established.
67. (d) The Dependency theory
believes that Industrialization has led to
the creation of new forms of Colonization
and inequality in world order. They
expressed this as Neo-colonialism.
68. (c) General Assembly resolution
377(V) is known as the Uniting for
peace resolution. Adopted in 1950, the
resolution resolves that if the Security
Council, because of lack of unanimity of
the permanent members, fails to exercise
its primary responsibility to act as
required to maintain international peace
and security. The General Assembly shall
consider the matter immediately with
a view to making recommendations to
 168 Solved Paper-III, July-2016
Members in order to restore international for state sovereignty, inter-state diplomacy, 75. (a)
peace and security. The Uniting for and balance of power in Europe. The (Term) (Contents)
Peace resolution was adopted on the Peace of Westphalia was a series of peace
Preventive – It involves
recommendation of Acheson report. treaties which were signed between May
diplomacy confidence-
Hence it is also known as Acheson Plan. and October 1648 in the Westphalian cities
69. (d) Balance of power in of Osnabruck and Munster, largely ending building measures,
international relations, the posture and the European wars of religion, including fact finding
policy of a nation or group of nations the Thirty Years’ War. and preventive
protecting itself against another nation 73. (c) The United Nations Economic deployment of UN
or group of nations by matching its and Social Council (ECOSOC) is one of authorised forces.
power against the power of the other the six principal organs of the United Peace making – It is designed to
side. This belongs to Realist approach of Nations. The ECOSOC has 54 members. bring hostile parties
International Relations. The General Assembly selects 18 new to agreement
70. (a) Inis Lothair Claude, Jr. members for ECOSOC each year for essentially through
was a leading scholar in international a term of 3 years with a provision that peaceful means
relations and international organizations. a retiring member can be re-elected. It
According to him Arms Control cant holds one seven-week session each year Peace keeping – It is like classical
be considered as a device for the in July, and since 1998, it has also held peace-keeping.
management of power. He believes that an annual meeting in April with Finance It refers to the
Collective security, World Government ministers heading key committees of deployment of a UN
and Balance of Power are only available the World Bank and the International force in the field
source for the Management of the Power. Monetary Fund (IMF). with the consent of
71. (c) The members of the G20 are: 74. (b) According to Karen. A. Ming all parties.
Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, the conditions essential for first generation Post-conflict – It involves
China, France, Germany, India, peacekeeping operations involve. Having peace building developing
Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of a clear and practical mandate or purpose social, political
Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, for the operation. It also requires consent and economic
South Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom, of the parties involved as to the mandate
infrastructure to
United States, and the European Union. and composition of the force. Another
prevent further
Out of these 20 , 7 belong to Asia. Important element is strong financial and
72. (c) The Peace of Westphalia logistical support of the members of the violence and
established important political precedents UN Security Council. consolidate peace.
qqq
Solved Paper-II, January-2017
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, January-2017
1. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Kautilya emphasizes
the need for a strong ruler.
Reason (R): He was having acute
awareness of the dangers of anarchy
as well as the absolute necessity to
establish order in society.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
2. Which one of the following is not a
source of Plato’s theory of Ideas?
(a) Heracleitus-The notion of sphere
of Becoming.
(b) Antisthenes-The notion of
absolute asceticism and rigorous
self-mortification.
(c) Socrates-The doctrine of concepts.
(d) Eleatics-The idea of a sphere of
absolute being.
3. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(Aristotle’s theory (Explanations)
of causation)
A. The efficient i. The substance
cause and essence of
the thing.
B. The final ii. Matter of
cause which it is
composed.
C. The material iii. The purpose
cause towards which
the movement
is directed.
D. The formal iv. The cause
cause of motion.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) i ii iii iv
(b) iv iii ii i
(c) iii iv i ii
(d) ii i iv iii (a) Syndicalism (b) Socialism
4. Given below are the two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): For Locke, Labour
is the source and justification of
property.
Reason (R): Its function is to turn
the earth into consumable goods.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
5. Which one of the features of Rawls’
concept of ‘Veil of ignorance’ is not
true?
(a) No one knows his place in society,
his class position or social status.
(b) No one knows his fortune in the
distribution of natural assets and
abilities.
(c) The parties know their special
psychological propensities.
(d) The parties do not (even) know
their conception of the good.
169
6. Who among the following described
the welfare state as a kind of
enslavement?
(a) Karl Popper
(b) F.A. Hayek
(c) R. Nozick
(d) Milton Friedman
7. E.M.S. Namboodiripad’s book
Mahatma and Ism is an analysis of
Mahatma Gandhi from the point of
view
(c) Liberalism (d) Marxism
8. Which of the following statements
is not true in case of M.N. Roy?
(a) He prepared a model constitution
for free India.
(b) Sovereign power was to be vested
in the people.
(c) People’s committees to be set up
in villages, towns and cities.
(d) He did not concede the right of
secession to its constituent units.
9. Which of the following statements
is not true?
(a) Traditional political theory is
qualitative.
(b) Behavioural political theory is
quantitative.
(c) Post-behavioural political theory is
both qualitative and quantitative.
(d) Post-behavioural political theory
is ethnocentric; focuses especially
on western democracies.
10. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g
emphasized on ‘procedural theory
of democracy’ highlighting three
criteria?
(a) S.M. Lipset
(b) R.A. Dahl
(c) Joseph Schumpeter
(d) Sheldon Wolin
 170
11. Which one of the following is not a
formulation of Max Weber?
(a) Rationality, functional differen-
tiation and specialization resulting
in order, harmony and efficiency.
(b) Dominant authority based on
beliefs and symbols in relation to
ideal types.
(c) Dominant authority is hierarchical
and related to state and ruling
class.
(d) Rationalization and ideal typology
method.
12. Who said that federalism requires
a people “Who desire union and
must not desire unity”?
(a) James Bryce
(b) A.V. Diecy
(c) K.C. Wheare
(d) H. Finer
13. The assertion that there is no direct
connection between the shape of a
political culture and the stability of
governance is made by
(a) Lijphart (b) Wolin
(c) Kavanagh (d) Blondel
14. The ability of the U.S. President
to get their way depends on four
crucial relationships
(A) Congress,
(B) The federal bureaucracy,
(C) The Supreme Court and
(D) The mass media.
Which of the above is undoubtedly
the most critical?
(a) The Congress
(b) The Federal bureaucracy
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) The mass media
15. C. Wright Mills’ The Power Elite
(1956) offered a general analysis of
elites in
(a) Entire capitalistic world.
(b) Developed capitalistic world
of North America and Western
Europe.
(c) Developed capitalistic nations of
North America, Western Europe
and Japan.
(d) Developed capitalism of the
U.S.A.
16. Power is like money is formulated
by
(a) C. Wright Mills
21. Who said, “The Constituent
(b) Paul Sweezy
(c) Talcott Parsons
(d) Ralph Miliband
17. Catch all party describes the post
second world war party system in
(a) Western Europe
(b) Eastern Europe
(c) The U.S. Party system
(d) All of the above
22. Match List–I with List–II and select
18. Who believed that the success of a
revolution occurs when it is limited
to the political and not extending to
the social?
(a) Crane Brinton
(b) V.I. Lenin
(c) Hannah Arendt
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
19. The Capitalist world economy is
made up of “Commodity Chains”
of producers and consumers,
sellers and buyers linking countries
in the core of the world economy”,
is the basis of
(a) Globalization and modernization
theory
(b) Lenin’s theory of imperialism
(c) Friedman’s World is flat theory
(d) World system theory
20. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
23. Which of the following have been
Assertion (A): Consociational
democracy is an incomplete theory
of democracy.
Reason (R): As it blocks the way of
a genuine alternative
In the context of the two statements,
which one of the following is
correct?
Solved Paper-II, January-2017
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Assembly was a one party body in
an essentially one party country.
The Assembly was the congress and
the congress was India”?
(a) Morris Jones
(b) Paul R. Brass
(c) Granville Austin
(d) Richard Sisson
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(Books)  (Authors)
A. The Child and i. Atul Kohli
the State in India
B. The Hindu ii. Pranab
Nationalist Bardhan
Movement and
Indian Politics
C. The Political iii. Christopher
Economy of Jafrelot
Development
in India
D. Poverty Amid iv. Myron
Plenty in the Weiner
New India
Codes:
A B C D
(a) iii iv i ii
(b) iv iii ii i
(c) ii i iii iv
(d) i ii iv iii
identified as the ground for judicial
review in the exercise of power of
pardon by the President of India
or Governor of a state?
A. that the order has been passed
without application of mind.
B. that the order is malafide.
Solved Paper-II, January-2017
C. that the order is based on
extraneous or wholly irrelevant
considerations.
D. that the order suffers from
arbitrariness.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A, C and D (b) B, C and D
(c) A, B and D (d) A, B, C and D
24. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I  List–II
(Panchayati Raj (Year)
Committee)
A. C.H. Hanumantha Rao i. 1978
B. G.V.K. Rao ii. 1984
C. Ashok Mehta iii. 1986
D. L.M. Singhvi iv. 1985
Codes:
A B C D
(a) iv ii i iii
(b) ii iv i iii
(c) i iii ii iv
(d) iii i iv ii order of the developments of events
25. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Fundamental Duties
are non-justiciable.
Reason (R): They are supposed to
inculcate a sense of patriotic and
sensible citizenship
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
26. Which of the following are the
privileges of the Legislature in
India?
A. Right to publish debates and
proceedings and the right to
restrain others from publishing.
B. The privilege of excluding
strangers from the house.
C. The right to regulate its internal
matters.
D. The right to punish members and
outsiders for breach of privilege.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A, C and D (b) B, C and D
(c) A, B and D (d) A, B, C and D
27. Arrange the following peasant
movements in India in chronological
order and select the correct answer
from the codes given below:
i. Singur
ii. Bardoli
iii. Tebhaga
iv. Champaran
Codes:
(a) iv, iii, i, ii (b) iv, ii, iii, i
(c) ii, iii, iv, i (d) i, ii, iii, iv
28. Identify the correct chronological
related to federalism in India.
(a) Anandpur Sahib Resolution,
Rajamannar Committee, Punchhi
Commission, West Bengal Mem-
orandum.
(b) West Bengal Memorandum, Raj-
amannar Committee, Anandpur
Sahib Resolution, Punchhi Com-
mission
(c) Rajamannar Committee, West
Bengal Memorandum, Anandpur
Sahib Resolution, Punchhi Com-
mission
(d) Rajamannar Committee, Anand-
pur Sahib Resolution, West
Bengal Memorandum, Punchhi
Commission
29. Who described Indian capitalism
as “Dharmashala Capitalism”?
(a) V.K.R.V. Rao
(b) J. Bhagwati
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Raj Krishna
171
30. Which of the following is not
associated with electoral reforms
in India?
(a) Tarkunde Committee
(b) Dinesh Goswami Committee
(c) N.N. Vohra Committee
(d) Indrajit Gupta Committee
31. Arrange the following approaches to
the study of Public Administration
in a sequential order:
A. Behavioural approach
B. Systems approach
C. Institutional approach
D. Public Policy approach
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) a, b, c, d (b) c, b, a, d
(c) a, c, d, b (d) c, a, b, d
32. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Civil servants in India
do not have any political rights.
Reason (R): Neutrality is the
hallmark of the civil services in India.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
33. Which of the following have been
identified by the Second Admini-
strative Reforms Commission as
barriers to citizen-centric admini-
stration in India?
A. Inflexible self-perpetuating and
inward looking attitude of civil
servants.
B. Lack of accountability of civil
servants.
 172
C.
Absence of well educated political
leadership.
D. Low levels of awareness of the
rights and duties of citizens.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A, B and C (b) A, B and D
(c) A, C and D (d) A, B, C and D
34. Which of the following is the nodal
agency for budget implementation
in India?
(a) Parliament
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General
of India
35. In India, the term deficit financing
was first defined by
(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Administrative Reforms Com-
mission
(d) A.D. Gorwala Report
36. Which of the following types of
bureaucracy regards itself as the
custodian of public interest but is
independent of and unresponsive
to public opinion?
(a) Merit bureaucracy
(b) Caste bureaucracy
(c) Patronage bureaucracy
(d) Guardian bureaucracy
37. Which of the following are the
common features between the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act and
the 74th Constitutional Amendment
Act?
A. Periodical elections.
B. Empowerment of socially and
economically weak groups.
C. Constitution of State Election
Commission.
D. Constitution of Ward Com-
mittees.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A and C (b) A, B and C
(c) A, C and D (d) A, B, C and D
38. Which of the following are statutory
bodies?
A. University Grants Commission
B. Official Language Commission
C. Railway Board
D. Atomic Energy Commission
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A and B (b) A, C and D
(c) A, B and D (d) B and D
39. Which one of the following mini-
stries is an example of ministry
formed on the basis of clientele
principle?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Human Resource
Development
(c) Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Ministry of Law
40. Who among the following are
of the view that the managerial
techniques and skills of Planning,
Organizing, Coordinating and
Budgeting are same in both Public
and Private Administration?
A. Henry Fayol
B. M.P. Follet
C. Luther Gulick
D. L. Urwick
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A and C (b) B and D
(c) A, B and C (d) A, B, C and D
41. Who of the following belongs to
British School of Realism?
(a) Reinhold Niebuhr
(b) N.J. Spykman
(c) Quincy Wright
(d) Hedley Bull
Solved Paper-II, January-2017
42. The notion of ‘Balance of Terror’
is related to
(a) Global Terrorism
(b) Counter Terrorist strategies
(c) Terrorist activities of drug traffic-
kers
(d) Over-kill capacity emanating from
nuclear weapons.
43. Which one of the following is not
a major assumption of balance of
power?
(a) States are determined to protect
vital national interests.
(b) Vital national interests may be
threatened.
(c) Relative power positions of the
states can be measured.
(d) States apply moral parameters for
assessing others’ behaviour.
44. Which country/countries refused
to accept legally binding emission
cuts following Kyoto Protocol?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) India and China both
(d) Sweden
45. Which leader of the USSR intro-
duced the policy of ‘peaceful-
coexistence’?
(a) Mikhail Gorbachev
(b) N. Khrushchev
(c) L. Brezhnev
(d) Joseph Stalin
46. At the end of cold war Francis
Fukuyama constructed the thesis
of ‘end of history’ which meant:
(a) The world would no longer be
unfolding events.
(b) The tension and conflict would
cease to exist at global level.
(c) Ideological struggles had come to
an end.
(d) Ideological struggles would be
waged with new vigour.
47. NATO’s partnership for peace
programme was aimed at
(a) Incorporating ex-Eastern bloc
states into the organisation.
Solved Paper-II, January-2017
(b) Tackling problem of Serbs in
Bosnia.
(c) Implementing military action
against Yugoslavia.
(d) Taking action against Al Asad
Regime in Syria.
48. Which of the events mentioned
below is taken as signaling the end
of Cold War?
Answers with Explanations
1. (a) Kautilya in his Arthashastra
discuss the danger and challenges to
an established political system. He was
aware of the possibility of Anarchy.
Hence he recommended a strong state
ruled by a virtuous monarch. Both the
statement are correct and the reason
statement provides a valid explanation
behind the assertion statement.
2. (b) Plato’s philosophy was influe-
nced not only by Socrates, but also by
the philo­sophical outlook of Pythagoras,
Parmenides and Heraclitus. He did not
acquire the notion of absolute asceticism
and rigorous self-mortification from
Antisthenes.
3. (b)
(Aristotle’s theory (Explanations)
of causation)
The efficient cause – The cause of
motion.
The final cause – The purpose
towards which
the movement
is directed.
The material cause – Matter of
which it is
composed.
The formal cause – The substance
and essence of
the thing.
4. (a) The Lockean labour theory is
the justification of private property that
is based on the natural right of one’s
ownership of one’s own labour, and the
right to nature’s common property to the
extent that one’s labour can utilize it.
According to him the function of human
labour is to convert the earth into a
consumable good or commodity.
(a) Soviet Union’s collapse in 1991
(b) Breaching of Berlin Wall in 1989
(c) Declaration of independence by
Republic of Kazakhstan in 1991
(d) Large scale revolt for freedom in
Baltic States in 1989
49. The renaming of European Com-
munity (EC) to European Union
resulted from the signing of
5. (c) Its purpose is to explore ideas
about justice, morality, equality, and
social status in a structured manner.
The Veil of Ignorance, a component
of social contract theory, allows us to
test ideas for fairness. Behind the Veil
of Ignorance, no one knows who they
are. Parties not even knows about their
special psychological propensities.
6. (c) Robert Nozick in his Entitlement
Theory while criticising the Concept of
Welfare notion of State said that “Welfare
State is a kind of Enslavement”. He was
a Neo-Liberal.
7. (d) E.M.S Namboodiripad was an
eminent Marxist of his time. He wrote
a book ‘Mahatma and Ism’ to provide
a Marxist interpretation of Gandhian
Political Ideas and Philosophy.
8. (d) M.N Roy’s Constitution of Free
India: A Draft was published in 1944.
It was endorsed and released for public
discussion by the Radical Democratic
Party of which M.N. Roy was an
important member. The Draft, according
to him, would achieve three objectives:
first, remove Indian political parties as
intermediaries between the British and
the Indian people on questions of India’s
constitutional future and the transfer
of power; second, articulate a novel
constitutional vision for the country and;
third, expedite the transfer of power
from the British to the Indian people.
9. (d) The key feature of Post-
Behavioural Political theories was that,
they are no more ethnocentric in nature.
Their centre of focus is third world
nations. Ethnocentrism is a property of
behavioural Political Theory.
173
(a)
Maastricht Treaty
(b) Treaty of Rome
(c) The Lisbon Treaty
(d) Treaty of Nice
50. Which of the following is not a
specialized agency of the United
Nations?
(a) WHO (b) IMF
(c) FAO (d) OPEC
10. (b) Robert Dahl’s model for a
procedural democracy is presented in his
book ‘Democracy and its Critics’.
11. (c) According to the bureaucratic
theory of Max Weber, bureaucracy is the
basis for the systematic formation of any
organisation and is designed to ensure
efficiency and economic effectiveness. It
is an ideal model for management and its
administration to bring an organisation’s
power structure into focus. He didn’t
believe that dominant authority is
hierarchical and related to state and
ruling class.
12. (b) The desire for union, not
unity is an essential precondition for
establishing a federation. To say in the
words of Albert Venn Dicey: “There
should be a desire for union rather than
unity.” It means that the states seeking a
federation must not extinguish their own
identity.
13. (a) Lijphart was of the view that
there is no direct connection between
the shape of a political culture and the
stability of governance. He establish the
political culture have negligible impact
on the political system.
14. (a) The United State House of
Representatives which is also known as
the Congress is the most critical barrier
in the exercise of power by President of
US. The Funding for implementation of
any decision taken by US president need
to be passed by Congress.
15. (d) C. Wright Mills’ The Power
Elite (1956) offered a general analysis
of elites in USA. According to Mills,
the eponymous “power elite” are those
that occupy the dominant positions in the
 174
dominant institutions (military, economic
and political) of a dominant country, and
their decisions (or lack of decisions) have
enormous consequences, not only for the
U.S. population, but “the underlying
populations of the world.”
16. (c) Talcott Parsons in his book
‘On the Concept of Political Power’
elaborated Power as money. Parsons
juxtaposes the use of money in an
economic system to the use of power in
a political system throughout the article,
showing similarities in the use of both.
17. (a) In politics, a big tent or catch-all
party is a type of political party that seeks
to attract voters from different points of
view and ideologies. The party system in
western Europe after the Second World
War represented the notion of catch all
Party.
18. (c) Hannah Arendt in her Idea
of Revolutionary Leadership expressed
that the success of a revolution occurs
when it is limited to the political and not
extending to the social.
19. (d) Commodity Chains and
Global Capitalism book was published
by Miguel Korzeniewicz, Gary Gereffi.
In this book they propagated the idea of
World System theory. Its quoted in this
book that The Capitalist world economy
is made up of “Commodity Chains” of
producers and consumers, sellers and
buyers linking countries in the core of
the world economy”.
20. (b) Consociationalism is a form of
democracy which seeks to regulate the
sharing of power in a state that comprises
diverse societies. It is considered as an
incomplete theory of democracy. Under
consociational democracy the way of
genuine alternatives are usually blocked
due to culture and ethnicity based
representation.
21. (c) The critics charged that the
Constituent Assembly was dominated by
the Congress party. Granville Austin, a
British Constitutional expert, remarked
that ‘the Constituent Assembly was a
one-party body in an essentially one
party country. The Assembly was the
Congress and the Congress was India’.
22. (b)
(Books)   (Authors)
The Child and – Myron Weiner
the State in India Bardoli Satyagraha – 1928
The Hindu – Christopher
Nationalist Move- Jaferlot
ment and Indian
Politics
The Political – Pranab Bardhan
Economy of
Development in
India
Poverty Amid – Atul Kholi
Plenty in the
New India
23. (d) The SC in Epuru Sudhakar
case has given a small window for
judicial review of the pardon powers of
President and governors for the purpose
of ruling out any arbitrariness. The
ground established by the Supreme Court
for Judicial Review are: that the order
has been passed without application of
mind; that the order is malafide; that the
order is based on extraneous or wholly
irrelevant considerations; that the order
suffers from arbitrariness.
24. (b)
  (Panchayati Raj   (Year)
Committee)
C.H. Hanumantha Rao – 1984
G.V.K. Rao – 1985
Ashok Mehta – 1978
L.M. Singhvi – 1986
25. (b) The fundamental duties, are
non-enforceable and non-justiciable in
character. This means that no citizen can
be punished by a court for violation of a
fundamental duty. Courts will certainly
take cognizance of laws seeking to give
effect to fundamental duties.
26. (d) Parliamentary privileges are
defined in Article 105 of the Indian
Constitution. Privileges enjoyed by
the members collectively as part of
parliament are: Right to prohibit the
publication of proceedings; Right to
exclude strangers; The right to regulate
its internal matters; The right to punish
members and outsiders for breach of
privilege.
Solved Paper-II, January-2017
27. (b) The correct Chronology of
Peasant Movements in India is:
Champaran Satyagraha – 1917
Tebhaga Andolan – 1946–47
Singur Andolan – 2006
28. (d) The correct chronological
order of Event related to federalism in
India is:
Rajamannar Committee – 1969
Anandpur Sahib Resolution – 1973
West Bengal Memorandum – 1977
Punchhi Commission – 2007
29. (d) Raj Krishna was an Indian
economist who taught at the Delhi School
of Economics. He is most famous for the
phrase “Hindu rate of growth” which
he coined for India’s low rate of GDP
growth between the 1950s and 1980s.
He also gave the concept of Dharamshala
Model.
30. (c) The N.N. Vohra committee
was set up in 1993 to look into the status
of Criminalization of Politics in India.
It studied the nexus among criminals,
politicians and bureaucrats in India.
31. (d) The correct sequence of the
evolution of different approaches of
Public Administration is: Institutional
approach then Behavioural approach
which was followed by System approach
and at last came the Public policy
approach.
32. (d) Civil servant of India has
political right. They have the right to
vote, but they have to remain politically
impartial in their office work. Neutrality
is one of the most essential requirements
from civil servants.
33. (b) The Second Administrative
Reforms Commission has identified the
following as barriers to citizen-centric
administration in India:
•• Inflexible self-perpetuating and
inward looking attitude of civil
servants.
•• Lack of accountability of civil
servants.
•• Low levels of awareness of the
rights and duties of citizens.
Solved Paper-II, January-2017
34. (c) Finance ministry issues gui-
delines to spending based on which
ministries present their demands. The
Budget Division of the Department of
Economic Affairs in the finance ministry
is the nodal body responsible for
producing the Budget.
35. (a) Deficit financing, practice in
which a government spends more money
than it receives as revenue, the difference
being made up by borrowing or minting
new funds. In India this is introduced in
First Five year Plan.
36. (d) Plato’s concept of the philo-
sopher king is an example of the guardian
bureaucracy. They were considered the
custodians of justice and welfare of the
community. This type may be defined as
“a scholastic officialdom trained in right
conduct according to the classics.”
37. (b) Periodic election, Constitution
of State Election Commission, Consti-
tution of State Finance Commission
and Empowerment of Socially and Eco-
nomically Backward Groups are few
common features of 73rd and 74th Ame-
ndment Act.
38. (b) Official Languages Com-
mission (India) is a commission which
was constituted by the President of
India in pursuance to the provisions
stated in the Article-344 of the Indian
Constitution. Hence it is a constitutional
body and not a Statutory Body.
39. (c) Sometimes some social groups
have some special problems which require
the particular attention of the government.
When a department is established to
meet the special problems of a section of
community, the basis of such department
is said to be clientele or persons served.
Similarly Ministry of Agriculture is formed
to deal specifically with the problem faced
by farmers.
40. (d)
41. (d) The English school provides
the basis for the study of international
and world history in terms of the social
structures of international orders. The
English school is built around three
key concepts: international system,
international society and world society.
Hedley Bull (1977, 9–10) defined the
international system as being formed
when two or more states have sufficient
contact between them, and have sufficient
impact on one another’s decisions to
cause them to behave as parts of a whole.
42. (d) Balance of Terror involves the
presence of several very powerful states
(Nuclear powers with their overkill
capacities) each of which is capable of
destroying the other and therefore each
fears the other. There is mutual fear and
distrust in international relations.
43. (d) The Five Principal Assump-
tions of Balance of Power:
(1) Firstly, Balance of Power assumes
that states are determined to
protect their vital rights and
interests by all means, including
war.
(2) Secondly, vital interests of the
states are threatened.
(3) The relative power position of
states can be measured with a
degree of accuracy.
(4) Balance of Power assumes that
“balance” will either deter the
threatening state from launching
an attack or permit the victim to
avoid defeat if an attack should
occur.
(5) The statesmen can, and they do
make foreign policy decisions
intelligently on basis of power
considerations.
175
44. (c) Being the leaders of Develop-
ing World both India and China
rejected the binding emission principle
of Kyoto Protocol. They asked for the
principle of ‘Common but differentiated
responsibility’.
45. (b) The Soviet theory of peaceful
coexistence asserted that the United States
and USSR, and their respective political
ideologies, could coexist rather than
fighting one another, and Khrushchev
tried to demonstrate his commitment to
peaceful coexistence.
46. (c) The ‘End of History and the
Last Man’ written by Francis Fukuyama
in 1992 claimed that the end of the cold
war the ideological struggle between
capitalism and socialism ended.
47. (a) The Partnership for Peace
(PfP) is a programme of practical bilateral
cooperation between individual Euro-
Atlantic partner countries and NATO. It
allows partners to build up an individual
relationship with NATO, choosing their
own priorities for cooperation.
48. (b) The fall of the Berlin wall in
1989 was considered as the first nail in
the coffer of Cold War. The end of the
Cold War started with the unification of
Germany after the fall of the Berlin wall.
49. (a) The Maastricht Treaty (formally
the Treaty on European Union) was signed
on 7 February 1992 by the members of
the European Communities in Maastricht,
Netherlands, to further European integra-
tion. It created European Union.
50. (d) The Organisaton of the
Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is
a permanent, intergovernmental Organisa-
tion, created at the Baghdad Conference
on September 10 to September 14, 1960,
by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and
Venezuela. Now it has 14 members. It is
not a specialized agency of the UN. It is
basically a Petroleum Cartel.
qqq
 176
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Solved Paper-III, January-2017
1. Who of the following said, “An
important function of Political
theory is not only to show what a
political practice is but also to show
what it means. In showing what a
practice means, or what it ought
to mean, Political theory can alter
what it is”?
(a) G.H. Sabine
(b) Leo Strauss
(c) Michael Oakeshott
(d) Isaiah Berlin
Codes:
2. Who among the following disputed
the view that human behaviour
could be adequately described
without reference to the intentions,
motives and reasons of the actors
involved?
(a) Peter Winch (b) C. Hull
(c) D. Hume (d) R.A. Dahl
3. Match the List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
List–I List–II
(Authors) (Concepts)
A. John Rawls i. Equality of
What?
B. John C. ii. Primary Goods
Harsanyi Reconsidered
C. Richard J. iii. Justice as
Arneson Fairness
D.
Alex iv. The Maximin
Callinicos Principle
Codes:
A B C D
(a) i ii iii iv
(b) iii ii i iv
(c) iii iv ii i
(d) iv iii i ii Politics
Political Science
4. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Lenin produced a new
theory of the revolutionary function
of the intellectuals.
Reason (R): The ideas and not the
material conditions of production are
the effective causes of revolution.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
5. Who among the following declared:
“For me morals, ethics, and religion
are convertible terms. A moral life
without reference to religion is like
a house built upon sand”?
(a) Aurobindo
(b) Savarkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jayaprakash
6. Match the List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
List–I List–II
(Plato’s (Main Themes)
Dialogues)
A. Symposium i. The sphere of
Physics
B. Philebus ii. The sphere of
Solved Paper-III, January-2017
C. Timaeus iii. Application of
the theory of
ideas to the
sphere of ethics
D. Republic iv. The metaphysics
of love
Codes:
A B C D
(a) iv iii i ii
(b) i ii iii iv
(c) iii iv ii i
(d) ii i iv iii
7. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): No genuine under-
standing of Aristotle can endorse the
opinion that his philosophical system
was the opposite of Plato.
Reason (R): Aristotle’s system is an
attempt to Philosophize on idealism
free from the defects of Plato’s
system.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
8. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Machiavellism stands
for double standard of morals, one
for the ruler and another for the
private citizen.
Solved Paper-III, January-2017
Reason (R): The ruler, as the creator
of the state, is not only outside the
Law, and outside morality as well.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
9. Whose ideas of the following were
incorporated in the Philosophical
radicalism of utilitarianism?
(a) Machiavelli
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) John Locke
(d) Rousseau
10. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Karl Marx is inter-
preted by some as an economic
determinist but by others as a humane
socialist.
Reason (R): The problem stems from
the wide range and complex nature
of his own writings.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
11. Who among the following defined
Civil power as “the right of
making laws with penalties... for
the regulating and preserving of
property, and of employing the
force of the community, in the
execution of such laws.... All this
only for the public good.”?
(a) Machiavelli
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) John Locke
(d) Rousseau
12. Who among the following said,
‘Ideology is the most elusive concept
in the whole of Social Science’?
(a) Martin Seliger
(b) David McLellan
(c) J.B. Thompson
(d) John Plamenatz
13. Arrange the following works of Sri
Aurobindo in chronological order:
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
A. Love and Death
B. The Life Divine
C. Essays on Gita
D. Savitri: A Legend and a Symbol
Codes:
(a) A, B, D and C
(b) A, B, C and D
(c) B, D, A and C
(d) D, A, B and C
14. Which one of the following
statements is not true in case of
Liberalism?
(a) Liberal thought focuses upon
needs and interests of the ‘indivi-
dual,’ rather than those of any
group or ‘collective’.
(b) The liberals desire to create a
society in which each individual
is capable of developing and
flourishing to the fullness of his
or her potential.
(c) Liberals do not believe in univer-
salism that individuals are all of
equal moral worth.
(d) Individual liberty is for liberals
the Supreme Political Value.
15. Who among the following argued
that ‘the only purpose for which
power can be right fully exercised
over any member of a civilized
community against his will, is to
prevent harm to others’?
177
(a) James Mill
(b) Jeremy Bentham
(c) J.S. Mill
(d) J.B. Priestley
16. In the year 1960, application of
structural functionalism by Almond
and Powell was an application of
(a) Easton’s Framework of Political
System
(b) Dahl’s Polyarely
(c) Lucian Pye’s Modernization
Theory
(d) Rostow’s Theory of Stapes of
Growth
17. Economics is value free, but
political economy originates in the
context of the ideological debate
of the eighteenth century is a
comment made by
(a) Marx
(b) Keynes
(c) Schumpeter
(d) Amartya Sen
18. Which of the following is not an
integral part of liberal constitu-
tionalism?
(a) Individual freedom
(b) Toleration and consent
(c) Majoritarianism
(d) Minority rights
19. The Presidential system operates
most successfully in the U.S.A.
because of
(a) A strong two party system
(b) A well demarcated constitution
(c) Judicial review
(d) Minor contradictions in society
20. The House of Lords in Great
Britain is mainly retained because
(a) It is as important as the House of
Commons.
(b) It plays an important role of
checks and balances.
(c) It acts as a judicial court.
(d) It is maintained as an institution.
 178
21. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Huntington is correct
in asserting that the combination of
the role of the state and government
of the U.S. President is a medieval
practice.
Reason (R): It is because in other
liberal democracies, the two roles
are not combined.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
22. The growth of judicial power over
the last one hundred years in liberal
democracies have taken place
because
(a) The constitutions have given the
judiciary more powers.
(b) Acceptance of the theory of
separation of powers.
(c) The U.N. Directives.
(d) Protect Human Rights.
23. Environmental Green parties orig-
inated from
(a) Breakaway from main stream
political parties
(b) Pressure of public opinion
(c) Emergence of a planetary con-
sciousness
(d) New social movements
24. Duverger’s theory asserts that a
two party system emerges in a
(a) representational parliamentary
system.
(b) homogeneous political order.
(c) welfare state.
(d) a majoritarian parliamentary
system.
25. The first use of the concept of
political culture was made by
(a) Gabriel Almond
(b) G. Bingham Powell, Jr.
(c) Karl Deutseh
(d) Lucian Pye
26. Which one of the following orien-
tations is not a part of the basic
types of political culture?
(a) Cognitive orientations
(b) Affective orientations
(c) Evaluative orientations
(d) Individual orientations
27. The progressive comparativists
in political development do not
emphasize in one of the following:
(a) Under development
(b) Dependency
(c) Imperialism
(d) Modernization
28. The Theory of Modernization and
decay is formulated by
(a) Rostow
(b) Pye
(c) Huntington
(d) Lipset
29. Which of the following is not an
essential prerequisite for making
elitism compatible with democracy
in Schumpeter?
(a) The calibre of politicians must be
high.
(b) Competition is to take place within
a relatively restricted range.
(c) Presence of a well trained indepen-
dent bureaucracy.
(d) A well organised party system.
30. Beliefs and symbols are the distinc-
tive features of the notion of autho-
rity in
(a) Marx (b) Parsons
(c) Verba (d) Weber
31. Regarding the Interim Government
of 1946, which of the following is
not correct?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime
Minister/Head of the Executive
Council.
Solved Paper-III, January-2017
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru was designated
as the Vice-President of the
Viceroy’s Executive Council.
(c) The Viceroy continued to be the
Head of the Executive Council.
(d) The members of the Interim
Government were members of
viceroy’s Executive Council.
32. Which one of the following state-
ments is not correct regarding
Certiorari?
(a) A High Court can issue a writ
against itself in its administrative
capacity.
(b) A bench of a High Court can
issue a writ to another bench of
the same High Court.
(c) A High Court cannot issue a writ
to another High Court.
(d) A High Court can issue certiorari
to a tribunal situated within its
jurisdiction.
33. In which one of the following cases
the Supreme Court of India used
the principle of “continuing man-
damus”?
(a) S.P. Gupta Vs. Union of India
(b) Sunil Batra Vs. Delhi Admini-
stration
(c) Vineet Narain Vs. Union of India
(d) Sagir Ahmad Vs. State of U.P.
34. Who was the first President of India
to make use of ‘Pocket Veto’?
(a) Zakir Hussain
(b) Sanjeeva Reddy
(c) R. Venkatraman
(d) Gyani Zail Singh
35. Who said Indian federalism is “a
new kind of federation to meet
India’s peculiar needs”?
(a) Granville Austin
(b) Ivor Jenneigs
(c) Alexandrowicz
(d) Ronald Wats
36. Adi Ambedkar Samaj movement is
related to which State?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Punjab
(c)
Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
Solved Paper-III, January-2017 179
37. Who was the Chairman of the Codes: 44. Which one of the following Com-
Group of Interlocutors for Jammu A B C D mittees opposed the state funding
and Kashmir? (a) iii iv i ii of elections in India?
(a) T.S.R. Subramanian (b) ii iii iv i (a) Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy
(b) Dilip Padgaonkar (c) i ii iii iv (b) Indrajit Gupta
(c) Radha Kumar (d) iv i ii iii (c) Tarkunde
41. Who described the critical and (d) Dinesh Goswami
(d) Dr. Karan Singh
creative role of politics in India 45. Which of the following newspaper
38. Which of the following statements
as “the Indian model of develo- is managed by a trust in India?
is true about the constitution of pment”? (a) Times of India
P.K. Thungan Committee? (a) Rajni Kothari (b) Indian Express
(a) To consider the type of political (b) Amartya Sen (c) Hindu
and administrative structure (c) Jagdish Bhagwati (d) Tribune
needed in the District Planning. (d) James Maner
46. Who among the following hold
(b) To consider the administrative 42. Match List–I with List–II and the view that administration
arrangements for rural Develo- identify the correct answer from comprises of the work of only
pment. the codes given below: those persons who are engaged in
(c) To consider the need for decen- List–I List–II
performing managerial functions
tralized planning. (Event) (Year)
in an organization?
A. Millennium i. 2010
(d) For drawing guidelines for Block Development A. Luther Gulick
level planning. Goals Report B. Herbert Simon
39. When did the Communist Party B. National ii. 2006 C. Victor Thomson
of India (Marxist) emerge as a Commission D. Henry Fayol
for Women
separate political party? Select the correct answer from the
C. Ministry of iii. 1992
(a) 1960 (b) 1964 Women and codes given below:
(c) 1968 (d) 1973 Child Codes:
40. Match the List–I with List–II and Development (a) A and B
D. National iv. 2011 (b) B and C
give the correct answer from the
Mission for
codes given below: (c) B, C and D
Empowerment
List–I List–II of Women (d) A, B, C and D
(Case) (Subject) Codes: 47. Which one of the following stages of
A. Rudal Vs. i. Right to Fly A B C D evolution of public administration
State of Bihar tricolour is called the era of politics admini-
(a) i ii iv iii
B. A.D.M. ii. Right to stration dichotomy?
(b) iv iii ii i
Jabalpur Vs. know (a) First stage
(c) i iv iii ii
Shiv Kant antecedents (b) Second stage
(d) iii i ii iv
Shukla of candidates (c) Third stage
43. Who among the following made a
for election (d) Fourth stage
significant contribution to theories
C. Union of iii. Award of 48. Which of the following are the
of the Interaction between social
India Vs. monetary dominance and state power in salient features of the New Public
Naveen Jindal compensation contemporary India? Management?
D. Union of iv. Right to life (a) Francine R. Frankel & M.S.A. A. Empowerment of Citizens
India Vs. Rao B. Disaggregation of Public Burea-
Association (b) Myron Weiner ucracy
for Democratic (c) Lloyd and Susane Rudolph C. Cost-cutting
Reforms D. Organizational Centralization
(d) Partha Chatterjee
 180 Solved Paper-III, January-2017
Select the correct answer from the 53. What is the correct sequence of C. Democratic iii. 74th Constitu-
codes given below: Morstein Marx’s classification of Decentralisation tional
Codes: bureaucracy given below: Amendment
(a) A and C A. Merit B. Patronage Act
C. Caste D. Gurdian D. Mandal iv. Balwantrai
(b) A, C and D
Select the correct answer from the Panchayats Mehta
(c) A, B and C
codes given below: Committee
(d) A, B, C and D
Codes: Codes:
49. ‘Squealer’ in the Human Relations
(a) D, C, B and A A B C D
theory is
(b) A, B, C and D (a) ii iii iv i
(a) one who does too much work.
(c) A, D, C and B (b) i ii iii iv
(b) one who does too little work.
(d) D, A, B and C (c) iii iv ii i
(c) one who absents himself from
work. 54. Who among the former Prime (d) ii iii i iv
Ministers had observed that “only a 58. Given below are two statements,
(d) o n e w h o c o m m u n i c a t e s
committed bureaucracy could bring one labelled as Assertion (A) and
detrimental information about
about social transformation.....”?
others to the supervisor. other labelled as Reason (R). Select
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru the correct answer from the codes
50. Match the List–I with List–II and
(b) Morarji Desai given below:
select the correct answer from the
(c) Indira Gandhi Assertion (A): The Principle of
codes given below:
List–I List–II (d) V.P. Singh Unity of Command cannot always
A. Proverbs of i. Henry Fayol 55. The purpose of an adjournment be strictly followed in organizations.
Administration motion is to Reason (R): Employees are quite
B. Principles of ii. Herbert (a) seek the leave of the House to often subject to dual control admini-
Management Simon introduce a bill. strative and technical.
C. Functions of iii. Morestein (b) censure the Government.
Executive Marx Codes:
(c) propose a reduction in the budget.
D. Elements of iv. Chester (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
(d) draw the attention of the House to
Public Barnard is the correct explanation of (A).
a matter of urgent public impor-
Administration (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
tance.
Codes: is not the correct explanation of
56. The First attempt to confer consti-
A B C D tutional status on rural local gover- (A).
(a) ii i iv iii nment was made by (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) i ii iii iv (a) the 64 th Constitutional Amen- (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) ii iii iv i dment Bill 59. e-governance is
(d) iii iv i ii (b) the 68th Constitutional Amendment A. cost-efficient
51. Who among the following has Bill B. transparent
defined budget as “a series of goals (c) the 72nd Constitutional Amendment
C. time-saving
with price tags attached”? Bill
D. responsive
(a) Wildavsky (d) the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Act Select the correct answer from the
(b) Paul Appleby codes given below:
57. Match the List–I with List–II and
(c) Chester Barnard (a) A and C
select the correct answer from the
(d) John D. Millet codes given below: (b) A, B and C
52. Who among the following is the List–I List–II (c) A, C and D
creator of Zero-Based-Budgeting? A. Finance Com- i. Ashok Mehta
(d) A, B, C and D
(a) Hoover Commission mission Committee
B. Nagar ii. 73rd Constitu- 60. Which one of the following
(b) Peter A. Phyrr
Panchayats tional Commissions/Committees has
(c) Herbert Simon Amendment recommended legal protection to
(d) Gug Peters Act whistle blowers?
Solved Paper-III, January-2017
(a) First Administrative Reforms
Commission
(b) Second Administrative Reforms
Commission
(c) Vohra Committee
(d) Election Commission
61. Which one of the following arran-
gements was not visualized by
Morton Kaplan?
(a) Balance of Power
(b) Tight bipolar system
(c) Loose bipolar system
(d) Unipolar system
62. Which one of the following is not
the technique of the balance of
power?
(a) Amassing of weapons
(b) Seizing of territory
(c) Methods of persuasion
(d) Creating of buffer states
63. In 1999 NATO acted against Serbia
accusing of indulging in act of
‘ethnic cleansing’ in Kosovo. To
this, other major powers such as
Russia and China reacted as under:
(a) Russia criticised NATO acting
without UN approval.
(b) China described NATO act as
illegal.
(c) Both Russia and China criticised
NATO acting without UN
approval.
(d) Russia and China remained non-
committal on the issue.
64. Which one of the following was not
the basis invoked by the US for
attacking Iraq in March, 2003?
(a) Iraq possessed weapons of mass
destruction.
(b) Saddam Hussain had links with
Al Quaeda.
(c) Regime Change in Iraq.
(d) Iraq had not withdrawn from
Kuwait completely.
65. ‘Common but differentiated’ res-
ponsibility principle on climate
mitigation agenda emerged from
181
(a) Kyoto Protocol (a) act unilaterally against rogue and
(b) Rio Earth Summit failed states.
(c) Rio + 20 (b) act against states which were
(d) Paris Climate Conference opposed to it ideologically.
66. Which of the following Republic/ (c) move against states which refused
Republics was/were supported by to join in drive for NATO
Russia in Georgian war of 2008? expansion.
(a) South Ossettia (d) intervene in situations of ethnic
(b) South Ossettia and Abkhazia both cleansing.
(c) Abkhazia 72. Match the List–I with List–II and
(d) Nogorno Karabakh select the correct answer from the
67. As per United Nations Convention codes given below:
on the Law of Sea (UNCLOS) states List–I List–II
are entitled for Jurisdiction over A. Uniting for i. 1999
sea water as under: Peace Resolution
(a) three miles from sea shore as B. The Suez Crisis ii. 2002
territorial waters. C. UN Security iii. 1956
(b) twelve miles from the shore for Council Resolution
shipping.
on Iraq Weapons
(c) two hundred miles as Exclusive
D. UN Mission in iv. 1950
Economic Zone (EEZ).
Kosovo
(d) all the three jurisdictions.
Codes:
68. India’s good neighbourhood policy
A B C D
based on the principle of non-
reciprocity is attributed to (a) iii ii i iv
(a) P.V. Narsimha Rao (b) ii i iii iv
(b) Inder Kumar Gujral (c) iv iii ii i
(c) A.B. Vajpayee (d) i ii iv iii
(d) Rajiv Gandhi 73. Match the List–I with List–II and
select correct answer from the
69. Sir John Chilcot Commission has
codes given below:
indicated
List–I List–II
(a) U.K. for its conduct in US led
NATO war in Afghanistan A. Conventional i. 1996
Arms Cut
(b) U.K. for its conduct in Iraq war
in 2003 Treaty
(c) US for its invasion in Iraq in 2003 B. Strategic Arms ii. 1993
Reduction Treaty-I
(d) Russia for its attacks in Syria
C. Strategic Arms iii. 1990
70. The Washington consensus did not
stand for Reduction Treaty-II
D. Comprehensive iv. 1991
(a) Fiscal discipline
Test Ban Treaty
(b) Tax reforms
Codes:
(c) Financial and Trade Liberalisation
A B C D
(d) State Controlled Market System
(a) iii iv ii i
71. Under Bush Doctrine, the USA
held states responsible for activities (b) ii iii i iv
inside their territories and thus (c) iv ii iii i
acquired the right to (d) i iii iv ii
 182
74. The US stopped cultivating ties
with Taliban regime in Afghanistan
after
(a) 9/11 attacks in the US
(b) attacks on US embassies in Kenya
and Tanzania
Answers with Explanations
1. (a) G. H. Sabine in his book ‘A
History of Political Theory’ quoted
that “An important function of Political
theory is not only to show what a political
practice is but also to show what it means.
In showing what a practice means, or
what it ought to mean, Political theory
can alter what it is.”
2. (a) Peter Winch in his book ‘Idea
of a Social Science’ written in 1956
claimed that human behaviour could be
adequately described without reference
to the intentions, motives and reasons of
the actors involved.
3. (c)
(Authors) (Concepts)
John Rawls – Justice as Fairness
John C. – The Maximin
Harsanyi Principle
Richard J. – Primary Goods
Arneson Reconsidered
Alex Callinicos – Equality of What?
4. (a) On the basis of his view that
the ideas and not the material conditions
of production are the effective causes of
revolution. Yes, Lenin produced a new
theory of the revolutionary function of
the intellectuals. Both the statement are
correct and reason statement presents an
appropriate explanation.
5. (c) Mahatma Gandhi while presen-
ting his views on the interdependence
between morality, ethics, politics and
religion quoted that “For me morals,
ethics, and religion are convertible
terms. A moral life without reference to
religion is like a house built upon sand.”
6. (a)
  (Plato’s (Main Themes)
Dialogues)
Symposium – The metaphysics
of love
Philebus – Application of the
theory of ideas to
the sphere of
ethics
(c) attack on US military mission
headquarter in Riyadh
(d) failures of talks on gas pipeline
through Afghanistan
75. Who among the following statesmen
described USSR as an ‘evil empire’?
Timaeus – The sphere of Physics
Republic – The sphere of Politics
7. (a) Aristotle was a disciple of Plato.
He attempted to convert the utopian ideas
of Plato into rational theory. Aristotle’s
system is an attempt to Philosophize
on idealism free from the defects of
Plato’s system. Hence we don’t endorse
that Aristotle philosophical system was
opposite to Plato.
8. (a) In Machiavelli’ ‘Prince’, The
prince has the absolute authority over
its subject. Prince is not obligated to any
kind of moral principle. The ruler, as the
creator of the state, is not only outside
the law, and outside morality as well.
Hence we can claim that Machiavelli
have set a double standard of morality.
9. (b) Utilitarianism is the social
philosophy, legal theory and ethical
system, primarily associated with
Jeremy Bentham and his followers in
19th Century Britain. Utilitarianism is
founded on the underlying hedonistic
philosophy. This philosophy identifies
pleasure as beneficial and pain as
detrimental to a person’s “well-being”.
Hedonism re-emerged in 17th Century
Europe through Thomas Hobbes (1651)
in England. Hobbes, in particular, is most
responsible for articulating the strictest
version of psychological hedonism.
10. (a) Karl Marx writing are multidi-
mensional in nature. They simultaneously
became reference point for different
discipline of Social science. Due to this
he was considered as an economist by
some and human socialist by other.
11. (c) John Locke in his two treatises
of Commonwealth while defining Civil
right said that “ the right of making
laws with penalties… for the regulating
and preserving of property, and of
Solved Paper-III, January-2017
(a) John F. Kennedy
(b) Ronald Regan
(c) Richard Nixon
(d) Henry Kissinger
employing the force of the community,
in the execution of such laws… . All this
only for the public good.”
12. (b) David McLellan in his book
‘Ideology’ wrote that “Ideology is the
most elusive concept in the whole of
Social Science”.
13. (*) The correct chronological
order of Aurobindo’s work is:
Love and Death – 1948
The Life Divine – 1919
Essays on Gita – 1922
Savitri: A – 1940
Legend and a
Symbol
14. (c) Liberalism mainly proposes
the idea of equality. It consider that every
man is of equal worth to the society. It
believe in the principle of universalism.
15. (c) J.S. Mill in his book ‘On
Liberty’ introduced a concept known
as Harm Principle which says that “the
only purpose for which power can be
rightfully exercised over any member of
a civilized community against his will, is
to prevent harm to others.”
16. (a) Almond and Powell in 1960s
used Easton general system theory to
structure their structural functional
approach.
17. (c) Joseph Aloïs Schumpeter was
an Austrian political economist. He com-
mented that Economics is value free, but
political economy originates in the context
of the ideological debate of the eighteenth
century.
18. (c) Liberal Constitutionalism did
not support the principles of Major-
itarianism. Majoritarianism according
to the are against the idea of Democ-
racy. Liberal constitutionalism mainly
propagates Toleration, Consent, Indivi-
dualism, Minority rights etc.
Solved Paper-III, January-2017
19. (d) It is believed by various
scholars of Comparative Politics that the
American Presidential system operates
most successfully in comparison to
other Presidential government all over
the world. The reason as claimed is
the Minor Contradictions in American
society.
20. (d) The House of Lords is the
second chamber of the UK Parliament.
It is independent from, and complements
the work of the elected House of
Commons. The Lords shares the
task of making and shaping laws and
checking and challenging the work of the
government.
21. (a) Both the statement are
correct and the reason statement is a
correct explanation behind the assertion
statement.
22. (d) The protection of human
rights has significantly increased the
requirement on the side of judiciary
to increase its power and domain over
the last one hundred years in liberal
democracies.
23. (d) The Green parties mainly in
Europe and Western developed world
are part of New Social movement. The
main target of these new movement
is to raise concern regarding threat to
quality of life. The green parties work
for ensuring a better and more habitable
world for people.
24. (d) Duverger’s theory of party
system claims that the two party system
usually result into Majoritarianism.
It creates majoritarian parliamentary
system.
25. (a) Almonds most famous work was
The Civic Culture (1963), co-authored
with Sidney Verba. It popularized the
idea of a political culture – a concept
that includes national character and how
people choose to govern themselves – as
a fundamental aspect of society.
26. (d) Under Political Culture appr-
oach, Cognitive orientations include
knowledge and beliefs about the political
system. Affective orientations involve
feelings about the system, such as
attachment, or lack thereof. Evaluative
orientations involve judgments and
opinions about the system.
27. (d) The development theory of
Modernization was proposed by Samul
Huntington. The progressive compara-
tivists in political development do not
emphasize on Modernization theory
of Development due to its capitalistic
interpretation.
28. (c) Political decay is a political
theory, originally described by Samuel
P. Huntington, which describes how
chaos and disorder can arise from
social modernization increasing more
rapidly than political and institutional
modernization.
29. (d) A well organised party system
is not an essential prerequisite for making
elitism compatible with democracy in
Schumpeter theory.
30. (d) Max Weber distinguishes
three types of authority—charismatic,
traditional and legal-rational—each of
which corresponds to a brand of leadership
that is operative in contemporary society.
Beliefs and symbols are the distinctive
features of weber’s notion of authority.
31. (a) The interim government
of 1946 was initially headed by the
viceroy executive council. Jawaharlal
Nehru became the Vice-President of that
council and also the head of the interim
government.
32. (b) Certiorari is issued by a higher
court to a lower court or to any other
tribune. It can’t be issued by one bench
of the High Court to another bench of the
High Court.
33. (c) Continuing mandamus is a writ
issued by a court in an environmental case
directing any agency or instrumentality
of the government or officer thereof to
perform an act or series of acts decreed
by final judgment which shall remain
effective until judgment is fully satisfied.
This is issued by the Supreme Court in
Vineet Narain Vs. Union of India Case.
34. (d) Gyani Zail Singh, President
of India, exercised for the first time a
pocket veto to prevent the Indian Post
Office (Amendment) Bill from becoming
law. Pocket Veto give power to the
president to hold bill in his office of
indefinite period.
35. (a) Granville Austin in his book
‘Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a
Nation’ while commenting on India’s
183
Federalism said “a new kind of federation
to meet India’s peculiar needs”.
36. (b) Punjab was the state where
Adi Ambedkar samaj occurred. This
movement was a religious movement
in India aimed at bringing back Indian
culture and traditions which were being
washed away by the European culture
which they had brought along when they
had colonized Indian.
37. (b) The Centre government
in 2010 named a group of three
interlocutors to hold sustained dialogue
with all sections of the people in Jammu
and Kashmir. They are, noted journalist
Dilip Padgaonkar, Prof. M. M. Ansari,
Information Commissioner and Prof.
(Mrs) Radha Kumar, trustee of Delhi
Policy Group.
38. (a) Prem Khandu Thungan com-
mittee was established in 1989 by the
government to consider the type of political
and administrative structure needed in the
District Planning.
39. (b) The Communist Party of India
(Marxist) formed on 7th November
1964. Its parent organisation was Comm-
unist Party of India which was formed
in 1925.
40. (a)
(Case) (Subject)
Rudal Vs. State – Award of
of Bihar monetary
compensation
A.D.M. Jabalpur – Right to life
Vs. Shiv Kant
Shukla
Union of India – Right to Fly
Vs. Naveen Jindal tricolour
Union of India – Right to know
Vs. Association antecedents of
for Democratic candidates
Reforms for elections
41. (a) Rajni Kothari was the first
to discover the pulse of Indian political
system. He described the critical and
creative role of politics in India as “the
Indian model of development”.
42. (b)
 (Event)  (Year)
Millennium – 2011
Development
Goals Report
 184
National Commission – 1992
for Women
Ministry of Women – 2006
and Child
Development
National Mission – 2010
for Empowerment
of Women
43. (a) Francine R. Frankel &
M.S.A. Rao together wrote a book
‘Dominance and State Power in Modern
India’. Through their work they gave a
significant contribution to theories of the
Interaction between social dominance
and state power in contemporary India.
44. (a) Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy
Committee opposed the state funding of
Election in India considering the status
of Indian Economy and prevalence of
poverty in India.
45. (d) The Tribune is an Indian
English-language daily newspaper
published from Amritsar, Bathinda,
Chandigarh, New Delhi, Jalandhar and
Ludhiana. It was founded on 2 February
1881, in Lahore, by Sardar Dyal Singh
Majithia, a philanthropist, and is run by a
trust comprising five persons as trustees.
46. (d) The Managerial view of
Administration believes that admini-
stration comprises of the work of only
those persons who are engaged in
performing managerial functions in an
organization. Luther Gulick, Herbert
Simon, Victor Thomson and Henry
Fayol belong to Managerial view of
Public Administration.
47. (a) There are five stages in the
chronology of the evolution of Public
Administration as a discipline:
Stage 1: politics administration dicho-
tomy (1887–1926)
Stage 2: principles of administration
(1927–1937)
Stage 3: era of challenge (1938–1947)
Stage 4: crises of identity (1948–1970)
Stage 5: public policy perspective
(1971–Present).
48. (c) New Public Management appr-
oach seeks to reform the government
along the following lines: Restructuring
government operations along the market
lines. Strategic policy formulation and
implementation should be distinguished.
It includes measures like Empowerment
of Citizens, Disaggregation of public
bureaucracy and Cost cutting measures.
Organizational Centralization is not a
feature of NPM.
49. (d) Squealer is a person who
informs on someone to the police or a
person in authority. In Human Relation
theory the one who communicates
detrimental information about others to
the supervisor is called Squealer.
50. (a)
(Book) (Author)
Proverbs of – Herbert Simon
Administration
Principles of – Henry Fayol
Management
Functions of – Chester
Executive Barnard
Elements of – Morestein
Public Admini- Marx
stration
51. (a) Wildavsky was a scholar on
budgeting and budget theory. He is
associated with the idea of incrementalism
in budgeting. He defined budget as “a
series of goals with price tags attached.
52. (b) Peter A. Pyhrr developed zero-
based budgeting when he was a controller
at Texas Instruments between 1969 and
1971. Zero-based budgeting starts from
a “Zero base” at the beginning of every
budget period, analysing needs and costs
of every function within an organization
and allocating funds accordingly,
regardless of how much money has
previously been budgeted to any given
line item.
53. (a) The bureaucracy is categorised
into four types by Morstein Marx
viz., Guardian Bureaucracy, Caste
Bureaucracy, Patronage Bureaucracy,
and Merit Bureaucracy.
54. (c) Mrs. Indira Gandhi, the then
Prime Minister, advocated the concept of
committed bureaucracy. She said only a
committed bureaucracy can bring about
the desired change.
55. (d) The primary object of an
adjournment motion is to draw the
attention of the House to a recent matter
of urgent public importance.
56. (a) The legislative origins of the
73rd and 74th constitutional amendments
date back to the Constitution (64th
Amendment) Bill, which was introduced
Solved Paper-III, January-2017
in the parliament in July 1989. The
introduction of this bill represented the
first attempt to confer constitutional
status on rural local governments.
57. (a)
List–I List–II
Finance – 73rd Constitutional
Commission Amendment
Act
Nagar Panchayats – 74th Constitutional
Amendment Act
Democratic – Balwantrai Mehta
Decentralisation Committee
Mandal – Ashok Mehta
Panchayats Committee
58. (a) In Administration employees
are quite often subject to dual control
administrative and technical. This is way
Unity of Command can’t be applicable
universally in an organisation.
59. (d) E-Governance can be defined
as the application of communication and
information technology for providing
government services, exchange of
information, transactions, integration
of previously existing services and
information portals. The key feature of
e-governance is that it is Cost-efficient,
transparent, time-saving and responsive
in nature.
60. (b) In 2007, the report of the
Second Administrative Reforms Com-
mission recommended that a specific law
be enacted to protect whistleblowers.
61. (d)
62. (c) Balance of Power is an
equilibrium or a certain amount of
stability in power relations that under
favourable conditions is produced by an
alliance of states or by other devices.
Balance of Power can be attained by
amassing of weapons, by seizing of
territory or by creating of buffer states.
It can’t be attained by persuasion.
63. (c) NATO’s military intervention
in Kosovo is a highly controversial issue
due to its violation of the general rule in
international law that prohibits the use of
force, even in the case of a humanitarian
crisis. Both Russia and China criticised
NATO acting without UN approval.
64. (d) Along with Iraq’s alleged
development of weapons of mass
destruction, another justification for
invasion was the purported link between
Solved Paper-III, January-2017
Saddam Hussein’s government and
terrorist organizations, in particular
Al-Qaeda. In that sense, the Bush
Administration cast the Iraq war as part
of the broader War on Terrorism.
65. (a) Common but Differentiated
Responsibilities (CBDR) is a principle
within the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) that acknowledges the
different capabilities and differing
responsibilities of individual countries in
addressing climate change. It originated
after the dialogue between developed
and developing countries in the Kyoto
Protocol.
66. (b) In early August 2008, after
Georgian President Mikheil Saakashvili
sent troops into the rebellious province
of South Ossetia, Russia came to its
defence, beginning a five-day-long
conflict. The roots of the Russia-
Georgia conflict go back to the early
1990s, when both Russia and Georgia
were newly independent nations after
the dissolution of the USSR. Civil war
erupted within Georgia, located to the
south of Russia on the eastern shore of
the Black Sea, when two provinces—
South Ossetia in eastern Georgia,
and Abkhazia, on the northwestern
coast—sought to declare their own
independence.
67. (d) The United Nations Con-
vention on the Law of the Sea lays
down a comprehensive regime of law
and order in the world’s oceans and
seas establishing rules governing all
uses of the oceans and their resources.
Area under national jurisdiction is:
three miles from sea shore as territorial
waters, twelve miles from the shore for
shipping, two hundred miles as Exclusive
Economic Zone (EEZ).
68. (b) Former Prime Minister,
Late Mr. I.K. Gujral propounded
the Gujral Doctrine when he was the
Union Minister of External Affairs in
1996–1997 in the H.D. Deve Gowda
Government. The Gujral doctrine was a
five-point roadmap which sought to build
trust between India and neighbours,
of solution to bilateral issues through
bilateral talks and to remove immediate
quid pro quos in diplomatic relationship
between India and her neighbours. The
‘Doctrine’ emphasized on the importance
of unilateral accommodation for friendly
and warm relations with India’s
neighbours.
69. (b) Sir John Chilcot commission
was set up by the UK government for
enquiring the steps taken by the UK in
Iran Invasion in 2003. It is also famously
known as Iran Inquiry. Chilcot report
stated that at the time of the invasion of
Iraq in 2003, Saddam Hussein did not
pose an urgent threat to British interests,
that intelligence regarding weapons of
mass destruction was presented with
unwarranted certainty, that peaceful
alternatives to war had not been
exhausted.
70. (d) The Washington Consensus
refers to a set of free-market economic
policies supported prominent financial
institutions such as the International
Monetary Fund, the World Bank, and
the U.S. Treasury. A British economist
named John Williamson coined the
term Washington Consensus in 1989.
It supported globalisation and rejected
State controlled Market System.
71. (a) According to the Bush Doctrine,
rogue states threaten American security
today. These nations are hostile to the
185
United States and are developing chemical,
biological, and nuclear weapons of mass
destruction. Under this doctrine USA got
right to act unilaterally against rouge and
failed states.
72. (c)
List–I   List–II
Uniting for Peace – 1950
Resolution
The Suez Crisis – 1956
UN Security Council – 2002
Resolution on Iraq
Weapons
UN Mission in – 1999
Kosovo
73. (a)
List–I  List–II
Conventional Arms – 1990
Cut Treaty
Strategic Arms – 1991
Reduction Treaty-I
Strategic Arms – 1990
Reduction Treaty-II
Comprehensive – 1996
Test Ban Treaty
74. (b) The U.S. embassies in Nairobi,
Kenya and Dar es Salaam, Tanzania,
killing 224 and wounding thousands.
American officials quickly pointed to a
then little-known Saudi terrorist named
Osama bin Laden. After this attack US
stopped its ties with Taliban regime in
Afghanistan.
75. (b) The “Evil Empire” speech
was a speech delivered by U.S.
President Ronald Reagan to the National
Association of Evangelicals in 1983
during the Cold War. In that speech,
Reagan referred to the Soviet Union as
an “evil empire” and as “the focus of
evil in the modern world”.
qqq
 186
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, November-2017
1. Who said “Kautilya’s Artha-
s h a s t r a e x e m p l i fi e d r a d i c a l
Machiavellianism, compared to it,
Machiavelli’s Prince is harmless”?
(a) Weber (b) Morgenthau
(c) Waltz (d) Kissinger
2. According to Plato, justice is:
(a) Distribution of goods and services
(b) Burdens and Benefits
(c) Punishment and retribution
(d) One man one work, one class one
duty
3. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): Oakeshott says
Hobbes is the greatest political
thinker produced by the English
speaking people.
Reason (R): No other thinker can
match his philosophical foundations
and clarity of thought.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
4. Hegel’s dialectical method was:
(a) to build a science of politics
(b) to accept the Enlightenment’s
philosophical method
(c) to assert that the methods of
natural sciences and those of
social sciences were identical
(d) to solve the problem of contra-
diction
5. Who distinguished the Young Marx
from the Old Marx?
(a) Althusser (b) Lenin
(c) Miliband (d) Luxemburg
6. Gramsci characterised Fascism as:
(a) Hegemonic revolution
(b) Passive revolution
(c) Bourgeois revolution
(d) Petit Bourgeois revolution
7. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): Gandhi was critical
of the material civilisation and
particularly detested the Industrial
Revolution.
Reason (R): He believed that
Industrial Revolution was destroying
deeper values.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
8. Roy-Lenin debate centred around:
(a) Dialectical Materialism
(b) Marxist Theory of History
(c) The Theory of Surplus Value
(d) Colonial Question
9. Deliberative Democracy is:
(a) A theory that champions exclu-
sively Human Rights.
(b) A theory that puts forward envir-
onment as the most important
agenda.
Solved Paper-II, November-2017
(c) A theory that concentrates on
refining the familiar framework
of liberal democracy.
(d) A theory that wants to usher in
socialism by democratic means.
10. Why was behaviouralism short-
lived?
(a) Inability to evolve consensus
(b) Too much dogmatism
(c) It was a localised event
(d) Coloured by Cold War prejudices
11. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): According to Weber,
comparative politics could be
comprehended within the larger
framework of culture, which he did
by demolishing Marx’s theory of
economic determinism.
Reason (R): As without this rejection,
his theory was totally untenable.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
12. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): Institutional approach
can help in mapping the landscape of
politics.
Solved Paper-II, November-2017
Reason (R): The goal of institutional
approach is to reconcile the competing
values of individual freedom and
collective equality.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
13. Which century according to Easton
is “The Age of Scientific Method”?
(a) Seventeenth Century
(b) Eighteenth Century
(c) Nineteenth Century
(d) Twentieth Century
14. Aristotle’s classification of constitu-
tions was based on the categories
of:
(a) who rules and who benefits from
the rule
(b) ways and means of perpetuating
in power
(c) accepting the basic formulations
of Plato’s The Republic
(d) to ensure rule of the majority
15. Which one of the following countries
follow a semi-presidential system?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Germany
(c) Italy (d) France
16. Who challenged the established
view that in Great Britain the
Conservative party was elitist
and leader dominated, while the
Labour party was characterised
by a high measure of internal
democracy?
(a) Robert Michels
(b) Robert Mekenzie
(c) Tony Benn
(d) Mosei Ostrogonski
17. Bureaucratic authoritarianism is a
variant of:
(a) Military rule (b) Fascism
(c) Communism (d) Despotism
18. Which theory held that as societies
developed they would become
capitalist democracies, converging
around a shared set of values and
characteristics?
(a) Dependency Theory
(b) Structural Functional Theory
(c) Modernization Theory
(d) Post-modernization Theory
19. Legitimation crisis as an alternative
to Weberian approach to legitimacy
was developed by:
(a) Miliband and Sweezy
(b) Plekhanov and Lenin
(c) Camus and Sartre
(d) Habermas and Offe
20. Who said Revolution meant a
drastic sudden substitution of one
group in charge of the running
of a territorial political entity by
another?
(a) Hannah Arendt
(b) Theda Skocpol
(c) Crane Brinton
(d) Hubert Johnson
21. Put the following events in their
chronological order and select the
correct answer from the code given
below:
Poona Pact, Third Round Table
Conference, Swaraj Party, Com-
munal Award, Nehru Report.
Code:
(a) Swaraj Party, Poona Pact, Third
Round Table Conference, Nehru
Report, Communal Award
(b) Swaraj Party, Nehru Report,
Communal Award, Poona Pact,
Third Round Table Conference
(c) Poona Pact, Swaraj Party, Com-
munal Award, Nehru Report,
Third Round Table Conference
(d) Nehru Report, Third Round Table
Conference, Swaraj Party, Poona
Pact, Communal Award
22. Which of the following parties/
groups the Cabinet Mission did not
recognise?
187
(a) The Muslim League
(b) The Congress
(c) The Sikhs
(d) The Princess Guild
23. Which of the following come within
the ambit of Article 21 of the Indian
Constitution?
(A) Right to shelter
(B) Right to good roads
(C) Right to reputation
(D) Right to pure drinking water
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Code:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
24. Which of the following cases reflect
on the elements of the basic structure
of the Indian Constitution? Choose
correct answer from the code given
below:
(A) Indira Nehru Gandhi V. Raj
Narain
(B) Kesavanand Bharti V. State of
Kerala
(C) S.P. Gupta V. Union of India
(D) Minerva Mills V. Union of India
Code:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (C), (D) and (B) only
(d) (A), (B) and (C) only
25. When were the rules regarding
Department Related Parliamentary
standing committees made in
India?
(a) 1977 (b) 1981
(c) 1989 (d) 2010
26. Which of the following state has a
seat reserved on the basis of religion
in the Legislative Assembly?
(a) Goa
(b) Mizoram
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Sikkim
 188
27. Which of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
(a) Rolling Plan – National Front
Government
(b) 20 Point – Congress
Programme Government
(c) National – NDA-I
Commission Government
to Review
the Working
of the
Constitution
(d) National – UPA-I
Rural Government
Employment
Guarantee Act
28. Who among the following was not
a member of the Sarkaria Com-
mission on Centre-State Relations?
(a) Justice R.S. Sarkaria
(b) G.V. Ramakrishna
(c) B. Shivaraman
(d) Dr. S.R. Sen
29. Since when the Election Commission
of India has become a three member
body?
(a) 1989 (b) 1990
(c) 1993 (d) 2001
30. Arrange the following peasant
movements in their chronological
order. Select the correct answer
from the code given below:
(A) Tebhaga
(B) Champaran
(C) Singur
(D) Bardoli
Code:
(a) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(b) (B), (D), (A), (C)
(c) (C), (A), (B), (D)
(d) (D), (B), (C), (A)
31. Which of the following approaches
is the precursor of the Ecological
approach?
(a) Classical approach
(b) Human Relations approach
(c) Systems approach
(d) Behavioural approach
Solved Paper-II, November-2017
32. Match List–I with List–II and select (C) Central Reserve Police Force
the correct answer from the code (CRPF)
given below: (D) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
  List–I   List–II Select the correct answer from the
(Theory) (Thinker) code given below:
(A) Classical (i) Elton Mayo (a) (A) and (D)
Theory
(b) (A) and (B)
(B) Human (ii) Henry Fayol
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
Relations
(d) (C) and (D)
Theory
37. Which of the following commissions/
(C) Decision- (iii) V. Ostrom
Making committees recommended that the
Theory financial year should be from
(D) Public (iv) Herbert January 1 to December 31?
Choice Simon (a) L.K. Jha Committee
Theory (b) Sarkaria Commission
Code: (c) Sixth Pay Commission
A B C D (d) Second Administrative Reforms
(a) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) Commission
38. Which one of the following types
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
of training prepares future recruits
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
for the public service?
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (a) Informal training
33. Who among the following has (b) Formal training
specified six qualities of an (c) Pre-entry training
administrator/manager - physical,
(d) Post-entry training
mental, moral, general education,
39. Which of the following statements
special knowledge and experience?
are correct about the Central
(a) Fayol (b) Gulick Vigilance Commission?
(c) Urwick (d) Follet (A) It was set up on the recommendation
34. Which of the following is an of the Santhanam Committee
example of auxiliary agency? (B) It is a statutory body
(a) Department of Defence (C) It is a multi-member commission
(b) Department of Home (D) It exercises superintendence over
(c) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) the working of the CBI
(d) Public Works Department Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
35. Which one of the following types of
bureaucracy tend to exhibit a bias (a) (A) and (B) only
towards party interests? (b) (B) and (C) only
(a) Caste bureaucracy (c) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) Patronage bureaucracy (d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
40. Given below are two statements,
(c) Guardian bureaucracy
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
(d) Ruling bureaucracy the other labelled as Reason (R).
36. Which of the following are excluded Select the correct answer from the
from the RTI Act? code given below:
(A) Central Bureau of Investigation Assertion (A): The expenditure
(CBI) charged on the Consolidated Fund
(B) Research and Analysis Wing of India is not subject to the vote of
(RAW) Parliament.
Solved Paper-II, November-2017
Reason (R): It is in the nature of
obligatory payment.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
41. Which of the following combination
game theory utilizes to analyse
strategic interaction among decision
-makers?
(a) Mathematics and Reason
(b) Reason and Logic
(c) Logic and Rationality
(d) Mathematics and Logic
42. Consider the following statements
with regard to MTCR:
(A) China is not a member of MTCR
(B) India is a member of MTCR
(C) Aims at restricting complete
rocket systems
(D) Pakistan is a member of MTCR
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C)
(b) (B), (D), (C)
(c) (B), (C), (D)
(d) (D), (B), (A)
43. Which one of the following is not a
criteria of just war?
(a) Be authorized by a sovereign
prince
(b) Be proportionate
(c) Be pursued for just intent
(d) be undeclared
44. Whose Presidency in America was
marked by ‘war on terrorism’?
(a) George H W Bush
(b) George W Bush Jr
(c) Bill Clinton
(d) Barack Obama
45. A unipolar condition to which
George W Bush Jr referred as a
balance of power that favours:
(a) Security (b) Cooperation
(c) Peace (d) Freedom
46. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answers from the code
given below:
  List–I List–II
(Authors) (Books)
(A) Andrew (i) Cooperation
Linklater under Anarchy
(B) F. Clark (ii) The Transfor-
mation of
Political
Community
(C) Kenneth (iii) Gendering
Oye World Politics
(D) J.A. (iv) Hegemony in
Tickner International
Studies
Code:
A B C D founding members of NAM
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(d) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) was held in Venezuela
47. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): India is seeking
permanent membership of Security
Council of UNO.
Reason (R): India is a nuclear power.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
48. Match the List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
code given below:
List–I List–II
(A) Nixon (i) Support to
doctrine anti-guerilla
movements
(B) Kennedy (ii) Pursuit of
doctrine peace through a
partnership
with allies
189
(C) Reagan (iii) Intervention to
doctrine prevent
genocide
(D) Clinton (iv) Foreign policy
doctrine initiatives
towards Latin
America
Code:
A B C D
(a) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
49. Consider the following statements
with regard to Non aligned move-
ment.
(A) Julius Nyerere was one of the
(B) India hosted seventh NAM
summit
(C) The seventeenth NAM summit
(D) The headquarters of NAM is in
Belgrade
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (B) and (C)
(d) (B) and (D)
50. Which one of the following is not
part of ‘Three Pillars’ of R2P
(Responsibility to Protect)?
(a) If a state fails to protect its
population, International com-
munity take collective action in
accordance with the UN Charter
(b) It is state’s responsibility to
protect its population from four
mass atrocity crimes
(c) It is the responsibility of Interna-
tional Community to protect
people from crimes against
humanity
(d) International Community’s res-
ponsibility to assist individual
states in meeting the responsibility
 190
Answers with Explanations
1. (a) The German sociologist Max
Weber in his comment on Kautilya
Arthashastra said that it is “truly radical
‘Machiavellianism’ compared to it,
Machiavelli’s The Prince is harmless.”
He tried to present the difference
between the statecraft theory of Kautilya
and Machiavelli.
2. (d) Plato’s Idea of justice is based
on the principle of an ordered society.
He gave the principle of soul, virtue
and class. These principles determine
who is eligible for what kind of job or
occupation. And the ideal state of Plato
will work on the principle of ‘One man
one work, one class one duty.
3. (a) In 1960 Michael Oakeshott
stated: “The Leviathan is the greatest,
perhaps the sole, masterpiece of political
philosophy in the English language”.
The reason he mentioned behind this
admiration was that no other thinker can
match his philosophical foundations and
clarity of thought.
4. (d) Hegel’s dialectical method was
introduced by him for dealing with the
contradiction arising out in the process
of development of Idea. Hegel said any
idea can never be understood without
understanding its contradiction.
5. (a) Althusser distinguished between
the Young Marx and Old Marx based
on the work of Marx in different time
phase. He noticed and identified some
differences in the ideological perspective
of Marx during his young age and old
age.
6. (b) Passive revolution is a term
coined by Italian politician and philosopher
Antonio Gramsci during the interwar
period in Italy. Gramsci coined the term
to refer to a significant change that is not
an abrupt one, but a slow and gradual
metamorphosis which could take years or
generations to accomplish.
7. (a) Mahatma Gandhi in his famous
text ‘Hind Swaraj’ severely criticised
the Modern Industrial civilization. He
believed that the Industrial Revolution
was destroying deeper human values. He
was critical of the material civilisation
and particularly detested the industrial
revolution.
8. (d) The issue of argument and
debate between Lenin and Roy is related
to a strategy to introduce communism
in India. They debated over the strategy
need to be adopted to phase out British
from India and creation of Communist
India.
9. (c) Deliberative democracy, school
of thought in political theory that claims
that political decisions should be the
product of fair and reasonable discussion
and debate among citizens. Deliberation is
a necessary precondition for the legitimacy
of democratic political decisions. It
propagates the principles of liberal
democracy.
10. (a) The longevity of
behaviouralism was just of two decades.
After the Second World War it surfaced
in the American continent and one of its
exponents was David Easton. The reason
behind its decline is lack of consensus
over its approach and principles.
11. (a)
12. (a) The Institutional Approach
mainly deals with the formal aspects of
government and politics emphasizes the
study of the political institutions and
structures. This approach seeks to solve
major issues of political and social life. It
takes into account issues such as justice,
liberty, equality, democracy, etc.
13. (c) In the 19th century, the overall
temper was to be scientific and Easton
calls it “the age of scientific method”.
The three examples of Comte, Marx and
Spencer prove the sway of the scientific
method on the century, with a great deal
of optimism in their projections.
14. (a) Aristotle did a comparative
study of Constitution of 158 Countries.
Under this study he classified all of these
constitutions on the basis of the ruler and
the beneficiaries of that type of Ruling
system.
15. (a) Countries that practice a semi-
presidential system of governance are
Ireland, Poland, Slovenia, Austria,
Portugal, Romania, Mongolia, South
Solved Paper-II, November-2017
Korea, Ukraine, Bulgaria, Finland,
Russia, Lithuania, Sri Lanka, Haiti,
Namibia, and Guyana.
16. (b) Robert McKenzie was a
Canadian professor of politics and
sociology, and a psephologist (one who
does statistical analysis of elections). He
is perhaps most well known in Britain
as one of the main presenters of the
BBC’s General Election programmes.
He challenged the established view that
in Great Britain the Conservative party
was elitist and leader dominated, while
the Labour party was characterised by a
high measure of internal democracy.
17. (a) Bureaucratic-military authori-
tarian regimes are those “governed
by a coalition of military officers and
technocrats who act pragmatically
(rather than ideologically) within the
limits of their bureaucratic mentality.”
18. (c) Modernization theory is a
theory used to explain the process of
modernization that a nation goes through
as it transitions from a traditional society
to a modern one. The theory has not been
attributed to any one person; instead, its
development has been linked to American
social scientists in the 1950s.
19. (d) Legitimation crisis refers to a
decline in the confidence of administrative
functions, institutions, or leadership. The
term was first introduced in 1973 by
Jürgen Habermas, a German sociologist
and philosopher.
20. (c) Crane Brinton wrote a famous
book, ‘The Anatomy of Revolution’
in 1938. Brinton’s in his book defines
revolution as “A drastic, sudden
substitution of one group in charge of the
running of a territorial political entity by
another.”
21. (b) The correct chronological
order of these events is:
Swaraj Party – 9 January 1923
Nehru Report – 10 August 1928
Communal – 16th August 1932
Award
Solved Paper-II, November-2017
Poona Pact – 24 September
1932
Third Round – 17th November
Table 1932
Conference
22. (c) The Sikh Community Rejected
the Cabinet mission plan. They were
against the autonomy given to Muslim in
Muslim majority areas.
23. (d) Article 21 of the Constitution
of India, 1950 provides that, “No person
shall be deprived of his life or personal
liberty except according to procedure
established by law.” ‘Life’ in Article
21 of the Constitution is not merely the
physical act of breathing. It includes
Right to shelter, Right to good roads,
Right to reputation and Right to pure
drinking water.
24. (b) All of the cases mentioned
in the option are related to the supreme
court ruling related to principle of Basic
Structure of Indian Constitution.
25. (c) During the year 1989 (8th Lok
Sabha) the Rules Committee considered
and approved a proposal that three
Subject Committees, on
(i) Agriculture;
(ii) Environment & Forests; and
(iii) Science & Technology might
be set up for ensuring effective
parliamentary surveillance over
the working of the concerned
Ministries.
26. (d) In accordance with the special
provision and the notification of people’s
representative Act, In Sikkim 12 assembly
seats are reserved for Bhutia and Lepcha
communities; one seat is reserved for
Sangha or Lama, two seats for schedule
caste belonging to Nepali community and
the rest comes under the general category.
27. (a) The Janata Government termi-
nated the fifth five year plan in 1977–78
and launched its own sixth five year
plan for period 1978–83 and called it a
Rolling Plan.
28. (b) The Commission was so named
as it was headed by Justice Rajinder Singh
Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme
Court of India. The other two members
of the committee were Shri B. Sivaraman
and Dr S.R. Sen.
29. (c) It was a single - member body
when it was first set up in 1950 and up
to 15th October, 1989 with only the
Chief Election Commissioner. From 16th
October, 1989 upto the 1st January, 1990,
it became a three-member body. From
2nd January, 1990 to 30th September,
1993, it was again a single-member
Commission and again from 1st October,
1993 it has become a three-member
Commission. Since then it is permanently
a three member body.
30. (b) The correct chronological order
of the Peasant movement is:
Champaran Satyagraha – 1917
Bardoli Satyagraha – 1928
Tebhaga Movement – 1946–47
Singur – 2006–08
31. (c) The Riggs Ecological Approach
have takes its notes from the general
system approach of David Easton. Hence
saying that System Approach is a precursor
of Ecological Approach.
32. (d)
(Theory) (Thinker)
Classical Theory – Henry Fayol
Human Relations – Elton Mayo
Theory
Decision-Making – Herbert Simon
Theory
Public Choice – V. Ostrom
Theory
33. (a) Fayol has identified the qualities
required in a manager. According to him
the qualities a manager has to possess are
as under:
•• Physical (health, vigour, and
address)
•• Mental (ability to understand and
learn, judgement, mental vigour,
and capability)
•• Moral (energy, firmness, initiative,
loyalty, tact, and dignity)
•• Education (general acquaintance)
•• Technical (peculiar to the function
being performed)
•• Experience (arising from work).
34. (d) Auxiliary agencies are the
agencies which serve the line agencies
rather than the public. They perform
functions common to all the departments.
In administration, these services are
191
called ‘auxiliary services’ and those
agencies or units which perform these
services are called ‘auxiliary staff
agencies’. For example, Public Works
Department, etc.
35. (b) In politics and government, a
spoils system (also known as a patronage
system) is a practice in which a political
party, after winning an election, gives
government civil service jobs to its
supporters, friends, and relatives as a
reward for working toward victory, and
as an incentive to keep working for the
party.
36. (c) Organizations exempted
from RTI are: Intelligence Bureau,
RAW, CBI, Narcotic Control Bureau,
Directorate of Revenue Intelligence,
Directorate of Enforcement, BSF,
CRPF, CISF, NSG, CID, CID-CB,
Crime Branch, Special Service Bureau,
and Laksha Dweep Police.
37. (a) In 1867, the British had set
India’s financial year from April to
March, to align it with its own fiscal
cycle. In 1984, the L.K. Jha Committee
had recommended that the financial
year should start from January mainly
considering the impact of the South-
West monsoon on the economy.
38. (c) Pre-entry training as its very
name suggests is a training imparted to
the aspirants to public service before
they enter such a service. In this sense,
education imparted in schools and
colleges or universities is a sort of pre-
entry training which fits the individuals to
seek all sorts of jobs in the government.
39. (d) Central Vigilance Commission
(CVC) is an apex Indian governmental
body created in 1964 to address
governmental corruption. It was set up
by the Government of India in February,
1964 on the recommendations of the
Committee on Prevention of Corruption,
headed by Shri K. Santhanam Committee.
40. (a) Non-votable charges are called
Charged Expenditures. No voting takes
place for the amount involved in these
expenditures for their withdrawal from
Consolidated Fund of India. Following
are the charged expenditures: Salary and
 192
Allowances of the President, Speaker/
Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha, Chairman/
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha,
Salaries and Allowances of Supreme
Court Judges, Pensions of Supreme Court
as well as High Court Judges, Salaries
and Allowances of CAG, Lokpal.
41. (c) Logic and rationality is used
as a combination game theory utilizes
to analyse strategic interaction among
decision-makers.
42. (a) MTCR, Wassenaar Arrange-
ment and the Australia Group are
international organisations with set
liabilities in technological cooperation
and non-proliferation agreements.
Pakistan is not a member of the MTCR.
43. (d) The war must have a just
cause - e.g. against invasion, or for self-
defence - and not to acquire wealth or
power. The war must be declared and
controlled by a proper authority, e.g. the
state or ruler. The war must be fought to
promote good or avoid evil, with the aim
of restoring peace and justice after the
war is over.
44. (b) War on terrorism, American-
led counterterrorism campaign launched
in response to the terrorist attacks of
September 11, 2001. It was started during
the presidentship of George W. Bush Jr.
45. (d) Bush’s 2002 National Security
Strategy places great weight on the spread
of liberal democratic values. In its aim of
promoting “a balance of power in favour
of freedom,” the strategy actually refers
to the creation of a power imbalance
based on an ideal vision in which liberal
democracies are able to promote their
values globally.
46. (c)
(Authors) (Books)
Andrew – The Transformation
Linklater of Political
Community
F. Clark – Hegemony in
International Studies
Kenneth – Cooperation under
Oye Anarchy
J.A. – Gendering World
Tickner Politics
47. (b) Yes, Its correct that India is
looking for permanent seat in Security
Council of UNO. But it has nothing to
do with India being a nuclear power.
48. (d)
(Doctrine) (Features)
Nixon doctrine – Pursuit of peace
through a
partnership with
allies
Solved Paper-II, November-2017
Kennedy – Foreign policy
doctrine initiatives towards
Latin America
Reagan doctrine – Support to anti-
guerilla
movements
Clinton – Intervention to
doctrine prevent genocide
49. (c) The founding fathers of
NAM were Pandit Nehru (India),
General Nasser (Egypt), Marshal
Tito (Yugoslavia), Kwame Nkrumah
(Ghana) and Sukarno (Indonesia). 7th
Summit Conference of Heads of State
or Government of the Non-Aligned
Movement held in New Delhi, India
between 7–12 March 1983. 17th Non-
Aligned Movement (NAM) summit held
in Venezuela. Central Jakarta, Indonesia
is the headquarter of NAM.
50. (c) Three Pillars of the
Responsibility to Protect
Pillar I:  The protection responsi-
bilities of the state;
Pillar II: International assistance and
capacity-building;
Pillar III: 
Timely and decisive
response.
qqq
Solved Paper-III, November-2017
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-III, November-2017
1. The Classical Tradition in political
theory is considered to be a common
school of enquiry because:
(a) Unity in style and manner of
argument
(b) Unity in themes and style
(c) Unity in searching the same goal
(d) Unity in having a common vision
for humankind
2. Who described the classical
tradition as “Epic theory”?
(a) Isaiah Berlin
(b) Karl Popper
(c) Sheldon Wolin
(d) Michael Oakeshott
3. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
List–I List–II
(Concepts) (Thinkers)
(A) Tacit consent (i) Rawls
(B) Self regarding (ii) Berlin
and other
regarding
action
(C) Negative and (iii) Locke
positive liberty
(D) Well ordered (iv) Bentham
society
Code:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
4. Who feared that Marx’s dictatorship
of the proletariat would become
dictatorship on the proletariat?
(a) Lassalle (b) Proudhon
(c) Bakunin (d) Luxemberg
5. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
193
Select the correct answer from the Code:
code given below: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
Assertion (A): In spite of the fact that is the correct explanation of (A).
Rawls theory has strong procedural (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
features it can also be seen as a major
(A).
contribution to social justice.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Reason (R): He is categorical
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
that there is a need for rational
justification of all departures from 8. Mao’s most original contribution
equality. was in emphasizing the revolu-
tionary role of the:
Code:
(a) Proletariat
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
(b) Intelligentsia
is the correct explanation of (A).
(c) Combination of the proletariat and
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
the peasantry
is not the correct explanation of
(d) Peasantry
(A).
9. Who questioned the view that Locke
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
was a defender of the Glorious
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true Revolution?
6. Convergence theory pointed out the (a) Tawney
convergence between: (b) Sabine
(a) advanced capitalism and developed (c) MacPherson
socialism (d) Ashcraft
(b) manufacturing nations and raw 10. Which political thinker rejects
material exporting countries Aristotle completely?
(c) national interests in international (a) Machiavelli
organizations (b) Hobbes
(d) need to have common policy to (c) Locke
fight climate change (d) Rousseau
7. Given below are two statements, 11. Who described Rousseau as a
one labelled as Assertion (A) and totalitarian democrat?
the other as Reason (R). (a) Karl Popper
Select the correct answer from the (b) Carl Friedrich
code given below: (c) Hannah Arendt
Assertion (A): Lenin’s revolutionary (d) Jacob Talmon
seizure of power is like a coup and 12. Power, not right is the focal point
negation of Marxism. for Hobbes. Why?
Reason (R): Marx thought a (a) Power is more important than
communist party would capture right.
power peacefully. (b) Rights will entail duties.
 194
(c) There is an inherent conflict
between power and right.
(d) Difficult to obtain agreement
among individuals.
13. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
List–I  List–II
(Marx’s writing) (Themes)
(A) Paris (i) Relative
Manuscripts Autonomy
of the state
(B) Das Capital (ii) Dictatorship
of the
proletariat
(C) 18th Brumaire (iii) Surplus
of Louis Value
Bonaparte
(D) Critique of (iv) Alienation
the Gotha
Programme
Code:
A B C D (d) Abandoning his own earlier
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) research
(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) the other as Reason (R).
14. Which of the following is true of
Machiavelli’s political theory?
(A) Idolized Ancient Rome
(B) Used History extensively to draw
lessons for state-craft
(C) Private army needed for the
success of a prince/ruler
(D) Blamed religion for Italy’s moral
regeneration
Choose the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (C) and (D) (d) (A) and (C)
15. How did Gandhi describe himself?
(a) Philosophical Anarchist
(b) Liberal democrat
(c) Social Democrat
(d) Communist
16. Which of the following is true of
Aristotle’s contribution to compar-
ative method?
(A) To study the then existing
political systems
(B) To develop an empirical science
of politics
(C) To arrive at the Ideal type
(D) To apply abstract ideas in practice
Code:
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (A) and (B)
(c) (B) and (D) (d) (C) and (D)
17. New Institutionalism emphasises
on:
(a) Institutions rather than individuals
(b) A balance between institutions
and individuals
(c) A group theory in politics
(d) Economics dominates over politics
18. Easton described his drastic revision
in political science in 1969 as:
(a) Counter Reformation
(b) Genuine Revolution
(c) Correction to earlier studies
19. The essential framework of liberal
political economy was provided by:
(a) Locke (b) Hume
(c) Montesquieu (d) Smith
20. What has mainly accounted for
the evolution of the unwritten
constitution of Great Britain?
(a) The British practice of following
continuity and change peacefully
(b) The British acceptance of
conventions as sacred as law but
not enforceable in courts
(c) The British belief that the ‘King
can do no wrong’
(d) The common law tradition in
Britain
21. In which country the practice of
‘once a speaker always a speaker’
is followed?
(a) USA (b) UK
(c) India (d) Switzerland
22. The Supreme Court’s right to
judicial review was first established
in:
(a) USA (b) India
(c) France (d) Switzerland
Solved Paper-III, November-2017
23. In which of the following countries
individual citizen’s rights have
developed by the significant
intervention of the judiciary:
(a) Switzerland (b) U.K.
(c) U.S.A. (d) France
24. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
List–I List–II
(Electoral system) (Countries)
(A) First-Past-the (i) France
-Post System
(B) Second Ballot (ii) Germany
System
(C) Alternative (iii) USA
Vote System
(D) Additional (iv) Australia
Member
System
Code:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
25. Given below are those statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): The theories of
development of the 1950’s like
behaviouralism, could never develop
an universally accepted paradigm
because they were locally dated.
Reason (R): They originated during
the Cold War period and consequently
biased.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
26. Political Socialization deals with:
(a) Process of formulating political
ideas
(b) Career planning and political
socialization
Solved Paper-III, November-2017
(c) Elaborating the theories of
Durkheim
(d) Elaborating the theories of Weber
27. Subject-participatory culture was
associated with:
(a) Erstwhile communist regimes
(b) Fascist regimes
(c) Post Colonial Societies
(d) Non Ideological dictatorships
28. Who has commented that politics is
about diversity and conflict and the
essential ingredient of its existence
is scarcity?
(a) Leftwich (b) Lasswell
(c) Crick (d) Millett
29. Huntington criticizes the moderni-
zation theory for not taking into
account:
(a) Presence of several competing
value systems or cultures in
traditional society
(b) The difference between base and
superstructure
(c) The question of leadership
(d) Overdeveloped nature of moderni-
zing nations
30. Who among the following provided
an economic approach to elitism?
(a) Pareto (b) Mosca
(c) Mills (d) Burnham
31. According to whom the Indian
Constitution aimed at the tripartite
goal of national unity, democracy
and social revolution as three
distinct strands interwoven into a
“seamless web”?
(a) W.H. Morris Jones
(b) Rajni Kothari
(c) Granville Austin
(d) Sunil Khilnani
32. Which of the following grounds
come within the ambit of reasonable
restrictions put by the state on the
exercise of freedom under Article
19 of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Security of state
(B) Public order
(C) Decency or morality
(D) Contempt of court
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (B) only
(b) (A) and (D) only
(c) (A), (B) and (C) only
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
33. Once approved by Parliament for
how long can the proclamation
of financial emergency remain in
operation?
(a) 2 months
(b) 3 years
(c) Till the term of that Parliament
(d) Indefinitely
34. Consider the following statements
about the Vice-President of India
and select the correct answer from
the code given below:
(A) Elected by the system of propor-
tional representation by a single
transferable vote
(B) Elected by all the members of the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(C) Members of State Assemblies
have no right to vote
(D) He is the Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha
Code:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (C)
35. Arrange the chronological order of
the following cases and select the
correct answer from the code given
below:
(A) Bandhua Mukti Morcha V. Union
of India
(B) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India
(C) ADM Jabalpur V. Shiv Kant
Shukla
(D) BALCO Employees Union V.
Union of India
Code:
(a) (C), (A), (B), (D)
(b) (A), (D), (C), (B)
(c) (D), (B), (A), (C)
(d) (B), (A), (D), (C)
195
36. Which of the following principles
evolved from the judgement
delivered in Bommai case in
relation to Article 356? Choose
correct answer from the code given
below:
(A) The proclamation issued under
Article 356 is subject to judicial
review
(B) The state Assembly should not
be dissolved immediately after
issuing proclamation
(C) The Assembly should be dissolved
only after the Parliament has
approved the proclamation
(D) The court may require the Union
Government to disclose the
material on the basis of which it
was decided to invoke Art. 356
Code:
(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
37. Justice Punchhi Commission is
related to:
(a) Urban Governance
(b) Union - State Relations
(c) District Administration
(d) Electoral Reforms
38. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
  List–I List–II
 (Center’s (Year)
  Accord with)
(A) Assam (i) 1988
(B) Mizoram (ii) 1985
(C) Tripura (iii) 1985
(D) Punjab (iv) 1986
Code:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
39. Which committee felt that the
Panchayati Raj institutions could
have survived well if they had
been encouraged well by entrusting
responsibilities as a “vanguard of
development in village India”?
 196
(a) Ashok Mehta
(b) L.M. Singhvi
(c) G V K Rao
(d) P.K. Thungan
40. Who was the Chief Election
Commissioner who wrote a letter
to the President of India recom-
mending the removal of Election
Commissioner?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N. Gopalaswami
(c) T.N. Seshan
(d) M.S. Gill
41. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): Law and order is
the responsibility of the District
Magistrate.
Reason (R): Law and order is still
one of the major problems in India.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
42. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
List–I List–II
(State)  (State Parties)
(A) Bihar (i) Apna Dal
(B) West Bengal (ii) Indian
National Lok
Dal
(C) Uttar (iii) Revolution-
Pradesh ary Socialist
Party
(D) Haryana (iv) Lok Janshakti
Party
Code:
A B C D Code:
(a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (a) (A), (B), (E), (F)
(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (b) (A), (C), (D), (E), (F)
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (c) (A), (B), (D), (F)
(d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (d) (B), (D), (E), (F)
43. Who of the following was not a
member of the Towards Equality
report?
(a) Lotika Sarkar
(b) Neera Dogra
(c) Vina Mazumdar
(d) Sushila Nayar
44. Match List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
code given below:
 List–I  List–II
(Type of (Name of
Pressure Pressure
Groups) Groups)
(A) Based on (i) Associated
traditional Chamber
social of Commerce
structure and Industry
in India
(B) Based on (ii) Nair Service
labour Society
interest
(C) Based on (iii) Delhi
institutional University
interest Teacher’s
Association
(D) Based on (iv) Hind
business Mazdoor
interest Parishad
Code:
A B C D Organisation?
(a) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (a) Fayol (b) Urwick
(b) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (c) Gulick (d) Mooney
(c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 49. Given below are two statements,
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
45. Which of the following are the
main problems of nation building
in India? Select the correct answer
from the code given below:
(A) Poverty
(B) Illiteracy
(C) Trade Unions
(D) Corruption
(E) Regional Political Parties
(F) Terrorism
Solved Paper-III, November-2017
46. Which of the following are the
models of reforms identified by
Peters as alternatives to the tradi-
tional public administration?
(A) Market Model
(B) Participatory State Model
(C) Flexible Government Model
(D) Deregulated Government Model
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
47. Arrange the following administrative
thinkers in chronological order:
(A) Willoughby
(B) M.P. Follet
(C) F.W. Riggs
(D) Robert Dahl
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (B), (A), (D) and (C)
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (B), (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (C), (B) and (D)
48. Who among the following gave
the 4P–Formula for departmental
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): Herbert Simon has
ridiculed the classical theory of
organisation as a machine model
theory.
Reason (R): Classicists are too
much preoccupied with the formal
structural part of organisation and
that too at the cost of human factors.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
Solved Paper-III, November-2017 197
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (A) Providing reservation for back- (a) Selection
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. ward classes (b) Appointment
50. Which of the following statements (B) Setting up a State Finance Com- (c) Certification
is not correct about the Right to mission
(d) Placement
Information Act? (C) Making the Panchayats autono-
58. Defending policy is the function of:
(a) The Right to Information Act mous bodies
came into force on 12 October (a) Line agency
(D) Giving the Panchayats financial
2005. powers in relation to taxes, fees, (b) Staff agency
(b) The Freedom of Information Act, etc. (c) Auxiliary agency
2002 has been repealed. (d) Both Staff and Line agencies
Select the correct answer from the
(c) The Official Secrets Act, 1923 has
code given below: 59. Who among the following are the
also been repealed.
(a) (A) and (B) critics of the bureaucratic theory?
(d) Central Information Commission
and State Information Com- (b) (B), (C) and (D) (A) Talcott Parsons
missions have been constituted. (c) (A), (B) and (C) (B) Michel Crozier
51. 73 Constitutional Amendment
rd
(d) (A), (C) and (D) (C) Robert Presthus
provided for: 55. Match List–I with List–II and select (D) F.W. Riggs
(A) Constitutional status to rural and the correct answer from the code Select the correct answer from the
urban bodies given below: code given below:
(B) Three – tier system for all List–I List–II
Panchayati Raj Institutions (a) (A) and (B) only
(A) Hota (i) Centre-State
(C) Direct elections of Chairpersons Committee Relations (b) (B) and (D) only
and members of Panchayati Raj (B) Santhanam (ii) Civil-Service (c) (B), (C) and (D)
Institutions at all levels Committee Reforms (d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(D) Audit of panchayat funds by CAG (C) Sarkaria (iii) Prevention of
60. Who among the following rejected
Select the correct answer from the Commission Corruption
the politics - administration
code given below: (D) Yashpal (iv) Higher
Committee Education dichotomy?
(a) (B) only
Reforms (a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) (A) and (B) only
Code: (b) Frank Goodnow
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
A B C D (c) Herbert Simon
(d) (A), (B) and (D)
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (d) Robert Merton
52. The Central Information Com-
mission consists of the Chief (b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 61. Who was of the opinion that survival
Information Commissioner and (c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) depends on a state’s material
Information Commissioners: (d) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) capabilities and its alliances with
(a) not exceeding three in number 56. Promotion to higher position other states?
(b) not exceeding five in number involves: (a) John Mearsheimer
(c) not exceeding seven in number (A) Change of title (b) Kenneth Waltz
(d) not exceeding ten in number (B) Change of pay (c) Thucydides
53. Who among the following said, (C) Change of duties (d) J. Snyder
“Development administration is an
(D) Change of responsibility 62. Consider the following statements:
action-oriented and goal-oriented
administrative system”? Select the correct answer from the (A) Neo-realism and neo-liberalism
(a) F.W. Riggs code given below: are rationalist approaches
(b) Edward Weidner (a) (A) and (B) only (B) Neo-realism and feminism are
(c) Ferrel Heady (b) (B) and (C) only reflectivist approaches
(d) H. Walker (c) (A), (C) and (D) (C) Post - structuralism and neo-
54. Which of the following are the (d) (A), (B), (C) and (D) liberalism are rationalist appro-
voluntary provisions of the 73rd 57. The process by which the selected aches
Constitutional Amendment Act candidate is sent for an appointment (D) Feminism and post structuralism
1992? is known as: are reflectivist approaches
 198
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A) and (D)
63. Which of the following statements
are true about soft power?
(A) Soft power can be used by state
actors
(B) Soft power can be used by non
state actors
(C) Soft power is the second face of
power
(D) Soft power is a form of idealism
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (C), (D) and (A)
64. Which one of the following is not
a Kantian influence that acts as a
constraint on War?
(a) Democracies will refrain from
using force against other demo-
cracies
(b) Economically important trade
creates incentives to maintain
peaceful relations
(c) Global civil society exerts itself
(d) International organisations can
constrain decision makers by
promoting peace
65. Find out the incorrect statement/s
about Johan Galtung’s models of
conflict, violence and peace:
(A) He suggested that conflict
could be viewed as triangle
with contradiction, attitude and
behaviour
(B) He talked of structural, cultural,
direct and indirect violence
(C) He discussed about peace
building, peace making and peace
keeping
(D) He explained about direct war,
proxy war and Intrastate
Solved Paper-III, November-2017
Code: (A) It’s a three tier organisation con-
(a) (A) and (D) sisting of strategic policy group,
(b) (B) and (C) joint intelligence committee
and National Security Advisory
(c) (A) and (C)
Board.
(d) (A), (B) and (C) (B) Ministers for External Affairs,
66. Match List–I with List–II and select Defence, Home, Finance and
the correct answer from the code Commerce are its members
given below: (C) It was formed in the year 1998
List–I List–II (D) The former National Security
(Authors) (Books) Advisers were Brajesh Mishra,
(A) Stephen Kraser (i) Empire J.N. Dixit, K.P. Singh.
of Civil
Select the correct answer from the
Society code given below:
(B) J. Rosenberg (ii) From inter-
(a) (D), (C) and (A)
national to
(b) (A) and (B)
World
Society (c) (C), (D) and (B)
(C) E.M. Wood (iii) Interna- (d) (A) and (D)
tional 70. Which one of the following is/are
Regimes incorrect statement/s:
(D) Barry Buzan (iv) Empire of (A) The ‘Neemrana Dialogue’ is on
Capital India - China Relations
Code: (B) The ‘Ottawa Dialogue’ is on India
A B C D - Pakistan Relations
(a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (C) Shangri-La Dialogue is on India
- Singapore Relations
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(D) Raisina Dialogue is India’s
(c) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
flagship conference of geopolitics
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) and geoeconomics
67. Which one of the following pair is Code:
mismatched? (a) (A), (B) and (C)
(a) World or Global Security - World (b) (B), (C) and (D)
community or human kind
(c) (A) and (C)
(b) Societal Security - Societal needs (d) (C) and (D)
(c) Economic Security - Welfare 71. Consider the following statements
(d) E n v i r o n m e n t a l S e c u r i t y - about India’s role in United
Resources Nations. Which of the statements
68. Which of the following have emphasis are correct?
in India’s nuclear deterrent: (A) India is a major contributor to
(a) Large numbers and deterrent UN Democracy Fund
force (B) Indian delegation to San Francisco
(b) Nuclear parity and capability to Conference of 1945 was led by
Vijayalakshmi Pandit
retaliate
(C) In 2001, India piloted a draft
(c) Small numbers and capability to
comprehensive convention on
deter
International Terrorism
(d) Deterrent force and nuclear parity (D) India submitted along with other
69. Consider the following statements countries an Action Plan for
about National Security Council phased elimination of nuclear
(NSCI) of India: weapons 1996–2020
Solved Paper-III, November-2017
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (D)
(d) (C) and (D)
72. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): States continue to
exist as sovereign states.
Reason (R): Globalization has
weakened the Westphalian state
system.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
73. Match the List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Answers with Explanations
1. (a) The work of Plato and Aristotle
is considered mainly as Classical tradition
of Political Theory. This tradition
basically originated in ancient Greece.
The City State in Greece like, Athence
and Spartan gave birth to different
conception political organisation. The
commonality in Classical tradition is its
unity in style and manner of Political
argument.
2. (c) Sheldon Wolin was an Eminent
American political theorist. He was
extensively influenced by the Classical
Tradition of Political theory. He asked all
political theorist to develop Epic Theory
like that are developed in Classical
Tradition.
3. (b)
(Concepts) (Thinkers)
Tacit consent – Locke
Self regarding and – Bentham
other regarding action
List–I List–II
(A) Wassenaar (i) Stopping
Agreement spread of
chemical and
biological
weapons
(B) Australia (ii) Non prolifera-
Group tion of nuclear
weapons
(C) Nuclear (iii) Export control
Suppliers for conven-
Group tional arms and
dual use
technologies
(D) Missile (iv) Non prolifera-
Technology tion of systems
Control intended for the
Regime delivery of
WMD
Code:
A B C D (C) It appoints non permanent
(a) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) members
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (D) It appoints Secretary General
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) Select the correct answer from the
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) code given below:
74. Which one of the following state-
ments is incorrect?
Negative and positive – Berlin
liberty
Well ordered society – Rawls
4. (c) Dictatorship of the proletariat,
in Marxism, rule by the proletariat—the
economic and social class consisting of
industrial workers who derive income
solely from their labour. Contrary to
Marx’s vision and as George Orwell,
Mikhail Bakunin, and others had
foreseen, the proposed dictatorship
of the proletariat eventually became a
dictatorship of former proletarians.
5. (a) The Rawls theory of justice
is mainly based upon two principle of
Justice - Equality Principle and Difference
Principle. These two principle although
set a lot of procedure in Place it also
develop the Idea of Social justice. Rawls
is categorical that there is a need for
199
(a) New Development Bank is a
multilateral development bank
established by BRICS
(b) Asian Infrastructure Investment
Bank is an initiative of China
(c) WTO recognises least developed
countries as those which are
designated as such by UNO
(d) International Finance Corporation
offers political risk insurance
and encourages private sector
development in developing
countries
75. Consider the following statements
with regard to Security Council:
(A) India became member of Security
Council seven times
(B) Japan became a member of
Security Council eleven times
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C)
(c) (B) and (D) (d) (D) and (A)
rational justification of all departures
from equality.
6. (a) Convergence theory is mainly
based on the idea of coming together of
The Capitalist and Socialism Ideology. It
talks about extracting of ideal principle
from of opposite ideologies.
7. (c) Marx gave the idea of Bloody
revolution by the proletariat class when
the capitalism reach its highest stage.
But the Lenin Revolution is not entirely
a Proletariat revolution and neither the
situation in Russia in any way nearer
to Highest stage of capitalism. Hence,
Lenin’s revolutionary seizure of power
is like a coup and negation of Marxism.
8. (d) Mao’s idea of Communism is
different from Lenin, Marx and Engels
view. The Classical Marxism call for a
movement by Industrial working class.
But Mao’s China does not have enough
 200
of industrial worker, so he emphasised on
the use of Peasantry for the Communist
revolution in China.
9. (d) Richard Ashcraft was an
American political theorist and Professor
of Political Science. He did not believed
after studying the Two treaties on Com-
menwealth that the Locke was a defender
of the Glorious Revolution.
10. (b) Hobbes’s critique of
Aristotle consists of two main lines of
argument—one moral-political, the other
metaphysical—that ultimately prove to
be connected.
11. (d) Jacob Talmon Wrote a book
‘The Origin of Totalitarian Democracy’.
In this text he basically criticised the Idea
of Rousseau for being totalitarian.
12. (d) Thomas Hobbes social contract
is mainly inclined to create an all mighty
Leviathan. He was concentrated in taking
rights from people through contract and
then giving power to the Leviathan. He
talked about the Absolute Sovereignty of
King over its subject.
13. (b)
(Marx’s writing) (Themes)
Paris Manuscripts – Alienation
Das Capital – Surplus Value
18th Brumaire of – Relative Auto-
Louis Bonaparte nomy of the
state
Critique of the – Dictatorship
Gotha Programme of the
proletariat
14. (a) Machiavelli was the first
theorist to decisively divorce politics
from ethics, and hence to give a certain
autonomy to the study of politics.
Machiavelli wrote The Prince to serve
as a handbook for rulers, and he claims
explicitly throughout the work that he
is not interested in talking about ideal
republics or imaginary utopias.
15. (a) Mohandas Gandhi opposed
the State. The State is the military,
police, prisons, courts, tax collectors,
and bureaucrats. He saw the State as
concentrated violence. According to Dr.
Dhawan, Gandhi was a philosophical
Anarchist because he believed that
the “[the greatest good of all] can be
realized only in the classless, stateless
democracy.”
16. (b) Aristotle, the father of Political
Science, used comparative method for
comprehending and analysing principles,
issues and problems of Greek City States
of his times. He used the knowledge
gained for building his theory of politics.
17. (a) New institutionalism or neo-
institutionalism is a school of thought
focused on developing a sociological
view of institutions—the way they
interact and how they affect society.
18. (b) Like behaviouralism, Post -
behaviouralism was again propounded
by David Easton. Easton regarded it as a
genuine revolution, and not as a reaction.
19. (d) Adam Smith is generally
regarded as the father of Liberal political
economy and of “classical” economics.
His work ‘The Wealth of Nations’
provides the earliest comprehensive
account of market society as a
decentralized, “well-governed” system
in which prices coordinate the efficient
allocation of resources in a competitive
economy.
20. (d) The British Constitution is
derived from a number of sources.
Statutes are laws passed by Parliament
and are generally the highest form of
law. Conventions are unwritten practices
which have developed over time and
regulate the business of governing.
Common law is law developed by the
courts and judges through cases.
21. (b) The British Speaker is elected
at the beginning of the Parliament by and
from among the members of the House
of Commons. If the Speaker of outgoing
Parliament is still a member of the house
and is willing to be re-elected, he can
do so. Usually, he is reelected as many
times as he wants. A change of party
does not make any difference. He is
elected unanimously by the house. So in
Great Britain there goes a saying, “Once
a speaker always a speaker.”
22. (a) Judicial Review is the power
of the U.S. Supreme Court to review
laws and actions from Congress and the
President to determine whether they are
constitutional. This is part of the checks
and balances that the three branches of
the federal government use in order to
limit each other and ensure a balance of
power. The power of judicial review was
established in the 1803 Supreme Court
case of Marbury v. Madison.
Solved Paper-III, November-2017
23. (c) In USA individual citizen’s
rights have developed by the significant
intervention of the judiciary. Judiciary
played a key role in elaboration of Rights
of Citizen of America.
24. (d)
(Electoral system)   (Countries)
First-Past-the-Post – USA
System
Second Ballot System – France
Alternative Vote System – Australia
Additional Member – Germany
System
25. (a) The theories of development
like Behaviouralism basically originated
during the Cold War period and hence
they are don’t have universal acceptance.
Because they are considered as based.
26. (a) Through the process if political
socialisation people gradually adjust
themselves with the political system.
Almond defines “Political system is the
process of induction into the political
culture. Its end product is a set of
attitudes—cognitions, value standards and
feelings—towards the political system, its
various roles and role incumbents”.
27. (a) Participatory culture, an
opposing concept to consumer culture,
is a culture in which private individuals
(the public) do not act as consumers only,
but also as contributors or producers
(prosumers). This kind of culture was
found in Erstwhile Communist regimes.
28. (b) Harold Lasswell in his book
Politics: Who Gets What, When, How?
(1936) set out the perspective that,
politics is about diversity and conflict, but
the essential ingredient is the existence of
scarcity.
29. (a) Huntingtion in his book
‘Political Order in Changing Societies’
criticised the Modernisation theory for
not taking into account the presence
of several competing value systems or
cultures in traditional society.
30. (d) In explaining the theory of
the elite, Burnham adopts the economic
approach. According to him, the power
of elite depends upon the degree of
control he has over the principal means
of production and distribution. Because
of this control, the elite manage to get
preferential treatment in the society and
is able to prevent the rest of others to
enjoy the same position in the society.
Solved Paper-III, November-2017
31. (c) Granville Austin in his book
‘Indian Constitution: A Cornerstone of
Nation’ stated that the Indian Constitution
is aimed at the tripartite goal of national
unity, democracy and social revolution
as three distinct strands interwoven into
a “seamless web”.
32. (d) According to Constitution
the state may make a law imposing
‘reasonable restrictions’ on the exercise
of the right to freedom of speech and
expression ‘in the interests of’, the
security of the State, friendly relations
with the foreign States, public order,
decency, morality, sovereignty and
integrity of India.
33. (d) Once the declaration of
Financial Emergency is approved by
both houses of Parliament, it remains
in operation till it is revoked by the
President and no maximum period is
defined under the Constitution. The
proclamation of Financial Emergency
can be revoked or varied by President
any time by a subsequent proclamation.
34. (c) Vice President of India is
elected by the system of proportional
representation by a single transferable
vote. His electoral college involve all the
members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha. But Members of State Assemblies
have no right to vote. Vice President is
also Chairman of Rajya Sabha in India.
35. (a) The correct sequence of case is:
ADM Jabalpur V. Shiv – 1976
Kant Shukla
Bandhua Mukti Morcha V. – 1983
Union of India
M.C. Mehta V. Union of – 1986
India
BALCO Employees Union – 2001
V. Union of India
36. (d) Supreme Court issued the
historic order, which in a way put an
end to the arbitrary dismissal of State
governments under Article 356 by
spelling out restrictions. In S.R. Bommai
case the verdict concluded that the
power of the President to dismiss a State
government is not absolute. Judicial
Review is allowed.
37. (b) The Punchhi Commission was
constituted by the Government of India
in 2007 as a Commission on Centre-State
relations.
38. (b)
  (Center’s
Accord with) (Year)
Assam – 1985
Mizoram – 1986
Tripura – 1988
Punjab – 1985
39. (a) The Ashok Mehta Committee
asked for a two tier system. They felt
that the Panchayati Raj institutions
could have survived well if they had
been encouraged well by entrusting
responsibilities as a “vanguard of
development in village India”
40. (b) During his tenure as the Chief
Election Commissioner N. Gopala-
swami on 31 January 2009 sent his
recommendation for removal of Election
Commissioner Navin Chawla to the
President of India.
41. (a) District Magistrate is respon-
sible for the maintenance of Law &
Order within the limit of his jurisdiction.
He is conferred with very wide powers
by the law, which if used prudently can
be very effective in maintaining peace
and tranquility.
42. (b)
(State) (State Parties)
Bihar – Lok Janshakti
Party
West Bengal – Revolutionary
Socialist Party
Uttar Pradesh – Apna Dal
Haryana – Indian National
Lok Dal
43. (d) Towards Equality was the title
of the report of the Committee on the
Status of Women in India (1974–75). Its
authors included Vina Mazumdar, Lotika
Sarkar, and Neera Dogra. Sushila Nayar
is not a member of this report.
44. (b)
(Type of Pressure (Name of
Groups) Pressure
Groups)
Based on traditional – Nair Service
social structure Society
Based on labour – Hind
interest Mazdoor
Parishad
Based on institu- – Delhi
tional interest University
Teacher’s
Association
201
Based on business – Associated
interest Chamber of
Commerce
and Industry
in India
45. (c) The main problems of Nation
Building in India are the issue of Poverty,
Illiteracy, Corruption and Terrorism.
They all together work as a challenge to
aims of national development.
46. (d) Guy Peter in his work ‘The
Future of Governing’ while rejecting the
traditional way of public administration,
proposed some new models to reforms.
These models are: Market Model,
Participatory State Model, Flexible
Government Model and, Deregulated
Government Model.
47. (a) The correct chronological
order of the administrative thinkers is:
M.P. Follet (1868–1933)
Willoughby (1867–1960)
Robert Dahl (1915–2014)
F. W. Riggs (1917–2005)
48. (c) Gulick has given 4P formula
regard with the establishment of depart-
ments, universally. Purpose, process,
person and place. According to him the
organisation made on the basis of purpose,
process, person or place.
49. (a)
50. (c) The Official Secrets Act was
first enacted in 1923 and was retained
after Independence. The law, applicable
to government servants and citizens,
provides the framework for dealing with
espionage, sedition, and other potential
threats to the integrity of the nation.
Right to Information does not eliminate
the office secrets act 1923.
51. (a) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
act provided constitutional status to
Panchayati Raj system in Rural India. A
three-tier system of Panchayti Raj was
constitutional established in India.
52. (d) Central Information Com-
mission includes 1 Chief Information
Commissioner and not more than 10
Information Commissioners who are
appointed by the President of India on
the recommendations of a Committee.
53. (b) Weidner stated that Develop-
ment Administration means “an action
oriented and goal-oriented administrative
systems.” Weidner emphasised that the
study of development administration
can help to identify the conditions under
 202
which a maximum rate of development is
sought and obtained.
54. (d) Under 73rd Constitutional
Amendment Act setting up of a State
finance commission is compulsory
provision and not a voluntary choice
provided to state government.
55. (b)
(Committee) (Related to)
Hota Committee – Civil-Service
Reforms
Santhanam – Prevention of
Committee Corruption
Sarkaria – Centre – State
Commission Relations
Yashpal – Higher
Committee Education
Reforms
56. (d) Promotion to higher position
involves the Change of title of the office,
Change of pay of the person, Change
of duties and Change of responsibility
assigned to that Post.
57. (c) Certification refers to the
confirmation of certain characteristics of
an object, person, or organization. This
confirmation is often, but not always,
provided by some form of external
review, education, assessment, or audit.
Accreditation is a specific organization’s
process of certification.
58. (a) The line agencies are thus
concerned with the fulfillment of the
primary objects of the government.
They deal directly with the people and
implement policies laid down by the
Legislature. Hence Defending Policy is
the function of Line agency.
59. (d) Weber’s idea of Bureaucracy
has been criticised on certain grounds.
The first point of criticism is that
Weber laid too much importance on
Bureaucracy. In fact, Weber himself
had not given a proper definition of
Bureaucracy. It was, later on, regarded
as a part of social science. Weber gave
more importance to organisational aspect
of Bureaucracy. Talcott Parson, Michel
Crozier, Robert Presthus and F.W. Riggs
are few prominent critics of Bureaucratic
theory of administration.
60. (c) Herbert Simon belong to phase
of Era of challenges in Public Admini-
stration. He rejected the first stage of
Politics-Administration Dichotomy.
61. (a) John Mearsheimer was an offen-
sive realist theorist. He stated in his
theory that survival depends on a state’s
material capabilities and its alliances with
other states.
62. (d)
63. (c) The Idea of Soft power was
poposed by Joseph Nye. He was a Neo-
Liberal theorist of International relation.
Soft Power is not a component of
Idealism.
64. (c) The Kantian Ideas which acts as
a constraint on war includes: Democracies
will refrain from using force against other
democracies. Economically important trade
creates incentives to maintain peaceful and
international organisations can constrain
decision makers by promoting peace.
65. (b) In Johan Galtung’s 1969 paper,
“Violence, Peace and Peace Research,”
he presents his theory of the Conflict
Triangle, a framework used in the study
of peace and conflict, with the purpose
of defining the three key elements of
violence that form this “triangle.”
66. (b)
(Authors) (Books)
Stephen Kraser – International
Regimes
J. Rosenberg – Empire of Civil
Society
E.M. Wood – Empire of Capital
Barry Buzan – From International
to World Society
67. (b) Societal Security may be defined
as the availability of true justice and fair
play in the way things are being run in every
sector of the society. It does not involve the
Societal needs.
68. (c) Indian nuclear programmer
and policy both indirectly support the
cause of nuclear disarmament. The small
quantity of nuclear weapon possessed by
India represent that India is willing to
disarmament. But these nuclear weapon
works as deterrence.
69. (b) The National Security
Council (NSC) of India is a three-tiered
organization that oversees political,
economic, energy and security issues
of strategic concern. The National
Security Council comprises the
Strategic Policy Group, the National
Security Advisory Board and a
secretariat from the Joint Intelligence
Committee. Ministers for External
Affairs, Defence, Home, Finance and
Commerce are its members.
70. (c) The Neemrana dialogue, one
of the oldest Track-II initiatives between
Solved Paper-III, November-2017
India and Pakistan was renewed and was
held in Neemrana fort. The Shangri-
La Dialogue is Asia’s premier defence
summit, a unique meeting of ministers
and delegates from over 50 countries.
71. (c) India plays a significant role
in United Nation. India is one among
the major contributor to United Nation
democracy fund. India is also major
contributor in UN Peace Keeping
Mission. India has submitted along
with other countries an Action Plan for
phased elimination of nuclear weapons
1996–2020.
72. (b) One of the impact of Globali-
sation was that it has diluted the principle
of state sovereignty accepted by the
nation state in Westphalian treaty. But
still some scholar suggests that the State
sovereignty is intact and stable.
73. (a)
(Agreements) (Objectives)
Wassenaar – Export control
Agreement for conventional
arms and dual use
technologies
Australia Group – Stopping spread
of chemical and
biological
weapons
Nuclear – Non proliferation
Suppliers of nuclear
Group weapons
Missile – Non proliferation
Technology of systems
Control Regime intended for
the delivery of
WMD
74. (d) The International Finance
Corporation (IFC) is part of the World
Bank Group. It is the largest global
development institution focused on
private sector development in low
income and other emerging markets. It
did not offer political risk.
75. (a) India has been elected Seven
times as a non-permanent member of the
Council for the years 1950–1951, 1967–
1968, 1972–1973, 1977–1978, 1984–
1985, 1991–1992 and most recently in
2011–2012. On the other hand Japan had
became a member of Security Council
eleven times.
qqq
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
1. Which one of the following state-
ments is not correct in case of
Kautilya?
(a) He was the first to make political
economy an independent subject.
(b) He propounded a theory of politics
which dealt with immediate
practical concerns of polity.
(c) He is credited with being the
founder of nitisastra tradition.
(d) For the first time he emphasised
the need for a strong political
control in India.
2. Who among the following said that
the Republic pictures a Utopia not
because it is a romance but because
Plato intended it to be the start of
a scientific attack upon the “idea
of the good”?
(a) G.H. Sabine (b) Dunning
(c) E. Barker (d) Ebenstein
3. Who among the following said that
in order of time state is latter than
the family or the individual, but in
order of nature, prior to them?
(a) Cephalus (b) Thrasymachus
(c) Aristotle (d) Lacophon
4. For Locke which of the following is
not true in case of social contract?
(a) Contract, once made, is irrevocable
(b) Contract to which each generation
must not consent
(c) Contract in which men give up
some of the rights they possessed
in the state of nature
(d) Contract does not put an end to
the Law of Nature
5. For Rousseau which one of the
following is not true?
(a) For man’s self-love, which
satisfies his real needs, is only
too apt to become pride.
(b) Pride becomes incompatible with
sympathy.
(c) From pride all evil has grown.
(d) Pride does not seduce reason.
6. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): For J.S. Mill will is
the basis of all institutions including
the state.
Reason (R): Will is not only
dependent on number, it has a
qualitative foundation and the Will
which makes the institutions takes
on the form of a belief.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
7. Match the List–I (Sources) and
List–II (Ideas) which influenced
Gandhi and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
List–I List–II
(Source) (Major idea)
(A) Jainism (i) Catholicity
of outlook
(B) Vaishnavism (ii) Contempt for
industrial
civilization
and ideas on
passive
resistance
203
(C) Ruskin and (iii) Idealism and
Tolstoy concern for
moral values
(D) Plato (iv) Emphasis on
Non-violence
Code:
A B C D
(a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
8. Who among the following had
started two weeklies, the Karma-
yogin and the Dharma?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Aurobindo
(c) Ranade
(d) Tilak
9. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): M.N. Roy did
not accept Marx’s materialistic
interpretation of history.
Reason (R): It had an element of
determinism and idealism.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
10. Who among the following said in
the context of States Reorganisation
Commission Report: “The Lambs
are shorn of the wool” and “They
are feeling the intensity of cold”?
 204
(a) J. Nehru
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) B.N. Rau
(d) K.T. Shah
11. Which of the following statements
is not correct?
(a) Traditional political theory is
prescriptive and normative.
(b) Behavioural political theory
concerned with uniformities and
regularities.
(c) Post-behavioural political theory
is tied to action and relevancy.
(d) Post-behavioural political theory
is not holistic.
12. Which one of the following conten-
tions of Isaiah Berlin is not true in
the context of resurgence of political
theory (political philosophy)?
(a) Politics exists in a society where
ends collide. In a liberal order
political theory can never see its
end.
(b) The responsibility for causing
decline of political theory should
be laid on rank empiricists who
have displaced classical tradition.
(c) Political theory shall continue to
exist as a result of the inquisitive
and rational inquiry of man.
(d) He is skeptical about the resurgence
of political theory (philosophy).
13. Who among the following conceived
society as a ‘Cooperative venture
for mutual advantage’, more or
less self-sufficient, and necessarily
governed by rules?
(a) Robert Nozick
(b) Friedrich Hayek
(c) John Rawls
(d) Karl Marx
14. Who among the following has
written the article “The Zigzag of
Politics”?
(a) John Rawls (b) H.A. Hayek
(c) R. Nozick (d) J. Habermas
15. Who among the following is not a
proponent of commuritarianism?
(a) Alasdair Maclntyre
(b) Michael Sandel
(c) Michael Walzer
(d) Friedrich Hayek
16. Which of the following are the
features of democracy?
(A) Democracy requires political
equality.
(B) All citizens must be entitled to
stand for election regardless of
race, sex, colour or religion.
(C) All citizens must possess a vote
(universal adult franchise).
(D) Political equality means ‘one
person one vote, one vote one
value’.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
17. Match the List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from the
code given below:
List–I List–II
(Authors)   (Books)
(A) Brian Berry (i) Justice
(B) Susan Moller (ii) Idea of
Okin Justice
(C) Amartya (iii) Justice,
K. Sen Gender
and Family
(D) Tom Campbell (iv) The
Liberal
Theory of
Justice
Code:
A B C D feature of ideology?
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (a) A political belief system
(b) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (b) An action-oriented set of political
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) ideas
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (c) The world view of a particular
18. Which of the following are features
of Marx’s theory of surplus value?
(A) It is an extension of Ricardo’s
theory.
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
(B) Labour power equals the brain,
muscle and nerve of the labourer.
(C) The value of every commodity is
not proportional to the quantity
or labour contained in it.
(D) The worker must be paid a price
proportional to the number of
Labour hours that entered into
its production.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
19. Which of the following are Lenin’s
contribution to Marxist theory?
(A) His theory of the party as ‘the
vanguard of the proletariat’
which guides the masses both
before and after the revolution.
(B) His theory or capitalist imperia-
lism, which he held to constitute
the intermediary stage of
capitalism.
(C) His version for the reconstruction
of the world’s first proletarian
state.
(D) His theory of the strategy and
tactics of revolution.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
20. Which one of the following is not a
social class or social group
(d) The political ideas that do not
embody or articulate class or
social interests
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
21. Who among the following described
comparative politics as primarily
concerned with “parties, interests
and leadership structure”?
(a) Gabriel Almond
(b) Sigmund Neuman
(c) Roy C. Macridis and Ward
(d) M.G. Smith
22. Who was the author of the book
“The Presidential Republic”?
(a) Jean Blondel
(b) Dorothy Pickles
(c) Walter Bagehot
(d) E.H. Carr
23. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer from
the code:
Assertion (A): Systems approach to
comparative politics believes in the
balance between the input structure
and the output structure to maintain
the equilibrium.
Reason (R): Systems approach is
criticised as a ‘status quoist’ model.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
24. Arrange the interest groups as given
by Gabriel Almond in sequential
order:
(A) Institutional groups
(B) Non-associational groups
(C) Associational groups
(D) Anomic groups
Code:
(a) (C), (B), (D), (A)
(b) (A), (C), (D), (B)
(c) (B), (D), (A), (C)
(d) (D), (A), (C), (B)
25. Which of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
(a) Chartist Movement - Demand for
Manhood suffrage in England.
(b) Philadelphia Convention -
Declaration of independence and
signing of the Constitution in US.
(c) Mayflower Compact - Abolition
of Slavery in US.
(d) 1832 Reform Act - Changes in the
electoral system of Britain.
26. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): Many Afro-Asian
nations emerged independent after
World War II.
Reason (R): Absence of economic
developmental largely tended to make
their independence more formal than
substantive.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
27. Which of the following pair is not
correctly matched?
(a) Political Continuity and change -
Peter H. Merkil
(b) Comparative Politics Today - S.P.
Huntington
(c) The Man on the Horseback -
Samuel Finer
(d) Modern Political Systems: Asia -
R.C. Macridis
28. Which of the following are true
regarding a revolution?
(A) Change of Constitution
(B) One ruling elite is replaced by
another
(C) Transformation in Political
Institutions
(D) Fundamental change in the Socio-
economic and political structures
205
Code:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C), (D)
29. Which of the following are true
regarding a Unitary System of
Government?
(A) It is most effective in protecting
the unity and integrity of the
nation.
(B) Power is delegated to the local
units for administrative conve-
nience.
(C) There is single law making body.
(D) The local administrative units do
not derive their power from the
Constitution.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) (A) and (C) only
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (C) and (D) only
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only
30. Which of the following amendments
of American Constitution laid
down “Due process of law” relating
to judicial scrutiny of legislative
and executive actions:
(A) 4th Amendment
(B) 5th Amendment
(C) 14th Amendment
(D) 16th Amendment
Choose the correct answer from the
below:
(a) (B) and (C) (b) (A) and (B)
(c) (A) and (D) (d) (C) and (D)
31. Which of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
(a) Administrative – France
Law
(b) Appointment of – Switzerland
Judges for life
(c) Equal Represen- – USA
tation of States
in the House of
Senate
(d) Rule of Law – England
 206
32. Who among the following desc-
ribed political development as
“administrative and legal develop-
ment”?
(a) Paul Baron
(b) James S. Coleman
(c) Edward Shills
(d) Max Weber
33. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): The system of
democracy recognises the equality
of all people and stands for the
government of common people.
Reason (R): It is commonly believed
that government is largely controlled
and managed by ‘power elite’.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
34. Which of the following statements
are correct regarding Max Weber’s
theory of bureaucracy?
(A) It is an iron cage of rule-based
rational control.
(B) It is a key part of the “rational-
legal authority.”
(C) Bureaucracy means “domination
through knowledge” in the form
of merit.
(D) It enjoys popular acceptability in
a democracy.
Choose the correct answer from the
below:
(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D)
35. Match the items of List–I with
items of List–II by selecting the
correct code:
List–I List–II
(Authors) (Books)
(A) Robert Dahl (i) Legality and
Legitimacy
(B) S.M. Lipset (ii) Polyarchy:
Participation
and
Opposition
(C) Schmittcarl (iii) Political Man
(D) Roger (iv) Political
Charlton Realities:
Comparative
Government
Code:
A B C D 38. Modernization is commonly under-
(a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) stood as being analogous to:
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
36. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): Presidential system
provides for a stable governance
model for a full term.
Reason (R): Centralization of power
is inherent in presidential system.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
37. Match the items of List–I with
items of List–II by selecting the
correct answer from code:
List–I List–II
(A) Islamic (i) Led by
Revolution Bolshevik Party
(B) Russian (ii) Anti-
Revolution Modernization
Movement in
Iran
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
(C) Glorious (iii) 1649 Revolu-
Revolution tion to limit the
arbitrary power
of Charles II
(D) Puritan (iv) Establishing
Revolution Constitutional
government in
England
Code:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(b) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(A) Westernization
(B) Europeanization
(C) Rise of Nation State System
(D) Industrialization
Choose the correct answer from the
below:
(a) (C), (D)
(b) (B), (C)
(c) (A), (B), (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C), (D)
39. Examine the following statements
regarding the media:
(A) Print media is witnessing a
marginalised role in contemporary
democracies.
(B) Electronic media assumes a
decisive role.
(C) Media is dispassionate and
objective in all political systems.
(D) I n s t r u m e n t s o f m e d i a a r e
controlled by the industrial and
corporate groups.
Choose the correct answer from the
below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (A), (B), (C)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)
40. Match the items of List–I with
items of List–II by selecting the
correct answer from the given code
below:
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
  List–I List–II
  (Writers) (Concepts)
(A) Dicey (i) Anomic
interest
groups
(B) S.P. (ii) Judicial
Huntington Review
(C) Almond (iii) Political
decay
(D) Marbury (iv) Rule of law
Vs Madison
Code:
A B C D Associated)
(a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (A) Soft state (i) Atul Kohli
(b) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (B) Politics of (ii) Subrata
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) Scarcity K. Mitra
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
41. Which of the following was not a
feature of the Government of India
Act, 1919?
(a) Provision for a bicameral
legislature at the centre.
(b) The Legislative Assembly would
have an elected majority and
control over ministers.
(c) Communal representation was not
only retained but extended.
(d) Enlarged the electorates both
for provinces and emperial
legislature.
42. Who amongst the following
provided a link between pre and
post independence institutional
framework to study Indian politics?
(a) Rajni Kothari
(b) Myron Weiner
(c) Morries Jones
(d) Paul R. Brass
43. Which of the following is true
about the fundamental rights
under Indian Constitution?
(A) It is protected and enforced by
the Constitution.
(B) It can be changed by the common
legislative process.
(C) Supreme Court is the guardian
of fundamental rights.
(D) All Constitutional rights are
fundamental rights.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (C) only
(b) (A) and (B) only
(c) (A), (B) and (D) only
(d) (A), (C) and (D) only
44. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
List–I List–II
  (Idea/Concept)  (Person
(C) Crisis of (iii) Gunnar
Governability Myrdal
(D) Contentious (iv) Myron
Democracy Weiner
Code:
A B C D (a) Article 123 (b) Article 72
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (c) Article 70 (d) Article 58
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 48. “India since 1989 has witnessed
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) fewer abuses of power by Prime
(d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
45. Which of the following is not
true about the amendment of the
Constitution under Article 368?
(a) The Bill may be introduced in
either House of Parliament.
(b) The Bill must be passed by special
majority (2/3rd present and voting
and more than 50% of the total
membership).
(c) In case of disagreement between
the Houses joint sitting may be
called.
(d) The President is bound to give
assent to the Bill duty passed and
ratified.
46. Put the following Presidents of India
since 1989 in their chronological
order and select the correct answer
from the code given below:
K.R. Narayanan, A.P.J. Abdul
Kalam, R. Venkatraman, Shankar
Dayal Sharma, Pratibha Patil
207
Code:
(a) K.R. Narayanan, R. Venkatraman,
Pratibha Patil, A.P.J. Abdul
Kalam, Shankar Dayal Sharma.
(b) R. Venkatraman, A.P.J. Abdul
Kalam, Shankar Dayal Sharma,
Pratibha Patil, K.R. Narayanan.
(c) Pratibha Patil, K.R. Narayanan,
Shankar Dayal Sharma, R.
Venkatraman, A.P.J. Abdul
Kalam.
(d) R. Venkatraman, Shankar Dayal
Sharma, K.R. Narayanan, A.P.J.
Abdul Kalam, Pratibha Patil.
47. Which article of the Indian Consti-
tution empower the Parliament to
make provisions for a contingency
when the offices of both the
President and the Vice-President
fall vacant by reasons of death,
resignation, removal or otherwise?
Ministers than the United Kingdom
experienced under either Margaret
Thatcher or Tony Blair”. Whose
statement is this?
(a) Atul Kohli
(b) Granville Austin
(c) James Manor
(d) Christophe Jaffrelot
49. Who of the following regard the
Supreme Court of India as having a
dual personality - a legal institution
and a public institution?
(a) Granville Austin
(b) Upendra Baxi
(c) Madhav Khosla and Ananth
Padmanabhan
(d) N. Robinson
50. Who calls Election Commission of
India as an effective ‘bulwark of
free and fair elections’?
(a) Alistair McMillan
(b) Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph
(c) R.P. Bhalla
(d) M. Katju
 208 Solved Paper-II, July-2018
51. Match List–I with List–II and select (a) P. Bardhan Code:
the correct answer from the code A B C D
(b) R.L. Watts
given below: (a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
List–I List–II (c) Douglas Verney
(b) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(Book)   (Authors) (d) D.D. Basu
(A) An undocu- (i) B.S. Rao (c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
54. Which committee on Panchayati
mented wonder: Raj in India takes of three phases: (d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
The Making of “The phase of ascendency The 57. Which of the following have
the Great Indian been discussed as crisis of India’s
phase of stagnation and The phase
Election national unity by Paul R. Brass in
of decline”?
(B) The Framing (ii) Granville his book The Politics of India since
of India’s Austin (a) Sadiq Ali
Independence?
Constitution: (b) L.M. Singhvi
(A) Punjab (B) The North East
A study (c) Ashok Mehta
(C) Casteism (D) Kashmir
(C) Working a (iii) S.Y.
(d) B.R. Mehta Select the correct answer from the
Democratic Quraishi
Constitution: 55. The grounds on which President’s code given below:
The Indian Rule has been imposed on the states (a) (A) and (D) only
Experience in India are: (b) (B) and (C) only
(D) The politics (iv) Paul R. (A) If no stable government can be (c) (A), (B) and (C) only
of India since Brass formed.
(d) (A), (B) and (D) only
Independence (B) If the Cabinet has lost majority and 58. Consider the following statements
Code: no other ministry commanding a and select the correct answer from
A B C D majority in the Assembly can be the code given below:
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) formed at once. Assertion (A): Lant Pritchett Calls
(b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (C) If the state government does not India a “flailing state.”
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) obey the directives given by the Reason (R): The state in India
(d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) Union government or breakdown appears to undertake highly complex
52. Match List–I with List–II and select of federal structure. takes with relative efficiency - such as
the correct answer from the code (D) Corruption. running atomic weapons programme
given below: or regulating monetary policy - while
Select the correct answer from the
List–I List–II
codes given below: struggling to perform more ordinary
(State) (Chief Minister)
governance tasks - such as delivering
(A) Uttar Pradesh (i) Jairam (a) (A) and (B) only
basic health and education.
Thakur (b) (A), (B) and (C) only
(B) Assam (ii) Sarbananda Code:
(c) (A), (B) and (D) only
Sonowal (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) Kerala (iii) Yogi
Adityanath 56. Match List–I with List–II and select (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
(D) Himachal (iv) Pinarayi the correct answer from the code is not the correct explanation of
Pradesh Vijayan given below: (A).
Code: List–I List–II (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
A B C D  (Movement) (State)
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (A) Tebhaga (i) Odisha
59. Which one of the following Commis-
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) Movement
sions was not related to Backward
(B) Silent Valley (ii) Uttar
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Classes?
Project Pradesh
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (a) Bakshi Commission
(C) Banwasi Seva (iii) Kerala
53. Who describes Indian federation as Andolan (b) Mandal Commission
a “holding together federation and (D) Chilka Bachao (iv) West (c) Havnoor Commission
not a ‘coming together federation”? Andolan Bangal (d) Shah Commission
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
60. “If Hume and other English
liberals hoped to use Congress as a
safety-valve, the Congress leaders
hoped to use Hume as a lightening-
conductor”. Who said this?
(a) S.R. Mehrotra
(b) Sumit Sarkar
(c) Bipan Chandra
(d) Tapan Raychaudhuri
61. Who among the following was the
first to advance the idea of worker’s
participation in management?
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Herbert Simon
(c) F.W. Taylor
(d) Mary Parker Follet
62. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
List–I List–II
(A) Behavioural (i) Administrative
system as a
sub-system of
the society
(B) Bureaucratic (ii) Agrarian -
Transitia -
Industria
(C) Ecological (iii) Legal -
Rational
authority
(D) General (iv) Analysis of
system human
behaviour in
administrative
settings
Code:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) sound, there is very little hope for
63. Which of the following are the
features of New Public Manage-
ment?
(A) Contracting out
(B) Devolution of authority
(C) Focus on performance appraisal
(D) Focus on management
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
64. Who among the following has
criticized classical theory as ‘homely
proverbs, myths, slogans and
pompous identities’?
(a) W.F. Willougbhy
(b) Luther Gulick
(c) Henry Fayol
(d) Herbert Simon
65. Who among the following said
that behaviour in administration
should be studied through psycho-
analysis?
(a) Alex Bavelas
(b) Ordway Tead
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) Chester Banard
66. The Hawthorne experiments belong
to the era of:
(a) Mid 1930’s (b) Late 1930’s
(c) Early 1920’s (d) Late 1920’s
67. Who among the following described
bureaucracy as “The continental
nuisance”?
(a) Max Weber
(b) Thomas Carlyle
(c) M. Crozier
(d) Karl Marx
68. ‘Unity of Command’ means:
(a) That the subordinate will have
only one supervisor.
(b) That the subordinate will have
more than one supervisor.
(c) That all the units are put under
one head.
(d) That the work is divided among
all the subordinates.
69. The Governor of a state in his
capacity as Administrator of an
adjoining Union Territory discharges
his functions independently of:
(a) The President of India
(b) The Union Cabinet
209
(c) The Union Home Minister
(d) The State Council of Ministers
70. Which of the following are the
factors determining the length of
span of control?
(A) Age of the organisation
(B) Personality of the supervisor
(C) Calibre of the subordinates
(D) Organisational structure
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
71. Which of the following are the
benefits of E-governance?
(A) It makes government more
accountable.
(B) It minimises people’s participation
in government affairs.
(C) It encourages bureaucratic
tendencies.
(D) It lowers transaction costs.
(E) It helps in building trust between
government and citizen.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B), (D) and (E)
(d) (A), (D) and (E)
72. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): According to Gleen
Stahl, unless the recruitment is
recruiting a first rate staff.
Reason (R): He considers recruitment
as the cornerstone of the whole public
personnel structure.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
 210
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
73. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): Classical theory views
organisation as a formal structure
of authority based on Universal
principles.
Reason (R): Classical theory views
human beings who run an organisation
as mere cogs in the machine.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
74. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
List–I List–II
(A) Span of (i) Supervision
Contol
(B) Hierarchy (ii) One single boss
(C) Delegation (iii) Through proper
channel
(D) Unity of (iv) Flow of
Command authority
Code:
A B C D (a) France, Russia, Iran and South
(a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) 80. Which of the following Commis-
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) sions/Committees has identified
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) ‘weak governance’ as the main
(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) reason for corruption in India?
75. The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts
have resulted in:
(A) Transparency in the governance
(B) Accountability in governance
(C) Gender empowerment
(D) Deepening of democracy
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (C) and (D)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
76. After independence, the role of the
District Magistrate has undergone
a substantial change mainly due to:
(a) Political awakening
(b) The role of mass media
(c) Democratic decentralisation
(d) Periodical elections
77. The report ‘Right to Information:
Master key to Good Governance’
was submitted by:
83. Given below are two statements, one
(a) The Sarkaria Commission
(b) Punchhi Commission
(c) First Administrative Reforms
Commission
(d) Second Administrative Reforms
Commission
78. Which one of the following Commis-
sions/Committees/Thinkers has
identified 27 modes of corruption?
(a) Kautilya
(b) Vohra Committee
(c) Santhanam Committee
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
79. The Joint Consultative Machinery
in India was established on the
recommendation of:
(a) Fisrt Pay Commission
(b) Second Pay Commission
(c) First Administrative Reforms
Commission
(d) Paul Appleby Report
(a) First Administrative Reforms
Commission
(b) Second Administrative Reforms
Commission
(c) Vohra Committee
(d) Santhanam Committee
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
81. Which one of the following is the
sequential order of the following
states becoming acknowledged
nuclear powers?
(a) America, Britain, Soviet Union,
France and China
(b) America, Soviet Union, France,
Britain and China
(c) Soviet Union, America, Britain,
China and France
(d) America, Soviet Union, Britain,
France and China
82. Which Chapter of the United
Nations deals with the ‘Pacific
Settlement of Disputes’?
(a) Chapter II (b) Chapter III
(c) Chapter IV (d) Chapter I
labelled as Assertion (A) and other
labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): The Cold War
and decolonisation process had
discouraged more active involvement
by United Nations within state.
Reason (R): States have national
interest as its prime interest.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
84. India has signed strategic partner-
ship agreements with:
Africa
(b) China, America, Britain and
Argentina
(c) ASEAN, Japan, Australia and
Tanzania
(d) Vietnam, Seychelles, Mongolia
and Singapore
85. Consider the following statements
with regard to India and ASEAN.
(A) India became Sectoral partner of
ASEAN in 1992.
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
(B) Delhi Dialogue is on Politico-
economic issues between ASEAN
and India.
(C) India became Dialogue partner
of ASEAN in 1996.
(D) India became summit level
partner of ASEAN in 2000.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (A) and (C)
(c) (B) and (D) (d) (A) and (B)
86. Which of the following statements
are true about SAARC?
(A) Australia, America, Japan and
Russia are observers.
(B) Promote and strengthen collective
defense among member states.
(C) Indian become Secretary General
of SAARC twice.
(D) The Second Summit of SAARC
was held in India.
Choose the correct statement from
code given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D)
87. Who have argued that far from
an objective reality, international
politics is a ‘World of our making’?
(a) Realists
(b) Feminists
(c) Idealists
(d) Constructivists
88. Consider the following statements:
(A) India’s ‘Link West Policy’ is
an attempt to reconnect to the
Western World.
(B) ‘Project Mausam’ is an Indian
initiative for maritime coopera-
tion in Indian ocean region.
(C) ‘Operation Rahat’ was conducted
by India to rescue Indians from
Libya.
(D) India has become member of
Shanghai’ cooperation organisa-
tion.
Choose the correct statements from
the code given below:
(a) (C), (D) and (B)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B) and (D)
89. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): Security is a Contested
Concept.
Reason (R): Security is multidimen-
sional in it’s realization.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
90. Consider the following statements:
(A) OPEC was created at Riyadh
conference in 1960.
(B) The charter of OAS was signed
in 1948.
(C) Indonesia is a member of OPEC.
(D) Cuba is a member of OAS.
Choose the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (A) and (D)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (C) and (D)
91. Neo Liberals, from their Lockean
Universe Seek to create interna-
tional regimes that optimize the:
(a) Rational exploitation of nature
(b) Rational functioning of the state
system
(c) Rational application of power
(d) Rational utilisation of weapons
92. Democratic peace theory has been
largely associated with the writings
of:
(a) Immanuel Kant and Voltaire
(b) Michael Doyle and Bruce Russett
211
(c) Thomas Christensen and Thomas
Schelling
(d) Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal
Nehru
93. Which one of the following is not
part of the four main criteria set out
by 1933 Montevideo Convention on
the Rights and Duties of the state?
(a) Capacity to enter into relations
with other states
(b) A defined territory
(c) Strength to wage a war
(d) A permanent population
94. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
  List–I List–II
  (Treaty) (Purpose of
agreement)
(A) Geneva (i) Bans multiple
protocol independent
reentry
vehicles
(B) START 2 (ii) Bans use of
chemical
weapons
(C) INF (iii) Reduces
strategic
arms
(D) START 1 (iv) Bans two
categories of
land based
missiles
Code:
A B C D
(a) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
95. Which one of the following state-
ment is incorrect?
(a) Collective Security aims to defend
the Status quo.
(b) Collective Security Operates in
an institutional framework.
(c) The diffusion of Gulf crisis 1990–
91 is a successful experiment of
Collective Security.
(d) Collective Security and balance
of power policy are compatible
under usual circumstances.
 212
96. Morgenthau’s classification of
ideologies doesn’t include:
(a) Ideology of status quo
(b) Ideology of imperialism
(c) Ambiguous ideologies
(d) Ideology of hegemony
97. Which one of the following is not
part of five global commons?
(a) The High Seas
(b) The Climate System
(c) The Deep Ocean floor
(d) The Arctic region
98. Consider the following statements
about arms control:
(A) It’s meant to build the security
dilemma.
Answers with Explanations
1. (c) Kautilya wrote the Book
Nitishastra but he is not considered as the
founder of Nitishastra Tradition. There
were multiple saints before him who,
wrote various texts that have reference
to the idea of Statecraft. Even the Dev’s
have some relation with the idea theory
of Niti Shastra.
2. (a) G.H. Sabine in his book ‘The
History of Political Theory’ wrote
that the Republic pictures a utopia not
because it is a romance but because Plato
intended it to be the start of a scientific
attack upon the “idea of the good.”
3. (c) Aristotle stated that state is a
natural community, an organism with
all the attributes of a living being. In
the historical sense, the state is the
natural and final stage in the growth of
human relations. However, the state is
also considered by Aristotle to be actual
in a logical and philosophical sense:
“The state is by nature clearly prior to
the family and the individual, since the
whole is of necessity prior to the part”.
4. (b) John Locke in his Social
Contract says that people would agree to
a limit on their property: it can be passed
on only to those who consent to obey the
state. Then, each generation will tacitly
consent to obey the state as its members
acquire property that is in the state’s
“dominion.”
(B) It’s a defensive strategy in
principle.
(C) It does take a peace without
weapons stance.
(D) It aims at mutual security between
partners and over stability.
Choose the correct statements from
the code given below:
(a) (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (B) and (D)
(c) (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (C) and (D)
99. Which one of the pairs is not
correctly matched?
(a) Realism – States
(b) Globalizm – Non state actors
5. (d) According to Rousseau It is
reason which breeds pride and reflection
which fortifies it; reason which turns
man inward into himself; reason which
separates him from everything which
troubles or affects him.
6. (a) J.S. Mill in his famous work
‘On Liberty’ expressed his view
regarding ‘Will’. According to him, Will
is not only dependent on number, it has a
qualitative foundation and the Will which
makes the institutions takes on the form
of a belief. And will is the basis of all
institutions including the state.
7. (b)
(Source) (Major idea)
(A) Jainism (iv) Emphasis on
Non-violence
(B) Vaishnavism (i) Catholicity of
outlook
(C) Ruskin and (ii) Contempt for
Tolstoy industrial
civilization
and ideas on
passive
resistance
(D) Plato (iii) Idealism and
concern for
moral values
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
(c) Dependency – Economic
interests
(d) Feminism – Gender
100. Which one of the following pairs is
mismatched?
Books Author
(a) The Wretched of – Frantz Fanon
the Earth
(b) World Order – Henry
Kissinger
(c) Implosion of – Samir Amin
Capitalism
(d) Neo-Colonialism: – Julius
The Last Stage Nyerere
of Imperialism
8. (b) Sri Aurobindo launched Karma-
yogin, a weekly English journal conceived
as ‘A Weekly Review of National Religion,
Literature, Science, Philosophy, & c.,’.
Sri Aurobindo also launched Dharma, a
weekly Bengali journal and its first issue
came out on 23 Aug, 1909.
9. (a) According to Roy, the materialism
of Marx was dogmatic and unscientific and
neglected the creative role of the human
subject. He strongly believed that the
dialectic materialism is materialistic only in
name and dialectics being the cornerstone;
it is essentially idealistic in nature.
10. (b) B.R. Ambedkar in 1955
published a text containing his view on the
formation of Linguistic states as suggested
by the State Reorganisation Commission.
He quoted that the States Reorganisation
Commission Report is “The Lambs are
shorn of the wool” and “They are feeling
the intensity of cold”.
11. (d) The Post-Behavioural Approach
is a future oriented approach which wants
to solve problems of both present and
future. To this approach, the study of
Political Science should put importance
on social change. It accepts that political
science needs to study all realities of
politics, social change, values etc.
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
12. (d) Isaiah Berlin was not skeptical
about the resurgence of political theory.
13. (c) In A Theory of Justice,
Rawls explicitly states that “society
is a cooperative venture for mutual
advantage”.
14. (c) In an essay in The Examined
Life, Robert Nozick described politics
as a zigzag, rather like a sailboat slowly
taking back and forth toward a distant
goal.
15. (d) F. A. Hayek, was an Austrian-
British economist and philosopher
best known for his defence of classical
liberalism. He was not a communi-
tarianism.
16. (d) All of the following are the
feature of democracy; Democracy
requires political equality; All citizens
must be entitled to stand for election
regardless of race, sex, colour or
religion; All citizens must possess a vote
(universal adult franchise) and Political
equality means ‘one person one vote, one
vote one value’.
17. (a)
(Authors)    (Books)
(A) Brian Berry (iv) The Liberal
Theory of
Justice
(B) Susan (iii) Justice,
Moller Gender
Okin and Family
(C) Amartya (ii) Idea
K. Sen of Justice
(D) Tom (i) Justice
Campbell
18. (c) Marx’s theory of surplus-value
is basically a deduction (or residual) theory
of the ruling classes’ income. The whole
social product (the net national income) is
produced in the course of the process of
production, exactly as the whole crop is
harvested by the peasants. What happens on
the market (or through appropriation of the
produce) is a distribution (or redistribution)
of what already has been created.
19. (b) Lenin’s theory of capitalist
imperialism, in which he held to constitute
the intermediary stage of capitalism is
not considered as Lenin contribution to
Marxism. Because Capitalist imperialism
is considered as the international relations
theory.
20. (d) An ideology is a set of opinions
or beliefs of a group or an individual.
Very often ideology refers to a set of
political beliefs or a set of Political ideas
that embody or articulate class or social
interests. Capitalism, communism,
socialism, and Marxism are ideologies.
21. (c) According to Roy Macridis and
Ward Comparative Politics, no doubt,
has to be concerned with the government
structure, but at the same time, it has to
take note of Society, historical heritage
and geographic and resources endowed,
its social and economic organisations,
its ideologies and value systems, and its
political style; and its parties, interests
and leadership structure.”
22. (a) The Presidential Republic book
was published by Jean Blondel in 2014.
This book is about a variety of national
arrangements and practices, whose
common characteristics are to constitute
‘presidential republics’.
23. (b) ‘Systems’ concept makes
empirical and comparative study possible
even of those political institutions, apart
from the state, such as, international
political system, city, political party.
Systems approach is criticised as a ‘status
quoist’ model.
24. (*) Gabriel Almond (1970) has
categorized these groups in terms of
structural forms as under:
1. Institutional interest groups (army
and business associations).
2. Non-associational interest groups.
3. Associational interest groups.
4. Anomic interest groups (terrorist
organization, criminal gang).
25. (c) The Mayflower Compact was the
first document to establish self-government
in the New World. It remained active until
1691 when Plymouth Colony became part
of Massachusetts Bay Colony.
26. (b) Many Afro-Asian countries
like India, Sri Lanka, Ghana etc. got their
independence after the second world war,
but their independence is not completely
realized because the level of economic
development was extremely low.
213
27. (b) Comparative Politics Today
was Originally published in 2002. It
was authored by Russell J. Dalton,
Kaare Strøm, Gabriel Almond, G.
Powell.
28. (d) The characteristics of a Revolution
are: Change of Constitution,One ruling elite
is replaced by another; Transformation in
Political Institutions; Fundamental change in
the Socio-economic and political structures.
29. (b) A unitary system of govern-
ment, or unitary state, is a sovereign
state governed as a single entity. The
central government is supreme, and the
administrative divisions exercise only
powers that the central government has
delegated to them.
30. (a) The Fifth Amendment says
to the federal government that no one
shall be “deprived of life, liberty or
property without due process of law.”
The Fourteenth Amendment, ratified in
1868, uses the same eleven words, called
the Due Process Clause, to describe a
legal obligation of all states.
31. (b) United States federal judges
have life tenure once appointed by the
president and confirmed by the Senate.
32. (d) According to Max Weber,
a modern state exists where a political
community has three elements. First,
an administrative and legal order that
has been created and can be changed
by legislation that also determines its
role. Second, it must have binding
authority over citizens and actions in its
jurisdiction.
33. (b) The Power Elite theory
posits that a small minority, consisting
of members of the economic elite and
policy-planning networks, holds the
most power—and that this power is
independent of democratic elections.
34. (b) Max Weber defined the six
characteristics of bureaucracy as a
formal hierarchical structure, manage-
ment by rules, division of labor,
achievement-focused advancement,
efficient organization and impersonality.
Max weber bureaucracy theory is an iron
cage of rule-based rational control. It is a
key part of the “rational-legal authority.”
According to Weber Bureaucracy means
“domination through knowledge” in the
form of merit.
 214
35. (a)
(Authors) (Books)
(A) Robert (ii) Polyarchy:
Dahl Participation
and Opposition
(B) S.M. Lipset (iii) Political Man
(C) Schmitt (i) Legality and
Carl Legitimacy
(D) Roger (iv) Political
Charlton Realities:
Comparative
Government
36. (b) Yes, Its true that Presidential
system provides a stable governance
model because the leader is directly
selected by the people in Presidential
system. The Power structure is
centralized in Presidential system as
President is the head of the government
as well as the head of the State.
37. (a)
(A) Islamic (ii) Anti-Modernization
Revolution Movement in Iran
(B) Russian (i) Led by the
Revolution Bolshevik Party
(C) Glorious (iv) Establishing
Revolution Constitutional
government in
England
(D) Puritan (iii) 1649 Revolution to
Revolution limit the arbitrary
power of Charles II
38. (d) Modernization is inter-
changeably used to express Westerni-
zation, Europeanisation and Industriali-
zation in common and even in scholarly
works. In Political science, Rise of
Nation State System is also considered as
the advent of Modernisation.
39. (d)
40. (a)
(Writers) (Concepts)
(A) Dicey (iv) Rule of law
(B) S.P. Huntington (iii) Political decay
(C) Almond (i) Anomic
interest groups
(D) Marbury Vs (ii) Judicial
Madison Review
41. (b) Government of India Act
1919 introduced, for the first time,
bicameralism and direct elections in the
country. Thus, the Indian Legislative
Council was replaced by a bicameral
legislature consisting of an Upper House
(Council of State) and a Lower House
(Legislative Assembly). The majority
of members of both the Houses were
chosen by direct election. But the control
over minister was not given to legislative
assembly.
42. (c) Morris Jones in his book
‘The Government and Politics in India’
provided a link between pre and post
independence institutional framework to
study Indian politics.
43. (a) The Fundamental Rights in
Indian Constitution guarantee provided
by the Constitution about the Right of
the Indian citizen. Fundamental rights
are protected and enforced by the
Constitution. It can’t be changed by the
common legislative process. Supreme
Court is the guardian of fundamental
rights.
44. (a)
 (Idea/Concept)  (Person
Associated)
(A) Soft state (iii) Gunnar Myrdal
(B) Politics of (iv) Myron Weiner
Scarcity
(C) Crisis of (i) Atul Kohli
Governability
(D) Contentious (ii) Subrata K. Mitra
Democracy
45. (c) Joint Sitting of both the house
of Parliament is only allowed in case of
Ordinary bills. There is no provision
for calling a joint sitting in case of
disagreement related to a Constitution
Amendment bill under Article 368.
46. (d) The correct chronology of
Presidents of India is:
Ramaswamy – 25 July 1987 to
Venkataraman 25 July 1992
Shankar Dayal – 25 July 1992 to
Sharma 25 July 1997
Kocheril Raman – 25 July 1997 to
Narayanan 25 July 2002
A. P. J. – 25 July 2002 to
Abdul Kalam 25 July 2007
Pratibha Patil – 25 July 2007 to
25 July 2012
47. (c) Article 70 deal with the issue
of ‘Discharge of President’s Functions
in other Contingencies’. It says that
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
“Parliament may make such provision as it
thinks fit for the discharge of the functions
of the President in any contingency not
provided for in this Chapter.”
48. (c) James Manor in his book
‘Politics and State-society Relations in
India’ commented that “India since 1989
has witnessed fewer abuses of power by
Prime Ministers than the United Kingdom
experienced under either Margaret
Thatcher or Tony Blair.”
49. (c) In ‘Rethinking Public
Institutions in India’ book Madhav
Khosla and Ananth Padmanabhan wrote
a chapter ‘The Supreme Court and
India’s Judicial System’ in this they
expressed that the Supreme Court of
India as having a dual personality – a
legal institution and a public institution.
50. (b) Llyod and Susanne Rudolph
in their work ‘Explaining Indian
Democracy’ wrote that Election Com-
mission of India as an effective ‘bulwark
of free and fair elections’.
51. (b)
(Book) (Authors)
(A) An (iii) S.Y. Quraishi
undocumented
wonder: The
Makingof the
Great Indian
Election
(B) The Framing (i) B.S. Rao
of India’s
Constitution:
A study
(C) Working a (ii) Granville
Democratic Austin
Constitution:
The Indian
Experience
(D) The politics (iv) Paul R. Brass
of India since
Independence
52. (b)
(State) (Chief Minister)
(A) Uttar (iii) Yogi
Pradesh Adityanath
(B) Assam (ii) Sarbananda
Sonowal
(C) Kerala (iv) Pinarayi Vijayan
(D) Himachal (i) Jairam Thakur
Pradesh
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
53. (a) P. Bardhan in his book
‘Democracy and Distributive Politics
in India’ commented that the Indian
Federalism is a type of ‘Holding
together federalism and not a ‘coming
together federation”.
54. (c) Ashok Mehta (1978), in the
report of the committee of Panchayati
Raj Institutions (PRIs) identified three
phases of Panchayati Raj in India.
1. The phase of ascendency (1959–64)
2. The phase of stagnation (1965–69)
3. The phase of decline (1969–77)
55. (d) Article 356 of the Constitution
of India gives the President of India
the power to impose this rule on a state
on the advice of the Union Council of
Ministers. There are some conditions
that the President has to consider before
imposing the rule:
(A) If the President is satisfied that a
situation has arisen in which the
government of the state cannot be
carried on in accordance with the
provisions of the Constitution.
(B) The state government is unable
to elect a leader as chief minister
within a time prescribed by the
Governor of that state.
(C) There’s a breakdown of a coalition
leading to the chief minister
having a minority support in
the House, and the CM fails to
prove majority in a given period
of time.
(D) Loss of majority in the Assembly
due to a vote of no-confidence in
the House.
(E) Elections postponed on account of
situations like natural disasters,
war or epidemic.
56. (c)
(Movement)  (State)
(A) Tebhaga (iv) West Bengal
Movement
(B) Silent Valley (iii) Kerala
Project
(C) Banwasi Seva (ii) Uttar Pradesh
Andolan
(D) Chilka Bachao (i) Odisha
Andolan
57. (d) ‘The Politics of India since
Independence’ provides a comprehensive
study of the major political, cultural, and
economic changes in India since gaining
independence. Paul Brass focuses on the
consequences of the centralising drives
of the national leadership to create a
strong, unified nation. Regional issues
of Punjab, North East and Kashmir
is mainly discussed as crisis of India’s
national unity by Paul R. Brass in his
book.
58. (a) The Harvard economist Lant
Pritchett has called India a ‘flailing
state’. The signs are all around us; in
the decaying government schools and the
declining public hospitals, in the apathy
and incompetence of the police, in the
shocking state of our roads and transport
systems, in the fouling of our air and
water.
59. (d) Shah Commission was a
commission of inquiry appointed by the
Government of India in 1977 to inquire
into all the excesses committed in the
Indian Emergency (1975–77). It was
headed by Justice J.C. Shah, a former
Chief Justice of India.
60. (c) Bipin Chandra in his book
‘India’s Struggle for Independence’
dedicated a separate chapter for the
safety valve theory. He wrote that “If
Hume and other English liberals hoped
to use Congress as a safety-valve, the
Congress leaders hoped to use Hume as
a lightning-conductor.”
61. (d) Follett defined management as:
“the art of getting things done through
people”. Her ideas are contradictory to
the idea of scientific management, as she
believed that managers and subordinates
should fully collaborate. Power is central
to her ideas.
62. (a)
Administrative Features
Theory
(A) Behavioural (iv) Analysis of
human behaviour
in administrative
settings
(B) Bureaucratic (iii) Legal - Rational
authority
(C) Ecological (ii) Agrarian -
Transitia - Industria
215
(D) General (i) Administrative
system system as a sub-
system of the
society
63. (d) The New Public Management
has the following features: Contracting
out, Devolution of authority, Focus on
performance appraisal and Focus on
management.
64. (d) Herbert Simon in his book
‘The Proverbs of Administration’ has
criticized classical theory as ‘homely
proverbs, myths, slogans and pompous
identities’.
65. (c) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
is a theory by Abraham Maslow, which
puts forward that people are motivated
by five basic categories of needs:
physiological, safety, love, esteem,
and self-actualization. He said that
behaviour in administration should be
studied through psycho-analysis.
66. (d) The Hawthorne studies were
carried out by the Western Electric
company at their Hawthorne plant in
the 1920’s. The Hawthorne experiments
were originally designed by the National
Research Council to study the effect
of shop-floor lighting on worker
productivity at a telephone parts factory
in Hawthorne.
67. (b) The bureaucracy was a system
of government administration which
takes the most of the important decisions
by the state non elected officials. In the
nineteenth–century, the British writers
refer that bureaucracy as “the continental
nuisance”. Particularly Thomas Carlyle,
the British writer spreads of the
term bureaucracy as “the continental
nuisance”.
68. (a) Unity of command provides
that an employee is responsible to only
one supervisor, who in turn is responsible
to only one supervisor, and so on up the
organizational hierarchy.
69. (d) The President may appoint
a Governor of an adjoining state as
administrator of a Union territory.
In such case the Governor works
independently with regard to the
administration of the Union Territory.
He is not bound by the advice of the
state council of Minister.
 216
70. (d) Factors Influencing the Span
of Control:
•• The Capacity and Ability of the
Executive
•• Competence and Training of
Subordinates
•• Nature of Work
•• Time Available for Supervision
•• Degree of Decentralization and
Extent of Delegation
•• Effectiveness of Communication
System
•• Quality of Planning
•• Degree of Physical Dispersion
71. (d) E-Governance is improvement
in governance which is enabled by the
resourceful use of Information and Com-
munications Technology. E-governance
brings better access to information and
excellence services for inhabitants. It
also brings simplicity, efficiency and
accountability in government.
72. (b) Yes, According to Gleen Stahl,
unless the recruitment is sound, there
is very little hope for recruiting a first
rate staff. He even considers recruitment
as the cornerstone of the whole public
personnel structure.
73. (b) The Classical Theory is the
traditional theory, wherein more empha-
sis is on the organization rather than the
employees working therein. According
to the classical theory, the organization is
considered as a machine and the human
beings as different components/parts of
that machine.
74. (b)
Administrative Feature
Concept constituted on 31 August 2005, as a
(A) Span of (i) Supervision
Control
(B) Hierarchy (iii) Through
proper channel
(C) Delegation (iv) Flow of
authority
(D) Unity of (ii) One single
Command boss
75. (d) Basically 73rd and 74th
Amendment act was intended to make
Panchayati Raj Institutions/Local Body as
institution of local self government and to
bring a third tier to our democracy. Both the
amendment resulted in the Transparency
in the governance, Accountability in
governance, Gender empowerment, and
Deepening of democracy.
76. (c) The post of District Magis-
trate was introduced by British rule in
India. The role of District Magistrate was
significantly changed after the Indepen-
dence. India adopted a democratic system
and this democratic decentralisation
changed the role of District Magistrate.
77. (d) ‘Right to Information: Master
key to Good Governance’ report was
submitted by the Second Administrative
Reforms Commission. This Report is in
two parts:
•• First part focuses on Official Secrets
and confidentiality issues.
•• Second part focuses on the steps
required for effective implementation
of the Act.
78. (d) CVC reported that Corruption
need not necessarily be in the form
of money. The Central Vigilance
Commission has identified following
twenty-seven modes of corruption.
79. (b) The scheme of Joint Consul-
tative Machinery was proposed by
Government of India in 1960 following
recommendation of 2nd Pay Commission
and employees demand thereafter. The
scheme envisaged an arbitration council
with limited compulsory arbitration
along with three tier structure of joint
consultation.
80. (b) The Second Administrative
Reforms Commission (ARC) was
Commission of Inquiry, under the
Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily
for preparing a detailed blueprint for
revamping the public administrative
system. The Commission registered that
‘Weak Governance’ is the main reason
for Corruption in India.
81. (d) The correct sequence of
acquiring nuclear powers is:
America – 1945
Soviet Union – 1949
Britain – 1952
France – 1960
China – 1964
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
82. (c) Chapter VI of the United
Nations Charter deals with peaceful
settlement of disputes. The Charter
related to the pacific settlement of
disputes which requires the parties
themselves to seek a solution to their
dispute by any peaceful means of their
own choice, and that the Council should
give every opportunity to the parties to
do so.
83. (a) Under United nation Charter
the significance is given to the principle
of ‘State Sovereignty’. It also consider
that national Interest is the supreme
interest of any nation. Due to this the
Cold War and decolonisation process had
discouraged more active involvement by
United Nations within state.
84. (d) India has signed strategic
partnership agreements with more than
two dozen countries/supranational
entities listed here in the chronological
order of the pacts: France (1998), Russia
(2000), Germany (2001), Mauritius
(2003), Iran (2003), United Kingdom
(2004), United States (2004), EU
(2004), Indonesia (2005), China (2005),
Brazil (2006), Vietnam (2007), Oman
(2008), Kazakhstan (2009), Australia
(2009), Malaysia (2010), South Korea
(2010), Saudi Arabia (2010), Uzbekistan
(2011), Afghanistan (2011), Tajikistan
(2012), ASEAN (2012), Japan (2014),
Seychelles (2015), Mongolia (2015),
Singapore (2015), UAE (2015), Rwanda
(2017) and Israel (2017).
85. (b) India-ASEAN relations have
evolved over time, with India graduating
from the Southeast Asian grouping’s
Sectoral Dialogue Partner in 1992 to a
Dialogue Partner in 1996 to Summit-
level Partner in 2002.
86. (c) From the 1985 till date there
have been 13 Secretaries-General of the
SAARC. There are just two Indians i.e.
Kant Kishore Bhargava and Sheel Kant
Sharma are the only Indians who has
been at the post of Secretaries-General
of the SAARC. The second summit was
held in November 16–17 Bengaluru,
India in 1986.
87. (d) Constructivism is a learning
theory found in psychology which explains
how people might acquire knowledge and
learn. It therefore has direct application
Solved Paper-II, July-2018
to education. The theory suggests that
humans construct knowledge and meaning
from their experiences. Constructivism
argue that the social world is of our
making (Onuf 1989). Actors continually
shape – and sometimes reshape – the very
nature of international relations through
their actions and interactions.
88. (d) Project Mausam is a transna-
tional program launched by India’s
“Culture Ministry” aimed to restore
its ancient maritime routes and cultural
links with republics in the region. In an
attempt to strengthen ties with India’s
western neighbours, especially the
Persian Gulf countries, Modi proposed
this policy to complement his Act East
policy concerning East Asia.
89. (a) Security is one of the most
important concepts in International
Relations, since it is related to the safety
of states and their citizens and their very
survival. It is a multidimensional concept
for realization and usually have contested
understanding.
90. (*) OPEC was established at
a conference held in Baghdad 1960.
The Charter of the Organization of the
American States (otherwise known as
the Charter of the OAS) was signed at
the Ninth International Conference of
American States of 30 April 1948, held
in Bogotá, Colombia. Ecuador, Indonesia
and Qatar are former members of OPEC.
Despite being a founding member of the
Organization of American States (OAS),
Cuba was effectively suspended from 31
January 1962 to 3 June 2009.
91. (a) Neo Liberals like Robert
Nozick, from their Lockean Universe
Seek to create international regimes
that optimize the concept of rational
exploitation of nature.
92. (b) The Democratic Peace Theory
states that countries with liberal democratic
forms of government are less likely to go
to war with one another than those with
other forms of government. Democratic
peace theory has been largely associated
with the writings of Michael Doyle and
Bruce Russett.
93. (c) The criteria of the 1933
Montevideo Convention on the Rights
and Duties of the state are:
(1) a permanent population,
(2) a defined territory,
(3) government and
(4) the capacity to enter into relations
with other States.
94. (d)
(Treaty) (Purpose of agreement)
(A) Geneva (ii) Bans use of
protocol chemical weapons
(B) START 2 (i) Bans multiple
independent reentry
vehicles
(C) INF (iv) Bans two
categories of land
based missiles
(D) START 1 (iii) Reduces strategic
arms
95. (d) Collective Security and
balance of power policy are compatible
under usual circumstances. The balance
of power principle is derived by the
Structural Realism and the concept
of Collective security is proposed by
Liberal Institutionalist.
96. (d) Ideological hegemony refers to
the embedding of relations of domination
217
and exploitation in the dominant ideas
of society. When internalized, these
dominant ideas induce consent to
these relationships on the part of the
dominated and exploited. It is not the
part of Morgenthau’s Classification of
Ideologies.
97. (d) The ‘Global Commons’ refers to
resource domains or areas that lie outside
of the political reach of any one nation
State. Thus international law identifies
four global commons namely: the High
Seas; the Atmosphere; Antarctica; and
Outer Space. Arctic region is not a global
commons.
98. (b) Arms control is when a country
or countries restrict the development,
production, stockpiling, proliferation,
distribution or usage of weapons. The
purpose of arms control is stability, or
limiting especially dangerous offense-
dominant weapons while bolstering
deterrence by allowing the procurement
of defense-dominant weapons.
99. (b) Globalism is the idea that all
people matter, no matter where they live,
and that universal freedom and human
rights can be fostered for all mankind.
World Citizens believe in Civic
Globalism and that by thinking globally
and acting locally they can affect positive
change across all barriers.
100. (d) Kwame Nkrumah the then
President of Ghana wrote the book
‘Neo-Colonialism: The Last Stage of
Imperialism. The book elaborated that
the result of neo-colonialism is that
foreign capital is used for the exploitation
rather than for the development of the
less developed parts of the world.
qqq
 218
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, June-2019
1. Which of the following newspapers
are NOT related with Tilak?
(A) Kesari
(B) Maratha
(C) Sudharak
(D) Harijan
Select the correct answer from the
given options:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (D)
(d) (C) and (D)
2. Who is the writer of the book, A
Great and Terrible World?
(a) Antonio Gramsci
(b) Hannah Arendt
(c) Hegel
(d) John Rawls
3. Dialectic method was used for the
first time in the writing of which
one of the following thinkers?
(a) Socrates (b) Plato
(c) Hegel (d) Marx
4. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to
Gandhi, politics divorced from
religion is a deathtrap.
Reason (R): The entry of religion
into politics is necessary because
without religion it may take
communal colour.
On the basis of the two statements
choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
5. Which one of the following is NOT
a correct match?
(a) Fabianism Peaceful
Change
(a) Guild Socialism Professional
Represen-
tation
(a) Syndicalism Trade
Unionism
(a) Democratic Radical
Socialism Change
6. Feminists argue that women’s
values are based primarily on
(a) Religious laws
(b) Prescribed social roles
(c) Biology and prescribed social
roles
(d) Biology
7. Who authored the book, Silent
Spring?
(a) Frank Thone
(b) Raymond L. Bryant
(c) Rachel Carson
(d) Roy Rappaport
8. Who stated that placing restrictions
on freedom of expressions of
human beings is like robbing off
the present and the future races?
(a) J. S. Mill
(b) John Locke
(c) Isaiah Berlin
(d) F. A. Hayek
9. The immigrating ethnic cultural
groups which never get opport-
unity to become citizens under
multiculturalism are called:
(a) Metics
(b) National minorities
(c) Immigrant groups
(d) Isolationist ethnoreligious
groups
10. “Making someone better without
making others worse’ is associated
with which one of the following?
Solved Paper-II, June-2019
(a) Pareto’s principle of Optima-
lity
(b) Nozick’s principle of Entitle-
ment
(c) Foucault’s principle of Power
(d) Rawls’s principle of Distrib-
utive Justice
11. Who wrote the book, Multicultural
Citizenship: A Liberal Theory of
Minority Rights (1995)?
(a) T.H. Marshal
(b) B.S. Turner
(c) Will Kymlica
(d) Bheekhu Parekh
12. Who said that political work is the
life blood of all economic work?
(a) John Rawls
(b) Mao Zedong
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Frantz Fanon
13. Gandhi believes in
(a) End justifies Means
(b) Means justifies End
(c) Neither End justifies Means
nor Means justifies End
(d) End and Means both should be
justified
14. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In Machiavellian
thought end justifies the means.
Reason (R): The key objective of
the Prince was to bring unity and
integrity of the State.
On the basis of the two statements
choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
Solved Paper-II, June-2019 219
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false 18. “The English think they are (C) Historical Role of Islam
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true free. They are free only during (D) The Bang-e-Dara
15. The Idea of Justice as fairness in the election of members of Select the correct answer from the
Rawlsian theory flows from parliament.” Who said this? given options:
(a) Individual (a) J. S. Mill (a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) Society (b) T. H. Green (b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) State (c) Locke (c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) Nation (d) Rousseau (d) (B), (C) and (D)
16. Match List-I with List-II: 19. How many prakrities of Mandal 25. Who wrote the biography of
List-I Theory of State are enumerated Jayaprakash Narayan?
(Books) by Kautilya? (a) Jayaprakash Narayan himself
(A) Marx, Gandhi and Socialism (a) 60 (b) 68 (b) Rambriksh Benipuri
(B) Gandhi and Gandhism (c) 70 (d) 72 (c) Vinoba Bhave
(C) Savitri: A Legend and a 20. Black Skin, White Masks is written (d) Namboodiripad
Symbol by 26. Pandita Ramabai was accorded
(D) Gitanjali (a) Gramsci the title ‘Pandita’ for
List-II (b) Hannah Arendt (a) social reforms
(Thinkers) (c) Frantz Fanon (b) emancipation of women
(i) Aurobindo (d) Wollstonecraft (c) eradication of caste system
(ii) Rabindranath Tagore 21. Karl Marx, the founder of (d) being a Sanskrit scholar
(iii) Ram Manohar Lohia Marxism, formally was the citizen 27. Who stated that the life of man is
(iv) B.R. Ambedkar of which one of the following solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and
Choose the correct option from countries? short?
those given below:
(a) Germány (a) Machiavelli
(a) (A)–(iii); (B)–(iv); (b) France (b) Hobbes
(C)–(i); (D)–(ii) (c) UK (c) Locke
(b) (A)–(ii); (B)–(i); (d) None of the above (d) Rousseau
(C)–(iv); (D)–(iii) 22. Who said that art, religion and 28. Which one among the following is
(c) (A)–(iv); (B)–(iii); philosophy differ only in form, NOT related to Neo-Marxism?
(C)–(i); (D)–(ii) their purpose is the same? (a) Jurgen Habermas
(d) (A)–(iii); (B)–(i);
(a) Georg Lukács (b) Ericd Fromm
(C)–(ii); (D)–(iv)
(b) Sartre (c) Herbert Marcuse
17. Match List-I with List-II:
(c) Hegel (d) Rosa Luxemburg
List-I 29. Which one of the following is incorrect
(d) Erik Olin Wright
(A) Late Capitalism with regard to post modernism?
23. Integrated humanism means
(B) Deconstructionism
(A) Human life is not isolated (a) Primacy of consumption
(C) Collapse of grand Narrative
instead of knowledge
(D) Concept of knowledge and (B) Harmony among individual,
(b) Deconstruction of totality
power society and nation
(c) Commonality to greatness
List-II (C) The essential unity of the man (d) Historical tendency
(i) Michel Foucault
(D) State is superior than Nation 30. Agganna Sutta is the
(ii) Fredric Jameson
Select the correct answer from the (a) 27th Sutta of the Digha Nikaya
(iii) Jacques Derrida
given options: (b) 27th Sutta of the Majjhima
(iv) Lyotard
Choose the correct option from (a) (A), (B) and (C) Nikaya
those given below: (b) (A), (B) and (D) (c) 26th Sutta of Samyutta Nikaya
(c) (B), (C) and (D) (d) 27th Sutta of Anguttara Nikaya
(a) (A)–(ii); (B)–(iii);
(d) (A), (C) and (D)
(C)–(iv); (D)–(i) 31. Who among the following used the
24. Which of the following writings term “politicization of caste” in
(b) (A)–(i); (B)–(iv);
were associated with Muhammad Indian politics for the first time?
(C)–(ii); (D)–(iii)
Iqbal?
(c) (A)–(ii); (B)–(iv); (a) Rajni Kothari
(C)–(i); (D)–(iii) (A) Tarana-e-Hind (b) Yogendra Yadav
(d) (A)–(iv); (B)–(i); (B) 
The Reconstruction of (c) Surinder Jodka
(C)–(iii); (D)–(ii) Religious Thought in India (d) M. N. Srinivas
 220
32. Who among the following is/
are the exponent(s) of three
democratic upsurges in the
democratic politics of India?
(a) Atul Kohli
(b) Lloyd and Susanne Rudolphs
(c) Partha Chatterjee
(d) None of the above
33. Which of the following is NOT a
component of primordialism?
(a) Caste
(b) Class
(c) Community
(d) Clan
34. Under the “Indus Water Treaty
with Pakistan, India has the
exclusive rights over the rivers
(a) Chenab, Ravi, Beas
(b) Ravi, Beas, Sutlej
(c) Beas, Sutlej, Jhelum
(d) Ravi, Chenab, Jhelum
35. India and EU have established
which mechanism for furthering
trade ties?
(a) International Facilitation Mech-
anism
(b) Investment Facilitation Mech-
anism
(c) Global Facilitation Mechanism
(d) EU–India Facilitation Mech-
anism
36. Which of the following taxes
are levied by the Union but are
collected and appropriated by the
States?
(A) Stamp duties
(B) Excise duties on medical and
toilet materials
(C) Sales tax
(D) Land revenue
Select the correct answer from the
given options:
(a) (A) and (B) only
(b) (B) and (C) only
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (C) and (D) only
37. Which of the following is NOT a
Violent Non-State Actor (VNSA)?
(a) ISIS
(b) Bokoharam
(c) PLO
(d) Hezobollah
38. ‘Circulation of elites’ most
closely refers to which one of the
following?
(a) Rotation of elites
(b) Replacement of elites
(c) Retention of elites
(d) Restoration of elites
39. Which International Agreement
gave for the ‘first time’ legally
binding targets on reducing
Greenhouse Emissions to the
countries?
(a) Copenhagen 2009
(b) Kyoto Protocol 1997
(c) Durban Conference 2011
(d) Rio de Janeiro 1992
40. The Anti-Satellite Missile Test
conducted by India on 27th March
2019 is known as
(a) Mission Antarriksh
(b) Mission Bharat
(c) Mission Shakti
(d) Mission A-SAT
41. Who is the largest G-20 invester
country in India?
(a) Japan (b) USA
(c) UK (d) Brazil
42. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
(Authors)
(A) Granville Austin
(B) Morris Jones
(C) M.V. Pylee
(D) Ivor Jennings
List-II
(Books)
(i) The Government and Politics
of India
(ii) Some Characteristics of Indian
Constitution
(iii) The Indian Constitution:
Cornerstone of a Nation
(iv) Constitutional Government in
India
Choose the correct option from
those given below:
(a) (A)–(iii); (B)–(i);
(C)–(iv); (D)–(ii)
(b) (A)–(ii); (B)–(iv);
(C)–(i); (D)–(iii)
(c) (A)–(ii); (B)–(i);
(C)–(ii); (D)–(iv)
(d) (A)–(iii); (B)–(ii);
(C)–(i); (D)–(iv)
Solved Paper-II, June-2019
43. “The poor are poor... not because
of what they do not have, but
because of what they cannot do.”
Who said this?
(a) Hans Singer
(b) Amartya Sen
(c) Mahboob ul Haq
(d) Harsh Mander
44. “When diplomacy ends, war
begins.” Who said this?
(a) Adolf Hitler
(b) Napolean Bonaparte
(c) Hans Morgenthau
(d) Mao Tse Tung
45. Which one of the following is NOT
a classified category of political
parties as defined by the Election
Commission of India?
(a) National Parties
(b) State Parties
(c) Regional Parties
(d) Registered (Unrecognized)
Parties
46. The only tribal leader honoured by
the Parliament of India through
installation of his portrait in its
Museum is
(a) Bisoi
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Kanho
(d) Bhagiji Naik
47. Stasiology is the study of
(a) statistics
(b) elections
(c) political parties
(d) movements
48. Who among the following makes
a distinction between public
administration and private
administration?
(A) Paul Appleby
(B) L. D. White
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Sir Josia Stamp
Select the correct answer from the
given option:
(a) (A) and (B) only
(b) (B) and (C) only
(c) (A), (C) and (D) only
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Solved Paper-II, June-2019
49. The Supreme Court of India has
the power to adjudicate disputes
between the Union and the States
through
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction
(d) Writ Jurisdiction
50. India is holding talks with ASEAN
to extend which highway to
Vietnam?
(a) India–Myanmar–Thailand
(b) India–Myanmar–Korea
(c) India–Myanmar–Bangladesh
(d) India–Myanmar–China
51. The book, The Intellectual Crisis
in American Public Administration
deals with
(a) public choice approach
(b) new public administration
(c) ecological approach
(d) decision-making approach
52. The demand for ‘Harit Pradesh’
is related to which one of the
following regions in India?
(a) Western Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bundelkhand
(c) Uttaranchal
(d) Vidharbha
53. Which of the following statements
is true with regard to NPT and
CTBT?
(a) India has signed but not
ratified NPT.
(b) India has signed CTBT.
(c) India has signed NPT.
(d) India has neither signed nor
ratified either NPT or CTBT.
54. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g
summarizes the themes of New
Public Administration under five
heads–relevance, values, social
equity, change and client-focus?
(a) Frank Marini
(b) D. Waldo
(c) F. W. Taylor
(d) M. P. Follett
55. In which case was it declared that
the Preamble is NOT the part of
the Constitution?
221
(a) Kesavananda Bharati case (c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Maneka Gandhi case (d) Ministry of Personnel, Public
(c) Vishakha case Grievances and Pensions
(d) Berubari case 61. Which of the following Indian
56. The fundamental difference traditions is declared recently as
between institutionalism and new “Intangible Cultural Heritage of
institutionalism would primarily Humanity?
be located on the principle of
(a) Kumbh
(a) deduction (b) Yoga
(b) induction (d) Nouraz
(d) experimentation (d) Bihu
(d) investigation 62. Which one of the following
57. What is meant by the term ‘jus in services is not mentioned in the
bello’? Constitution?
(a) A just recourse to war
(a) Indian Administrative Service
(b) Restricted use of legitimate
(IAS)
force
(b) Indian Police Service (IPS)
(d) The just conduct of war
(a) Indian Foreign Service (IFS)
(d) All of the above
(a) Indian Judicial Service (IJS)
58. The total number of Ministers
63. Match List-I with List-II:
including Prime Minister and
Deputy Prime Minister shall not  List-I
exceed  (Writs)
(A) Habeas corpus
(a) 20% members of the Lok
(B) Mandamus
Sabha
(C) Certiorari
(b) 10% members of the Lok
(D) Quo warranto
Sabha
List-II
(c) 15% members of the Lok
(Meanings)
Sabha
(i) To command
(d) 25% members of the Lok
(ii) By what warrant
Sabha
(iii) You should have the body
59. Which of the following is incorrect
(iv) To inform
with regard to the Plan Holidays?
Choose the correct option from
(a) These were short-term contin- those given below:
gency plans.
(a) (A)–(ii); (B)–(i);
(b) The period of these plans was (C)–(iv); (D)–(iii)
1966–69. (b) (A)–(iii); (B)–(i);
(c) The reasons for these plans (C)–(iv); (D)–(ii)
were war, inflation and (c) (A)–(iii); (B)–(iv);
drought. (C)–(i); (D)–(ii)
(d) Plan Holidays were introduced (d) (A)–(ii); (B)–(i);
due to the failure of all three (C)-(iii); (D)–(iv)
preceding Five Year Plans. 64. Which of the following ways
60. Which one of the following is the are suggested by Mary Parker
Nodal Ministry for the National Follett for resolving conflict in an
Human Rights Commission? organization?
(a) Ministry of Human Resource (A) Domination
Development (B) Compromise
(b) Ministry of Social Justice and (C) Surrender
Empowerment (D) Integration
 222
Select the most suitable answer (a) Centre-State Relations
from the options given below: (b) State Reorganisation
(a) (A), (B) and (C) (c) Panchayati Raj
(b) (A), (B) and (D) (d) Delimitation of Constituencies
68. India has signed Comprehensive
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
Economic Partnership Agreement
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(CEPA) with which of the
65. Which of the following are
following countries?
the main features of scientific
(a) USA (b) Russia
management? (c) Japan (d) Israel
(A)  A single administrative 69. Which one of the following is an
science whose principles were incorrect pair?
applicable not only to business (a) Melting pot : USA
(b) Boiling pot : Israel
but also to government, religious
(c) Salad bowl : India
and other organisations (d) Fruit bowl : UK
(B) Functional foremanship 70. ‘New Democracy’ as hegemony
(C) Separation of planning and of the workers, peasants and
execution other marginalised sections of the
society is associated with which
(D) Differential piecework plan one of the following?
Select the most suitable answer
(a) Subaltern School
from the given options: (b) Marxist School
(a) (B), (C) and (D) (c) Post-Behavioural School
(b) (A), (B) and (D) (d) Post-Modernist School
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D) 71. Happiness index is the creation
(d) (B) and (D) of which one of the following
66. Match List-I with List-II: countries?
(a) Bhutan (b) Nepal
List-I
(c) UK (d) Switzerland
(Systems)
72. Which of the following Commis-
(A) Electoral system
sions/Committees has recom-
(B) Services under the Union and mended the creation of a District
States Council in every district with
(C) Panchayats representatives from both urban
(D) Judicial system at Union level and rural areas?
List-II (a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(Articles) (b) L. M. Singhvi Committee
(c) Ashok Mehta Committee
(i) 243–243(O)
(d) Second Administrative Reforms
(ii) 124–147
Commission
(iii) 324–329
73. With which country has India
(iv) 308–323 signed a long-term agreement for
Choose the correct option from Sukhoi Su-30MKI combat aircraft
those given below: fleet?
(a) (A)–(iii); (B)–(iv); (a) USA (b) Japan
(C)–(i); (D)–(ii) (d) Israel (d) Russia
(b) (A)–(ii); (B)–(i); 74. Which from the following is the
(C)–(iv); (D)–(iii) full title of the book written by
(c) (A)–(iii); (B)–(i); Hans J. Morgenthau?
(C)–(iv); (D)–(ii) (a) Politics Among Nations
(d) (A)–(i); (B)–(ii); (b) Politics Within Nations
(C)–(iii); (D) (iv) (c) Politics Among Nations: The
67. M a d a n M o h a n P u n c h h i Struggle for Power and Peace
Commission was appointed to (d) Politics Among Nations: The
study Struggle for Peace and Power
Solved Paper-II, June-2019
75. NITI Aayog is
(a) a staff agency
(b) a line agency
(c) an auxiliary agency
(d) neither staff nor line agency
76. Under the Lokpal and Lokayukta
Act a person can be appointed
Chairperson of Lokpal if he or she
(A) is or has been the Chief Justice
of India
(B) is or has been a Judge of the
Supreme Court
(C) is or has been an eminent person
(D) is or has been an administrator
with at least 10 years of
experience
Select the most suitable answer
from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (B) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (B), (C) and (D)
77. Look West Policy of India
advocated expansion and
extension of India’s relations with
(a) Western Countries
(b) European Union
(c) West Asian Countries
(d) Africa and Latin America
78. The term ‘flying bees’ got
associated with which of the
following associations?
(a) ASEAN
(b) SAARC
(c) Shanghai Cooperation Organi-
sation
(d) BRICS
79. Which one of the following
Commissions are statutory
bodies?
(A) N ational Commission for
Scheduled Tribes
(B) National Commission for
Human Rights
(C) National Commission for
Minorities
(D) N ational Commission for
Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer from the
given options:
Solved Paper-II, June-2019
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A) and (D)
(d) (B) and (C)
80. In Samuel P. Huntington’s
analysis, India is placed in which
one of the ‘waves of democrati-
zation’?
(a) First wave
(b) Second wave
(c) Third wave
(d) Fourth wave
81. Which of the following does
not form the basis of difference
between voluntary organizations
and NGOs?
(a) Philanthropy
(b) Membership
(c) Funding
(d) Commitment to the secular
and democratic ideals
82. Which of the following traits
have been introduced by the right
to information in the politico-
administrative system?
(A) Caution
(B) Care
(C) Vigilance
(D) Red-tapism
Select the most suitable answer
from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B) and (D)
83. Members of the Cabinet Mission
Plan were:
(a) Lord Pethick–Lawrence, Sir
Stafford Cripps and A. V.
Alexander
(b) Sir Stafford Cripps, A. V.
Alexander and Lord Wavell
(c) Lord Pethick–Lawrence, A. V.
Alexander and Lord Ripon
(d) Sir Stafford Cripps, Lord
Mountbatten and Lord
Pethick–Lawrence
84. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Nation and nationa-
lism can variedly be conceptualised
and defined but without being
generalized in common theorization.
Reason (R): There can be dis-
courses, not common theories, on
nation and nationalism.
On the basis of the two statements
choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) and true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
85. Chronologically arrange the
following parties in ascending
order in terms of their entry in
the democratic politics of India:
(A) Maharashtra Navnirman Sena
(B) Telangana Rashtra Samiti
(C) All India Trinamool Congress
(D) Nationalist Congress Party
Select the correct answer:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (C), (D), (B) and (A)
(c) (C), (D), (A) and (B)
(d) (D), (C), (B) and (A)
86. Which of the following are the
detrimental effects of corruption
on development?
(A) Lower level of social services
(B) Lower economic growth
(C) Higher tax burden and fewer
services
(D) Lower opportunities for farmers
to sell their product
Select the correct answer from the
options given below:
223
(a) (A) and (B) only
(b) (B) and (D) only
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
87. Arrange the introduction of
the following development
programmes in an ascending
order:
(A) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak
Yojana
(B) Indira Awas Yojana
(C) Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gram
Jyoti Yojana
(D) Atal Pension Yojana
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (B), (A), (D) and (C)
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (B), (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (D) and (C)
88. Who equated revolution with
‘fever’?
(a) Theda Skocpol
(b) Barrington Moore
(c) Crane Brinton
(d) Francine R. Frankel
89. Internal communication can be
(a) upward only
(b) downward only
(c) upward and downward only
(d) upward, downward and across
90. India was re-elected on the
executive board of which of the
following UN bodies in 2017?
(a) UNESCO (b) UNDP
(c) UNICEF (d) UNAID
91. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
(Authors)
(A) David Easton
(B) Lucian Pye
(C) Samuel P. Huntington
(D) Seymour Martin Lipset
List-II
(Terms)
(i) Development Syndrome
(ii) Political Man
(iii) Black Box
(iv) Waves of Democratization
 224
Choose the correct option from
those given below:
(a) (A)–(iii); (B)–(i);
(C)–(ii); (D)–(iv)
(b) (A)–(i); (B)–(iii);
(C)–(iv); (D)–(ii)
(c) (A)–(iii); (B)–(i);
(C)–(iv); (D)–(ii)
(d) (A)–(ii); (B)–(iii);
(C)–(iv); (D)–(i)
92. Which one of the following
theories is known as traditional
theory?
(a) Organisation theory
(b) Human relations theory
(c) Scientific management theory
(d) Bureaucratic theory
93. Which of the following appoint-
ments are made by the President
of India by warrant under his sign
and seal?
(A) Judges of the Supreme Court of
India
(B) Governor of a State
(C) Chairman of the Union Public
Service Commission
(D) Attorney-General of India
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A) and (B)
94. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
(Stages in the evolution of public
administration)
(A) Crisis of identity
(B) Era of challenge
(C) Principles of administration
(D) Politics-administration dicho-
tomy
List-II
(Period)
(i) 1938–1947
(ii) 1927–1937
(iii) 1887–1926
(iv) 1948–1970
Choose the correct option from
those given below:
(a) (A)–(ii); (B)–(i);
(C)–(iii); (D)–(iv)
(b) (A)–(iv); (B)–(i);
98. Which one of the following
(C)–(ii); (D)–(iii)
(c) (A)–(iv); (B)–(ii);
(C)–(i); (D)–(iii)
(d) (A)–(iv); (B)–(iii);
(C)–(ii); (D)–(i)
95. The term ‘ABCD’ is primarily
associated with which one of the
following?
(a) Formation of States
(b) Reorganization of States
(c) Decentralization of States
(d) Institutionalization of States
96. Arrange the following committees
in chronological order:
99. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g
(A) Satish Chandra Committee
(B) Hota Committee
(C) Kothari Committee
(D) Yoginder K. Alagh Committee
Select the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (C), (A), (D) and (B)
(d) (B), (D), (A) and (C)
100. The Clash of Civilization thesis
(d) (D), (C), (A) and (B)
97. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): There is no ideal
number of persons a supervisor can
supervise.
Reason (R): Span of control varies
depending on factors like function
time, space and delegation of
authority.
Solved Paper-II, June-2019
On the basis of the two statements
choose the correct answer from
the codes given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
is NOT true with regard to
BREXIT?
(a) BREXIT refers to the UK
leaving the European Union
(b) Association with EU has in-
curred huge economic pres-
sure leading to unemployment
in UK
(c) The issue of BREXIT led to
the resignation of PM David
Cameroon
(d) The young voters have primarily
voted in favour of BREXIT
predicted that bureaucracy is
likely to go out of use in the wake
of new social systems better suited
to the 20th century demands of
industrialization?
(a) Warren Bennis
(b) Max Weber
(c) Peter Blau
(d) Martin Albrow
means:
(a) Religious clashes would be a
core area of study
(b) a rejection of the cultural and
political inheritance of the
West
(c) widespread disagreement over
moral issues
(d) conflict would not be primarily
ideological or economic but,
rather cultural in character
Solved Paper-II, June-2019
Answers with Explanations
1. (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak started
two newspapers, first one is Maratha
in English language and second one is
Kesari in Marathi language. Harijan was
published by Mahatma Gandhi. Sudharak
was founded by G.G. Agarkar.
2. (a) A Great & Terrible World: The
Pre-Prison Letters, 1908–26 belongs
to Antonio Gramsci. The letters in this
book are of three types: early letters
to Gramsci’s family; overtly political
letters from Turin, Moscow, Vienna,
and Rome; and letters to the Schucht
sisters, including Giulia, whom he
married while in Moscow. The political
letters constitute a fascinating insight
into the period, both with regard to the
Communist International and, more
often, to Italian politics.
3. (b) Plato was the first to use
dialectic method in Political philosophy.
Dialectic method is at base a discourse
between two or more people holding
different points of view about a subject
but wishing to establish the truth through
reasoned arguments.
4. (a) Mahatma Gandhi believed that
Religion should be integral to politics.
According to his religion have moral
values that can prevent political from
involving in corrupt activities. He
believed that religion can guide political
leaders to work for the welfare of the
people as a service.
5. (d) Democratic Socialism does not
involve radical changes. It basically calls
for the gradual establishment of a welfare
state. The Democratic socialism tries to
make a balance among the two extremist
poles of Capitalism and Communism.
6. (b) The Feminist thinker suggest
that the women value in society is derived
from the prescribed social role. The
social discrimination or social inequality
is the root cause behind the impoveri-
shment of women in any society.
7. (c) Silent Spring book was published
by Rachel Carson in 1962. This book is
centered around the idea of Environmental
science. It documents the adverse environ-
mental effects caused by the indiscriminate
use of pesticides.
8. (a) According to J.S. Mill ‘placing
restrictions on freedom of expressions
of human beings is like robbing off the
present and the future races.’ He wrote
this in his famous work ‘On Liberty’.
9. (a) The immigrating ethnic cultural
groups which never get the opportunity to
become citizens under multiculturalism
are called metics. Metics were free
resident aliens who lived permanently in
the city. The majority of metics had come
to Athens to benefit from the Athenian
economic miracle, and were usually
involved in commerce. It is noteworthy
that ancient sources contrast metics not
with the citizens but with the townsfolk.
10. (a) Pareto efficiency or Pareto
optimality is a state of allocation of
resources from which it is impossible to
reallocate so as to make any one individual
or preference criterion better off without
making at least one individual or preference
criterion worse off.
11. (c) The book, Multicultural Citizen-
ship: A Liberal Theory of Minority Rights
was published in 1995 by Will Kymlicka.
Multicultural Citizenship focuses on both
theory and on a contemporary problem -
that of multiculturalism and group rights.
Attempts to provide a model and policy
guidelines.
12. (b) Mao Zedong said that ‘Political
work is the life-blood of all economic
work.’ This is particularly true at a time
when the social and economic system is
undergoing fundamental change.
13. (d) Gandhi believes in the Idea
of Truth and Non-Violence. He never
supported lie or violence as a peace to
achieve any end. He propagated that end
and means both should be justified.
14. (a) In Machiavellian thought end
justifies the means. Because according
to Machiavelli the key objective of the
Prince was to bring unity and integrity
of the State. Hence, achieving this end
justifies all the wrong measures taken by
the prince.
15. (a) The Idea of Justice as fairness
in Rawlsian theory flows from individual.
Rawls never wished to compromise with
the individual liberty.
225
16. (a)
(Books) (Thinkers)
Marx, Gandhi and – Ram Manohar
Socialism Lohia
Gandhi and – B.R. Ambedkar
Gandhism
Savitri: A Legend – Aurobindo
and a Symbol
Gitanjali – Rabindranath
Tagore
17. (a)
List–I List–II
Late Capitalism – Fredric
Jameson
Deconstructionism – Jacques
Derrida
Collapse of grand – Lyotard
Narrative
Concept of – Michel
knowledge and Foucault
power
18. (d) Rousseau in his social contract
noted that “The people of England regards
itself as free; but it is grossly mistaken;
it is free only during the election of
members of parliament. As soon as they
are elected, slavery overtakes it, and it is
nothing.”
19. (d) 72 Prakrities of Mandal Theory
of State are enumerated by Kautilya.
20. (c) Black Skin, White Masks
book is written by Frantz Fanon in year
1952. The book is written in the style of
auto-theory, which Fanon shares his own
experiences in addition to presenting
a historical critique of the effects of
racism and dehumanization, inherent in
situations of colonial domination, on the
human psyche.
21. (a) Karl Marx was Born in Trier,
Germany, on 5 May 1818. He was a
German philosopher, economist, historian,
sociologist, political theorist, journalist
and socialist revolutionary. Marx studied
law and philosophy at university.
22. (c) Hegel believed that art, religion
and philosophy differ only in form, their
purpose is the same.
23. (a) Integral humanism, coined by
Deendayal Upadhyay, means that the
human being is at the core position of
 226
the social, political and economic model.
It is opposed to both Western liberalism
and Marxian socialism which it views
as materialistic ideologies incapable of
dealing with native problems. It believes
that the four aims (Purusharthas) of
human beings are Dharma, Artha,
Kaama and Moksha.
24. (*) Answer not provided by UGC
for this question as the option were
incorrect.
25. (b) Ramabriksh Benipuri wrote the
biography of social activist and political
leader Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan
named Jayaprakash.
26. (d) Pandita Ram Bai was given
the title of ‘Pandita’ for her excellence
in Sanskrit. She was considered as a
significant Sanskrit scholar of her era.
27. (b) Hobbes while describing the
human nature in his theory of social
contract stated that “the life of man is
solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short.”
28. (d) Rosa Luxemburg was a Polish
libertarian Marxist, philosopher, econo-
mist, anti-war activist and revolutionary
socialist. She was not related to school of
Neo-Marxism.
29. (d)
30. (a) Aggana sutta is the 27th Sutta
of the Digha Nikaya collection. The
sutta describes a discourse imparted by
the Buddha to two brahmins, Bharadvaja
and Vasettha, who left their family and
caste to become monks.
31. (a) Rajni Kothari in his famous
work ‘Caste and Politics in Indian
Society’ used the term “Politicization
of Caste’ to present the image of Indian
Socio- Political nature.
32. (d) A Varshney in his work ‘Is
India becoming more Democratic’ discu-
ssed the three democratic upsurges in the
democratic politics of India.
33. (b) Primordialism holds that ethni-
city has existed at all times of human
history and that modern ethnic groups have
historical continuity into the far past. Class
in not a component of Primordialism.
34. (b) Under Indus Water Treaty
between India and Pakistan, the Indus
river system is divided among the two
nation. India got the exclusive right over
Ravi, Beas, and Satluj.
35. (b) India and EU have established
Investment Facilitation Mechanism for
furthering trade ties. The mechanism will
allow for a close coordination between
the EU and India with an aim to promote
and facilitate EU investment in India.
36. (a) In India taxes which are levied
by the Union but collected and appro-
priated by the States are excise duties
on medicinal and toilet preparations
containing alcohol, stamp duties on bills
of exchange, cheques, promissory notes
and others.
37. (c) The Palestine Liberation Organi-
zation, or PLO, was first founded in 1964
during a summit in Cairo, Egypt. The
organization’s initial goals were to unite
various Arab groups and create a liberated
Palestine in Israel.
38. (a) Vilfredo Pareto proposed the
concept of ‘Circulation of Elite’. The
‘circulation of elite’ is the process in
which one elite replaces the another.
This elite will be overthrown by another
group of elite that has superior qualities.
Circulation of Elite is often used as
‘Rotation of Elite’.
39. (b) The 1997 Kyoto Protocol is
an agreement under the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC). It is the world’s
only legally binding treaty to reduce
greenhouse emissions.
40. (c) On March 27, India announced
that it had successfully conducted an
anti-satellite (ASAT) missile test, called
“Mission Shakti.” After the United
States, Russia and China, India is now
the fourth country in the world to have
demonstrated this capability.
41. (c) The United Kingdom has stren-
gthened its investments in India to become
the largest single western investor, while
British companies have created over
422,000 jobs in India since the turn of the
century.
42. (a)
(Authors)   (Books)
Granville Austin – The Indian
Constitution:
Cornerstone of
a Nation
Morris Jones – The
Government
and Politics of
India
Solved Paper-II, June-2019
M.V. Pylee – Constitutional
Government in
India
Ivor Jennings – Some
Characteristics
of Indian
Constitution
43. (b) Amartya Sen proposed the
capability approach of human develo-
pment. He believes that the development
of Human Capabilities is the most
important form of human development.
He said that “The poor are poor... not
because of what they do not have, but
because of what they cannot do.”
44. (a) Adolf Hitler has quoted that
“When diplomacy ends, war begins”.
45. (c) As per latest publication from
Election Commission of India, the total
number of parties registered was 1841,
with 8 national parties, 52 state parties
and 1785 unrecognised parties. There is
no category of Regional Parties.
46. (b) Birsa Munda was an Indian
tribal freedom fighter, religious leader,
and folk hero who belonged to the Munda
tribe. His portrait hangs in the Indian
Parliament Museum; he is the only tribal
leader to have been so honored.
47. (c) Stasiology is the study of
Political Parties.
48. (c) The distinction between public
administration and private administration
has been attempted by thinker like Paul
Appleby, L. D. White and Sir Josia
Stamp in their theory of administration.
49. (b) Original jurisdiction of a court
refers to a matter for which the particular
court is approached first. In the case of
the Supreme Court in India, its original
jurisdiction is covered under Article 131. It
involves the following cases: Any dispute
between the Indian Government and one
or more states. Any dispute between the
Indian Government and one or more states
on one side and one or more states on the
other side. Any dispute between two or
more states. Article 32 of the Constitution
provides original jurisdiction to the SC
for matters regarding the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights, etc.
50. (a) India and ASEAN countries
are holding consultations on the extension
of 1,360 km India–Myanmar–Thailand
highway—from Moreh in India to Mae
Sot in Thailand to Laos, Cambodia and
Vietnam.
Solved Paper-II, June-2019
51. (a) The Book ‘The Intellectual
Crisis in American Public Administration’
was written by Vincent Ostrom in 1974.
This book’s central theme is ‘Public
Choice approach’.
52. (a) Harit Pradesh is a proposed
new state of India comprising the western
parts of Uttar Pradesh state. Harit means
Green which signifies the agricultural
prosperity of the region and Pradesh
means state.
53. (d) India is among those few
countries which had not signed the NPT
and CTBT. India refused to sign them
because of discriminatory nature of these
treaties. India consider them as against
the Indian Nuclear Policy.
54. (a) Frank Marini in his book
‘Toward a New Public Administration’
summarizes the themes of new public
administration under five heads:
relevance, values, social equity, change
and client-focus.
55. (d) In Berubari case despite the
recognition of the significance of the
Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically
opined that Preamble is not a part of the
Constitution. But, in the Kesavananda
Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court
rejected the earlier opinion and held that
Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
56. (c) The fundamental difference
between institutionalism and new institu-
tionalism would primarily be located
on the principle of experimentation.
New institutionalism support the idea of
experimentation.
57. (c) International humanitarian law,
or jus in bello, is the law that governs the
way in which warfare is conducted. IHL
is purely humanitarian, seeking to limit
the suffering caused. It is independent
from questions about the justification
or reasons for war, or its prevention,
covered by jus ad bellum.
58. (c) 91st Amendment of the Indian
constitution limits the number of Council
of Ministers at the Centre and the States
to no more than 15 percent.
59. (d) Plan Holidays is a gap between
two-five years plan, i.e. 1979–1980
and 1990–92. 2. It was a stop-gap
arrangement by the provisions of annual
plans. Plan holidays took place due to
a change in government to be locked in
development goals and priorities etc.
60. (c) The Nodal agency of National
Human Rights Commission of India is
the Ministry of Home Affairs. It is an
autonomous agency but comes just Home
ministry.
61. (*) A total of 13 Intangible cultural
heritage (ICH) elements from India have
been inscribed till date on the UNESCO’s
Representative List of the Intangible
Cultural Heritage of Humanity. Kumbh
is recently added to the list of Intangible
Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
62. (*) No Answer is Provided by
UGC for this question as the option
provided are false.
63. (b)
(Writs) (Meanings)
Habeas corpus – You should have
the body
Mandamus – To command
Certiorari – To Inform
Quo warranto – By what warrant
64. (b) According to Ms Follett, there
are three ways to respond to conflict:
Dominance, Compromise and Integration.
Dominance means victory of one side
over the other. Compromise means each
party having to give up something for the
sake of a meaningful reduction of friction.
Integration, the option championed by
Follett, means creatively incorporating
the parties’ fundamental desires/interests
into the solution.
65. (a) According to F.W. Taylor
“Scientific management is the substitution
of exact scientific investigations and
knowledge for the old individual judgment
or opinion in all matters relating to the
work done in the shop”. The key features
of Scientific management are Functional
foremanship, Separation of planning and
execution and Differential piecework
plan.
66. (a)
(Systems) (Articles)
Electoral system – 324–329
Services under – 308–323
the Union and
States
Panchayats Raj – 243–243
Judicial system – 124–147
at Union level
67. (a) The Government of India con-
stituted a Commission on Centre-State
Relations under the chairmanship of
Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi, former
227
Chief Justice of India on 27th April 2007
to look into the new issues of Centre-State
relations keeping in view the changes
that have taken place in the polity and
economy of India.
68. (c) India and Japan has signed
Comprehensive Economic Partnership
Agreement in 2011 to enhance the
economic partnership among two nations.
69. (d) The salad bowl concept suggests
that the integration of the many different
cultures of United States residents combine
like a salad, as opposed to the more
traditional notion of a cultural melting pot.
UK is not a fruit bowl.
70. (a)
71. (a) The phrase ‘gross national
happiness’ was first coined by the 4th
King of Bhutan, King Jigme Singye
Wangchuck, in 1972 when he declared,
“Gross National Happiness is more
important than Gross Domestic Product.”
72. (d) Second Administrative
Reforms Commission which was consti-
tuted in 2005, has recommended the
creation of a District Council in every
district with representatives from both
urban and rural areas.
73. (d) On 30 November 1996, India
signed a US$1.462 billion deal with
Sukhoi for 50 Russian-produced Su-
30MKIs in five batches.
74. (c) ‘Politics Among Nations: The
Struggle for Power and Peace’ is a political
science book by Hans Morgenthau
published in 1948. The book introduces
the concept of political realism, presenting
a realist view of power politics.
75. (a) Staff agency perform secondary
function as they merely help, support and
advise the line agencies to achieve their
purpose. Hence, Niti Aayog is a Staff
Agency which support the functioning of
Government of India.
76. (c) Under the Lokpal and Lokayukta
Act a person can be appointed Chairperson
of Lokpal if he or she is or has been the
Chief Justice of India, or has been a Judge
of the Supreme Court or has been an
eminent person.
77. (c) The ‘Look West Policy’ of India
is to better India’s cooperation and relations
with West Asian Nation. It Include the
area of middle east. It is launched by Modi
government.
 228
78. (a) The term ‘flying bees’ got
associated with ASEAN.
79. (d) The National Human Rights
Commission of India is a Statutory
public body constituted on 12 October
1993 under the Protection of Human
Rights Ordinance of 28 September
1993. It was given a statutory basis by
the Protection of Human Rights Act,
1993. The Union Government set up
the National Commission for Minorities
(NCM) under the National Commission
for Minorities Act, 1992. Five religious
communities, viz; Muslims, Christians,
Sikhs, Buddhists and Zoroastrians
(Parsis) have been notified as minority
communities by the Union Government.
80. (b) Second wave of democracy
was started after the end of the Second
World War. Countries like India, Sri
Lanka, etc became a democracy during
this wave of democracy.
81. (d) Commitment to the secular
and democratic ideals does not form the
basis of difference between voluntary
organizations and NGOs.
82. (b) The right to information has
introduced Caution, Care and Vigilance
in Indian politico-administrative system.
It also removed the problem of Red
tapism. The Right to Information Act has
enhanced to public service capability of
government organisations.
83. (a) The members of the Cabinet
Mission were: Lord Penthick-Lawrence,
Secretary of State for India, Sir Stafford
Cripps, President of the Board of Trade,
and A.V. Alexander, First Lord of the
Admiralty.
84. (a) Yes, The concept of Nation
and nationalism can variedly be
conceptualised and defined but without
being generalized in common theorization
because there can be discourses, but
not common theories, on nation and
nationalism.
85. (c) The Year of entry of following
Political Parties into Indian Politics are:
Maharashtra Navnirman Sena – 2006
Telangana Rashtra Samithi – 2001
All India Trinamool Congress – 1998
Nationalist Congress Party – 1999
86. (d) Many countries with emerging
economies suffer from a high level
of corruption that slows their overall
development. The entire society is
affected as a result of the inefficient
allocation of resources, the presence
of a shadow economy, and low-quality
education and healthcare. Corruption
leads to Lower level of social services,
Lower economic growth, Higher tax
burden and fewer services and Lower
opportunities for farmers to sell their
product.
87. (a) The correct order of the Policies
launched is:
Indira Awas Yojana – 1997
Pradhan Mantri – 2000
Gram Sadak Yojana
Atal Pension Yojana – 2015
Deen Dayal Upadhyay – 2015
Gram Jyoti Yojana
88. (c) In his book, ‘Anatomy of
Revolution’, Crane Brinton compares
revolution to a fever. Brinton breaks
down the revolution into three entities:
the symptoms, the fever itself, which is
the manipulation of revolution, and the
break of the fever, when things more or
less return to normal.
89. (d) Formal communication is
designed by the management. It is an
official communication which takes place
through the line of authority or chain of
command. The most important types
of direction in formal communication
are Downward, Upward, Horizontal or
Lateral and Diagonal or Crosswise.
90. (a) India was re-elected as a
member of UNESCO’s executive board
on 9 November 2017. The election was
held at the 39th session of the General
Conference of the United Nations
Educational, Scientific and Cultural
Organisation in Paris. The executive
board is the top decision-making body of
the international organisation.
91. (c)
  (Authors) (Terms)
David Easton – Black Box
Lucian Pye – Development
Syndrome
Samuel P. – Waves of
Huntington Democratization
Seymour – Political Man
Martin Lipset
92. (a) Organisational Theory is
considered as Traditional theory. The
traditional approach looks at public
Solved Paper-II, June-2019
administration from three different pers-
pectives including managerial approach,
political approach, and legal approach;
each arising in a particular political
context and emphasizing different values.
93. (d) Comptroller and Audit-General,
judges of the Supreme Court and governors
are appointed by the President of India by
warrant under his hand and seal. This is
enshrined in Article 155 of the Constitution
of India.
94. (b) There are five stages in the
chronology of the evolution of Public
Administration as a discipline:
Stage 1: politics administration dicho-
tomy (1887–1926)
Stage 2: principles of administration
(1927–1937)
Stage 3: era of challenge (1938–1947)
Stage 4: crises of identity (1948–1970)
Stage 5: public policy perspective
(1970–Present).
95. (a) ABCD are the categories of
States in India at the time of Independence.
These categories were assigned to them
on the basis of their formation.
96. (b) The correct chronological
order of the following Committees is:
Kothari Committee – 1964
Satish Chandra Committee – 1989
Yoginder K. Alagh – 2001
Committee
Hota Committee – 2004
97. (a) There is no ideal number of
persons a supervisor can supervise.
Because Span of control in an organisation
varies depending on factors like function
time, space and delegation of authority.
98. (d) There is no evidence to establish
that the young voters have primarily
voted in favour of BREXIT. It is just an
assumption.
99. (a) Warren Bennis predicted that
bureaucracy is likely to go out of use in
the wake of new social systems better
suited to the 20th century demands of
industrialization.
100. (d) The Clash of Civilizations is
a hypothesis that people’s cultural and
religious identities will be the primary
source of conflict in the post-Cold War
world. The American political scientist
Samuel P. Huntington argued that future
wars would be fought not between
countries, but between cultures.
qqq
Solved Paper-II, December-2019
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Solved Paper-II, December-2019
1. Arrange the following of UN
system in their chronological
order:
(i) International Bank for Recon-
struction and Development
(ii) Multilateral Investment Guaran-
tee Agency
(iii) International Finance Cor-
poration
(iv) International Development
Association
Choose the correct option:
(a) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(c) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(d) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
2. Which of the following are the
salient features of Draft National
Water Policy 2012?
(i) Setting up of Water Regulatory
Authority
(ii) Incentivisation of recycle and
re-use
(iii) Community participation in
managing the water resources
projects
(iv) Water users association should
be given statutory powers
Choose the correct option from
below:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
3. Who had differentiated between
natural and conventional inequality?
(a) Hobbes
(b) Locke
(c) Rousseau
(d) Bentham
4. Who had condemned utilitarianism
in his Theory of justice?
(a) Plato (b) Hayek
(c) Rawls (d) Milton
5. The book “Aspects of Political
Development” is written by
(a) Lucian Pye
(b) G.A. Almond
(c) G.H. Sabine
(d) Maurice Duverger
6. Match List–I with List–II:
List–I List–II
 (Thinker) (Work)
A. Mary 1. The Wretched
Wollsto- of the Earth
necraft
B. Gramsci 2. Political
Liberalism
C. Frantz 3. Vindication of
Fanon the Rights of
Women
D. John 4. The Prison
Rawls Notebook
Choose the correct option from
given below:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
7. Who is not a supporter of Liber-
tarianism?
(a) Robert Nozick
(b) Milton Friedman
(c) Robert Dahl
(d) F.A. Hayek
8. Which of the following statements
are true regarding the composition
of Rajya Sabha?
(A) Not more than 238 members
represent States and Union
territories in Rajya Sabha
(B) Representatives of Puducherry in
the Rajya Sabha are elected
229
(C) Third Schedule of the Constitution
deals with the allocation of seats
in Rajya Sabha to States
(D) F o u r t h S c h e d u l e o f t h e
Constitution deals with the
allocation of seats in Rajya
Sabha to states
Choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (C)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)
9. Which of the following two state-
ments regarding World Trade
Organization are correct?
(A) It is the only international
organization dealing with
global trade rules between
nations
(B) It was established in 1996
(C) Its Headquarters is in Geneva
(D) It employs some 650 staff
Choose the correct options:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (C) and (D)
(d) (A) and (D)
10. Rigg’s Fused model is based on:
(A) dependence on agriculture
(B) attainment value in society
(C) domination of royal family
(D) economic system based on
barter system
Choose the right option:
(a) (A), (C), (D)
(b) (A), (B)
(c) (B), (C), (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C)
11. When did International Labour
Organization become a specialized
agency of the United Nations
Organization?
 230
(a) 1945 (b) 1946
(c) 1947 (d) 1948
12. Which of the following freedoms
was not mentioned by Roosevelt?
(a) Freedom of speech
(b) Freedom of worship
(c) Freedom from fear
(d) Freedom against exploitation
13. Who is the author of the book
“Escape from Freedom”?
(a) Herbert Marcuse
(b) Erich Fromm
(c) Jurgen Habermas
(d) Thomas Friedman
14. Under which constitutional
provision, elections to Panchayati
Raj Bodies are conducted in India?
(a) Article 243 J
(b) Article 243 K
(c) Article 243 L
(d) Article 243 M
15. Arthashastra is known as
(a) Shruti (b) Smriti
(c) Samhita (d) Nitishastra
16. Given below are the two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A), and
the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): According to
Plato, human soul consists of
three elements - Reason, spirit and
aptitude
Reason (R): The state is the
individual writ large
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not correct explanation
of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
17. Agganna Sutta deals with:
(1) Origin of life
(2) Origin of social order and
castes
(3) Origin of secularism
(4) Origin of six fold policy
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (1) only
(b) (2) only
(c) (1) and (2)
(d) (1), (2) and (4)
18. Which of the following two are
correct?
(1) Plato laid more emphasis on
duties than rights
(2) His ideal state was merely an
idea not reality
(3) He was not a feminist
(4) He did speak about class state
Choose the correct option:
(a) (1) and (2)
(b) (1) and (3)
(c) (1) and (4)
(d) (2) and (3)
19. In which year UNESCO was set
up?
(a) 1945 (b) 1946
(c) 1947 (d) 1948
20. Two statements are given below.
One is Assertion (A) and other is
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Herbert Simon
rejected Principles of Administration
Reason (R): For Simon, these are
merely proverbs
Choose the correct options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not correct explanation
of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
21. Which of the following statements
about the powers of the President
is correct?
(a) He presides over the meetings
of the Zonal Councils
(b) He is the head of the Inter-State
Council
(c) He can disqualify a member
of Parliament under Art. 102
on the recommendation of the
Election Commission
(c) H e c a n d e c l a r e n a t i o n a l
emergency at his discretion
22. Which of the following statements
about National Health Policy,
2017 are correct?
Solved Paper-II, December-2019
(1) It aims to ensure availability of
2 beds per 1000 population
(2) It proposes free drugs, free
diagnostics and free emergency
health care services in all public
hospitals
(3) Reduction of total fertility rate
to 2.1 at national and sub-
national level by 2025
(4) Reduce mortality rate of
children under 5 years of age
to 23 (per 1000) by 2020
Choose the correct option from
below:
(a) (1), (2) and (3)
(b) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(c) (1) and (2)
(d) (3) and (4)
23. Which of the following statements
about the significance of public
policy is correct?
(1) Public policies help in achieving
socio-economic development
(2) Public policies help maintain
national unity and integrity
(3) It’s basic purpose is to serve
individual interest and solve
public problems
(4) Public policy aims at shaping
the society for its betterment
Choose the correct option from
below:
(a) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(b) (2), (3) and (4)
(c) (1), (2) and (4)
(d) (1), (2) and (3)
24. Which Article of the Indian
Constitution provides power
to the President to promulgate
ordinances?
(a) Article 123
(b) Article 221
(c) Article 222
(d) Article 223
25. The term “Sanskritisation” was
coined by
(a) M.N. Srinivas
(b) M.S. Golwalkar
(c) S.P. Mukherjee
(d) Andre Beteille
Solved Paper-II, December-2019
26. Ram Manohar Lohia was opposed
to:
(1) Capitalism
(2) Communism
(3) Socialism
(4) Decentralisation of powers
Select the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) (1) and (2)
(b) (3) and (4)
(c) (1), (2) and (3)
(d) (2), (3) and (4)
27. Two statements are given below.
One is a Assertion (A) and the
other is Reason (R):
Assertion (A): United Nations
Organisation was established on 24
October 1945
Reason (R): Its main object is to
establish world peace and security
Choose the correct options:
(a) (A) and (R) both are correct
and (R) is correct explanation
of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but
(R) is not correct explanation of
(A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
28. Which one of the following is
incorrect statement?
(a) Globalisation means interna-
tionalization of economy
(b) Globalisation gives emphasis
on market economy
(c) Globalization gives rise to
international institutions to
supervise economy
(d) G l o b a l i s a t i o n t e n d s t o
perpetuate parochial culture
29. Which of the following two state-
ments are true regarding Indo-
Pak relations on Kashmir?
(1) The Security Council first
discussed the issue of Jammu
and Kashmir in 1948
(2) A summit meeting took place
in 2004 in Islamabad between
A.B. Vajpayee and Pervez
Musharraf
231
(3) A bus service across the Choose the correct options:
ceasefire line was inaugurated (a) (1) and (3)
in 2006 (b) (1) and (4)
(4) Terrorist attack on Samjhauta (c) (1) and (2)
Express was made in 2007 (d) (2) and (3)
Choose the correct options: 33. Make a sequence of Decision-
(a) (1) and (2) making approach:
(b) (1) and (3) (1) Search for information
(c) (1) and (4) (2) Problem recognition
(3) Selection of alternative
(d) (3) and (4)
(4) Definition of alternative
30. Match the following: Select the right option:
    List–A     List–B (a) (1), (3), (4), (2)
(A) Common High (i) Art. 229 (b) (2), (4), (1), (3)
Court for two (c) (2), (1), (3), (4)
or more states (d) (2), (1), (4), (3)
(B) Transfer of (ii) Art. 233 34. “Distributive Justice is mainly
certain cases to concerned with distribution of
High Court honours or wealth”. Who said it?
(C) Appointment of (iii) Art. 231 (a) Plato (b) Aristotle
District Judges (c) Marx (d) Gramsci
35. Two statements are given below.
(D) Administrative (iv) Art. 228 One is Assertion (A) and other is
expenses of Reason (R):
High Courts Assertion (A): Simla Pact was
Choose the correct options: signed by India and Pakistan in 1972
(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)- Reason (R): It provides that the two
(i) countries will solve their disputes
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)- through mediation of other countries
Choose the correct options:
(iii)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (d)-
and (R) is correct explanation
(ii)
of (A)
(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but
(i)
(R) is not correct explanation of
31. Which constitutional provision
(A)
provides for formation of a Gram
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
Sabha?
(d) is wrong but (R) is correct
(a) Article 243 A
36. Which incident made Periyar an
(b) Article 243 B Atheist?
(c) Article 243 C (a) Self Respect Movement
(d) Article 243 D (b) Kashi Pilgrimage Incident
32. Which of the following two (c) Dravida National Movement
statements are correct regarding (d) Discrimination in society
Chinese policy of “Theory of Palm 37. Who said, “Every state is known
and five fingers”? by the rights that it maintains”?
(1) It includes Bhutan and Nepal (a) Laski (b) Green
(2) It includes Arunachal Pradesh, (c) Hegel (d) Barker
Sikkim and Laddakh 38. Which among the following is the
(3) It includes Mizoram and Manipur full title of the book written by
(4) It includes Tripura and Nagaland Mary Wollstonecraft?
 232 Solved Paper-II, December-2019
(a) A Vindication of the Rights of 43. Match List–I with the List–II (c) (1), (3)
Women regarding terrorism: (d) (1), (3), (4)
(b) A Vindication of the Rights     List–I     List–II 45. Arrange the following four reports
of Women with strictures on (A) Convention (i) 1999 of Second Administrative Reforms
political and moral subjects on offences Commission in their sequential
and certain order:
(c) Reflections on the French
other acts (1) Right to Information
Revolution committed on
(d) A Vindication of the Rights of (2) Unlocking Human capital
Board Aircraft
(3) Crisis Management
Human Beings (Tokyo)
(4) Ethics in Governance
39. The best propounder of Pluralist (B) Convention for (ii) 1997
Choose the correct option:
Theory of Citizenship was suppression
of unlawful (a) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(a) T.H. Marshal
acts against (b) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(b) Anthony Giddens
the safety of (c) (1), (4), (2), (3)
(c) B.S. Turner
Civil Aviation (d) (3), (1), (4), (2)
(d) David Held (Montreal) 46. Which of the following pairs are
40. The Comptroller and Auditor
(C) International (iii) 1971 correctly matched?
General of India can undertake Convention for (1) John Rawls - Egalitarian
evaluation studies on the basis of suppression (2) Plato - Idealist
which of the following? of Terrorist (3) Mary
(1) On its own initiative Bombing
Wollstonecraft - Communist
(2) The request of financial (D) International (iv) 1963 (4) Gramsci – Feminist
committees Convention for
Choose the correct answer from
(3) Directive in legislation Suppression of
Financing of the options given below:
(4) The request of the Organization (a) (1) and (2)
Terrorism
and Methods division of a (b) (2) and (3)
Ministry Choose the correct options:
(c) (3) and (4)
Choose the correct option from (a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-
(d) (3) and (1)
below: (iv)
47. Who defined leadership as “the
(a) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-
ability of a manager to induce
(b) (1), (2) and (4) (i)
subordinates to work with zeal
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)- and confidence”?
(c) (2), (3) and (4)
(i) (a) Koontz and O’Donnell
(d) (1), (2) and (3)
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii). (C)-(iv), (D)-
41. The sequencing of communication (b) Chester Bernard
(i)
process in organisation is: (c) M.P. Follet
44. Which statements are true about
(a) Sender, message, receiver, (d) Peter Drucker
an Election Commissioner?
encoding 48. Match List–I with List–II:
(1) He is appointed by President
(b) Message, channel, feedback,    List–I List–II
(2) He can be removed from office
encoding   (School of (Thinkers)
on same grounds as a Judge of Modernization)
(c) Sender, encoding, decoding, Supreme Court
receiver (A) Psychological (i) Daninel
(3) He can be removed by the President
School Lerner
(d) Sender, encoding, message, only on recommendations of Chief
channel (B) Normative (ii) Mahatma
Election Commissioner
School Gandhi
42. Who had formed the “Society for (4) His term of office is six years
right to die with dignity”? (C) Structural (iii) G.A.
or upto the age of 65 whichever
School Almond
(a) Jai Prakash Narayan is earlier
(b) Minoo Masani Choose the correct answer: (D) Technological (iv) David
(c) Krishna Ayyar (a) (1), (2) School Apter
(d) Medha Patkar Options (b) (2), (3)
Solved Paper-II, December-2019 233
Choose the correct answer from 54. Match the following: Choose the correct option from
below: List–A    List–B below:
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii) and (a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(A) Absolute (i) When a bill is
(D)-(iv) Veto returned for (b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv) and reconsider- (c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
(D)-(i) ation (d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i) and (B) Qualified (ii) President 56. Arrange these in a chronological
Veto cannot order:
(D)-(iii)
withhold (1) Benn and RS Peters’ Social
(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii) and
assent if Bill Principles and Democratic
(D)-(iv)
is adopted State
49. When was Jaiprakash Narayan again by the (2) John Rawls’ A Theory of
awarded Bharat Ratna? Houses Justice
(a) 1999 (b) 1998 (C) Suspensive (iii) President (3) Susan Mollerokin’s Justice
(c) 1997 (d) 1996 Veto may either Gender and Family
50. The author of the book “Nation assent or
(4) Rousseau’s Social Contract
and Nationalism” is refuse to
give assent Choose the correct option from
(a) Ernest Gellner below:
without any
(b) Hans J. Morganthau (a) (4), (2), (1), (3)
time limit
(c) J.S. Coleman (b) (1), (4), (2) and (3)
(D) Pocket (iv) Power to say
(d) Rajni Kothari Veto “no” to a bill (c) (2), (1), (3) and (4)
51. Arrange the following Institutions/ passed by (d) (3), (2), (4) and (1)
Organizations in chronological both Houses 57. Which of the following two are
order: Select the right code:
correct?
(i) BRICS Development Bank (a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) (1) According to August Comte,
(ii) IBSA (b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) the principal methods are
(ii) G-7 (c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii) observation, experiment and
(iv) G-20 (d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i) comparison
Choose the correct option: 55. Match List–I with List–II: (2) According to Bluntschli, the
(a) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i) true methods are philosophical
  List–I List–II
(b) (i), (ii), (ii), (iv) and historical
  (Author) (Book)
(c) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (3) Very few thinkers are pragmatic
(A) Paul H (i) Principles
(d) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i) and inductive methods in
Appleby of Public
52. Kyoto Protocol was enforced in: contemporary times
Administr-
(a) 1997 (b) 2000 ation (4) John Rawls had used deductive
and dogmatic methods
(c) 2005 (d) 2006 (B) John M (ii) Idens and
Gaus, L.D. issues in Choose the correct options:
53. On which of the following grounds
White Public (a) (1) and (2)
Writ of Certiorari can be issued
and M.E. Administr- (b) (1) and (3)
by the Judiciary?
Dimock ation (c) (1) and (4)
(1) Lack of jurisdiction
(C) W.F. (iii) Morality and (d) (2) and (3)
(2) Locus Standi
Willoughby Administr- 58. Given below are two statements,
(3) Excess of jurisdiction one labelled as Assertion (A) and
ation in
(4) Error of law Democratic the other labelled as Reason (R):
Choose the correct option from Government Assertion (A): Aristotle was the
below: first thinker to adopt inductive
(D) Dwight (iv) The
(a) (a), (b) and (c) Waldo Frontiers method but it was accidental
(b) (a), (b) and (d) of Public Reason (R): In case of Machiavelli
(c) (a) and (b) Administr- use of Inductive method was
(d) (a) and (c) ation intentional
 234
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) is correct explanation
of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not correct explanation
of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
59. On which of the following date,
India joined as a member of the
United Nations Human Rights
Council?
(a) 1 August 2019
(b) 1 June 2019
(c) 1 January 2019
(d) 1 July 2019
60. Which of the following writers are
from Italy?
(i) Vilfredo Pareto
(ii) Gaetano Mosca
(ii) Robert Michels
(iv) C. Wright Mills
Codes:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
61. 73rd Amendment of the Consti-
tution seeks to provide which of
the following to the Panchayati
Raj Institutions?
(1) Constitutional status
(2) Financial autonomy
(3) Empowerment of marginalized
sections of the rural population
(4) Decentralised planning
Choose the correct option from
below:
(a) (1), (2) and (3)
(b) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(c) (2), (3) and (4)
(d) (1), (2) and (4)
62. Vandana Shiva is known as
(a) Post Modernist
(b) Marxist
(c) Eco-feminist
(d) Conservatist
63. Match the following:
A B
(A) Two Factor (i) McClelland
Theory
(B) Hierarchy of (ii) McGregor
needs theory
(C) Theory of (iii) Maslow
needs
(D) Theory X and (iv) Herzberg
66. Which are the themes of New
Y
Choose the correct answer:
(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
64. Which of the following statements
about the definition of Welfare
State are correct?
(1) It is a state that provides for its
citizens a wide range of social
services
(2) It is a compromise between
communism on the one side and
unbridled individualism on the
other
(3) Welfare state sets a pattern for
any humane and progressive
society
(4) Welfare state guarantees a mini-
mum standard of subsistence
without removing incentives to
private sector
Choose the correct option from
below:
(a) (1), (2) and (3)
(b) (2), (3) and (4)
(c) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(d) (1), (2) and (4)
65. Which of the following are the
arguments for women’s equality?
(1) Inferiority of women to men is
69. Which of the following is not
socially constructed and has no
legal justification
(2) Non-application of the princip-
les of liberty and equality to
the conditions of women is
paradoxical
Solved Paper-II, December-2019
(3) Women are naturally inferior
to men
(4) Women’s inequality survived
because it was justifiable
Choose the correct option from
below:
(a) (1), (2) and (3)
(b) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(c) (1) and (2)
(d) (3) and (4)
Public Management?
(1) Adoption of private sector
practices
(2) I m p r o v e d r e p o r t i n g a n d
monitoring mechanism
(3) Performance targets
(4) Adoption of public sector
practices
Choose the correct option:
(a) (1), (2)
(b) (1), (2), (3)
(c) (2), (3), (4)
(d) (3), (4)
67. Arrange the formation of following
states in chronological order:
(1) Sikkim
(2) Goa
(3) Gujarat
(4) Telangana
Choose the correct option:
(a) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(b) (4), (2), (3) and (1)
(c) (2), (3), (1) and (4)
(d) (3), (1), (2) and (4)
68. The positive impact of Liberalisa-
tion are:
(1) Foreign investment
(2) Increased production
(3) Increased unemployment
(4) Technological advancement
Choose the right answer:
(a) (1), (2), (4)
(b) (2), (3)
(c) (1), (3)
(d) (2), (3), (1)
correct?
(a) Nation is psychological concept
(b) State is legal concept
(c) Nationalism is attribute of
Nation
(d) Nation and state are co-terminus
Solved Paper-II, December-2019 235
70. Arrange the following Ashrams/ 73. Arrange the following books as Choose the correct options:
Institutions founded by Gandhi per the year of their publication (a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-
in chronological order: in chronological order: (iv)
(1) Phoenix Settlement (1) Modern Democracies (b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-
(2) Kochrab Ashram (2) Constitutional Government and (i)
(3) Sevagram Ashram Democracy (c) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-
(4) Tolstoy Farm (3) Public Opinion and Popular (ii)
Select the correct answer from the Government (d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-
options as given below: (4) The American Commonwealth (i)
(a) (1), (2), (3), (4) Choose the correct option from 78. Which one of the following is not
(b) (1), (4), (2), (3) below: a function of political parties?
(c) (4), (3), (2), (1) (a) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (a) Socialisation and Recruitment
(d) (1), (3), (4), (2) (b) (4), (3), (1) and (2) (b) Interest articulation
(c) (4), (1), (2) and (3) (c) Interest aggregation
71. Match List–I with List–II:
   List–I     List–II (d) (1), (3). (4) and (2) (d) Rule adjudication
  Thinker    Work 74. Theory of form and allegory of 79. In which year did Rabindranath
caves is related with Tagore surrender the knighthood
(A) Jai Prakash (i) Salt Taxa-
Narayan tion in India (a) Plato (b) Aristotle as a protest against Jallianwala
(c) Machiavelli (d) Hobbes Bagh Massacre?
(B) Ram (ii) The Recon-
75. In which year, Government of (a) 1919 (b) 1924
Manohar struction
Lohia of religious India decided to observe the (c) 1935 (d) 1937
thought in birthday of Swami Vivekananda 80. The book “Political Order in
Islam as the National Youth Day? Changing Societies” is written by:
(C) Muhammad (iii) Why social- (a) 1984 (b) 1985 (a) Lucian Pye
Iqbal ism (c) 1986 (d) 1987 (b) G.A. Almond
76. According to G.A. Almond com- (c) Ernest Barker
(D) Barani (iv) Fatwo-I- paratively “Homogenous culture” (d) S.P. Huntington
Jahandari is found in 81. From legal point of view which
Select the correct option from the (a) Developed countries of the following is called a “soft
given below: (b) Underdeveloped countries law”?
(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv) (c) Developing countries (a) Right to Environment
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i) (d) Least developed countries (b) Right to Development
(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) 77. Match List–I with List–II: (c) Right to Health
(d) (A)- (iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)- (d) Right to Privacy

   List–I    List–II
(iii)
  Organization     Number of 82. Which of the following types of
72. Arrange the following in an
member states policy evaluation lays emphasis
ascending chronological order: on determining the success level
(A) Economic (i) 6
(1) Right to Education Act Community of in achieving its basic objectives?
(2) Consumer Protection (Amen- West African (a) Programme Strategy Evaluation
dment) Act States (b) Programme Impact Evaluation
(3) Food Security Act (B) South African (ii) 12 (c) Project Monitoring
(4) Prevention of Corruption Development (d) Cost-benefit analysis
(Amendment) Act Community 83. Who defined Public Administration as
Choose the correct option from (C) Economic (iii) 16 “the art and science of management
below: Community applied to the affairs of the state”?
(a) (2), (3), (4) and (1) of Central (a) L.D. White
(b) (2), (1), (3) and (4) African States (b) H. Simon
(c) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (D) Eastern African (iv) 15 (b) D. Waldo
(d) (3), (1), (4) and (2) Community (d) Pfiffner and Presthus
 236 Solved Paper-II, December-2019
84. Name the editor of the book, (C) Contemporary (iii) George Read the passage and answer the
“Towards a New Public Adminis- theory of Lukacs questions (91-95):
tration-Minnowbrook”: Alienation Post modernist thinkers hold the
(a) James Charlesworth (D) One-dimens- (iv) Economic view that there cannot be objective
(b) Frank Marini ionalisation: and knowledge of social issues. For the
studies in Philosophic Post-Modernist, knowledge is not simply
(c) W.F. Willoughby
the ideology Manuscripts a cognitive factor; knowledge is also
(d) Frank J. Goodnow
of advanced of 1844 normative and political. Power and
85. Which of the following two state- knowledge are mutually supportive and
industrial
ments are correct regarding society they directly imply one another. The Post
Preamble of Indian Constitution? Modernist are critical of classical liberals
Choose the correct answer:
(1) Justice-social, economic and as well as contemporary positivist who
political (a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) believed in objectivity and superiority of
(2) Liberty of thought, expression, (b) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii) science. Through deconstruction, the post
belief, faith and worship modernist want to look at every accepted
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(3) Equality of status, character or settled idea with new lenses.
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) 91. Which one of the following state-
and of opportunity 89. Arrange the following in their ment is incorrect according to
(4) Fraternity assuring the dignity chronological order: Post Modernist thinkers?
and respect of the individual (1) Jalianwala Bagh Massacre (a) Post Modernners challenged the
Choose the correct option: (2) Report Submission by Hunter notion that knowledge is eternal
(a) (1) and (3) Committee (b) Knowledge is linked to power
(b) (1) and (4) (c) Knowledge leads to progress of
(3) Chauri-Chaura incident
(c) (3) and (4) world
(4) Establishment of Swaraj Party
(d) (1) and (2) Choose the correct option: (d) No knowledge is impartial
86. Which of the following is not 92. According to Post-Modernist thinker,
(a) (1), (2), (3), (4)
related to Kabir? which attribute of knowledge does
(b) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(a) Begampura not exist?
(c) (1), (2), (4), (3) (a) Normative
(b) Bhakti
(d) (4), (2), (1), (3) (b) Cognitive
(c) Panchvani
90. Which of the following two (c) Political
(d) Gender inequality
are correct regarding Right to (d) Objectivity
87. Which of the following two are
Development? 93. Which of following term is not
correct regarding the adoption of
(1) The Declaration on the Right preferred by Post Modernist
inductive method?
to Development was adopted thinkers?
(1) Plato (a) Post structuralism
by General Assembly in 1986
(2) Machiavelli (b) Deconstruction
(2) This is an inalienable human
(3) Thomas Aquinas (c) Modernism
right
(4) Thomas Hobbes (d) Subjectivity
(3) It found no place in the 1993
Choose the correct options: 94. Which of the following is Post
Vienna Declaration and
(a) (1) and (2) Modernist thinker?
Programme of action
(b) (1) and (3) (a) Jacques Derrida
(4) In 1990 the Commission on (b) Immanuel Kant
(c) (2) and (4)
Human Rights established a (c) H.J. Laski
(d) (1) and (4)
working group to monitor its (d) Karl Deutsch
88. Match List–I with List–II: progress 95. Who among the following is not a
    List–I    List–II Choose the correct options: Post Modernist thinker?
(A) Mars’s theory (i) Herbert (a) (1) and (2) (a) Richard Ashly
of Alienation Marcuse (b) Michel Foucault
(b) (2) and (3)
(B) Alienation and (ii) Erich Fromm (c) (3) and (4) (c) Jenny Adkins
objectification (d) J. Burton
(d) (1) and (4)
Solved Paper-II, December-2019
Read the passage and answer the
questions (96-100):
The term “globalisation” primarily
refers to economic activities like trade,
movement of capital, goods, labour
and communication system across
boundaries facilitating higher levels of
interconnectedness in the world. These
economic activities have greater impact
on socio political sectors nationally and
internationally. The increasing strong
presence of non-state actors like MNCs,
the NGOs and IGOs has questioned the
supremacy of state sovereignty. The
rich states are benefited due to their
superior control over the flow of capital,
Answers with Explanations
1. (b) The correct chronological order of
the UN system is;
International Bank – 1944
for Reconstruction
and Development
International Finance – 1956
Corporation
International Development – 1960
Association
Multilateral Investment – 1988
Guarantee Agency
2. (b) The Draft National Water
Policy 2012 was published by UPA
government to chart out the objective of
establishment of river basin authorities
with appropriate powers to plan, manage
and regulate water resources at the
river basin level. It also proposes the
Incentivisation of recycle and reuse of
water. The unique feature of the policy
was to enable Community participation
in managing the water resources projects
and Water users association should be
given statutory powers.
3. (c) Rousseau in his work ‘Discourse
on Inequality’ comprehensively discussed
the differences among Conventional
Inequality and Natural Inequality. The
natural inequality stems from differences
in age, health, or other physical
characteristics. The moral inequality is
established by a convention of men.
technology and communication system.
A profit oriented global market can never
think of benefit of all people of the world.
The North-South divide has not been
obliterated.
96. Globalisation has benefited the
countries of:
(a) Europe and America
(b) Asia
(c) Africa
(d) Latin America
97. Globalisation has induced greater:
(a) Urbanisation
(b) Tradition
(c) Rural societies
(d) Parochial culture
98. Which one of the following has not
limited state sovereignty?
4. (c) Rawls in his famous work
‘The Theory of Justice’ wrote about the
weaknesses of Utilitarianism. Rawls’s
major criticisms of utilitarianism are
that “Utilitarianism wrongly defines the
“right” in terms of the “good” when in
fact “the concept of right is prior to that
of the good”.
5. (a) The book ‘Aspects of Political
development’ was written by Lucian Pye
in 1966. It was an analytical study about
the process of Political development of
the Nations.
6. (b) social service; and not more than 238
(Thinker) (Work)
Mary Wollstonecraft – Vindication of
Fanon the
Rights of
Women
Gramsci – The Prison
Rawls
Notebook
Frantz Fanon – The Wretched
of the Earth
John Rawls – Political
Liberalism
7. (c) Libertarianism is a family
of views in political philosophy.
Libertarians strongly value individual
freedom and see this as justifying strong
protections for individual freedom.
237
(a) Multinational Corporations
(b) Inter Governmental Organization
(c) Non-Governmental organization
(d) Anomic Pressure Groups
99. The globalisation has increased
the demand for
(a) Laissez Faire state
(b) Welfare state
(c) Totalitarian state
(d) Socialistic state
100. Which one of the following is
incorrect? The state has become
weak in shaping the
(a) Flow of capital
(b) International trade and labour
(c) Finance
(d) Collection of revenues
Thus, libertarians insist that justice
poses stringent limits to coercion.
Robert Nozick, Milton Friedman and
F.A. Hayek are famously categorized as
Liberatarian thinkers. Robert Dahl was a
Social Democrate.
8. (d) The Constitution provides that
the Rajya Sabha shall consist of 250
members, of which 12 members shall be
nominated by the President from amongst
persons having special knowledge or
practical experience in respect of such
matters as literature, science, art and
representatives of the States and of the
Union Territories. Fourth Schedule of
the Constitution deals with the allocation
of seats in Rajya Sabha to states.
9. (b) World Trade Organisation is
the supreme international body for trade.
It was established on 1st January 1955. Its
Headquarter is in Geneva (Switzerland).
It is the only international organization
dealing with global trade rules between
nations.
10. (a) Riggs gave a Fused prismatic
sala model to explain the stages of the
development of the administration in
societies. Traditionally agriculture, folk,
societies are fused, industrial societies
are diffracted and intermediate ones are
 238
fused. Thus fused society is where a
single structure performs many functions
and diffracted one is where a single
structure performs limited functions.
11. (b) International Labour Union
was Established in 1919 after the end of
the First World War. It was then a part
of the League of Nations. Later in 1946,
It became a Specialised agency of United
Nation.
12. (d) On January 6, 1941, President
Franklin D. Roosevelt addresses
Congress in an effort to move the nation
away from a foreign policy of neutrality.
Roosevelt insisted that people in all
nations of the world shared Americans’
entitlement to four freedoms: the freedom
of speech and expression, the freedom to
worship God in his own way, freedom
from want and freedom from fear.
13. (b) Escape from Freedom is a
book by Erich Fromm, first published
in 1941. In the book, Erich Fromm
explores humanity’s shifting relationship
with freedom, with particular regard to
the personal consequences of its absence.
His special emphasis is the psychosocial
conditions that facilitated the rise of
Nazism.
14. (b) Article 243 K of the Indian
constitution is related to the Election of
Panchayati raj Bodies.
15. (d) Niti Shastra in Indian political
philosophy are those works that elaborate
about Statecraft. It basically explain
the nature of political organisation and
the process of administration etc. The
Arthashastra written by the Kautilya
during Mauryan period is also a
Nitishastra text.
16. (d) Plato argues that the soul
comprises of three parts namely rational,
appetitive, and the spirited. Similarly
a state also comprises of these human
virtues and hence Plato said that the
“State is an Individual Writ large”. The
assertion statement is incorrect and the
Reason statement is correct.
17. (c) Aggannasutta was part of
Digha Nikaya. It gives an alternate view
of the creation of the universe, and is
directly opposed to the sorts of myths
exemplified by the Rig Veda’s Hymn of
Purusa. It constitutes a very interesting
look at the Buddhist view of ancient
Indian society, and the hotly contested
issues of that social context.
18. (a) Plato was a Statist thinker, he
in his theory gave greater importance to
the state than to the rights of the people
living in that state. For Plato State is the
End and Individuals are the Means. He
in his famous work ‘Republic’ gave a
Utopian concept of Ideal state which was
impossible to realise.
19. (a) The United Nations Educational,
Scientific and Cultural Organization
(UNESCO) was born on 16 November
1945. UNESCO has 195 Members and
8 Associate Members and is governed
by the General Conference and the
Executive Board.
20. (a) The Book ‘The Proverbs of
Administration’ was written by Herbert
Simon. In this book he expressed that
“One can always find a proverb to prove
one’s point — or the opposite point for
that matter. But when they are used in
scientific theories, they are less useful
and more harmful. Given their very
nature they can both prove or disprove
anything.” Hence he rejected Principles
of Administration for being Proverbs.
21. (c) Article 102(1) (a) of the
Constitution of India recognizes “holding
an office of profit “as a ground for
disqualification from being a Member
of Parliament (MP). Under this article
president is bound by the advice of Election
Commission of India.
22. (a) The National Health Policy,
2017 (NHP, 2017) seeks to reach
everyone in a comprehensive integrated
way to move towards wellness. It aims at
achieving universal health coverage and
delivering quality health care services
to all at affordable cost. The target is
to reduce infant mortality rate to 28 by
2019 and to Reduce neonatal mortality
to 16 and still birth rate to “single digit”
by 2025.
23. (c) ) The basic purpose of the
Public Policy is not to serve individual
interest but to solve public problems. It
includes the plan for the welfare of each
and every individual in the society.
24. (a) Article 123 of the Constitution
empowers the President to promulgate
Ordinances to amend certain laws when
Solved Paper-II, December-2019
either of the two Houses of Parliament is
not in session and hence it is not possible
to enact laws in the Parliament.
25. (a) M. N. Srinivas wrote that,
“Sanskritization is a process by which a
lower caste or tribe or any other group
changes its customs, rituals, ideology
and way of life in the direction of a
higher or more often twice-born caste.”
26. (c) Lohia in his political thought
criticised Marxism, Socialism as well
as capitalism. He believed that none of
them is suitable for India. Hence, He
proposed his Thesis of ‘New Socialism’
specially for India.
27. (a) The United nation was
established on 24th October 1945 with
the objective of ensuring world peace
and security. Hence both the statements
are correct and the reason behind the
assertion.
28. (d) Globalization is a process of
interaction and integration among the
people, companies, and governments of
different nations, a process driven by
international trade and investment and
aided by information technology. It did
not perpetuates parochial culture.
29. (a) The Security Council first
discussed the issue of Jammu and
Kashmir in 1948. A summit meeting
took place in 2004 in Islamabad between
A.B. Vajpayee and Pervez Musharraf.
30. (a)
List–A List–B
Common High Court – Art. 231
for two or more states
Transfer of certain – Art. 228
cases to High Court
Appointment of – Art. 233
District Judges
Administrative expenses – Art. 229
of High Courts
31. (a) Article 243A in The Con-
stitution of India provide for the
establishment of Gram Sabha. It says
Gram Sabha may exercise such powers
and perform such functions at the village
level as the Legislature of a State may by
law provide.
32. (c) The Chinese leader Mao des-
cribed Tibet right palm and Ladakh,
Sikkim, Bhutan, Nepal and Arunachal
Pradesh its five fingers.
Solved Paper-II, December-2019
33. (d) The correct sequence of the
steps involved in Decision Making
according to the Herbert Simon is;
Problem recognition, than Search
for information which is followed by
Definition of alternative and than the
Selection of alternative.
34. (b) Aristotle believed that
“Distributive Justice is mainly concerned
with the distribution of honours or
wealth.”
35. (c) Simla Pact was signed by India
and Pakistan in 1972. It provides that the
two countries will solve their disputes
bilaterally and not through mediation of
other countries.
36. (b) In 1904, E.V. Ramasamy went
on a pilgrimage to Kasi to visit the revered
Shiva temple of Kashi Vishwanath.
Though regarded as one of the holiest
sites of Hinduism, he witnessed immoral
activities such as begging, and floating
dead bodies. His frustrations extended to
functional Hinduism in general when he
experienced what he called Brahmanic
exploitation.
37. (a) Harold Laski in his book ‘A
Grammar of Politics’ wrote that “Every
state is known by the rights that it
maintains”.
38. (b) A Vindication of the Rights of
Woman: with Strictures on Political and
Moral Subjects (1792), written by the
18th-century British proto-feminist Mary
Wollstonecraft, is one of the earliest
works of feminist philosophy.
39. (c) B.S Turner in his book ‘Citizen-
ship and Social Theory’ elaborated the
Pluralist theory of Citizenship.
40. (d) The Comptroller and Auditor
General of India can undertake evaluation
studies, On its own initiative and on the
request of financial committees, it can
evaluate on Directive in legislation or
on the request of the Organization and
Methods division of a Ministry.
41. (d) The correct sequence of the
Process of Communication in an organisation
is Sender, encoding, message, channel.
42. (b) Minoo Masani, an astute
parliamentarian and liberal thinker,
founded The Society for the Right to
Die with Dignity in May 1981, Mumbai
gracefully articulating the demand for
voluntary euthanasia at a time when the
topic was not much in vogue.
43. (b) Convention on offences and
certain other acts committed on Board
Aircraft (Tokyo) in 1963. Convention
for suppression unlawful against the
safety of Civil Aviation (Montreal)
in 1971, International Convention for
the suppression of Terrorist Bombing
in 1997. International Convention for
Suppression of Financing of Terrorism
in 1999.
44. (d) Election Commissioner is
appointed by the President. He can be
removed from office on the same grounds
as a Judge of the Supreme Court. His
term of office is six years or upto the age
of 65 whichever is earlier.
45. (a)
1st Report Right to Information:
Master Key to Good
Governance
2nd Report Unlocking Human
Capital: Entitlements and
Governance
3rd Report Crisis Management
4th Report Ethics in Governance
46. (a) ) 54. (c) Absolute Veto – Power to say
John Rawls – Egalitarian
Plato – Idealist
Mary Wollstonecraft – Feminist
Gramsci – Communist
47. (a) Koontz and O’Donnell said
that Leadership is the ability of a manager
to induce the subordinates to work with
confidence and zeal. Leadership is the
potential to influence the behaviour of
others. It is also defined as the capacity to
influence a group towards the realization
of a goal.
48. (a)
(School of   (Thinkers)
Modernization)
Psychological – Daninel Lerner
School
Normative School – Mahatma Gandhi
Structural School – G.A. Almond
Technological – David Apter
School
49. (a) Jayaprakash Narayan popularly
referred to as JP or Lok Nayak was an
Indian independence. In 1999, he was
posthumously awarded the Bharat
239
Ratna, India’s highest civilian award, in
recognition of his social work.
50. (a) The book ‘Nation and nationa-
lism’ was written by Ernest Gellner.
Nation and nationalism correspond to
realities that have a strong effect on
politics and that relate to the most concrete
fact of daily life for all individuals: the
State.
51. (a) The correct sequence of the
formation of Organisation is:
G7 in 1975,
G20 in 1999,
IBSA in 2003,
BRICS Development Bank in 2014
52. (c) The Kyoto Protocol was
adopted in Kyoto, Japan, on 11
December 1997 and entered into force
on 16 February 2005.
53. (d) The word certiorari comes
from Law Latin and means “to be more
fully informed.” A writ of certiorari
orders a lower court to deliver its record
in a case so that the higher court may
review it. Writ of Certiorari can be issued
by the Judiciary for Lack of jurisdiction
and Excess of jurisdiction.
“no” to a bill passed by both Houses
Qualified Veto – President cannot
withhold assent if Bill is adopted again
by the Houses.
Suspensive Veto – When a bill is
returned for reconsideration.
Pocket Veto – President may either
assent or refuse to give assent without
any time limit.
55. (b)
(Author) (Book)
Paul H Appleby – Morality and
Administration
in Democratic
Government
John M Gaus – The Frontiers of
L.D. White and Public
M.E. Dimock Administration
W.F. Willoughby – Principles of
Public
Administration
Dwight Waldo – Ideas and issues
in Public
Administration
 240
56. (a) The correct chronological
sequence is;
Rousseau’s Social – 1762
Contract
John Rawls’ A – 1971
Theory of Justice
Benn and RS Peters’ – 1959
Social Principles
and Democratic State
Susan Moller okin’s – 1989
Justice Gender and
Family
57. (a) According to Auguste Comte,
the principal methods are observation,
experiment and comparison and Accor-
ding to Bluntshli, the true methods are
philosophical and historical.
58. (b) Aristotle was the first thinker
to adopt inductive method but it was
accidental. But In case of Machiavelli
use of Inductive method was intentional.
59. (c) India was elected to the
United Nations’ top human rights body
on Friday for a period of three years
beginning January 1, 2019.
60. (a) Vilfredo Pareto and Gaetano
Mosca belong to Italian school of Elitism.
61. (a) 73rd Amendment the Con-
stitution seeks to provide Constitutional
status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions,
Financial autonomy and Empowerment
for marginalized sections of the rural
population.
62. (c) Vandana Shiva has written
and spoken extensively about advances
in the fields of agriculture and food.
Intellectual property rights, biodiversity,
biotechnology, bioethics, and genetic
engineering are among the fields where
Shiva has fought through activist
campaigns. She was an Eco-Feminist.
63. (d)
(Theory) (Thinker)
Two Factor Theory – Herzberg
Hierarchy of – McClelland
needs theory
Theory needs – Maslow
Theory X and Y – McGregor
64. (c) Welfare state provides for its
citizens a wide range of social services. It
is a compromise between communism on
the one side and unbridled individualism
on the other. Welfare state sets a pattern
for any humane and progressive society.
Welfare state guarantees a minimum
standard of subsistence without removing
incentives to private sector.
65. (c) The propagator of women's
equality says that the Inferiority of
women to men is socially constructed
and has no legal justification and the
Non-application of the principles of
liberty and equality to the conditions of
women is paradoxical.
66. (b) The themes of New Public
Management are, Adoption of private
sector practices,Improved reporting and
monitoring mechanism and Performance
targeting.
67. (d) The correct chronological of
the formation of following States is;
Gujarat – 1960
Sikkim – 1975
Goa – 1987
Telangana – 2014
68. (a) The positive impact of Libera-
lisation includes, Foreign investment,
Increased production and Technological
advancement. Increased unemployment
is one of the drawbacks of Liberalisation.
69. (d) Nation and State are used
interchangeably, but they have different
meaning in political science. A ‘State’ is a
legal Political Organisation. On the other
hand A ‘Nation’ represent a community
of people with shared culture, history
and goals.
70. (b) The correct chronological
order of the Institutions founded by
Gandhi is;
Phoenix Settlement – 1904
Tolstoy Farm – 1910
Kochrab Ashram – 1915
Sevagram Ashram – 1936
71. (a)
Jai Prakash – Why socialism
Narayan
Ram Manohar – Salt Taxation in
Lohia India
Islam Muham- – T h e
mad Iqbal Reconstruction
of religious
thought in
Barani – Fatwo-I-
Jahandari
Solved Paper-II, December-2019
72. (*) Question option are wrong,
NTA did not give any answer to this
question.
73. (b) The correct sequence of the
books published;
The American – 1888
Commonwealth
Public Opinion and – 1913
Popular Government
Constitutional Govern- – 1941
ment and Democracy
Modern Democracies – 1921
74. (a) In the allegory of the cave,
Plato is trying to make us understand that
we see shadows and we think they are the
real thing. Thus, the main theme of the
allegory is that we are ignorant about the
true nature of reality.
75. (a) Government of India decided
to observe the birthday of Swami
Vivekananda in 1994.
76. (a) According to G.A. Almond
comparatively “Homogenous culture” is
found in Developed countries.
77. (b)
  Organization (Number of
members states)
Economic Community – 15
of West African States
South African – 16
Development Community
Economic Community – 12
of Central African States
Eastern African Community – 6
78. (d) Rule adjudication is not
the function of the political party. The
functions performed by the political parties
are Socialisation and Recruitment,Interest
articulation and also Interest aggregation.
79. (a) Rabindranath Tagore surrender
the knighthood as a protest against
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in 1919.
80. (d) The book ‘Political Order in
Changing Societies was written by S.P
Huntington in year 1968. Huntington
rejected the prevalent more optimistic
modernization theories, arguing that
order and stability themselves are crucial
objectives in developing countries.
81. (b) Right is Development is consi-
dered as a soft law from Legal Point of
view as it can’t be factually challenged at
any legal institution.
Solved Paper-II, December-2019
82. (b) Programme Impact Evaluation
lays emphasis on determining the success
level in achieving its basic objectives.
83. (c) According to D. Waldo “Public
Administration is the art and science of
management as applied to the affairs of
the state.” He further observes “The
process of Public Administration consists
of the actions involved in affecting the
intent or desire of a government.
84. (b) The book ‘Towards a New
Public Administration–Minnowbrook’
was written by Frank Marini in 1971.
85. (d) Preamble of Indian Constitu-
tion ensure JUSTICE, social, economic
and political; LIBERTY of thought,
expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all.
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of
the individual.
86. (a) Begumpura (“land without
sorrow”) is a term coined in a poem by
Shri Guru Ravidass Ji. Begampura is the
name of an idealized city where there is
no suffering or fear, and all are equal.
87. (c)
88. (d)
Marx’s theory – Economic and
of Alienation Philosophic
Manuscripts of
1844
Alienation and – George Lukacs
objectification
Contemporary – Erich Fromm
theory of
Alienation
One-dimension- – Herbert Marcuse
alisation:
studies in the
ideology of
advanced
industrial society
89. (a) The correct Chronological
Sequence of the following events is:
Jallianwala Bagh – 1919
Massacre
Report Submission – 1920
by Hunter Committee
Chauri–Chaura incident – 1922
Establishment of – 1923
Swaraj Party
90. (a) The Declaration on the Right
to Development was adopted by the
General Assembly in 1986 It is instituted
as an inalienable human right.
91. (c) For the Post–Modernist, knowledge
is not simply a cognitive factor; knowledge
is also normative and political. Power and
knowledge are mutually supportive and they
directly imply one another.
92. (d) The post modernist thinker
believes that knowledge is subjective
in nature and not just objective. They
believe in layering out of the Knowledge.
241
93. (c) The Post–modernism was against
the principle of Development. They were
against the societal system established by the
concept of development.
94. (a) Jacques Derrida was one of
the most well known twentieth century
philosophers. He was a post–modernist.
95. (d) J.Burton was not a Post–
Modernist. Laurence Junior Burton was
a U.S. Representative from Utah. Born
in Ogden, Utah, Burton graduated from
Ogden High School in 1944.
96. (a) It is believed that globalisation
work best for the Developed world,
especially continents like America and
Europe.
97. (a) Globalisation increases the extent
of market and simultaneously advances
Urbanisation.
98. (d) Anomic pressure groups refer
to those spontaneous groups which are
formed with a collective response through
riots, demonstrations. It did not limit state
sovereignty.
99. (a) The globalisation has increased
the demand for Laissez Faire state as it
supports a barrier free and open market
all over the world.
100. (d) One of the negative con-
sequences of globalisation is that it reduces
the revenue collection capability of the State.
qqq
PRACTICE SETS
Practice Set-1
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
1. Who said that “Political theory
includes Political Science and
Political philosophy”?
(a) Charles Merriam
(b) Robert Nozick
(c) George Catlin
(d) W.C Coker
2. Which of the following is correct
about Machiavelli’s ‘The Prince’?
(a) It is the Product of the prevailing
condition of his time in his
country Italy.
(b) It is an Academic Treaty
(c) It is not real Politik
(d) All of the above
3. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of ‘General will’?
(a) It is self-Contradictory
(b) It is unlimited
(c) Inalienable
(d) Un-representative
4. Who said that “Laws of nature
are laws of prudence”?
(a) Hobbes (b) Locke
(c) Rousseau (d) J.S Mill
5. Match the following
List–I List–II
A.
Surplus i. Gramsci
value 4. Neighbour of Mitra and its
B. Communist ii. Marx
Party
C. Hegemony iii. Lenin
D. General iv. Rousseau
Will 10. Who among the following is
Codes:
A B C D Modern Tamil Nadu’?
(a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (b) E.V. Ramasawamy
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (c) C.N Annadurai
(d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Political Science
Practice Set-1
6. Which among the following are
King’s dharma according to
Kautilya?
(a) Security of the kingdom
(b) Security of the territory/Property
(c) Security of the subject
(d) All of the above
7. Which of the following things are
done by Pandita Ramabai?
(a) She pledged for the improvements
in the educational syllabus of
Indian women
(b) She wrote a book called ‘The
High Caste Hindu Women’
(c) She founded ‘Ramabai Association’
(d) All of the above
8. ‘The Arctic Homes of Vedas’ was
written by
(a) Pandita Ramabai
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Swami Vivekananda
(d) None of these
9. What ‘Ari-Mitra’ stands in ‘Mandal
Theory’?
1. Friend of Neighbour’s friend
2. Friend of friend
3. Friend of enemy’s friend
enemy therefore friend of Ari.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 4 (d) Only 3
considered as the ‘Father of
(d) None of the above
3
11. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Ambedkar attacked
the caste system as thoroughly
impracticable, harmful and miserable
failure as a basic social organisation.
Reason (R): For Ambedkar the term
‘Hindu Society’ is a myth.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
12. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Comparative Politics is
a systematic study of world’s Political
systems and their comparisons.
Reason (R): It seeks to explain the
differences and similarities among
numbers of Political systems.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
13. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Limitations and
responsibilities are the key features
to recount the essence of a democratic
regime.
Reason (R): All democratic regimes
have a constitution sort of detailed,
written or coventionas-based.
 4 Practice Set-1
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
14. “Tyranny of the majority” can lead to
(a) Violence and civil war
(b) Cold war
(c) World war II
(d) Communal War
15. Participatory democracy values
deliberation and discussion, rather
than merely
(a) Criticising (b) Voting
(c) Planning (d) Protesting
16. “Introduction to the study of the
law of the constitution” is the work
of
(a) Austin (b) Ambedkar
(c) A.V. Dicey (d) Almond
17. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Decision making
theory was Developed especially in
the realm of foreign policy making.
Reason (R): It concentrates on the
person shaping international events
rather than on the international
situation.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
18. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marxism doesn’t
give a proper theory of International
relations.
Reason (R): Marxism wants to create
a stateless society.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
19. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The concept of power
should be vanished from the study of
International relation.
Reason (R): The Concept of Power
is full of ambiguities.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
20. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The UN was founded
to make the world a safe place.
Reason (R): During the cold war,
two superpowers acquired highly
sophisticated destructive weapons.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
21. Match the following
List–I List–II
A. The world bank i. 1957
B. World Trade ii. 1945
organisation related to which international
C. World Health iii. 1948
Organisation
D. International iv. 1995
Atomic Energy (c) UNESCO (d) WTO
Agency
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
22. Match the following
 List–I List–II
A. Karl Kautsky i. Marxism
B. Robert Owen ii. Socialism
C. John Locke iii. Liberalism
D. Clinton iv. Conservatism
Rossiter
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
23. Who among the following are
associated with early socialism
sometimes termed as ‘utopian
socialist’?
1. Robert Owen
2. Saint Simon
3. Charles Fourier
4. Proudhan
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above
24. Gulf Cooperation Council was
founded in year
(a) 1989 (b) 1987
(c) 1981 (d) 1980
25. What is the full form of TRIMS?
(a) Trade related Intellectual Measures
(b) Agreement on Trade Related
Investment Measures
(c) Technology Related Investment
Measures
(d) None of the Above
26. Agreement on Agricultural is
Organisation?
(a) WHO (b) IMF
27. Gujral Doctrine in Indian foreign
Policy was introduced by former
Prime Minister I.K. Gujral to
(a) Deal with ASEAN countries
(b) Deal with China
(c) Deal with Immediate neighbours
(d) Deal with South Africa
Practice Set-1
28. The Act East Foreign Policy of
Modi Government is related to
(a) GCC (b) BRICS
(c) BIMSTEC (d) ASEAN
29. India became the member of
Shanghai cooperation Organisation
in year
(a) 2015 (b) 2016
(c) 2017 (d) 2018
30. The Theme of the 11th BRICS
summit held in Brazil was
(a) 
Economic Growth for an
Innovative Future
(b) 
Economic Growth for an
Sustainable Future
(c) Environmental Growth for an
Innovative Future
(d) 
Economic Growth for an
Intellectual Future
31. Who among the following said that
“Parliamentary system provides a
Daily as well as Periodic assessment
of the government”?
(a) Ambedkar (b) M.C. Chagla
(c) Bagehot (d) Bryce
32. Match the following
List–I List–II
(Countries) (Types of Political
 System)
A. China i. Federal,
Representative,
Democratic,
Republic
B. Germany ii. Sovereign,
Democratic,
Republic
C. France iii. People’s
Democratic,
Socialist,
Republic
D. South iv. Indivisible,
Africa Secular,
Democratic,
Republic
Codes:
A B C D Assertion (A): Equality as used in the
(a) iv ii iii i Preamble includes equality of status
(b) iii i iv ii and of opportunity.
(c) iv i iii ii Reason (R): Establishing a liberal
(d) iii ii iv i
33. The responsibility of interpreting and
supervision of the implementation of
the Constitution of China rests with
which one of the following?
(a) Standing Committee of National
People’s Congress
(b) Supreme People’s Court
(c) Central Military Commission
(d) State Council
34. The idea that before passing a no
— confidence motion against the
government, the Parliament must
explore the possibility of forming an
alternative government is a part of:
(a) Constitution of France
(b) Constitution of US
(c) Constitution of the Republic of
Ireland
(d) Constitution of Germany
35. Which one of the following
countries was described by China
as a “Social imperialist power”?
(a) U.S.A (b) U.S.S.R
(c) India (d) Japan
36. The Institution of Ombudsman was
first introduced in
(a) New Zealand (b) Norway
(c) Finland (d) Sweden
37. Which one of the following state-
ments describes a unitary system?
(a) Where the territorial divisions
are subordinate agencies of the
Central Government.
(b) Where the territorial divisions
have coordinate status with the
central Government.
(c) A device to reconcile national
unity with rights of the units.
(d) Where the functions of the
government are vested in single
individual.
38. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
society is an aim of the Preamble.
5
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
39. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to Gandhi,
State will not be needed in a non-
violent society.
Reason (R): Ideal Society of Gandhi
is Stateless.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
40. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The erstwhile State of
Jammu and Kashmir has been given
a special status.
Reason (R): It was accorded by the
Indian Independence Act of 1947
itself.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
41. Identify the correct chronological
order of the formation of the
following political parties in India:
(a) Justice Party, Hindu Maha Sabha,
National Conference, Shiromani
Akali Dal
(b) National conference, Shiromani
Akali Dal, Hindu Maha Sabha,
Justice Party
 6 Practice Set-1
(c) Hindu Maha Sabha, Shiromani
Akali Dal, National Conference,
Justice Party
(d) Justice Party, Shiromani Akali
Dal, Hindu Maha Sabha, National
Conference
42. Which one of the following pairs is
not correctly matched?
(a) Conditions of eligibility of a
Governor: Article 158
(b) Dismissal of a Governor by the
President: Article 156 (2)
(c) Nomination of members of
Legislative Council by the
Governor: Article 171 (5)
(d) Power of the Governor to
recommend ‘Money Bill’: Article
207
43. Consider the following statements
and select the correct answer from
the codes given below:
Statement I: The only mode of
initiating a proposal for amendment
is to introduce a bill in either house
of the Union Parliament.
Statement II: If there is a disagree-
ment between the two Houses of
Parliament regarding the passage of
a bill, the deadlock may be resolved
by a joint session of the two Houses.
Codes:
(a) Only Statement I is true.
(b) Only Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statements I and II are true.
(d) Both Statements I and II are false.
44. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
 List–I  List–II
(Approach) (Characteristics)
A. 36th (i) Transparency
Constitutional in judicial
Amendment appointments
Act
B. 61th (ii) Declaration
Constitutional of Sikkim
Amendment as a full
Act fledged state
C.
97th (iii) Lowering of
Constitutional voting age
Amendment from 21 to
Act 18 years
D.
99th (iv) Formation and
Constitutional functioning of
Amendment cooperative
Act societies
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
45. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In the first three general
elections, India produced a ‘one party
dominance’ model, which is different
from one party system.
Reason (R): Till 1967, the Congress
party had exclusive control over
governmental power both at the
Centre and also in most of the states
of India.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
46. Arrange the following Speakers of
Lok Sabha of India in chronological
order and select the correct answer
from the codes given below:
I. Dr. Balram Jakhar
II. Dr. Gurdial Singh Dhillon
III. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
IV. Bali Ram Bhagat
Codes:
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, III, I, IV
(c) III, II, IV, I
(d) III, IV, II, I
47. Which of the following High Courts
have Bench/Benches?
(a) Allahabad, Bombay, Jabalpur
(b) Jodhpur, Bombay, Hyderabad
(c) Calcutta, Guwahati, Bangalore
(d) Jabalpur, Madras, Guwahati
48. According to Peter Self, the study
of public administration developed
as an offshoot of which one of the
following?
(a) Political Science or Public law
(b) Politics or Ethics
(c) Public Policy or Policy making
(d) Political system or interest
aggregation
49. Which one of the following is not
a part of the underlying ideas of
traditional or mechanistic theory
of organization?
(a) It takes an administrative view of
human relationship.
(b) It considers economic incentives
to be the sole motivating factor.
(c) It ignores the dynamics of
organizational behaviour.
(d) It gives more importance to
informal relationship.
50. Which one of the following key
components of ‘governance’ was
not identified by OECD, while
laying down conditions for receiving
economic assistance?
(a) Participatory development
(b) Strict auditing
(c) Human rights
(d) Democratisation
51. Who among the following thinkers
advocated ‘effective communication’
as a basic prerequisite for the
attainment of organizational goals?
(a) Herbert Simon
(b) Peter Self
(c) Chester Barnard
(d) Woodrow Wilson
52. Taking an extreme view of the
distinction between public and
private administration, who said
that all organizations share public
and private features?
Practice Set-1
(a) Dwight Waldo
(b) E.S. Savas
(c) Barry Bozeman
(d) James W. Fesler
53. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Some departments
are concerned not only with
purely administrative work but
some authority to make rules and
regulations is also delegated to them
by the legislature.
Reason (R): John M. Pfiffner prefers
single head of the department under
certain circumstances.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
54. What is common among Duncan
Black, Anthony Dowas, James
Buchanan, and Kenneth Arrow?
(a) They are all advocates of Public
Choice Theory in public
administration.
(b) They are all ex-Cabinet Secretaries
of UK.
(c) They are all supporters of Whitley
Councils in UK.
(d) They are all exponents of classical
theories of administration.
55. Cybernetics means:
(a) Science of communicating
(b) Communication methods
(c) Artificial intelligence
(d) Science of control and
communication
56. Who among the following declared
that the state is retreating in the
face of the superior power of
globalization?
(a) McLean and McMillan
(b) George Schwarzenberger
(c) Kenneth Waltz
(d) Susan Strange
57. Who among the following argued
that ‘realism is likely to remain
the single most useful instrument
in our intellectual toolbox’?
(a) Holsti
(b) E.H. Carr
(c) Hans Morgenthau
(d) Stephen Walt
58. Article 25 of the Charter of the
United Nations provides that
(a) Use of force is allowed for self-
defence.
(b) Only peace loving states can
become members of UN.
(c) All UN members agree to accept
and carry-out the decisions of the
Security Council.
(d) T h e S e c u r i t y C o u n c i l h a s
primary responsibility under the
Charter for the maintenance of
international peace and security.
59. Which of the following has not
been incorporated into Indian law,
either fully or partially?
(a) The Tokyo Convention Act 1975
(b) The Rome Statute of the
International Criminal Court.
(c) The Anti-Apartheid (United
Nations Convention) Act, 1981
(d) The Geneva Convention Act, 1960
60. Which of the following statements is
not correct regarding International
Criminal Court?
(a) The statute of International
Criminal Court was adopted by
United Nations Conference on
18th July, 1998.
(b) The International Criminal Court is
not an organ of United Nations but
it is an independent organization.
(c) Its statute came into force on 1st
July, 2002.
(d) The four organs of International
Criminal Court are the Presidency,
the Judicial Division, the office of
the Prosecutor and the Registry.
7
61. In which year the UN General
Assembly adopted the Convention
on the Rights of Persons with
Disabilities?
(a) 2006 (b) 2007
(c) 2008 (d) 2009
62. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(Committee of (Issues
General Assembly related to
of UN) Committee)
A. First i. Economic
Committee and financial
B. Second ii. Disarmament
Committee and
international
security
C. Third iii. Special
Committee political
and
decolonisation
D. Fourth iv. Social,
Committee humanitarian
and cultural
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
63. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): End of Cold War
signified a shift from ideological
politics in International relations.
Reason (R): Religious fundamen-
talism is posing a threat to security.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
 8 Practice Set-1
64. Which of the following statements
is not true?
(a) Traditional political theory is
qualitative.
(b) Behavioural political theory is
quantitative.
(c) Post-behavioural political theory is
both qualitative and quantitative.
(d) Post-behavioural political theory
is ethnocentric; focuses especially
on western democracies.
65. Who among the following emphasized
on ‘procedural theory of democracy’
highlighting three criteria?
(a) S.M. Lipset
(b) R.A. Dahl
(c) Joseph Schumpeter
(d) Sheldon Wolin
66. Which one of the following is not a
formulation of Max Weber?
(a) Rationality, functional differen-
tiation and specialization resulting
in order, harmony and efficiency.
(b) Dominant authority based on
beliefs and symbols in relation to
ideal types.
(c) Dominant authority is hierarchical
and related to state and ruling class.
(d) Rationalization and ideal typology
method.
67. Who said that federalism requires
a people “Who desire union and
must not desire unity”?
(a) James Bryce (b) A.V. Dicey
(c) K.C. Wheare (d) H. Finer
68. The assertion that there is no direct
connection between the shape of a
political culture and the stability of
governance is made by
(a) Lijphart (b) Wolin
(c) Kavanagh (d) Blondel
69. The ability of the U.S. President
to get their way depends on four
crucial relationships
(i) The Congress
(ii) The Federal Bureaucracy
(iii) The Supreme Court
(iv) The Mass Media
Which of the above is undoubtedly
the most critical?
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
(c) (iii) (d) (iv)
70. Who said, “The Constituent
Assembly was a one party body in
an essentially one party country.
The Assembly was the congress and
the congress was India”?
(a) Morris Jones
(b) Paul R. Brass
(c) Granville Austin
(d) Richard Sisson
71. Match List–I with List–II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List–I List–II
(Books) (Authors)
A. The Child and i. Atul Kohli
the State in India
B. The Hindu ii. Pranab
Nationalist Bardhan
Movement
and Indian
Politics
C. The Political iii. Christopher
Economy of Jaffrelot
Development in (c) Rajamannar Committee, West
India Bengal Memorandum, Anandpur
D. Poverty Amid iv. Myron
Plenty in the Weiner
New India
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
72. Which of the following have been
identified as the ground for judicial
review in the exercise of power of
pardon by the President of India
or Governor of a state?
i. that the order has been passed
without application of mind.
ii. that the order is malafide.
iii. that the order is based on
extraneous or wholly irrelevant
considerations.
iv. that the order suffers from
arbitrariness.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
73. Arrange the following peasant
movements in India in chronological
order and select the correct answer
from the codes given below:
i. Singur ii. Bardoli
iii. Tebhaga iv. Champaran
Codes:
(a) iv, iii, i, ii (b) iv, ii, iii, i
(c) ii, iii, iv, i (d) i, ii, iii, iv
74. Identify the correct chronological
order of the developments of events
related to federalism in India.
(a) Anandpur Sahib Resolution,
Rajamannar committee, Punchhi
Commission, West Bengal
Memorandum
(b) West Bengal Memorandum, Raja-
mannar Committee, Anandpur
Sahib Resolution, Punchhi Com-
mission
Sahib Resolution, Punchhi Com-
mission
(d) Rajamannar Committee, Anand-
pur Sahib Resolution, West
Bengal Memorandum, Punchhi
Commission
75. Who described Indian capitalism
as “Dharmashala Capitalism”?
(a) V.K.R.V. Rao
(b) J. Bhagwati
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Raj Krishna
76. Which of the following is not
associated with electoral reforms
in India?
(a) Tarkunde Committee
(b) Dinesh Goswami Committee
(c) N.N. Vohra Committee
(d) Indrajit Gupta Committee
77. In India, the term deficit financing
was first defined by
(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Finance Commission
Practice Set-1
(c) Administrative Reforms Commis-
sion
(d) A.D. Gorwala Report
78. Which of the following types of
bureaucracy regards itself as the
custodian of public interest but is
independent of and unresponsive
to public opinion?
(a) Merit bureaucracy
(b) Caste bureaucracy
(c) Patronage bureaucracy
(d) Guardian bureaucracy
79. Which of the following are the
common features between the
73rd Constitutional Amendment
Act and the 74th Constitutional
Amendment Act?
(i) Periodical elections.
(ii) Empowerment of socially and
economically weak groups.
(iii) Constitution of State Election
Commission.
(iv) Constitution of Ward Com-
mittees.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
80. Which of the following are statutory
bodies?
(i) University Grants Commission
(ii) Official Language Commission
(iii) Railway Board
(iv) Atomic Energy Commission
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
81. Which country/countries refused
to accept legally binding emission
cuts following Kyoto Protocol?
(a) India specialized agency of the United
(b) China
(c) India and China both
(d) Sweden
82. Which leader of the USSR introduced
the policy of ‘peaceful-coexistence’?
(a) Mikhail Gorbachev
(b) N. Khrushchev
(c) L. Brezhnev
(d) Joseph Stalin
83. At the end of cold war Francis
Fukuyama constructed the thesis
of ‘end of history’ which meant:
(a) The world would no longer be
unfolding events.
(b) The tension and conflict would
cease to exist at global level.
(c) Ideological struggles had come to
an end.
(d) Ideological struggles would be
waged with new vigour.
84. NATO’s partnership for peace
programme was aimed at
(a) Incorporating ex-Eastern bloc states
into the organisation.
(b) Tackling problem of Serbs in
Bosnia.
(c) Implementing military action
against Yugoslavia.
(d) Taking action against Al Asad
Regime in Syria.
85. Which of the events mentioned
below is taken as signalling the end
of Cold War?
(a) Soviet Union’s collapse in 1991n
(b) Breaching of Berlin Wall in 1989
(c) Declaration of independence by
Republic of Kazakhstan in 1991
(d) Large scale revolt for freedom in
Baltic States in 1989
86. T h e r e n a m i n g o f E u r o p e a n
Community (EC) to European
Union resulted from the signing of
(a) Maastricht Treaty
(b) Treaty of Rome
(c) The Lisbon Treaty
(d) Treaty of Nice
87. Which of the following is not a
Nations?
(a) WHO (b) IMF
(c) FAO (d) OPEC
9
88. C. Wright Mills, The Power Elite
(1956) offered a general analysis of
elites in
(a) Entire capitalistic world.
(b) Developed capitalistic world of
North America and Western
Europe.
(c) Developed capitalistic nations of
North America, Western Europe
and Japan.
(d) Developed capitalism of the
U.S.A.
89. Power is like money is formulated
by
(a) C. Wright Mills
(b) Paul Sweezy
(c) Talcott Parsons
(d) Ralph Milibandn
90. Catch all party describes the post
second world war party system in
(a) Western Europe
(b) Eastern Europe
(c) The U.S. Party system
(d) All of the above
Direction: Read the following Passage
and answer the following five question:
The Panchayat Raj System was first
adopted by the state of Rajasthan in
Nagaur district on 2nd Oct 1959. The
second state was Andhra Pradesh,
while Maharashtra was the Ninth
state. In India, the Panchayati Raj
Institutions (PRIs) now functions as a
system of governance in which gram
Panchayats are the basic units of
local administration. The system has
three levels: Gram Panchayat (village
level), Mandal Parishad or Block
Samiti or Panchayat Samiti (block
level), and Zila Parishad (district
level). It was formalized in 1992 by
the 73rd amendment to the Indian
Constitution. The 73rd amendment
contains provision for devolution of
powers and responsibilities to the
panchayats, both for the preparation of
socio-economic development plans and
the ability to levy and collect appropriate
taxes, duties, tolls and fees. The
authority relating to transfer of powers
and funds to PRIs vests with the states.
 10
91. Which State was the first to adopt
Panchayati Raj system?
(a) Gujarat
(b) West Bengal
(c) Rajasthan liberty) consists of the ability to do
(d) Madhya Pradesh
92. Which year Panchayati Raj system
was Constitutionalised in India?
(a) 1947 (b) 1950
(c) 1959 (d) 1992
93. The Panchayati Raj System in India
has
(a) Two-Tier (b) Three-Tier
(c) Four-Tier (d) None
94. The election for Panchayat in India
are conducted by
(a) Election Commission of India
(b) State Election Commission of India
(c) State Government
(d) None
95. Which organisation decides the
distribution of taxes between State
government and Panchayati Raj
system?
(a) State Finance department
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Union Finance Ministry
(d) President of India
Practice Set-1
Direction: Read the following Passage 97. Who argued that positive liberty
and answer the following five question: enables the individual to take
Negative freedom (or negative liberty) control of their life.
consists of freedom from some-thing (a) Robert Nozick
whereas positive freedom (or positive (b) Isaiah Berlin
(c) William Beveridge
something. Negative freedom therefore
(d) T.H Green
consists of laws to combat discrimina-
tion whereas positive freedom enables 98. ‘The role of the state must therefore
those on limited incomes to lead a more be limited to that of a night-
watchman’ this statement is
fulfilled and meaningful existence.
In regard to the two main strands supporting?
of liberal thought, classical liberals (a) Positive Liberty
advocate negative freedom whereas (b) Negative Liberty
social liberals favour positive freedom. (c) Both
The distinction between positive and (d) None
negative freedom is a significant one
99. The role of the _________ is an
in terms of the proper role of the state.
absolutely key dividing line within
The goal of negative freedom demands
liberal thought between those on
a limited role for the state, whereas
the right of the libertarian axis and
positive freedom results in a larger role
those on the left.
for the state. Following on from this,
(a) Individual
the role of the state is an absolutely
(b) Society
key dividing line within liberal thought
between those on the right of the (c) State
libertarian axis and those on the left. (d) Family
96. Negative freedom upholds the 100. W ho among the following is a
notion of supporter of Negative Liberty?
(a) Unencumbered self (a) John Rawls
(b) Encumbered self (b) J.S Mill
(c) Distant self (c) T.H Green
(d) Social self (d) Robert Nozick

Answers with Explanations

1. (c) George Catlin in his book
‘Political Theory: What is it?’ Quoted
that the Political theory includes political
science and political philosophy. While
science refers to the phenomenon of
control in many forms over all the
processes of whole social field. It is
concerned with the end or final value,
when man asks, what the national good
is or “What is a good society.”
2. (a) ‘The Prince’ by Machiavelli
is a Real Politik. He wrote this book
while considering the prevailing problem
of Italy. He provided the rules a ruler
should follow for ensuring the unity and
integrity of his country.
3. (a) The concept of General will was
given by Rousseau in his social Contract
theory. The Main Idea behind General
will is that it knows what is right for its
Subjects. It talks about Common Good.
General will is rational. It is not self-
contradictory. It is thus gives unity in the
sense that it is indivisible.
4. (a) Hobbes while building platform
for his social contract theory, described
about the Law of Nature. Here he quoted
Laws of Nature as the Laws of Prudence.
According to Hobbes, a law of nature is
a general rule, found out by reason, by
which a person is forbidden to do that
which is destructive of his life.
5. (d)
 List–I    
List–II
Surplus value – Marx
Communist Party – Lenin
Hegemony – Gramsci
General Will – Rousseau
6. (d) Kautilya mainly focused on the
duties of King to maintain law and order
in the society. He writes in Arthashastra,
“Because the King is the guardian of
right conduct of this world with four
‘varnas’ and four ‘ashramas’ he can enact
and promulgate laws when all traditional
codes of conduct perish.” The King was
looked upon an embodiment of virtue, a
protector of dharma.
Practice Set-1
7. (d) Pandita Ramabai Saraswati, a
scholar, feminist and educator, broke
nearly every rule and tradition that
confined the life of an upper-caste Hindu
woman in 19th-century India. Ramabai’s
most important work, “The High Caste
Hindu Woman,” written in 1887, focused
on the plight of Hindu widows. In 1887
Ramabai Association was established by
him.
8. (b) ‘The Arctic Homes of Vedas’
was written by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in
year 1903. This book provides a theory
about the origin of Aryan people. He
claimed in his book that aryan race
belong to Arctic Region and they arrived
to India from the Arctic.
9. (c) Kautilya in his Mandal theory
has provided the ways of Inter-State
relations. Ari-mitra is also one such
relation. Aryamitra is the category of
State that is the enemy’s friend. Which
means every Arimitra is a threat to a
State.
10. (b) E.V Ramaswamy or ‘Periyar’
is considered as the father of Modern
Tamil Nadu. He did significant work for
the upliftment of Dravidian people. He
established Dravidar Kazhagam. Periyar,
known as a social reformer, speaks and
writes about many aspects of caste,
religion, god, feminism and language.
11. (b) Ambedkar in his multiple work
criticised the caste system established by
Hindu Varnavyavastha. He believes that
it is an immoral social organisation. He
also said in his ‘Annihilation of Caste’
that Hindu society is a myth.
12. (a) Yes, Comparative Politics is
a systematic study of world’s Political
systems and their comparisons. The
main objective of Comparative Politics is
to explain the differences and similarities
among numbers of Political systems.
Both the statements are correct and
Reason statement is correct explanation
behind the assertion.
13. (b) Yes, its true that all democratic
regimes have a constitution sort of
detailed, written or coventionas-based.
Another feature of democratic regimes
is their limitations and responsibilities.
Both the statement are correct and
but Reason statement is not a correct
explanation behind the assertion.
14. (a) Tyranny of the Majority is
against the principle of democracy.
Majoritarianism result into division
of society. It usually develops conflict
among majority and minority. It leads to
the exploitation of minority by majority
forces. The most disastrous consequence
of Tyranny of Majority is Civil War for
example Sri Lanka experienced a civil
war between Sinhala and Tamils.
15. (b) Participatory Democracy calls
for the Participation and contribution of
citizens in the governance of the country.
It require people to play an active
political role. It requires greater political
awareness among people. Participatory
Democracy can survive just on Voting.
16. (c) The book “Introduction to the
study of the law of the constitution” was
written by A.V Dicey in year 1885. This
work has been selected by scholars as
being culturally important, and is part of
the knowledge base of civilization as we
know it.
17. (a) Yes, It right say that the
Decision making theory was developed
especially in the realm of foreign policy
making. The man focus of decision
making theory is on the person shaping
international events rather than on
the international situation. Both the
statements are correct and Reason
statement is correct explanation behind
the assertion.
18. (a) There is no specialised theory
of International Relations in Marxism.
Most of the ideas are derived from
the basic concept of Marxism. One of
the reasons behind is that Marxism is
against the State and it wants to create
a stateless society. State is considered as
an exploitation in Marxism.
19. (d) Yes, Its correct that Concept
of Power is very ambiguous but it is
one of the most important pillars of
International Relation Theory. Hence, it
can be removed from it.
20. (b) The United Nation was establi-
shed on 24th October 1945. The objective
behind its formation was to maintain
world peace and security and to make the
world a safe place.
11
During the cold war, two superpowers
acquired highly sophisticated destructive
weapons. Both the statements are correct
and but Reason statement is not a correct
explanation behind the assertion.
21. (a)
The World Bank 1. 1945
World Trade Organisation 2. 1995
World Health Organisation 3. 1948
International Atomic
Energy Agency 4. 1957
22. (b)
Karl Kautsky 1. Marxism
Robert Owen 2. Socialism
John Locke 3. Liberalism
Clinton Rossiter 4. Conservatism
23. (c) The Early-19th-century followers
of the utopian theories and Socialism were
thinkers like Robert Owen, Claude Henri
de Saint-Simon and Charles Fourier.
24. (c) Established in 1981, the GCC
promotes economic, security, cultural
and social cooperation between the six
states and holds a summit every year to
discuss cooperation and regional affairs.
25. (b) The Agreement on Trade-
Related Investment Measures are rules
that are applicable to the domestic
regulations a country applies to foreign
investors, often as part of an industrial
policy. It is related to WTO.
26. (d) The WTO Agreement on
Agriculture was one of the many
agreements which were negotiated during
the Uruguay Round. The implementation
of the Agreement on Agriculture started
with effect from 1.1.1995. As per
the provisions of the Agreement, the
developed countries would complete
their reduction commitments within 6
years, i.e., by the year 2000, whereas
the commitments of the developing
countries would be completed within 10
years, i.e., by the year 2004. The least
developed countries are not required to
make any reductions.
27. (c) The Gujral doctrine was a
five-point roadmap which sought to build
trust between India and neighbours,
of solution to bilateral issues through
 12
bilateral talks and to remove immediate
quid pro quos in diplomatic relationship
between India and her neighbours. The
‘Doctrine’ emphasized on the importance
of unilateral accommodation for friendly
and warm relations with India’s
neighbours.
28. (d) India’s Act East Policy focuses
on the extended neighbourhood in the
Asia-Pacific region. India has upgraded
its relations to strategic partnership with
Indonesia, Vietnam, Malaysia, Japan,
Republic of Korea (ROK), Australia,
Singapore and the Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and
forged close ties with all countries in the
Asia-Pacific region.
29. (c) India and Pakistan joined SCO
as full members on 9 June 2017 at a
summit in Astana, Kazakhstan.
30. (a) The 11th BRICS Summit held
in Brasília, Brazil. The 2019 Brazilian
Presidency focused on the theme,
‘BRICS: Economic Growth for an
Innovative Future’.
31. (d) Bryce says that “Parliamentary
system provides a Daily as well as
Periodic assessment of the government.”
32. (b)
List-I List-II
(Countries) (Types of Political
System)
(i) China – People’s Democratic,
Socialist, Republic
(ii) Germany – Federal, Represen-
tative, Democratic,
Republic
(iii) France – Indivisible, Secular,
Democratic,
Republic
(iv) South – Sovereign,
Africa Democratic,
Republic.
33. (a) The responsibility of interpre
ting and supervision of the implementation
of the Constitution of China rests on the
Standing Committee of the National
People’s Congress.
34. (d) The idea that before passing a
no-confidence motion against the govern-
ment, the Parliament must explore the
possibility of forming an alternative
government is a part of German Constitu-
tion.
35. (b) The erstwhile USSR was
defined by China as a ‘Social Imperialist
Power’ because of the nature of gover-
nance in USSR. Considering the way in
which the USSR has extended its control
over countries around it during the Cold
War period, China call it an Imperialist
Regime.
36. (d) Sweden was the first country
to establish the office of Ombudsman.
It dates back to 1809, created by the
constitution. It was originally established
to provide the Parliament (Riksdag) with
the means of supervising compliance
with laws and ordinances by all judges,
civil servants and military officers.
37. (a) Unitary form of Government is
a converse of federation and is a system
in which all powers are centralized in the
hands of a central government. A single
central government controls the whole
state with full might. Although the state is
divided into provinces and other units but
these divisions are administrative in their
nature. These sub-divisions completely
work under the supervision and control
of the central government.
38. (c) The Preamble of Indian Consti-
tution declares the objective of Equality
of status and Opportunity in India. The
Preamble presume India to become a
Socialist, Democartic, Secular Country.
Liberal society is not one among the
objectives of Indian Preamble.
39. (b) Gandhi was an ardent promoter
of philosophy of Non-Violence. He
believes that there will be no requirement
of state in a Non-Violent society. A non-
violent society can run on its own. He
also supported the idea of Ideal society
which is Stateless.
40. (c) The erstwhile state of Jammu
& Kashmir had got a special status in
Indian Federal system. It had a separate
Constitution and also a different flag.
These special status to Jammu & Kashmir
were given in 1948 after its accession to
India.
41. (d) The correct chronological
order of the formation of Political Parties
in India is:
Justice Party – 1917
Shiromani Akali Dal – 1920
Hindu Maha Sabha – 1921
National Conference – 1932
Practice Set-1
42. (b) Article 156(2) Talks about
resignation of Governor by writing to
President. He is not dismissed under
Article 156(2).
43. (c) Joint session is allowed for
Ordinary legislation but not in case of a
money bill or constitutional amendment
bill. Rest both the statement are correct.
44. (d)
 (Amendments) (Features)
36th Constitutional – Declaration
Amendment Act of Sikkim
as a full
fledged
state
61st Constitutional – Lowering
Amendment Act of voting
age from 21
to 18 years
97th Constitutional – Formation
Amendment Act and
functioning
of
cooperative
societies
99th Constitutional – Transpare-
Amendment Act ncy in
judicial
appoint-
ments
45. (a) Yes, The initial 3 general
election have dominance of one party that
is congress. But it does not like the one
party system, where other parties are not
allowed to contest. In India all parties are
allowed to contest but during this phase
they did not get public support. Congress
in early 20 year has control over centre
as well as state government in majority
of states.
46. (b) The Correct chronological
order of Lok Sabha speaker of India.
N.S Reddy – 1967–69
Gurdial Singh Dhillon – 1969–75
Bali Ram Bhagat – 1976–77
Balram Jakhar – 1980–89
47. (a) Allahabad High Court the
High Court for Uttar Pradesh. Jabalpur
High Court is for Madhya Pradesh and
Bombay High Court is for Bombay,
Daman and Diu.
48. (a) Peter Self claimed that Political
Science and Public Laws result into the
development of Public Administration.
Practice Set-1
49. (d) According to Black’s Law
Dictionary mechanistic organization
is “the organization is hierarchical and
bureaucratic. It is characterized by its
(1) highly centralized authority,
(2) formalized procedures and
practices, and
(3) specialized functions. Mechanistic
organization is relatively easier
and simpler to organize, but
rapid change is very challenging.
Contrast to organic organization.”
It did not give importance to
informal relationship.
50. (b) ODA flows are provided by the
29 OECD members of the Development
Assistance Committee (DAC). Official
development assistance (ODA) is defined
as government aid designed to promote
the economic development and welfare
of developing countries. Strict adulting
is not among the governance criteria.
51. (c) Chester Barnard suggested
7 principles of communication which
are important in establishing and
maintaining objective authority in an
organization. These principles are-The
channels of communication should be
definite. Everyone in the organization
must have a definite formal channel of
communication, etc.
52. (b) In his work ‘Privatization and
Public-Private Partnership’ E.S Savas
mentioned that all organisations share
public and private features.
53. (b) John M. Pfiffner prefers single
head of the department under certain
circumstances. As some departments
are concerned not only with purely
administrative work but some authority
to make rules and regulations is also
delegated to them by the legislature. Both
the statement are correct, but reason
statement is not a correct explanation of
the assertion.
54. (a) Public Choice theory is the
application of economics to the study
of public administration. Public choice
is defined by Dennis Mueller as “the
economic study of non-market decision
making or simply the application
of economics to political science”.
Duncan Black. Anthony Dowas, James
Buchanan, and Kenneth Arrow all are
propagators of Public Choice theory.
55. (d) Cybernetics is the science
of communication and control theory
that is concerned especially with the
comparative study of automatic control
systems (such as the nervous system
and brain and mechanical-electrical
communication systems).
56. (d) Susan Strange wrote a book
‘The Retreat of State’. The central
argument of the book is that the state
is retreating in the face of the superior
power of globalization.
57. (d) Stephen Walt has written
that even in the post–Cold War period,
“realism is likely to remain the single
most useful instrument in our intellectual
toolbox” for understanding world
politics.
58. (a) Article 25 of the UN Charter
directs all nation that “The Members of
the United Nations agree to accept and
carry out the decisions of the Security
Council in accordance with the present
Charter.”
59. (b) India has neither signed
nor ratified the Rome Statute on the
International Criminal Court (ICC).
The reason is that the Rome Statute on
the International Criminal Court (ICC)
defines war crimes including the ‘armed
conflict not of an international character’.
60. (a) 1 July 2002, in accordance
with article 126. The Statute was
adopted on 17 July 1998 by the United
Nations Diplomatic Conference of
Plenipotentiaries on the Establishment of
an International Criminal Court.
61. (a) The Convention on the Rights
of Persons with Disabilities and its
Optional Protocol was adopted on 13
December 2006 at the United Nations
Headquarters in New York, and was
opened for signature on 30 March
2007The Convention entered into force
on 3 May 2008. It takes to a new height
the movement from viewing persons
with disabilities as “objects” of charity,
medical treatment and social protection
towards viewing persons with disabilities
as “subjects” with rights, who are
capable of claiming those rights and
making decisions for their lives based on
their free and informed consent as well
as being active members of society.
13
62. (a)
(Committee of (Issues related to
 the General Committee)
Assembly of UN)
First – Disarmament and
Committee international
security
Second – Economic and
Committee financial
Third – Social,
Committee humanitarian and
cultural
Fourth – Special political
Committee and decolonisation
63. (b) Yes, Religious fundamentalism
is posing a threat to security. It is a
creating condition for terrorism. It is
believed by various scholars that the end
of the cold war has shifted the ideological
politics in international relations in
significant way.
64. (d) The key feature of Post-
behavioural Political theories was that,
they are no more ethnocentric in nature.
Their centre of focus is third world
nations. Ethnocentrism is a property of
behavioural Political Theory.
65. (b) Robert Dahl’s model for a
procedural democracy is presented in his
book ‘Democracy and its Critics’.
66. (c) According to the bureaucratic
theory of Max Weber, bureaucracy is the
basis for the systematic formation of any
organisation and is designed to ensure
efficiency and economic effectiveness. It
is an ideal model for management and its
administration to bring an organisation’s
power structure into focus. He didn’t
believe that dominant authority is
hierarchical and related to state and
ruling class.
67. (b) The desire for union, not
unity is an essential precondition for
establishing a federation. To say in the
words of Albert Venn Dicey: “There
should be a desire for union rather than
unity.” It means that the states seeking a
federation must not extinguish their own
identity.
68. (a) Lijphart was of the view that
there is no direct connection between
the shape of a political culture and the
stability of governance. He establish the
political culture have negligible impact
on the political system.
 14
69. (a) The United State House of
Representatives which is also known as
the Congress is the most critical barrier
in the exercise of power by President of
US. The Funding for implementation of
any decision taken by US president need
to be passed by Congress.
70. (c) The critics charged that the
Constituent Assembly was dominated by
the Congress party. Granville Austin, a
British Constitutional expert, remarked
that ‘the Constituent Assembly was a
one-party body in an essentially one
party country. The Assembly was the
Congress and the Congress was India’.
71. (b)
(Books) (Authors)
The Child and – Myron Weiner
the State in India Atul Kohli
The Hindu – Christopher
Nationalist Jaffrelot
Movement and
Indian Politics
The Political – Pranab Bardhan
Economy of
Development in
India
Poverty Amid – Atul Kholi
Plenty in the
New India
72. (d) The SC in Epuru Sudhakar
case has given a small window for
judicial review of the pardon powers of
President and governors for the purpose
of ruling out any arbitrariness. The
ground established by the Supreme Court
for Judicial Review are; that the order
has been passed without application of
mind;that the order is malafide; that the
order is based on extraneous or wholly
irrelevant considerations; that the order
suffers from arbitrariness.
73. (c) The correct Chronology of
Peasant Movements in India is
Champaran satyagraha – 1917
Bardoli Satyagraha – 1928
Tebhaga Andolan – 1946–47
Singur Andolan – 2006
74. (d) The correct chronological
order of Event related to federalism in
India is:
Rajamannar Committee – 1969
Anandpur Sahib Resolution – 1973
West Bengal Memorandum – 1977
Punchhi Commission – 2007
75. (d) Raj Krishna was an Indian
economist who taught at the Delhi School
of Economics. He is most famous for the
phrase “Hindu rate of growth” which
he coined for India’s low rate of GDP
growth between the 1950s and 1980s.
He also gave the concept of Dharamshala
Model.
76. (c) The N.N. Vohra committee
was set up in 1993 to look into the status
of Criminalization of Politics in India.
It studied the nexus among criminals,
politicians and bureaucrats in India.
77. (a) Deficit financing, practice in
which a government spends more money
than it receives as revenue, the difference
being made up by borrowing or minting
new funds. In India this is introduced in
First Five year Plan.
78. (d) Plato’s concept of the philo-
sopher king is an example of the guardian
bureaucracy. They were considered the
custodians of justice and welfare of the
community. This type may be defined as
“a scholastic officialdom trained in right
conduct according to the classics.”
79. (b) Periodic election, Constitution
of State election commission, Consti-
tution of State finance commission and
empowerment of Socially and eco-
nomically backward groups are few
common features of 73rd and 74th
Amendment Act.
80. (b) Official Languages Commis-
sion (India) is a commission which was
constituted by the President of India in
pursuance to the provisions stated in the
Article-344 of the Indian Constitution.
Hence it is a constitutional body and not
a Statutory Body.
81. (a) Being the leaders of Develop-
ing World both India and China
rejected the binding emission principle
of Kyoto Protocol. They asked for the
principle of ‘Common but differentiated
responsibility’.
82. (b) The Soviet theory of peaceful
coexistence asserted that the United States
and USSR, and their respective political
Practice Set-1
ideologies, could coexist rather than
fighting one another, and Khrushchev
tried to demonstrate his commitment to
peaceful coexistence.
83. (c) The ‘End of History and the
Last Man’ written by Francis Fukuyama
in 1992 claimed that the end of the cold
war the ideological struggle between
capitalism and Socialism ended.
84. (a) The Partnership for Peace
(PfP) is a programme of practical bilateral
cooperation between individual Euro-
Atlantic partner countries and NATO. It
allows partners to build up an individual
relationship with NATO, choosing their
own priorities for cooperation.
85. (b) The fall of the Berlin wall in
1989 was considered as the first nail in
the coffer of cold war. The end of the
cold war started with the unification of
Germany after the fall of the Berlin wall.
86. (a) The Maastricht Treaty
(formally the Treaty on European Union)
was signed on 7 February 1992 by the
members of the European Communities
in Maastricht, Netherlands, to further
European integration. It created
European Union.
87. (d) The Organization of the
Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is
a permanent, intergovernmental Organi-
zation, created at the Baghdad Conference
on September 10 to September 14, 1960,
by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and
Venezuela. Now it has 14 members. It is
not a specialized agency of the UN. It is
basically a petroleum Cartel.
88. (d) C. Wright Mills’ The Power
Elite (1956) offered a general analysis
of elites in USA. According to Mills,
the eponymous “power elite” are those
that occupy the dominant positions in the
dominant institutions (military, economic
and political) of a dominant country, and
their decisions (or lack of decisions) have
enormous consequences, not only for the
U.S. population, but “the underlying
populations of the world.”
89. (c) Talcott Parsons in his book
‘On the Concept of Political power’
elaborated Power as money. Parsons
Juxtaposes the use of money in an
economic system to the use of power in
Practice Set-1
a political system throughout the article,
showing similarities in the use of both.
90. (a) In politics, a big tent or catch-
all party is a type of political party that
seeks to attract voters from different
points of view and ideologies. The
party system in western Europe after
the Second World War represented the
notion of catch all Party.
91. (c) The Panchayat Raj System was
first adopted by the state of Rajasthan in
Nagaur district on 2nd Oct 1959.
92. (d) Panchayat Raj system was
formalized in 1992 by the 73rd amendment
to the Indian Constitution. The 73rd
amendment contains provision for
devolution of powers and responsibilities
to the Panchayats, both for the preparation
of socio-economic development plans and
the ability to levy and collect appropriate
taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
93. (b) In India, the Panchayati Raj
Institutions (PRIs) now functions as a
system of governance in which Gram
Panchayats are the basic units of local
administration. The system has three
levels: Gram Panchayat (village level),
Mandal Parishad or Block Samiti of
Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zila
Parishad (district level).
94. (b) State Election Commission
are constituted in every state after 73rd
and 74th constitutional amendment. Its
is responsible for conducting election for
panchayat and Urban Local bodies.
95. (b) State Finance Commission
are constituted in every state after 73rd
and 74th constitutional amendment.
State Finance Commission decides
the distribution of taxes between State
government and Panchayati Raj system.
96. (a) Berlin actually favoured
negative freedom because it means we
are the masters of our own destiny.
Negative freedom upholds the notion
of the unencumbered self, whereas
despotism is made possible when the
state decides what is in our best interests.
97. (b) Isaiah Berlin argued that
positive liberty enables the individual to
15
take control of their life. Positive liberty
can therefore be understood to mean the
freedom to perform an action of some
description.
98. (b) The goal of negative freedom
demands a limited role for the state,
whereas positive freedom results in a
larger role for the state. In the realm of
economic policy, classical liberals such
as the Austrian school of economists extol
the virtues of laissez-faire economies.
The role of the state must therefore be
limited to that of a night-watchman (e.g.
to ensure that legal contracts are upheld
and the marketplace runs smoothly).
99. (c) The role of the state is an
absolutely key dividing line within liberal
thought between those on the right of the
libertarian axis and those on the left.
100. (d) Robert Nozick was a Neo-
Liberal, he did not believe in the idea
of Social Welfare or State Welfarism.
In his theory he strongly supported the
Negative idea of Liberty, which require
minimum role of state.
qqq
 16
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
1. John Locke in his book “Two
Treatises of Government” revealed
about the concept of
(a) Two-way Contract
(b) Criticism of Hobbes
(c) Natural Rights
(d) Individualism
2. Identify the Communitarian Philo-
sopher from among the following?
(a) Ernest Barker
(b) Maurice Cranston
(c) Friedrich Hayek
(d) Michael Sandel
3. Which of the following Pair is
incorrectly matched?
(a) Theory of Natural – Hobbes
Rights
(b) Theory of Legal – Austin
Rights
(c) Idealist Theory of – Hegel
Rights
(d) Social Welfare – Locke
Theory of Rights
4. Members of the Constituent
Assembly of India were:
1. Directly elected
2. Indirectly elected
3. Nominated
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Who said that “Forces of great
power in Nations are prescriptions
in favour of Local rights and
private property, of habits of
life, prejudices in favour of old
decencies, the family, and religious
dogmas”?
(a) Clinton Rossiter
(b) Arnold Garcia
Political Science
Practice Set-2
(c) Russell Kirk
(d) Adam Smith
6. The book ‘Women’s Estate’ was
written by
(a) Juliet Mitchell
(b) Kate Millett
(c) Simone de Beauvoir
(d) Mary Wollstonecraft
7. Who among the following has
worked for the animal rights?
(a) Schumacher
(b) Peter Singer
(c) Jan Smuts
(d) None of the above
8. Diverse cultures offer concrete alter-
native, is a hypothesis presented by
(a) Will Kymlicka
(b) Amy Gutmann
(c) Charles Taylor
(d) Arthur Schlesinger
9. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Ecologism starts from
a conception of humanity or human
needs.
Reason (R): Green politics, or eco-
politics, is a political ideology
that aims to foster an ecologically
sustainable society rooted in environ-
mentalism, nonviolence, social
justice and grassroots democracy.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Practice Set-2
10. Indian Constitution is called a
living document because
1. Indian Constitution is open to
changes as per the changing
needs of the society.
2. The constitution provides enough
flexibility of interpretation for both
political class and the Judiciary.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Consider the following pairs:
Constitutional Borrowed
 provisions from
1. Fundamental : United
Rights States
2. Idea of Residual : Canada
power
3. Rule of the law : Britain
4. Power of judicial : France
review
5. Directive : Ireland
Principles of
States Policy
Which of the pairs given above are
correctly matched?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
12. With reference to the members of
the constituent assembly, consider
the following statements:
1. Different communities were
represented in proportion to their
population.
2. Princely states were given no
representation.
3. Both Mahatma Gandhi and
M.A. Jinnah were members of
constituent assembly.
Practice Set-2
Which of the statements given
above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Which of the following is considered
as ‘Magna Carta of the Company’?
(a) Royal Charter by Queen Elizabeth
(b) Farrukhsiyar’s Farmans
(c) Treaty of Allahabad after the
Battle of Buxar
(d) Charter Act of 1813
14. Consider the following statements:
The function(s) of the Finance
Commission is/are:
1. To allow the withdrawal of the
money out of the Consolidated
Fund of India.
2. To allocated between the States
the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. To consider applications for
grants-in-aid from States.
4. To supervise and report on
whether the Union and State
governments are levying taxes
in accordance with the budgetary
provisions.
Which of these statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
15. According to the National Human
Rights Commission Act, 1993, who
amongst the following can be its
Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme
Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High
Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of
India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a
High Court
16. Which Article of the Constitution of
India says, ‘No child below the age
of fourteen years shall be employed
to work in any factory or mine or
engaged in any other hazardous
employment’?
(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45
(c) Article 330 (d) Article 368
17. Which one of the following statements
correctly describes the Fourth
Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the
distribution of powers between
the Union and the States.
(b) It contains the languages listed in
the Constitution.
(c) It contains the provisions regarding
the administration of tribal areas.
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of
States.
18. As per Indian Protocol, who among
the following ranks highest in the
order of precedence?
(a) Deputy Prime Minister
(b) Former President
(c) Governor of a State within his State
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
19. Consider the following statements:
1. Free and compulsory education
to the children of 6–14 years age
group by the State was made a
Fundamental Right by the 76th
Amendment to the Constitution
of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to
provide computer education even
in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the
Concurrent List by the 42nd
Amendment, 1976 to the Consti-
tution of India.
Which of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only
20. Who was the Chief Justice of India
when public interest litigation
(PIL) was introduced to the Indian
Judicial System?
(a) M. Hidayatullah
(b) A.M. Ahmadi
(c) A.S. Anand
(d) P.N. Bhagwati
21. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Committee
on Public Accounts in appointed
by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
17
2. The Committee on Public Accounts
comprises Members of Lok
Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha
and a few eminent persons of
industry and trade. Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. The 73rd Constitution Amendment
Act 1992 refers to the?
(a) Generation of gainful employment
for the unemployed and the
under-employed men and women
in rural areas.
(b) Generation of employment for the
able bodied adults who are in need
and desirous of work during the
lean agricultural season.
(c) Laying the foundation for strong
and vibrant Panchayati Raj
Institutions in the county.
(d) Guarantee of right to life, liberty
and security of person, equality
before law and equal protection
without discrimination.
23. If a new state of the Indian Union
is to be created, which one of the
following schedules of the Consti-
tution must be amended?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fifth
24. In what way does the Indian Parlia-
ment exercise control over the
administration?
(a) Through Parliamentary Committees.
(b) Through Consultative Committees
of various ministries.
(c) By making the administration
send periodic reports.
(d) By compelling the executive to
issue writs.
25. The Supreme Court of India
tenders advice to the President on
a matter of law of fact?
(a) On its own initiative.
(b) Only if he seeks such advice.
(c) Only if the matter relates to the
Fundamental Rights of citizens.
(d) Only if the issue poses a threat to the
unity and integrity of the country.
 18
26. Which Article of the Constitution
provides that it shall be the
Endeavour of every state to provide
adequate facilities for instruction in
the mother tongue at the primary
state of education?
(a) Article 349 (b) Article 350
(c) Article 350 A (d) Article 351
27. Who among the following has
written the article “The Zigzag of
Politics”?
(a) John Rawls (b) H.A. Hayek
31. Which of the following are the
(c) R. Nozick (d) J. Habermas
28. Who among the following is not a
proponent of communitarianism?
(a) Alasdair Maclntyre
(b) Michael Sandel
(c) Michael Walzer
(d) Friedrich Hayek
29. Which of the following are the
features of democracy?
(A) Democracy requires political
equality.
(B) All citizens must be entitled to
stand for election regardless of
race, sex, colour or religion.
(C) All citizens must possess a vote
(universal adult franchise).
(D) Political equality means ‘one
person one vote, one vote one
32. Which of the following are Lenin’s
value’.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
30. Match the List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer from the
code given below:
List-I List-II
 (Authors) (Books)
(A) Brian Berry (i) Justice
(B) Susan Moller (ii) Idea of
Okin Justice
(C) Amartya (iii) Justice,
K. Sen Gender
and Family
(D) Tom (iv) The Liberal
Campbell Theory of
Justice
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
features of Marx’s theory of
surplus value?
(A) It is an extension of Ricardo’s
theory.
(B) Labour power equals the brain,
muscle and nerve of the labourer.
(C) The value of every commodity is
not proportional to the quantity or
labour contained in it.
(D) The worker must be paid a price
proportional to the number of
labour hours that entered into its
production.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
contribution to Marxist theory?
(A) His theory of the party as the
vanguard of the proletariat’
which guides the masses both
before and after the revolution.
(B) His theory or capitalist imperia-
lism, which he held to constitute
the intermediary stage of
capitalism.
(C) His version for the reconstruction
of the world’s first proletarian
state.
(D) His theory of the strategy and
tactics of revolution.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Practice Set-2
(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
33. Which one of the following is not a
feature of ideology?
(a) A political belief system
(b) An action-oriented set of political
ideas
(c) The world view of a particular
social class or social group
(d) The political ideas that do not
embody or articulate class or
social interests
34. Who among the following described
comparative politics as primarily
concerned with “parties, interests
and leadership structure”?
(a) Gabriel Almond
(b) Sigmund Neuman
(c) Roy C. Macridis and Ward
(d) M.G. Smith
35. Who was the author of the book
“The Presidential Republic”?
(a) Jean Blondel
(b) Dorothy Pickles
(c) Walter Bagehot
(d) E.H. Carr
36. Which of the following pair is not
correctly matched?
(a) Political Continuity and change -
Peter H. Merkil
(b) Comparative Politics Today - S.P.
Huntington
(c) The Man on Horseback - Samuel
Finer
(d) Modern Political Systems: Asia -
R.C. Macridis
37. Which of the following are true
regarding a revolution?
(A) Change of Constitution
(B) One ruling elite is replaced by
another
(C) Transformation in Political Insti-
tutions
(D) Fundamental change in the Socio-
economic and political structures
Practice Set-2
Codes:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C), (D)
38. Which of the following are true
regarding a Unitary System of
Government?
(A) It is most effective in protecting
the unity and integrity of the
nation.
(B) Power is delegated to the local
units for administrative conveni-
ence.
(C) There is a single law making body.
(D The local administrative units do
not derive their power from the
Constitution.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) (A) and (C) only
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (C) and (D) only
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only
39. Which of the following amendments
of American Constitution laid
down “Due process of law” relating
to judicial scrutiny of legislative
and executive actions:
(A) 4th Amendment
(B) 5th Amendment
(C) 14th Amendment
(D) 16th Amendment
Choose the correct answer from the
below:
(a) (B) and (C) (b) (A) and (B)
(c) (A) and (D) (d) (C) and (D)
40. Which of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
(a) Administrative – France
Law
(b) Appointment of – Switzerland
Judges for life
(c) Equal Represen- – USA in
tation of States the House of
Senate
(d) Rule of Law – England
41. Match the items of List-I with items
of List-II by selecting the correct
answer from the given code below:
 List-I  List-II
(Writers) (Concepts)
(A) Dicey (i) Anomic
interest
groups
(B) S.P. Huntington (ii) Judicial
Review
(C) Almond (iii)
Political
decay
(D) Marbury Vs (iv) Rule of
Madison law
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(b) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
42. Which of the following was not a
feature of the Government of India
Act, 1919?
(a) Provision for a bicameral legisla-
ture at the centre.
(b) The Legislative Assembly would
have an elected majority and
control over ministers.
(c) Communal representation was not
only retained but extended.
(d) Enlarged the electorates both
for provinces and imperial
legislature.
43. Who amongst the following
provided a link between pre and
post independence institutional
framework to study Indian politics?
(a) Rajni Kothari (b) Myron Weiner
(c) Morries Jones (d) Paul R. Brass
44. Which of the following is true
about the fundamental rights under
Indian Constitution?
(A) It is protected and enforced by
the Constitution.
(B) It can be changed by the common
legislative process.
(C) Supreme Court is the guardian of
fundamental rights.
(D) All Constitutional rights are
fundamental rights.
19
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (A) and (C) only
(b) (A) and (B) only
(c) (A), (B) and (D) only
(d) (A), (C) and (D) only
45. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
List-I  List-II
(Idea/Concept) (Person
Associated)
(A) Soft state (i) Atul Kohli
(B) Politics of (ii) Subrata K.
Scarcity Mitra
(C) Crisis of (iii) Gunnar
Governability Myrdal
(D) Contentious (iv) Myron
Democracy Weiner
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
46. A college student desires to get
elected to the Municipal Council
of his city. The validity of his
nomination would depend on
the important condition, among
others, that?
(a) He obtains permission from the
Principal of his college.
(b) He is a member of a political party.
(c) His name figures in the Voters
List.
(d) He files a declaration owing
allegiance to the Constitution of
India.
47. Which one of the following state-
ments is incorrect?
(a) Goa attained full statehood in
1987.
(b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of
Khambhat.
(c) Daman and Diu were separated
from Goa by the 56th Amendment
of the Constitution of India.
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were
under French colonial rule till
1954.
 20
48. Which one of the following
rights was described by Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar as the heart and soul of
the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to Constitutional remedies
49. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian
Constitution was added by:
(a) First Amendment
(b) Eight Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty Second Amendment
50. Consider the following statements:
1. Agitation in favor of modern
education by progressive Indians.
2. To ensure cheap supply of educated
manpower for subordinate posts
in administration.
3. Government believed that
educated Indians would help
expand the market for British
Products.
Which of the above is/are the
reason(s) for spreading of education
(in India) by Government of India
during British rule?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All are correct
51. Consider the following pairs:
Nationalist News Paper
Leaders
1. Surendra Nath : Amrit Bazar
Banerjee Patrika
2. G. Subramaniya : Swade-
Aiyer samitran
3. Bal Gangadhar : Kesari
Tilak
4. Sishir Kumar : Bengalee
Ghosh
Which of the above pairs is/are
correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
52. Which of the following events in
India took place immediately after
World War II?
1. Telangana Rebellion
2. Warlis Revolt
3. Tebhaga Movement
4. Punnapra-Vayalar
Select the correct answer using code
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
53. Which of the following news
papers was/were launched by
Annie Besant?
1. New India
2. Young India
3. Commonweal
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
54. With reference to the play Neel
Darpan, consider the following
statements:
1. It highlighted the plight of Santhal
tribals.
2. It was written by Bankim Chandra
Chatterjee.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
55. Consider the following plans with
regard to transfer of power during
British rule:
1. Wavell Plan
2. Mountbatten plan
3. Cabinet Mission Plan
Arrange the above plans in correct
chronological order.
(a) 1-3-2 (b) 1-2-3
(c) 2-3-1 (d) 3-2-1
56. On the eve of the launch of Quit
India Movement, Mahatma Gandhi
gave some specific instructions to
different groups of people. With
reference to these instructions,
consider the following statements:
Practice Set-2
1. He asked the government servants
to resign.
2. He asked the soldiers to leave
their posts.
3. He asked the princes of the
Princely states to accept the
sovereignty of their own people.
Which of the above statements is/
are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
57. The main difference of opinion
between the “Swarajists” and the
“no changers” during the national
movement was over:
(a) support for revolutionary move-
ments
(b) entry into Legislative Councils.
(c) starting of civil disobedience
including non payment of taxes.
(d) discontinuation of Non Cooper-
ation movement.
58. Which of the following pairs are
correctly matched?
Mission/ Objective/
meeting outcome
1. August offer : to seek Indian
support for
Britain in
WW II
2. Shimla : to discuss and
conference approve Wavell
Plan
3. AICC meeting : ratification of
in Bombay Quit India
1942 Resolution
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
59. Which of the following pairs are
correctly matched?
Incident Leaders
associated
1. Chittagong raid : Surya Sen
2. Kakori robbery : Ram Prasad
Bismil
Practice Set-2
3. Meerut : S. A. Dange
Conspiracy
4. Kanpur : M. N. Roy
Conspiracy
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
60. Which of the following is correct
regarding Cunningham Circular?
(a) It permitted people living at the
sea coast to collect duty free salt.
(b) It prohi bit e d the pre ss t o
publish any criticism of British
government.
(c) It prohibited the students from
participating in political activities
associated with the freedom
movement.
(d) It raised the land revenue by 50%
in Bengal
61. Who among the following had
started two weeklies, the Karma-
yogin and the Dharma?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Aurobindo
(c) Ranade
(d) Tilak
62. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): M.N. Roy did not
accept Marx’s materialistic interpre-
tation of history.
Reason (R): It had an element of
determinism and idealism.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
21
63. Who among the following said in 66. Who among the following has
the context of States Reorganisation criticized classical theory as
Commission Report: “The Lambs ‘homely proverbs, myths, slogans
are shorn of the wool” and “They and pompous identities’?
are feeling the intensity of cold”? (a) W.F. Willoughby
(a) J. Nehru (b) Luther Gulick
(b) B.R. Ambedkar (c) Henri Fayol
(c) B.N. Rau (d) Herbert Simon
(d) K.T. Shah 67. Who among the following said
that behaviour in administration
64. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the code should be studied through psycho-
given below: analysis?
 List-I List-II (a) Alex Bavelas
(A) Behavioural (i) Adminis- (b) Orway Tead
trative (c) Abraham Maslow
system as a (d) Chester Banard
sub-system
68. The Hawthorne experiments belong
of the
to the era of:
society
(B) Bureaucratic (ii) Agrarian- (a) Mid 1930’s (b) Late 1930’s
Transitia- (c) Early1920’s (d) Late 1920’s
Industria 69. Who among the following described
(C) Ecological (iii) Legal - bureaucracy as “The continental
Rational nuisance”?
authority (a) Max Weber
(D) General (iv) Analysis of (b) Thomas Carlyle
system human (c) M. Crozier
behaviour in
(d) Karl Marx
adminis-
70. ‘Unity of Command’ means:
trative
settings (a) That the subordinate will have
Codes: only one supervisor.
(b) That the subordinate will have
A B C D
more than one supervisor.
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) That all the units are put under
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) one head.
(c) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (d) That the work is divided among
(d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) all the subordinates.
65. Which of the following are the features 71. The Governor of a state in his capacity
of New Public Management? as Administrator of an adjoining
(i) Contracting out Union Territory discharges his
functions independently of:
(ii) Devolution of authority
(a) The President of India
(iii) Focus on performance appraisal
(b) The Union Cabinet
(iv) Focus on management
(c) The Union Home Minister
Select the correct answer from the
(d) The State Council of Ministers
code given below:
72. Which of the following are the
(a) (i) and (iii) factors determining the length of
(b) (i) and (ii) span of control?
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (i) Age of the organisation
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (ii) Personality of the supervisor
 22
(iii) Calibre of the subordinates
(iv) Organisational structure
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
73. Which of the following are the
benefits of E-governance?
(i) It makes government more
accountable.
(ii) It minimises people’s participation
in government affairs.
(iii) It encourages bureaucratic tende-
ncies.
(iv) It lowers transaction costs.
(v) It helps in building trust between
government and citizens.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(d) (i), (iv) and (v)
74. Which one of the following is the
sequential order of the following
states becoming acknowledged
nuclear powers?
(a) America, Britain, Soviet Union,
France and China
(b) America, Soviet Union, France,
Britain and China
(c) Soviet Union, America, Britain,
China and France
(d) America, Soviet Union, Britain,
France and China
75. Which Chapter of the United
Nations deals with the ‘Pacific
Settlement of Disputes’?
(a) Chapter II (b) Chapter III
(c) Chapter IV (d) Chapter I
76. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): The Cold War and
decolonisation process had discoura-
ged more active involvement by
United Nations within state.
Reason (R): States have national
interest as its prime interest.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
77. India has signed strategic partner-
ship agreements with:
(a) France, Russia, Iran and South
Africa
(b) China, America, Britain and
Argentina
(c) ASEAN, Japan, Australia and
Tanzania
(d) Vietnam, Seychelles, Mongolia
and Singapore
78. Consider the following statements
with regard to India and ASEAN.
(A) India became Sectoral partner of
ASEAN in 1992.
(B) Delhi Dialogue is on Politico-
economic issues between ASEAN
and India.
(C) India became Dialogue partner
of ASEAN in 1996.
(D) India became summit level
partner of ASEAN in 2000.
Select the correct answer from
the code given below:
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (A) and (C)
(c) (B) and (D) (d) (A) and (B)
79. Which of the following statements
are true about SAARC?
(A) Australia, America, Japan and
Russia are observers.
(B) Promote and strengthen collective
defense among member states.
(C) Indian become Secretary General
of SAARC twice.
(D) The Second Summit of SAARC
was held in India.
Practice Set-2
Choose the correct statement from
code given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D)
80. Who have argued that far from
an objective reality, international
politics is a ‘World of our making’?
(a) Realists (b) Feminists
(c) Idealists (d) Constructivists
81. With reference to union territories
consider the following statements:
1. Union territories are not part of
union of India under Article 1 of
the Constitution.
2. Union territories are not part of
federal system in India.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. With reference to loss of citizenship
under the Citizenship Act, 1955,
consider the following statements:
1. If a person renounces his Indian
citizenship, their minor children
also loses their citizenship.
2. The application for renunciation
or termination of citizenship can
be withheld if India is engaged in
war.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. Why Indian federalism is termed
asymmetric federalism?
(a) Some states are given special
status and privilege.
(b) Indian Constitution has numerous
unitary or non-federal features.
(c) The Union enjoys unbridled
power and authority.
(d) Some states do not have legislative
councils.
84. In the context of Indian federalism,
consider the following statements:
1. Parliament can change the area,
boundary and name of any state
by special majority.
Practice Set-2
2. During National Emergency,
Parliament can legislate on state
list.
3. States cannot remove officers
of All India Services from their
service.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
85. The Inter-State Council consists of:
1. Prime Minister as the chairman
2. Governors of all the states
3. Administrators of Union Territo-
ries not having legislative
assemblies
4. Chief Ministers of all the States
and Union Territories having
assemblies
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
86. With regard to Legislative Relations
between the Union and states,
consider the following statements:
1. No State law can prevail over the
law made by the Parliament.
2. The Constitution expressly
secures predominance of Union
List and the Concurrent List over
the State List.
3. The Bills on all matters enumera-
ted in the State List can be
introduced in the Legislature
without prior sanction from the
Union.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
87. The Prime Minister is incharge/
head of which of the following?
1. National Institute for Trans-
forming India
2. National Board for Wildlife
3. Zonal council
4. Department of Atomic Energy
Select the correct answer using code
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
88. Consider the following statements
regarding “Competitive Federa-
lism”:
1. It refers to horizontal relationship
among the states to compete with
each other to attract investments
by utilizing their comparative
advantage.
2. It does not involve competition
between Centre and states.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
89. Which of the following promote
Cooperative Federalism in India?
1. Inter-State Council
2. Distribution of judicial powers
between the Supreme Court and
the High Courts
3. Presence of Rajya Sabha in the
Parliament
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
90. Consider the following statements
in reference to strength of council
of ministers in States and Delhi:
1. For states, it shall not exceed 15%
of the total strength of Legislative
Assembly of that state.
2. For states, the constitution has
prescribed the minimum strength
of Council of Ministers.
3. For Delhi, the strength of the
Council of Ministers is fixed at
10% of the total strength of the
assembly.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
23
Directions: Read the passage and answer
the following five questions.
Public Administration as an independent
and separate subject of study began
in 1887 and the credit for this goes to
Woodrow Wilson. In order to understand
the present status of the discipline as a field
of inquiry it becomes essential to study its
evolution. Many scholars and academicians
dwelt upon this aspect from different
perspectives. Some of them have discussed
it from the point of view of traditions such
as Absolutist, Liberal - Democratic and
Marxian while to Golembiewski it may be
understood in terms of locus and focus.
To him locus is the institutional ‘where’
of the field while focus is the specialized
‘what’ of the field. On this basis, he has
outlined the following four developmental
phases of Public Administration: Phase I:
The analytic distinction of politics from
administration. Phase II: The concrete
distinction of politics from administration.
Phase III: A science of management. Phase
IV: The pervasive orientation toward
public policy.
91. Who is considered as the father of
Public Administration?
(a) Willoughby
(b) Chester Barnard
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) M.P Follet.
92. The Politics-Administration Dicho-
tomy was started in year
(a) 1927 (b) 1938
(c) 1887 (d) 1889
93. Who understood the evolution of
Public Administration in terms of
locus and focus.
(a) Nicholas Henry
(b) Richard J. Stillman
(c) Golembiewski
(d) None of the above
94. Which among the following is not
a phase of evolution of Public-
Administration?
(a) Phase I: The analytic distinction
of politics from administration.
(b) Phase II: Public Administration
as organisation
 24
(c) Phase III: A science of manage-
ment.
(d) Phase IV: The pervasive orienta-
tion toward public policy.
95. Who in his book entitled “Public
Administration and Public Affairs”
has explained the evolution of
the discipline keeping in view its
definitional crisis into following five
successive paradigms?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Golembiewski
(c) Chester Bernard
(d) Nicholas Henry
Directions: Read the passage and answer
the following five questions.
The period of 1815–1914 was the
golden age of Balance of Power. During
this period, it was regarded as a nearly
fundamental law of international relations.
It broke down due to the outbreak of the
First World War in 1914. It was tried to
be unsuccessfully revived during 1919–
1939. However, the attempt failed and
Answers with Explanations
1. (c) John Locke wrote Two-
Treatises of Government in 1690. In this
text Locke presented his theory of Social
contract which is based on the Idea of
Natural Rights. He claimed that humans
are born with some Natural Rights and
those rights are Right to Life, Liberty
and Property.
2. (d) Sandel subscribes to a certain
version of communitarianism, and in
this vein he is perhaps best known for
his critique of John Rawls’ A Theory
of Justice. Rawls’ argument depends on
the assumption of the veil of ignorance,
which he claims allows us to become
“unencumbered selves”.
3. (d) John Locke did not gave the
concept of Social welfare theory of
rights. He was mainly a propagator of
Natural theory of Rights. He is also
considered as the father of Liberalism.
4. (c) The members from the princely
states were nominated and members
from that of British Provinces were
the world had to bear the Second World
War. The Second World War (1939–45)
produced several structural changes in
the international system as well as in
the balance of power system. Under the
impact of these changes, the Balance of
Power system lost much of its relevance as
a device of power management. It is now
lost much of its relevance in international
relations.
96. Who said that “Whenever the term
Balance of Power is used without
qualification, it refers to an actual
state of affairs in which power is
distributed among nations with
approximately equality”.
(a) Hans Morganthau
(b) Martin Wright
(c) Lord Castlereagh
(d) None of the above
97. Which among the following is not
a feature of “Balance of Power”
according to Palmer and Perkins?
(a) Does not Favours Status quo
(b) The Test of BOP is War
elected indirectly from the Provincial
Legislative Assemblies, but not directly
by the people.
5. (c) Russell Kirk was a conservative
thinker. According to him the essence
of conservatism, is the preservation of
the ancient moral traditions of humanity
and that for the conservation, custom,
convention, constitution and Prescription
are the roots of a tolerable civil Order.
6. (a) Juliet Mitchell was a New
Zealand born British Writer. She was
the key theorist of Socialist Feminism.
Mitchell was also one of the first feminists
to use psychoanalytic theory as a means
of explaining sexual difference. She wrote
‘Women’s Estate’ in year 1971.
7. (b) Peter Singer led the animal
rights movement. Singer argued that an
altruistic concern for the well being of
other species derives from the fact that
as a sentient being, they are capable of
suffering.
8. (a) Will Kymlicka advanced the
idea of multicultural citizenship, based on
Practice Set-2
(c) Not a Device of Peace
(d) National Interest is its Basis
98. Which among the following period
is considered the Golden Period of
Balance of Power?
(a) 1914–1919
(b) 1939–1945
(c) 1815–1914
(d) 1919–1939
99. Who said that “The trouble with
Balance of Power is not that it has
no meaning, but that it has too
many meanings.”?
(a) Martin Wright
(b) Innis L. Claude Jr.
(c) Sidney B. Fay
(d) None of the Above
100. Which among the following is not a
method of Balance of Power?
(a) Compensation
(b) Alliance and Counter Alliance
(c) Intervention and Non-Intervention
(d) Don’t Divide and Rule.
the belief that cultures are valuable and
distinct and provide a context in which
individuals are provided with meaning,
identity and belonging. She presented
the hypothesis that diverse cultures offer
concrete alternative.
9. (b) Yes, It true that Ecologism
starts from a conception of humanity or
human needs. Ecological political theory
result into the development of Green
Politics. Green politics, or ecopolitics,
is a political ideology that aims to foster
an ecologically sustainable society rooted
in environmentalism, nonviolence, social
justice and grassroots democracy.
10. (c) Statement 1 is correct. Indian
constitution is a sacred document but
not a static one. It allows changes if the
demand is made by the society. After
independence several amendments/
provisions and laws were made as the
needs of the society. Statement 2 is
also correct. Ever since the constitution
came into being, the political class and
Practice Set-2
the judiciary subjected it to multiple
interpretations. Judicial pronouncements/
judgements have led to establishment
of several doctrines which was not
mentioned in the original constitution.
E.g. - Basic Structure Doctrine.
11. (c) The power of judicial review
was borrowed from the United States.
All the other pairs are correctly matched.
12. (b) The seats in each Province
were distributed among the three main
communities, Muslims, Sikhs and
general, in proportion to their respective
populations. Members of each community
in the Provincial Legislative Assembly
elected their own representatives by the
method of proportional representation
with single transferable vote. Statement
2 is incorrect. The method of selection
in the case of representatives of
Princely States was to be determined by
consultation. Total 93 seats allotted to the
princely states. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Mahatma Gandhi and M.A. Jinnah, these
two personalities were not the part of the
constituent assembly.
13. (b) In 1717, the Mughal Emperor
Farrukhsiyar’s Farmans, called Magna
Carta of the East India Company, gave
significant privileges to the company in
Bengal, Gujarat and Hyderabad.
14. (b) Functions of Finance
Commission are to recommend: 1. The
distribution of the net proceeds of taxes
to be shared between the Centre and the
State. 2. The principles that should govern
the grants-in-aid to the States by the
Centre. 3. Measures needed to augment
the Consolidated Fund of a State.
15. (c) National Human Rights
Commission consists of a Chairman
and four other members. The Chairman
should be a retired Chief Justice of India,
and other members should be a serving
or retired Chief Justice of a High Court,
and two persons having knowledge or
practical experience with respect to
human rights.
16. (a) Article 24 – Prohibition of
employment of children in factories etc.
Article 45 – Provision for early childhood
care and education to children below the
age of 6 years. Article 300 – Reservation
of seats for SCs and STs in the House of
the People. Article 368 – Power of the
Parliament to amend the Constitution.
17. (d) Fourth Schedule (Article 4(1)
and 82(2)) is about the allocation of seats
in the Council of States. Distribution of
powers between the Union and the States
– Seventh Schedule. Language listed
in Eighth Schedule. Administration of
Tribal areas in Sixth Schedule.
18. (a) The order of Precedence for
the given optional is Governor of a State
within his state > Former Presidents.
Deputy Prime Minister > Lok Sabha
Speaker.
19. (c) The Parliament has passed
the 86th Amendment act (but not 76th)
2002, to make elementary education a
Fundamental Right for children in the
age-group of 6–14 years. SSA (Sarva
Shiksha Abhiyan) seeks to achieve the
long-cherished goal of Universalization
of Elementary Education (UEE). It seeks
to provide computer education even in
rural areas. 42nd Amendment act shifted
five subjects from the State List to the
Concurrent List viz. education, forests,
protection of wild animals and birds,
weights and measures and administration
of justice, constitution and organization
of all courts except the Supreme Court
and the High Courts.
20. (d) P. N. Bhagwati was the Chief
Justice of India when PIL concept was
developed in the Indian Judicial System
in 1981 (by widening the concept of
‘Locus standi’ in SP Gupta vs. Union of
India case by the apex court).
21. (a) ‘Committee on Public
Accounts’ consists of 22 members – 15
from the Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya
Sabha, a Lok Sabha member from a
major opposition party is appointed its
chairman.
22. (c) The 73rd Amendment Act
1992 refers to the laying of the foundation
for strong and vibrant Panchayati
Raj Institutions in the country, and to
organize village panchayat to function as
units of the constitution.
23. (a) The States and Union
territories of India are specified in the
First Schedule. So to form a new state
and alteration of areas, boundaries or
names of existing states requires the
amendment of First Scheduled of the
Constitution.
25
24. (a) Parliament supervises the
activities of the Executive with the help
of its Committees like Committee on
Government assurance, Committee on
Subordinate legislation, Committee on
Petition, etc.
25. (b) Article 143 of the Constitution
says that, if at any time it appears to the
President that a question of law or fact
has arisen, or is likely to arise, which
is of such a nature and of such public
importance that it is expedient to obtain
the opinion of the Supreme Court up on
it, he may refer the question to that court
for consideration, and the court may,
after such hearing as it thinks fit, report
to the President its opinion thereon.
26. (c) Article 350 A facilitates for
instruction in mother-tongue at primary
stage.
27. (c) In an essay in The Examined
Life, Robert Nozick described politics as a
zigzag, rather like a sailboat slowly taking
back and forth toward a distant goal.
28. (d) F. A. Hayek, was an Austrian-
British economist and philosopher
best known for his defence of classical
liberalism. He was not a communitarianism.
29. (d) All of the following are the
feature of democracy; Democracy
requires political equality; All citizens
must be entitled to stand for election
regardless of race, sex, colour or
religion; All citizens must possess a vote
(universal adult franchise) and Political
equality means ‘one person one vote, one
vote one value’.
30. (d)
 (Authors) (Books)
(a) Brian Berry The Liberal
Theory of Justice
(b) Susan Moller Justice, Gender
Okin and Family
(c) Amartya Idea of Justice
K. Sen
(d) Tom Justice
Campbell
31. (c) Marx’s theory of surplus-value
is basically a deduction (or residual)
theory of the ruling classes’ income. The
whole social product (the net national
income) is produced in the course of
the process of production, exactly as the
 26
whole crop is harvested by the peasants.
What happens on the market (or through
appropriation of the produce) is a
distribution (or redistribution) of what
already has been created.
32. (b) Lenin’s theory of capitalist
imperialism, in which he held to
constitute the intermediary stage of
capitalism is not considered as Lenin
contribution to Marxism. Because
Capitalist imperialism is considered as
the international relations theory.
33. (d) An ideology is a set of opinions
or beliefs of a group or an individual.
Very often ideology refers to a set of
political beliefs or a set of Political ideas
that embody or articulate class or social
interests. Capitalism, communism,
socialism, and Marxism are ideologies.
34. (c) According to Roy Macridis and
Ward Comparative Politics, no doubt,
has to be concerned with the government
structure, but at the same time, it has to
take note of Society, historical heritage
and geographic and resources endowed,
its social and economic organisations,
its ideologies and value systems, and its
political style; and Its parties, interests
and leadership structure.”
35. (a) The Presidential Republic
book was published by Jean Blondel in
2014. This book is about a variety of
national arrangements and practices,
whose common characteristics are to
constitute ‘presidential republics’.
36. (b) Comparative Politics today
was originally published in 2002. It was
authored by Russell J. Dalton, Kaare
Strøm, Gabriel Almond, G. Powell.
37. (a) The characteristics of a
Revolution are; Change of Constitution,
One ruling elite is replaced by another;
Transformation in Political Institutions;
Fundamental change in the Socio-
economic and political structures.
38. (b) A unitary system of
government, or unitary state, is a
sovereign state governed as a single entity.
The central government is supreme, and
the administrative divisions exercise only
powers that the central government has
delegated to them.
39. (a) The Fifth Amendment says
to the federal government that no one
shall be “deprived of life, liberty or
property without due process of law.”
The Fourteenth Amendment, ratified in
1868, uses the same eleven words, called
the Due Process Clause, to describe a
legal obligation of all states.
40. (b) United States federal judges
have life tenure once appointed by the
president and confirmed by the Senate.
41. (a)
(Writers) (Concepts)
(a) Dicey Rule of law
(b) S. P. Huntington Political decay
(c) Almond Anomic
interest groups
(d) Marbury Vs Judicial Review
Madison
42. (b) Government of India Act 1919
introduced, for the first time, bicameralism
and direct elections in the country. Thus,
the Indian Legislative Council was replaced
by a bicameral legislature consisting of
an Upper House (Council of State) and a
Lower House (Legislative Assembly). The
majority of members of both the Houses
were chosen by direct election. But the
control over minister was not given to
legislative assembly.
43. (c) Morris Jones in his book
‘The Government and Politics in India’
provided a link between pre and post
independence institutional framework to
study Indian politics.
44. (a) The Fundamental Rights in
Indian Constitution guarantee provided
by the Constitution about the Right of
the Indian citizen. Fundamental rights
are protected and enforced by the
Constitution. It can’t be changed by the
common legislative process. Supreme
Court is the guardian of fundamental
rights.
45. (a)
 (Idea/Concept)  (Person
Associated)
(a) Soft state Gunnar Myrdal
(b) Politics of Myron Weiner
Scarcity
(c) Crisis of Atul Kohli
Governability
(d) Contentious Subrata K. Mitra
Democracy
Practice Set-2
46. (c) The validity of nomination of
a person to get elected to the Municipal
Council would depend on the condition
that his name should be figured in the
Voters list.
47. (d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were
under the Colonial Rule of the Portuguese
(but not the French) until its liberation in
1954.
48. (d) According to Dr. B. R.
Ambedkar, Right to Constitutional
remedies is the soul of the Constitution
and very heart of it.
49. (a) First amendment made in 1951,
inserted two new articles, 31A and 31B
and the Ninth Schedule to give protection
from challenge to land reforms.
50. (d) Britishers made very little
effort to spread education in India.
They were not much concerned about
education in India. They were only
interested in cheap supply of Indian for
subordinate positions because number
of Britishers living in India was less and
the salary expected by them was much
higher than expected by an Indian at
that time. So option 2 is correct. Also
educated Indians became aware about
the importance of education so they
agitated for modern education in India.
So option 1 is correct. English education
was helpful in expanding the markets for
goods for British products. So option 3 is
also correct.
51. (b) The correct match is:
Surendra Nath : Bengalee
Banerjee
G. Subramaniya : Swadesamitran
Aiyer
Bal Gangadhar : Kesari
Tilak
Sishir Kumar : Amrit Bazar
Ghosh Partika
52. (d) Telengana Rebellion was in
1946. Warlis Revolt was a peasant revolt
in Thane, Maharashtra, 1945–47. Tebhaga
Movement was in 1946. Punnapra–Vayalar,
is a communist uprising in the princely State
of Travancore, 1946. Hence all the given
events took place after World War II.
53. (c) Young India was launched by
Jamnadas Dwarkdas, Shankerlal Banker
and Indulal Yagnik. The other two were
of Annie Besant.
Practice Set-2
54. (d) Neel Darpan (literally, ‘blue
mirror’) was published by Dinabandhu
Mitra which depicted the atrocities
of the indigo planters in Bengal. The
play received wide attention and was
translated into English by Michael
Madhusudan Dutta. It succeeded in
bringing the peasant issue to the wider
arena of institutional politics and this
resulted in a growing pressure on the
planters to behave. By 1863, Indigo
cultivation shifted from Bengal to Bihar.
55. (a) On June 14, 1945, Lord
Wavell came out with Balkanisation
plan. The Cabinet Mission came to India
in March 1946 to negotiate the setting
up of a national government and to set
into motion machinery for transfer of
power. It was against Cabinet Mission
proposal to set into motion a machinery
for transfer of power to Indian dominion.
On March 22, 1947, Mountbatten came
as the last Viceroy and charged with the
task of Winding up the Raj by 30th June
1948. Mountbatten’s formula was to
divide India but retain maximum unity.
56. (b) Statement 1 was incorrect:
Gandhiji asked government servants to
openly declare their allegiance to the
congress and not to resign. Statement 2
was incorrect: Gandhiji asked the soldiers
to refuse to fire on their own people and
not to leave their posts. Statement 3 is
correct: Gandhiji asked the princes of the
Princely states to accept the sovereignty
of their own people.
57. (b) The Swarajists like C. R.
Das and Motilal Nehru wanted to end
the boycott to legislative councils and
to use them as platforms for nationalist
movement after the suspension of the Non
Cooperation movement. Whereas the No
Changers like Sardar Vallabhai Patel, Dr.
Ansari and others opposed Council entry
as they felt it would lead to neglect of
Constructive work among the masses.
58. (d) On 8 August 1940, the
Viceroy of India, Lord Linlithgow,
made the August Offer, a fresh proposal
promising the expansion of the Executive
Council to include more Indians, the
establishment of an advisory war council,
giving full weight to minority opinion,
and the recognition of Indians’ right to
frame their own constitution (after the
end of the war). In return, it was hoped
that all parties and communities in
India would cooperate in Britain’s war
effort. The Simla Conference 1945 was
a meeting between the Viceroy and the
major political leaders of British India
at Simla, convened to agree on and
approve the Wavell Plan for Indian self
government. First time the decision to
launch the struggle was taken at meeting
at Wardha on july 1942, but the August
meeting at Gowalia tank in Bombay
witnessed ratification of the decision,
where Gandhi addressed the crowd and
raised the slogan “Do or Die”.
59. (d) Chittagong Raid was organised
in Bengal by Surya Sen in 1930. Ram
Prasad Bismil was involved in and tried
under Kakori robbery. Both Meerut
and Kanpur Conspiracy case were tried
against communists. S. A. Dange being
a communist leader, was tried in Meerut
case. M. N Roy was also a communist
leader. He was tried in Kanpur
Conspiracy.
60. (c) The Cunningham circular
of the Assam Government in 1930
prohibited the students from participating
in political activities associated with the
freedom movement. The students and
their guardians were to furnish assurances
of good behaviour. A powerful agitation
led by students was launched against the
infamous Cunningham circular.
61. (b) Sri Aurobindo launched
Karmayogin, a weekly English journal
conceived as A Weekly Review of
National Religion, Literature, Science,
Philosophy, Sri Aurobindo also launched
Dharma, a weekly Bengali journal and
its first issue came out on 23, Aug. 1909.
62. (a) According to Roy, the
materialism of Marx was dogmatic and
unscientific and neglected the creative
role of the human subject. He strongly
believed that the dialectic materialism is
materialistic only in name and dialectics
being the cornerstone; it is essentially
idealistic in nature.
63. (b) B. R Ambedkar in 1955
published a text containing his View
on the formation of Linguistic states as
suggested by the State Reorganisation
Commission. He quoted that the States
27
Reorganisation Commission Report is
“The Lambs are shorn of the wool” and
“They are feeling the intensity of cold”.
64. (a)
 Administrative  Features
Theory
(a) Behavioural Analysis of
human behaviour
in administrative
settings
(b) Bureaucratic Legal - Rational
authority
(c) Ecological Agrarian-
Transitia-
Industria
(d) General system Administrative
system as a sub-
system of the
society
65. (d) The New Public Management
has the following features: Contracting
out, Devolution of authority, Focus on
performance appraisal and Focus on
management.
66. (d) Herbert Simon in his book
‘The Proverbs of Administration’ has
criticized classical theory as ‘homely
proverbs, myths, slogans and pompous
identities’.
67. (c) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
is a theory by Abraham Maslow, which
puts forward that people are motivated
by five basic categories of needs:
physiological, safety, love, esteem, and
self-actualization. He said that said that
behaviour in administration should be
studied through psycho-analysis.
68. (d) The Hawthorne studies were
carried out by the Western Electric
company at their Hawthorne plant in
the 1920’s. The Hawthorne experiments
were originally designed by the National
Research Council to study the effect of
shop-floor lighting on worker productivity
at a telephone parts factory in Hawthorne.
69. (b) The bureaucracy was a system
of government administration which
takes the most of the important decisions
by the state non elected officials. In the
nineteenth–century, the British writers
refer that bureaucracy as “the continental
 28
nuisance”. Particularly Thomas Carlyle,
the British writer spreads of the
term bureaucracy as “the continental
nuisance”.
70. (a) Unity of command provides
that an employee is responsible to only
one supervisor, who in turn is responsible
to only one supervisor, and so on up the
organizational hierarchy.
71. (d) The President may appoint
a Governor of an adjoining state as
administrator of a Union territory. In such
case the Governor works independently
with regard to the administration of the
Union Territory. He is not bound by the
advice of the state council of Minister.
72. (d) Factors Influencing the span
of control:
•• The Capacity and ability of the
executive
•• Competence and training of
subordinates
•• Nature of Work
•• Time Available for supervision
•• Degree of decentralization and
extent of delegation
•• Effectiveness of communication
system
•• Quality of planning
•• Degree of physical dispersion
73. (d) E-Governance is improvement
in governance which is enabled by
the resourceful use of Information
and Communications Technology.
E-governance brings better access to
information and excellence services for
inhabitants. It also brings simplicity,
efficiency and accountability in govern-
ment.
74. (d) The correct sequence of
acquiring nuclear powers is:
•• America – 1945
•• Soviet Union – 1949
•• Britain – 1952
•• France – 1960
•• China – 1964
75. (c) Chapter VI of the United
Nations Charter deals with peaceful
settlement of disputes. The Charter
related to the pacific settlement of
disputes which requires the parties
themselves to seek a solution to their
dispute by any peaceful means of their
own choice, and that the Council should
give every opportunity to the parties to
do so.
76. (a) Under United nation Charter
the significance is given to the principle
of ‘State Sovereignty’. It also consider
that national Interest is the supreme
interest of any nation. Due to this the
Cold War and decolonisation process had
discouraged more active involvement by
United Nations within state.
77. (d) India has signed strategic
partnership agreements with more than
two dozen countries/supranational
entities listed here in the chronological
order of the pacts: France (1998), Russia
(2000), Germany (2001), Mauritius
(2003), Iran (2003), United Kingdom
(2004), United States (2004), EU (2004),
Indonesia (2005), China (2005), Brazil
(2006), Vietnam (2007), Oman (2008),
Kazakhstan (2009), Australia (2009),
Malaysia (2010), South Korea (2010),
Saudi Arabia (2010), Uzbekistan (2011),
Afghanistan (2011), Tajikistan (2012),
ASEAN (2012), Japan (2014), Seychelles
(2015), Mongolia (2015), Singapore
(2015), UAE (2015), Rwanda(2017) and
Israel (2017).
78. (b) India-ASEAN relations have
evolved over time, with India graduating
from the Southeast Asian grouping’s
Sectoral Dialogue Partner in 1992 to a
Dialogue Partner in 1996 to Summit-
level Partner in 2002.
79. (c) From the 1985 till date there
have been 13 Secretaries-General of the
SAARC. There are just two Indians i.e.
Kant Kishore Bhargava and Sheel Kant
Sharma are the only Indians who has
been at the post of Secretaries-General
of the SAARC. The second summit was
held in November 16–17 Bengaluru,
India in 1986.
80. (d) Constructivism is a learning
theory found in psychology which
explains how people might acquire
knowledge and learn. It therefore has
direct application to education. The
theory suggests that humans construct
knowledge and meaning from their
experiences. Constructivism argue that
the social world is of our making (Onuf
1989). Actors continually shape – and
sometimes reshape – the very nature
of international relations through their
actions and interactions.
Practice Set-2
81. (c) Statement 1 is correct. Article
1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a
‘Union of States’ which includes only
states not Union Territories. However the
territory of India includes not only states
but also Union territories and also any
territory that India may acquire in future.
Statement 2 is also correct as states are
members of the federal system and share
a distribution of power with centre. On
the other hand Union territories are
directly administered by centre.
82. (c) Statement 1 is correct - When
a person renounces his Indian citizenship,
every minor child of that person also loses
Indian citizenship. However, when such a
child attains the age of eighteen, he may
resume Indian citizenship. Statement 2 is
correct - Both in the case of ‘Renunciation’
and ‘termination’, if such a declaration
is made during a war in which India is
engaged, its registration can be withheld
by the Central Government.
83. (a) Unlike the constitutional
symmetry of American federalism, Indian
federalism has been asymmetric. By
introducing the articles concerning Jammu
and Kashmir (Art. 370) and the North-
East (Art. 371), the Indian Constitution
anticipates the very important concept of
asymmetric federalism.
84. (c) Statement 1 is incorrect
- Parliament can change the area,
boundary and name of any state by simple
majority not with the special majority.
Statement 2 is correct - During National
Emergency, the Parliament assumes the
power to make laws on subjects within
the jurisdiction of the States. Statement
3 is correct - Officers serves in the
administration of the States, are under
the control of the central government.
State cannot remove these officers from
service.
85. (d) Inter State councils consists of
the following members: The PM as the
Chairman. CMs of all the States. CMs
of UTs having legislative assemblies.
Administrators of UTs not having
legislative assemblies. Six Central
cabinet ministers, including the home
minister, to be nominated by the prime
minister. Governors are not part of the
council.
Practice Set-2
86. (c) The Constitution expressly
secures the predominance of the Union
List over the State List and the Concurrent
List and that of the Concurrent List
over the State List. Thus, in case of
overlapping between the Union List and
the State List, the former should prevail.
In case of overlapping between the
Union List and the Concurrent List, it is
again the former which should prevail.
Where there is a conflict between the
Concurrent List and the State List, it is
the former that should prevail.
87. (d) NITI Aayog, Department of
Atomic Energy and National Board of
Wildlife are headed by Prime Minister.
Zonal Councils have been established
by the state reorganization act 1956 to
advise on matters of common interest
to each of the five zones, into which the
territory of India has been divided. They
are headed by Union Home Minister.
88. (a) Competitive federalism refers
to the relationship between the Central
and state governments (vertical) or
between state governments (horizontal).
This idea gained significance in India
post the 1990s economic reforms. In a
free-market economy, the endowments
of states, available resource base and
their comparative advantages all foster
a spirit of competition. States need to
compete among themselves and also
with the Centre for benefits. Increasing
globalisation, however, made the already
existing inequalities and imbalances
between states starker. This gave rise
to concerns about states’ freedom to
formulate their own growth policies.
89. (a) Statement 1 is correct:
Inter-State Council is created on
the recommendation of the Sarkaria
commission. It helps resolving disputes
between the Centre and the States and
so promote cooperation between them.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In India there
is integrated judicial system. The single
system of courts enforces both the central
and state laws. So there is no division of
judicial powers between supreme court
and high courts. Statement 3 is correct:
There is representation of states in the
Rajya Sabha. So the Rajya Sabha protects
and promotes the interest of the states
at the national level. It also checks the
excessive power enjoyed by the centre.
90. (d) Article 164 states the
composition of State COM (including
CM). It shall not exceed 15% of the
total strength of Legislative Assembly of
that state. But, the number of ministers
including CM shall not be less than
12. This provision was added by 91st
Constitutional Amendment Act 2003.
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement 3 is correct. For Delhi, The
strength of the council of ministers is
fixed at ten per cent of the total strength
of the assembly, that is, seven—one chief
minister and six other ministers.
91. (c) In the United States of
America, Woodrow Wilson is considered
the father of public administration.
He first formally recognized public
administration in an 1887 article entitled
“The Study of Administration”.
92. (c) The Politics-administration
dichotomy is a theory that constructs the
boundaries of public administration and
asserts the normative relationship between
elected officials and administrators in a
democratic society. It started in 1887.
93. (c) Many scholars and academi-
cians dwelt upon this aspect from
different perspectives. Some of them
have discussed it from the point of view
of traditions such as Absolutist, Liberal
- Democratic and Marxian while to
Golembiewski it may be understood in
terms of locus and focus.
29
94. (b) Golembiewski has outlined
the following four developmental
phases of Public Administration: Phase
I: The analytic distinction of politics
from administration. Phase II: The
concrete distinction of politics from
administration. Phase III: A science of
management. Phase IV: The pervasive
orientation toward public policy.
95. (d) Nicholas Henry in his book
entitled “Public Administration and
Public Affairs” has explained the
evolution of the discipline keeping in
view its definitional crisis into following
five successive paradigms.
96. (a) Hans Morganthau has quote
about POP that “Whenever the term
Balance of Power is used without
qualification, it refers to an actual state
of affairs in which power is distributed
among nations with approximately
equality”.
97. (a) Balance of power favours the
status quo in power positions of major
powers. It seeks to maintain a balance
in their power relations. However, in
order to be effective, a foreign policy of
balance of power must be changing and
dynamic.
98. (c) The period of 1815–1914 was
the golden age of Balance of Power.
During this period, it was regarded as a
nearly fundamental law of international
relations. It broke down due to the
outbreak of the First World War in 1914.
99. (b) Innis L. Claude Jr. said that
“The trouble with Balance of Power is
not that it has no meaning, but that it has
too many meanings. ”
100. (d) The policy of divide and rule
has been a method of balance of power.
It has been a time honored policy of
weakening the opponents. It is resorted
to be all such nations who try to make or
keep their competitors weak by keeping
them divided or by dividing them.
qqq
 30
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
1. Which decade is marked with the
resurgence of political theory?
(a) 1960s (b) 1920s
(c) 1990s (d) 1970s
2. Political theory is a ‘master science’
is said by
(a) Aristotle (b) Plato
(c) Marx (d) Locke
3. Who said this “Man is born free,
but everywhere he is in chains”?
(a) Dugvit (b) Krabbe
(c) Follet (d) Rousseau
4. Which of the following pairs is
correctly matched?
(a) Plato Best rulers and
wisest courses
(b) Rousseau Elite theory
(c) John Locke Totalitarian
(d) Hobbes Libertarian
5. Match the following
List–I List–II
A. Proportional 1. JS Mill
representation
B. Fundamental 2. Thomas
representation Hare
C. One man one 3. G.D.H. Cole
Vote
D. Multiple voting 4. J. Bentham
right
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
6. In the question given below are two
statements labelled as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). In the content of
the two statements, which one of
the following is correct?
Assertion (A): Iron Rule of Oligarchy
says that government is dominated by
the few.
Political Science
Practice Set-3
Reason (R): Every organisation is
eventually reduced to an oligarchy.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is
not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
11. In the question given below are two
(d) A is false, but R is true.
7. The concept of ‘Two Parliament’
was enunciated by:
(a) Guild Socialism
(b) Marxian Socialism
(c) Syndicalism
(d) State Socialism
8. Marxian ideology signifies
1. State is meant to serve the interest
of capitalists.
2. State will disappear after the
socialist revolution.
3. Dialectical materialism repre-
sents the philosophical basis of
Marxism.
Select the correct answer using the
codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
12. Who among the following is being
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of these
9. When did the, for the first time
female suffrage in New Zealand.
(a) 1920 (b) 1894
13. To avoid revolution, Aristotle pro-
(c) 1893 (d) 1900
10. Match the following:
List–I List–II
(Author) (Books)
A. Carolyn 1. The Death of
Merchant Nature
B. Rudolph 2. From Red to
Bahro Green
C. Murrany 3. Post-Scarcity
Book Chin Anarchism
D. James 4. Gaia
Lovelock
Practice Set-3
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
statement rabelled as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). In the content of
the two statements, which one of
the following is correct?
Assertion (A): The ‘Moderates’
believed a constitutional method
are tried to arouse public opinion in
favour of their demands.
Reason (R): The were convinced
that the time then was not yet ripe
for overthrowing British rule.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is
not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
called as ‘kong-fu-tuz’?
(a) Mozi
(b) Mencius
(c) Confucius
(d) None of these
pounded some method. Arrange
them in sequence.
1. Remove causes of revolution.
2. Educate People according to the
spirit of constitution.
3. P r o p e r t y s h o u l d b e u s e d
commonly.
Codes:
(a) 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 3, 2
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) None of these
Practice Set-3
14. ‘Life, liberty and estate are natural
rights of man’. Who said this?
(a) Hobbes (b) Locke
(c) Rousseau (d) JS Mill
15. Hegal was a ______ philosopher.
(a) realist (b) materialist
(c) rationalist (d) idealist
16. Match the following.
List–I List–II
A. Rousseau 1. Veil of ignorance
B. Locke 2. March of God on
Earth
C. Hegel 3. General will
D. Rawis 4. Consent of the
governed
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 1 3 4 2
17. In the question given below are two
statements labelled as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). In the content of
the two statements, which one of
the following is correct?
Assertion (A): Machiavellian state
in a secular state.
Reason (R): Machiavelli attributed
religion a place within the state, not
above the state.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is
not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
18. The book ‘A Theory of Justice’ was
published in year.
(a) 1983 (b) 1993
(c) 1971 (d) 1984
19. What is the correct sequence of the
following stages as propounded by
Karl Marx?
1. Primitive communist stage
2. The feudal stage
3. Ancient stage
4. The capitalist stage
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below:
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4
20. What is the correct sequence of
following events?
1. French Revolution
2. American War of Independence
3. Magha Carta
4. Glorious Revolution
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
21. Fatwa-i-Jahandari was written by,
(a) Al Baruni
(b) Ziauddin Barani
(c) Abul Fazi
(d) None
22. Consider which of the following is
not correct about Tilak?
(a) He was an extremist leader.
(b) He supported the use of religion
for national unity.
(c) He supported constitutional
methods of resistance.
(d) None of the above.
23. Match the following:
List–I List–II
A. Swami 1. Army
B. Amatya 2. King
C. Kosha 3.Treasury
D. Danda 4. Minister
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 4 3 1
24. In the question given below are two
statements labelled as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). In the content of
the two statements, which of the
following in correct?
Assertion (A): Education in the
fundamental right of every child
between the age of 6 and 14 years.
Reason (R): One out of every four
children in India does not go to
school.
31
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true
and R the correct explanation of
A.
(b) Both A and R are individually
true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
25. Who among the following, mooted
the idea that India was a ‘soft state’
and illequipped to carry out its
promises?
(a) Samir Amin
(b) Gunnar Myrdal
(c) Andre Gundar Frank
(d) Edward Said
26. In which of the following federations
does the second chamber have
equal representation from the
state?
1. India 2. USA
3. Canada 4. Australia
Select the correct answer by using
the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
27. Match the following:
List–I List–II
A. Integral 1. VD Savarkar
humanism
B. Radical 2. Nehru
humanism
C. Scientific 3. M.N. Roy
humanism
D. Cultural 4. Deendayal
notionalism Upadhyay
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
28. Arrange the events in correct
sequence.
1. Narayan gave a call of peaceful
total revolution.
2. Narayan joined Civil Disobedience
Movement.
 32
3. J.P. Narayan joined Non-
cooperation Movement.
4. Narayan joined Indian National
Congress.
Codes:
(a) 3, 4, 2 and 1
(b) 3, 2, 4 and 1
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 3
29. Who said “A state is human
activity that successfully claims
the monopoly of the legitimate use
of physical force written a given
territory?”
(a) David Easton (b) GA Almond
(c) Karl Marx (d) Max Weber
30. The traditional approaches to the
comparative politics neglected the
(a) Study of government
(b) institutional studies
(c) Comparison of the Constitutions
(d) Empirical investigation
31. Article 359 of the constitution of
India deals with which one of the
following?
(a) Declaration of Financial emer-
gency.
(b) Promulgation of President’s rule
in a state.
(c) Suspension of the enforcement
of fundamental rights except few
during emergency.
(d) Terms and conditions of service
of members of the Union Public
Service Commission.
32. Consider the following statements in
respect of provisions for removing
deadlock between the two houses
of parliament:
After a bill has been passed by one
House and transmitted to the other
House, the President may notify to
the Houses his intention to summon
them for a joint sitting, if:
1. The Bill is rejected by the other
House.
2. The houses have finally disagreed
as to the amendments to be made
in the Bill.
Practice Set-3
3. More than three months have (c) Right to Education.
elapsed from the date of the (d) Elimination of Corruption at all
receipt of the Bill by the other levels.
House without the Bill being 36. Who among the following have
passed by it. advanced and developed neo-realist
Which of the statements given arguments?
above are correct? (a) Oscar Morgenstern and Karl
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Deutsch.
(b) 1 and 2 (b) Horold Laswell and G.A. Almond
(c) 2 and 3 (c) J.L. Talmon and Dean Rusk
(d) 1 and 3 (d) John Mearsheimer and Kenneth
33. In the question given below are two Waltz.
statement labelled as Assertion (A) 37. What is the correct chronological
and Reason (R). In the content of sequence of the following events?
the two statements, which one of 1. Indian Navy Revolt
the following is correct?
2. Poona Act
Assertion (A): Fascism could not
3. Salt Satyagraha
conceive of any sphere of human
4. Morley-Minto Reforms.
activity remaining immune from
intervention by the state. Select the correct answer using the
codes given below:
Reason (R): Fascism strove to unify
the world by appealing to share (a) 2, 3, 4, 1 (b) 4, 1, 2, 3
traditions of human kind. (c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
Codes: 38. Match the following:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is List–I List–II
A. Soviet Union 1. September,
the correct explanation of A.
German Non- 1939
(b) Both A and R are true by R is not aggression Pact
the correct explanation of A. B. Germany 2. March, 1939
(c) A is true, but R is false. invaded Soviet
(d) A is false, but R is true. Union
34. Consider the following statements: C. Germany 3. June, 1941
occupied
1. Jeremy Bentham preserved the
Czechoslovakia
individualist notion of moral
D. Germany 4. April, 1941
autonomy. invaded Poland
2. Jeremy Bentham supported Codes:
the idea that division protected
A B C D
secured and protected constitu-
tional liberty. (a) 4 3 2 1
Which of the statement(s) given (b) 2 4 1 3
above is/are correct? (c) 3 1 4 2
(a) 1 only (d) 1 3 2 4
(b) 2 only 39. Japan have ______.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Constitutional monarchy
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Republic
35. Which in the subject of the Ninety- (c) Democratic
first constitution Amendment Act, (d) Authoritarian
2004? 40. The “Narmada Bachao Andolan”
(a) Right to Information. took place in,
(b) Limiting the size of council of (a) Venezuela (b) China
Ministers. (c) Japan (d) India
Practice Set-3
41. What is the correct chronological
order in which the following
emerged?
1. The Roman Empire
2. The Greek City State
3. The Feudal State
4. The Nation State
Codes:
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3
42. Match the following:
List–I List–II
A. Collective 1. India
Responsibility
B. Multiparty 2. USA
System
C. Referendum 3. UN
D. Due Process of 4. Switzerland
Law
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 1 4 3 2
43. In the question given below are two
statements labelled as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). In the content of
the two statements, which one of
the following is correct?
Assertion (A): Regionalism in Indian
politics reflects the cultural diversity
of the country.
Reason (R): The political leaders
which up the ethic identities.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is
not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
44. Who among the following is
associated with the thesis of develop-
ment of under-development?
(a) Rosa Luxemburg
(b) Paul Baran
(c) Che Guevara
(d) Andre Gunder Frank
45. In which year was the Human
Rights Protection Low passed in
India?
(a) 1986 (b) 1987
(c) 1993 (d) 1995
46. The most essential principal of
liberalism is:
(a) Equality
(b) Social Justice
(c) Freedom
(d) Democracy
47. Match the following:
List–I List–II
(Theories) (Concepts)
A. Marxian theory 1. Pay off
B. Realist theory 2. Environment
C. Decision-making 3. Power
theory
D. Game theory 4. Class
struggle
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 1 2
48. Which one of the following brands
of socialism considers socialism as
a refinement and logical conclusion
of democracy:
(a) Fabianism
(b) Syndicalism
(c) Marxism
(d) Guild Socialism
49. In the question given below are two
statements labelled as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). In the content of
the two statements, which one of
the following is correct?
Assertion (A): Scientific socialism
explains history in terms of class
struggle.
Reason (R): Class struggle is
history takes place as a result of
contradictions between the proletariat
and the peasantry.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is
not the correct explanation of A.
33
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
50. Which one of the following features
distinguisher Nazism from com-
munism?
(a) Totalitarian state
(b) Lack of individual freedom
(c) Equality of all
(d) Secret police
51. SAARC secretariat is located in,
(a) New Delhi (b) Islamabad
(c) Dhaka (d) Kathmandu
52. Arrange these nations as per their
joining of UNO.
1. India
2. Afghanistan
3. Sri Lanka
4. Japan
Codes:
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
53. Match the following:
List–I List–II
A. The Cyprus Crisis 1. 1963
B. The Korean Crisis 2. 1948
C. The Kongo Crisis 3. 1960
D. The Kashmir Crisis 4. 1950
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
54. How many countries are members
of the commission on Human
Rights?
(a) 55 (b) 56
(c) 59 (d) 53
55. The official philosopher of national
Socialism was:
(a) Rosemberg (b) Heidegger
(c) Wagner (d) Haushofer
56. Guild socialism is based on the
idea of partnership between the
producers and the state in the
control of industry. This was said
by:
(a) Hobson (b) G.D.H. Cole
(c) Laidler (d) Orange
 34
57. Given below are two statements
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Liberalism is not
committee to maintaining a particular
economic system.
Reason (R): Liberalism seeks to
remove restrictions on individual
liberty and equality.
In the content of the above two
statements, which one of the
following is correct?
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is
not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
58. Famous Feminist analyser of the
post colonials state.
(a) Shirin Rai
(b) Gayatri Chakravorty Skivak
(c) Sarojni Naidu
(d) Sonia Gandhi
59. Participatory democracy is opposite
of an
(a) Authoritarian democracy
(b) Monarchy
(c) Republic
(d) Capitalistic
60. Match the following:
List–I List–II
A. Lenin’s Party 1. Centralism
B. Locke 2. Pro-change
party
C. Marxist 3. Quality of
civil society
D. Almond 4. Pressure
groups.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 3 4 2
61. Early liberalism stood for:
(a) religious toleration.
(b) recognition of the divine of kings.
Practice Set-3
(c) everything medieval, both in (c) trade
philosophy and in politics. (d) hegemony
(d) Economic equality. 70. The most outstanding contemporary
62. The author “History and class advocate of libertarianism is:
consciousness” is: (a) Rowls (b) Hebermas
(a) Althusser (b) Gramsci (c) Dworkin (d) Nozick
(c) Lenin (d) Lukacs 71. Consider the following statements:
63. Who among the following based Classical liberalism stands for:
this liberalism on the primary of 1. a state which is merely a watch-
rights? man
(a) J.S. Mill
2. individualism
(b) Jeremy Bentham 3. welfarism
(c) T.H. Green 4. free market
(d) Ronald Dworkin Which of these statements are
64. What distinguishes modern libera- correct?
lism from the classical one is: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) the concept of socialist planing (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
(b) egalitarianism 72. With whom of the following is
(c) libertarianism conservation as a political ideology
(d) corporatism associated?
65. Karl Marx and F. Engels co- 1. Burke
authored: 2. Hobbes
(a) Das Capital 3. Hegel
(b) Anti-Duhring 4. Oakeshott
(c) German Ideology Select the correct answer using the
(d) Critique of the Go the Programme codes given below:
66. The belief that unregulated marked Codes:
capitalism will result in efficiency, (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
growth and widespread prosperity (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
is associated with:
73. Which of the following is a serious
(a) neo liberalism limitation of the Rule of Law in the
(b) neo conservatism U.K.?
(c) neo marxism (a) The supremacy of the British
(d) market socialism Parliament.
67. The nature of the French revolution (b) Absence of separation of Powers.
was: (c) Delegated legislation.
(a) bourgeoisie (d) The two-party system.
(b) proletarian 74. The first to implement the concept
(c) socialist of planned economy was:
(d) new democratic (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
68. “The personal is political” is a (b) Joseph Stalin
central slogan of the: (c) Marshal Tito
(a) neoliberals (b) fascists (d) Mao Ze Dong
(c) socialists (d) feminists 75. According to the Fascists, truest
69. The chief modus operandi of form of democracy is government
cultural imperialism is: by the:
(a) annexation (a) elite (b) warmongers
(b) plunder (c) democrats (d) anarchists
Practice Set-3
76. “Persons better qualified or those
supposed to have greater interest
at stake are given more votes than
those who are less qualified.” This
differential system of voting is
called:
(a) weighted voting
(b) cumulative voting
(c) contingent voting
(d) limited voting
77. Which of the following are the
features of the List systems of
voting?
1. The constituencies are both single
and multi-member ones.
2. The constituencies are only multi-
member one.
3. The voters vote for the indivi-
duals.
4. Parties put up a panel of candi-
dates for the constituency.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
78. The system of proportional repre-
sentation as an electoral mechanism
ensures:
(a) majority rule
(b) stability in government
(c) common political thinking
(d) minority representation
79. Which one of the following is not
the role of Pressure Groups?
(a) To contest elutioun to promote
their interest.
(b) To help candidates favourable to
them to get elected.
(c) To patronize to secure their help
in furthering their cause.
(d) To try to influence public opinion
and enlist its support.
80. Which of the following are Direct
Democratic devices?
1. Plekiscite
2. Gerrymandering
3. Initiative
4. Recall
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
81. Of the various indices of Public
Opinion in democracy, the least
important is:
(a) trend study of voting behaviour
(b) freedom of the press
(c) mult-party system
(d) responsive behaviour of autho-
rities
82. Who among the following theorists
advocated participatory demo-
cracy?
(a) F.A. Hayek
(b) C.B. Macpherson
(c) Michael Oakeshott
(d) Gaetano Masca
83. Match the following:
List–I List–II
A. Architect of Indian’s 1. SC Bose
Foreign Policy
B. Russia 2. China
C. Panchsheel 3. Putin
D. INA 4. Jawahar
Lal
Nehru
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
84. A technique commonly used by the
pressure groups in the USA in:
(a) boycott are picketing
(b) lobbying
(c) lawsuits
(d) peaceful agitations
85. Who among the following advocates
partyless democracy in India?
(a) M.N. Roy
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan
(c) Acharya Narrender Dev
(d) Ram Monohar Lohia
86. The earliest knows example of
‘direct democracy’ is found in:
(a) Athens (b) Sparta
(c) Corinth (d) Syracuse
87. Who among the following gave
prominence to the size principle in
this theory of political coalitions?
35
(a) William Riker
(b) Gabriel Almond
(c) Lucian W.Pye
(d) V.O. Key
88. Who among the following employed
the economic approach to the study
of governments?
(a) Charles Schumpeter
(b) David Easton
(c) Gabriel Almond
(d) Charles Messiaen
89. Who among the following is asso-
ciated with the theory of minimal
winning coalitions?
(a) William H. Riker
(b) Maurice Deverger
(c) Sartori
(d) Rodert Michels
90. On what basis are non-associational
groups essentially formed?
(a) Nationalism
(b) Kinship
(c) Regionalism
(d) Socialism
Direction: Read the following passage
and answer the following five questions:
India has been a WTO member since
1st January, 1995 and a member of GATT
since 8th July, 1948. India has consistently
taken the stand that the launch of any
new round of talks depends on a full
convergence of views amongst the entire
WTO membership on the scope and
framework for such motivations.
Indian’s proposals in ongoing
negotiations includes suggestions like
allowing developing countries to maintain
appropriate level of tariff bindings,
commensurate with their developmental
needs and the prevailing distortions in
international markets.
India’s immediate priority is that
the agreements reached earlier with
the developing countries should be
implementable so as to correct inherent
imbalances in some favor extension
of higher levels of protection to the
geographical indications for products like
Basmati rice, Darjeeling tea and Alphouso
mangoes at par with that provided to wines
 36
and spirits under the trade related Aspects
of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
agreement.
91. Where in the headquarter of the
WTO?
(a) New York
(b) Washington DC
(c) Geneva
(d) Austria
92. Which of the following statement
is not true about the WTO?
(a) WTO is a permanent organisation.
(b) Uruguay round gave the birth to
the WTO.
(c) Ministerial Conference is the
highest policy making body of the
WTO.
(d) WTO was officially constituted
on 1 January 1991.
93. Which of the following institutions
is not part of the World Bank Com-
munity?
(a) IBRD (b) WTO
(c) IDA (d) IFC
94. Which of the following country is
not the member of the WTO?
(a) Iran
(b) Azerbaijan
(c) Belarus
(d) None of these
Answers with Explanations
1. (a) The resurgence of political
theory was started during 1960’s. It
started just after the emergence of
declining trends in the political theory
during the period of 1950s–1960s.
2. (a) Aristotle is regarded as “the
father of political science” on account
of his far reaching and permanent
contribution to the field of politics. He
called politics the Master Science because
politics determines the environment
within which every person will organize
his life.
3. (d) The famous phrase, “man
is born free, but he is everywhere in
chains,” is said by Rousseau, in his
95. When did India became the member
of WTO?
(a) 1st January, 1995
(b) 8th July, 1948
(c) 1st June, 1995
(d) 8th June, 1948
Direction: Read the following passage
and answer the following five questions:
The rank of the ministers is determined
by the Prime Minister according to whose
advice the President appoints the ministers
and also allocates business amongst them
[Article 77].
The Council of Ministers is collectively
responsible to the house of people [Article
75 (3)]. Under Article 78(c) if the
president so requires, to submit for the
consideration of the council of Ministers
any matter on which a decision has been
taken by a Minister but which has not been
considered by council.
The ministers may be chosen from
members of either house and a ministers,
who is a member of one house has a
right to speak in and to take past in the
proceedings of the other house though he
has no right to vote in the house of which
he is not a member [Article 88].
96. The Parliamentary System of
government in India is taken from
______.
(a) Canada (b) UK
(c) America (d) Australia
social contract theory. While describing
the human nature in his social contract
theory. Rousseau expressed this idea.
4. (a) Plato gave the concept of
philosopher king for his ideal state. He
believed that only a philosopher king.
Who has gone through all the courses of
education system proposed in Republic,
will be the best ruler.
5. (b) oligarchies.
Proportional – Thomas Hare
representation
Fundamental – GDH Cole
representation
One man one – J. Betham
Vote
Practice Set-3
97. The salary and allowances of the
ministers of the Government of
India are determined by whom?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Parliament
98. Who said that “The cabinet is
the pivot around which the whole
political machinery revolves”?
(a) Sir John Marriott
(b) Dr. Ambedkar
(c) W. Churchill
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
99. It is necessary to be a member of a
house after 6 months of becoming
a minister, but in what way should
a member of the house be elected?
(a) by election
(b) by nomination
(c) either by election or nomination
(d) None of the above
100. W hat does it mean that the
council of Ministers is collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha?
(a) All Ministers are liable to the Lok
Sabha for their work.
(b) All Ministers are responsible for
the Rajya Sabha for their work.
(c) All ministers will act as a team.
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Multiple Voting – J.S. Mill
right
6. (a) The iron law of oligarchy is
a political theory, developed by the
German sociologist Robert Michels in his
book, political parties. Michels theory
states that all complex organizations,
regardless of how democratic they are
when started, eventually develop into
Here, both the statements are correct
and (R) Reason is correct explanation of
A.
7. (a) The concept of ‘Two Parlia-
ments’ was enunciated by Guild
Socialism. G.D.H. Cole was the staunch
Practice Set-3
supporter of Functional Representation.
Sydney Webb and Beatrice Webb
suggested for a new kind of Parliament
having two parts, social parliament and
political parliament.
8. (a) Marx (1818–1883) and his
colleague Engels (1820–1895) have
distinct explanations and statements
which established state theory. In the
‘Communist Manifesto’, the state is the
“Political power, properly so called, is
merely the organised power one class
for oppressing another.” Dialectical
materialism is a philosophy of science
and nature, developed in Europe, and
has an aspect of the border subject of
materialism, which asserts the primary
of the material world.
9. (c) On 19 September, 1893 the
governor, Lord Glasgow, Dinged a new
Electoral Act into law. As a result of
this landmark legislation, New Zealand
became the first self-governing country
in the world in which women had the
right to vote in parliamentary elections.
10. A. Carolyn – The Death
Merchant of Nature.
B. Rudolph – From Red
Bahro to Green.
C. Murray Book – Post-
Chin Scarcity
Anarchism.
D. James – Gaia.
Lovelock
11. (a) The Moderates had full faith in
constitutional means and tried to arouse
public opinion in favour of their demand.
Their main demand was self-rule as they
believed that it was not ripe time for
overthrowing British Rule. So, both the
statements are correct and R is correct
explanation of A.
12. (c) Confucius was a Chinese
philosopher who promoted a system of
social and political ethics emphasizing
order, moderation, and reciprocity
between superiors and subordinates.
The Analects contains a collection of
his sayings and dialogue compiled by
disciples after his death.
13. (c) Aristotle explained in great
detail the theory of revolution. It is his
study of nearly 158 constitutions that
helped him understand the implications
of revolutions on a political system. In
his work, politics, he discussed at length
all about revolutions. Based on his
study, Aristotle gave a scientific analysis
and expert treatment to the subject of
revolutions.
14. (b) John Locke (1632–1704) was
another prominent western philosopher
who conceptualized rights as natural and
inalienable.
These views were most fully
developed in Locke’s famous second
Treatise Concerning Civil Governments.
15. (d) Hegel was the final product
of the philosophical movement known
as. “German idealism,” which arose in
Germany in response to Immanuel Kants
Critical Philosophy. Hegel described
himself as an idealist.
16. (b)
A. Rousseau – General Will
B. Locke – Consent of the
governed.
C. Hegel – March of God on
Earth
D. Rawls – Veil of ignorance.
17. (a) Machiavelli, wrote his best-
knows work “The Prime” in 1513, which
contains several maximum concerning
politics.
In the book he described about the
role of the king and the structure of the
state.
So, both the statement are correct and
(R) is correct explanation of (A).
18. (c) “A Theory of Justice” is a
1971 work of political philosophy and
ethics by John Rawls, in which the author
addresses the problem of distributive
justice.
19. (c) The stages propounded by
Karl Marx were:–
(i) Primitive Communist stage.
(ii) Ancient stage.
(iii) The Federal stage.
(iv) The Capitalist stage.
20. (a)
•• Magna Carta (15th June, 1215)
•• Glorious Revolution (1688)
•• American war of Independence
(14 July, 1776)
•• French Revolution (1789).
21. (b) The Fatwa-i-Jahardari was
written by Ziauddin Barani, which
contain the political ideals to be pursued
by a Muslim ruler in order to earn
religious merit and the gratitude of his
subjects.
37
22. (c) Tilak was one of the first and
strongest advocates of Swaraj and a
strong radical in Indian Consciousness.
He is known for his quote in Marathi.
“Swarajya is my birth right and I shall
have it.” He formed a close alliance with
many Indian National Congress Leaders.
23. (d)
A. Swami – King
B. Amatya – Minister
C. Kosha – Treasury
D. Danda – Army
24. (b) The 8th Constitutional
Amendment Act inserts Article 21A
which recognises education of children
between the age of 6 to 14 years as their
fundamental right. Still one out of four
children in out of school.
25. (b) Gunnar Myrdal characterised
India a ‘soft state’ which is ill-equipped
to carry out its welfare commitments and
international obligations.
26. (b) Canada and India are
characterised as Parliamentary, federa-
lism. The representation in the upper
houses are based on the population. On
the other hand, in USA and Australia, the
provincer are given equal representation
in the upper House.
27. (b)
A. Integral humanism – Deendayal
Upadhyay
B. Radical humanism – MN Roy
C. Scientific – Nehru
humanism
D. Cultural – V.D.
nationalism Savarkar
28. (a) The correct sequence:
1. JP Narayan joined Non-
cooperation movement.
2. Narayan joined Indian National
Congress.
3. Narayan joined civil Disobedience
Movement.
4. Narayan gave a call of peacefull
total revolution.
29. (d) “A state is human activity that
successfully claims the monopoly of the
legitimate use of physical force within a
given territory?” in said by Max Weber.
30. (c) Traditional approaches are
mostly normative and stresses on the
values of politics. Prominence is on the
study of different political structures.
Traditional approaches made very little
attempt to relate theory and research.
 38
31. (c) Art. 359 deals with suspension
of the enforcement of the rights conferred
by Part III during emergencies. All
fundamental rights are suspended
except Art. 20 and 21 during National
Emergency.
32. (b) Art. 108 deals with this
question, Both 1 and 2 statements are
correct but 3rd one is wrong because
the time period in six months not three
months.
33. (c) In the view of Mussolini,
everything is within state nothing is
outside and above the state. State is end
individual is means.
34. (c) Bentham has supported
individualist nation of morality. It cannot
be controlled by state. It in included in
his book. “Introduction of Principle of
Model and Legislation.”
35. (b) Art. 751(a) has been inserted
by Ninety-first constitution Amendment
Act 2004. It is related to limiting the size
of council of Ministers, which states that
the total number of ministers should not
exceed 15% of total number of house of
people.
36. (b) Laswell (Politics, who get’s
what, when and How?) and G.A. Almond
produced advanced and developed neo-
realist arguments.
37. (d) Morley-Minto Reforms (1909)
in also known as Government of India
Act, 1909. Salt Satyagrah (1930) was
under the leadership of Gandhiji, Poona
Pact (1934) was signed between Gandhiji
and Ambedkar. Indian Navy revolt took
place in 1946.
38. (a)
A. Sovient Union – April, 1941
German Non-
aggression Post
B. Germany invaded – June, 1941
Soviet Union
C. Germany occupied – March, 1939
Czechoslovalkia
D. Germany invaded – September,
Poland 1939
39. (a) The Government of Japan is
a constitutional monarchy in which the
power of the Emperor is limited and is
relegated primarily to ceremonial duties.
40. (d) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(NBA) is as Indian social movement
spearheaded by native tribal, farmers,
environmentalists and human rights
activists against a number of large dam
projects across river Narmada, which
flows through the states of Gujarat,
Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
41. (d) The correct chronological
order:
1. The Roman Empire
2. The Green City State
3. The Feudal State
4. The Nation State
42. (b)
A. Collective – USA
Responsibility
B. Multiparty – Switzerland
System
C. Referendum – UN
D. Due Process – India
of Law
43. (b) Both the statements are currect
but there is no relation between the two.
44. (d) A.G. Frank is related
with the thesis of development of
underdevelopment. He said that now
developed countries once have been
underdeveloped but they were never
underdeveloped.
45. (c) The Human Rights Protection
Law was passed in India in the year
1993. When P.V. Narsimha Rao was the
Prime Minister.
46. (c) Freedom is most essential
principle of Liberalism. Without
freedom, one cannot imagine about
equality, social justice and democracy.
47. (b)
A. Marxian theory – Class struggle
B. Realist theory – Power
C. Decision- – Environment
Making theory
D. Game theory – Pay off
48. (a) Fabinism considers socialism
as refinement and logical conclusion of
democracy. The main Fabianists are:
G.B. Show and Sidney Webb.
49. (c) Scientific socialism explains
history is term of class struggle but
class struggle takes place because of
the contradictions of proletariate and
capitalist. So, option ‘c’ is correct.
50. (c) Nazism does not believe in
equality of all but communism have faith
in equality of all.
51. (d) Secretary—general of the
south Asian Association for Regional
Cooperation, is head of a SAARC
Practice Set-3
secretariat, which is headquartered in
Kathmandu, Nepal.
52. (b) According to their joining of
UNO:
1. India
2. Afghanistan
3. Sri Lanka
4. Japan
53. (b)
A. The Cyprus Crisis — 1963
A. The Korean Crisis — 1950
A. The Kongo Crisis — 1960
A. The Kashmir Crisis — 1948
54. (d) 53 countries are members of
the commission on Human Rights. It was
a subsidiary body of the UN Economic
and School council; which elected
members through the mechanism of the
united nations Regional Groups
55. (a) The basic framework of
National Socialism can be traced in
the Rounberg book “The myth of the
Twentieth Century 1930.”
56. (b) G.D.H. Cole made a
systematic and sympathetic study of
French syndicalism and then analysed
and elaborated the main tenets of guild
socialism that it is based on the idea of
partnership between the producers and
state in the control of industry.
57. (b) Both statements are correct
but A is related to the fact that liberalism
does not favour any particular economic
system while R states with the very
nature of liberalism.
58. (b) Shrin Rai is a political
scientist, known for her research on
the intersections between globalization,
post-colonial governance, process of
democratisation and gender regimes
59. (*) Participatory democracy
emphasizer the broad participation of
constituents in the direction and operation
of political systems.
60. (d)
A. Lemin’s Party – Centralism
B. Locke – Quality of
Civil
Society
C. Marxist – Prenure
groups
D. Almond – Pro-change
Party
61. (a) Liberalism developed as
a reaction against dictator authority,
church and feudalism of 16th century. It
has faith in secular polity.
Practice Set-3
62. (a) Althusser who is associated
with structural Marxism has written the
book “History and class consciousness”
63. (c) T.H. Green has based
liberalism on the idea of primacy of
rights.
64. (b) Classical liberalism was based
on Individualism. The concept of equality
converted liberalism into modern one.
65. (c) The German Ideology was
co-authored by Marx and Engels. Anti-
Duhring is the book of Engel and Das
Capital and critique of Gotha Programme
were the books of Marx.
66. (a) The belief that unregulated
marked capitalism will result in efficiency,
growth and widespread prosperity is
associated with Neoliberalism.
67. (a) The nature of French
Revolution was Bourgeoisie. It was
mainly concerned with middle class.
68. (d) the slogan “The personal is
political” is the central slogan of the
feminists.
69. (d) Cultural Imperialism is not
objected to the victory of territories or
control over economy. It is objected to
control over individual’s mind so that
through this means the power relations
between the two nations can be altered.
70. (d) Robert Nozick is the main
advocate of libertarianism. He considered
individual’s liberty as the basis of public
policy.
71. (d) Classical liberalism stood
for a state will minimum role. They
considered state as a necessary evil and
followed the folicy of lessiez faire. They
were supporters of individualism and
market system.
72. (a) Except Hegel, all the three,
Burke, Hobbes and Oakeshott are
associated with conservatism.
73. (a) The supremacy of the British
Parliament (there is not judicial review in
Britain) is a serious limitation of the rule
of law in England.
74. (b) Joseph Stalin first implemented
the concept of the planned economy in
soviet Russia.
75. (a) Fascism believes in Elitism
and leadership and considers that
elite government is truest form of
democracy.
76. (a) This statement is related to
concept of weighted voting which rest on
the idea that is choice of public officials
the opinion of intelligent few must have
a greater weight than rest. J.S. Mill
supported this concept.
77. (d) List system is related to multi-
member constituency and the party
provides two types of lists bound list and
free list.
78. (d) Proportional Representation
ensures minority representation. It
includes two form; (i) Hare system and
(ii) List system.
79. (a) Pressure group does not
contest election, but remains at the back
drop and influences the elections for the
achievement of their own self interests.
Pressure group are of four kinds- (i)
Institutional (ii) Associational (iii) Non-
Associational and (iv) Anomie Pressure
group.
80. (b) The main devices of direct
democracy are: Plebiscite, Initiative,
Recall and Referendum. Gerrymandering
is not a device of Direct democracy.
81. (d) Other than the responsive
behaviour of authorities, all the three are
important in public opinion.
82. (b) C.B. Macpherson, in his book,
“Possessive Individualism” advocated in
favour of participatory Democracy.
83. (c)
A. Architect of – Jawaharlal
India’s Foreign Nehru
Policy
B. Russia – Putin
C. Panchsheel – China
D. INA – SC Bose
84. (b) Lobbying is the technique
commonly used by pressure group in
USA. Lobbying is so much influential
in USA that it is deemed as “Second
Congress” by Laski.
85. (b) Jayaprakash Narayan advoca-
ted partyless democracy in India because
he was with the view that parties makes
the democracy corrupt and misguides the
common manner.
86. (a) Athens is the earliest known
example of the Direct Democracy. It was
a small city—state of Greece.
87. (a) William Riker gave promin-
ence to the size principle in his theory of
political coalitions.
88. (a) Charles Schumpeter (Book,
Capitalism, Socialism and democracy)
employed the economic approach to the
study of government.
39
89. (a) William H. Riker is associated
with the theory of minimal winning
coalitions, (Book, Liberalism against
populism, 1982).
90. (b) The non— associational groups
are formed on the basis of kinship,
class, religion, or any other traditional
characteristics, eg: RSS, VHP.
91. (c) Like the GATT, headquarter
of the WTO is also situated in Geneva
(Switzerland).
92. (d) The members of the GATT
signed an agreement during the Urnguay
round is April 1994 and on January 1,
1995 the WTO was established.
93. (b) WTO or world Trade
Organisation is not part of the world
Bank Community. World Bank group
is comprised of the five institutions i.e.
International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD), the International
Development Association (IDA), the
International Finance Corporation (IFC),
the multilateral Investment Guarantee
Agency (MIGA) and the International
Centre for settlement of Investment
Disputes (ICSID).
94. (d) There are some big economics
of the world but they are not the member
of the WTO. These countries are;
Iran, Serbia, Algeria, Turkmenistan,
Azerbaijan, Sudan, Belarus and Bosnia
and Herzegovina.
95. (a) India has been a WTO member
since 1st january, 1995.
96. (b) The parliamentary system of
government in the constitution of India is
based on the British model.
97. (d) The salaries and allowances of
the minsiters of the government of India
are determind by the Parliament.
98. (a) Sir John Marriott said “The
cabinet is the pivot around which the
whole political machinery revolves.”
99. (c) Membership can be obtained
either by election or nomination within
6 months.
100. (d) The council of Ministers
is collectively responsible to the Lok
Sabha, it means that all the minsiters will
be responsible to the Lok Sabha for their
work and act as a party.
qqq
 40 Practice Set-4

UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Practice Set-4
1. Which of the following statement (c) Societal perspectives 9. Given below are two statements,
are true of the British Parliament (d) None of the above one labelled as Assertion (A) and
system? 6. Consider the following statements: the other labelled as Reason (R).
(A) The queen always acts on the 1. System theory is the result of the Assertion (A): The New leftism
advice of the cabinet behavioral revolution in social of Herbert Marcuse, Frantz Fanon
(B) The Parliament can make laws science. and others is not a total rejection of
on any subject Marxism.
2. There is a universally acceptable
(C) The cabinet functions on Reason (R): The New left drew
definition of a system.
the principle of collection heavily on Das Capital.
3. System theory aims at the unifica-
responsibility (a) Both A and R are true and R is
tion of science and scientific
(D) The house of cards can veto the correct explanation of A.
analysis.
legislation paned by the house (b) Both A and R are true fact R is
Which of these statements is/are
of commons not the correct explanation of A.
correct?
(a) A, B, C and D (c) A is true but R is false.
(a) 1, and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(b) B and D (d) A is false but R is true.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
(c) A and C 10. Laski’s political theory may be best
7. Match the following
(d) A, B and C characterized as
  List-I   List-II
2. Which one of the following countries (a) pluralist
(Scholar)   (Theory/
has separate constitution for each (b) individualist
Approach)
state? (c) Marxist
A. Morgenthau 1. Systems
(a) Canada (d) pluralists, individualist and
Theory Marxist in turn
(b) U.S.A.
B. Bernard 2. Game Theory 11. Which one of the following is an
(c) Pakistan
Coher apt description of Bodin’s theory
(d) Australia
C. Morton 3. Decision of sovereignty?
3. Which one of the following pairs is
not correctly matched? Kaplan making (a) Absolute sovereignty
(a) The former USSR - Republics approach (b) Limited sovereignty
(b) Germany-Contous D. Emile Berd 4. Realist School (c) Political sovereignty
(c) India-States Codes: (d) Popular sovereignty
A B C D 12. About which of the following
(d) U.S.A.-States
(a) 4 3 1 2 thinkers it has been said that his
4. Which one of the following is not a (b) 2 1 3 4 theory of the state is “an incon-
regional economic organization? (c) 4 1 3 2 gruous mixture of natural rights
(a) OAS (d) 2 3 1 4 and physiological metaphor”?
(b) ASEAN 8. Which among the following scholars (a) Bradley
(c) SAARC propounded the systems approach (b) Spencer
(d) ECOWAS towards the study of international (c) Bluntschli
5. Marxian view treats international relations?
(d) Burke
politics as on extension of class was (a) David Easton
13. The theory of social contract
in: (b) Gabriel Almond primarily seeks
(a) Global perspectives (c) C. McClelland (a) to explore the historical origin of
(b) National perspectives (d) J. W. Burton the state.
Practice Set-4 41
(b) to explain the basis of political (c) Marxist-Leninist Theory (c) Nozick
obligation (d) Guild - Socialist Theory (d) Rawls
(c) to justify the states qro 18. Who among the following thinkers 25. The entitlement theory of property
(d) to bring out a radical transfor- held that “Human consciousness has been propounded by
mation of society by revolution postulates liberty, liberty involves (a) John Locke
14. The idea of social contract has been rights and rights demand the (b) John Rawls
recently revived under a new form state”?
(c) Hayek
by (a) Hegel
(d) Nozick
(a) Nozich (b) Green
26. Who among the following thinkers
(b) Rawls (c) Bosanquet made a distinction between Real
(c) Oakshott (d) Laski will and Actual will?
(d) Hannah Arendt 19. “Rights properly so-colled are (a) Rousseau
15. Match the following— creations of law properly so (b) Green
  List-I List-II called,” This definition of rights is
(c) Bozanquet
associated with:
A. The state is 1. Hegel (d) Kant
(a) Hobbes (b) Hegel
the soul writ 27. “I hate democracy because I
(c) Bentham (d) Laski love freedom.” This observation
large
20. Rawl’s principle of distributive belongs to a school of political
B. The state is 2. Weber
justice is based on the notion of thought knwon as
coordinating
(a) desert (a) anarchism
and adjusting
(b) difference principle (b) conservatism
C. The state has 3. Ernest
(c) equality (c) totalitarianism
the monopoly Barker
(d) entitlement (d) liberalism
of legitimate
21. Bentham was a supporter of the 28. Karl Popper has advocated
physical force
theory of (a) rational reconstruction of entire
D. The state is 4. Plato
(a) natural rights socio-political system on scientific
the self principles
(b) historical rights
realizing (b) piece-meal social engineering
(c) legal rights
and self- (c) historicists review of social evolu-
(d) ethical rights
actualizing tion
22. The distinction between legal and
individual political sovereignty was made by (d) democratic planning
Codes: 29. Marx believed that equality is a
(a) John Locke
A B C D society could be established only
(b) John Austin when
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 5 2 1 4 (c) A.V. Dicey (a) all individuals were given political
(c) 1 3 2 1 (d) Harold J. Laski freedom.
(d) 4 2 3 1 23. “A thinking man is depressed (b) class contradictions were removed
16. The Historical theory of the origin animal”, This view of man was (c) rule of law was established
of the state was propounded by propounded by (d) separation of powers was prac-
(a) Six Henry Maine (a) Hobbes ticed.
(b) Jriestske (b) Vico 30. The monistic concept of sovereignty
(c) Oppenheimer (c) Herder upholds the primary of
(d) Durkheim (d) Rousseau (a) Positive law
17. Which one of the following theories 24. The philosopher who has trans- (b) customary law
held that the state is a product and formed classical liberalism into a (c) morality and ethics
manifestation of the irreconcilability kind of welfarism in modern times (d) community’s sense of right
of class antagonisms? is 31. Who among the following denied
(a) Evolutionary Theory (a) Hayek the existence of rights before the
(b) Anarchist Theory (b) Macpherson development of society?
 42 Practice Set-4
(a) T. Hobbes (b) J. Locke 36. Which one of the following is the 41. Who among the following formula-
(c) J. Rousseau (d) T.H. Green. doctrine of positive? ted the notion of power knowledge?
32. Who among the following thinkers (a) Freedom is self- realization (a) Michel Foucault
combined natural rights with (b) Freedom is the absence of restraint (b) Plato
physiological metaphor in his (c) Freedom is the fulfillment of (c) Socrates
organismic theory of the state? desire (d) Niccolo Machiavelli
(a) F.A. Breadley (d) Freedom is power to do whatever 42. Unlike subject hood, citizenship
(b) Herbert Spencer one wants rests on
(c) Bernard Bosanguet 37. The difference principle is Rawlsian (a) rights
(d) Bluntschli theory of liberal welfare state is (b) obedience
33. According to Bradley “Sovereignty derived from: (c) duties
is the supreme power over citizens (a) Sympathy for the worst off is (d) law
and subjects unrestrained by law.” society
43. Which one of the following doctrines
In the above statements, the term (b) Moral duty to help the least accords central role to the notion of
Law- Signifier advantaged citizenship?
(a) moral law (c) The principle to maximization of (a) Totalitarianism
(b) divine and natural law utilities (b) Republicanism
(c) constitutional law of the land (d) The maximum principle (c) Theocracy
(d) positive law 38. Which one of the following is (d) Fabianism
34. Aristotle’s dictum “the state is an important attributes of civil 44. The statements — Rights, in fact,
prior to man” implies. society? are those conditions of social life
(a) the temporal priority of the state (a) Coercion without which no man can seek, is
(b) the absorption of man is the state (b) Intimacy general to be himself at his best”
was made by:
(c) the integral unity of man and the (c) Voluntarism
(a) T. H. Green
state (d) Piety
(b) H. J. Laski
(d) a genetic fallacy 39. Which among the following is not
(c) Rousseau
35. Match the following a feature of sovereignty?
(d) Marx
 List-I   List-II (a) Absoluteness
45. Which one of the following is a
A. The state is 1. Bosanquet (b) Permanence central attribute of plato’s notion
a system of (c) Indivisibility of Justice?
positive law (d) Delegation (a) Equality
B. The state as 2. Oppenheimer 40. Match the following (b) Liberty
self-realizing (c) Fraternity
  List-I   List-II
and self- (d) Harmony
(Authors)   (Books)
actualizing 46. Hegel saw civil society as a domain
A. Plato 1. Republic and
idea of:
the Laws
C. The state is 3. Hegel (a) particularity
B. Aristotle 2. Summa
the ethical (b) freedom
Theological (c) universality
idea
D. The state 4. Kelson C. Augustine 3. City of God (d) harmony
is the product D. Aquinas 4. Ethics and 47. Who among the following argued
of force Politics that the part circumstances or
Codes: actions of people can create
Codes:
A B C D differential entitlement?
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (a) 1 4 3 2 (a) John Rawls
(b) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 1 2 3 (b) Charles Taylor
(c) 3 4 2 1 (c) 1 4 2 3 (c) F.A. Hayek
(d) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 1 3 2 (d) Robert Nozick
Practice Set-4
48. Judicial Review is the Indian
constitution is based on:
(a) procedure established by law
(b) due process of law
(c) rule of law
(d) precedents and conventions
49. Which one of the following is not
included in the state list in the
constitution of India?
(a) Police
(b) Law and order
(c) Prisons
(d) Criminal Procedure Code
50. Which one of the following countries
does not have constitutional
provisions requiring the federal
government to transfer its resources
to the states?
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) Canada
(d) USA
51. The area of Lok Sabha constituency
for the purpose of general election
is determined by the:
(a) Delimitation Commission
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) Census Commission
(d) President
52. The provision of providing identity
cards to voters has been made in:
(a) the constitution of India
(b) the representation of the people
Act, 1958
(c) the election laws (Amendment),
Act, 1975
(d) the criminal and election Laws
(Amendment) Act, 1969
53. Which of the following regarding
the Rajya Sabha are correct?
1. It is not subject to dissolution
2. It has a terms of six years
3. On-third of its members retire
after every two years.
4. Its members shall not be less than
25 years of age.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below:
43
(a) 1, 2, and 3 Reason (R): All bills dealing with
(b) 2, 3, and 4 taxes are money bills.
(c) 1 and 3 Codes:
(d) 2 and 4 (a) Both A and R are true and R is
54. If all male citizens were conscripted the correct explanation of A.
is accordance with the fundamental (b) Both A and R are true but R is
duty of defending the country, the not the correct explanation of A.
law would: (c) A is true but R is false.
(a) be unreasonable because it does (d) A is false but R is true.
not provide for categories 59. An inter-state council may be
(b) amount to discrimination on the established by:
basis of age (a) the Parliament
(c) amount to discrimination on the (b) the President
basis of sex (c) the National Development
(d) not be in conflict with any of the
(d) the Zonal Council
provisions of the constitution
60. “Bureaucracy thrives under the
55. The question whether any and if
cloak of ministerial responsibility”
so what, advice was tendered by
(a) USA
council of Minister to the President:
(b) France
(a) shall not be inquired into in any
court. (c) Germany
(b) may be inquired into by in any (d) England
court. 61. Which one of the following is not
(c) shall be inquired into only by the a characteristic feature of bureau-
Supreme Court. cracy, according to Max Weber?
(d) may be inquired into by either (a) Continuity
House of Parliament. (b) Rationality
56. The Supreme Court of India is (c) Consistency
different form its counterpart in (d) Political commitment
the U.S.A: 62. Who among the following charac-
(a) in its role as the guardian of the terized bureaucracy as a rational-
constitution. legal authority?
(b) in its advisory role. (a) F.M. Marx
(c) in its role as the supreme authority (b) Vilfredo Pareto
in the judicial field in the country.
(c) Max Weber
(d) in its writ jurisdiction.
(d) Herbert A. Simon
57. Which one of the following items
63. Who among the following said,
comes under the concurrent list of
“Federalism seeks to reconcile unity
India’s constitution?
with multiplicity, centralization
(a) Inter-state rivers
with decentralization and
(b) Trade Unions nationalism with localism”
(c) Citizenship (a) K.C. Wheare
(d) Local Government (b) W.H. Riker
58. Given below are two statements (c) Daniel J. Elazer
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
(d) A.V. Dicey
the other labelled as Reason (R).
64. The first systematic clarification of
Assertion (A): A bill which contains
government was given by:
a taxation clause besides clauses
dealing with other matters may also (a) Aristotle
be a money bill. (b) Plato
 44
(c) Socrates
(d) Montesquieu
65. Max Weber focused in his works
on:
(a) Constitution of state
(b) Legal structure
(c) Legitimacy of government
(d) Form of government
66. The best form of federalism suited
for countries like India is:
(a) centralized federalism
(b) bargaining federalism
(c) cooperative federalism
(d) conflicting federalism
67. In which of the following federal
systems decentralization is imple-
mented under the “grass roots”
doctrine?
(a) Canada
(b) Australia
(c) India
(d) USA
68. “Government of National Unity”
is a concept developed by which
one of the following third world
countries?
(a) Nigeria
(b) Tanzania
(c) Argentina
(d) South Africa
69. Consider the following:
1. Achyut Patwardhan
2. Govind Ballabh Pant
3. M.N. Roy
4. Yusuf Meherali
Who among these were the
members of the socialist party?
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 1 & 4
(c) 1, 2 & 3
(d) 2, 3 & 4
70. Which one of the following parties
dominated the post war Japanese
politics?
(a) Japan Socialist Party
(b) The Democratic Socialist Party
(c) The Liberal Democratic Party
(d) The Komeito Party
71. National league for democracy is:
(a) a ruling party of Indonesia
(b) an opposition party of Myanmar
(c) a ruling party of Bhutan
(d) an opposition party of Indonesia
72. Political science is a discipline:
(a) which does not subscribe to any
values
(b) which provides value-free analysis
(c) meant to study values
(d) that cannot ignore values
73. An ideal state with perfect justice
under philosophers as rulers was
pictured in:
(a) Machiavelli’s ‘Prince’
(b) Aristotle’s ‘Politics’
(c) Plato’s ‘Republic’
(d) Hobbes ‘Leviathan’
74. Which one of the following is not
a traditional approach to the study
of Political Science?
(a) Comparison
(b) Historiography
(c) Simulation
(d) Legal institutionalism
75. Benedict Anderson has charac-
terized the nation as:
(a) a daily plebiscite
(b) an imagined community
(c) the illusion of our epoch
(d) a social contract
76. The thinker who based politics
on Psychology and Psychology on
Physics and Geometry was:
(a) Montesquieu
(b) Rousseau
(c) Thomas Hobber
(d) Bentham
77. The scientific method does not
emphasize on:
(a) empiricm
(b) values
(c) facts
(d) objectively
78. Which one of the following thinkers
defended representative democracy
against direct democracy?
Practice Set-4
(a) J.J. Rousseau
(b) Karl Marx
(c) M.A. Bakunin
(d) J. Madison
79. Who, among the following was an
author of one of the major books
in the area of Games Theory: The
Theory of Games and Genomic
Behaviour?
(a) John Nash
(b) V o n N e u m a n n a n d O s h a r
Morgenstern
(c) Anthony Downs
(d) Jeffrey S. Banks
80. Where was the first Asian Relations
conference held?
(a) Manila
(b) Tokyo
(c) New Delhi
(d) Colombo
81. Which one of the following countries
has not signed the agreement
on SAARC preferential trading
Arrangement (SAPTA)?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Bhutan
(c) Nepal
(d) Maldives
82. In the wave of democratization
of 1980’s and 1890’s in which of
the following countries has state
socialism not been replaced by a
multi-party system?
(a) Hungary (b) Poland
(c) Bulgaria (d) North Korea
83. The Autonomous district council
under the sixth schedule of the
constitution is not operative in
which one of the following states
of North-east India?
(a) Assam (b) Tripura
(c) Nagaland (d) Meghalaya
84. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(Commission/ (Subject)
Committee)
A. Rajamannar 1. Backward
Committee classes
B. Sarkaria 2. Linguistic
Commission division of
states
Practice Set-4
C. Kaka Kalelkar 3. Administrative
Commission reforms
4. Centre-state
relations
Codes:
A B C Stagira. He was born in the effluent
(a) 2 1 3 family. His father Nicomachus was a
(b) 3 4 1 court physician to king Amyntar III of
(c) 2 4 1 Macedon. Aristotle developed a long-
(d) 3 1 2 lasting interest in medicine and Biology.
85. Who among the following pro-
pounded the functional theory of
rights?
(a) E. Barker (b) A.D. Jimay
(c) H.J. Laski (d) J.S. Mill
86. Who among the following was the
chief exponent of the legal theory
of sovereignty?
(a) Bodin (b) Locke
(c) Rousseau (d) Austin
87. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g
introduced local self-government
in India?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Lord Rippen
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord Macaulay
88. Which one of the following pairs is
not correctly matched?
(a) Motilal Nehru-Nehru Report
(b) Gandhi-Champaran Satyagraha
(c) Jinnah-Khilafat Movement
(d) S.C. Bose-Indian National Army
89. Indian National Congress began to
work as a political party since:
(a) 1885
(b) 1907
(c) Calcutta Congress (September,
1920)
(d) Nagpur Congress (December,
1920)
90. Who is not a proponent of liberal
theory of development
(a) Inkler
(b) Smith
(c) Wilbert E. Moore
(d) Billwarm
45
Direction: Read the following Passage (c) Martin Heidegger
and answer the following five questions: (d) Richard Rosily
Postmodernism is difficult to define, Direction: Read the following passage
because to define it would violate the and answer the following five question:
postmodernist’s premise that no definite
Aristotle was born in 384 BC at
terms, boundaries or absolute truths exist.
According to the postmodern would view,
the western would society is an outdated
lifestyle disguised under impersonal
and faceless bureaucracies. The post
modernist endlessly debates the modernist
about the western society needs to move In 367 BC Aristotle, 17 years of age joined
beyond their primitiveness of ancient plato’s Academy.
traditional thought and practices. He remained in the academy for the
In contrast, post-modernism is anti- next 20 years, first as a student and then
foundationalist, the central theme of as a member of the faculty till 348 BC
post-modernism was summed up by Jean- and left the academy for Azia Minon
Francois Lyotard as ‘incredulity towards after plato’s death. In 343 BC, Aristotle
accepted the offer of philip of Machedon
meta-narratives’. In other words, a
to tutor the 14 year old young prince
tendency to doubt about the truth or belief
established by universal theories of history Alexander. Aristotle established his
that view society as a coherent totality. school, lyceum. He died in 322 BC, at
91. ‘The postmodern condition’ was the age of 62.
written by: 96. When did Aristotle live?
(a) Foucault (a) 384 - 322 BC
(b) Derrida (b) 428 - 348 BC
(c) Richard Rorty (c) 4BC- 65 AD
(d) Jean Francois Lyotard (d) 121-180 AD
92. Who consider nationalism as a 97. Where was Aristotle born?
reason behind war? (a) Sparta (b) Athens
(a) Postmodernist (c) Stagira (d) Mytilene
(b) Feminist 98. Which philosopher was Aristotle’s
(c) Liberalist master?
(d) Ecologist (a) Socrates
93. Who consider the would outside of (b) Heraclitus
themselves as being in error?
(c) Diogenes
(a) Postmodernist
(d) Plato
(b) Feminist
99. Which pupil of Aristotle become a
(c) Ecologist
conqueror?
(d) Multiculturalism
(a) Callisthenes
94. Who among the following is not a
(b) Theophrastus
‘postmodernist’?
(a) Jacqus Derrida (c) Alexander
(b) Michel Foucault (d) Julius Caesar
(c) Charles Taylor 100. How were Aristotle’s students
(d) Nietzsche known?
95. “The order of things” was written (a) Peripatetics
by: (b) Scholastics
(a) Jacques Derrida (c) Stoics
(b) Foucault (d) Epicuream
 46
Answers with Explanations
1. (d) The first three points are true
regarding the British Parliamentary system.
This system is also followed in India.
2. (b) There is separate constitution
for each state in united states of America,
Canada, Pakistan and Australia have
only one constitution.
3. (b) Contous are the terminology of
state used is Switzerland not in Germany.
4. (a) The main objectives of OAS
(Organisation of American states) was
to inculcate mutual understanding and
cooperation amongst the nations of western
hemisphere. ASEAN (Association of
south-east Asian Nations), SAARC
(South Asian Association for Regional
cooperation) and ECOWAS (Economic
community of west African states) are
regional Economic organisations.
5. (b) Marxian view treats international
politics as an extension of class war in
national perspective.
6. (a) There connot be a universally
acceptable definition of a system. The
variable differ from place to place and
there variables are always in state of flux.
7. (a)
A. Morgenthau — Realist School
B. Bernard — Decision making
Coher approach
C. Morton — Systems Theory
Kaplan
D. Emile Berd — Game Theory
8. (c) C. McClelland propounded the
system’s theory.
9. (a) The new leftist like Herbert
Marcuse, Fanon, etc, have based their
main principles or Das Capital. Here,
both the statements are correct and R is
the correct explanation of A.
10. (d) Laski’s theory has the features
of pluralist, Individualist and Marxist, all
the three.
11. (a) Absolute sovereignty is an
apt description of Bodin’s theory of
sovereignty. He gave this theory in his
book “Republic” is 1576.
12. (b) Spencer had first used the
concept of social structure in his book
‘principles of sociology’ and has
considered state as thing organism.
13. (b) The theory of social contract
explains the basis of political obligation.
In words of Lindsay, “The stress is on
the point that the governance is based on
mutual consent of individuals”.
14. (b) The idea of social contract has
been recently revived by John Rawls.
15. (a)
A. The state in soul writ large- Plato
B. The state is coordinating and
adjusting - Ernest Barker
C. The state has the monopoly of
legitimate physical force - Weber.
D. The state is self realizing and self-
actualising individual - Hegal.
16. (a) The Historical theory of the
origin of the state was given by Sir Henry
Maine. It stressed on two points:
(i) State is result of development, and
(ii) Various factors are responsible for
development of state.
17. (c) Marx and Lenin gave
importance to class struggle in the origin
of state.
18. (b) This statement was given by
T.H. Green is relation to his views about
origin of state.
19. (c) Bentham is supporter of legal
theory of rights, which states that rights
and creation of law.
20. (b) Rawl’s principle of
distributive justice is based in the notion
of “Difference Principle” (Book-Theory
of Justice)
21. (c) Bentham was the supporter of
theory of Legal rights.
22. (c) A.V. Dicey differentiates
between legal and political sovereignty.
Legal sovereignty is the supreme power
to formulate and execute laws and
political sovereignty is the power of
electorates.
23. (d) This statement has been given
by Rousseau.
24. (b) C.B. Macpherson in his
book, “Political theory of possessive
Individualism” has transformed classical
liberalism into a kind of welfarism.
25. (a) In the words of Locke.
“Every man has a property in his own
person. Thus nobody has any right to,
but himself. The labour of his body, and
Practice Set-4
the work of his hands, are properly his
whatever, then he removes and of the
state that nature both provided and left
it is, he has mixed his labour with it and
joined to it something that is his own and
thereby makes it his property.
26. (a) Rousseau has made distinction
between the real will and actual will. The
actual will is selfish, irrational, personal
motivated and self-oriented. The real
will is something higher, nobler and
supreme. It wishes the good of all.
27. (a) This observation belongs to
Anarchism. The main anarchist were
Proudhan, Gandhi.
28. (b) Karl Popper has advocated the
concept of piece-meal social engineering.
29. (b) Karl Marx said that equality in
society can be established only if the class
contradiction are removed. This will end
the class struggle and then state will wither
away i.e. stateless and classless society
will be established where the basis will
be “each according to his ability and each
according to his needs”.
30. (a) The Monistic theory of
sovereignty upholds the primacy of ‘positive
law’.
31. (d) T.H. Green denied the existence
of rights before the development of
society. Rest three accepted the existence
of rights before society developed.
32. (d) Herbert Spencer has given the
organic theory and has combined natural
rights with physiological metaphor in his
organismic theory of state.
33. (d) In this statement the term ‘law’
signifies the positive law. According to
his statement, the sovereign will not be
affected or restrained by the laws, which
he makes for the manner. He is above
law. Here law is positive law.
34. (c) Aristotle has given the
organic theory of state and consider that
without state, there in no importance of
individuals and without individuals, no
value of state. The state becomes the
base of fulfilment of all wisher. (Book=
Politic)
Practice Set-4
35. (a) A. the state is a system of
positive law  –Kelson
B. The state as self-realizing and self-
actualizing idea  –Hegal
C. The state is the ethical idea
 – Bosanquet
D. The state is product of force
 – Oppenheimer
36. (a) According to Barker, positive
freedom is the freedom where one attains
self–realization. It is the freedom to do
anything of any nature.
37. (c) Rawlsian theory of liberal
welfare state is derived from the principal
of maximization of utilities.
38. (c) Voluntarism is an important
attribute of civil society.
39. (d) Delegation is not a feature of
sovereignty. The authority of sovereignty
cannot be delegated.
40. (a)
A. Plato — Republic and the Laws
B. Aristotle— Ethics and Politics
C. Augustine — City of God
D. Aquinas — Summa Theologica
41. (a) The notion of power knowledge
was given by Michel Foucault.
42. (b) Citizenship rests on duties.
43. (b) Republicanism accords central
role to the notion of citizenship.
44. (b) This statement has been made
by Lski in his book “The Grammar of
Politics”.
45. (d) Harmony is the central attribute
of Plato’s Justice among the following.
Proper and harmonious coordination is
very much important according to Plato.
46. (c) Hegel saw civil society as a
domain of university.
47. (d) Robert Nozick held that the
post circumstances or actions of people
can create differential entitlements.
48. (a) Judicial Review in Indian
constitution is based on procedure
established by law. It is cleared by Art
137 and Art 145.
49. (d) Criminal Procedure Code is
matter of concurrent list (Subject No.2).
Rest are part of state list: Police No. (2),
Law and Order (No.1) Prisons (No.4)
50. (a) Australia does not have
constitutional provisions requiring
the federal government to transfer its
resources to states.
51. (a) The area of Lok Sabha consti-
tutency for the purpose of general
election is determined by ‘Delimitation
Commission’.
52. (a) The provision of providing
identity cards to voters has been made in
the ‘Representation of the people’s Act,
1958’.
53. (c) Rajya Sabha is not subject to
dissolution, its members has the term of
six years (not the House). One-third of
its members retire after every two years
and the minimum age is 30 yrs to be
member of Rajya Sabha.
54. (b) If this is the situation the law
would amount to discrimination on the
basis of age.
55. (a) Article 74(2) the question
whether any, and if so what, advice was
tendered by Council of Ministers to the
President shall not be inquired into any
court.
56. (b) The supreme court of USA
does not have any advisory role whereas
Indian Supreme Court has been conferred
the advisory role under Article 143.
57. (b) (i) Inter-state river: Item No.
56, Union list
(ii) Trade Unions: Item No. 22,
concurrent list
(iii) Citizenship: Item No. 17, Union list.
(iv) Local Government: Item No. 5,
State list.
58. (c) Article (110) (2): States that
“A bill shall not be deemed as money bill
by reason that it provider for regulation
of any Tax by any local authority or body
for local purpose. So option ‘c’ is correct
i.e. A is true but R is false.
59. (b) Article 263 empowers
President to establish or Inter-state
council.
60. (b) This statement refer to the
working of government in England
because three, ministers and not
bureaucrats are responsible.
61. (d) Political commitment is not the
feature of bureaucracy according to Max
Weber. The others are very important
feature of bureaucracy.
62. (c) Max Weber characterised
bureaucracy as a rational legal authority.
63. (a) This statement is given by
prof. K.C. Wheare.
47
64. (a) The first systematic classi-
fication of government was given by
Aristotle in his book politics, where he
had mentioned six kinds of government.
65. (b) The work of Max Weber is
focused on legal rational structure.
66. (c) Cooperative federalism best
suited for countries like India where
all the units are closely interlinked and
ready for each other’s help.
67. (c) India has implemented decen-
tralisation under the grass root doctrine
so that more and more participation
of public can be gained. (Art 243 of
constitution)
68. (d) South Africa has developed
the concept of “Government of National
Unity”.
69. (b) Achyuta Patwardhan and
Yusuf Meherali were the members of
Socialist Party, Govind Balabh Pant of
Indian National Congress and M.N. Roy
belonged to Communist Party.
70. (d) The Japan Socialist Party
dominated the post war Japanese Politics.
71. (b) National League for
Democracy is an opposition party of
Myanmar related to Aung San Suu Kyi.
72. (d) Political science is a discipline
which cannot ignore values as values acts
as guideline for the development of any
theory.
73. (c) Plato, in his book ‘Republic’
has visioned about an ideal state where
there will be the rule of knowledge under
the philosopher king.
74. (c) Simulation is a part of
empirical approach which is modern
in its perspective and not a traditional
approach.
75. (b) Benedict Anderson has
characterised the nation as an imagined
community. Even the name of his book
published in 1903 in named “Imagined
communities”.
76. (c) Thomas Hobbes had based
politics on Psychology and Psychology on
Physics and Geometry as he considered
that everything in this world is in notion
and through the use of metaphysics we
can understand all the concepts of nature.
77. (b) There is no place of values
in scientific method as it is totally based
on facts and objectivity. This method is
based on cause and effect relationship
where values are of no importance.
 48
78. (a) Representative Democracy
supports the idea of General will in
which the individual’s will merge and a
communitarian decision is made.
79. (b) Von Neumann and Oshar
Morgenstern wrote the book ‘Games
Theory’. The Theory of Games and
Economic Behaviour.’
80. (c) The first Asian relations confer-
ence in which 28 countries participated
was held in New Delhi in 1947.
81. (a) Myanmar has not signed the
agreement on Preferential Treading
Arrangement of SAARC, known as
SAPTA.
82. (d) North Korea is still a one party
system.
83. (c) The Autonomous District
Council does not exists for Nagaland.
84. (b)
A. Rajamannar Committee – Admin-
sitrative reform.
B. Sarkaria Commission – Centre-
state relation
C. Kaka Kalelkar Commision – Back-
ward Classes.
85. (c) H. J. Laski has propounded
the functional theory of rights in his book
‘A Grammar of Politics’.
86. (d) John Austin propounded the
legal theory of sovereignty in his book
“Principles of Jurisprudence”.
87. (b) Lord Rippen introduced Local-
self Administration in India. He was the
Governor General of India from 1880-
1884.
88. (c) Jinnah was not related to
Khilafat Movement. This movement was
related to Ali brother, (Mohd. Ali and
Shaukat Ali)
89. (d) Though it was formed in
1885, but in real sense began to work as
a political power from Nagpur congress
(December 1920).
90. (a) Inkler is not a proponent of
liberal theory of development, Smith,
Moore and Billwarm are liberal theorists.
Practice Set-4
91. (d) ‘The postmodern condition’
was written by Jean Francois Lyotard.
92. (a) Postmodernist consider nation-
alism as a reason behind war.
93. (a) Postmodernists consider the
world outside of themselves as being in
error.
94. (c) Charles Taylor is not a post-
modernist.
95. (b) “The order of things” was
written by Michael Foacault.
96. (c) Aristotle live in 384–322 BC
97. (c) Aristotle was born in 384 BC
at Stagira.
98. (a) Plato was Aristotle’s master.
99. (c) In 343 BC, Aristotle accepted
the offer of Philip of Macedon to teach
Alexander. Alexander ascended to the
throne and began his famous conquests.
100. (a) Aristotle student’s were
known as Peripatetics. The Peripatetic
School was a School of philosophy in
Ancient Greece. It’s teachings derived
from in founder, Aristotle.
qqq
Practice Set-5
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
1. Who among the following made
the statement “Sovereignty is the
supreme power of State, over citizens
and subjects unhindered by law”?
(a) J. Bodin
(b) H. Gardner
(c) Harold J. Laski
(d) Ayatollah Rohallah Khomeini
2. Which one of the following is the
correct statement? In the Pluralist
Theory:
(a) the State is one among several
associations
(b) the State is the sovereign
association
(c) the State is subordinate to other
associations
(d) the State includes the whole
society
3. The idea of equality is not manifest
in the thoughts of which one among
the following?
(a) Eric Vogelin
(b) Julius K. Nyerere
(c) R.H. Tawney
(d) George Bernard Shaw
4. Social democracy articulates
its concern for the weak and
vulnerable on the basis of which
of the following?
(a) Uniform civil code, State
ownership of industry and public
health:
(b) Welfarism, redistribution and
social justice
(c) Trade unions, markets and more
political parties
(d) Unity, heroism and anti-capitalism
5. Who among the following has
expressed that an important view of
representative democracy is that it
is a mode of selecting leaders from
a given set of elites who compete
for people’s vote?
Political Science
Practice Set-5
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(b) J. Schumpeter
(c) Robert Dahl
(d) Norberto Bobbio
6. Which one of the following is the
correct statement? Marx and
Engels suggest that under Primitive
Communism there was no State
because
(a) there were no classes and class
conflict
(b) society was regulated by customs
and tradition
(c) ruling class did not want a neutral
agency such as State
(d) productive forces were equally
shared
7. “The problem of a just society
is not the single problem of
economic equality but the much
more difficult problem of achieving
simultaneously in one society both
liberty equality”. Which system
does this passage justify?
(a) Capitalism
(b) Communism
(c) Fascism
(d) Democratic Socialism
8. The laws of the dialectic of Marx
does not include
(a) The law of transformation of
quantity into quality and vice
versa.
(b) The law of the unity of opposites.
(c) The law of the negation of the
negation.
(d) Dialectic is confined to its opera-
tion to the understanding of the
past only.
9. Who said “Leninism is Marxism of
the era of imperialism and of the
proletarian revolution”?
(a) Marx (b) Lenin
(c) Stalin (d) Mao
49
10. Identify the correct sequence of
the tenets of Behaviouralism as
advocated by David Easton.
(i) Regularities
(ii) Techniques
(iii) Quantification
(iv) Verification
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
11. In which place of South Africa did
Gandhiji for the first time organize
mass protest?
(a) Cape Town (b) Johannesburg
(c) Soweto (d) Pretoria
12. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
 List-I List-II
A. Charles. E. i. The Governmental
Merriam process
B. Heinz ii. What is political
Eulan philosophy? and
other studies
C. Leo iii. New aspects of
Strauss politics
D. Truman iv. The behavioural
persuasion in
politics
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
13. Who among the following political
thinkers are generally regarded as
founders of philosophical appro-
ach?
 50
(a) Plato and Aristotle
(b) Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau
(c) Jeremy Bentham and J.S. Mill
(d) Kant, Hegel
14. Which of the following are the
characteristics of Weber’s ideal
bureaucracy?
1. Staff and line
2. Impersonality
3. Hierarchy
4. Informal organization
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
15. Which of the following does not
figure in Almond and Verba’s
classification of political cultures?
(a) Cognitive orientation
(b) Affective orientation
(c) Evaluative orientation
(d) Empirical orientation
16. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(Political Culture) (Countries)
A. Homogeneous i. Uganda
culture 21. Arrange the following writs in the
B. Elite mass ii. U.K.
culture Indian Constitution:
C. Subject iii. India
political (c) Simon commission Report, 1930
culture (d) Communal Award, 1932
D. Parochial iv. China iii. Quo Warranto
culture iv. Prohibition
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
17. Which one of the following pairs
are not correctly matched?
  List-I List-II
   (President) (Vice-President)
A. Dr. Rajendra i. Dr.S. Radha
Prasad Krishnan
B. Dr. Zakir ii. V.V. Giri
Hussain iv. Morley–Minto Reforms
C. Sanjeeva iii. B.D. Jatti
Reddy (a) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
D. Dr.S. iv. Dr. Zakir (b) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
Radha Hussain
Krishnan (d) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
18. What is the percentage fixed by the
constitution regarding the strength
of the Ministers including the chief
minister in a state?
(a) 10% (b) 12%
(c) 15% (d) 16%
19. Which one of the following is
mainly associated with Panchayati
Raj in tribal areas?
(a) P.K. Thungan committee
(b) Dilip Singh Bhuria committee
(c) Sadiq Ali committee
(d) Doomarlal Baitha committee
20. Which one of the following
approaches studies, among others,
public opinion and people’s political
choices?
(a) Political Philosophical Approach
(b) Institutional Approach
(c) Behavioural Approach
(d) Legal Approach
correct sequence as given in the
i. Certiorari
ii. Habeas Corpus
v. Mandamus
Codes:
(a) (i), (iii), (v), (ii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i), (v)
(c) (ii), (v), (iv), (i), (iii)
(d) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
22. Arrange the following in their
chronological sequence:
i. Cripps Mission
ii. Montague Chelmsford Report
iii. Simon Commission
Practice Set-5
Codes:
(c) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
23. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(Parties) (Characteristic)
A. Indian i. National
National Party
Congress
B. Telugu Desam ii. State Party
Party
C. Kerala iii. Umbrella
Congress Party
D. Communist iv. Regional
party of Party
India (Marxist)
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
24. Which one of the following
was denounced by congress as
“inadequate, unsatisfactory and
disappointing”?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Montague Chelmsford Report,
1918
25. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A federal arrangement
aims at reconciling freedom with
unity and diversity of political
cultures and identities with effective
collective action.
Reason (R): India opted for a plura-
listic model of nation building.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
Practice Set-5
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct.
26. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
  List-I   List-II
 (Articles) (Provisions)
A. 359 i. Financial
Emergency
B. 312 ii. Finance
Commission
C. 280 iii. Suspension of
Fundamental
Rights
D. 360 iv. All India of (c) Process (d) Clientele
Services
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
27. Who among the following has
created eighteen definitions of
public administration and put them
in four categories of political, legal,
occupational and managerial?
(a) Gulick and Urwick
(b) Shafritz and Russell
(c) David H. Rosenbloom
(d) Paul H. Appleby
28. Who among the following has not
made a distinction between public
and private administration?
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Herbert Simon
(c) Paul H. Appleby
(d) John Gaus
29. What is the correct chronological
sequence of the following reports?
1. A.D. Gorwala Report
2. Paul H. Appleby Report
3. Santhanam Committee Report
4. F irst Administrative Reforms
Commission Report.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2
30. Max Weber used the Greek word
‘Charisma’ to refer to
1. qualities acquired by experience
2. inherited qualities
3. supernatural qualities
4. super human qualities
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
31. Which one of the following is not a
base of organization?
(a) Function (b) Budgeting
32. Which of the following statement
is not correct in respect of India?
(a) Tax can be levied except by
authority of law
(b) No expenditure can be incurred
from public funds except in
the manner provided in the
constitution and in accordance
with law
(c) Executive is bound to spend
money in the manner as sanctioned
by parliament
(d) None of the above
33. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
 List-I  List-II
A. Hierarchy i. Dr. K.S.
Kothari
B. Report on ii. House
Public keeping
Administration
(1951)
C. Preliminary iii. Scalar
process
screening in Indian
examination civil service
D. Auxilliary iv. A.D.
Agency Gorwala
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
51
34. Which one of the following was the
first state to establish the institution
of the Lokayukta in India?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
35. Given below are two statements, one
labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Under the spoils
system the public offices are distribu-
ted to the members of the party
victorious at the polls.
Reason (R): The public offices are
considered spoils to be enjoyed by
the victors.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
36. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
  List-I      List-II
  (Authors)      (Books)
A. E.H. Carr i. Neorealism
and its critics
B. R. Keohane ii. From wealth
to power
C. J. Mearsheimer iii. The twenty
year crisis
D. F. Zakaria iv. The tragedy
of great
power politics
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
37. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Globalization is a
multidimensional process.
Reason (R): It involves economic,
political, social and cultural globali-
zations.
 52
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the right explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
38. When two combatants are so
different in their characters, and in
their areas of comparative strategic
advantage, that a confrontation
between them comes to turn one
side’s ability to force, the other side  
to fight on their own terms. Name  
the type of war?
(a) Unequal war
(b) Asymmetric war
(c) New war
(d) Post-westphalian war
39. Name the UN fact finding mission
on the Gaza Conflict 2009 Report
(a) Golding Report
(b) Goldstone Report
(c) Goldman Sachs Report
(d) Gaza Report
40. Under which chapter and article
does the UN security council
consider a threat to international
peace; first explores ways to settle
the dispute peacefully,
(a) Chapter VI, Article 36
(b) Chapter VI, Article 33
(c) Chapter VII, Article 47
(d) Chapter VII, Article 42
41. Which of the following are correct
features of the modern institution
of international law?
(i) Unilateral legislation
(ii) Consent and legal obligation
(iii) Language and practice of
justification
(iv) Discourse of institutional
autonomy
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
42. The United Nations Conference
well known as Copenhagen, COP
15 dealt with the issue of
(a) Global Warming
(b) Climate Change
(c) Environment
(d) Population Explosion
43. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
  List-I     List-II
    (Regional   (Year of Origin)
  Organization)
A. Organization i.
1989
of American
States (OAS)
B. North Atlantic ii.
1948
Agreement
(NAFTA) in Plato’s
C. Arab Maghreb iii. 1954
Union (AMU)
D. South East Asian iv.
1994
Treaty Organiza-
tion (SEATO)
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c)
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
44. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): India is pursuing a
positive asymmetry in South Asia.
Reason (R): India is strategically
contained by China-Pakistan partne-
rship.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the right explanation
of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Practice Set-5
45. Who is the author of the book
“Pakistan’s Arms Procurement
and Military build-up 1979–99: In
search of a policy”?
(a) Ahmed Rashid
(b) Ayesha Jalal
(c) Ayesha Siddiqa Ada
(d) Stephen Cohen
46. Who of the following said “Lenin’s
party was designed to be an elite,
a minority chosen for intellectual
and moral superiority, the most
advanced part of the working class
and so its vanguard”?
(a) C.B. Macpherson
(b) D. McLellan
(c) G.H. Sabine
(d) R. Miliband
47. Nocturnal Council finds a mention
(a) The Republic
(b) The Statesman
(c) The Laws
(d) None of the above
48. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): For Aristotle the
authority of a constitutional ruler over
his subjects is quite different from that
of a master over his slaves.
Reason (R): Because the slave is
inferior from birth and incapable of
ruling himself.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
49. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
  List-I   List-II
 (Authors)   (Books)
A. Willmoore i. John Locke,
Kendall A Biography
Practice Set-5
B. J.W. Gough ii. John Locke
and the had appeared to him in prison,
Doctrine of
Majority-rule
C. M.W. iii. John Locke’s
Cranston Political
Philosophy
D. Richard Cox iv. Locke on
Peace and
War
Codes:
A B C D
(a) ii iii i iv
(b) i ii iv iii
(c) iii iv ii i
(d) iv i iii ii
50. For whom of the following, science
is the fruit of idle curiosity; philo-
sophy is mere intellectual frippery;
the amenities of polite life is tinsel?
(a) Thomas Hobbes
(b) John Locke
(c) J.J. Rousseau
(d) Karl Marx
51. Which one of the following is not
correct regarding Marx’s theory of
alienation?
(a) A
lienation from the product
(b) Alienation from the activity of
labour
(c) Disalienation from species-being
(d) Alienation of man from man
52. Who of the following is of the view
that it is not Gandhi who made
Satyagraha but it is Satyagraha
which made Gandhi the Mahatma?
(a) R.R. Diwakar
(b) C.F. Andrews
(c) G.N. Dhawan
(d) Louis Fisher
53. In which of the following countries
Narendranath Bhattacharya settled
under the name of Manabendra
Nath Roy?
(a) Java
(b) United States of America
(c) Germany
(d) Mexico
53
54. Who of the following said that God 58. Which one of the following articles
of the US Constitution vests the
placed the Gita in his hands and executive powers in the President?
made him realize the simple truths (a) Article 1 (b) Article 2
of the Sanatana Dharma? (c) Article 3 (d) Article 4
(a) Vivekananda 59. Match List-I with List-II and select
(b) Mahatma Gandhi the correct answer from the codes
(c) Aurobindo Ghose given below:
(d) Savarkar   List-I  List-II
55. Comparative Politics is the study A. Both Houses i. America
of have equal
(a) institutions and functions powers
(b) all forms of political activity- B. Upper House ii. India
governmental as well as non- is more
governmental and all political powerful
phenomena than Lower
(c) political processes House
(d) techniques and tools of compara- C. Lower House iii. France
tive inquiry is more
56. What is the correct sequence in powerful
which the following approaches to than Upper
the study of ‘Comparative Politics’ House
emerged? D. National iv. Switzerland
1. Philosophical Approach Assembly
can overthrow
2. Systems Approach
the government
3. New Institutional Approach
Codes:
4. Behavioural Approach
A B C D
Select the correct answer from the
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
codes given below:
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Codes: (c) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 2 (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) 1, 4, 2 and 3 60. Consider the following:
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 3 1. Pocket Veto
(d) 3, 1, 2 and 4 2. President message to federal legis-
57. Arrange the following books in lature
order in which they appeared: 3. Caucus system
4. Pigeon hole-a bill
1. Political Order in Changing
Societies These are the parts of constitutional
2. The Politics of Modernization practice of
3. How Europe Underdeveloped (a) Indian Political System
Africa (b) American Political System
4. Capitalism and Underdevelopment (c) The Swiss Political System
in Latin America (d) The British Political System
Select the correct answer from the 61. Who among the following former
codes given below: British Prime Ministers belonged
Codes: to the Labour Party?
(a) 2, 1, 4 and 3 1. Harold Wilson
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Edward Heath
(c) 2, 1, 3 and 4 3. John Major
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 3 4. Tony Blair
 54
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
62. The Judges of the US Supreme
Court hold office
(a) upto the age of 65 years
(b) upto the age of 70 years
(c) upto the age of 75 years
(d) until death or resignation or
removal by the Congress
63. Which one of the following Federal
Courts has the power to declare
laws passed by the state or the
constituent unit of the federation
invalid but not the federal laws?
(a) The Supreme Court of America
(b) The Supreme Court of India
(c) The Swiss Federal Tribunal
(d) The French Superior Courts
64. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer from
the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The British Parliament
is sovereign.
Reason (R): The Queen in England
is a nominal head of the State.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
65. “Since Indians wish to unite and
develop a common culture, it is the
bounden duty of all Indians to own up
Hindi as their language… Any Indian,
who does not accept this proposal…,
has no right to be Indian.” Who
among the following said this?  
(a) B.R. Ambedkar  
(b) Bala Saheb Deoras
(c) Dr. K.M. Munshi
(d) Seth Govind Das
66. Who has described Indian society
as ‘Apolitical Society’?
(a) Rajni Kothari
(b) Morris Jones
(c) Stanley Kochanak
(d) Paul R. Brass
67. In which of the following Acts the
provincial subjects were divided
into transferred and reserved
subjects?
(a) Indian Council’s Act, 1892
(b) Indian Council’s Act, 1909
(c) Montague Chelmsford Reforms
Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
68. Who of the following gave the
idea of ‘Saintly Idiom’ in Indian
politics?
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan
(b) Rajni Kothari
(c) Morris Jones
(d) James Manor
69. Which one of the following
principles did not emerge out
of Bommai case in relation to
Article 356?
(a) Proclamation issued under Art.
356 is subject to judicial review.
(b) State Assembly should be
dissolved only after the approval
of proclamation by Parliament.
(c) If a new political party assumes
power at the Centre, it has the
authority to dismiss Ministries
formed by other parties in the
States.
(d) The Court may require the
Union Government to disclose the
materials on the basis of which
Art. 356 was invoked.
70. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
  List-I  List-II
 (Committees of   (Number of
  Parliament)   Members)
A. Public i. 45
Accounts for any society, given by Fred W.
Committee
B. Estimates ii. 22
Committee
Practice Set-5
C. Department iii. 15
related
Parliamentary
Standing
Committee
D. Rules iv. 30
Committee
of Lok Sabha
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
71. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Courts follow
the principle of natural justice while
deciding cases.
Reason (R): Justice should not only
be done but should manifestly and
undoubtedly be seen to be done.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
72. The post 1970 phase in the develop-
ment of Public Administration was
characterized by
(a) Status-quoism
(b) Stability
(c) Development theory
(d) Value orientation
73. What was he referring to when
Mooney said ‘conferring of specified
authority by a higher authority’?
(a) Division of powers
(b) Responsibility
(c) Conferring authority
(d) Delegation
74. Which one of the following was not
in the list of functional requisites
Riggs?
(a) Economic
(b) Administrative
Practice Set-5
(c) Political
(d) Communicational
75. Which one of the following is not
a stage in decision-making process
given by Herbert Simon?
(a) Intelligence activity
(b) Speculative activity
(c) Choice activity
(d) Design activity
76. Which one of the following is not
one of the styles of leadership given
by Likert?
(a) Exploitative authoritative
(b) Benevolent authoritative
(c) Cooperative authoritative
(d) Participative
77. Choose the correct code for the
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) as
given below:
Assertion (A): To be valid and part
of a science of public administration,
hypothesis developed in the American
cultural context should be tested in
cross-cultural settings.
Reason (R): Comparative study
has brought Politics and Public
Administration closer to each other.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
78. What is the name of the Committee
in Britain that takes up voting of
demands and of taxes (revenue
part)?
(a) Appropriation Committee
(b) Committee of Ways and Means
(c) Committee of Supply
(d) Estimates Committee
79. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
  List-I  List-II
  (Books) (Authors)
A. The Admini- i. Ordway Tead
strative State
55
B. The Art of ii. Piffner and Codes:
Administration Presthus (a) (i), (iv), (ii) (b) (i), (iii), (iv)
C. Public iii. Dwight Waldo (c) (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii)
Administration
83. Who defined Non-alignment
D. Organization iv. Seckler- as a “Policy of keeping out of
and Hudson alliances”?
Management
(a) K.M. Pannikar
Codes:
(b) George Schwarzenberger
A B C D
(a) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (c) Marshall Tito
(b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (d) John Burton
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) 84. The North American Free Trade
(d) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) Agreement 1994 (NAFTA) includes:
(a) U.S.A., Canada and Mexico
80. ‘Rule of Lapse’ is essential for the
effective financial control by the (b) Mexico, Japan and South Korea
(c) Brazil, Mexico and New Zealand
(a) Estimates Committee
(d) Canada, New Zealand and U.S.A.
(b) Parliament
85. Who among the following realist
(c) Department of Expenditure thinkers identifies ‘three images of
(d) Public Accounts Committee politics’?
81. Arrange the following in their (a) Hans Morgenthau
chronological sequence and choose (b) Kenneth Waltz
your answer from the codes given (c) Thucydides
below: (d) E.H. Carr
i. Churchill’s Fulton Speech 86. Read the following statements
ii. Launching of the African Union about South-South Co-operation:
iii. A treaty to create South East 1. South-South Co-operation is an
Asian Nuclear weapon free zone alternative to North-South Aid.
2. It refers to co-operative mutually
iv. R ecognition of South Sudan
beneficial activities in the field of
as a sovereign State and 193rd
trade, service and technology.
member of the U.N.
3. UN General Assembly declared 19
Codes: December the annual UN Day for
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) South-South Co-operation.
(b) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 4. W .T.O. came into existence
(c) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) for facilitating South-South Co-
operation.
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Select your answer from the codes
82. Which one of the following state-
given below:
ments regarding realism are true?
Codes:
i. T hucydides is called the first
(a) 1, 3, 4 (b) 2 and 4
classical realist.
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) only 4
ii. Power is the key to international 87. Operation Enduring Freedom 2001
politics. is related to
iii. T he main goal of states is (a) Eviction of terrorists from Iraq
survival. (b) Eviction of Taliban regime from
iv. All states do not posses power to Afghanistan
inflict some harm on its neighbour. (c) Eviction of Crimean forces from
Choose your answer from the codes Russia
given below: (d) Eviction of Arabs from Gaza strip
 56
88. Which one of the following countries
is not a member of BIMSTEC that
started in 1997?
(a) Bangladesh (b) India
(c) Thailand (d) China
89. What is not true about ASEAN
(Association of South East Asian
Nations)?
(a) Its declared objectives is regional
peace and stability.
(b) It stands for strategic cooperation
at regional level.
(c) It is intended to promote co-
operation in social, economic,
cultural, scientific and admini-
strative spheres.
(d) Malaysian Prime Minister Abdul
Razak announced that ASEAN
was not committed to any political
ideology.
90. Which one of the following is the
report that triggered the process of
U.N. reform?
(a) Secretary General Kofi Annan’s
Report 2005 entitled ‘In Larger
Freedom’
(b) Secretary General Boutros
Boutros Ghali Report 1992 ‘An
Agenda for Peace’
(c) Secretary General Kofi Annan’s
Report 2005 entitled, Investing
in the UN: For a Stronger
Organisation World Wide.
(d) Amnesty International Report
1997 entitled, ‘Refugees’: Human
Rights have no Borders’.
Direction: Read the passage and
answer the following five Question.
A demonetization that delegitimizes
a certain currency, or even certain
denominations of it, would extinguish
wealth held in that form. What we have
seen, however, is a less extreme case.
In this one, holders of `500 or `1000
notes can exchange them or pay these
into their bank accounts. This does not
extinguish wealth as much as it will bring
the hoards into the taxman’s radar when
their owners draw upon them to make
payments. For, as these will be bank
transactions there would be a record of
them. So, existing black money cannot
be used to generate more of the same.
To this extent the scheme cannot be
faulted. Of course, it cannot be assumed
that what is in a bank will necessarily be
declared to the income tax authorities,
but it will certainly come under scrutiny
in a way that it was not when stashed
under the mattress. What are some
reasons why we may welcome such a
move? First, the concealment of income
with a view to avoid tax is a crime.
So, in a constitutional democracy such
as ours those who avoid tax deserve
to be punished. Second, in order to
evade the law, those with unaccounted
wealth proceed to corrupt others, most
importantly representatives of the state.
This criminalizes the system further. If
democracy is a way of actualizing the
public will, such criminalization of the
machinery of government works against
the ideal. So, the practice of tax evasion
needs to be rooted. To that extent
this move of the government may be
welcomed.
91. Which of the following is one of the
main objectives of demonetization
of `500 and `1000 notes?
(a) To stop the circulation of money
in the economy.
(b) To identify the population living
below poverty line.
(c) To bring the hoarders of money
into the taxman’s radar.
(d) To increase the inflation in the
economy.
92. The author of the passage is referr-
ing to what with the phrase ‘stashed
under the mattress’:
(a) Plastic money
(b) Black money
(c) White money
(d) Liquid money
93. Which of the following is incorrect
regarding demonetization in India?
(a) It will help in identifying the
tax invaders holding the black
money.
(b) Unaccounted wealth will be
scrutinized.
Practice Set-5
(c) Black money will be redistributed
in the economy in various forms.
(d) Income tax authorities will not be
authorized to look into the bank
account details of the hoarder of
black money.
94. According to the author of the
passage, the demonetization move
is only helpful when:
(a) Black money is kept in the bank
accounts outside India.
(b) Black money is kept in the form
of gold.
(c) Black money is kept in the form
of high-value currency notes of
the specified denomination.
(d) Black money is kept in the demat
accounts.
95. Other than the issue of black money,
which of the following issue is being
addressed by the demonetization step?
(a) Increase in the population in India.
(b) Increase in the circulation of
counterfeit currency in India.
(c) Increase in the unemployment in
India.
(d) Increase in the demand and supply
of currency in India.
Direction: Read the passage and
answer the following five Question.
It has been a rough end to 2019 for
India’s pharmaceutical industry. While
like the rest of India Inc, companies
in this sector have been bogged down
by economic malaise. For the last few
months, their businesses have been
buffeted by an over 50% increase in
the cost of raw material imported from
China, leaving businesses hobbled by
shrinking margins and questions of long-
term viability. This distress caused them
to appeal to the National Pharmaceutical
Pricing Authority (NPPA) for price
increases. Unlike mature markets such
as the US, where drug prices are market-
controlled, here, the government and
regulators play a pivotal role in the
entire process. Regulators fix both the
price companies pay for bulk drugs
and the price at which they sell their
products in the market, leaving little
leeway to build profitable businesses.
Practice Set-5
India’s pharma industry has built
a myth that it cannot competitively
manufacture essential medicines under
these constrained circumstances. In
India, a rethink is needed as to the way
the pharma business is done. Today,
medicines are manufactured using a batch
process that is wasteful and inefficient.
Firms need to consider shifting to a
process of continuous manufacturing,
which shaves valuable start-up capital
costs and helps pharma companies build
sounder businesses. With technological
developments such as Industry 4.0 and
digital manufacturing globally, Indian
drug-makers can harness these tech
upgrades to rejuvenate their outmoded
businesses and even prosper. The onset
of new-age technologies, especially AI
and IoT, has allowed companies to build
factories of the future-ready to compete
on the world stage. In many companies,
the facilities are so underutilised that
there is scope to even double production
and, therefore, tap effectively into the
large volume game. To really make this
booster shot stick, GoI has a role to play
too. It needs to incentivise companies
making this upgrade with financial sops
to ensure they invest in building a more
robust and competitive industry, primed
to compete on the global stage.
96. How can India’s pharma industry
break the myth that it cannot
competitively manufacture essential
medicines under these constrained
circumstances?
(a) It needs to rethink the way the
pharma business is done.
Answers with Explanations
1. (a) Jean Bodin In his book ‘On
Sovereignty’ quoted that “Sovereignty is
the supreme power of State, over citizens
and subjects unhindered by law”. The
book was published in 1992.
2. (a) The Pluralist view of the state
that it is neutral in nature. It is also
supposed that the state is vulnerable to
numerous influences from various groups
in the society. Pluralists stated that
sovereignty resides not with the state but
it resides with many other institutions.
(b) Firms need to consider shifting
from a batch process to a process
of continuous m a n u f a c t u r i n g ,
which shaves valuable start-up
capital costs and helps pharma
companies build sounder
businesses.
(c) With technological developments
such as Industry 4.0 and digital
manufacturing globally.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
97. The use of emerging technologies
will enable:
(a) Indian drug-makers to rejuvenate
their outmoded businesses and
even prosper.
(b) Companies to build factories of
the future-ready to compete on the
world stage.
(c) Equipment efficiency and better
utilisation of existing capacities.
(d) All of the above
98. Why did Indian pharma companies
appeal to the National Pharmaceutical
Pricing Authority (NPPA) for price
increases?
(a) They have been bogged down by
economic malaise.
(b) Their businesses were expedited
by shrinking margins and quest-
ions of long-term viability.
(c) The spurt in prices of raw materials
and intermediates being imported
from China has adversely impacted
them.
(d) Their priority is to achieve maxi-
mum operational efficiency to
They Believe that the State is one among
several associations.
3. (a) Eric Voegelin’s work is
variously described as a philosophy
of politics, a philosophy of history, or
a philosophy of consciousness, but he
most often characterized his work as
political science and himself as a political
philosopher.
4. (b) Social democracy, political
ideology that originally advocated a
peaceful evolutionary transition of
57
mitigate the financial impacts of
the rising cost of raw material
imported from China.
99. How do government and regulators
play a pivotal role in drug prices?
I. They fix the price companies pay
for bulk drugs.
II.  In India, drug prices are not
market-controlled.
III. They fix the price at which the
companies sell their products in
the market.
IV. They fix the margin in which
companies can build profitable
businesses.
(a) Both I and III
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) All of the above
100. What does the Indian government
need to do to ensure Indian pharma
companies invest in building a more
robust and competitive industry?
(a) It should provide incentives to
modernise and upgrade their
manufacturing capabilities and
capacity.
(b) It can set standards that will prime
companies to compete on the
global stage.
(c) It should ensure that drug prices
in India are market-controlled.
(d) It should provide financial support
to companies so that they can
integrate emerging technology
into their businesses.
society from capitalism to socialism
using established political processes. It
propagates the principle of Welfarism,
redistribution and social justice.
5. (b) Schumpeter defined democracy
as the method by which people elected
representatives in competitive elections
to carry out their will. Schumpeter’s
view of democracy has been described as
“elitist”, as he criticizes the rationality
and knowledge of voters, and expresses
 58
a preference for politicians taking
decisions.
6. (a) Primitive communism is a
concept originating from Karl Marx and
Friedrich Engels who argued that hunter-
gatherer societies were traditionally
based on egalitarian social relations and
common ownership. In Marx’s model
of socioeconomic structures, societies
with primitive communism had no
hierarchical social class structures or
capital accumulation.
7. (d) In the simplest language
democratic socialism means the blending
of socialist and democratic methods
together in order to build up an acceptable
and viable political and economic
structure. Democratic socialism is a
child of modern society. It struggles
against the evils that flow from private
property, yet realises that all forms of
private property are not necessarily evil.
8. (d) Dialectical materialism, a
philosophical approach to reality derived
from the teachings of Karl Marx and
Friedrich Engels. For Marx and Engels,
materialism meant that the material world,
perceptible to the senses, has objective
reality independent of mind or spirit.
They did not deny the reality of mental or
spiritual processes but affirmed that ideas
could arise, therefore, only as products
and reflections of material conditions. The
dialectic talks about past, present as well
as future understanding.
9. (c) The pamphlet the foundations of
Leninism contains a definition of Leninism
which seems to have received general
recognition. It runs as follows: “Leninism
is Marxism of the era of imperialism and
the proletarian revolution. To be more
exact, Leninism is the theory and tactics
of the proletarian revolution in general,
the theory and tactics of the dictatorship of
the proletariat in particular”. This is how
Stalin define Leninism.
10. (b) The eight characteristics
features of behaviouralism as given
by David Easton are as follows: (1)
Regularities; (2) Verification; (3)
Techniques; (4) Quantification; (5)
Values; (6) Systematisation; (7) Pure
Science; and (8) Integration.
11. (b) Mahatma Gandhi, South
Africa and Satyagraha. Articles - On
and By Gandhi. A century ago, on
10 January 1908, M. K. Gandhi, an
attorney with a lucrative practice in
Johannesburg, appeared before the
magistrate's court for defying an anti-
Asiatic law and disobeying an order to
leave the Transvaal within 48 hours.
12. (a)
Charles. E. Merriam – New aspects of
Politics
Heinz Eulan – The behavioural
persuasion in politics
Leo Strauss – What is political
philosophy? And other studies
D. Truman – The government process
13. (a) Plato and Aristotle are
considered as the founder of philosophical
approach of political philosophy. Both of
them belong to Greek school of political
thoughts. They provided there model of
political state for Greek city states.
14. (b) Max Weber argued that
the bureaucratic organizational form
is characterized by six features: 1)
Specialization and Division of Labor; 2)
Hierarchical Authority Structures; 3) Rules
and Regulations; 4) Technical Competence
Guidelines; 5) Impersonality and Personal
Indifference; 6) A Standard of Formal.
15. (d) According to Almond and
Verba’s 1963 study, there are three basic
types of political culture: parochial, subject,
and participatory. Theories developed by
other political and social scientists explain
how political culture takes root and is
passed down from generation to generation
through political socialization.
16. (b)
Homogeneous Culture – U.K
Elite Mass Culture – India
Subject Political culture – China
Parochial Culture – Uganda
17. (c)
18. (c) 91st amendment act states that
the size of the council of ministers and
the respective state governments should
not be more than 15% (Fifteen Percent)
of the total members of lower house
(i.e. 15% strength of Lok Sabha in the
parliament and 15% strength of lower
houses of respective states legislatures
(the minimum strength in the case of
small states (Sikkim, Mizoram, Goa)
is being 12 due to lower strength of
the Legislative assembly of that states)
Sikkim-32, Mizoram-40, Goa-40.
Practice Set-5
19. (b) Government sets up Dileep
Singh Bhuria Committee for extending the
provisions of 73rd and 74th amendments
to scheduled areas in 1994. In January
1995 Bhuria Committee submits its
report. It recommends Panchayat
Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA)
for rural tribal areas and Municipalities
Extension to the Scheduled Areas
(MESA) for urban tribal areas.
20. (c) Behavioural approach to
politics or behaviouralism denotes that
it is an “attempt to improve our under-
standing of politics by seeking to explain
the empirical aspects of political life by
means of methods, theories and criteria of
proof that are acceptable according to the
canons, conventions and assumption of
modern empirical science.” Behavioural
approach inquire about public choice and
their political opinion.
21. (c) The correct sequence as per
constitution of India of all the writs
under article 32 are: Habeas Corpus,
mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and
Quo Warranto at last.
22. (b) The sequence of political as
well as the administrative steps taken by
the British administration in India is as
follows: Morley-Minto Reform in 1909,
Montague-Chelmsford report in 1919,
Simon commission in 1927 and Cripps
Mission in 1942.
23. (c)
Indian National Congress – Umbrella
Party
Telugu Desam party – Regional party
Kerala Congress – State party
Communist Party of India – National
Party
24. (b) The Montague-Chelmsford
reforms were set out in the government
of India act of 1919. If the British thought
that they would be welcomed by Indians
but they were mistaken. Many Indians
had fought with British in the war. The
congress and the League had come
together, calling for safe rule, and they
were disappointed by the new structure. At
a session of congress in August 1918 the
reforms were condemned as ‘inadequate,
unsatisfactory and disappointing’. Only
moderates in Congress supported the
measures and they were excluded from
the party. The local people had more say
Practice Set-5
in how their country was governed but
the British maintained their power by
ensuring that the viceroy had the authority
to govern India.
25. (b) Both the statements are true
but they don’t have any relation among
them. The second statement is not a
reason behind the assertion made in the
first statement.
26. (a) Article 359 – Suspension of
fundamental rights
Article 312 – All Indian Services
Article 280 – Finance Commission
Article 360 – Financial emergency
27. (b) Shafritz and Russell has provided
18 definitions of public administration.
They have categorised all these definitions
under four heads that are political, legal,
occupational and managerial.
28. (a) The administrative management
theory by Henri Fayol. He did not made
any distinction between public and private
administration. Fayol was a French who
had worked in a coal industry for over
thirty years. This theory focuses on the
organization as a whole. In his book,
Henri identified five key functional areas
which include; controlling, coordinating,
planning, organising and directing.
29. (a) The Correct sequence of the
report related to administration are as
follows; A.D Gorwala report in 1951,
Paul H. Appleby Report in 1953,
Santhanam Committee report in 1962 and
Fist Administrative reforms Commission
Report 1966.
30. (d) Weber applies the term
charisma to certain quality of an individual
personality, by virtue of which he is set
apart from ordinary men and treated as
endowed with supernatural, superhuman,
or at least specifically exceptional
powers or qualities. These are such as
are not accessible to the ordinary person,
but are regarded as of divine origin or
as exemplary, and on the basis of them
the individual concerned is treated as a
leader.
31. (b) Budgeting is not one among the
bases of Organisation structure according
to public administration theorists.
32. (a) In India taxation is a power
that is derived from the constitution.
The law says that any kind of taxation
can be levied only under the legislation
made by Parliament of India. Any kind
of tax not notified by parliamentary act
or any legislative law by state legislative
is invalid and unconstitutional.
33. (c) Hierarchy–Scalar Process
Report on public Administration–
A.D Gorwala
Preliminary Screening–Dr. K.S Kothari
Auxiliary Agency–Housekeeping
34. (d) The State of Maharashtra is
the first and pioneer State in India to
introduce the concept of Lokayukta by
enacting the Maharashtra Lokayukta
and UPA-Lokayuktas Act, 1971 in view
of the recommendations made by the
Administrative Reforms Commission
headed by Late Shri Morarji Desai in
1966.
35. (a) Spoils system is a practice in
which a political party, after winning an
election, gives government civil service
jobs to its supporters, friends, and
relatives as a reward for working toward
victory, and as an incentive to keep
working for the party. Both assertion and
Reason is true and Second statement is a
reason behind assertion statement.
36. (c)
E.H Carr – The twenty year crisis
R. Keohane – Neorealism and its
critics
J.Mearsheimer – The Tragedy of
great power politics
F. Zakaria – From Wealth to Power
37. (a) Yes, It’s true that globalization
is a multidimensional process and
it involves interaction of economic,
political, social, cultural aspects of
different countries with each other.
38. (b) Asymmetrical warfare, uncon-
ventional strategies and tactics adopted
by a force when the military capabilities
of belligerent powers are not simply
unequal but are so significantly different
that they cannot make the same sorts of
attacks on each other. Guerrilla warfare,
occurring between lightly armed partisans
and a conventional army, is an example of
asymmetrical warfare. Terrorist tactics,
such as hijackings and suicide bombings,
are also considered to be asymmetrical,
both because they tend to involve a smaller,
weaker group attacking a stronger one and
also because attacks on civilians are by
definition one-way warfare. War between a
59
country that is both able and willing to use
nuclear weapons and a country that is not
would be another example of asymmetrical
warfare.
39. (b) A UN fact-finding mission,
headed by Judge Richard Goldstone,
was established in April 2009. The
mission published its 574-page report
in September 2009. The report called
for both parties, Hamas and Israel, to
investigate their own actions and accused
both of deliberately targeting civilians.
40. (b) Article 33 of the Charter states
that any dispute that is likely to endanger
the maintenance of international peace
and security should first be addressed
through negotiation, mediation or other
peaceful means, and states that the
Council can call on the parties to use
such means to settle their dispute.
41. (d)
42. (b) World leaders struck a new
political accord to address climate
change at the 2009 U.N. Climate Summit
in Copenhagen, Denmark. The accord
provided for explicit emission pledges
by all major economies–including, for
the first time, China and other major
developing countries.
43. (b)
Organisation of American States-1948
North Atlantic Free trade agreement-1994
Arab Maghreb Union (AMU) - 1989
South East Asian Treaty Organisation-1954
44. (b) Yes, Its true that India is
pursuing a positive asymmetry in
south Asia. India is also contained by
Pakistan and China partnership. Both
the statement are true but the second
statement is not a true reason behind the
assertion statement.
45. (c) Pakistan’s Arms Procurement
and Military Buildup, 1979-99: In
Search of a Policy was written by
Ayesha Siddiqa Ada. This book presents
a fundamental departure in presenting
an analysis of the internal dynamics
of defence management and decision
making in Pakistan - a new nuclear
weapon state. This is an in-depth study
of Pakistan’s security link with its arms
suppliers and defence industrial capacity,
and the influence of Pakistan’s Army
on conventional and non-conventional
defence decisions.
 60
46. (c) In his criticism of Lenin led
revolution and his theory of revolution in
Russian, G.H Sabine said that “Lenin’s
party was designed to be an elite, a
minority chosen for intellectual and
moral superiority, the most advanced part
of the working class and its vanguard”.
47. (c) The Nocturnal Council is, as
it were, the finishing strokes of Plato’s
Laws. Because in Book XII it is going to
be introduced as a perfect and permanent
safeguard for the regime and its laws of
Magnesia. The Nocturnal Council is to
consist of the ten oldest Guardians of
the Laws; the Supervisor of Education
and his predecessors; the Auditors; and
younger citizens between the ages of
thirty and forty whom each elder member
of this body is to associate himself with.
48. (a) Yes. Its true that for Aristotle
the authority of a constitutional ruler over
his subjects is quite different from that of
a master over his slaves. According to
Aristotle the slave is inferior from birth
and incapable of ruling himself.
49. (a)
Willmoore – John Locke and
Kendall the Doctrine of
Majority-rule
J.W. Gough – John Locke’s
Political
Philosophy
M.W. Cranston – John Locke, A
Biography
Richard Cox – Locke on Peace
and War
50. (c) According to Jean Jacques
Rousseau, the feelings, affections and
bond of family life the joy and beauty
of motherhood, man’s love for arts and
beauty are of eternal value and man
should cultivate all these seriously and
sincerely. The cultivation of all these
will give man real joy and satisfaction.
He believes that there is no place of
reason in all these things. He believes
that science cannot give man proper
satisfaction in life. He said “Science is
the fruit of idle curiosity, philosophy is
mere intellectual frippery the amenities
of polite life are tinsel”.
51. (c) In the Economic and Philo-
sophic Manuscripts, Marx discusses four
aspects of the alienation of labour, as it
takes place in capitalist society: one is
alienation from the product of labour;
another is alienation from the activity of
labour; a third is alienation from one’s
own specific humanity; and a fourth is
alienation from others, from society.
There is nothing mysterious about this
fourfold breakdown of alienation. It
follows from the idea that all acts of
labour involve an activity of some sort
that produces an object of some sort,
performed by a human being (not a work
animal or a machine) in some sort of
social context.
52. (a) According to R.R Diwakar “it
is not Gandhi who made Satyagraha but
it is Satyagraha which made Gandhi the
Mahatma”. He also said that Satyagraha
would outlive him, the Gandhian model
offers norms and techniques for our age.
53. (d) Naren arrived in San Francisco
on 14 June 1916. Next morning newspapers
carried the news in banner headline ‘a
dangerous Hindu revolutionary, German
spy, lands in the USA’. Naren quickly
left his hotel and went to Stanford
University to meet Professor Dhanagopal
Mukherjee, the younger brother of a co-
revolutionary, who changed Naren’s name
to Manabendra Nath Roy. Dhanagopal
introduced him as Manabendra Nath
Roy to Dr David Jordan, the progressive
minded President of the University. In Dr
Jordan’s house, Roy met Evelyn Trent
whom he later married in New York
where Roys took shelter in the house of
Lala Lajpat Rai.
54. (c) Aurobindo Ghose in Savitri
said ‘God had appeared to him in prison,
placed the Gita in his hands and made
him realize the simple truths of the
Sanatana Dharma’.
55. (b) Comparative Politics is the
study of all forms of political activity-
governmental as well as non-governmental
and all political phenomena.
56. (b) In Comparative Politics,
Philosophical Approach was evolved in
the primary stage and then evolved the
Behavioural Approach, this was followed
by Systems Approach and the next in line
was New Institutional Approach.
57. (a) The politics of modernization
book was written by David Apter in
1965. Political Order in Changing
Societies book by Samuel P. Huntington
Practice Set-5
was written in 1968. Capitalism and
Underdevelopment in Latin America:
Historical Studies book by Andre Gunder
Frank was written in 1967. How Europe
Underdeveloped Africa Book was written
by Walter Rodney in 1972.
58. (b) Article II, Section 2:
Treaty Power and Appointments. The
Constitution provides, in the second
paragraph of Article II, Section 2, that
“the President shall have Power, by
and with the Advice and Consent of the
Senate to make Treaties, provided two
thirds of the Senators present concur.”
59. (a) In Switzerland both Houses
have equal powers. In America upper
house is more powerful than lower house.
In India Lower House is more powerful
than Upper House. In France national
assembly can overthrow the government.
60. (b) A pocket veto occurs when
a bill fails to become law because the
president does not sign the bill and cannot
return the bill to Congress within a 10-
day period because Congress is not in
session. The Caucus System, used by the
New Jersey State Senate between 1949
and 1966, and again from 1968 to 1974,
was a rule utilized by Republicans that
no bill could advance to the Senate floor
for a vote unless a majority of members
of the majority caucus supported it.
When a bill reaches a committee it is
placed on the committee's calendar. A
bill can be referred to a subcommittee or
considered by the committee as a whole.
It is at this point that a bill is examined
carefully and its chances for passage are
determined. If the committee does not
act on a bill, it is the equivalent of killing
it. The Committee Chair has the right to
“pigeonhole” (not assign or hear debate
on the bill) thus killing it.
61. (a) Harold Wilson and Tony Blair
both belong to the Labour party. Wilson
holds a number of other records: he was
the first Labour prime minister to be
elected for 13 years, following his win
at the general election of 1964; he is the
longest-serving Labour prime minister of
the 20th century; and he won four out
of the five general elections he contested
– more than any other postwar British
leader. Anthony Charles Lynton “Tony”
Blair (born 6 May 1953) is a former
Practice Set-5
Labour Party Prime Minister of the
United Kingdom. He was Prime Minister
from May 1997 until June 2007.
62. (d) The U.S. Constitution doesn’t
specifically grant Supreme Court justices
a lifetime appointment. Instead, Article
III, Section 1, states that federal judges
“shall hold their Offices during good
Behavior” and… that’s it. As long as
federal judges don’t commit a crime —
and remember their pleases and thank
you — they keep their seat. The phrase
“during good Behavior” translates to
a lifetime appointment because the
Founders set no specific term or age limit
for service. This means that the only
actions that can remove a federal judge
are death, resignation, or impeachment
by Congress.
63. (c) The Swiss Federal Tribunal
has the power to declare laws passed
by the state or the constituent unit of
the federation invalid but not the federal
laws.
64. (b) Britain is a Constitutional
Monarchy. It has a queen as its nominal
head, But all the decision of the
government and policy is taken under
parliamentary system set under the
constitution. Hence, Both the statement
are correct and second statement is
a correct reason behind the assertion
statement.
65. (a) B.R Ambedkar said “Since
Indians wish to unite and develop a
common culture, it is the bounden duty
of all Indians to own up Hindi as their
language. Any Indian who does not accept
this proposal, has no right to be Indian.”
66. (a) Rajni Kothari in his scholarly
work described India as an Apolitical
Society.
67. (c) The system of ‘Diarchy’
or a kind of double government in the
Provinces was introduced by Montague
Chelmsford Reform Act 1919.
Provincial subjects were divided into two
categories “Transferred and Reserved.”
Transferred subjects which were public
health, education, local self-government,
and agriculture were under the control
of Minister; likewise all transferred
subjects were unimportant. Reserved
subjects included administration, police,
land revenue etc. which were under the
control of Governor with the help of his
secretaries. It was an indirect control
over transferred department by reserved
department. Hence, Governor was the
head of transferred and reserved subjects.
68. (c) W.H. Morris-Jones, a leading
scholar of South Asian Studies, has
identified three distinctive idioms or
languages of Indian Politics which he has
termed as modern, traditional and saintly.
The modern idiom can be noticed in the
languages of the constitution and of the
law courts and the higher administration,
the traditional idiom is the language of
the villages, of the castes and of the tribes
and communities whereas the idiom of
saintly politics refers to the politics of
Mahatma Gandhi and Vinoba Bhave.
69. (c) S. R. Bommai case was a
landmark judgment of the Supreme Court
of India, where the Court discussed at
length provisions of Article 356 of the
Constitution of India and related issues.
This case had a huge impact on Centre-
State Relations. If a new political party
assumes power at the Centre, it has the
authority to dismiss Ministries formed by
other parties in the States. This is not art
of Bommai case.
70. (b)
Public Accounts Committee – 22
Estimates Committee – 30
Department related Parliamentary
Standing Committee – 45
Rules Committee of Lok Sabha – 15
71. (a) The principles of justice says
that justice should not only be done
but should manifestly and undoubtedly
be seen to be done. To manifest this
commitment toward just the Courts
follow the principle of natural justice
while deciding cases.
72. (d) There are five stages in the
chronology of the evolution of Public
Administration as a discipline: Stage
1: politics administration dichotomy
(1887–1926) Stage 2: principles of
administration (1927–1937) Stage 3:
era of challenge (1938–1947) Stage 4:
crises of identity (1948–1970) Stage 5:
public policy perspective (1970–Present)
The Public Policy perspective ask for
move value orientation in administration
principles.
61
73. (d) According to Mooney, delega-
tion means conferring of specified
authority by a higher to a lower authority.
It means that delegation is the devolution
of authority by a superior person to
his agent or subordinate subject to his
supervision and control.
74. (b) Five Functional requisites of
any Society. According to F.W Riggs,
there are five functional requisites for
any society 1. Economic, 2. Social 3.
Communicational 4. Symbolic and 5.
Political. He has been of the opinion
that the same set of functional requisites
applies to an administrative subsystem.
75. (b) Herbert Simon, the Nobel
Prize winning researcher, showed that
humans went through three essential
stages in the act of problem solving. He
called these the Intelligence, Design,
and Choice stages. Decision making can
also be considered as a type of problem
solving.
76. (c) The four management systems
as identified by Likert were: Exploitative
Authoritative, Benevolent Authoritative,
Consultative and Participative. In his
view, the closer the organisational
characteristics are to the Participative
system, the more satisfied and therefore
more productive employees will be.
77. (b)
78. (b) A ways and means committee
is a government body that is charged with
reviewing and making recommendations
for government budgets. Because the
raising of revenue is vital to carrying
out governmental operations, such a
committee is tasked with finding the
ways and means with which to raise that
revenue.
79. (c)
The Administrative State - Dwight Waldo
The Art of Administration - Ordway Tead
Public Administration - Piffner and Presthus
Organization and Management - Seckler-
Hudson
80. (b) Principle of Annuality also
implies that the money left unspent in a
year must also lapse to the public treasury
and government should not be able to
spend it unless it is re-sanctioned in next
year’s budget. This is called Rule of
Lapse and is useful as an effective tool of
financial control. When the Lok Sabha
 62
is dissolved, all business including bills,
motions, resolutions, notices, petitions and
so on pending before it or its committees
lapse. They must be reintroduced in the
newly-constituted Lok Sabha to be pursued
further.
81. (b)
Churchill’s Fulton Speech - 1946
Launching of the African Union - 2002
A treaty to create Southeast Asian
Nuclear weapon free zone - Bangkok
Treaty 1995.
Recognition of South Sudan as a
sovereign State and 193rd member of the
U.N. - 2011
82. (d)
83. (b) Non-alignment was defined by
George Schwarzenberger as “a policy of
keeping out of alliances”.
84. (a) The North American Free
Trade Agreement (NAFTA) is a treaty
entered into by the United States,
Canada, and Mexico; it went into effect
on January 1, 1994. (Free trade had
existed between the U.S. and Canada
since 1989; NAFTA broadened that
arrangement.)
85. (b) Kenneth Waltz in his book
‘Man, the State and War’ he discussed
the three images of politics.
86. (c) South-South Cooperation is
an alternative to North-South Aid. It
refers to co-operative mutually beneficial
activities in the field of trade, service
and technology. UN General Assembly
declared 19 December the annual UN
Day for South-South Cooperation.
WTO came into existence for facilitating
Globalisation.
87. (b) The operation was launched to
stop the Taliban from providing a safe
haven to al Qaeda and to stop al Qaeda’s
use of Afghanistan as a base of operations
for terrorist activities.
88. (d) The BIMSTEC member
states—Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri
Lanka, Thailand, Nepal and Bhutan—are
among the countries dependent on the
Bay of Bengal.
89. (b) Objectives of Asean are to
accelerate economic growth, social
progress and cultural development in
the region through joint endeavours.
To promote regional peace and stability
through abiding respect for justice and
the rule of law. To encourage active
collaboration and mutual assistance on
matters of common interest in Economic,
Social, Cultural, Technical, Scientific
and Administrative fields.
90. (b) An Agenda for Peace:
Spearheading of Reform Culture at the
United Nations report was published
by Secretary General Boutros Boutros-
Ghali (1992). The changing and evolving
context of the international community
urges the modification of traditional
peacekeeping measures pursued by
the United Nations. Conflicts should
be resolved by preventive diplomacy,
peacemaking, and peace-keeping.
91. (c) The first paragraph clearly
indicates that demonetization of `500
and `1000 notes will bring the hoards
into the taxman’s radar.
92. (b) The author is referring to the
illegal money hoarded by the people and
stashed under their mattress.
93. (d) Clearly, option (d) is incorrect
as does not support the main purpose of
demonetization which is eradication of
black money in India.
94. (c) The passage clearly states
that ‘the quantitative significance of this
move depends upon the extent to which
unaccounted, or ‘black’, wealth is held
in the form of high-value currency notes
of the specified denomination’.
95. (b) The passage clearly mentions
that if there is a significant volume
of counterfeit currency circulating in
the form of `500 or `1000 notes, the
demonetization will also extinguish
unaccounted money from this source.
96. (b) The passage states, “India’s
pharma industry has built a myth that
it cannot competitively manufacture
essential medicines under these
constrained circumstances. In India, a
rethink is needed as to the way the pharma
business is done. Today, medicines are
manufactured using a batch process
that is wasteful and inefficient. Firms
need to consider shifting to a process
Practice Set-5
of continuous manufacturing, which
shaves valuable start-up capital costs and
helps pharma companies build sounder
businesses.”
97. (d) The passage states, “With
technological developments such as
Industry 4.0 and digital manufacturing
globally, Indian drug-makers can harness
these tech upgrades to rejuvenate their
outmoded businesses and even prosper.
The onset of new-age technologies,
especially AI and IoT, has allowed
companies to build factories of the
future-ready to compete on the world
stage. In many companies, the facilities
are so underutilised that there is scope to
even double production and, therefore,
tap effectively into the large volume
game.”
98. (c) It can be deciphered from the
following lines, “It has been a rough
end to 2019 for India’s pharmaceutical
industry. While like the rest of India
Inc, companies in this sector have been
bogged down by economic malaise. For
the last few months, their businesses have
been buffeted by an over 50% increase in
the cost of raw material imported from
China, leaving businesses hobbled by
shrinking margins and questions of long-
term viability. This distress caused them
to appeal to the National Pharmaceutical
Pricing Authority (NPPA) for price
increases.”
99. (c) The passage states, “Unlike
mature markets such as the US, where
drug prices are market-controlled,
here, the government and regulators
play a pivotal role in the entire process.
Regulators fix both the price companies
pay for bulk drugs and the price at which
they sell their products in the market,
leaving little leeway to build profitable
businesses.”
100. (a) It can be deciphered from
the following lines, “To really make this
booster shot stick, GoI has a role to play
too. It needs to incentivise companies
making this upgrade with financial sops
to ensure they invest in building a more
robust and competitive industry, primed
to compete on the global stage.”
qqq
Practice Set-6
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
1. Which among the following state-
ment is not correct?
(a) Plato is father of Political Philo-
sophy
(b) Aristotle is father of Political
Theory
(c) Marx is father of Communism
(d) Chester Barnard is father of
Public Administration
2. The Idea of Integral Yoga in Indian
Political Thought was introduced
by?
(a) Vivekananda
(b) Aurobindo
(c) B.G. Tilak
(d) Deen Dayal Upadhaya
3. Who among the following supported
the idea of Hindu-Muslim Unity by
saying that,“If Hindu brothers
are concerned about cow then
they should sacrifice their life for
conserving cow but should not hurt
their fellow Muslim brothers” .
(a) Nehru (C) Ideas are reflections of things.
(b) Gandhi
(c) Tilak one labelled as Assertion (A) and
(d) Savarkar
4. Who among the following gave idea
of New Socialism?
(a) Deen Dayal Upadhaya
(b) V.D. Savarkar
(c) Ram Manohar Lohia
(d) C.R. Das
5. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Ambedkar attacked
the caste system as thoroughly
impracticable, harmful and miserable
failure as a basic social organisation.
Reason (R): For Ambedkar the term
‘Hindu Society’ is a myth.
63
Political Science
Practice Set-6
Codes: 8. “Tyranny of the majority” can lead to
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) (a) Violence and civil war
is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Cold war
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is (c) World war II
not the correct explanation of (A). (d) Communal War
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 9. Participatory democracy values
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. deliberation and discussion, rather
than merely
6. Given below are two statements,
(a) Criticising
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R). (b) Voting
(c) Planning
Assertion (A): Comparative Politics is
a systematic study of world’s Political (d) Protesting
systems and their comparisons. 10. “Introduction to the study of the law
of the constitution” is the work of
Reason (R): It seeks to explain the
(a) Austin
differences and similarities among
(b) Ambedkar
numbers of Political systems.
(c) A.V Dicey
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) (d) Almond
is the correct explanation of (A). 11. For Plato which of the following
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is statements is not true?
not the correct explanation of (A). (A) Ideas are substances.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (B) Ideas are essences of all things.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) Ideas are universal.
7. Given below are two statements,
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Codes:
Assertion (A): Limitations and
(a) (A) and (B)
responsibilities are the key features
to recount the essence of a democratic (b) (B) and (D)
regime. (c) (B) only
Reason (R): All democratic regimes (d) (C) only
have a constitution sort of detailed, 12. Who among the following called
written or conventions-based. Machiavelli’s “Prince” the great
and true conception of a real
Codes:
political genius with the highest and
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) noblest purpose?
is the correct explanation of (A).
(a) Bentham (b) J.S. Mill
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is (c) Hegel (d) Karl Marx
not the correct explanation of (A).
13. Match List-I with List-II and select
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. the correct answer from the codes
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. given below:
 64
List-I List-II
(Authors) (Books)
A. Quentin i. Philosophy
Skinner and Human
Sciences
B. Michael ii. The Foundations
Sandel of Modern
Political Thought
C. Giovanni iii. Liberalism
Sartori and the Limits
of Justice
D. Charles iv. Democratic
Taylor Theory
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
14. Who among the following considers
Marxism to be an ideology rather
than a political theory?
(a) Germino (b) David Held
(c) R.A. Dahl (d) G.H. Sabine
15. Arrange the following works of
Isaiah Berlin in chronological order
of his publications.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(i) Concepts and Categories:
Philosophical Essays
(ii) Four Essays on Liberty
(iii) Vico and Herder: Two Studies
in the History of Ideas
(iv) Karl Marx: His Life and
Environment
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (iii), (ii), (i) and (iv)
(c) (iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)
(d) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii)
16. Who among the following conceived
the society as ‘a cooperative venture
for mutual advantage’?
(a) Rawls (b) Nozick
(c) Hayek (d) Gramsci
17. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): For Rousseau a thin-
king man is a depraved animal.
Reason (R): Common emotions give
value to life.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
18. Who among the following rejected
the idea that caste status was
the result of divine reward or
punishment?
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(b) M.A. Jinnah
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) M.K. Gandhi
19. Who among the following said:
“Research untutored by theory
may prove trivial, and theory
unsupported by data, futile”?
(a) B. Crick
(b) Charles Merriam
(c) David Easton
(d) R.A. Dahl
20. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): For Fukuyama,
liberal democracy may constitute the
end point of mankind’s ideological
evolution.
Reason (R): The earlier forms of
government were characterised by
grave defects and irrationalities that
led to their eventual collapse.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
Practice Set-6
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
21. Who among the following said
that political theory stands for
an abstract model of the political
order?
(a) T.P. Jenkin (b) R.A. Dahl
(c) W.T. Bluhm (d) Weinstein
22. Which one of the following statements
is not true?
(a) Classical political theory is
qualitative.
(b) Behavioural political theory is
quantitative.
(c) Post-behavioural political theory is
both qualitative and quantitative.
(d) Behavioural theory is not specially
concerned with Anglo-American
model.
23. Which one of the following statements
is not true?
(a) Neo-liberalism refers to significant
revival of interest in classical
liberalism.
(b) Neo-liberal ideas were taken up
by the political parties of the New
Right in Britain.
(c) The revival of classical liberalism
occurred as a reaction against the
onset of a world recession in the
1970s.
(d) T.H. Green accepted the classical
liberal notion of liberty only.
24. Who among the following dismissed
John Rawl’s concept of social
justice as a ‘mirage’?
(a) Macpherson
(b) Friedrich Hayek
(c) Isaiah Berlin
(d) Robert Nozick
25. Who among the following said that
ideology should neither be thought
of as liberating or oppressive, nor
as true or false? It can be any these
things?
(a) Andrew Heywood
(b) John Rawls
(c) Andrew Gamble
(d) Bill Coxall
Practice Set-6
26. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(Year) (Event)
A. 1917
i. Mao started his
historic
‘Long March’.
B. 1918 ii. Mao participated
in the first
Congress of the
CCP.
C. 1921 iii. Mao became a
Library Assistant
in Peking University
D. 1934 iv. Mao met
Liu Shao-Chi
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
27. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
 List-I List-II
  (Philosopher) (Idea)
A. Machiavelli i. Revolt against
Reason
B. Hobbes ii.
Moral Indifference
C. Locke iii. Instinct of
self-preservation
D. Rousseau iv. Natural Right
to Property
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
28. Who among the following said:
“Most religious men I have met are
politicians in disguise. I, however,
who wear the guise of a politician
in disguise, am at heart a religious
man”?
65
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal (a) Political socialization
(b) C.R. Das (b) Political communication
(c) M.K. Gandhi (c) Political modernization
(d) M.A. Jinnah (d) Political development
29. Given below are two statements, 34. Who among the following contended
one labelled as Assertion (A) and that political development is admini-
the other labelled as Reason (R). strative and legal development?
Select the correct answer from the Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below: codes given below:
Assertion (A): Platonic theory of
(A) R.R. Rostow
ideas is based upon the theory of
knowledge. (B) Talcott Parsons
Reason (R): For him, knowledge is (C) Sorokin
perception. (D) Max Waber
Codes: Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) (a) (A) and (D) (b) (B) and (D)
is the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) and (C) (d) (B) and (C)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is 35. Who became the first ever Prime
not the correct explanation of (A). Minister in a Parliamentary
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. government?
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (a) William Pitt, the Elder
30. Who among the following said:
(b) Henry Pelham
“Aristotle’s new general science
of politics was not only empirical (c) William Putenny
and descriptive, but even in some (d) Robert Walpole
respects independent of any ethical 36. Who among the following were
purpose, since a statesman might associated with institutional
need to be expert in governing even approach?
a bad state.”? (A) Carew Hunt
(a) E. Barker (b) G.H. Sabine
(B) Herman Finer
(c) E.B. England (d) G.C. Field
(C) Roy C. Macridis
31. Which of the following constitutes
(D) Carl Friedrich
the political elite?
(a) Subalterns and marginalized Choose the correct answer from the
leaders codes given below:
(b) Rulers and subjects Codes:
(c) Leader and the followers (a) (A) and (C)
(d) Oligarchy and Aristocracy (b) (B) and (D)
32. Who among the following is (c) (B) and (C)
associated with the initial stages (d) (A) and (D)
in the growth of comparative 37. Arrange the following revolutions
politics?
in the sequence in which they took
(a) Karl Popper place:
(b) Arthur Bentley
(A) Chinese Revolution
(c) E.H. Carr
(B) Cuban Revolution
(d) Graham Wallas
(C) Bolshevik Revolution
33. Which branch of comparative
politics seeks to examine the formal (D) Puritan Revolution
and informal mechanisms by which Choose the correct answer from the
political attitudes are inculcated? codes given below:
 66
Codes:
(a) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(b) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(c) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(d) (C), (D), (B), (A)
38. Identify the correct sequence of the
following input functions?
(i) Political communication
(ii) Political socialization and recruit-
ment
(iii) Interest aggregation
(iv) Interest articulation
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (iv), (i), (iii) and (ii)
(c) (ii), (iv), (iii) and (i)
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i)
39. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Iron law of oligar-
chy established that ultimate
decision-making in all democratic
organizations including the political
parties is done by few leaders or a
small elite group.
Reason (R): Decision making is very
complex process which necessarily
involves the role of few who function
on behalf of many.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
40. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Military is predominant
in non-western democracies.
Reason (R): Social fragmentation
and cleavages largely contribute to
political instability.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
41. For Locke, which of the following
statements is not true?
(A) The state must be a constitutional
state.
(B)  Government must posses
discretionary power.
(C) It is a tolerant state.
(D) The right to property is not a
natural right.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (A) and (B)
(c) (B) only (d) (D) only
42. For Rousseau, which of the
following statements is not true?
(A) Two original instincts i.e. self-
love and sympathy make up
man’s nature.
(B) A thinking man is a depraved
animal.
(C) F amily is the only natural
society.
(D) General will is not a group mind.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C)
(c) (C) only (d) (D) only
43. For J.S. Mill, which of the following
statements is not true?
(A) Pleasures differ in quality as well
as in quantity.
(B) M ill makes use of the non-
utilitarian arguments.
(C) The felicific calculus is absurd.
(D) P leasures can be objectively
measured.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Practice Set-6
(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (D) only
44. Arrange the following works of
Amartya Sen in chronological
order of his publications.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(A) Idea of Justice
(B) Inequality Re-examined
(C) Development as Freedom
(D) Choice, Welfare and Measurement
Codes:
(a) (D), (B), (C), (A)
(b) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(c) (C), (D), (A), (B)
(d) (B), (A), (D), (C)
45. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): There was great deal
of similarity between the ideas of
Mazzini and those of Aurobindo.
Reason (R): Both believed that faith
in God was the basis of morality, that
politics could not be separated from
morality.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
46. Identify the correct sequence in
which general systems theory has
been adopted in social sciences?
i. Psychology
ii. Sociology
iii. Anthropology
iv. Political Science
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (iii), (ii), (i) and (iv)
Practice Set-6
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i)
(d) (iii), (i), (ii) and (iv)
47. The term ‘legitimation crisis’, in
terms of erosion of confidence
in public institutions resulting in
coercive apparatus of states, was
developed by:
(a) David Apter
(b) S.P. Huntington
(c) Edward Shills
(d) Habermas
48. Which of the following is not true
of a Constitution?
(a) It safeguards the political institu-
tions.
(b) It is the source of all authority of
the organs of the government.
(c) It promotes trans-national security.
(d) It incorporates fundamental laws.
49. Who among the following are
European thinkers associated with
the theory of political elites?
(A) Pareto
(B) Mosca
(C) Schumpeter
(D) Lasswell
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
 
50. Who among the following do not make
any distinction between interest
groups and pressure groups?
(A) Jean Blondel
(B) Myron Weiner
(C) Robert C. Bone
(D) James Coleman
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (D) (d) (D) only
51. Who among the following declared
that the state is retreating in the
face of the superior power of
globalization?
67
(a) McLean and McMillan C. George iii. Defined
(b) George Schwarzenberger Schwarzer power as man’s
Berger control over the
(c) Kenneth Waltz
minds and actions
(d) Susan Strange of other men.
52. Who among the following argued D. Van Dyke iv. Power is the
that ‘realism is likely to remain
ability to make
the single most useful instrument people do what
in our intellectual toolbox’? they would not
(a) Holsti otherwise have
(b) E.H. Carr done.
Codes:
(c) Hans Margenthau
A B C D
(d) Stephen Walt
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
53. Which of the following is not the (b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
basic norm of the balance of power (c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
system that are clear to each of the (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
state actors engaged in the process 55. Article 25 of the Charter of the
of balancing: United Nations provides that
(a) Any actor or coalition that tries (a) Use of force is allowed for self-
to assume dominance must be defence.
constrained. (b) Only peace loving states can
(b) States want to increase their become members of UN.
capabilities by acquiring territory, (c) All UN members agree to accept
increasing their population or and carry-out the decisions of the
developing economically. Security Council.
(c) Negotiating is better than fighting. (d) The Security Council has
primary responsibility under the
(d) Other states are viewed as
Charter for the maintenance of
potential enemies.
international peace and security.
54. Match List-I with List-II and select
56. Which of the following has not
the correct answer from the codes
been incorporated into Indian law,
given below:
either fully or partially?
   List-I     List-II
(a) The Tokyo Convention Act 1975
  (Scholar)    (Statement)
(b) The Rome Statute of the Interna-
A. McLean i. It is not so much tional Criminal Court.
and the absolute power
(c) The Anti-Apartheid (United
McMillan of a state as its Nations Convention) Act, 1981
power position in
(d) The Geneva Convention Act, 1960
relation to other
57. Which of the following statements is
states that counts.
not correct regarding International
B. Morgenthau ii. Defined Criminal Court?
power as the (a) The statute of International
capacity to impose Criminal Court was adopted by
one’s will on United Nations Conference on
others by reliance 18th July, 1998.
on effective (b) The International Criminal
sanctions in the Court is not an organ of United
case of Nations but it is an independent
non-compliance. organization.
 68 Practice Set-6
(c) Its statute came into force on 1st (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (c) Paul – Disintegration
July, 2002. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Brass of Congress
(d) The four organs of International 61. Which one of the following is organisation
Criminal Court are the Presidency, correctly matched about the (d) James – Post-Congress
the Judicial Division, the office of Manor polity
outcome of the XVI Lok Sabha
the Prosecutor and the Registry. elections? 64. Who among the following wrote,
58. In which year the UN General (a) National Democratic Alliance: 336 “In the context of society today,
Assembly adopted the Convention seats and 35 percent vote share. the caste system and much that goes
on the Rights of Persons with with it are wholly incompatible,
(b) United Progressive Alliance: 54
Disabilities?
seats and 23 percent vote share. reactionary, restrictive, and barri-
(a) 2006 (b) 2007
(c) Left Front: 10 seats and 4.8 ers to progress.”?
(c) 2008 (d) 2009
percent vote share. (a) B.R. Ambedkar
59. Match List-I with List-II and select
(d) Congress: 44 seats and 17 percent (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
the correct answer from the codes
vote share. (c) M.K. Gandhi
given below:
   List-I List-II 62. Match List-I with List-II and give (d) R.M. Lohia
  (Committee of (Issues the correct answer from the codes 65. Consider the following statements
  General Assembly related to given below:
about lower courts and identify
   of UN)     Committee) List-I List-II the false statements from the
A. First i. Economic and   (Authors)   (Books) codes given below:
Committee financial A. R.M. i. State Politics
(A) The Panchayat Courts have only
B. Second ii. Disarmament Jenkins in India civil jurisdiction.
Committee and international B. Myron ii. Language

(B) The Munsiff Courts are lower
security Weiner(ed) Religion and in hierarchy to the court of
C. Third iii. Special political Politics in Subordinate Judges.
Committee and decolonisation North India

(C) The Sessions cases are the more
D. Fourth iv. Social, C. Christophe iii. Regional serious civil cases in the Court
Committee humanitarian Jafferlot Reflections
of the District Judge.
and cultural Comparing
Codes:
Codes: Politics
(a) (A) only
A B C D Across
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (b) (A) and (B)
India’s States
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (c) (A) and (C)
D. Paul iv. India’s Silent
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (d) (A), (B) and (C)
R. Brass Revolution: The
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 66. Match List-I with List-II and select
rise of the Low
60. Given below are two statements, the correct answer from the codes
Castes in
one labelled as Assertion (A) and given below:
North Indian
the other labelled as Reason (R).     List-I      List-II
Politics
Select the correct answer from the     (Books)     (Authors)
Codes:
codes given below: A. The Art of i. Thomsa R.
A B C D
Assertion (A): End of Cold War Judgment: A Dye
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
signified a shift from ideological Study of Policy
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
politics in International relations. Making
(c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Reason (R): Religious fundamen- B. Understanding ii. Herbert
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
talism is posing a threat to security. Public Policy Simon
63. Which of the following pairs is not
Codes: correctly matched? C. The New iii. Sir Geoffrey
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) Science of Vickers
(a) Rajni – Congress
is the correct explanation of (A). Kothari system Management Decision
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is (b) Yogendra – Third Electoral D. Personality iv. Chris
not the correct explanation of (A). Yadav System and Organization Argyris
Practice Set-6
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
67. At present, Public Account Commi-
ttee consists of 22 members:
(a) 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from
Rajya Sabha.
(b) 14 from Lok Sabha and 8 from
Rajya Sabha.
(c) 12 from Lok Sabha and 10 from
Rajya Sabha.
(d) 11 from Lok Sabha and 11 from
Rajya Sabha.
68. A h o r i z o n t a l g r o u p i n g o f
specialized activities is attained in
an organization that is:
(a) Centralized (b) Integrated
(c) Decentralized (d) Disintegrated
69. Which of the following statements
about the Right to Information Act
2005 is/are correct?
(A) T he Act came into force in
October 2005.
(B) It repealed the Official Secrets
Act, 1923.
(C) It has not repealed the Freedom
of Information Act, 2002.
(D) It is available to Indian citizens
only.
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (C) and (D) (d) (A) and (D)
70. Which one of the following is not
included as a cause for disciplinary
action against public servants by
L.D. White?
(a) Inefficiency
(b) Long absence from duty
(c) Immorality
(d) Intoxication
71. The names associated with behavio-
ural theory of organization are:
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) J.L. Moreno
(C) Thomas Carlyle
(D) A.H. Maslow
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)
72. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Decision making is a
process of selection and the aim is to
select the best alternative.
Reason (R): Decision making
involves rationality.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
73. Riggsian Agraria model is charac-
terized by which of the following?
(A) Clan-based organization
(B) Communalistic value
(C) Impersonal human actions
(D) Divine authority source
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
74. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): “The issue of decentra-
lisation is more complex in concept
and practice than is generally
acknowledged”.
Reason (R): ‘The dual role approach to
decentralisation is a kind of rehearsal
of the area function dichotomy in a
new setting.’
69
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
75. Which one of the following was
not supported by Taylor in his
Scientific Management theory?
(a) Efficiency evaluation experts
(b) Concept of ‘Economic Man’
(c) Functional foremanship
(d) Standardization of tools
76. Chester Barnard developed a
concept in respect of acceptance of
authority by a subordinate from his
manager. Identify it.
(a) Motivation matrix
(b) Decision making authority
(c) Zone of indifference
(d) Zone of coercive authority
77. Summarising the defects of bureau-
cracy, W.A. Robson did not
include:
(a) Excessive sense of self-impor-
tance.
(b) Generalist dominated admini-
strative system.
(c) Indifference towards the feelings
of individual citizens.
(d) A failure to recognize the relations
between the governors and the
governed.
78. Max Weber and Fred W. Riggs
have a commonality between them
in the context of:
(a) They constructed ideal type
models.
(b) They studied administrative
systems in their environmental
settings.
(c) T h e y c o n c e n t r a t e d o n t h e
problems of change.
(d) They used deductive approach.
79. Upward communication is basically
unconventional, but can be
improved by:
 70
(A) Management to give evidence
that it is really interested in the
opinions of employees.
(B) Superior should state his own
position before he listens to
subordinates.
(C) Chief should act upon the ideas
and problems reported to him.
(D) Superior should ask his
subordinates for reactions to his
own ideas.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)
80. How many ways to embezzlement
of government money have been
mentioned by Kautilya in his
Arthasastra?
(a) 75 (b) 40
(c) 50 (d) 30
81. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): Non-alignment policy
was more relevant during cold war
period.
Reason (R): Non-aligned countries
are divided on ethnic and religious
differences.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
82. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): American foreign
policy supported the democratic
regimes.
Reason (R): At times the military
systems were also supported by
America.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
83. Which of the following statements
is/are not true of dependency
theory?
(A) Unequal relation between core
and periphery.
(B) Developmental process in the
third world nations reinforces
underdevelopment.
(C) Industrialization leads to new
forms of democratization and
equity in global order.
(D) Strengthening of neo-colonialism.
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (C) only
84. “Uniting for Peace Resolution” is
also called as:
(a) Truman plan
(b) American plan
(c) Acheson plan
(d) Eisenhower plan
85. ‘Balance of Power’ is an important
principle of:
(a) Liberal thought in international
politics.
(b) Marxist thought in international
politics.
(c) Traditional thought in international
politics.
(d) Realist thought in international
politics.
86. According to Iris L Calude Jr.
which of the following is not a
device for the management of
power?
Practice Set-6
(a) Arms control
(b) Collective security
(c) Balance of power
(d) World Government
87. How many Asian countries are
members of G–20?
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
88. The modern state system with its
territorial sovereignty came into
existence first in Europe in the
wake of the
(a) Treaty of Versailles
(b) Congress of Vienna
(c) Treaty of Westphalia
(d) Congress of Berlin
89. Which of the following statements
are correct regarding Economic
and Social Council of U.N.? Choose
your answer from the codes given
below:
(i) The Council has 54 members.
(ii) T he Council generally hold
several short sessions and many
preparatory meetings, and panel
discussions with the members of
civil society throughout the year.
(iii) It also holds a three-week
substantive session in July.
(iv) V oting in the Council is by
simple majority, each member
has one vote.
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
90. According to Karen. A. Mingrt,
which of the following conditions
is not essential to make first
generation peacekeeping operations
most effective?
(a) A clear and practical mandate or
purpose for the operation.
(b) U.S. forces must also be present
in the peace-keeping operations.
Practice Set-6
(c) Consent of the parties involved as
to the mandate and composition of
the force.
(d) Strong financial and logistical
support of the members of the
UN Security Council.
Direction: Read the passage and answer
the following five questions.
Donald Trump’s surprise win in the
U.S. presidential elections has lent the
dollar new wings. It has soared against
most currencies, including the rupee, on
the expectation that his economic policies
will spur growth and inflation in the
world’s largest economy. The prospect
of the Federal Reserve raising interest
rates provided an up draught that helped
the dollar extend a record appreciating
streak against the euro last week and
pushed the rupee past 68 to a dollar. In
Congressional testimony last week, Fed
Chair Janet Yellen signaled that the central
bank was close to a decision to raise rates
again. Some economists predict U.S. GDP
growth could see appreciable acceleration
in 2017 — with one projection positing
even a doubling of the pace by the fourth
quarter — if the new administration delivers
on some of its promises, including tax cuts,
deregulation and infrastructure spending.
In fact, with a Republican majority in
both the House of Representatives and the
Senate, Mr. Trump could benefit from
smoother Congressional backing for policy
initiatives to boost economic activity.
U.S. stocks and bonds have also reflected
the optimism over the outlook for U.S.
growth and prospects that increased fiscal
spending will help reflate the economy,
with the S&P 500 Index adding gains for
the second straight week and benchmark
bond yields climbing in anticipation of
faster inflation. For the rupee, which has
slumped 2.3 per cent from its 66.62 a
dollar close on November 8, the flight of
capital from emerging market assets has
inflicted significant pressure that has been
exacerbated by the Centre’s decision to
withdraw higher denomination currencies.
Foreign institutional investors have sold
more than $2.5 billion of Indian equity and
debt holdings so far this month, compared
with the about $1.5 billion they offloaded
through October. With the demonetization
move infusing a surge of liquidity into
the banking system, domestic interest
rates are expected to decline, making the
rupee less attractive to investors seeking to
benefit from an interest rate arbitrage. And
with consumption and broader economic
activity predicted to take a hit on account
of the shortage of cash in the wake of
the currency move, GDP growth may
slow sharply. That in turn could weaken
overseas investor appetite for rupee assets.
The task before policymakers, and the
monetary policy committee that is set
to meet a week before the Federal Open
Market Committee’s rate decision, will
be to reassure markets and investors that
India’s economy remains robust.
91. According to the passage, against
most of the currencies the value of
US dollar has:
(a) Remained constant
(b) Decreased slowly
(c) Decreased rapidly
(d) Increased rapidly
92. What does the author mean by
saying ‘raising interest rates
provided an up draught that
helped the dollar extends a record
appreciating streak against the
euro’?
(a) Dollar became weak against the
Euro.
(b) Dollar became strong against the
Euro.
(c) Euro became strong against the
Dollar.
(d) Both dollar and Euro became
strong against each other.
93. Which of the following factor can
result in boosting the economic
activities in US?
(a) A Republican majority in the
House of Representatives.
(b) A Republican majority in the Senate.
(c) A Republican majority in both the
House of Representatives and the
Senate.
(d) Raising interest rates by Central
Bank.
71
94. Which of the following factor
reflects an optimistic outlook for
the growth of US economy?
(a) Decrease in inflation.
(b) Increase in stock returns and bond
yields.
(c) Decrease in stock returns and
bond yields.
(d) Decrease in fiscal spending.
95. Because of the demonetization
move, investors will benefit from
which of the following way?
(a) Regulatory arbitrage
(b) Political arbitrage
(c) Interest rate arbitrage
(d) Statistical arbitrage
Direction: Read the passage and answer
the following five questions.
No other country imposes as many
internet shutdowns on its people as India.
The recent internet shutdown in J & K has
gone well beyond five months with only
very limited access being permitted in dribs
and drabs. In light of such an unparalleled
lockdown, Anuradha Bhasin, the Executive
Editor of Kashmir Times, approached the
Supreme Court. Her petition sought the
immediate relaxation of restrictions on the
Internet and telecommunication services
and on the movement of journalists and
media-persons. In a major pronouncement,
the Supreme Court has declared that any
action by an official of the state that shuts
down the internet in any part of India must
be temporary, and adhere to the doctrine
of proportionality. The court has said that
challenges to shutdowns have suffered
because the authorities have failed to
provide proper transparency regarding
he internet shutdown decisions. This has
meant that the test of proportionality is
impossible to apply, which is a violation of
the Indians’ fundamental rights.
Two factors, therefore, push the
government to use internet shutdowns
this frequently and with impunity across
India. First, the police and state machinery
use this blunt tool at their disposal
because none better have been offered to
them in an escalating situation. Second,
no consequences follow for even the
 72
illegitimate use of a mass measure like
internet shutdowns against the general
public. There is no remedy forthcoming
for a person who suffers material loss as
a result of an internet shutdown imposed
on them. The Anuradha Bhasin case
presented the Court with an opportunity to
set right at least the latter aspect of internet
shutdowns. It could have imposed some
post facto accountability for a measure
that increasingly seems less motivated by
concerns around national security, and more
by the need to impose mass punishment on
a dissenting population. However, it has
once again taken the opportunity to miss
an opportunity, to the detriment of its own
credibility and our rights.
96. Why did Anuradha Bhasin approach
the Supreme Court?
(a) She has been unable to publish
the Srinagar edition of Kashmir
Times pursuant to the restrictions
imposed on journalists and the
internet.
(b) She sought the issuance of an
appropriate writ or direction
directing Respondents to immedi-
ately restore all modes of comm-
unication throughout J & K in
order to provide an enabling
environment for the media to
practice its profession.
(c) She sought the removal of
restrictions imposed on working
Answers with Explanations
1. (d) Chester Barnard is one among
the important contributor to the theory
of Public Administration, but he is
not considered as the father of Public
administration. Woodroo Wilson is
considered as the father of Public
Administration.
2. (b) Aurobindo gosh wrote about
Integral Yoga in his work. He was
dedicated to develop a better human
with help of Integral yoga. The idea of
Integral yoga was related to rejuvenation
of Human Soul.
3. (b) Mahatma Gandhi in his book
Hind Swaraj wrote about the issue of cow
of journalists in the state after
scrapping the provisions of
Article 370.
(d) The internet shutdown in J & K
has gone well beyond five months.
97. In the judicial ruling on the
Kashmir communications block,
the Supreme Court has made it
clear that:
I. I ndefinite suspension of the
internet is not permissible.
II. Any restrictions placed on the
internet must meet a test of
proportionality.
III. Authorities have failed to provide
proper transparency regarding
internet shutdown decisions.
IV. Freedom of speech and expression
and the right to carry on any trade
or business using the internet are
constitutionally protected.
(a) Only III
(b) Both II and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) All of the above
98. Internet shutdown is referred to as
a blunt tool because:
(a) Internet shutdown helps in preventing
mass protests or civil unrest.
(b) The shutdown is always based on
analysis of intelligence inputs and
is subject to periodic review.
in Indian society. And then he directed
Hindu Indians to refrain from violence in
the name of cow protection.
4. (c) Ram Manohar Lohia was critical of
European concept of Socialism, he believed
that it is not correct for Indian Society.
Hence he reviewed the flaws of European
Socialism and presented a New Socialism
which is relevant for Indian Society.
5. (b) Ambedkar in his multiple work
criticised the caste system established by
Hindu Varnavyavastha. He believes that
it is an immoral social organisation. He
also said in his ‘Annihilation of Caste’
that Hindu society is a myth.
Practice Set-6
(c) No other option is available to
the law & order administration
of India in a soaring situation.
(d) Internet shutdown is a preventive
measure used by the law & order
administration as a last resort
to address mass protests, civil
unrest, so as to ensure peace.
99. What could be the consequence of
illegitimate use of a mass measure
like internet shutdowns?
(a) The general public can suffer
material loss.
(b) There are no consequences.
(c) A person can suffer economic
loss.
(d) It restricts the exercise of unda-
mental rights and hinders the
realisation of economic, social
and cultural rights, including the
right to health, education and
livelihoods.
100. The Anuradha Bhasin case presented
the Court with an opportunity to:
(a) Detriment of its own credibility
and our rights.
(b) Miss an opportunity.
(c) Impose some post facto accounta-
bility for a measure that seems
less motivated by concerns around
national security.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
6. (a) Yes, Comparative Politics is
a systematic study of world’s Political
systems and their comparisons. The
main objective of Comparative Politics is
to explain the differences and similarities
among numbers of Political systems.
Both the statements are correct and
Reason statement is correct explanation
behind the assertion.
7. (b) Yes, its true that all democratic
regimes have a constitution sort of
detailed, written or conventionas-based.
Another feature of democratic regimes
is their limitations and responsibilities.
Both the statement are correct and
Practice Set-6
but Reason statement is not a correct
explanation behind the assertion.
8. (a) Tyranny of the Majority is
against the principle of democracy.
Majoritarianism result into division
of society. It usually develop conflict
among majority and minority. It leads to
the exploitation of minority by majority
forces. The most disastrous consequence
of Tyranny of Majority is Civil War For
Example Sri Lanka experienced a civil
war between Sinhala and Tamils.
9. (b) Participatory Democracy calls
for the Participation and contribution of
citizens in the governance of the country.
It require people to play an active
political role. It requires greater political
awareness among people. Participatory
Democracy can survive just on Voting.
10. (c) The book “Introduction to
the study of the law of the constitution”
was written by A.V Dicey in year 1885.
This work has been selected by scholars
as being culturally important, and is part
of the knowledge base of civilization as
we know it.
11. (d) According to Plato things are a
reflection of Ideas and not visa-versa. In
his theory of Form, Plato elaborated the
importance of Ideas and how they shape
the world around us.
12. (c) Hegel said that Machiavelli
is the man of genius who saw the need
for uniting a chaotic collection of small
and feeble principalities into a coherent
whole. He also stated that “ The march
of world history stands outside virtue,
vice and justice.”
13. (a)
 (Author) (Books)
Quentin Skinner - The Foundations theory may prove trivial, and theory
of Modern Political
Thought
Michael Sandel - Liberalism and the
Limits of Justice
Giovanni Sartori- Democratic Theory
Charles Taylor - Philosophy and collapse. Hence, The liberal democracy
Human Sciences
14. (a) Sushila Ramaswamy in
her book ‘Political Theory: Idea and
Concept’ wrote that “Germino considers
Marxism to be an ideology rather than a
political theory.”
15. (c) The correct chronology of
Berlin’s work is:
Karl Marx: His Life – 1939
and Environment
Four Essays on Liberty – 1969
Vico and Herder: Two – 1976
Studies in the History
of Ideas
Concept and Categories: – 1978
Philosophical Essays
16. (a) In A Theory of Justice,
Rawls explicitly states that “society
is a cooperative venture for mutual
advantage”. The characterization of
a society as a cooperative venture for
mutual advantage seems to imply that
the society has some sort of collective
identity.
17. (a) Rousseau formulates the
famous thesis, “If nature destined man to
be healthy, I venture to declare that a state
of reflection is a state contrary to nature,
and that a thinking man is a depraved
animal.” The reason behind it is that
Common emotions give value to life.
18. (d) M.K Gandhi although support
the social order of Varnavyavastha
mentioned in Hinduism, but he clearly
rejected the idea that people are born
to particular caste due to divine reward
or punishment for their Karma. He just
supported the functional or occupational
distribution suggested by Varna Vyavastha.
19. (c) According to David Easton,
research ought to be systematic, i.e.,
theory and research are to be seen as
closely intertwined parts of a coherent
and orderly body of knowledge. In
his words, “research untutored by
unsupported by data, futile”.
20. (a) According to Fransis Fukuyama,
the earlier forms of government were
characterised by grave defects and
irrationalities that led to their eventual
according to him may constitute the end
point of mankind’s ideological evolution.
21. (c) W.T Bluhm in his work
‘Theories of the Political System’
mentioned that political theory stands for
an abstract model of the political order.
73
22. (d) The Anglo-US model is based
on a system of individual or institutional
shareholders that are outsiders of the
corporation. The other key players that
make up the three sides of the corporate
governance triangle in the Anglo-US
model are management and the board
of directors. It is within the domain of
Behavioural theories.
23. (d) Green’s concept of freedom
is not negative. He says freedom does
not consist in the absence of restraint or
compulsion. Green’s theory of liberty,
secondly, is a positive thing. It is a positive
power of doing or enjoying something
north doing or enjoying. Individuals will
enjoy freedom in cooperation with other
fellow-citizens. This views are against
the Classical liberal notion of liberty.
24. (b) Friedrich Hayek in his criticism
to the Idea of social justice of John Rawls
claimed that it is like a mirage. By this he
means to establish that the idea of Social
justice is unachievable and an illusion.
25. (a) Andrew Heywood in his
famous publication ‘Political Ideologies’
quoted that “Ideology should neither be
thought of as liberating or oppressive,
nor as true or false. It can be any of these
things.
26. (b)
(Year) (Event)
1917– Mao met Liu Shao-Chi
1918– Mao became a Library Assistant
in Peking University
1921– Mao participated in the first
Congress of the CCP
1934– Mao started his historic ‘Long
March’.
27. (a)
(Philosopher) (Idea)
Machiavelli –  Moral Indifference
Hobbes –  Instinct of self-preser-
vation
Locke – Natural Right to
Property
Rousseau – Revolt against Reason
28. (c) The obiter dictum of Gandhi,
‘Most religious men I have met are
politicians in disguise. I, however,
who wear the guise of a politician, am
at heart, a religious man,’ remains the
key to the value system of the political
philosophy that he adhered to.
 74
29. (c) For Plato Knowledge is Virtue
and not perception. So the Statement R
is false. Assertion statement is correct as
Plato based his theory of Ideas is centred
around the concept of Knowledge of the
idea of a form.
30. (b) G.H Sabine in his book ‘The
History of Political theory’ quoted
that “Aristotle’s new general science
of politics was not only empirical and
descriptive, but even in some respects
independent of any ethical purpose, since
a statesman might need to be expert in
governing even a bad state.”
31. (d) The Oligarchic system of
government contains few individuals
who run the government take important
decision. They constitute Political
Elite class. Similarly in Aristocracy,
Aristocrats play a significant role in
Ruling.
32. (b) Arthur Bentley is credited
with the first modem articulation of
politics through the field of comparative
politics. He was among those scholars
who created the foundation Comparative
study of Politics as a discipline.
33. (a) The level of Political
Socialization of a society is studied
in Comparative Politics. Political
socialization helps in examining the
formal and informal mechanisms by
which political attitudes are inculcated.
34. (a) Max Weber and R.R Rostow
gave the principles of administration.
Both of believes that Any kind of
Political Development is either a type of
Administrative development or a Legal
Development.
35. (d) Britain is the first country to
have parliamentary democracy. Hence,
the first Prime Minister of Britain
can be considered as the first ever Pm
in Parliamentary Government. This
appellation is traditionally given to Sir
Robert Walpole, who became First Lord
of the Treasury of Great Britain in 1721.
36. (b) The institutional approach
to comparative political analysis,
simply put, is a comparative study of
institutions. The nature (comparative)
and subject matter (institutions) of study
are thus quite evident. A significant
component of these studies was the
concern to study ‘practice’ through an
analysis of ‘facts’ about the working of
governments. This effort was sustained
by later comparativists like Herman
Finer (Theory and Practice Institutional
Approach of Modern Government,
1932) and Carl Friedrich (Constitutional
Government and Democracy, 1932).
37. (c) The correct sequence of Revolu-
tions is:
Puritan Revolution – 1653–58
Bolshevik Revolution – 1917
Chinese Revolution – 1949
Cuban Revolution – 1953–59
38. (c) Almond in his system theory
included following inputs - Political
socialization and recruitment, Interest
articulation, Interest aggregation and last
one is Political Communication.
39. (a) The “iron law of oligarchy”
states that all forms of organization
regardless of how democratic they
may be at the start, will eventually and
inevitably develop oligarchic tendencies,
thus making true democracy practically
and theoretically impossible, especially in
large groups and complex organizations.
40. (b) Yes, Its true that presence of
social cleavages and Social fragmentation
results into Political instability. And
this instability sometimes became the
reason behind the military predominance
in non-western democracies. Both the
statements are true, but reason statement
is not an appropriate reason behind the
assertion statement.
41. (d) According to John Locke the
Right to Property is a natural right which
include within; Right to life, liberty and
Estate.
42. (d) General will is what a fully-
informed body politic (community of
citizens) would unanimously do if, by
using good reasoning and judgment
unclouded by bias and emotion, it would
make general laws and decisions intended
to ensure the common good.
43. (d) Mill distinguishes higher
and lower pleasures in his essay on
“Utilitarianism.” Presumably higher
pleasures are generally more intellectual
pleasures and lower pleasures are more
sensual pleasures. Mill’s utilitarianism
Practice Set-6
is an ethics that says the highest good is
what produces the most pleasure. Hence
its a subjective concept and not objective.
44. (a) The correct sequence of
Amartya Sen publications:
Choice, welfare and Measurement - 1982
Inequality Reexamined - 1992
Development as Freedom - 1999
Idea of Justice - 2009
45. (a) Yes, it’s true that there was
resonance in the revolutionary ideas of
Mazzini and Aurobindo. Both of them
claimed that faith in God is the basis
of morality. Hence religious moral
principles should not be separated from
Politics.
46. (b) General System theory was
evolved by Ludwig von Bertalanffy in
1968. This model subsequently adopted
by various disciplines of social science
in following sequence; Anthropology,
Sociology, Psychology and Political
Science.
47. (d) Habermas’s concept of
“legitimation crisis” refers to periods
when, “the ‘organizational principle’ of
a society does not permit the resolution
of problems that are critical for its
continued existence.”
48. (c) Any constitution of a country
majorly deals with the national Security.
The issues of Trans-national security is
dealt by multilateral cooperation.
49. (a) Vilfredo Federico Damaso
was an Italian engineer, sociologist,
economist, political scientist, and
philosopher. Gaetano Mosca was an
Italian political scientist, journalist
and public servant. He is credited with
developing the elite theory and the
doctrine of the political class and is one
of the three members constituting the
Italian school of elitism together with
Vilfredo Pareto and Robert Michels.
50. (d) James Coleman is credited
with the foundation of Social Theory.
His research topic did not involve
classification interest or pressure group.
51. (d) Susan Strange wrote a book
‘The retreat of State’. The central
argument of the book is that the state
is retreating in the face of the superior
power of globalization.
Practice Set-6 75
52. (d) Stephen Walt has written Nations Diplomatic Conference of 62. (a)
that even in the post–Cold War period, Plenipotentiaries on the Establishment of  (Author)  (Book)
“realism is likely to remain the single an International Criminal Court.
most useful instrument in our intellectual R.M. Jenkins – Regional
58. (a) The Convention on the Rights
toolbox” for understanding world politics. Reflections
of Persons with Disabilities and its Comparing
53. (d) Five Principal Assumptions of Optional Protocol (A/RES/61/106) was Politics Across
Balance of Power are:
adopted on 13 December 2006 at the India’s States
(a) Firstly, Balance of Power assumes United Nations Headquarters in New
that states are determined to protect Myron Weiner – State Politics in
York, and was opened for signature on (ed) India
their vital rights and interests by all
30 March 2007. The Convention entered Christophe – India’s Silent
means, including war.
into force on 3 May 2008. It takes to a Jafferlot Revolution: The
(b) Secondly, vital interests of the states new height the movement from viewing rise of the Low
are threatened.
persons with disabilities as “objects” of Castes in North
(c) The relative power position of states charity, medical treatment and social Indian Politics
can be measured with a degree of protection towards viewing persons with Paul R. Brass – Language Religion
accuracy. and Politics in
disabilities as “subjects” with rights, who
(d) Balance of Power assumes that are capable of claiming those rights and North India
“balance” will either deter the making decisions for their lives based on 63. (d) Electoral Politics in Post-
threatening state from launching an their free and informed consent as well Congress Polity is written by Yogendra
attack or permit the victim to avoid
as being active members of society. Yadav not by James Manor.
defeat if an attack should occur.
59. (a) 64. (b) In his book ‘Discovery of
(e) The statesmen can, and they do make
(Committee of the (Issues related India’ Jawaharlal Nehru quoted that
foreign policy decisions intelligently
on basis of power considerations. General Assembly to Committee) “In the context of society today, the
54. (a) According to McLean and of UN) caste system and much that goes with
McMillan “Power is the ability to First Committee – Disarmament it are wholly incompatible, reactionary,
make people do what they would not and international restrictive, and barriers to progress.”
otherwise have done”. Morgenthau security 65. (c) Munsiff court is the lowest
Defined power as man’s control over the Second – Economic and court of appeal for civil cases in the
minds and actions of other men. George Committee financial district. It has the authority to try the
Schwarzerberger Defined power as the Third – Social, offence under certain pecuniary limits.
capacity to impose one’s will on others Committee humanitarian
by reliance on effective sanctions in Munsiff Magistrate/ Judicial Collector
and cultural
the case of non-compliance. Van Dyke have control over these courts. The
Fourth – Special
said that “It is not so much the absolute territorial jurisdiction of the District
Committee political and
power of a state as its power position in Munsiff Court was prescribed by the
decolonisation
relation to other states that counts.” State Government.
55. (c) Article 25 of the UN Charter 60. (b) Yes, Religious fundamentalism
66. (b)
directs all nation that “The Members of is posing a threat to security. It is a
the United Nations agree to accept and creating condition for terrorism. It is  (Books)  (Authors)
carry out the decisions of the Security believed by various scholars that the end The Art of – Sir Geoffrey
Council in accordance with the present of the cold war has shifted the ideological Judgment: A Vickers
Charter.” politics in international relations in Study of Policy
56. (b) India has neither signed significant way. Making
nor ratified the Rome Statute on the 61. (b) The United Progressive Understanding – Thomas R. Dye
International Criminal Court (ICC). Alliance, led by the Indian National Public Policy
The reason is that the Rome Statute on Congress, won 59 seats, 44 (8.1%) The New – Herbert Simon
the International Criminal Court (ICC) Science of
of which were won by the Congress,
defines war crimes including the ‘armed Management
that won 19.3% of all votes. It was
conflict not of an international character’. Decision
57. (a) 1 July 2002, in accordance the Congress party's worst defeat in a
general election. UPA won 54 seats and Personality and – Chris Argyris
with article 126. The Statute was
23 percent vote share. Organization
adopted on 17 July 1998 by the United
 76
67. (a) The Public Accounts Com-
mittee consists of not more than twenty-
two members, fifteen elected by Lok
Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament,
and not more than seven members of
Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the
Parliament.
68. (c) Horizontal grouping of
specialized activities is attained in an
organization that is Decentralized in
Nature. The nature of decentralization
provide appropriate space for horizontal
grouping.
69. (d) The Right to Information
Act 2005 came into force in October
2005. The act is available to only Indian
Citizens.
70. (b) The cause mentioned for
disciplinary action against public servants
by L.D. White includes; Inefficiency,
Immorality and Intoxication.
71. (d) Thomas Carlyle was a Scottish
philosopher, satirical writer, essayist,
translator, historian, mathematician,
and teacher. Considered one of the
most important social commentators of
his time, he presented many lectures
during his lifetime with certain acclaim
in the Victorian era. He never presented
any kind of behavioural theory of
organisation.
72. (a) Herbert Simon suggested for
the first time the decision-making model
of human beings. His model of decision-
making has three stages:
•• Intelligence which deals with the
problem identification and data
collection on the problem.
•• Design which deals with the
generation of alternative solutions to
the problem at hand.
•• Choice which is selecting the 'best'
solution from amongst the alternative
solutions using some criterion.
This process makes decision making
a Rational activity.
73. (c) Riggs classified societies into
agricultural and industrial societies i.e.
the agrarian and the industrial. The
models were developed to study the
political and administrative transitions
in such societies. The features of the
agraria were described as follows:
•• Ascriptive, particularistic and
diffuse patterns were predominant in
such societies
•• Limited social and spatial mobility
•• Relatively simple and stable
occupational differentiation
•• Existence of differential stratification
system
74. (b) Yes, it’s true that the issue
of decentralisation is more complex in
concept and practice than it is generally
acknowledged. The dual role approach
to decentralisation is a kind of rehearsal
of the area function dichotomy in a new
setting.’
75. (a) Scientific management involves
the application of a scientific approach to
managerial decision­making (consisting
of-collection of data, an analysis of data
and basing decisions on the outcome of
such analyses); and discarding at the
same time, all unscientific approaches,
like–rule of thumb, a hit or miss approach
and a trial and error approach. It doesn’t
include efficiency evaluation experts.
76. (c) The acceptance of authority
in organizations, according to Barnard,
depends upon the zone of indifference. If
the orders for action are arranged in order
of their acceptability to the person affected,
they fall under three categories viz. Those
which will clearly be unacceptable. Those
which are on neutral line. Those which
are unquestionably acceptable.
77. (b) Prof W.A. Robson has
summarized its defects in the following
words “The maladies from which
bureaucracy most frequently suffers are
an excessive sense of self- importance
on the part of officials or an undue idea
of the importance of their office; an
indifference towards the feeling or the
convenience of individual.
78. (b) Max Weber, the famous
German sociologist, first drew our
attention to the enormous importance
of bureaucracy in the administrative
systems of capitalist states. In his opinion,
capitalism provided an impetus to the
expansion of rational administration. In
his noted work Economy and Society.
he has further said that day after day the
public administration of all industrialised
capitalist states is constantly being
bureaucratised. Riggs had extensively
Practice Set-6
studied the administrative systems of
several countries in a comparative
way. He said that in the administrative
system of every country there is an
ineluctable influence of environment
on administration and, hence, any
comparative public administra­tion must
take note of it.
79. (b) Upward Communication is
the process of information flowing from
the lower levels of a hierarchy to the
upper levels. It can become better if;
Management start giving evidence that
it is really interested in the opinions of
employees and Chief executive act upon
the ideas and problems reported to him.
80. (b) The Arthashastra states that
an increase in expenditure and lower
revenue collection (parihapan) was an
indication of embezzlement of funds
by corrupt officials. Kautilya provides
a comprehensive list of 40 kinds of
embezzlement. In all these cases, the
concerned functionaries such as the
treasurer (nidhayaka), the prescriber
(nibandhak), the receiver (pratigrahaka),
the payer (dayak), the person who caused
the payment (deepika) and the ministerial
servants (mantri-vaiyavrityakara) were
to be separately interrogated.
81. (b) The Non-Alignment policy was
originated while considering the world
order during the Cold War era. Hence, It
automatically became significantly relevant
during that phase. The Countries which
were part of Non-Alignment movement
are culturally heterogeneous. But this has
nothing to do with the relevancy of Non-
alignment during the Cold War.
82. (b) America being a democratic
country usually give preference to the
democratic principles in its foreign
policy, But at times we have noticed
events, where American government has
tool sides with undemocratic regimes.
For example its relation with Saudi
Arabia is well established.
83. (d) The Dependency theory
believes that Industrialization has led to
the creation of new forms of Colonization
and inequality in world order. They
expressed this as Neo-Colonialism.
84. (c) General Assembly resolution
377(V) is known as the Uniting for
peace resolution. Adopted in 1950, the
Practice Set-6
resolution resolves that if the Security
Council, because of lack of unanimity of
the permanent members, fails to exercise
its primary responsibility to act as
required to maintain international peace
and security. The General Assembly shall
consider the matter immediately with
a view to making recommendations to
Members in order to restore international
peace and security. The Uniting for
Peace resolution was adopted on the
recommendation of Acheson report.
Hence it is also known as Acheson Plan.
85. (d) Balance of power in interna-
tional relations, the posture and policy of
a nation or group of nations protecting
itself against another nation or group of
nations by matching its power against
the power of the other side. This belongs
to Realist approach of International
Relations.
86. (a) Inis Lothair Claude, Jr.
was a leading scholar in international
relations and international organizations.
According to him Arms Control can’t
be considered as a device for the
management of power. He believes that
Collective security, World Government
and Balance of Power are only available
source for the Management of the Power.
87. (c) The members of the G20 are:
Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada,
China, France, Germany, India,
Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of
Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia,
South Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom,
United States, and the European Union.
Out of these 20, 7 belong to Asia.
88. (c) The Peace of Westphalia
established important political precedents
for state sovereignty, inter-state
diplomacy, and balance of power in
Europe. The Peace of Westphalia was
a series of peace treaties which were
signed between May and October 1648 in
the Westphalian cities of Osnabrück and
Münster, largely ending the European
wars of religion, including the Thirty
Years’ War.
89. (c) The United Nations Economic
and Social Council (ECOSOC) is one of
the six principal organs of the United
Nations. The ECOSOC has 54 members.
The General Assembly selects 18 new
members for ECOSOC each year for
a term of 3 years with a provision that
a retiring member can be re-elected. It
holds one seven-week session each year
in July, and since 1998, it has also held
an annual meeting in April with Finance
ministers heading key committees of
the World Bank and the International
Monetary Fund (IMF).
90. (b) According to Karen. A. Ming
the conditions essential for first generation
peacekeeping operations involve. Having
a clear and practical mandate or purpose
for the operation. It also requires consent
of the parties involved as to the mandate
and composition of the force. Another
Important element is strong financial and
logistical support of the members of the
UN Security Council.
91. (d) The first paragraph clearly
indicates that US Dollar has soared against
most currencies, which means it has
increased rapidly above the usual level.
92. (b) The author means to say that
because of the prospect of the Federal
Reserve raising interest rates the value of
Dollar became strong against the Euro.
93. (c) The first paragraph clearly
states that ‘with a Republican majority
in both the House of Representatives
and the Senate, Mr. Trump could benefit
from smoother Congressional backing
for policy initiatives to boost economic
activity’.
94. (b) The last of the first paragraph
clearly states that ‘U.S. stocks and bonds
have also reflected the optimism over the
outlook for U.S. growth and prospects that
increased fiscal spending will help reflate
the economy, with the S&P 500 Index
adding gains for the second straight week
and benchmark bond yields climbing in
anticipation of faster inflation’.
95. (c) The author is talking about
the covered interest arbitrage which is a
trading strategy in which an investor uses
a forward currency contract to hedge
against exchange rate risk.
96. (d) The passage states, “No
other country imposes as many internet
shutdowns on its people as India. The
recent internet shutdown in J & K has
gone well beyond five months with only
very limited access being permitted
in dribs and drabs. In light of such
77
an unparalleled lockdown, Anuradha
Bhasin, the Executive Editor of Kashmir
Times, approached the Supreme Court.
Her petition sought the immediate
relaxation of restrictions on the Internet
and telecommunication services and on
the movement of journalists and media-
persons.”
97. (d) The passage states, “In a
major pronouncement, the Supreme
Court has declared that any action by
an official of the state that shuts down
the internet in any part of India must be
temporary, and adhere to the doctrine of
proportionality. The court has said that
challenges to shutdowns have suffered
because the authorities have failed to
provide proper transparency regarding
the internet shutdown decisions. This
has meant that the test of proportionality
is impossible to apply, which is a
violation of the Indians’ fundamental
rights.”
98. (c) It can be deciphered from the
following lines, “Two factors, therefore,
push the government to use internet
shutdowns this frequently and with
impunity across India. First, the police
and state machinery use this blunt tool at
their disposal because none better have
been offered to them in an escalating
situation.”
99. (a) The passage states, “Second,
no consequences follow for even the
illegitimate use of a mass measure like
internet shutdowns against the general
public. There is no remedy forthcoming
for a person who suffers material loss as
a result of an internet shutdown imposed
on them.”
100. (c) The passage states, “The
Anuradha Bhasin case presented the
Court with an opportunity to set right
at least the latter aspect of internet
shutdowns. It could have imposed some
post facto accountability for a measure
that increasingly seems less motivated by
concerns around national security, and more
by the need to impose mass punishment on
a dissenting population. However, it has
once again taken the opportunity to miss
an opportunity, to the detriment of its own
credibility and our rights.”
qqq
 78
UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
1. The theory of revolution was
provided by which of the following
philosopher?
(a) Hobbes (b) Locke
(c) Bentham (d) Aristotle
2. Which one of following philosopher
does not consider State as a ‘Natural
Institution’?
(a) Locke (b) Plato
(c) Aristotle (d) Hegel
3. The ‘Bill of Right’ is related to
which country?
(a) Switzerland (b) U.K
(c) USA (d) India
4. Who said “State is a march of god
on earth”?
(a) Bentham (b) J.S Mill
(c) Laski (d) Hegel
5. “Knowledge is Virtue and Virtue
is Knowledge” theory is related to
which philosopher
(a) Socrates (b) Aristotle
(c) Hegel (d) Marx
6. The book “Philosophy of History”
was written by
(a) Edmund Burke
(b) Georg W.F Hegel
(c) Proudhan
(d) None of the above
7. General System Theory was
propounded by
(a) David Easton
(b) Lucian Pye
(c) Chester Barnard
(d) Herbert Simon
8. The ordinance making power of
President of India is enshrined in
(a) Article 100
(b) Article 103
(c) Article 123
(d) Article 231
Political Science
Practice Set-7
9. Match the List-I with List-II
   List-I List-II
(A) The Laws (1) Machiavelli
(B) Prince (2) Plato
(C) On Liberty (3) John Rawls
(D) Theory of (4) J.S Mill
Justice
Choose the Correct code among the
following Codes:
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
10. The Panchayati raj system get
constitutional status by
(a) 73rd Amendment Act
(b) 74th Amendment Act
(c) 75th Amendment Act
(d) 76th Amendment Act
11. Who defined an ideology as ‘a
set of ideas by which men posit,
explain and justify the ends and
means of organized social action,
irrespective of whether such action
aims to preserve, amend, uproot or
rebuild a given social order’?
(a) de Tracy
(b) Martin Seliger
(c) D. McLellan
(d) J. Larrain
12. Given below are two statements,
one is labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): All Political Philoso-
phers are political theorists.
Reason (R): All Political Theorists
are not necessarily Political Philoso-
phers.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Practice Set-7
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
13. Who said that Labour power equals
the brain, muscle, and nerve of the
Labourer?
(a) Lenin
(b) M.N. Roy
(c) Marx
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan
14. The reappearance of Plato is found
in the
(a) Utopia of Sir Thomas More
(b) City of the Sun of Campanella
(c) New Atlantis of Bacon
(d) All the above
15. Which one of the statements is not
correct in respect of Aristotle?
(a) Men are by nature unequal.
(b) There is subordination of inferior
to superior.
(c) W o m e n a r e , b y n a t u r e ,
subordinated to men.
(d) Slavery is justified because it does
not secure the best conditions for
the slave.
16. W h o d i d h e l p t o h u m a n i z e
J.S. Mill’s revised version of
Utilitarianism?
(a) James Mill
(b) Mrs. Harriet Taylor
(c) Priestley
(d) Hutcheson
17. For Hobbes, ‘Felicity’ means
(a) Pleasure
(b) A continued success in obtaining
those things which a man from
time to time desires.
Practice Set-7
(c) Empathy
(d) None of the above
18. ‘The “natural” man will be one
in whom strong conscience and
stead fast reason have successfully
harmonized self-love and
sympathy’. Who advocated this?
(a) Hobbes (b) Rousseau
(c) Bentham (d) Locke
19. Locke’s Essay Concerning Human
Understanding was a refutation of
(a) Hobbes’ Leviathan
(b) Priestley’s Essay on Government
(c) B e n t h a m ’ s F r a g m e n t o n
Government
(d) Sir Robert Filmer’s Patriarcha.
20. The Politics of Society must be
based on two principles as
(i) ‘Treat others as self’ and
(ii) ‘help the other persons in need’.
Whose saying is this?
(a) Rammohan Roy
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Aurobindo
(d) Savarkar
21. Who made the following statement
in the Constituent Assembly in
connection with the Amendment
Procedure of the Constitution of
India?
‘ T h a t w h i l e w e w a n t t h i s
Constitution to be solid and as
permanent as a structure we can
make it, nevertheless there is no
permanence in Constitutions.
If you make anything rigid and
permanent, you stop the Nation’s
growth, the growth of a living, vital
organic people’.
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
22. Which of the following Articles
cannot be suspended during
National Emergency?
(a) Articles 14 and 15
(b) Articles 19 and 20
(c) Articles 21 and 22
(d) Articles 20 and 21
23. Who among the following called
Jayaprakash Narain, Ram
Manohar Lohia and other Socialists
as Japanese agents during 1942
movement?
(a) Communist Party of India
(b) Akali Dal
(c) Rashtriya Swayam Sevak Sangh
(d) Muslim League
24. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer from
the codes.
Assertion (A): Caste system was
epitome of the traditional society, a
‘closed system’, where generation
after generation of individuals did
similar kinds of work and lived more
or less similar kinds of lives.
R e a s o n ( R ) : C a s t e s y s t e m
encapsulated within it the features
of a social structure and normative
religious behaviour, and even
provided a fairly comprehensive idea
about the personal lives of individuals
living in the Hindu Caste Society.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.
25. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer from
the codes.
Assertion (A): Over the years, the
Supreme Court of India has failed
to demonstrate a commitment to
preserving constitutional liberty,
and expanding and protecting human
rights.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court has
played and continues to play a critical
79
role in shaping India’s constitutional
democracy far beyond that which the
drafters of the Constitution envisaged
or what courts in other countries
play.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
26. Which one of the following is
not applicable to Public Interest
Litigation?
(a) Constitutional obligation of
the Judiciary towards the
marginalised sections of society.
(b) Locus standi.
(c) Public spirited citizens can move
the court on behalf of the poor.
(d) Judiciary overlooks a strict
construction of procedural
formalities in entertaining
petitions.
27. Which among the following pertains
to the sixty first Constitutional
Amendment?
(a) Ninth Schedule
(b) Defection
(c) Amendment of Article 368
(d) Lowering of voting age
28. The Sikhs got special electorates in
which of the following Acts?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
29. Which of the following Committees
of the Constituent Assembly was
chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru?
(a) Steering Committee
(b) Union Powers Committee
(c) Committee on Fundamental
Rights and Minorities
(d) Provincial Constitution
Committee
 80
30. Who among the following developed
the concept, ‘derivative discourse’?
(a) Ashish Nandy
(b) Partha Chatterjee
(c) Ashutosh Varshney
(d) Sudipta Kaviraj
31. Which of the following are the
characteristics of development
administration?
1. Change-orientation
2. Client orientation
3. Citizen-participative orientation
4. Ecological perspective
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
32. Domicile qualification for public
services was first prescribed by
(a) The United States of America
(b) U.K.
(c) India
(d) France
33. Which one of the following is the
Cadre-controlling authority for the
Indian Police Service?
(a) The Ministry of Personnel,
Public Grievances and Pensions
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
(d) Cabinet Secretary
34. The process of transferring funds
from one budget head to another of
the same department where there
is a need for more expenditure is
called
(a) transfer
(b) re-allocation
(c) re-appropriation
(d) Sectoral allocation
35. Promotion generally means
1. Change in position
2. Change in duties
3. Change in title
4. Change in pay
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
36. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Regimes represent an
important feature of globalization.
Reason (R): The onset of détente,
the loss of hegemonic status by the
USA and the growing awareness of
environmental problems sensitized
social scientists.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
37. Who said, “Power in International
Politics is like the weather.
Everyone talks about it, but few
understand it”?
(a) Hans J.Morganthau
(b) Henry Kissinger
(c) Joseph Nye
(d) Susan Strange
38. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
   List–I    List–II
(Reasons of failure)    (States)
(A) Tribal conflict (i) Rwanda
(B) Endless violence (ii) Somalia
for nonpolitical
purposes
(C) Ethnic genocide (iii) Congo
(D) Transnational (iv) Liberia
war
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Practice Set-7
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
39. Which countries were identified
as the “Axis of Evil” by President
Bush in his State of Union Speech
in 2002?
(a) Russia, China, Iran
(b) Iran, Iraq, Syria
(c) Cuba, Venezuela, Russia
(d) Iraq, Iran, North Korea
40. When was the UN Peace building
Commission established?
(a) January 2003
(b) December 2004
(c) December 2005
(d) January 2006
41. As part of a regional initiative,
India initiated the 2004 Tokyo
Agreement. Name the organization
which emerged as a result.
(a) BRICS
(b) ARF
(c) ReCAAP
(d) IOR-ARC
42. Name the military strategist who
stated that all war is based on
deception and praised it as the
‘divine art of subtlety and secrecy.’
(a) Clausewitz
(b) Kautilya
(c) Sun Tzu
(d) Machiavelli
43. Name the person who headed
the United Nations Monitoring,
V e r i fi c a t i o n a n d I n s p e c t i o n
Commission (UNMOVIC) to Iraq
in 2002?
(a) Kofi Annan
(b) Hans Blix
(c) David Petraeus
(d) Colin Powell
44. Which among the following States
least influences India’s Foreign
Policy?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) West Bengal
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Practice Set-7
45. Mao’s most original contribution
was in emphasizing the
revolutionary role of the:
(a) Proletariat
(b) Intelligentsia
(c) Combination of the proletariat
and the peasantry
51. Given below are those statements,
(d) Peasantry
46. Who questioned the view that Locke
was a defender of the Glorious
Revolution?
(a) Tawney (b) Sabine
(c) Macpherson (d) Ashcraft
47. Which political thinker rejects
Aristotle completely?
(a) Machiavelli
(b) Hobbes
(c) Locke
(d) Rousseau
48. Who described Rousseau as a
totalitarian democrat?
(a) Karl Popper
(b) Carl Friedrich
(c) Hannah Arendt
(d) Jacob Talmon
49. Power, not right is the focal point
for Hobbes. Why?
(a) Power is more important than
right.
(b) Rights will entail duties.
(c) There is an inherent conflict
between power and right.
(d) Difficult to obtain agreement
among individuals.
50. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
List-I
(Marx’s writing)
(A) Paris Manuscripts
(B) Das Capital
(C) 18th Brumaire of Louis Bonaparte
(D) Critique of the Gotha Programme
List-II (Themes)
(i) Relative Autonomy of the state
(ii) Dictatorship of the proletariat
(iii) Surplus Value
(iv) Alienation
Code:
A B C D
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) account:
(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (a) Presence of several competing
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) value systems or cultures in
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R). Select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
Assertion (A): The theories of
development of the 1950’s like
behaviouralism, could never develop
an universally accepted paradigm
because they were locally dated.
Reason (R): They originated during
the Cold War period and consequently
biased.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
52. Political Socialization deals with:
(a) Process of formulating political
ideas
(b) Career planning and political
socialization
(c) Elaborating the theories of
Durkheim
(d) Elaborating the theories of
Weber
53. Subject - participatory culture was
associated with:
(a) Erstwhile communist regimes
(b) Fascist regimes
(c) Post Colonial Societies
(d) Non Ideological dictatorships
54. Who has commented that politics is
about diversity and conflict and the
essential ingredient of its existence
is scarcity?
(a) Leftwich
(b) Lasswell
(c) Crick
(d) Millett
81
55. Huntington criticizes the moderni-
zation theory for not taking into
traditional society
(b) The difference between base and
superstructure
(c) The question of leadership
(d) Overdeveloped nature of moder-
nizing nations
56. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
List-I List-II
(State) (State Parties)
(A) Bihar (i) Apna Dal
(B) West Bengal (ii) Indian
National Lok
Dal
(C) Uttar (iii) Revolutionary
Pradesh Socialist Party
(D) Haryana (iv) Lok Janshakti
Party
Code:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
57. Who of the following was not a
member of the Towards Equality
report?
(a) Lotika Sarkar
(b) Neera Dogra
(c) Vina Mazumdar
(d) Sushila Nayar
58. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
List-I (Type of Pressure Groups)
(A) Based on traditional social
structure
(B) Based on labour interest
(C) Based on institutional interest
(D) Based on business interest
List-II (Name of Pressure Groups)
(i) A s s o c i a t e d C h a m b e r o f
Commerce and Industry in India
 82
(ii) Nair Service Society
(iii) Delhi University Teacher’s
Association
(iv) Hind Mazdoor Parishad
Code:
A B C D
(a) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(b) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
59. Arrange the following administrative
thinkers in chronological order:
(a) Willoughby
(b) M.P. Follet
(c) F.W. Riggs
(d) Robert Dahl
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) (b), (a), (d) and (c)
(b) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(c) (b), (a), (c) and (d)
(d) (a), (c), (b) and (d)
60. Who among the following gave the
4P - Formula for departmental
Organisation?
(a) Fayol (b) Urwick
(c) Gulick (d) Mooney
61. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R). Select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
Assertion (A): Herbert Simon has
ridiculed the classical theory of
organisation as a machine model
theory.
Reason (R): Classicists are too
much preoccupied with the formal
structural part of organisation and
that too at the cost of human factors.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
62. Which of the following statements
is not correct about the Right to
Information Act?
(a) The Right to Information Act
came into force on 12 October
2005.
(b) The Freedom of Information Act,
2002 has been repealed.
(c) The Official Secrets Act, 1923
has also been repealed.
(d) Central Information Commission
and State Information Commissions
have been constituted.
63. Which of the following is not an
integral part of liberal constitu-
tionalism?
(a) Individual freedom
(b) Toleration and consent
(c) Majoritanianism
(d) Minority rights
64. The Presidential system operates
most successfully in the U.S.A.
because of
(a) A strong two party system
(b) A well demarcated constitution
(c) Judicial review
(d) Minor contradictions in society
65. The House of Lords in Great
Britain is mainly retained because
(a) It is as important as the House of
Commons.
(b) It plays an important role of
checks and balances.
(c) It acts as a judicial court.
(d) It is maintained as an institution.
66. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R). Select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Assertion (A): Huntington is correct
in asserting that the combination of
the role of the state and government
of the U.S. President is a medieval
practice.
Reason (R): It is because in other
liberal democracies, the two roles
are not combined.
Practice Set-7
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is the false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
67. Beliefs and symbols are the
distinctive features of the notion
of authority in
(a) Marx (b) Parsons
(c) Verba (d) Weber
68. Regarding the Interim Government
of 1946, which of the following is
not correct?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime
Minister/Head of the Executive
Council.
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru was designated
as the Vice-President of the
Viceroy’s Executive Council.
(c) The Viceroy continued to be the
Head of the Executive Council.
(d) The members of the Interim
Government were members of
viceroy’s Executive Council.
69. Which one of the following state-
ments is not correct regarding
Certiorari?
(a) A High Court can issue a writ
against itself in its administrative
capacity.
(b) A bench of a High Court can
issue a writ to another bench of
the same High Court.
(c) A High Court cannot issue a writ
to another High Court.
(d) A High Court can issue certiorari
to a tribunal situated within its
jurisdiction.
70. In which one of the following
cases the Supreme Court of India
used the principle of “continuing
mandamus”?
(a) S.P. Gupta Vs. Union of India
(b) Sunil Batra I.Vs. Delhi Admini-
stration
Practice Set-7 83
(c) Vineet Narain Vs. Union of India (a) Francine R. Frankel & M.S.A. 81. What is the correct sequence of
(d) Sagir Ahmad Vs. State of U.P. Rao Morstein Marx’s classification of
71. Who was the first President of India (b) Myron Weiner bureaucracy given below:
to make use of ‘Pocket Veto’? (c) Lloyd and Susane Rudolph (A) Merit
(a) Zakir Hussain (d) Partha Chatterjee (B) Patronage
(b) Sanjeeva Reddy 76. Which one of the following (C) Caste
(c) R. Venkatraman Committees opposed the state (D) Gurdian
funding of elections in India? Select the correct answer from the
(d) Gyani Zail Singh
(a) Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy codes given below:
72. Who said Indian federalism is “a
new kind of federation to meet (b) Indrajit Gupta Codes:
India’s peculiar needs”? (c) Tarkunde (a) D, C, B and A
(a) Granville Austin (d) Dinesh Goswami (b) A, B, C and D
(b) Ivor Jenneigs 77. Which of the following newspaper (c) A, D, D and B
is managed by a trust in India? (d) D, A, B and C
(c) Alexandrowicz
(a) Times of India 82. Who among the former Prime
(d) Ronald Wats
(b) Indian Express Ministers had observed that “only a
73. Adi Ambedkar Samaj movement is committed bureaucracy could bring
related to which State? (c) Hindu
about social transformation”?
(a) Maharashtra (d) Tribune
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Punjab 78. Who among the following hold
(b) Morarji Desai
the view that administration
(c) Rajasthan (c) Indira Gandhi
comprises of the work of only
(d) Uttar Pradesh those persons who are engaged in (d) V.P. Singh
74. Match List-I with List-II and performing managerial functions 83. The purpose of an adjournment
identify the correct answer from in an organization? motion is to
the codes given below: (A) Luther Gulick (a) seek the leave of the House to
List-I (Event) (B) Herbert Simon introduce a bill.
(A) Millennium Development Goals (b) censure the Government.
(C) Victor Thomson
Report (c) propose a reduction in the
(D) Henry Fayol
(B) National Commission for Women budget.
Select the correct answer from the (d) draw the attention of the House
(C) Ministry of Women and Child codes given below: to a matter of urgent public
Development Codes: importance.
(D) National Mission for Empower-
(a) A and B 84. The First attempt to confer constitu-
ment of Women
(b) B and C tional status on rural local govern-
List-II (Year) ment was made by
(c) B, C and D
(i) 2010 (a) the 64th Constitutional
(d) A, B, C and D
(ii) 2006 Amendment Bill
79. Who among the following has
(iii) 1992 (b) the 68th Constitutional
defined budget as “a series of goals
(iv) 2011 Amendment Bill
with price tags attached”?
Codes: (c) the 72nd Constitutional
(a) Wildavsky
A B C D Amendment Bill
(b) Paul Appleby (d) the 73rd Constitutional
(a) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(c) Chester Barnard Amendment Act
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) John D. Millet 85. Which one of the following
(c) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
80. Who among the following is the arrangements was not visualized
(d) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
creator of Zero-Based-Budgeting? by Morton Kaplan?
75. Who among the following made a
(a) Hoover Commission (a) Balance of Power
significant contribution to theories
of the Interaction between social (b) Peter A. Phyrr (b) Tight bipolar system
dominance and state power in (c) Herbert Simon (c) Loose bipolar system
contemporary India? (d) Gug Peters (d) Unipolar system
 84
86. Which one of the following is not
the technique of the balance of
power?
(a) Amassing of weapons
(b) Seizing of territory
(c) Methods of persuasion
(d) Creating of buffer states
87. In 1999 NATO acted against
Serbia accusing of indulging in act
of ‘ethnic cleansing’ in Kosovo. To
this, other major powers such as
Russia and China reacted as under:
(a) Russia criticised NATO acting
without UN approval.
(b) China described NATO act as
illegal
(c) Both Russia and China criticised
NATO acting without UN
approval.
(d) Russia and China remained non-
committal on the issue.
88. Which one of the following was not
the basis invoked by the US for
attacking Iraq in March, 2003?
(a) Iraq possessed weapons of mass
destruction.
(b) Saddam Hussain had links with
Al Quaeda. endowed with multi-dimensional
(c) Regime Change in Iraq
(d) Iraq had not withdrawn from
Kuwait completely.
89. ‘Common but differentiated’
responsibility principle on climate
mitigation agenda emerged from
(a) Kyoto Protocol
(b) Rio Earth Summit
(c) Rio + 20
(d) Paris Climate Conference
90. Which of the following Republic/
Republics was/were supported by
Russia in Georgian war of 2008?
(a) South Ossettia
(b) South Ossettia and Abkhazia both
(c) Abkhazia
(d) Nogorno Karabakh
Direction: Read the following compre-
hension and answer the questions:
Rawls theory of justice revolves
around the adaptation of two fundamental
principles of justice which would, in turn,
guarantee a just and morally acceptable
society. The first principle guarantees
the right of each person to have the most
extensive basic liberty compatible with
the liberty of others. The second principle
states that social and economic positions
are to be a) to everyone’s advantage and
b) open to all. A key problem to Rawls
is to show how such principles would be
universally adopted and here the work
borders on general ethical issues. He
introduces a theoretical “veil of ignorance”
in which all the “players” in the social
game would be placed in a situation
which is called the “original position”.
Having only a general knowledge of the
facts of “life and society”, each player is
to abide based on their moral obligation.
By denying the players any specific
information about themselves it forces
them to adopt a generalized point of view
that bears a strong resemblance to the
moral point of view.
91. ‘The Theory of Justice’ by John
Rawls was written in year
(a) 1991 (b) 1971
(c) 1972 (d) 1992
92. The second principle of theory
of Justice states that social and
economic positions should be
(a) to everyone’s advantage
(b) open to all
(c) Both A&B
(d) None
93. Which among the following is not
related to the Rawls theory of
Justice?
(a) Veil of Ignorance
(b) Original Position
(c) Tabula Rasa
(d) Difference Principle.
94. John Rawls on the basis of his
justice system was a
(a) Neo-Liberal
(b) Neo-Marxist
(c) Socialist
(d) Social-Democrate
Practice Set-7
95. How Rawls ensured the origin of
an unbiased political system.
(a) By Veil of Ignorance
(b) By Difference principle
(c) By Original Position
(d) All of the above
Direction: Read the following compre-
hension and answer the questions:
The world has come around to the
view that democracy is essential for full
human development. And only education
and skill development can make this
possible. Democracy cannot be sustained
unless the electorate is well informed,
chooses its leadership wisely, and this
leadership is intellectually empowered
by a multi-dimensional intelligence. The
world view of economic development
has completely changed: it is no longer
believed to be driven by human labor,
as Karl Marx said, or by capital, as
Alfred Marshall stated, but is knowledge-
driven. For application of knowledge,
innovations are required, and for more
original research, we need many more
young minds at the frontier. Knowledge
is gender neutral, and hence the 21st
century offers a great opportunity to level
the gender inequity of the last thousand
years in India.
The youth require a mental faculty
intelligence. It is not adequate to foster
cognitive intelligence alone — as is being
done in India’s educational campuses
today — but to also develop the other
dimensions of intelligence: emotional,
social, moral, spiritual, environmental,
and innovational. India’s vast youth
population is its demographic potential
dividend, but only if equipped and enabled
with this seven-dimensional intelligence.
The nation must, therefore, structure a
national education policy for the youth so
that the seven dimensions of intelligence
can be manifested in every young man and
woman. Only then will the demographic
dividend not be wasted. These seven
dimensions constitute the ability of a
person to live a productive life and for the
national good. Hence, a policy for India’s
youth has to be structured within the
implied parameters of these dimensions.
Practice Set-7
The first parameter of such a policy is
ability empowerment — the development
of the seven types of intelligence. The
second is a collective mindset about
the legacy and future of the nation,
which means knowing the correct de-
falsified history of India. The third is
the commitment to a social contract
of rights and obligations such as a
fundamental right to quality primary and
secondary education, right to work, an
obligation to compete for most positions
of employment on merit, practice gender
equality and place national interests above
selfish interests. A national education
policy is, therefore, a framework for the
comprehensive growth of the nation’s
young population, to enable them to be
positioned in life for personal advancement
as well as contribute to national greatness.
India, however, lacks today a properly
structured policy for development of its
Answers with Explanations
1. (d) Aristotle provided a structured
theory of revolution. He did Comparative
analysis of various revolution and
sketched out the characteristics and
stages of revolution.
2. (a) John Locke in his Social Contract
theory projected that the State is a Man-
Made Institution and not naturally existed
in the State of Nature. He claimed that
people came together to surrender their
few right to a body and from their they
get Right to Life, Liberty and Property.
3. (c) Bill of Rights is the key governing
principle of American Constitution. It
enlist some fundamental rights provided
to citizen of USA. These bill of Rights
also influenced the Fundamental Rights
given to Indian people by Constitution of
India.
4. (d) Hegel gave supreme importance
to the State. He believed that State is
the final culmination of Rational Idea.
He also claimed that State is a natural
institution. According to him “State is
the March of God on Earth”.
5. (a) Socrates in his philosophy
claimed that Knowledge is best form
youth. As a result, many young people are
led astray by drugs and crime.
96. According to the passage, demo-
cracy cannot be sustained in a
country without:
(a) Economic Development
(b) Education and Skill Development
(c) Rural and Urban Development
(d) Technological Development
97. An empowered intellectual leader-
ship involve:
(a) Logical Intelligence
(b) Interpersonal Intelligence
(c) Multi Dimensional Intelligence
(d) Intra-personal Intelligence
98. According to the passage, in a
country economic development is
driven by:
(a) Human Labor
(b) Capital
of virtue and being virtuous means
being Knowledgeable. This philosophy
of Socrates became the cornerstone of
Plato’s Idea of Philosopher king.
6. (b) ‘Philosophy of History’ is one
of the most famous work of Hegel. The
central argument of this book is that
history is not material in nature but
derived by the ideas. One Idea give birth
to another ideas and this process keeps
on this give birth to History.
7. (a) David Easton was the
propounder of general system theory.
The System model have input, process,
output and feedback. This general system
theory became the base for multiple
comparative research in comparative
Politics.
8. (c) Article 123 of Indian Constitution
of India provide President the power
to Issue Ordinance to bring into effect
any law when any one of the two house
of Parliament is not in session. These
Ordinance have equal status to the laws
made by parliament. These ordinance
need to be approved by Parliament with
in 6 month.
85
(c) Infrastructure
(d) Knowledge and Innovations
99. The youth of India is being taught
to learn which of these dimensions
of intelligence?
1. Emotional and Social
2. Social and Moral
3. Spiritual
4. Environmental and Innovational
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
100. The 21st century education system
believes in imparting knowledge:
(a) In a gender biased way.
(b) In a gender neutral manner.
(c) On the basis of sex discrimination.
(d) On the preferences based on
genders.
9. (c) The correct match is:
   Book  Authors
(A) The Laws (2) Plato
(B) Prince (1) Machiavelli
(C) On Liberty (4) J.S Mill
(D) Theory of Justice (3) John Rawls
10. (a) The 73rd Amendment Act 1992
added a new Part IX to the Constitution
of India titled “the Panchayats” Covering
provisions from Article 243 to 243 (O)
and a new Eleventh Schedule Covering
29 subjects within the functions of the
Panchayats.
11. (b) Martin Seliger in his book
‘Ideology and Politics’ published in
1970 wrote that ‘a set of ideas by which
men posit, explain and justify the ends
and means of organized social action,
irrespective of whether such action aims
to preserve, amend, uproot or rebuild a
given social order’.
12. (b) ‘All Political Philosophers are
political theorists’ is a correct statement.’
All Political Theorists are not necessarily
Political Philosophers’ is also correct,
but it is not a reason behind the assertion.
 86
13. (c) Labour power is a key concept
used by Karl Marx in his critique of
capitalist political economy. Marx
distinguished between the capacity to do
work, labour power, from the physical
act of working, labour. Labour power
exists in any kind of society, but on
what terms it is traded or combined with
means of production to produce goods
and services has historically varied
greatly. Under capitalism, according to
Marx, the productive powers of labour
appear as the creative power of capital.
Indeed, “labour power at work” becomes
a component of capital, it functions as
working capital. Work becomes just
work, workers become an abstract labour
force, and the control over work becomes
mainly a management prerogative.
14. (d) The vision of Plato’s theory
was reaffirmed in the Utopia of Sir
Thomas More, City of the Sun of
Campanella, New Atlantis of Bacon.
15. (d) Aristotle strongly believed
and justified the institution of slavery.
He opined slaves as the possession of the
family or, in other words, was considered
the property of the master or the family.
He stated that slavery is natural and
beneficial to both the masters as well
as the slaves. Slaves are considered
necessary because they provide leisure
that was most essential for the welfare
of the state. Aristotle stated that slavery
benefited the slaves as well. Because by
being a slave, he would be able to share
the virtues of the master and elevate
himself.
16. (b) J.S Mill’s wife Harriet
Taylor help him in accommodation of
humanitarian ideas under the theory of
Utilitarianism. Mill provided a reformed
version of Utilitarianism which he
learned from Bentham.
17. (b) Hobbes’ felicity is a kind of
perpetual motion rather than a particular
static mental state or state of being. He
describes it as that which vanishes at the
attainment of a desire brought about by
means of the exercising of one’s power.
18. (b) Rousseau proclaimed the natural
goodness of man and believed that one
man by nature is just as good as any
other. For Rousseau, a man could be just
without virtue and good without effort.
According to Rousseau, man in the state
of nature was free, wise, and good and
the laws of nature were benevolent.
19. (a) A dominant theme of the Essay
is the question with which the original
discussion in Exeter House began: What
is the capacity of the human mind for
understanding and knowledge? In his
prefatory chapter, Locke explains that the
Essay is not offered as a contribution to
knowledge itself but as a means of clearing
away some of the intellectual rubbish that
stands in the way of knowledge. He had
in mind not only the medieval Scholastics
and their followers but also some of his
older contemporaries. Locke’s Essay
Concerning Human Understanding was
a refutation of Hobbes’ Leviathan which
considered human as a selfish being.
20. (c)Aurobindo Gosh believed that
the Politics of Society must be based on
two principles as ‘Treat others as self’
and ‘help the other persons in need’.
21. (b) At the time of the framing of
the constitution, Pandit Nehru remarked
that: “While we want this Constitution to
be as solid and as permanent a structure
as we can make it, nevertheless there is
no permanence in Constitutions. There
should be a certain flexibility. If you
make anything rigid and permanent, you
stop a nation’s growth, the growth of a
living, vital, organic people.”
22. (d) Article 21 of Indian Constitution
cannot be suspended during emergency
because it states that no person shall be
deprived of his life or personal liberty
except according to procedure state by
law. Article 20 safeguards certain right
of accused from conviction.
23. (a) Communist party of India
did not support the stand of socialist
party on world war II. They were also
critical of socialist party support to
quit India movement. Hence, the called
Jayaprakash Narain, Ram Manohar
Lohia and other Socialists as Japanese
agents during 1942 movement.
24. (b) Caste system was an epitome of
the traditional society, a ‘closed system’,
where generation after generation of
individuals did similar kinds of work
and lived more or less similar kinds of
lives. Caste system encapsulated within
it the features of a social structure and
Practice Set-7
normative religious behaviour, and even
provided a fairly comprehensive idea
about the personal lives of individuals
living in the Hindu Caste Society. Both
the statement are correct and informing
about the features of caste system in
India, the second statement is not an
explanation to the first one.
25. (d) It will be wrong to say that over
the years, the Supreme Court of India
has failed to demonstrate a commitment
to preserving constitutional liberty, and
expanding and protecting human rights.
The truth is that supreme Court has
played and continues to play a critical
role in shaping India’s constitutional
democracy far beyond that which the
drafters of the Constitution envisaged or
what courts in other countries play.
26. (b) In law, locus standi means the
right to bring an action, to be heard in
court, or to address the Court on a matter
before it. Locus standi is the ability of
a party to demonstrate to the court
sufficient connection to and harm from
the law or action challenged to support
that party’s participation in the case.
27. (d) Constitution 61st Amendment
Act, 1988 was enacted to reduce the voting
age from 21 years to 18 years. Keeping
in view of the literacy, enlightenment
and politically awareness among the
youth, the lowering of the voting age was
carried out by the amendment.
28. (c) The government of India act
1919 extended the principle of communal
representation by providing separate
electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians,
Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
29. (b) Union power committee and
union constitution committee were
headed by Nehru. Steering Committee
was headed by Rajendra Prasad.
Committee on Fundamental Rights and
Minorities and Provincial Constitution
Committee was headed by Sardar Patel.
30. (b) In Nationalist Thought and
the Colonial World (1986), Partha
Chatterjee argued that Indian nationalism
was to some extent derivative, but
it did not come to its central tenets,
represented for him in the thinking of
Jawaharlal Nehru, by a straight line.
‘Sometimes the shortest route between
two points is a crooked line’, he wrote.
Practice Set-7
Still, a hypersensitive Indian academic
public latched on to the subtitle of the
book, A Derivative Discourse?, ignored
the question mark, and were offended.
31. (d) Development administration
is a dynamic concept which brings about
socio-economic and politico-economic
changes in society. Aiming towards
development, it strives for change,
growth, progress and overall development
in every sphere of a country. It was first
introduced by Edward W. Weidner.
The following are the characteristics of
development administration:
• Change-oriented
• Result-oriented
• Client-oriented
• Citizen participation oriented
• Commitment to fulfill public
demands
• Concerned with innovation
• Administration of industrial
societies
• Effectiveness of coordination
32. (a) A domicile certificate not
only prove the residence status of a
person but also makes him eligible to
avail various benefits based on his or
her domicile such as education, job and
other benefits such as resident quotas in
the government service and educational
institutions. USA was the first country to
introduce domicile condition for public
administration servant job.
33. (a) The position minister of
Personnel, public grievance and pensions
considered to be a powerful one as of it
is the cadre controlling authority of the
Indian Administrative Service (IAS),
and is the administering agency of the
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
and the Public Enterprises Selection
Board (PESB).
34. (c) Re-appropriation, which
implies the transfer of funds from one
primary unit of appropriation to another
such unit within a grant, can be sanctioned
under formal orders of a competent
authority, only when it is known or
anticipated that the appropriation for the
unit from which funds are to be diverted.
35. (d) The advancement of an
employee within a company position or
job tasks. A job promotion may be the
result of an employee’s proactive pursuit
of a higher ranking or as a reward by
employers for good performance.
Typically is also associated with a higher
rate of pay or financial bonus.
36. (b) The onset of detente, the loss
of hegemonic status by the USA and the
growing awareness of environmental
problems sensitized social scientists.
The regimes are an important feature of
globalization. The multi polar world is
the present reality in the absence of an
absolute hegemone.
37. (c) In a journal article “The
Changing Nature of World Power”
Published in Political Science Quarterly
Joseph S. Nye wrote that “Power in
International Politics is like the weather.
Everyone talks about it, but few
understand it”.
38. (a)
(Reasons of failure) (States)
Tribal conflict - Somalia
Endless violence for - Liberia
nonpolitical purposes
Ethnic genocide - Rawada
Transnational war - Congo
39. (d) The phrase axis of evil was
first used by U.S. President George W.
Bush in his State of the Union address
on January 29, 2002, and often repeated
throughout his presidency, to describe
foreign governments that, during his
administration, sponsored terrorism and
sought weapons of mass destruction.
Axis of evil, expression used to describe
the bellicose tendencies of Iran, North
Korea, and Iraq in the early 21st century.
40. (c) The Peace building Commission
(PBC) was jointly established by the General
Assembly and the Security Council
in 2005 as a new intergovernmental
advisory body of the United Nations
that supported peace efforts in countries
emerging from conflict. Its aim is to
propose integrated strategies for post-
conflict peace building and recovery,
bring together all of the relevant actors
and marshal resources.
41. (c) The Regional Cooperation
Agreement on Combating Piracy
and Armed Robbery against Ships in
Asia (ReCAAP) is the first regional
87
government-to-government agreement
to promote and enhance cooperation
against piracy and armed robbery against
ships in Asia. The ReCAAP Agreement
was launched in November 2006 with14
Asian Contracting Parties including
North, Southeast, and South Asian
countries. It has 20 Contracting Parties
today, including Europe (Norway, the
Netherlands, Denmark, and the United
Kingdom), Australia, and the United
States.
42. (c) Sun Tuz wrote that “O divine
art of subtlety and secrecy! Through you
we learn to be invisible, through you
inaudible; and hence we can hold the
enemy’s fate in our hands.”
43. (b) The United Nations Monitoring,
Verification and Inspection Commission
(UNMOVIC) was created through the
adoption of Security Council resolution
1284 of 17 December 1999. UNMOVIC
was to replace the former UN Special
Commission (UNSCOM) and continue
with the latter’s mandate to disarm
Iraq of its weapons of mass destruction
(chemical, biological weapons and
missiles with a range of more than 150
km), and to operate a system of ongoing
monitoring and verification to check
Iraq’s compliance with its obligations not
to reacquire the same weapons prohibited
to it by the Security Council. The
Secretary-General of the United Nations
appointed Dr. Hans Blix of Sweden
to be the Commission’s Executive
Chairman. In addition, the Secretary-
General appointed 16 individuals to
serve on the College of Commissioners
of UNMOVIC, which provides advice
and guidance to the Chairman in the
execution of his duties.
44. (c) Madhya Pradesh lies at
the centre of India and it didn’t
share boundary with any of India’s
neighbouring countries.
45. (d) Mao’s idea of Communism is
different form Lenin, Marx and Engels
view. The Classical Marxism call for a
movement by Industrial working class.
But Mao’s China does not have enough
of industrial worker, so it emphasised on
the use of Peasantry for the Communist
revolution in China.
 88
46. (d) Richard Ashcraft was an
American political theorist and Professor
of Political Science. He did not believed
after studying the two treaties on
Commonwealth that the Locke was a
defender of the Glorious Revolution.
47. (b) Hobbes’s critique of
Aristotle consists of two main lines of
argument—one moral-political, the other
metaphysical—that ultimately prove to
be connected.
48. (d) Jacob Talmon Wrote a book
‘The Origin of Totalitarian Democracy’
In this text he basically criticised the Idea
of Rousseau for being totalitarian.
49. (d) Thomas Hobbes social contract
is mainly inclined to create an all mighty
Leviathan. He was concentrated in taking
rights from people through contract and
then giving power to the Leviathan. He
talked about the Absolute Sovereignty of
King over its subject.
50. (b)
(Marx’s writing) (Themes)
Paris Manuscripts - Alienation
Das Capital - Surplus
Value
18th Brumaire of - Relative
Louis Bonaparte Autonomy of
the state
Critique of the - Dictatorship
Gotha Programme of the
proletariat
51. (a) The theories of development
like behaviouralism basically originated
during the Cold War period and hence
they are don’t have universal acceptance.
Because they are considered as biased.
52. (a) Through the process if political
socialisation people gradually adjust
themselves with the political system.
“Political system” defines Almond “is
the process of induction into the political
culture. Its end product is a set of
attitudes—cognitions, value standards and
feelings —towards the political system,
its various roles and role incumbents”.
53. (a) Participatory culture, an opposing
concept to consumer culture, is a culture
in which private individuals (the public)
do not act as consumers only, but also as
contributors or producers (prosumers).
This kind of culture was found in
Erstwhile Communist regimes.
Practice Set-7
54. (b) Harold Lasswell in his book 60. (c) Gulick has given 4P formula
Politics: Who Gets What, When, How? regard with the establishment of
(1936) set out the perspective that, departments, universally. Purpose, process,
politics is about diversity and conflict, but person and place. According to him
the essential ingredient is the existence of the organisation made on the basis of
scarcity. purpose, process, person or place.
55. (a) Huntington in his book 61. (a)
‘Political order in Changing societies’ 62. (c) The Official Secrets Act was
Criticised the Modernisation theory for first enacted in 1923 and was retained
not taking into account the Presence after Independence. The law, applicable
to government servants and citizens,
of several competing value systems or
cultures in traditional society. provides the framework for dealing with
espionage, sedition, and other potential
56. (b)
threats to the integrity of the nation.
(State) (State Parties) Right to Information does not eliminate
Bihar - Lok Janshakti the office secrets act 1923.
Party 63. (c) Liberal Constitutionalism did not
West Bengal - Revolutionary support the principles of Majoritarianism.
Majoritarianism according to the
Socialist Party
are against the idea of Democracy.
Uttar Pradesh - Apna Dal
Liberal constitutionalism mainly
Haryana - Indian National propagates Toleration, Consent,
Lok Dal Individualism, Minority Rights, etc.
57. (c) Towards Equality was the title 64. (d) It is believed by various
of the report of the Committee on the scholars of Comparative Politics that the
Status of Women in India (1974–75). Its American Presidential system operates
authors included Vina Mazumdar, Lotika most successfully in comparison to
Sarkar, and Neera Dogra. Sushila Nayar other Presidential government all over
is not a member of this report. the world. The reason as claimed is
58. (b) the Minor Contradictions in American
(Type of (Name of society.
Pressure Pressure 65. (d) The House of Lords is the
Groups) Groups) second chamber of the UK Parliament.
It is independent from, and complements
Based on - Nair Service
the work of the elected House of
traditional social Society
Commons. The Lords shares the
structure
task of making and shaping laws and
Based on labour - Hind Mazdoor checking and challenging the work of the
interest Parishad government.
Based on - Delhi 66. (a) Both the statement are
institutional University correct and the reason statement is a
interest Teacher’s correct explanation behind the assertion
Association statement. The protection of human
Based on - Associated rights has significantly increased the
business interest Chamber of requirement on the side of judiciary
Commerce and to increase its power and domain over
Industry in the last one hundred years in liberal
India democracies.
59. (a) The correct chronological 67. (d) Max Weber distinguishes
order of the administrative thinkers is; three types of authority—charismatic,
traditional and legal-rational—each of
M.P Follet (1868–1933)
which corresponds to a brand of leadership
Willoughby (1867–1960) that is operative in contemporary society.
Robert Dahl ( 1915–2014) Beliefs and symbols are the distinctive
F. W Riggs (1917–2005) features of weber’s notion of authority.
Practice Set-7
68. (a) The interim government
of 1946 was initially headed by the
viceroy executive council. Jawaharlal
Nehru became the Vice-President of that
council and also the head of the interim
government.
69. (b) Certiorari is issued by a higher
court to a lower court or to any other
tribune. It can’t be issued by one bench
of the High Court to another bench of the
High Court.
70. (c) Continuing mandamus is a writ
issued by a court in an environmental case
directing any agency or instrumentality
of the government or officer thereof to
perform an act or series of acts decreed
by final judgment which shall remain
effective until judgment is fully satisfied.
This is issued by the supreme court in
Vineet Narain Vs. Union of India Case.
71. (d) Gyani Zail Singh, President
of India, exercised for the first time a
pocket veto to prevent the Indian Post
Office (Amendment) Bill from becoming
law. Pocket Veto give power to the
president to hold bill in his office of
indefinite period.
72. (a) Granville Austin in his book
‘Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a
nation’ while commenting on India’s
Federalism said “a new kind of federation
to meet India’s peculiar needs”.
73. (b) Punjab was the state where
Adi Ambedkar samaj occurred. This
movement was a religious movement in
Indianian aimed at bringing back Indian
culture and traditions which were being
washed away by the European culture
which they had brought along when they
had colonized Indian.
74. (b)
(Event) (Year)
Millennium Development - 2011
Goals Report
National Commission for - 1992
Women
Ministry of Women and - 2006
Child Development
National Mission for - 2010
Empowerment of Women
75. (a) Francine R. Frankel &
M.S.A. Rao together wrote a book
‘Dominance and State Power in Modern
India’. Through their work they gave a
significant contribution to theories of the
Interaction between social dominance
and state power in contemporary India.
76. (a) Justice B.P Jeevan Reddy
committee opposed the state funding of
Election in India considering the status
of Indian Economy and prevalence of
poverty in India.
77. (d) The Tribune is an Indian
English-language daily newspaper
published from Amritsar, Bathinda,
Chandigarh, New Delhi, Jalandhar and
Ludhiana. It was founded on 2 February
1881, in Lahore, by Sardar Dyal Singh
Majithia, a philanthropist, and is run by a
trust comprising five persons as trustees.
78. (d) The Managerial view of
Administration believes that adminis-
tration comprises of the work of only
those persons who are engaged in
performing managerial functions in an
organization. Luther Gulick, Herbert
Simon, Victor Thomson and Henry
Fayol belong to Managerial view of
Public Administration.
79. (a) Wildavsky was a scholar on
budgeting and budget theory. He is
associated with the idea of incrementalism
in budgeting. He defined budget as “a
series of goals with price tags attached.
80. (b) Peter A. Pyhrr developed
zero-based budgeting when he was a
controller at Texas Instruments between
1969 and 1971. Zero-based budgeting
starts from a “zero base” at the beginning
of every budget period, analyzing needs
and costs of every function within
an organization and allocating funds
accordingly, regardless of how much
money has previously been budgeted to
any given line item.
81. (a) The bureaucracy is categorised
into four types by Morstein Marx viz.,
Guardian Bureaucracy, Caste bureauc-
racy, Patronage Bureaucracy, and Merit
Bureaucracy.
82. (c) Mrs. Indira Gandhi, the then
Prime Minister, advocated the concept of
committed bureaucracy. She said only a
committed bureaucracy can bring about
the desired change.
83. (d) The primary object of an
adjournment motion is to draw the
attention of the House to a recent matter
of urgent public importance.
89
84. (a) The legislative origins of the
73rd and 74th constitutional amendments
date back to the Constitution (64th
Amendment) Bill, which was introduced
in the parliament in July 1989. The
introduction of this bill represented the
first attempt to confer constitutional
status on rural local governments.
85. (d)
86. (c) Balance of Power is an
equilibrium or a certain amount of
stability in power relations that under
favourable conditions is produced by an
alliance of states or by other devices.
Balance of Power can be attained by
amassing of weapons, by seizing of
territory or by creating of buffer states.
It can’t be attained by persuasion.
87. (c) NATO’s military intervention
in Kosovo is a highly controversial issue
due to its violation of the general rule in
international law that prohibits the use of
force, even in the case of a humanitarian
crisis. Both Russia and China criticised
NATO acting without UN approval.
88. (d) Along with Iraq’s alleged
development of weapons of mass
destruction, another justification for
invasion was the purported link between
Saddam Hussein’s government and
terrorist organizations, in particular
Al-Qaeda. In that sense, the Bush
Administration cast the Iraq war as part
of the broader War on Terrorism.
89. (a) Common but Differentiated
Responsibilities (CBDR) is a principle
within the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) that acknowledges the
different capabilities and differing
responsibilities of individual countries in
addressing climate change. It originated
after the dialogue between developed
and developing countries in the Kyoto
Protocol.
90. (b) In early August 2008, after
Georgian President Mikheil Saakashvili
sent troops into the rebellious province
of South Ossetia, Russia came to its
defense, beginning a five-day-long conflict.
The roots of the Russia-Georgia conflict
go back to the early 1990s, when
both Russia and Georgia were newly
independent nations after the dissolution
of the USSR. Civil war erupted within
 90
Georgia, located to the south of Russia
on the eastern shore of the Black Sea,
when two provinces—South Ossetia in
eastern Georgia, and Abkhazia, on the
northwestern coast—sought to declare
their own independence.
91. (b) The most famous work of John
Rawls was published in year 1971. In
this book Rawls addresses the problem
of distributive Justice.
92. (c) The first principle guarantees
the right of each person to have the most
extensive basic liberty compatible with
the liberty of others. The second principle
states that social and economic positions
are to be a) to everyone’s advantage and
b) open to all.
93. (c) Tabula rasa (“blank slate”) is
the notion that individual human beings
are born “blank” (with no built-in mental
content), and that their identity is defined
entirely by events after birth. The notion
is central to Lockean empiricism.
94. (d) John Rawls theory of justice
is destined to create a political system,
which can ensure societal and economic
justice in a society. His idea is mainly
related to the view of Social-Democratic.
95. (d) John Rawls in his theory of
justice used the concept of original
Position, Veil of Ignorance and the
difference Principle to ensure that the
justice model created by his theory is
Unbiased in Nature.
96. (b) The passage clearly mentions
that the democracy cannot be sustained
in a country without education and skill
development.
97. (c) It is clearly stated in the passage
that in a democratic country the leadership
should be intellectually empowered by a
multi-dimensional intelligence.
Practice Set-7
98. (d) The first paragraph clearly
states that the world view of economic
development has completely changed:
it is no longer believed to be driven by
human labor, as Karl Marx said, or by
capital, as Alfred Marshall stated, but is
knowledge-driven.
99. (d) It has been clearly mentioned in
the second paragraph that India’s educa-
tional campuses today aims to develop
the other dimensions of intelligence
in youth which are: emotional, social,
moral, spiritual, environmental, and
innovational.
100. (b) It has been clearly mentioned
in the last line of the first paragraph
that knowledge is gender neutral, and
hence the 21st century offers a great
opportunity to level the gender inequity
of the last thousand years in India.
qqq
Practice Set-8 91

UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Practice Set-8
1. Who among the following is (a) David Easton  List-I List-II
considered as the father of Modern (b) Lucian Pye A. On Liberty 1. Amartya Sen
Political thought? (c) Gabrieal Almond
B. Lectures on 2. T.H. Green
(a) Hobbes (b) Locke (d) A.G Frank the Principles
(c) Rousseau (d) Machiavelli 8. Sawarn Singh committee was of Political
2. Who among the following in the constituted by Indira Gandhi for Obligation
admiration of Plato said that “Plato (a) Fundamental Right C. Idea of 3. Robert Nozick
is Philosophy and Philosophy is (b) Fundamental Duties Justice
Plato”. (c) Directive Principles D. Anarchy, 4. J.S. Mill
(a) R.W Emerson (d) Emergency Provisions State and
(b) T.H. Green 9. Public Administration phase of Utopia
(c) Robert Dhal “Principles of Administration” lies Codes:
(d) Sabine between A B C D
3. In Republic Plato defined Justice (a) 1927–1937 (a) 3 1 2 4
as (b) 1938–1948 (b) 1 3 2 4
(a) Distributive in nature (c) 1949–1959 (c) 2 4 3 1
(b) Participatory in nature (d) None of the Above (d) 4 2 1 3
(c) Legal in nature 10. Digital India Initiative by Govern- 13. Which one among the following is
(d) None of these ment has objective to not written by M.N. Roy?
4. Which Prime Minister of India (a) To transform the country into a (a) The Future of Indian Politics
has proposed the idea of showing digitally empowered society
(b) Gandhism, Nationalism and
benevolence towards neighbour (b) Availability of government
Socialism
countries? services to citizen electronically
(c) New Humanism
(a) Narendra Modi (c) Both A&B
(d) Nationalism, Rationality and
(d) None of the above
(b) Manmohan Singh Revolution
11. Arrange the following works of
(c) I.K. Gujral 14. Who among the following has
Rousseau chronologically, using
(d) P.V. Narshimha Rao compared fortune with a woman?
the codes given below:
5. Which among the following is (a) M.N. Roy
A. The Social Contract
considered as the historical cause (b) Rousseau
B. A Discourse on the Arts and
behind World war 2? Sciences (c) Hobbes
(a) Oil Crises C. Emile (d) Machiavelli
(b) Treaty of Versailles D. A Discourse on the Origin of 15. Which one among the following is
(c) Great Depression Inequality not a work about alienation?
(d) None of these Codes: (a) Paris Manuscripts
6. Bharat Ratna was given to Rajiv (a) D, C, B, A (b) Theses on Feuerbach
Gandhi by Government of India in (b) A, C, D, B (c) Poverty of Philosophy
(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) C, A, B, D (d) The German Ideology
(c) 1992 (d) 1993 (d) B, D, C, A 16. Who among the following presents
7. Structural functional approach 12. Match List-I with List-II and select a ‘flow model’ of political system?
of Political Development was the correct answer from the codes (a) Gabriel Almond
formulated by given below: (b) David Easton
 92
(c) Morton Kaplan
(d) Oran Young
17. Almond borrowed most of the
terminology of his approach from
(a) Robert K. Merton
(b) Talcott Parsons
(c) Malinowski
(d) Arthur Bentley
18. Who among the following atta-
ched great importance to a
balance between the principles of
equality and capacity in political
development?
(a) Lucian Pye (b) Huntington
(c) Fred Riggs (d) Danil Lerner
19. The Preamble of the Constitution
of India enshrines the ideals of
liberty, equality and fraternity–
ideals mainly inspired by the
(a) Russian Revolution
(b) Irish Revolution
(c) French Revolution
(d) Cultural Revolution
20. Which of the following Articles
were not part of the original
Constitution of India?
(i) Art. 52A (ii) Art. 51A
(iii) Art. 14 (iv) Art. 300A
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
21. Who among the following former
Presidents of India kept the ‘Indian
Post Office Amendment Bill’
pending?
(a) Zakir Hussain
(b) V.V. Giri
(c) Zail Singh
(d) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma
22. Who said ‘All Communalism is
harmful’? The logic of minority
Communalism is separatism, and
majority communalism culminates
in Fascism?
(a) Bhikhu Parekh
(b) T.N. Madan
(c) Bipin Chandra
(d) Ashish Nandy
23. Who emphasized the emergence of
“a market polity” in India?
(a) Stanley A. Kochanek
(b) James Manor
(c) Morris-Jones
(d) Paul Brass
24. The most logical criterion to
distinguish a line function from
staff is
(a) the functional relationship
(b) the authority relationship
(c) the grouping of functions
(d) the departmentalization
25. Central Vigilance Commission was
set up on the recommendations of
(a) First Administrative Reforms
Commission
(b) Gorwala Committee Report
(c) Kripalani Committee Report
(d) Santhanam Committee Report
26. The Lokpal and Lokayukta Bill
1968 passed by the Lok Sabha
lapsed because
(a) Rajya Sabha rejected the Bill
(b) President withheld the Bill
(c) Joint Committee of the two
Houses rejected the Bill
(d) of early Dissolution of Fourth
Lok Sabha
27. Which one of the following is not
correct about Association of South
East Asian Nations (ASEAN)?
(a) First India ASEAN Summit was
held in November, 2002.
(b) ASEAN declared South East
Asian Nuclear Weapon free zone
in 1995.
(c) ASEAN is working to remove
trade barriers and develop
economic relationship with
China, Japan and South Korea.
(d) India became full dialogue
partner of ASEAN in 1991.
28. Who among the following used
the phrase – The United Nations is
‘sharing in the name of solidarity’
for underlining the necessity of the
U.N.?
Practice Set-8
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) Dag Hammarskjold
(c) Trygve Lie
(d) Woodrow Wilson
29. Which one of the following was
not included in the minimum
criteria for ensuring good national
governance by Nayef Al-Rodhan in
his book ‘Sustainable History and
Dignity of Man’?
(a) Equity and Inclusiveness
(b) Rule of Law
(c) A system of checks and balances
(d) Transparency
30. Regarding the liability of holders of
public office, when an official fails
to perform a legal duty, it is known
as
(a) Malfeasance
(b) Nonfeasance
(c) Disfeasance
(d) Misfeasance
31. Ombudsman in Sweden can take
the following actions:
1. Can act against the judiciary
2. Can act on individual complaints
3. Can act against members of
Parliament
4. Can act suo moto
Choose the correct answer from the
code below:
Codes:
(a) 2, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3
(d) 2, 4
32. Which one of the following was not
a substitute of Merit System found
earlier?
(a) Exchange System
(b) Spoils System
(c) Sale of Offices
(d) Patronage System
33. What is the bill called that contains
all the demands voted by the Lok
Sabha and the consolidated fund
charges?
(a) The Appropriation Bill
(b) Voting of Demands Bill
Practice Set-8
(c) Fiscal Policy Bill
(d) The Finance Bill
34. Money received by the government
of India under the State Provident
Fund is credited to
(a) Consolidated Fund
(b) Treasury
(c) Public Account
(d) Contingency Fund
35. In India, ‘Collegium System’ was
first introduced in relation to
(a) Executive
(b) Legislature
(c) Judiciary
(d) Union-State Relations
36. Which one of the following does not
qualify for curtailing the freedom
of speech and expression under
Indian Constitution?
(a) Security of the state
(b) Public order, decency, morality
(c) Demand for autonomy
(d) Contempt of Court
37. Khilafat Movement in India was
started to show solidarity with the
Sultan of
(a) Saudi Arabia (b) Turkey
(c) Iran (d) Iraq
38. Which one of the following writs is
issued against an inferior tribunal
which has declined to exercise its
jurisdiction?
(a) Certiorari
(b) Prohibition
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Mandamus
39. Who of the following advocated
economic theory of democracy?
(a) J. Lively
(b) C.B. Macpherson
(c) Anthony Downs
(d) D. Held
40. Comparative politics as an autono-
mous discipline emerged
(a) in the 1970s
(b) in the 1960s
(c) in the 1950s
(d) in the 1930s
41. Who of the following said “Lenin’s
party was designed to be an elite,
a minority chosen for intellectual
and moral superiority, the most
advanced part of the working class
and so its vanguard”.?
(a) C.B. MacPherson
(b) D. McLellan
(c) G.H. Sabine
(d) R. Miliband
42. Nocturnal Council finds a mention
in Plato’s
(a) The Republic
(b) The Statesman
(c) The Laws
(d) None of the above
43. Who of the following is of the view
that it is not Gandhi who made
Satyagraha but it is Satyagraha
which made Gandhi the Mahatma?
(a) R.R. Diwakar
(b) C.F. Andrews
(c) G.N. Dhawan
(d) Louis Fisher
44. In which of the following countries
Narendranath Bhattacharya settled
under the name of Manabendra
Nath Roy?
(a) Java
(b) United States of America
(c) Germany
(d) Mexico
45. Who of the following said that God
had appeared to him in prison,
placed the Gita in his hands and
made him realize the simple truths
of the Sanatana Dharma?
(a) Vivekananda
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Aurobindo Ghose
(d) Savarkar
46. Comparative Politics is the study
of
(a) institutions and functions
(b) all forms of political activity-
governmental as well as non-
governmental and all political
phenomena
93
(c) political processes
(d) t e c h n i q u e s a n d t o o l s o f
comparative inquiry
47. What is the correct sequence in
which the following approaches to
the study of ‘Comparative Politics’
emerged?
1. Philosophical Approach
2. Systems Approach
3. New Institutional Approach
4. Behavioural Approach
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(b) 1, 4, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 3
(d) 3, 1, 2 and 4
48. Identify the correct sequence of the
following input functions and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
1. Interest-aggregation
2. Interest-articulation
3. Political communication
4. Political socialization and
recruitment
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 3
(c) 2, 1, 4 and 3
(d) 4, 2, 1 and 3
49. The sociologists who influenced
Gabriel Almond in his structural
functionalism were
1. Max Weber
2. Talcott Parsons
3. David Truman
4. Karl Deutsch
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
50. Which of the following statements
about the Vice-President of India
and Vice-President of America are
true?
1. Both the Vice-Presidents are
elected.
2. Both of them are the presiding
officers of their respective upper
Houses.
 94
3. Both the Vice-Presidents are not
the members of their respective
Houses.
4. Both of them do not have a
casting vote in case of a tie.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
51. Globalization signifies which of the
following:
(a) Time-space compression
(b) The integration of the world
economy
(c) The growth of supra-territorial
relations between people
(d) All the above
52. Who said the following “In crucial
situations, however the ultimate
concern of states is not for power
but for security”?
(a) Thomas Schelling
(b) Kenneth Waltz
(c) Barry Buzan
(d) John Mearshemier
53. Institutionalist approach of interna-
tional political economy draws on
theories from
(a) Incentive structures
(b) Delegation and agency
(c) Historical factors
(d) Sociological factors
54. Who has proposed a three tiered
conception of international
law based on Moravsik’s new
liberalism?
(a) M. Byers
(b) A.M. Slaughter
(c) Koskenniemi
(d) A. Guzman
55. Identify the correct sequence of the
process as recommended by the
seminal report, ‘An Agenda for
Peace’ (1992)
(i) Peace keeping
(ii) Preventive diplomacy
(iii) Peace building
(iv) Peace making
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(d) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
56. Who said that ‘the United States
is not simply a superpower; it is a
hyper power’?
(a) Hubart Vedrine
(b) Robert Gates
(c) Richard Haas
(d) Paul Kennedy
57. Bay of pigs is associated with which
crisis during the cold war?
(a) Cuban Missile
(b) Hungary
(c) Korea
(d) Suez Canal
58. Black widows are women terrorists.
To which country do they belongs?
(a) Palestine (b) Chechenya
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Lebanon
59. Chronologically arrange the
following treaties on environment
in the correct ascending order,
(i) UN Law of the Sea
(ii) Kyoto Protocol
(iii) Antarctic Treaty
(iv) Cartogena protocol on Biosafety
Codes:
(a) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(c) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
60. India’s tryst with Asia was enunciated
in the vision of engagement which
was articulated by:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
61. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): For behaviouralists,
it was better to be wrong than vague.
Practice Set-8
Reason (R): It was better to be vague
than non-relevantly precise.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
62. Who said, “Each person possesses
an inviolability founded on justice
that even the welfare of society as
a whole cannot override”?
(a) John Rawls
(b) Robert Nozick
(c) Friedrich Hayek
(d) Habermas
63. Who was the founder of Utilita-
rianism?
(a) Bentham (b) James Mill
(c) David Hume (d) Priestley
64. Which one of the following writings
is not written by Mao?
(a) On New Democracy
(b) On Coalition Government
(c) People’s War
(d) O n P e o p l e ’ s D e m o c r a t i c
Dictatorship
65. Why did Gandhiji go to South
Africa?
(a) On invitation by the Indians in
South Africa.
(b) To study Bar-at-Law.
(c) To fight a case of a Gujarati
Businessman.
(d) To visit South Africa with
family.
66. Who founded the ‘Mexican Socialist
Workers’ Party’ which was later
named as ‘Mexican Communist
Party’?
(a) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) M.N. Roy
(d) Lenin
67. Whom did Lord Minto describe as
the most ‘dangerous man’?
(a) B.G. Tilak
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh
Practice Set-8
(c) Gandhiji
(d) Sardar Patel
68. Arrange in ascending order
the following stages of Political
Development as enunciated by
A.F.K. Organski.
Select the correct answer from
codes given below:
(i) Primitive National Unification
(ii) Abundance
(iii) Industrialisation
(iv) National Welfare
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(d) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
69. Who among the following talks of
pseudo-pressure groups?
(a) Jean Blondel
(b) Almond
(c) Maurice Duverger
(d) V.O. Key
70. Who among the following classified
parties under competitive system
into two major categories?
(i) Turnover and Hegemonic
(ii) Ideological and Pragmatic
(a) Myron Weiner and Lapalombara
(b) G.A. Almond and Verba
(c) Neil A. Mcdonald
(d) Peter H. Merkel
71. What is the percentage fixed by the
constitution regarding the strength
of the Ministers including the chief
minister in a state?
(a) 10% (b) 12%
(c) 15% (d) 16%
72. Which one of the following is
mainly associated with Panchayati
Raj in tribal areas?
(a) P.K. Thungan committee
(b) Dilip Singh Bhuria committee
(c) Sadiq Ali committee
(d) Doomarlal Baitha committee
73. Arrange the following writs in the
correct sequence as given in the
Indian Constitution:
(i) Certiorari
(ii) Habeas Corpus
(iii) Quo Warranto
(iv) Prohibition
(v) Mandamus
Codes:
(a) (i), (iii), (v), (ii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i), (v)
(c) (ii), (v), (iv), (i), (iii)
(d) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
74. Arrange the following in their
chronological sequence:
(i) Cripps Mission
(ii) Montague Chelmsford Report
(iii) Simon Commission
(iv) Morley–Minto Reforms
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(b) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(c) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
75. Which one of the following
was denounced by congress as
“inadequate, unsatisfactory and
disappointing”?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Montague Chelmsford Report,
1918
(c) Simon commission Report, 1930
(d) Communal Award, 1932
76. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): A federal arrangement
aims at reconciling freedom with
unity and diversity of political
cultures and identities with effective
collective action.
Reason (R): India opted for a
pluralistic model of nation building.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is not
correct.
(d) (R) is correct, but (A) is not
correct.
95
77. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Bulk of the provisions
of the constitution of India were
adopted from the Government of
India Act of 1935.
Reason (R): The congress party
passed a resolution adopting the
government of India Act of 1935 as
the basis of the constitution.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
78. Max Weber used the Greek word
‘Charisma’ to refer to
1. qualities acquired by experience
2. inherited qualities
3. supernatural qualities
4. super human qualities
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
79. Which one of the following is not a
base of organization?
(a) Function (b) Budgeting
(c) Process (d) Clientele
80. Which of the following statement
is not correct in respect of India?
(a) Tax can be levied except by
authority of law
(b) No expenditure can be incurred
from public funds except in
the manner provided in the
constitution and in accordance
with law
(c) Executive is bound to spend
money in the manner as
sanctioned by parliament
(d) None of the above
 96
81. Which of the following are the
characteristics of development
administration?
1. Change-orientation
2. Client orientation
3. Citizen-participative orientation
4. Ecological perspective
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
82. Domicile qualification for public
services was first prescribed by
(a) The United States of America
(b) U.K.
(c) India
(d) France
83. Which one of the following is the
Cadre-controlling authority for the
Indian Police Service?
(a) The Ministry of Personnel,
Public Grievances and Pensions
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
(d) Cabinet Secretary
84. The process of transferring funds
from one budget head to another of
the same department where there
is a need for more expenditure is
called
(a) transfer
(b) re-allocation
(c) re-appropriation
(d) sectoral allocation
85. Promotion generally means
1. Change in position
2. Change in duties
3. Change in title
4. Change in pay
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
86. Which of the following statements
are correct?
1. Panchayati Raj is mentioned in
the Constitution as a Directive
Principle.
2. Sadiq Ali Committee was
appointed to report on the
working of the Panchayat system
in India.
3. G.V.K. Rao Committee was
appointed by the Planning
Commission.
4. Local Government figures in
State List.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
87. Who among the following has
termed bureaucracy as “an
organization that cannot correct
its behaviour by learning from its
errors”?
(a) R.K. Merton
(b) M. Crozer
(c) Max Weber
(d) C.N. Parkinson
88. W h o i s t h e C h a i r p e r s o n o f
the National Council of Joint
Consultative Machinery (JCM)?
(a) Cabinet Secretary
(b) Secretary for Home Affairs
(c) Personnel Secretary
(d) Finance Secretary
89. Of all the controls over Public
Administration the one which is
more continuous and self-corrective
is
(a) controlled by the Legislature
(b) controlled by the Executive
(c) controlled by the Judiciary
(d) controlled by the Media
90. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A few years back,the
Government of India started what is
known as “filejumping experiment”.
Reason (R): Hierarchical structure
causes inordinate delay in the disposal
of work.
Practice Set-8
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Read the passage and answer the
following five Questions:
In a big step towards resolution of
bad loans, Indian Banks, Reserve Bank
of India and the Union Finance Ministry
are discussing setting up two special funds
to resurrect troubled investments through
equity infusion or more debt funds. The
two funds proposed are Stressed Assets
Equity Fund and Stressed Assets Lending
Fund. “Creation of separate funds for
resolution of stressed assets is being
worked out. Indian Banks’ Association
(IBA) is finalizing the road map,” adding
the corpus of these two funds will be
fluid and will take case-specific action.
According to RBI data, the stressed
assets ratio for the banking sector, which
includes gross non-performing assets
(NPAs), increased to 14.5% at the end
of December 2015 as against 9.8% at
the end of March 2012. State-run banks
have the highest share in stressed loans.
Their gross NPAs or bad loans alone
rose from Rs 2.67 lakh crore in March
2015 to Rs 3.61 lakh crore in December.
A senior official with IBA said that the
stressed assets equity fund (SAEF) will
invest in equity of stressed borrower
bringing equity to burdened projects. “It
may take controlling stake either directly
or through strategic debt restructuring
scheme (SDR),” he said.
The other fund named stressed assets
lending fund (SALF) will provide last
mile funding or working capital funding
to assets in trouble because of funding
constraints. “An oversight committee will
be formed to look into cases where these
funds will invest. Discussions are on to
work out the modalities,” said the above
quoted government official. Earlier this
month, RBI had come out with a scheme
for sustainable structuring of stressed
Practice Set-8
assets, also termed as S4A, to strengthen
the lenders’ ability to deal with stressed
assets and provide an avenue for reworking
the financial structure of entities facing
genuine difficulties. “The S4A envisages
determination of the sustainable debt level
for a stressed borrower and bifurcation of
the outstanding debt into sustainable debt
and equity/quasi-equity instruments which
are expected to provide upside to the
lenders when the borrower turns around,”
the RBI had noted in a statement.
91. Which of the following funds
is build to resurrect troubled
investments through debt funds?
(a) SAEF (b) SEAF
(c) SALF (d) SLAF
92. What are Non-Performing Assets
(NPAs)?
(a) Assets of the banks which bring
in cash.
(b) Assets of the banks which don’t
bring any return.
(c) Movable assets of the bank.
(d) Immovable assets of the bank.
93. Which of the following statement is
incorrect according to the passage?
(a) Gross NPAs rose from Rs 2.67
lakh crore in March 2015 to Rs
3.61 lakh crore in December
2015.
(b) Gross non-performing assets
(NPAs) were 14.5% in December
2015.
(c) Gross non-performing assets
(NPAs) were 9.8% in March
2012.
(d) Gross non-performing assets
(NPAs) were 14.5% in March
2012.
94. Stressed Assets Lending Fund
(SALF) will provide:
(a) Equity Capital Fund
(b) Fixed Capital Fund
(c) Working Capital Fund
(d) Long-term Capital Fund
95. The objective of the scheme S4A is:
(a) To strengthen the lenders’ ability
to deal with stressed assets.
(b) To provide an avenue for
reworking the financial structure
of entities facing genuine
difficulties.
(c) Sustainable structuring of
stressed assets
(d) All of the above
Read the passage and answer the
following five Questions:
The NDA government’s Black
Money Act may have so far managed to
scoop up just the surface of the potentially
retrievable unaccounted income. But the
rhythm to unearth more illegal income
seems to have been set. The CBI searches
in State-run Bank of Baroda branches for
` 6,100-crore suspected black money
transfer is perhaps the first major and
concrete action against the ‘black sheep’
in years. Hopefully, the investigating
agency and the special investigation team
on black money will take this forward.
The one-time compliance window for
the declaration of foreign assets and
income under the Black Money Act,
which closed on September 30, saw just
638 declarations aggregating to ` 3,770
crore. Union Finance Minister Arun
Jaitley was quick to warn those who did
not declare unaccounted income to face
the “consequences.” The CBI raid comes
just a few days after Jaitley’s warning and
if his categorical statement that bulk of the
black money is within India is anything to
go by, more such raids can be expected.
The Act is one of the crucial
components of economic reforms
announced last year and there’s an
urgent need to step up efforts to retrieve
stashed income, both within the country
and abroad. With investor appetite losing
sheen, economic growth slowing down
and with India moving nowhere as far
as its ease of doing business rank is
concerned, the government is in a tight
spot to act and now. Stringent norms on
undisclosed income imply the country is
not a ‘safe haven’ and will strengthen the
moral fiber of our society. Importantly,
income recovered from such sources
is crucial for the government to steer
its social programmes and fund public
97
expenditure at a time when the country’s
direct and indirect tax collections are
below target. The Act can also be used
to clean up the mess broiling at our
public sector banks that are reeling under
severe stressed assets and low recoveries.
Traditionally, stock markets too are
often used to circulate black money. Be
it via Participatory Notes, which allow
investors to invest without having to
register themselves, or channeling funds
through tax havens like Mauritius or
Singapore. While continuing to crack the
whip on banks to trace the illicit money
flow, the government should also focus
on the markets.
96. According to the passage the Black
Money Act is for:
(a) Financing the black money
(b) Retrieving the black money
(c) Saving the black money
(d) Covering the black money
97. Which compliance rule helped in
unearthing the black money?
(a) Declaration of expenditure
(b) Declaration of income
(c) Declaration of assets
(d) Declaration of foreign assets and
income
98. According to the passage, the Black
Money Act is an important part of:
(a) Infrastructure Development
(b) Technological Development
(c) Inflation Control
(d) Economic Reforms
99. According to the passage, which one
of the following is the consequence
of increasing black money in India?
(a) Higher economic growth
(b) Slower economic growth
(c) Increase in investments
(d) International players opening
new business in India
100. According to the passage, the fund
collected through Black Money Act
can be used for?
(a) Fund Public Expenditure
(b) Fund Private Expenditure
(c) Fund Public Income
(d) Fund Private Income
 98
Answers with Explanations
1. (d) Machiavelli is considered as
the father of Modern Political thought as
he was the first to proposed the concept
modern states ruled by Monarchy. He
belong to the age of renaissance and
broke the dominance of church over the
statecraft.
2. (a) R.W Emerson was one of the
most famous admirer of Plato’s Political
Philosophy. He tributed Plato's work by
saying that “Plato is Philosophy, And
philosophy is Plato”.
3. (d) Plato’s concept of Justice is the
central pillar of his political philosophy.
He in his famous work ‘Republic’
through a dialogue method described
justice as attainment of a ideal state under
which every men will be at a place which
is determined by his virtue.
4. (c) I. K. Gujral proposed a foreign
policy concept to improve India’s strength
in Indian subcontinent by following a big
brother or responsible brother policy by
India. Gujral doctrine proposes that India
while dealing with its small neighbouring
country should try to formulate policy
that more beneficial to its neighbour.
5. (b) The Treaty of Versailles ended
World War I, but it was so unfair towards
the defeated countries that it inspired the
countries like Germany to revenge it
back. Many scholars believes that the
Treaty of Versailles itself sown the seed
for World War 2.
6. (b) In 1991 Government of India
postumously awarded Rajiv Gandhi the
highest owner of the Nation ‘Bharat
Ratna.’ He was killed by some member
of LTTE terrorist organisation.
7. (c) Almond did a comparative
study of Political development by
using Structural Functional approach.
He basically argued that the political
development in any country is determined
by the structure of its cultural institution.
8. (d) The Sawarn Singh commiittee
was instituted during emergency by
Indira Gandhi. The committee proposed
multiple recommendation as fundamental
duties of Indian. On the basis of these
recommendation 11 fundamental duties
are included under article 51A by an
42nd Amendment Act.
9. (a) There are five stages of evolution
of Public Administration as a discipline:
Phase 1– Politics Administration dicho-
tomy (1887–1926),
Phase 2– Principles of administration
(1927–1937),
Phase 3–  Era of Challenges (1938–
1947),
Phase 4–  Crises of Identity (1948–
1970) and
Phase 5– Public Policy Perspective
(1971–Present).
10. (c) Digital India Initiative by
Government has objective to transform
the country into a digitally empowered
society and it also need to ensure
availability of government services to
citizen electronically.
11. (d) In 1742, Rousseau entered
an essay competition sponsored by the
Academie de Dijon. The question asked
whether the development of the arts
and sciences had a positive effect on
morals. Rousseau won the competition,
and his essay, “Discourse on the Arts
and Sciences,” garnered him significant
respect and fame. In 1755, he finished
his second major work, Discourse on the
Origin and Basis of Inequality Among
Men. The Emile, and his major work
on political philosophy, The Social
Contract: both published in 1762.
12. (d) On Liberty is a philosophical
essay by the English philosopher John
Stuart Mill. Published in 1859, it applies
Mill’s ethical system of utilitarianism to
society and state. The phrase “political
obligation” is apparently no older than T.
H. Green’s Lectures on the Principles of
Political Obligation, delivered at Oxford
University in 1879–80. The Idea of
Justice is a 2009 book by the economist
Amartya Sen. The work is a critique
and revision of John Rawls’s ideas in
A Theory of Justice (1971). Anarchy,
State, and Utopia is a 1974 book by the
American political philosopher Robert
Nozick.
Practice Set-8
13. (a) The book ‘The Future of Indian
Politics’ is written by Annie Besant.
14. (d) Niccolò Machiavelli, in his
book The Prince said that “For my part I
consider that it is better to be adventurous
than cautious, because fortune is a
woman, and if you wish to keep her
under it is necessary to beat and ill-use
her; and it is seen that she allows herself
to be mastered by the adventurous rather
than by those who go to work more
coldly.”
15. (c) The Poverty of Philosophy
is a book by Karl Marx published in
Paris and Brussels in 1847, where he
lived in exile from 1843 until 1849. The
book, formally titled The Poverty of
Philosophy: Answer to the Philosophy of
Poverty by M. Proudhon.
16. (b) The Flow Model of Political
system is given by David Easton in his
System theory.
Environment Environment
OUTPUTS
Demands
INPUTS
POLITICAL Decisions
SYSTEM and Policies
Supports
Environment Environment
17. (b) Almond borrowed most of the
terminology of his approach from Talcott
Parsons. He also included Parson’s vision
to set out his structural functionalism.
18. (c) Fred Riggs is known for
his works in Comparative Public
Administration, especially his Riggsian
Model. Fred Riggs is the father of
Comparative Public Administration.
In 1962 Fred Riggs in his article
“Trends in comparative study of Public
Administration”.
19. (c) French slogan of “Liberty,
Equality and Fraternity” as an ideal has
been borrowed from French Revolution
to Indian constitution.
20. (d) Article 51A of the Indian
Constitution deals with Fundamental
Duties. As of now, there are 11
Fundamental duties. Originally, the
Practice Set-8
Constitution of India did not contain
these duties. Fundamental duties were
added by 42nd and 86th Constitutional
Amendment acts. Earlier Right to
property was part of fundamental rights
but in 1977 it was shifted to Article
300A.
21. (c) Zail Singh, President of India
from 1982 until 1987, exercised a pocket
veto to prevent the Indian Post Office
(Amendment) Bill from becoming law.
22. (c) Bipin Chandra made this
observation to the nature of communalism.
He tried to establish that communalism
leads to multiple discrepancy in a social
order.
23. (c) In the words of Morris Jones,
outcome of elections indicated the
emergence of ‘market polity.’ By this, it
meant, a system in which large number
of decisions are taken by a substantial
number of participants, who stand in
both positions, being dependent on with
each other as well as in conflicts. The
decisions in this alliance are reached by
a process of bargaining, where no one is
strong enough to impose his decisions.
24. (b) Line and staff functions
indicate the pattern of distribution of
authority in an organization. Simply
stated, authority is the right to act.
According to Koontz and others (1984),
Authority in an organization is the power
in a position to exercise discretion in
making decisions affecting others.
25. (d) The Central Vigilance Com-
mission was set up by the Government in
February,1964 on the recommendations
of the Committee on Prevention
of Corruption, headed by Shri K.
Santhanam, to advise and guide Central
Government agencies in the field of
vigilance.
26. (d) The bill was first brought
before the fourth Lok Sabha in 1968 and
passed in 1969. However, the House was
dissolved, resulting in the first death of
the bill.
27. (d) India became an ASEAN
Sectoral Dialogue Partner in 1992, a full
ASEAN Dialogue Partner in 1995, and
participated in the East Asia Summits
(EAS) from 2005.
28. (b) Dag Hammarskjold defined
Unite nation as the “Sharing in the name
of solidarity’. By this statement he tried
to elaborate the utility of United Nation.
29. (c) Sustainable History and the
Dignity of Man is a new philosophy
of history. This volume outlines how
sustainable history is propelled by
good governance, which balances the
tension between the attributes. In this
book Nayef Al-Rodhan mentioned some
minimum criteria for ensuring good
national governance. The criteria are
Equity and Inclusiveness, Rule of Law
and Transparency. A system of check
and balance is not considered by him as
minimum criteria.
30. (b) Nonfeasance is a legal concept
that refers to the willful failure to execute
or perform an act or duty required by
one’s position, office, or law, whereby
that neglect results in harm or damage
to a person or property. The perpetrator
can be found liable and subject to
prosecution.
31. (b) The powers of the Parliamentary
Ombudsman are to supervise the observance
of laws by judges, government officials
and other civil servants employees and
to advise or prosecute officials who have
acted illegally or have neglected their
duties. He is not empowered to against
the member of parliament.
32. (a) In Exchange system the jobs
are exchanged of officials. It is not a
substitute for merit system.
33. (a) Appropriation is the process of
setting aside the money for a particular
purpose or expenditure. As per Article
114 of the constitution of India, no amount
can be withdrawn from the consolidated
fund of India without authorisation from
the parliament of India or legislature
of the states. The Appropriation Bill is
passed by the Parliament/state legislature
and then it is presented to the President/
Governor after budgetary estimates are
approved every year. It becomes an act
after the assent by the President/governor
to the bill.
34. (c) The Public Account of India
was constituted by Article 266(2)of the
Indian Constitution. It deals with the
money received by the government,
i.e. state provident funds, various pre-
99
deposits under income tax, depreciation
and reserve funds of departmental
undertakings are paid into public
accounts.
35. (c) Demand for autonomy is a
democratic right and not qualify for
curtailing the freedom of speech and
expression under Indian constitution.
36. (c) Yes, Its true that the transfor-
mation of the party system in India has
centralized power at tier two of the
government, namely at the state level.
But its not right to say that regional parties
have less willingness to decentralized
power.
37. (b) The Khilafat Movement
(1919-1924) was a major pan-Islamic
movement started to save the Ottoman
Empire and it extended to India against
the British power. During the World
War-I, Turkey helped Germany to war
against British. Muslim leaders started
the Khilafat movement to protest the
allied act and to save the Ottoman.
38. (d) A mandamus writ is an order
from a court to an inferior government
official ordering the government official
to properly fulfill their official duties or
correct an abuse of discretion.
39. (c) An Economic Theory of
Democracy is a treatise of economics
written by Anthony Downs, published
in 1957. Downs’ theory abstains from
making normative statements about
public policy choices and instead focuses
on what is rational, given the relevant
incentives, for government to do.
40. (c) Comparative politics emerged
as a distinct field of political science in
the United States in the late 1950s and
the subsequent evolution of the field was
driven largely by research associated
with US universities.
41. (c) In his criticism of Lenin led
revolution and his theory of revolution in
Russian, G.H Sabine said that “Lenin’s
party was designed to be an elite, a
minority chosen for intellectual and
moral superiority, the most advanced part
of the working class and its vanguard”.
42. (c) The Nocturnal Council is, as
it were, the finishing strokes of Plato’s
Laws. Because in Book XII it is going to
be introduced as a perfect and permanent
 100
safeguard for the regime and its laws of
Magnesia. The Nocturnal Council is to
consist of the ten oldest Guardians of
the Laws; the Supervisor of Education
and his predecessors; the Auditors; and
younger citizens between the ages of
thirty and forty whom each elder member
of this body is to associate himself with.
43. (a) According to R.R Diwakar “it
is not Gandhi who made Satyagraha but
it is Satyagraha which made Gandhi the
Mahatma”. He also said that Satyagraha
would outlive him, the Gandhian model
offers norms and techniques for our age.
44. (d) Naren arrived in San Francisco
on 14 June 1916. Next morning newspapers
carried the news in banner headline
‘a dangerous Hindu revolutionary,
German spy, lands in the USA’. Naren
quickly left his hotel and went to
Stanford University to meet Professor
Dhanagopal Mukherjee, the younger
brother of a co-revolutionary, who
changed Naren’s name to Manabendra
Nath Roy. Dhanagopal introduced him
as Manabendra Nath Roy to Dr David
Jordan, the progressive minded President
of the University. In Dr Jordan’s house,
Roy met Evelyn Trent whom he later
married in New York where Roys took
shelter in the house of Lala Lajpat Rai.
45. (c) Aurobindo Ghose in Savitri
said ‘God had appeared to him in prison,
placed the Gita in his hands and made
him realize the simple truths of the
Sanatana Dharma’.
46. (b) Comparative Politics is the
study of all forms of political activity-
governmental as well as non-governmental
and all political phenomena.
47. (b) In Comparative Politics,
Philosophical Approach was evolved in
the primary stage and then evolved the
behavioural approach, this was followed
by Systems Approach and the next in line
was New Institutional Approach.
48. (d) Input Functions:
(i) Political socialisation and recruitment
(ii) Interest articulation
(iii) Interest aggregation
(iv) Political communication.
49. (b) Max Weber and Talcott
Parsons ideas influenced Gabriel
Almond in deriving his model of
Structural Functionalism. For Talcott
Parsons, “structural-functionalism”
came to describe a particular stage in the
methodological development of social
science, rather than a specific school of
thought.
50. (b) As the Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha, the Vice-President presides over
the meetings of the House. He has no vote
except when there is a tie (article 100).
Under the Constitution, the Chairman
exercises only a casting vote in the case
of a tie. The Vice-President of America
doesn’t have this kind of power.
51. (d) Globalizaton leads to the
compression of time-space and leads to
integration of economy. Globalisation
also build up superanational relation
among people.
52. (b) In crucial situations, however,
the ultimate concern of states is not for
power but for security”. Kenneth Waltz
argues that power is risky if one has too
little or too much.
53. (b) Institutional approach derives
its source of information through
historical information available about the
institution.
54. (b) Andrew Moravcsik, Anne-
Marie Slaughter, and Duncan Snidal
led to a widespread disregard of the
importance of international law. A.M
Slaughter’s writing builds on a few
distinct ideas: International law should
be based on developments in IR, i.e.,
on liberal IR, where the individual is the
fundamental actor.
55. (a) An Agenda for Peace: Preven-
tive diplomacy, peacemaking and peace-
keeping, and Peace Building more
commonly known simply as An Agenda
for Peace, is a report written for the
United Nations by Secretary-General
Boutros Boutros-Ghali in 1992.
56. (a) French foreign minister Hubert
Védrine popularized the term in 1998,
because from France’s position, the
United States looked like a hyperpower,
although the validity of classifying the
United States in this way was disputed.
Practice Set-8
57. (a) On April 17, 1961, 1,400
Cuban exiles launched what became a
botched invasion at the Bay of Pigs on
the south coast of Cuba. In 1959, Fidel
Castro came to power in an armed revolt
that overthrew Cuban dictator Fulgencio
Batista.
58. (b) Black Widow or shahidka, is a
term for Islamist Chechen female suicide
bombers, willing to be a manifestation
of violent jihad. They became known
at the Moscow theater hostage crisis of
October 2002.
59. (a)
Antarctic treaty – 1959
UN Law of the sea – 1982
Kyoto Protocol – 1997
Cartogena Protocol – 2000
60. (d) Tryst with Destiny was a
speech made by Jawaharlal Nehru, the
first Prime Minister of independent
India. The speech was made to the Indian
Constituent Assembly, on the eve of
India’s independence, towards midnight
on 14 August 1947. It focuses on the
aspects that transcend India’s history.
61. (b) Post-behaviouralism arose
in response to behaviouralism, with
its emphasis on quantitative, value-
free research, the kind of research
that seems to take place in a vacuum,
without any incorporation of societal
values or movements, without any
consideration for solving real problems
in the complexities of the modern-day
world. Since research and results in
behaviouralism are largely quantitative
and precise, this slogan is meant to attack
that aspect of the movement. The post-
behaviourist finds it better to be vague
than non-relevantly precise. A vague
result might result in more meaningful
application to the problems of society
than a precise answer that is completely
irrelevant to the problems that must be
solved in a society.
62. (a) John Rawls said “Each person
possesses an inviolability founded on
justice that even the welfare of society as
a whole cannot override.” For this reason
justice denies that the loss of freedom for
some is made right by a greater good
shared by others.
Practice Set-8
63. (a) The father of utilitarianism is
considered to be Jeremy Bentham, who
believed the pleasure should be measured
quantitatively. For example, if ten people
wanted to eat chocolate, and one person
wanted to read Shakespeare. Jeremy
Bentham was an English philosopher
and political radical. He is primarily
known today for his moral philosophy,
especially his principle of utilitarianism,
which evaluates actions based upon their
consequences.
64. (c) People’s War was also known
as Protracted People war was a maoist
military strategy and not a book.
65. (c) After completion of legal
education, Mahatma Gandhi struggled to
find work as a lawyer. In 1893, he got
an offer from Dada Abdullah who owned
a shipping business in South Africa to
serve as his cousin’s lawyer in South
Africa. He accepted the offer and went to
South Africa, which was a turning point
in his political career.
66. (c) The Mexican Workers’ Party
was an old Mexican political party of
the left, that had legal registration in the
1980s, its main political figures were
Heberto Castillo and Demetrio Vallejo.
It was founded in 1917 as the Socialist
Workers’ Party (Partido Socialista
Obrero, PSO) by Manabendra Nath Roy,
a left-wing Indian Bengali.
67. (b) Viceroy Lord Minto spoke
of Aurobindo Ghose as Most dangerous
man, he was a proponent of Purna Swaraj
against the mighty British Empire in the
early 20th century.
68. (c) The stages of Political
Development as enunciated by A.F.K.
Organski are as follows; First come
Primitive National Unification and then
industrialization, after this starts national
welfare and at last comes Abundance
stage.
69. (a) Duverger refers to, what he
calls pseudo-pressure groups. These
groups include specialists who use
pressure politics not for themselves, but
for others. This is often done for monetary
consideration. Duverger includes in this
category, the technical experts as well as
information (mass) media.
70. (a) Myron Weiner & Joseph
La Palombara in their book ‘Political
parties and political development’ trace
the origins and development of political
parties, explore their impact on the
system in which they exist, and raise
new questions about the potential role of
parties. Originally published in 1966.
71. (c) 91st amendment act states that
the size of the council of ministers and
the respective state governments should
not be more than 15% (Fifteen Percent)
of the total members of lower house
(i.e. 15% strength of Lok Sabha in the
parliament and 15% strength of lower
houses of respective states legislatures
(the minimum strength in the case of
small states (Sikkim, Mizoram, Goa)
is being 12 due to lower strength of
the Legislative assembly of that states)
Sikkim – 32, Mizoram – 40, Goa – 40.
72. (b) Government sets up Dileep
Singh Bhuria Committee for extending the
provisions of 73rd and 74th amendments
to scheduled areas in 1994. In January
1995 Bhuria Committee submits its
report. It recommends Panchayat
Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA)
for rural tribal areas and Municipalities
Extension to the Scheduled Areas
(MESA) for urban tribal areas.
73. (c) The correct sequence as per
constitution of India of all the writs
under article 32 are: Habeas Corpus,
Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and
Quo Warranto at last.
74. (b) The sequence of political as
well as the administrative steps taken by
the British administration in India is as
follows: Morley-Minto Reform in 1909,
Montague-Chelmsford report in 1919,
Simon commission in 1927 and Cripps
Mission in 1942.
75. (b) The Montague-Chelmsford
reforms were set out in the government
of India act of 1919. If the British thought
that they would be welcomed by Indians
but they were mistaken. Many Indians
had fought with British in the war.
The congress and the League had come
together, calling for safe rule, and they
were disappointed by the new structure.
At a session of congress in August
1918 the reforms were condemned
as ‘inadequate, unsatisfactory and
disappointing’. Only moderates in
Congress supported the measures and
they were excluded from the party. The
101
local people had more say in how their
country was governed but the British
maintained their power by ensuring that
the viceroy had the authority to govern
India.
76. (b) Both the statements are true
but they don’t have any relation among
them. The second statement is not a
reason behind the assertion made in the
first statement.
77. (c) Yes, Its true that bulk of
provisions in Indian constitution were
borrowed from Government of India Act
1935. But Congress party newer passed
any kind of resolution for adopting
Government of India Act 1935 as the
basis of the Indian constitution.
78. (d) Weber applies the term
charisma to certain quality of an
individual personality, by virtue of which
he is set apart from ordinary men and
treated as endowed with supernatural,
superhuman, or at least specifically
exceptional powers or qualities. These
are such as are not accessible to the
ordinary person, but are regarded as of
divine origin or as exemplary, and on the
basis of them the individual concerned is
treated as a leader.
79. (b) Budgeting is not one among the
bases of Organisation structure according
to public administration theorists.
80. (a) In India taxation is a power
that is derived from the constitution .
The law says that any kind of taxation
can be levied only under the legislation
made by Parliament of India. Any kind
of tax not notified by parliamentary act
or any legislative law by state legislative
is invalid and unconstitutional.
81. (d) Development administration
is a dynamic concept which brings about
socio-economic and politico-economic
changes in society. Aiming towards
development, it strives for change,
growth, progress and overall development
in every sphere of a country. It was first
introduced by Edward W. Weidner.
The following are the characteristics of
development administration:
• Change-oriented
• Result-oriented
• Client-oriented
• Citizen participation oriented
• Commitment to fulfill public demands
 102
• Concerned with innovation
• Administration of industrial societies
• Effectiveness of coordination
82. (a) A domicile certificate not
only prove the residence status of a
person but also makes him eligible to
avail various benefits based on his or
her domicile such as education, job and
other benefits such as resident quotas in
the government service and educational
institutions. USA was the first country to
introduce domicile condition for public
administration servant job.
83. (a) The position minister of
Personnel, public grievance and pensions
considered to be a powerful one as of it
is the cadre controlling authority of the
Indian Administrative Service (IAS),
and is the administering agency of the
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
and the Public Enterprises Selection
Board (PESB).
84. (c) Reappropriation, which implies
the transfer of funds from one primary
unit of appropriation to another such unit
within a grant, can be sanctioned under
formal orders of a competent authority,
only when it is known or anticipated that
the appropriation for the unit from which
funds are to be diverted.
85. (d) The advancement of an
employee within a company position or
job tasks. A job promotion may be the
result of an employee’s proactive pursuit
of a higher ranking or as a reward by
employers for good performance.
Typically is also associated with a higher
rate of pay or financial bonus.
86. (a) Sadiq Ali Committee was
appointed to report on the working of
the Panchayat system in Rajasthan by
government of Rajasthan and not in for all
over India. G.V.K. Rao Committee was
appointed by the Planning Commission
to study the panchayati raj structure in
India.
87. (b)
88. (a) The scheme of Joint Consul-
tative Machinery is a platform for
constructive dialogue between the
representatives of the staff side and the
official side for peaceful resolution of
all disputes between the Government
as employer and the employees. The
scheme was introduced in 1966 with
the objectives of promoting harmonious
relations and securing the greatest
measure of cooperation between the
Central Government as the employer
and the employees in matters of common
concern and with the object of further
increasing the efficiency of the public
service combined with the well being of
those employed. The Cabinet Secretary
is the Chairman of the Council. He
is the leader of the official side and is
connecting link between the government
and the employees.
89. (b) Executive Control Over
Administration is a type of control works
automatically and spontaneously with the
movement of Government machinery. It
is a sort of self-regulating device which
controls the movement of machinery
of which it is a part. Administrative
structure is hierarchical in nature.
90. (a) Due to the delay caused by
hierarchical structure in the disposal of
work.
The Government of India started what
is known as “file jumping experiment”.
Both the statement are correct and second
one is an appropriate explanation behind
the first statement.
91. (c) The first paragraph clearly
indicates that Stressed Assets Lending
Fund (SALF) will help to resurrect
troubled investments through debt funds.
92. (b) All those assets which don’t
generate regular income are known as
Non-Performing Assets (NPAs).
93. (d) The second paragraph clearly
states that according to RBI data, the
stressed assets ratio for the banking
sector, which includes gross non-
Practice Set-8
performing assets (NPAs), increased to
14.5% at the end of December 2015 as
against 9.8% at the end of March 2012.
94. (c) The third paragraph clearly
states that Stressed Assets Lending Fund
(SALF) will provide last mile funding
or working capital funding to assets in
trouble because of funding constraints.
95. (d) The second paragraph clearly
states that RBI had come out with a
scheme for sustainable structuring of
stressed assets, also termed as S4A, to
strengthen the lenders’ ability to deal with
stressed assets and provide an avenue
for reworking the financial structure of
entities facing genuine difficulties. Also,
the S4A envisages determination of the
sustainable debt level for a stressed
borrower.
96. (b) The first paragraph clearly
indicates that Black Money Act is
for retrieving the unaccounted illegal
income.
97. (d) The first paragraph clearly
states that “The one-time compliance
window for the declaration of foreign
assets and income under the Black
Money Act, which closed on September
30, saw just 638 declarations aggregating
to 3,770 crore”.
98. (d) The second paragraph clearly
states that the Black Money Act is one
of the crucial components of economic
reforms announced last year.
99. (b) The second paragraph clearly
states that due to increase in black income
investor appetite losing sheen, economic
growth slowing down and India moving
nowhere as far as its ease of doing
business rank is concerned.
100. (a) The second paragraph clearly
states that income recovered from such
sources is crucial for the government
to steer its social programmes and
fund public expenditure at a time when
the country’s direct and indirect tax
collections are below target.
qqq
Practice Set-9 103

UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
1. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Decision making
theory was Developed especially in
the realm of foreign policy making.
Reason (R): It concentrates on the
person shaping international events
rather than on the international
situation.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
2. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marxism doesn’t
give a proper theory of International
relations.
Reason (R): Marxism wants to create
a stateless society.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
3. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The concept of power
should be vanished from the study of
International relation.
Reason (R): The Concept of Power
is full of ambiguities.
Political Science
Practice Set-9
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(a) 2 4 3 1
4. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and (b) 1 2 3 4
the other labelled as Reason (R). (c) 3 1 2 4
Assertion (A): The UN was founded (d) 2 1 3 4
to make the world a safe place.
Reason (R): During the cold war,
two superpowers acquired highly
sophisticated destructive weapons.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
5. Match the following
  List-I    List-II
A. The world bank 1. 1957
B World Trade 2. 1945
organisation
C. World Health 3. 1948
Organisation
D. International 4. 1995
Atomic Energy
Agency
Codes:
A B C D
10. Agreement on Agricultural is
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 3 1 4
6. Match the following
  List-I    List-II
A. Karl Kautsky 1. Marxism
B. Robert Owen 2. Socialism
C. John Locke 3. Liberalism
D. Clinton Rossiter 4. Consevatism
Codes:
A B C D
7. Who among the following are
associated with early socialism
sometimes termed as ‘utopian
socialist’?
1. Robert Owen
2. Saint Simon
3. Charles Fourier
4. Proudhan
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above
8. Gulf Cooperation Council was
founded in year
(a) 1989 (b) 1987
(c) 1981 (d) 1980
9. What is the full form of TRIMS?
(a) Trade related Intellectual
Measures
(b) Agreement on Trade Related
Investment Measures
(c) Technology Related Investment
Measures
(d) None of the Above
related to which international
Organisation?
(a) WHO (b) IMF
(c) UNESCO (d) WTO
 104 Practice Set-9
11. Who described political theory as Codes: Assertion (A): In Machiavellian
‘the systematic thinking about the A B C D thought end justifies the means.
purpose of the government’? (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Reason (R): The key objective of
(a) Leacock (b) Garner (b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) the Prince was to bring unity and
(c) Plamenatz (d) Berlin (c) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) integrity of the State.
12. Who is the author of the book ‘The (d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) On the basis of the two statements
Philosophy of J.S. Mill’? 19. Plato developed his theory of choose the correct answer from the
(a) M. Cowling the nature of the ultimate reality options given below:
(b) J. Gray explaining the actual world in (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
(c) R.P. Anschutz (a) The Republic is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) J.W. Mueller (b) The Politics (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
13. Who is the author of ‘Savitri’? (c) The Laws is not the correct explanation of
(a) M.N. Roy (d) The Timaeus (A)
(b) Mahatma Gandhi 20. Given below are two statements (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Aurobindo one labelled as Assertion (A) and (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
the other labelled as Reason (R). 25. The Idea of Justice as fairness in
(d) R. Tagore
Assertion (A): For Rawls the Right Rawlsian theory flows from
14. “Once God is let in, there is an end
is prior to good.
to the sovereignty of man.” Who (a) individual (b) Society
said this? Reason (R): The loss of freedom for
(c) State (d) Nation
some is made right by greater good
(a) B.R. Ambedkar 26. Match List-I with List-II:
shared by others.
(b) Vivekananda List-I (Books)
Codes:
(c) M.N. Roy (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) (A) Marx, Gandhi and Socialism
(d) J. Nehru is the right explanation of (A). (B) Gandhi and Gandhism
15. Who said “Man is what he eats”? (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (C) Savitri: A Legend and a Symbol
(a) Marx (b) Engels (R) is not the right explanation (D) Gitanjal
(c) Lenin (d) Feuerbach of (A).
List-II (Thinkers)
16. Who is the propounder of labour (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(i) Aurobindo
theory of value? (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(ii) Rabindranath Tagore
(a) Hobbes (b) Locke 21. Who wrote the book, Multicultural
Citizenship: A Liberal Theory of (iii) Ram Manohar Lohia
(c) Rousseau (d) Bentham
17. Which one of the following is Minority Rights (1995)? (iv) B.R. Ambedkar
correct regarding the writings of (a) T.H. Marshal Choose the correct option from
Machiavelli? (b) B. S. Turner those given below:
(a) Discourses (c) Will Kymlica (a) (A)–(iii) (B)–(iv) (C)–(i) (D)–(ii)
(b) The Golden Ass (d) Bheekhu Parekh (b) (A)–(ii) (B)–(i) (C)–(iv) (D)–(iii)
(c) The Art of War 22. Who said that political work is the (c) (A)–(iv) (B)-(iii)(C)–(i) (D)–(ii)
(d) All the above life blood of all economic work? (d) (A)–(iii) (B)–(i) (C)–(ii) (D)–(iv)
18. Match List-I with List-II and select (a) John Rawls (b) Mao Zedong 27. Match List-I with List-II:
the correct answer from the codes (c) Karl Marx (d) Frantz Fanon    List-I
given below: 23. Gandhi believes in (A) Late Capitalism
 List-I   List-II (a) End justifies (B) Deconstructionism
(Thinker   (Dominant (b) Means justifies End (C) Collapse of grand Narrative
  Concept) (c) Neither End justifies Means nor
(D) Concept of knowledge and power
A. Beitz i. Justice as mutual Means justifies End
   List-II
advantage (d) End and Means both should be
B. Gauthier ii. E n t i t l e m e n t justified (i) Michel Foucault
Theory of Justice 24. Given below are two statements, (ii) Fredric Jameson
C. Dworkin iii. On Global Justice one labelled as Assertion (A) and (iii) Jacques Derrida
D. Nozick iv. On equality the other labelled as Reason (R). (iv) Lyotard
Practice Set-9
Choose the correct option from
those given below:
(a) (A)–(ii); (B)–(iii); (C)–(iv); (D)–(i)
(b) (A)–(i); (B)–(iv); (C)–(ii); (D)–(iii)
(c) (A)–(ii); (B)–(iv);(C)–(i); (D)–(ii)
(d) (A)–(iv); (B)–(i); (C)–(ii); (D)–(ii)
28. “The English think they are free.
They are free only during the
election of members of parliament.”
Who said this?
(a) J. S. Mill (b) T. H. Green
(c) Locke (d) Rousseau
29. How many prakrities of Mandal
Theory of State are enumerated by
Kautilya?
(a) 60 (b) 68
(c) 70 (d) 72
30. Black Skin, White Masks is written
by
(a) Gramsci
(b) Hannah Arendt
(c) Frantz Fanon
(d) Wollstonecraft
31. Which one is not the feature of the
Presidential form of government of
U.S.A.?
(a) Direct election of the President
(b) Fixed terms of offices for the
president and legislature
(c) Fusion of power between
legislature and executive
(d) President serves as head of the
state
32. Which one among the following
countries, according to Almond
and Verba, came closest to their
conception of civic culture?
(a) U.S.A. (b) West Germany
(c) Mexico (d) Great Britain
33. “Efficiency Record” method
for determining the merit for
promotion is practised in
(a) The USA (b) Switzerland
(c) The U.K. (d) India
34. In which of the following countries
judges are elected by the people?
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(i) U.S.A.
(ii) Switzerland
(iii) India
(iv) U.K.
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii) (b) (i), (ii), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) (d) (ii), (iii), (iv)
35. In which of the following countries
the courts do not have the power of
Judicial Review?
(i) USA (ii) UK
(iii) France (iv) India
Codes:
(a) (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii)
36. Who among the following said
“Federalism is obsolescent, it is
essentially negative in its effect. It
is not suitable for positive action,
it is financially expensive due to
duplication of work.”?
(a) David Easton
(b) S.P. Huntington
(c) K.C. Wheare
(d) H.J. Laski
37. Who among the following has
argued that modernization could
be associated with a highly
differentiated political structure
and the diffusion of political power
and authority into all spheres of
society?
(a) Max Weber
(b) Talcott Parson
(c) S.N. Eisenstadt
(d) Walt W. Rostow
38. Consider the following statements
about a constitutional government.
A constitutional government is
1. a form of limited government
2. one where authority is derived
from the constitution
3. one where the constitution and
the laws limit the exercise of
power
4. Where the head of the state
enjoys nominal powers
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
105
39. Who among the following thinkers
gave the concept of “lions” and
“foxes”?
(a) Robert Michaels
(b) C. Wright Mill
(c) Vilfred Pareto
(d) Burham
40. Given below are two statements
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Parliamentary form
of government is the most acceptable
system in the entire world today.
Reason (R): In the parliamentary
system, ministers get their democratic
legitimacy from the legislature and
are accountable to it.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
41. Karl Marx, the founder of Marxism,
formally was the citizen of which
one of the following countries?
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) UK
(d) None of the above
42. Who said that art, religion and
philosophy differ only in form,
their purpose is the same?
(a) Georg Lukacs
(b) Sartre
(c) Hegel
(d) Erik Olin Wright
43. Integrated humanism means
(A) Human life is not isolated
(B) Harmony among individual,
society and nation
(C) The essential unity of the man
(D) State is superior than Nation
Select the correct answer from the
given options:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (A), (B) and (D)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (C) and (D)
 106
44. Which of the following writings
were associated with Muhammad
Iqbal?
(A) Tarana-e-Hind
(B) The Reconstruction of Religious
Thought in India
(C) Historical Role of Islam
(D) The Bang-e-Dara
Select the correct answer from the
given options:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D)
45. Who wrote the biography of
Jayaprakash Narayan?
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan himself
(b) Ramvriksha Benipuri
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) Namboodiripad
46. Pandita Ramabai was accorded the
title ‘Pandita’ for
(a) social reforms
(b) emancipation of women
(c) eradication of caste system
(d) being a Sanskrit scholar
47. Who stated that the life of man is
solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and
short?
(a) Machiavelli
(b) Hobbes
(c) Locke
(d) Rousseau
48. Which one among the following is
NOT related to Neo-Marxism?
(a) Jurgen Habermas
(b) Ericd Fromm
(c) Herbert Marcuse
(d) Rosa Luxemburg
49. Which one of the following is
incorrect with regard to post
modernism?
(a) Primacy of consumption instead
of knowledge
(b) Deconstruction of totality
(c) Commonality to greatness
(d) Historical tendency
50. Agganna Sutta is the
(a) 27th Sutta of the Digha Nikaya
(b) 27th Sutta of the Majjhima
Nikaya
(c) 26th Sutta of Samyutta Nikaya
(d) 27th Sutta of Anguttara Nikaya
51. Who among the following talked
about the politics of scarcity in
India?
(a) Paul R. Brass
(b) Paul Wallace
(c) Myron Weiner
(d) Morris Jones
52. In which case the Supreme Court
decided that the confidence of the
house in the ministry should be
tested on the floor of the house
itself?
(a) B.R. Kapoor v/s State of Tamil
Nadu
(b) S.R.Bommai v/s Union of India
(c) Jagdambika Pal v/s Union of
India
(d) Shamsher Singh v/s State of
Punjab
53. Different parts of the constitution
will act and react on each other and
the (supreme) court will have to
decide questions arising from such
a situation. Discharging its duties
as perhaps no other court has so
far been called upon to do. Whose
statement is this?
(a) Justice Patanjali Sastri
(b) Justice Harilal Kania
(c) Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
54. Which one among the following
authorities has the power to declare
a caste, race or tribe or part of
group within the caste as scheduled
castes in relation to a state or union
territory?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Parliament
(c) Judiciary
(d) President of India
55. Which one of the following is the
chief function of the inter-state
council?
Practice Set-9
(a) To settle inter-state river water
disputes
(b) To settle disputes relating to
the movement of good between
states
(c) To debate on reforming centre
state relations
(d) To act as a forum for settling
inter-state boundary disputes
56. Which one among the following
is considered as the first coherent
theory of organization?
(a) The Human Relations Theory
(b) Scientific Management Theory
(c) The Systems Theory
(d) The Bureaucracy Theory
57. Which one of the following was
the first committee to demand
constitutional recognition for
Panchayats?
(a) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Santhanam Committee
(d) G.V.K. Rao Committee
58. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Central service
officers are not all India service
officers, but the nature of their job
and postings make them truly all
India in character.
Reason (R): Unlike officers of the
All-India services, central service
officer’s do not work under the state
governments while working in the
states.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
59. Which one of the following is not a
function of the UPSC?
(a) Advise the union government
on all matters relating to the
Practice Set-9
method of recruitment and
principles to be followed in
making appointments to civil
service.
(b) Advise the government on the
suitability of candidates for
promotion.
(c) Advise the government on
disciplinary matters affecting
civil servants.
(d) Advise the government on all
matters relating to the transfer
of civil servants.
60. Name the country which was the
first to evolve a sound recruitment
system?
(a) Prussia (b) India
(c) China (d) USA
61. India is holding talks with ASEAN
to extend which highway to
Vietnam?
(a) India-Myanmar-Thailand
(b) India-Myanmar-Korea
(c) India-Myanmar-Bangladesh
(d) India-Myanmar-China
62. The book, The Intellectual Crisis
in American Public Administration
deals with
(a) public choice approach
(b) new public administration
(c) ecological approach
(d) decision-making approach
63. The demand for ‘Harit Pradesh’
is related to which one of the
following regions in India?
(a) Western Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bundelkhand
(c) Uttaranchal
(d) Vidharbha
64. Which of the following statements
is true with regard to NPT and
CTBT?
(a) India has signed but not ratified 1966-69.
NPT.
(b) India has signed CTBT.
(c) India has signed NPT.
(d) India has neither signed nor
ratified either NPT or CTBT.
65. W h o a m o n g t h e f o l l o w i n g
summarizes the themes of New
Public Administration under five
heads-relevance, values, social
equity, change and client-focus?
(a) Frank Marini
(b) D. Waldo
(c) F. W. Taylor
(d) M. P. Follett
66. In which case was it declared that
the Preamble is NOT the part of
the Constitution?
(a) Kesavananda Bharati case
(b) Maneka Gandhi case
(c) Vishakha case
(d) Berubari case
67. The fundamental difference
between institutionalism and new
institutionalism would primarily
be located on the principle of
(a) deduction
(b) induction
(c) experimentation
(d) investigation
68. What is meant by the term ‘jus in
bello’?
(a) A just recourse to war
(b) Restricted use of legitimate force
(c) The just conduct of war
(d) All of the above
69. The total number of Ministers
including Prime Minister and
Deputy Prime Minister shall not
exceed
(a) 20% members of the Lok Sabha
(b) 10% members of the Lok Sabha
(c) 15% members of the Lok Sabha
(d) 25% members of the Lok Sabha
70. Which of the following is incorrect
with regard to the Plan Holidays?
(a) T h e s e w e r e s h o r t - t e r m
contingency plans.
(b) The period of these plans was
(c) The reasons for these plans were
war, inflation and drought.
(d) Plan Holidays were introduced
due to the failure of all three
preceding Five Year Plans.
107
71. Which one of the following is the
Nodal Ministry for the National
Human Rights Commission?
(a) Ministry of Human Resource
Development
(b) Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Personnel, Public
Grievances and Pensions
72. Which of the following Indian
traditions is declared recently as
‘Intangible Cultural Heritage of
Humanity’?
(a) Kumbh (b) Yoga
(c) Nouraz (d) Bihu
73. Identify the correct sequence of the
process as recommended by the
seminal report, ‘An Agenda for
Peace’ (1992)
(i) Peace keeping
(ii) Preventive diplomacy
(iii) Peace building
(iv) Peace making
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(d) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
74. Who said that ‘the United States
is not simply a superpower ; it is a
hyper power’?
(a) Hubart Vedrine
(b) Robert Gates
(c) Richard Haas
(d) Paul Kennedy
75. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer form the codes
given below:
 List-I List-II
(UN conference (Issues)
place)
A. Rio de Janeiro (i) Population
(1992)
B. Vienna (1993) (ii) Women
C. Cairo (1994) (iii) Human
Rights
D. Beijing (1995) (iv) Environ-
ment
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(b) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
 108
(c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
76. Bay of pigs is associated with which
crisis during the cold war?
(a) Cuban Missile
(b) Hungary
(c) Korea
(d) Suez Canal
77. Black widows are women terrorists.
To which country do they belongs?
(a) Palestine (b) Chechenya
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Lebanon
78. Chronologically arrange the
following treaties on environment
in the correct ascending order,
(i) UN Law of the Sea
(ii) Kyoto Protocol
(iii) Antarctic Treaty
(iv) Cartogena protocol on Biosafety
Codes:
(a) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(c) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
79. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer form the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(Authors) (Books)
A. S.D. Muni i. Crossing the
Rubicon
B. C. Rajamohan ii. Anatomy of
a flawed
Inheritance/
Indo Pak
relations
C. Urmila Phadnis iii. Pangs of
proximity
D. J.N. Dixit iv. Ethnicity
and nation-
building in
South Asia
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(b) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
80. India’s tryst with Asia was enun-
ciated in the vision of engagement
which was articulated by:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Mahatma Gandhi’
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
81. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The factors and forces
that constrained Nehru’s India from
playing its legitimate role in Asia
have either been mitigated to an
extent, or redefined.
Reason (R): The end of the cold
war and expansion of the strategic
space for India to pursue its national
interests has widened.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
82. When did the United Nations
general assembly resolution 2832
on the declaration of the Indian
Ocean as a zone of peace, adopt?
(a) 1970 (b) 1971
(c) 1972 (d) 1973
83. Look West Policy of India advocated
expansion and extension of India’s
relations with
(a) Western Countries
(b) European Union
(c) West Asian Countries
(d) Africa and Latin America
84. The term ‘flying bees’ got associated
with which of the following associa-
tions?
(a) ASEAN
(b) SAARC
(c) Shanghai Cooperation Organi-
sation
(d) BRICS
Practice Set-9
85. Which one of the following Commis-
sions are statutory bodies?
(A) N a t i o n a l C o m m i s s i o n f o r
Scheduled Tribes
(B) National Commission for Human
Rights
(C) N a t i o n a l C o m m i s s i o n f o r
Minorities
(D) N a t i o n a l C o m m i s s i o n f o r
Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer from the
given options:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A) and (D)
(d) (B) and (C)
86. In Samuel P Huntington’s analysis,
India is placed in which one of the
‘waves of democratization’?
(a) First wave (b) Second wave
(c) Third wave (d) Fourth wave
87. Which of the following does not
for the basis of difference between
voluntary organizations and
NGOs?
(a) Philanthropy
(b) Membership
(c) Funding
(d) Commitment to the secular and
democratic ideals
88. Which of the following traits have
been introduced by the right to
information in the politicoad-
ministrative system?
(A) Caution (B) Care
(C) Vigilance (D) Red-tapism
Select the most suitable answer
from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B) and (D)
89. Members of the Cabinet Mission
Plan were:
(a) Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir
Stafford Cripps and A. V.
Alexander
(b) Sir Stafford Cripps, A. V.
Alexander and Lord Wavell
Practice Set-9
(c) Lord Pethick-Lawrence, A. V.
Alexander and Lord Ripon
(d) Sir Stafford Cripps, Lord
Mountbatten and Lord Pethick-
Lawrence
90. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Nation and nationalism
can variedly be conceptualised and
defined but without being generalized
in common theorization.
Reason (R): There can be discourses,
not common theories, on nation and
nationalism.
On the basic of the two statements
choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) and true, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Direction: Read the following passage
carefully and answer questions.
Aadhaar will be required for getting
benefits under a central government
scheme for providing financial assistance
to family members of victims of violence
perpetrated by terrorists or Naxals,
and communal riots. The notification
comes into effect in all states and union
territories except Assam and Meghalaya,
where Aadhaar has not covered all
residents. The assistance is given by the
state governments and the home ministry
reimburses the state governments when it
gets their demand.
The ministry through the implementing
agency is required to offer Aadhaar
enrolment facilities for the eligible
beneficiary, who is not yet enrolled
for Aadhaar and in case there is no
Aadhaar enrolment centre located nearby.
Until the time Aadhaar is assigned
to the beneficiary, benefits under the
scheme shall be given to such beneficiary
subject to the production of the Aadhaar
enrolment identification slip if he or she
has enrolled and any one of the following:
bank or post office passbook with photo;
or voter identification card; or PAN
card; or ration card; or passport; or
any other document as specified by the
ministry. In order to provide convenient
and hassle-free benefits to the beneficiary
under the scheme, the ministry through
the implementing agency or other means
shall make all the required arrangements
to ensure that wide publicity through
media is given to the beneficiary to make
them aware of the requirement of Aadhaar
under the scheme.
If Aadhaar authentication fails due to
any of mentioned reasons, the following
remedial mechanisms shall be adopted.
In case of poor fingerprint quality, IRIS
scan or face authentication facility shall
be adopted for authentication. In case
of biometric authentication through
fingerprints or IRIS or face authentication
is not successful, feasible and admissible
authentication by Aadhaar One Time
Password (OTP) with limited time validity
shall be offered. In all other cases where
biometric or OTP authentication is not
possible, benefits may be given on the
basis of physical Aadhaar letter whose
authenticity can be verified through the
QR code printed on the Aadhaar letter.
91. Which of the following is not
true about the central scheme for
assistance?
(a) It covers victims as well as
families of victims of communal
violence or violence ignited by
terrorists and Naxals.
(b) Any eligible beneficiary is
required to furnish proof of
possession of Aadhaar number or
undergo Aadhaar authentication.
(c) It comes into effect in all states
and union territories except
Assam and Meghalaya.
(d) Financial assistance under the
scheme will be given by the
state governments and the same
amount will be reimbursed by
the Union Home Ministry to the
state governments.
92. Which of the following is not a
document to be produced by the
beneficiary in case he or she does
not possess Aadhaar Number?
109
I. Bank/Post office passbook with
photo
II. Voter ID card
III. Ration card or Passport
IV. Aadhaar enrolment identification
slip
V. Kisan photo passbook
VI. Driving licence or PAN card
(a) Only IV
(b) I, II, III, and IV
(c) I, II, III, IV and VI
(d) All of the above
93. Aadhaar One Time Password
(OTP) facility will be offered if
Aadhaar biometric authentication
fails because of:
(a) Poor fingerprints/IRIS/face
authentication
(b) Poor fingerprint quality
(c) IRIS scan or face authentication
(d) Not mentioned in the passage
94. W h a t h a p p e n s i f b i o m e t r i c
authentication and OTP fail?
(a) Aadhaar identification slip with
QR code shall be provided.
(b) Benefits disbursement will take
place on the basis of physical
Aadhaar letter that will be
verified through QR code on
Aadhaar letter.
(c) The ministry through the
implementing agency shall make
provisions for IRIS scanners or
face authentication along with
fingerprint authentication for
delivery of benefits in a seamless
manner.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
95. Why shall the ministry make all the
required arrangements?
(a) To ensure that wide publicity
through media is given to the
beneficiary.
(b) In order to provide convenient
and hassle-free benefits to the
beneficiary under the scheme.
(c) To make them aware of the
requirement of Aadhaar under
the scheme.
(d) All of the above
 110
Direction: Read the following passage
carefully and answer questions.
The Government’s approval for the
100 smart cities project and a new urban
renewal mission is an important first step
toward dealing with an old problem that
has only got progressively worse over the
years: urban livability. A shade less than
a third of India’s population now lives
in urban areas, overcrowded cities and
towns with infrastructure bursting at the
seams. This problem will only worsen
with little or no intervention happening.
The proportion of the urban population
can only go in one direction — upward
— as more Indians migrate to the cities
and towns in search of jobs. Cities are
engines of growth, and as a result attract
a lot of people. The country’s urban
population contributes over 60 per cent
of India’s GDP; in 15 years this will be
70 per cent. On the other hand, there is
little incentive for people to migrate out
of cities. Earlier attempts at providing
better urban infrastructure or at creating
new townships have not been able to deal
with the issue of livability satisfactorily.
Even successful special economic zones
have had to contend with the issue of lack
of social infrastructure, which usually
means access to avenues of education,
health, arts, sports, and so on. There are
numerous definitions of a smart city but the
current government’s idea of one usefully
encompasses institutional infrastructure
(governance), physical infrastructure, as
also social infrastructure.
The Cabinet approval marks the first of
many steps, as also the easiest, that will
be required for the project. The challenges
start now. Of course there is no doubt that
this has created tremendous enthusiasm
Answers with Explanations
1. (a) Yes, It right say that the Decision
making theory was developed especially
in the realm of foreign policy making.
The man focus of decision making theory
is on the person shaping international
events rather than on the international
situation. Both the statements are
correct and Reason statement is correct
explanation behind the assertion.
2. (a) There is no specialised theory
of International Relations in Marxism.
Most of the ideas are derived from
amongst many possible stakeholders,
including service providers who have been
part of smart city projects elsewhere in the
world. Countries such as Japan, Singapore
and Germany, among many others, have
evinced interest to be a part of this. Yet,
in its scale and complexity the project will
be second to none. The official estimate
of per capita investment requirement is
`43386 for a 20-year period, or a total
investment of `7 lakh crore. Creating
a smart city isn’t just about creating the
physical infrastructure — roads, clean
water, power, transport and so on, things
India finds difficult to deliver to its citizens
nearly seven decades after Independence.
It is hoped that public private partnerships
(PPP) will deliver but the mechanism
seems to need a lot of tweaking in order
for it to work, a fact acknowledged in the
recent Budget. The big challenge will be to
create self-sustaining cities, which create
jobs, use resources wisely and also train
people. This also means more autonomy
for these cities. Whether that can happen
is a moot question depending heavily on
the maturity of the Indian political system.
96. According to the passage, the urban
population in future can only:
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain Constant
(d) First Increase, then decrease
97. Special Economic Zones Lacks to
provide:
(a) Physical Infrastructure
(b) Social Infrastructure
(c) Institutional Infrastructure
(d) Job Opportunities
the basic concept of Marxism. One of
the reasons behind is that Marxism is
against the State and it wants to create
a stateless society. State is considered as
an exploitation in Marxism.
3. (d) Yes, Its correct that Concept
of Power is very ambiguous but it is
one of the most important pillars of
International Relation Theory. Hence, it
can be removed from it.
4. (b) The United Nation was establi-
shed on 24th October 1945. The objective
Practice Set-9
98. Government’s plan for the smart
city is:
(a) To have only Physical Infras-
tructure and Social Infras-
tructure.
(b) To have only Institutional Infras-
tructure and Physical Infras-
tructure.
(c) To have only Institutional Infras-
tructure and Social Infrastructure.
(d) To have Institutional Infra-
structure along with the Physical
Infrastructure and Social Infras-
tructure.
99. Which facilities needs to made
available along with the physical
infrastructure to develop a smart
city?
1. Roads 2. Clean Water
3. Power 4. Transport
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
100. W hich kind of mechanism is
required for the success of the
Smart City Plan?
(a) Building infrastructure through
Joint Venture
(b) Building infrastructure through
Mergers & Acquisitions
(c) Building infrastructure through
Public Private Partnership
(d) Building infrastructure through
Consolidation and Holdings
behind its formation was to maintain
world peace and security and to make
the world a safe place. During the cold
war, two superpowers acquired highly
sophisticated destructive weapons. Both
the statements are correct and but Reason
statement is not a correct explanation
behind the assertion.
5. (a)
The World Bank 1. 1945
World Trade Organisation 2. 1995
Practice Set-9
World Health Organisation 3. 1948
International Atomic 4. 1957
Energy Agency
6. (b)
Karl Kautsky 1. Marxism
Robert Owen 2. Socialism
John Locke 3. Liberalism
Clinton Rossiter 4. Conservatism
7. (c) The Early-19th-century followers
of the utopian theories and Socialism were
thinkers like Robert Owen, Claude Henri
de Saint-Simon and Charles Fourier.
8. (c) Established in 1981, the GCC
promotes economic, security, cultural
and social cooperation between the six
states and holds a summit every year to
discuss cooperation and regional affairs.
9. (b) The Agreement on Trade-
Related Investment Measures are rules
that are applicable to the domestic
regulations a country applies to foreign
investors, often as part of an industrial
policy. It is related to WTO.
10. (d) The WTO Agreement on
Agriculture was one of the many
agreements which were negotiated during
the Uruguay Round. The implementation
of the Agreement on Agriculture started
with effect from 1.1.1995. As per
the provisions of the Agreement, the
developed countries would complete
their reduction commitments within 6
years, i.e., by the year 2000, whereas
the commitments of the developing
countries would be completed within 10
years, i.e., by the year 2004. The least
developed countries are not required to
make any reductions.
11. (c) John Plamenatz defined
Political theory as ‘systematic thinking
about the purposes of government’.
This is not conceived as a descriptive
exercise, qua political science. It seeks to
evaluate rather than explain. However,
this conception of theory embodies a
number of sub-approaches. The main
normative foundational contenders
are utilitarianism, consequentialism,
Aristotelianism and deontology – with
many subtle overlappings and variations.
12. (c) The Philosophy of J.S. Mill
Book was written by Richard Paul
Anschutz in 1953. This book attempts
to unravel the tangled skein of Mill’s
speculative thinking by stressing the ideal
of scientific knowledge which he derived
from the study of Newton’s physics.
13. (c) Savitri was written by Aurob-
indo Gosh in 1940. In Savitri, a legend
from the Mahabharata becomes the
symbol of the human soul’s spiritual
destiny. In poetic language, Sri Auro­
bindo describes his vision of existence
and explores the reason for ignorance,
darkness, suffering and pain, the
purpose of life on earth and the prospect
of a glorious future for humanity. The
writing of the epic extended over much
of the later part of his life.
14. (c) M.N Roy said that “Once god
is let it, there is an end to the sovereignty
of man”. By this he mean to state
that mixing of religion in leads to the
undermining of human rights.
15. (d) The statement ‘man is what he
eats’ was coined by Ludwig Feuerbach,
thus emphasizing the worldliness of
human nature as a challenge to the
general concentration on the life after
and the religious belief of his time.
16. (b) Locke’s concept of labor
refers to production, which is both an
intellectual and physical activity. His
concept of value refers to what serves
the flourishing life of a rational being,
which is a conception of the good that is
more robust than merely physical status
or economic wealth.
17. (a) ‘Discourses on Livy’, by
Niccolo Machiavelli, is a collection of
Machiavelli’s thoughts on politics, war,
and affairs of state. His writings are
plain and straightforward commentaries
using the ancient Roman Empire as a
general backdrop on which to paint his
own philosophies.
18. (b)
Beitz - On global Justice
Gautheir - Justice as mutual advantage
Dworkin - On Equality
Nozick - Entitlement Theory of
Justice
19. (d) Timaeus is one of Plato’s
dialogues, mostly in the form of a long
monologue given by the title character
Timaeus of Locri, written c. 360 BC.
111
The work puts forward speculation on
the nature of the physical world and
human beings and is followed by the
dialogue Critias.
20. (b) Under Rawls theory of justice
he proposed two principle; Equality
principle and Difference principle. Both
the statement in question are in resonance
with those principle. But not dependent
on each other for explanation .
21. (c) The book, Multicultural Citizen-
ship: A Liberal Theory of Minority Rights
was published in 1995 by Will Kymlicka.
Multicultural Citizenship focuses on both
theory and on a contemporary problem -
that of multiculturalism and group rights.
Attempts to provide a model and policy
guidelines.
22. (b) Mao Zedong said that ‘Political
work is the life-blood of all economic
work.’ This is particularly true at a time
when the social and economic system is
undergoing fundamental change.
23. (d) Gandhi believes in the Idea
of Truth and Non-Violence. He never
supported lie or violence as a peace to
achieve any End. He propagated that
End and means both should be Justified.
24. (a) In Machiavellian thought end
justifies the means. Because according
to Machiavelli the key objective of the
Prince was to bring unity and integrity
of the State. Hence, achieving this End
justifies all the wrong measures taken by
the prince.
25. (a) The Idea of Justice as fairness
in Rawlsian theory flows from individual.
Rawls never wished to compromise with
the individual liberty.
26. (a)
(Books) (Thinkers)
Marx, Gandhi and - Ram Manohar
Socialism Lohia
Gandhi and - BR Ambedkar
Gandhism
Savitri: A Legend - Aurobindo
and a Symbol
Gitanjali - Rabindranath
Tagore
 112
27. (a)
List-I List-II
Late Capitalism - Fredric
Jameson
Deconstructionism - Jacques
Derrida
Collapse of grand - Lyotard
Narrative
Concept of - Michel
knowledge and Foucault
power
28. (d) Rousseau, In his Social
Contract Noted that “The people of
England regards itself as free; but it is
grossly mistaken; it is free only during
the election of members of parliament.
As soon as they are elected, slavery
overtakes it, and it is nothing.”
29. (d) 72 prakrities of Mandal
Theory of State are enumerated by
Kautilya.
30. (c) Black Skin, White Masks
book is written by Frantz Fanon in year
1952. The book is written in the style of
auto-theory, which Fanon shares his own
experiences in addition to presenting
a historical critique of the effects of
racism and dehumanization, inherent in
situations of colonial domination, on the
human psyche.
31. (c) Under USA’s Presidential
form of government the legislature and
executive have separate role. Power
among Executive and legislature is
strictly divided.
32. (d) Gabriel Almond and Sidney
Verba published their classic work of
comparative politics, The Civic Culture:
Political Attitudes and Democracy in
Five Nations. 52 Using survey evidence,
they sought to identify the orientations
and behaviours associated with stable
and well-functioning democracies.
Among the five countries they studied,
it was Britain which came closest to
exemplifying what Almond and Verba
dubbed ‘the civic culture.’ Here, voters
had achieved a healthy mix of activism
and passivity, sustained by strong
representative institutions, a rich civil
society and the historic legacy of a
peaceful transition from absolutism to
democracy in the 19th century.
33. (a) Efficiency Record is used by
American government for the promotion
of official. The system consider merit
on the basis of Efficiency of Officials at
their work place.
34. (a) In Switzerland judges are
elected by the Federal Assembly for
6-year terms. In USA also in some states
judges are elected by people.
35. (b) Judicial Review power
is available in USA and India. The
Judiciary of India and America can
question the validity of a law made by
Legislature. On the other hand UK and
France Judiciary didn’t have any kind of
Judicial review power.
36. (d) H.J. Laski said that federalism
is obsolescent, it is essentially negative
in its effect. It is not suitable for positive
action, it is financially expensive due to
duplication of work.
37. (c)
38. (a) Constitutional government is
defined by the existence of a constitution—
which may be a legal instrument or
merely a set of fixed norms or principles
generally accepted as the fundamental
law of the polity—that effectively
controls the exercise of political power.
The essence of constitutionalism is the
control of power by its distribution
among several state organs or offices in
such a way that they are each subjected
to reciprocal controls and forced to
cooperate in formulating the will of the
state.
39. (c) Vilfred Pareto identified two
types of elite rulers. The first, whom
he called the “foxes”, are those who
dominate mainly through combination:
deceit, cunning, manipulation and co-
optation. Their rule is characterised
by decentralisation, plurality and
scepticism, and they are uneasy with the
use of force. “Lions”, on the other hand,
are more conservative. They emphasise
unity, homogeneity, established ways,
the established faith, and rule through
small, centralised and hierarchical
bureaucracies, and they are far more
at ease with the use of force than the
devious foxes. History is the slow swing
of the pendulum from one type of elite to
the other, from foxes to lions and back
again.
Practice Set-9
40. (a) Yes, Its true that parliame-
ntary form of government is the most
acceptable system in the entire world
today. In parliamentary system,
minister are collectively accountable to
legislature. Both the statement are true
and second statement is right reason
behind the Assertion statement.
41. (a) Karl Marx was Born in
Trier, Germany, on 5 May 1818. He
was a German philosopher, economist,
historian, sociologist, political theorist,
journalist and socialist revolutionary.
Marx studied law and philosophy at
university.
42. (c) Hegel believed that art,
religion and philosophy differ only in
form, their purpose is the same.
43. (a) Integral humanism, coined by
Deendayal Upadhyaya, means that the
human being is at the core position of
the social, political and economic model.
It is opposed to both Western liberalism
and Marxian socialism which it views
as materialistic ideologies incapable of
dealing with native problems. It believes
that the four aims (Purusharthas) of
human beings are Dharma, Artha,
Kaama and Moksha.
44. (c) Karl Marx was Born in
Trier, Germany, on 5 May 1818. He
was a German philosopher, economist,
historian, sociologist, political theorist,
journalist and socialist revolutionary.
Marx studied law and philosophy at
university.
45. (b) Ramavriksha Benipuri wrote
the biography of social activist and
political leader Lok Nayak Jayprakash
Narayan named Jayaprakash.
46. (d) Pandita Ramabai was given
the title of ‘Pandita’ for her excellence
in Sanskrit. She was considered as a
significant Sanskrit scholar of his era.
47. (b) Hobbes while describing the
human nature in his theory of social
contract stated that “the life of man is
solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short.”
48. (d) Rosa Luxemburg was a
Polish libertarian Marxist, philosopher,
economist, anti-war activist and
revolutionary socialist. She was not
related to school of Neo-Marxism.
Practice Set-9
49. (d)
50. (a) Aggana sutta is the 27th Sutta
of the Digha Nikaya collection. The sutta
describes a discourse imparted by the
Buddha to two Brahmans, Bharadvaja
and Vasettha, who left their family and
caste to become monks.
51. (c) The Book ‘Politics of scarcity’
was written by Myron Weiner in 1962.
52. (b) In S.R. Bommai case the
supreme court ruled that the confidence
of the house in the ministry should be
tested on the floor of house itself and
not otherwise by governor by his own
discretion.
53. (b) Hari Lal Kania was the first
Chief Justice of Independent India.
He claimed that different provision of
constitution will entangle with each other
and supreme court will be responsible
to solve all the issue arising due to that
conflict.
54. (d) According to the Constitution
of India, under Article 341(1), the
President of India, after consultation
with the Governor, may specify, “the
castes, races, tribes or parts of groups
within castes or races, which shall be
deemed to be Scheduled Castes”.
55. (c) Article 263 of the Constitution
of India provides for the establishment of
an Inter-State Council. The text of the
Article reads as under 263. Provisions
with respect to an inter-State Council – If
at any time it appears to the President that
the public interests would be served by
the establishment of a Council charged
with the duty of – (a) inquiring into and
advising upon disputes which may have
arisen between States; (b) investigating
and discussing subjects in which some or
all of the States, or the Union and one
or more of the States, have a common
interest; or (c) making recommendations
upon any such subject and, in particular,
recommendations for the better co-
ordination of policy and action with
respect to that subject, it shall be lawful
for the President by order to establish
such a Council, and to define the nature
of the duties to be performed by it and its
organization and procedure.
56. (b) Scientific management involves
the application of a scientific approach to
managerial decision­ making (consisting
of-collection of data, an analysis of data
and basing decisions on the outcome of
such analyses); and discarding at the
same time, all unscientific approaches,
like – rule of the thumb, a hit or miss
approach and a trial and error approach.
57. (b) In December 1977, the Janta
Government appointed a committee
on Panchayati Raj institutions under
the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta. It
submitted its report in August 1978
and made 132 recommendations to
revive and strengthen the declining
Panchayati Raj System in the country.
This committee was the first to demand
constitutionalization of Panchayati raj
system in India.
58. (b) There are only three All India
Services namely Indian Administrative
Service [IAS], Indian Police Service
[IPS] and Indian Forest Service [IFS].
The officers of these services are allotted
a state [called as cadre state] and have
to work in that state government only
till retirement. However, they can
also work for Government of India at
its Central Secretariat in New Delhi
while on deputation for some years.
On the other hand, there are too many
Central Civil Services namely Indian
Revenue Service, Indian Information
Service, Indian Customs & Central
Excise Service, Indian Postal Service,
Indian Audit & Accounts Service, Indian
Defence Estates Service, Indian Defence
Accounts Service, Indian Civil Accounts
Service, Indian Railway Traffic Service,
Indian Railway Accounts Service, Indian
Railway Personnel Service, Indian Trade
Service, etc.
59. (d) UPSC is not responsible for
the matter related to the transfer of
civil servant. This function is dealt by
department of personnel.
60. (c) China have evolved a Sound
recruitment system for the recruitment of
government officials.
61. (a) India and ASEAN countries
are holding consultations on the extension
of 1,360 km India-Myanmar-Thailand
highway—from Moreh in India to
MaeSot in Thailand to Laos, Cambodia
and Vietnam.
113
62. (a) The Book ‘The Intellectual
Crisis in American Public Administration’
was written by Vincent Ostrom in 1974.
This books central theme is ‘Public
Choice approach.’
63. (a) Harit Pradesh is a proposed
new state of India comprising the western
parts of Uttar Pradesh state. Harit means
Green which signifies the agricultural
prosperity of the region and Pradesh
means state.
64. (d) India is among those few
countries which had not signed the NPT
and CTBT. India refused to sign them
because of discriminatory nature of these
treaties. India consider them as against
the Indian Nuclear Policy.
65. (a) Frank Marini in his book
‘Toward a New Public Administration’
summarizes the themes of new public
administration under five heads:
relevance, values, social equity, change
and client-focus.
66. (d) In Berubari case despite the
recognition of the significance of the
Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically
opined that Preamble is not a part of the
Constitution. But, In the Kesavananva
Bharati case (1973), the Supreme court
rejected the earlier opinion and held that
Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
67. (c) The fundamental difference
between institutionalism and new
institutionalism would primarily be located
on the principle of experimentation.
New Institutionalism support the idea of
experimentation.
68. (c) International humanitarian law,
or jus in bello, is the law that governs the
way in which warfare is conducted. IHL
is purely humanitarian, seeking to limit
the suffering caused. It is independent
from questions about the justification
or reasons for war, or its prevention,
covered by jus ad bellum.
69. (c) 91st Amendment of the Indian
constitution limits the number of Council
of Ministers at the Centre and the States
to no more than 15 percent.
70. (d) Plan Holidays is a gap
between two-five years plan, i.e. 1979–
1980 and 1990–92. 2. It was a stop-gap
arrangement by the provisions of annual
plans. Plan holidays took place due to
 114
a change in government to be locked in
development goals and priorities etc.
71. (c) The Nodal agency of National
Human Rights Commission of India is
the Ministry of Home Affairs. It is an
autonomous agency but comes just Home
ministry.
72. (a) A total of 13 Intangible cultural
heritage (ICH) elements from India have
been inscribed till date on the UNESCO’s
Representative List of the Intangible
Cultural Heritage of Humanity. Kumbh
is recently added to the list of Intangible
Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
73. (a) An Agenda for Peace:
Preventive diplomacy, peacemaking
and peace-keeping, and Peace Building
more commonly known simply as An
Agenda for Peace, is a report written for
the United Nations by Secretary-General
Boutros Boutros-Ghali in 1992.
74. (a) French foreign minister Hubert
Védrine popularized the term in 1998,
because from France's position, the
United States looked like a hyperpower,
although the validity of classifying the
United States in this way was disputed.
75. (d)
Rio De Janerio (1992) - Environment
summit
Vienna (1993) - Human right
convention
Cairo (1994) - Population
Beijing (1995 ) - International
Women
Summit
76. (a) On April 17, 1961, 1,400
Cuban exiles launched what became a
botched invasion at the Bay of Pigs on
the south coast of Cuba. In 1959, Fidel
Castro came to power in an armed revolt
that overthrew Cuban dictator Fulgencio
Batista.
77. (b) Black Widow or shahidka, is a
term for Islamist Chechen female suicide
bombers, willing to be a manifestation
of violent jihad. They became known
at the Moscow theater hostage crisis of
October 2002.
78. (a)
Antarctic treaty - 1959
UN Law of the sea - 1982
Kyoto Protocol - 1997
Cartogena Protocol - 2000
79. (a)
S.D Muni - Pangs of
Proximity
C. Rajamohan - Crossing the
Rubicon
Urmila - Ethnicity and
Phadnis nation - building
in South Asia
J.N Dixit - Anatomy of a
flawed
80. (d) Tryst with Destiny was a
speech made by Jawaharlal Nehru, the
first Prime Minister of independent
India. The speech was made to the Indian
Constituent Assembly, on the eve of
India’s independence, towards midnight
on 14 August 1947. It focuses on the
aspects that transcend India’s history.
81. (a) Both the statement are true
and second statement is a correct reason
behind the assertion statement.
82. (b) In 1971 by 2832 UNGa
resolution the Indian Ocean was declared
as the Zone of Peace. It called upon the
great Powers to enter into immediate
consultations with the littoral States of
the Indian Ocean with a view to halting
the further escalation and expansion
of their military presence in the Indian
Ocean.
83. (c) The ‘Look West Policy’ of
India is to better India’s cooperation
and relations with West Asian Nation.
It Include the area of middle east. It is
launched by Modi government.
84. (a) The term ‘flying bees’ got
associated with ASEAN.
85. (d) The National Human Rights
Commission of India is a Statutory
public body constituted on 12 October
1993 under the Protection of Human
Rights Ordinance of 28 September
1993. It was given a statutory basis by
the Protection of Human Rights Act,
1993. The Union Government set up
the National Commission for Minorities
(NCM) under the National Commission
for Minorities Act, 1992. Five religious
communities, viz; Muslims, Christians,
Sikhs, Buddhists and Zoroastrians
(Parsis) have been notified as minority
communities by the Union Government.
Practice Set-9
86. (b) Second wave of democracy
was started after the End of the Second
World War. Countries like India, Sri-
Lanka, etc. became a democracy during
this wave of democracy.
87. (d) Commitment to the secular
and democratic ideals does not form the
basis of difference between voluntary
organizations and NGOs.
88. (b) The right to information has
introduced Caution, Care and Vigilance
in Indian politico-administrative system.
It also removed the problem of Red
tapism. The Right to Information Act has
enhanced to public service capability of
government organisations.
89. (a) The members of the Cabinet
Mission were: Lord Penthick-Lawrence,
Secretary of State for India, Sir Stafford
Cripps, President of the Board of Trade,
and A.V Alexander, First Lord of the
Admiralty.
90. (a) Yes, The concept of Nation
and nationalism can variedly be
conceptualised and defined but without
being generalized in common theorization
because there can be discourses, but
not common theories, on nation and
nationalism.
91. (c) The passage states, “Aadhaar
will be required for getting benefits
under a central government scheme
for providing financial assistance to
family members of victims of violence
perpetrated by terrorists or Naxals,
and communal riots. The notification
comes into effect in all states and union
territories except Assam and Meghalaya,
where Aadhaar has not covered all
residents. The assistance is given by the
state governments and the home ministry
reimburses the state governments when it
gets their demand.”
92. (c) It can be deciphered from the
following lines, “The ministry through
the implementing agency is required
to offer Aadhaar enrolment facilities
for the eligible beneficiary, who is not
yet enrolled for Aadhaar and in case
there is no Aadhaar enrolment centre
located nearby. Until the time Aadhaar
is assigned to the beneficiary, benefits
under the scheme shall be given to such
beneficiary subject to the production of
Practice Set-9
the Aadhaar enrolment identification slip
if he or she has enrolled and any one of the
following: bank or post office passbook
with photo; or voter identification card;
or PAN card; or ration card; or passport;
or any other document as specified by the
ministry.”
93. (a) The passage states, “In case
of biometric authentication through
fingerprints or IRIS or face authentication
is not successful, feasible and admissible
authentication by Aadhaar One Time
Password (OTP) with limited time
validity shall be offered.”
94. (b) The passage states, “In all
other cases where biometric or OTP
authentication is not possible, benefits
may be given on the basis of physical
Aadhaar letter whose authenticity can be
verified through the QR code printed on
the Aadhaar letter.”
95. (b) The passage states, “In
order to provide convenient and hassle-
free benefits to the beneficiary under
the scheme, the ministry through the
implementing agency or other means
shall make all the required arrangements
to ensure that wide publicity through
media is given to the beneficiary to
make them aware of the requirement of
Aadhaar under the scheme.”
96. (d) The passage clearly mentions
that the proportion of the urban
population can only go in one direction,
i.e., upward.
97. (b) It is clearly stated in the
passage that special economic zones
have to contend with the issue of lack of
115
social infrastructure which usually means
access to avenues of education, health,
arts, sports, and so on.
98. (d) The last line of the first
paragraph clearly states that the smart
cities must have institutional infrastructure
(governance), physical infrastructure and
also social infrastructure.
99. (d) It has been clearly mentioned
in the second paragraph that creating a
smart city isn’t just about creating the
physical infrastructure but to provide
proper roads, clean water, power, and
transport to the public.
100. (c) It has been clearly mentioned
in the second paragraph that public
private partnerships (PPP) will help in
successful implementation of Smart City
Plan.
qqq
 116 Practice Set-10

UGC/NET/JRF/SET EXAMINATION
Political Science
Practice Set-10
1. Match the following (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 List–I     List–II (d) None of the above
A. The World 1. 1957 4. Gulf Cooperation Council was
Bank founded in year
B. World Trade 2. 1945 (a) 1989 (b) 1987
Organisation (c) 1981 (d) 1980
C. World Health 3. 1948 5. What is the full form of TRIMS?
Organisation (a) Trade Related Intellectual
D. International 4. 1995 Measures
Atomic Energy (b) Agreement on Trade Related
Agency Investment Measures
Codes: (c) Technology Related Investment
A B C D Measures
(a) 2 4 3 1 (d) None of the Above
(b) 1 2 3 4 6. Agreement on Agricultural is
(c) 3 1 2 4 related to which international
Organisation?
(d) 2 3 1 4
(a) WHO (b) IMF
2. Match the following
(c) UNESCO (d) WTO
  List–I List–II
A. Karl Kautsky 1. Marxism 7. Gujral Doctrine in Indian foreign
Policy was introduced by former
B. Robert Owen 2. Socialism
Prime Minister I.K. Gujral to
C. John Locke 3. Liberalism
D. Clinton 4. Consevatism (a) Deal with ASEAN countries
Rossiter (b) Deal with China
Codes: (c) Deal with Immediate neighbours
A B C D (d) Deal with South Africa
8. The Act East Foreign Policy of
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 2 3 4 Modi Government is related to
(a) GCC (b) BRICS
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 1 3 4 (c) BIMSTEC (d) ASEAN
9. India became the member of
3. Who among the following are
associated with early socialism Shanghai cooperation Organisation
sometimes termed as ‘utopian in year
socialist’? (a) 2015 (b) 2016
1. Robert Owen
(c) 2017 (d) 2018
2. Saint Simon
10. The Theme of the 11th BRICS
3. Charles Fourier
summit held in Brazil was
4. Proudhan
(a) E c o n o m i c G r o w t h f o r a n
Codes: Innovative Future
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) E c o n o m i c G r o w t h f o r a n
(b) 1, 2 and 4 Sustainable Future
(c) Environmental Growth for an
Innovative Future
(d) E c o n o m i c G r o w t h f o r a n
Intellectual Future
11. Consider the following pairs:
Constitutional Borrowed
provisions from
1. Fundamental : United States
Rights
2. Idea of Residual : Canada
power
3. Rule of the law : Britain
4. Power of judicial : France
review
5. Directive : Ireland
Principles of
States Policy
Which of the pairs given above are
correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
12. With reference to the members of
the constituent assembly, consider
the following statements:
1. Different communities were
represented in proportion to their
population.
2. Princely states were given no
representation.
3. Both Mahatma Gandhi and M.
A. Jinnah were members of
constituent assembly.
Which of the statements given
above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice Set-10
13. Which of the following is considered
as ‘Magna Carta of the Company’?
(a) Royal Charter by Queen Elizabeth
(b) Farrukhsiyar’s Farmans
(c) Treaty of Allahabad after the
Battle of Buxar
(d) Charter Act of 1813
14. Consider the following statements:
The function(s) of the Finance
Commission is/are:
1. To allow the withdrawal of the
money out of the Consolidated
Fund of India.
2. To allocated between the States
the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. To consider applications for
grants-in-aid from States.
4. To supervise and report on
whether the Union and State
governments are levying taxes
in accordance with the budgetary
provisions.
Which of these statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
15. According to the National Human
Rights Commission Act, 1993, who
amongst the following can be its
Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the
Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High
Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of
India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a
High Court
16. Which Article of the Constitution of
India says, ‘No child below the age
of fourteen years shall be employed
to work in any factory or mine or
engaged in any other hazardous
employment’?
(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45
(c) Article 330 (d) Article 368
17. Which one of the following
statements correctly describes the
Fourth Schedule of the Constitution
of India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the
distribution of powers between
the Union and the States.
(b) It contains the languages listed in
the Constitution.
(c) It contains the provisions
regarding the administration of
tribal areas.
(d) It allocates seats in the Council
of States.
18. As per Indian Protocol, who among
the following ranks highest in the
order of precedence?
(a) Deputy Prime Minister
(b) Former President
(c) Governor of a State within his
State
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
19. Consider the following statements:
1. Free and compulsory education
to the children of 6–14 years age
group by the State was made a
Fundamental Right by the 76th
Amendment to the Constitution
of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to
provide computer education even
in rural areas.
3. Education was included in
the Concurrent List by the
42nd Amendment, 1976 to the
Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only
20. Who was the Chief Justice of India
when public interest litigation
(PIL) was introduced to the Indian
Judicial System?
(a) M. Hidayatullah
(b) A.M. Ahmadi
(c) A.S. Anand
(d) P.N. Bhagwati
21. Arrange the following writs in the
correct sequence as given in the
Indian Constitution:
(i) Certiorari
(ii) Habeas Corpus
(iii) Quo Warranto
117
(iv) Prohibition
(v) Mandamus
Codes:
(a) (i), (iii), (v), (ii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i), (v)
(c) (ii), (v), (iv), (i), (iii)
(d) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
22. Arrange the following in their
chronological sequence:
(i) Cripps Mission
(ii) Montague Chelmsford Report
(iii) Simon Commission
(iv) Morley–Minto Reforms
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(b) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(c) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
23. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I   List-II
(Parties)   (Characteristic)
(A) Indian (i) National
National Party
Congress
(B) Telugu Desam (ii) State Party
Party
(C) Kerala (iii) Umbrella
Congress Party
(D) Communist (iv) Regional
Party of India Party
(Marxist)
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
24. Which one of the following
was denounced by congress as
“inadequate, unsatisfactory and
disappointing”?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Montague Chelmsford Report,
1918
(c) Simon commission Report, 1930
(d) Communal Award, 1932
 118
25. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A federal arrangement
aims at reconciling freedom with
unity and diversity of political
cultures and identities with effective
collective action.
Reason (R): India opted for a
pluralistic model of nation building.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is not
correct.
(d) (R) is correct, but (A) is not
correct.
26. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(Articles) (Provisions)
(A) 359 (i) Financial
Emergency
(B) 312 (ii) Finance
Commission
(C) 280 (iii) Suspension of
Fundamental
Rights
(D) 360 (iv) All India
Services
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
27. Who among the following has
created eighteen definitions of
public administration and put them
in four categories of political, legal,
occupational and managerial?
(a) Gulick and Urwick
(b) Shafritz and Russell
(c) David H. Rosenbloom
(d) Paul H. Appleby
28. Who among the following has not
made a distinction between public
and private administration?
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Herbert Simon
(c) Paul H. Appleby
(d) John Gaus
29. What is the correct chronological
sequence of the following reports?
1. A. D. Gorwala Report
2. Paul H. Appleby Report
3. Santhanam Committee Report
4. First Administrative Reforms
Commission Report.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2
30. Max Weber used the Greek word
‘Charisma’ to refer to
1. qualities acquired by experience
2. inherited qualities
3. supernatural qualities
4. super human qualities
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
31. Which one of the following is not
correct regarding Marx’s theory of
alienation?
(a) Alienation from the product
(b) Alienation from the activity of
labour
(c) Disalienation from species-being
(d) Alienation of man from man
32. Who of the following is of the view
that it is not Gandhi who made
Satyagraha but it is Satyagraha
which made Gandhi the Mahatma?
(a) R.R. Diwakar
(b) C.F. Andrews
(c) G.N. Dhawan
(d) Louis Fisher
33. In which of the following countries
Narendranath Bhattacharya settled
under the name of Manabendra
Nath Roy?
Practice Set-10
(a) Java
(b) United States of America
(c) Germany
(d) Mexico
34. Who of the following said that God
had appeared to him in prison,
placed the Gita in his hands and
made him realize the simple truths
of the Sanatana Dharma?
(a) Vivekananda
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Aurobindo Ghose
(d) Savarkar
35. Comparative Politics is the study
of
(a) institutions and functions
(b) all forms of political activity-
governmental as well as non-
governmental and all political
phenomena
(c) political processes
(d) t e c h n i q u e s a n d t o o l s o f
comparative inquiry
36. What is the correct sequence in
which the following approaches to
the study of ‘Comparative Politics’
emerged?
1. Philosophical Approach
2. Systems Approach
3. New Institutional Approach
4. Behavioural Approach
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(b) 1, 4, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 3
(d) 3, 1, 2 and 4
37. Arrange the following books in
order in which they appeared:
1. Political Order in Changing
Societies
2. The Politics of Modernization
3. How Europe Underdeveloped
Africa
4. Capitalism and Underdevelopment
in Latin America
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Practice Set-10
Codes:
(a) 2, 1, 4 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 4 and 3
38. Which one of the following articles
of the US Constitution vests the
executive powers in the President?
(a) Article 1 (b) Article 2
(c) Article 3 (d) Article 4
39. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(A) Both Houses i. America
have equal
powers
(B) Upper House ii. India
is more
powerful than
Lower House
(C) Lower House iii. France
is more
powerful than
Upper House
(D) National iv. Switzerland
Assembly can
overthrow the
government
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
40. Consider the following:
1. Pocket Veto
2. President message to federal
legislature
3. Caucus system
4. Pigeon hole-a bill
These are the parts of constitutional
practice of
(a) Indian Political System
(b) American Political System
(c) The Swiss Political System
(d) The British Political System
41. For Locke, which of the following
statements is not true?
(A) The state must be a constitutional
state.
(B) G o v e r n m e n t m u s t p o s s e s
discretionary power.
(C) It is a tolerant state.
(D) The right to property is not a
natural right.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (A) and (B)
(c) (B) only (d) (D) only
42. For Rousseau, which of the
following statements is not true?
(A) Two original instincts i.e. self-
love and sympathy make up
man’s nature.
(B) A thinking man is a depraved
animal.
(C) Family is the only natural
society.
(D) General will is not a group mind.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C)
(c) (C) only (d) (D) only
43. For J.S. Mill, which of the following
statements is not true?
(A) Pleasures differ in quality as well
as in quantity.
(B) Mill makes use of the non-
utilitarian arguments.
(C) The felicific calculus is absurd.
(D) Pleasures can be objectively
measured.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (D) only
44. Arrange the following works of
Amartya Sen in chronological
order of his publications. Select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
(A) Idea of Justice
(B) Inequality Re-examined
(C) Development as Freedom
(D) Choice, Welfare and Measure-
ment
119
Codes:
(a) (D), (B), (C), (A)
(b) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(c) (C), (D), (A), (B)
(d) (B), (A), (D), (C)
45. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Assertion (A): There was great deal
of similarity between the ideas of
Mazzini and those of Aurobindo.
Reason (R): Both believed that faith
in God was the basis of morality, that
politics could not be separated from
morality.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
46. Identify the correct sequence in
which general systems theory has
been adopted in social sciences?
(i) Psychology
(ii) Sociology
(iii) Anthropology
(iv) Political Science
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (iii), (ii), (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i)
(d) (iii), (i), (ii), and (iv)
47. The term ‘legitimation crisis’, in
terms of erosion of confidence
in public institutions resulting in
coercive apparatus of states, was
developed by:
(a) David Apter
(b) S.P. Huntington
(c) Edward Shills
(d) Habermas
48. Which of the following is not true
of a Constitution?
 120
(a) It safeguards the political
institutions.
(b) It is the source of all authority of
the organs of the government.
(c) It promotes trans-national
security.
(d) It incorporates fundamental laws.
49. Who among the following are
European thinkers associated with
the theory of political elites?
(A) Pareto (B) Mosca
(C) Schumpeter (D) Lasswell
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
50. Who among the following do not
make any distinction between
interest groups and pressure
groups?
(A) Jean Blondel
(B) Myron Weiner
(C) Robert C. Bone
(D) James Coleman
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (D) (d) (D) only
51. Which of the following are the
characteristics of development
administration?
1. Change-orientation
2. Client orientation
3. Citizen-participative orientation
4. Ecological perspective
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
52. Domicile qualification for public
services was first prescribed by
(a) The United States of America
(b) U.K.
(c) India
(d) France
53. Which one of the following is the
Cadre-controlling authority for the
Indian Police Service?
(a) The Ministry of Personnel,
Public Grievances and Pensions
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
(d) Cabinet Secretary
54. The process of transferring funds
from one budget head to another of
the same department where there is
a need for more expenditure is called
(a) transfer
(b) re-allocation
(c) re-appropriation
(d) Sectoral allocation
55. Promotion generally means
1. Change in position
2. Change in duties
3. Change in title
4. Change in pay
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
56. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Regimes represent an
important feature of globalization.
Reason (R): The onset of détente,
the loss of hegemonic status by the
USA and the growing awareness of
environmental problems sensitized
social scientists.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
57. Who said, “Power in International
Politics is like the weather.
Everyone talks about it, but few
understand it”?
(a) Hans J.Morganthau
(b) Henry Kissinger
(c) Joseph Nye
(d) Susan Strange
Practice Set-10
58. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(Reasons of (States)
failure)
(A) Tribal conflict i. Rwanda
(B) Endless ii. Somalia
for violence
nonpolitical
purposes
(C) Ethnic iii. Congo
genocide
(D) Transnational iv. Liberia
war
Codes:
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
59. Which countries were identified
as the “Axis of Evil” by President
Bush in his State of Union Speech
in 2002?
(a) Russia, China, Iran
(b) Iran, Iraq, Syria
(c) Cuba, Venezuela, Russia
(d) Iraq, Iran, North Korea
60. When was the UN Peace building
Commission established?
(a) January 2003
(b) December 2004
(c) December 2005
(d) January 2006
61. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R). Select
the correct answer from the code
given below:
Assertion (A): Herbert Simon has
ridiculed the classical theory of
organisation as a machine model
theory.
Reason (R): Classicists are too
much preoccupied with the formal
structural part of organisation and
that too at the cost of human factors.
Practice Set-10
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
62. Which of the following statements
is not correct about the Right to
Information Act?
(a) The Right to Information Act
came into force on 12 October
2005.
(b) The Freedom of Information Act,
2002 has been repealed.
(c) The Official Secrets Act, 1923
has also been repealed.
(d) Central Information Commission
and State Information Commissions
have been constituted.
63. Which of the following is not an
integral part of liberal constitu-
tionalism?
(a) Individual freedom
(b) Toleration and consent
(c) Majoritanianism
(d) Minority rights
64. The Presidential system operates
most successfully in the U.S. because
of
(a) A strong two party system
(b) A well demarcated constitution
(c) Judicial review
(d) Minor contradictions in society
65. The House of Lords in Great
Britain is mainly retained because
(a) It is as important as the House of
Commons.
(b) It plays an important role of
checks and balances.
(c) It acts as a judicial court.
(d) It is maintained as an institution.
66. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R). Select
the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Assertion (A): Huntington is correct
in asserting that the combination of
the role of the state and government
of the U.S. President is a medieval
practice.
Reason (R): It is because in other
liberal democracies, the two roles
are not combined.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is the false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
67. The growth of judicial power over
the last one hundred years in liberal
democracies have taken place
because
(a) The constitutions have given the
judiciary more powers.
(b) Acceptance of the theory of
separation of powers.
(c) The U.N. Directives.
(d) Protect Human Rights.
68. Beliefs and symbols are the
distinctive features of the notion
of authority in
(a) Marx (b) Parsons
(c) Verba (d) Weber
69. Regarding the Interim Government
of 1946, which of the following is
not correct?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime
Minister/Head of the Executive
Council.
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru was designated
as the Vice-President of the
Viceroy’s Executive Council.
(c) The Viceroy continued to be the
Head of the Executive Council.
(d) The members of the Interim
Government were members of
viceroy’s Executive Council.
70. Which one of the following
statements is not correct regarding
Certiorari?
(a) A High Court can issue a writ
against itself in its administrative
capacity.
121
(b) A bench of a High Court can
issue a writ to another bench of
the same High Court.
(c) A High Court cannot issue a writ
to another High Court.
(d) A High Court can issue certiorari
to a tribunal situated within its
jurisdiction.
71. Who among the following former
Presidents of India kept the ‘Indian
Post Office Amendment Bill’
pending?
(a) Zakir Hussain
(b) V.V. Giri
(c) Zail Singh
(d) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma
72. Who said ‘All Communalism is
harmful’? The logic of minority
Communalism is separatism, and
majority communalism culminates
in Fascism?
(a) Bhikhu Parekh
(b) T.N. Madan
(c) Bipin Chandra
(d) Ashish Nandy
73. Who emphasized the emergence of
“a market polity” in India?
(a) Stanley A. Kochanek
(b) James Manor
(c) Morris-Jones
(d) Paul Brass
74. The most logical criterion to
distinguish a line function from
staff is
(a) the functional relationship
(b) the authority relationship
(c) the grouping of functions
(d) the departmentalization
75. Central Vigilance Commission was
set up on the recommendations of
(a) First Administrative Reforms
Commission
(b) Gorwala Committee Report
(c) Kripalani Committee Report
(d) Santhanam Committee Report
76. The Lokpal and Lokayukta Bill
1968 passed by the Lok Sabha
lapsed because
(a) Rajya Sabha rejected the Bill
(b) President withheld the Bill
 122
(c) Joint Committee of the two
Houses rejected the Bill
(d) of early Dissolution of Fourth
Lok Sabha
77. Which one of the following is not
correct about Association of South
East Asian Nations (ASEAN)?
(a) First India ASEAN Summit was
held in November, 2002.
(b) ASEAN declared South East
Asian Nuclear Weapon free zone
in 1995.
(c) ASEAN is working to remove
trade barriers and develop
economic relationship with
China, Japan and South Korea.
(d) India became full dialogue
partner of ASEAN in 1991.
78. Who among the following used
the phrase – The United Nations is
‘sharing in the name of solidarity’
for underlining the necessity of the
U.N.?
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) Dag Hammarskjold
(c) Trygve Lie
(d) Woodrow Wilson
79. Which one of the following was
not included in the minimum
criteria for ensuring good national
governance by Nayef Al-Rodhan in
his book ‘Sustainable History and
Dignity of Man’?
(a) Equity and Inclusiveness
(b) Rule of Law
(c) A system of checks and balances
(d) Transparency
80. Regarding the liability of holders of
public office, when an official fails
to perform a legal duty, it is known
as
(a) Malfeasance (b) Nonfeasance
(c) Disfeasance (d) Misfeasance
81. Which of the following are the
characteristics of development
administration?
1. Change-orientation
2. Client orientation
3. Citizen-participative orientation
4. Ecological perspective
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
82. Domicile qualification for public
services was first prescribed by
(a) The United States of America
(b) U.K.
(c) India
(d) France
83. Which one of the following is the
Cadre-controlling authority for the
Indian Police Service?
(a) The Ministry of Personnel,Public
Grievances and Pensions
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
(d) Cabinet Secretary
84. The process of transferring funds
from one budget head to another of
the same department where there
is a need for more expenditure is
called
(a) transfer
(b) re-allocation
(c) re-appropriation
(d) sectoral allocation
85. Promotion generally means
1. Change in position
2. Change in duties
3. Change in title
4. Change in pay
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
86. Which of the following statements
are correct?
1. Panchayati Raj is mentioned in
the Constitution as a Directive
Principle.
2. Sadiq Ali Committee was
appointed to report on the
working of the Panchayat system
in India.
3. G.V.K. Rao Committee was
appointed by the Planning
Commission.
Practice Set-10
4. Local Government figures in
State List.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
87. Who among the following has
termed bureaucracy as “an
organization that cannot correct
its behaviour by learning from its
errors”?
(a) R.K. Merton
(b) M. Crozer
(c) Max Weber
(d) C.N. Parkinson
88. W h o i s t h e C h a i r p e r s o n o f
the National Council of Joint
Consultative Machinery (JCM)?
(a) Cabinet Secretary
(b) Secretary for Home Affairs
(c) Personnel Secretary
(d) Finance Secretary
89. Of all the controls over Public
Administration the one which is
more continuous and self-corrective
is
(a) controlled by the Legislature
(b) controlled by the Executive
(c) controlled by the Judiciary
(d) controlled by the Media
90. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A few years back, the
Government of India started what is
known as “file jumping experiment”.
Reason (R): Hierarchical structure
causes inordinate delay in the disposal
of work.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Practice Set-10
Direction: Read the passage and answer
the following five questions:
Rupee has been continuously
depreciating for the last few weeks and
has touched an all-time low of 56 to dollar.
Even though the price of crude oil has
not increased in the international market,
the cost for the oil marketing companies
(OMC) like Indian Oil Corporation
(IOCL), Bharat petroleum (BPCL)
has been increasing on the account
of increased value of dollar. The oil
marketing companies have lost around
Rs 4300 crores for selling petrol below
the cost in the last six months. Since
2010, the petrol has been deregulated and
OMCs can increase the price of petrol
if there is large variation in their costs.
The main reason behind increase in the
petrol prices is the rise of dollar against
rupee. We need to understand why rupee
is depreciating against dollar like a free
fall. One of the many reasons cited for the
depreciation is the ongoing euro crisis.
Many institutional investors have moved
out their investments in euro to dollar as
dollar is considered to be safe haven. In
order to be safe, some investment has also
moved out of India. But the euro crisis
only cannot justify the free fall of rupee.
If we see the other currencies like Pound,
Yen, Brazilian Real, there has been no
significant depreciation, in fact yen has
gained against dollar considering one year
time frame.
So what are the other significant
reasons for depreciating rupee? One of
prime reasons is our burgeoning fiscal
deficit (difference between revenue and
expenditure). The fiscal deficit for the
year 2011-2012 stood at Rs. 521,980
and it is targeted at Rs. 513,590 crores
for the 2012-2013. This huge deficit is
primarily because of subsidy offered
on food, fertilizer and petroleum. The
oil subsidy for the year 2012-2013 is
estimated to be Rs 43,580 crores. But
we project the losses suffered by OMCs
for the current year, this subsidy will
come out to be Rs. 114,000 crores.
According to twin deficit hypothesis, there
is strong linkage between fiscal deficit
and trade deficit (imports – exports). The
government’s fiscal deficit is increasing
i.e. government is spending more than
it is what it is earning. This is because
increased expenditure is not matched by
the increased tax rates. Hence, people are
left with more money, out which some of
the money is diverted towards the imports
which results in more imports than exports
leading to trade deficit. The major portion
of our imports is oil. Since oil imports
have to be paid in dollars, the importers
need to buy dollars and sell rupee leading
more demand of dollar and excess of rupee
in the market. Considering the demand
supply, rupee is continuously losing value;
the OMCs have to shell out more rupees
for same amount of oil imports.
91. According to the passage, why
petrol price is rising in India?
1. The burgeoning fiscal deficit of
India.
2. The Euro crisis which has led to
depreciating rupee.
Which of the reasons given alone
is/are valid?
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
92. Which of the following statements is
incorrect according to the passage?
(a) The fiscal deficit for the year
2011-2012 stood at Rs. 521,980
crores.
(b) The fiscal deficit targeted for the
year 2012-2013 at Rs. 513,590
crores.
(c) The oil subsidy for the year 2012-
2013 is estimated to be Rs 43,580
crores.
(d) Before 2010, the petrol was
deregulated.
93. In reference to the passage, which
of the following assumptions can be
made?
1. Increased fiscal deficit of Indian
government is due to increased
expenditure which is not in
accordance with the increased
tax rates.
2. The fiscal deficit of India
increased further as prices of oil
products remained unchanged.
123
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
94. According to twin deficit hypothesis:
(a) There is a link between fiscal
deficit and trade surplus.
(b) There is a link between fiscal
deficit and trade deficit.
(c) There is a link between Debts
and trade deficit.
(d) There is a link between fiscal
deficit and economic slowdown.
95. In order to decrease fiscal deficit:
1. Limit the import of oil to the
minimum possible extent.
2. Compensate the OMCs for the
subsidy offered.
3. Prices of petrol have to be
increased along with prices of
diesel, LPG and kerosene.
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I only (d) III only
Direction: Read the passage and answer
the following five questions.
In a big step towards resolution of
bad loans, Indian banks, Reserve Bank of
India and the union finance ministry are
discussing setting up two special funds to
resurrect troubled investments through
equity infusion or more debt funds. The
two funds proposed are Stressed Assets
Equity Fund and Stressed Assets Lending
Fund. “Creation of separate funds for
resolution of stressed assets is being
worked out. Indian Banks’ Association
(IBA) is finalizing the road map,” adding
the corpus of these two funds will be
fluid and will take case-specific action.
According to RBI data, the stressed
assets ratio for the banking sector, which
includes gross non-performing assets
(NPAs), increased to 14.5% at the end
of December 2015 as against 9.8% at the
end of March 2012. State-run banks have
the highest share in stressed loans. Their
gross NPAs or bad loans alone rose from
Rs 2.67 lakh crore in March 2015 to
Rs 3.61 lakh crore in December. A senior
official with IBA said that the stressed
assets equity fund (SAEF) will invest
in equity of stressed borrower bringing
equity to burdened projects. “It may take
 124
controlling stake either directly or through
strategic debt restructuring scheme
(SDR),” he said.
The other fund named stressed assets
lending fund (SALF) will provide last
mile funding or working capital funding
to assets in trouble because of funding
constraints. “An oversight committee will
be formed to look into cases where these
funds will invest. Discussions are on to
work out the modalities,” said the above
quoted government official. Earlier this
month, RBI had come out with a scheme
for sustainable structuring of stressed
assets, also termed as S4A, to strengthen
the lenders' ability to deal with stressed
assets and provide an avenue for reworking
the financial structure of entities facing
genuine difficulties. “The S4A envisages
determination of the sustainable debt level
for a stressed borrower and bifurcation of
the outstanding debt into sustainable debt
and equity/quasi-equity instruments which
are expected to provide upside to the
lenders when the borrower turns around,”
the RBI had noted in a statement.
Answers with Explanations
1. (a)
The World Bank 1. 1945
World Trade 2. 1995
Organisation
World Health 3. 1948
Organisation
International Atomic 4. 1957
Energy Agency
2. (b)
Karl Kautsky 1. Marxism
Robert Owen 2. Socialism
John Locke 3. Liberalism
Clinton Rossiter 4. Conservatism
3. (c) The Early-19th-century followers
of the utopian theories and Socialism
were thinkers like Robert Owen, Claude
Henri de Saint-Simon and Charles
Fourier.
4. (c) Established in 1981, the GCC
promotes economic, security, cultural
and social cooperation between the six
states and holds a summit every year to
discuss cooperation and regional affairs.
96. Which of the following funds is
build to resurrect troubled invest-
ments through debt funds?
(a) SAEF (b) SEAF
(c) SALF (d) SLAF
97. What are Non-Performing Assets
(NPAs)?
(a) Assets of the banks which bring
in cash.
(b) Assets of the banks which don’t
bring any return.
(c) Movable assets of the bank.
(d) Immovable assets of the bank.
98. Which of the following statement is
incorrect according to the passage?
(a) Gross NPAs rose from Rs 2.67
lakh crore in March 2015 to
Rs 3.61 lakh crore in December
2015.
(b) Gross non-performing assets
(NPAs) were 14.5% in December
2015.
5. (b) The Agreement on Trade-
Related Investment Measures are rules
that are applicable to the domestic
regulations a country applies to foreign
investors, often as part of an industrial
policy. It is related to WTO.
6. (d) The WTO Agreement on
Agriculture was one of the many
agreements which were negotiated during
the Uruguay Round. The implementation
of the Agreement on Agriculture started
with effect from 1.1.1995. As per
the provisions of the Agreement, the
developed countries would complete
their reduction commitments within 6
years, i.e., by the year 2000, whereas
the commitments of the developing
countries would be completed within 10
years, i.e., by the year 2004. The least
developed countries are not required to
make any reductions.
7. (c) The Gujral doctrine was a five-
point roadmap which sought to build
trust between India and neighbours,
of solution to bilateral issues through
bilateral talks and to remove immediate
Practice Set-10
(c) Gross non-performing assets
(NPAs) were 9.8% in March
2012.
(d) Gross non-performing assets
(NPAs) were 14.5% in March
2012.
99. Stressed Assets Lending Fund
(SALF) will provide:
(a) Equity Capital Fund
(b) Fixed Capital Fund
(c) Working Capital Fund
(d) Long-term Capital Fund
100. The objective of the scheme S4A is:
(a) To strengthen the lenders' ability
to deal with stressed assets.
(b) To provide an avenue for
reworking the financial structure
of entities facing genuine
difficulties.
(c) Sustainable structuring of stressed
assets
(d) All of the above
quid pro quos in diplomatic relationship
between India and her neighbours. The
‘Doctrine’ emphasized on the importance
of unilateral accommodation for friendly
and warm relations with India’s neighbours.
8. (d) India’s Act East Policy focuses
on the extended neighbourhood in the
Asia-Pacific region. India has upgraded
its relations to strategic partnership with
Indonesia, Vietnam, Malaysia, Japan,
Republic of Korea (ROK), Australia,
Singapore and the Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and
forged close ties with all countries in the
Asia-Pacific region.
9. (c) India and Pakistan joined SCO
as full members on 9 June 2017 at a
summit in Astana, Kazakhstan.
10. (a) The 11th BRICS Summit held
in Brasília, Brazil. The 2019 Brazilian
Presidency focused on the theme,
‘BRICS: Economic Growth for an
Innovative Future’.
11. (c) The power of Judicial review
was borrowed from the United States.
All the other pairs are correctly matched.
Practice Set-10
12. (b) The seats in each Province
were distributed among the three main
communities, Muslims, Sikhs and
general, in proportion to their respective
populations. Members of each community
in the Provincial Legislative Assembly
elected their own representatives by the
method of proportional representation
with single transferable vote. Statement
2 is incorrect - The method of selection
in the case of representatives of
Princely States was to be determined
by consultation. Total 93 seats allotted
to the princely states. Statement 3 is
incorrect - Mahatma Gandhi and M. A.
Jinnah, these two personalities were not
the part of the constituent assembly.
13. (b) In 1717, the Mughal Emperor
Farrukhsiyar’s Farmans, called Magna
Carta of the East India Company, gave
significant privileges to the company in
Bengal, Gujarat and Hyderabad.
14. (b) Functions of Finance
Commission are to recommend: 1. The
distribution of the net proceeds of taxes
to be shared between the Centre and
the State. 2. The principles that should
govern the grants-in-aid to the States
by the Centre. 3. Measures needed to
augment the Consolidated Fund of a
State.
15. (c) National Human Rights
Commission consists of a Chairman
and four other members. The Chairman
should be a retired Chief Justice of India,
and other members should be a serving
or retired Chief Justice of a High Court,
and two persons having knowledge or
practical experience with respect to
human rights.
16. (a) Article 24 – Prohibition of
employment of children in factories etc.
Article 45 – Provision for early childhood
care and education to children below the
age of 6 years. Article 300 – Reservation
of seats for SCs and STs in the House of
the People. Article 368 – Power of the
Parliament to amend the Constitution.
17. (d) Fourth Schedule (Article 4(1)
and 82(2)) is about the allocation of seats
in the Council of States. Distribution of
powers between the Union and the States
– Seventh Schedule. Language listed
in Eighth Schedule. Administration of
Tribal areas in Sixth Schedule.
18. (a) The order of Precedence for
the given optional is Governor of a State
within his state > Former Presidents.
Deputy Prime Minister > Lok Sabha
Speaker.
19. (c) The Parliament has passed
the 86th Amendment Act (but not 76th)
2002, to make elementary education a
Fundamental Right for children in the
age-group of 6-14 years. SSA (Sarva
Shiksha Abhiyan) seeks to achieve the
long-cherished goal of Universalization
of Elementary Education (UEE). It seeks
to provide computer education even in
rural areas. 42nd Amendment Act shifted
five subjects from the State List to the
Concurrent List viz. Education, forests,
protection of wild animals and birds,
weights and measures and administration
of justice, constitution and organization
of all courts except the Supreme Court
and the High Courts.
20. (d) P.N. Bhagwati was the Chief
Justice of India when PIL concept was
developed in the Indian Judicial System
in 1981 (by widening the concept of
‘Locus standi’ in SP Gupta vs. Union of
India case by the apex court).
21. (c) The correct sequence as per
constitution of India of all the writs
under article 32 are: Habeas Corpus,
mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and
Quo Warranto at last.
22. (b) The sequence of political as
well as the administrative steps taken by
the British administration in India is as
follows: Morley-Minto Reform in 1909,
Montague-Chelmsford report in 1919,
Simon commission in 1927 and Cripps
Mission in 1942.
23. (c)
Indian National - Umbrella
Congress Party
Telugu Desam party - Regional
Party
Kerala Congress - State party
Communist Party of - National
India Party
24. (b) The Montague-Chelmsford
reforms were set out in the government
of India act of 1919. If the British
thought that they would be welcomed
by Indians but they were mistaken.
125
Many Indians had fought with British in
the war. The congress and the League
had come together, calling for safe
rule, and they were disappointed by the
new structure. At a session of congress
in August 1918 the reforms were
condemned as ‘inadequate, unsatisfactory
and disappointing’. Only moderates in
Congress supported the measures and
they were excluded from the party. The
local people had more say in how their
country was governed but the British
maintained their power by ensuring that
the viceroy had the authority to govern
India.
25. (b) Both the statements are true
but they don’t have any relation among
them. The second statement is not a
reason behind the assertion made in the
first statement .
26. (a) Article 359 - Suspension of
fundamental rights
Article 312 - All Indian Services
Article 280 - Finance Commission
Article 360 - Financial emergency
27. (b) Shafritz and Russell has
provided 18 definitions of public adminis-
tration. They have categorised all these
definitions under four heads that are
political, legal, occupational and
managerial.
28. (a) The administrative management
theory by Henri Fayol. He did not made
any distinction between public and private
administration. Fayol was a French who
had worked in a coal industry for over
thirty years. This theory focuses on the
organization as a whole. In his book,
Henri identified five key functional areas
which include; controlling, coordinating,
planning, organising and directing.
29. (a) The Correct sequence of the
report related to administration are as
follows; A.D. Gorwala report in 1951,
Paul H. Appleby Report in 1953,
Santhanam Committee report in 1962 and
Fist Administrative reforms Commission
Report 1966.
30. (d) Weber applies the term
charisma to certain quality of an
individual personality, by virtue of which
he is set apart from ordinary men and
treated as endowed with supernatural,
superhuman, or at least specifically
 126
exceptional powers or qualities. These
are such as are not accessible to the
ordinary person, but are regarded as of
divine origin or as exemplary, and on the
basis of them the individual concerned is
treated as a leader .
31. (d)
32. (b) World leaders struck a new
political accord to address climate change
at the 2009, U.N. Climate Summit in
Copenhagen, Denmark. The accord
provided for explicit emission pledges
by all major economies–including, for
the first time, China and other major
developing countries.
33. (b)
Organisation of American - 1948
States
North Atlantic Free trade - 1994
agreement
Arab Maghreb Union (AMU) - 1989
South East Asian Treaty - 1954
Organisation
34. (b) Yes, Its true that India is
pursuing a positive asymmetry in South
Asia. India is also contained by Pakistan
and china partnership. Both the statement
are true but the second statement is
not true reason behind the assertion
statement.
35. (c) Pakistan’s Arms Procurement
and Military Buildup, 1979-99: In Search
of a Policy was written by Ayesha
Siddiqa Agha. This book presents a
fundamental departure in presenting
an analysis of the internal dynamics
of defence management and decision
making in Pakistan - a new nuclear
weapon state. This is an in-depth study
of Pakistan’s security link with its arms
suppliers and defence industrial capacity,
and the influence of Pakistan’s Army
on conventional and non-conventional
defence decisions.
36. (c) In his criticism of Lenin led
revolution and his theory of revolution in
Russian, G.H Sabine said that “Lenin’s
party was designed to be an elite, a
minority chosen for intellectual and
moral superiority, the most advanced part
of the working class and its vanguard”.
37. (c) The Nocturnal Council is, as
it were, the finishing strokes of Plato’s
Laws. Because in Book XII it is going to
be introduced as a perfect and permanent
safeguard for the regime and its laws of
Magnesia. The Nocturnal Council is to
consist of the ten oldest Guardians of
the Laws; the Supervisor of Education
and his predecessors; the Auditors; and
younger citizens between the ages of
thirty and forty whom each elder member
of this body is to associate himself with.
38. (a) Yes. Its true that for Aristotle
the authority of a constitutional ruler over
his subjects is quite different from that of
a master over his slaves. According to
Aristotle the slave is inferior from birth
and incapable of ruling himself.
39. (a)
Willmoore - John Locke and
Kendall the Doctrine of
Majority-rule
J.W. Gough - John Locke’s
Political
Philosophy
M.W. - John Locke, A
Cranston Biography
Richard Cox - Locke on Peace
and War
40. (c) According to Jean Jacques
Rousseau, the feelings, affections and
bond of family life the joy and beauty
of motherhood, man’s love for arts and
beauty are of eternal value and man
should cultivate all these seriously and
sincerely. The cultivation of all these
will give man real joy and satisfaction.
He believes that there is no place of
reason in all these things. He believes
that science cannot give man proper
satisfaction in life. He said “Science is
the fruit of idle curiosity, philosophy is
mere intellectual frippery the amenities
of polite life are tinsel”.
41. (d) According to John Locke the
Right to Property is a natural right which
include within; Right to life, liberty and
Estate.
42. (d) General will is what a fully-
informed body politic (community of
citizens) would unanimously do if, by
using good reasoning and judgment
unclouded by bias and emotion, it would
make general laws and decisions intended
to ensure the common good.
Practice Set-10
43. (d) Mill distinguishes higher
and lower pleasures in his essay on
“Utilitarianism.” Presumably higher
pleasures are generally more intellectual
pleasures and lower pleasures are more
sensual pleasures. Mill’s utilitarianism
is an ethics that says the highest good is
what produces the most pleasure. Hence
its a subjective concept and not objective.
44. (a) The correct sequence of
Amartya Sen publications;
Choice, Welfare and - 1982
Measurement
Inequality Reexamined - 1992
Development as Freedom - 1999
Idea of Justice - 2009
45. (a) Yes, it’s true that there was
resonance in the revolutionary ideas of
Mazzini and Aurobindo. Both of them
claimed that faith in God is the basis of
morality. Hence religious moral principles
should not be separated from Politics.
46. (b) General System theory was
evolved by Ludwig von Bertalanffy in
1968. This model subsequently adopted
by various disciplines of social science
in following sequence; Anthropology,
Sociology, Psychology and Political Science.
47. (d) Habermas’s concept of
“legitimation crisis” refers to periods
when, “the ‘organizational principle’ of
a society does not permit the resolution
of problems that are critical for its
continued existence.”
48. (c) Any constitution of a country
majorly deals with the national Security.
The issues of Transnational security is
dealt by Multilateral cooperation.
49. (a) Vilfredo Federico Damaso
was an Italian engineer, sociologist,
economist, political scientist, and
philosopher. Gaetano Mosca was an
Italian political scientist, journalist
and public servant. He is credited with
developing the elite theory and the
doctrine of the political class and is one
of the three members constituting the
Italian school of elitism together with
Vilfredo Pareto and Robert Michels.
Practice Set-10
50. (d) James Coleman is credited
with the foundation of Social Theory.
His research topic did not involve
classification interest or pressure group.
51. (d) Development administration
is a dynamic concept which brings about
socio-economic and politico-economic
changes in society. Aiming towards
development, it strives for change,
growth, progress and overall development
in every sphere of a country. It was first
introduced by Edward W. Weidner.
The following are the characteristics of
development administration:
• Change-oriented
• Result-oriented
• Client-oriented
• Citizen participation oriented
• Commitment to fulfill public
demands
• Concerned with innovation
• Administration of industrial
societies
• Effectiveness of coordination
52. (a) A domicile certificate not
only prove the residence status of a
person but also makes him eligible to
avail various benefits based on his or
her domicile such as education, job and
other benefits such as resident quotas in
the government service and educational
institutions. USA was the first country to
introduce domicile condition for public
administration servant job.
53. (a) The position minister of
Personnel, public grievance and pensions
considered to be a powerful one as of it
is the cadre controlling authority of the
Indian Administrative Service (IAS),
and is the administering agency of the
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
and the Public Enterprises Selection
Board (PESB).
54. (c) Re-appropriation, which
implies the transfer of funds from one
primary unit of appropriation to another
such unit within a grant, can be sanctioned
under formal orders of a competent
authority, only when it is known or
anticipated that the appropriation for the
unit from which funds are to be diverted.
55. (d) The advancement of an
employee within a company position or
job tasks. A job promotion may be the
result of an employee’s proactive pursuit
of a higher ranking or as a reward by
employers for good performance.
Typically is also associated with a higher
rate of pay or financial bonus.
56. (b) The onset of détente, the loss
of hegemonic status by the USA and the
growing awareness of environmental
problems sensitized social scientists.
The regimes are an important feature of
globalization. The multi polar world is
the present reality in the absence of an
absolute hegemone.
57. (c) In a journal article “The
Changing Nature of World Power”
Published in Political Science Quarterly
Joseph S. Nye wrote that “Power in
International Politics is like the weather.
Everyone talks about it, but few
understand it.”
58. (a)
(Reasons of failure) (States)
Tribal conflict - Somalia
Endless violence for - Liberia
nonpolitical purposes
Ethnic genocide - Rawada
Transnational war - Congo
59. (d) The phrase axis of evil was
first used by U.S. President George W.
Bush in his State of the Union address
on January 29, 2002, and often repeated
throughout his presidency, to describe
foreign governments that, during his
administration, sponsored terrorism and
sought weapons of mass destruction.
Axis of evil, expression used to describe
the bellicose tendencies of Iran, North
Korea, and Iraq in the early 21st century.
60. (c) The Peace Building Commission
(PBC) was jointly established by the General
Assembly and the Security Council
in 2005 as a new intergovernmental
advisory body of the United Nations
that supported peace efforts in countries
emerging from conflict. Its aim is to
propose integrated strategies for post-
conflict peace building and recovery,
bring together all of the relevant actors
and marshal resources.
61. (a)
62. (c) The Official Secrets Act was
first enacted in 1923 and was retained
after Independence. The law, applicable
127
to government servants and citizens,
provides the framework for dealing with
espionage, sedition, and other potential
threats to the integrity of the nation.
Right to Information does not eliminate
the office secrets act 1923.
63. (c) Liberal Constitutionalism did not
support the principles of Majoritarianism.
Majoritarianism according to the are
against the idea of Democracy. Liberal
constitutionalism mainly propagates
Toleration, Consent, Individualism,
Minority rights etc.
64. (d) It is believed by various
scholars of Comparative Politics that the
American Presidential system operates
most successfully in comparison to
other Presidential government all over
the world. The reason as claimed is
the Minor Contradictions in American
society.
65. (d) The House of Lords is the
second chamber of the UK Parliament.
It is independent from, and complements
the work of the elected House of
Commons. The Lords shares the
task of making and shaping laws and
checking and challenging the work of the
government.
66. (a) Both the statement are
correct and the reason statement is a
correct explanation behind the assertion
statement. The protection of human
rights has significantly increased the
requirement on the side of judiciary
to increase its power and domain over
the last one hundred years in liberal
democracies.
67. (d) Max Weber distinguishes
three types of authority—charismatic,
traditional and legal-rational—each of
which corresponds to a brand of leadership
that is operative in contemporary society.
Beliefs and symbols are the distinctive
features of weber’s notion of authority.
68. (a) The interim government
of 1946 was initially headed by the
viceroy executive council. Jawaharlal
Nehru became the Vice-President of that
council and also the head of the interim
government.
69. (b) Certiorari is issued by a higher
court to a lower court or to any other
tribune. It can’t be issued by one bench
 128
of the High Court to another bench of the
High Court.
70. (c) Continuing mandamus is a writ
issued by a court in an environmental case
directing any agency or instrumentality
of the government or officer thereof to
perform an act or series of acts decreed
by final judgment which shall remain
effective until judgment is fully satisfied.
This is issued by the supreme court in
Vineet Narain Vs. Union of India Case.
71. (c) Zail Singh, President of India
from 1982 until 1987, exercised a pocket
veto to prevent the Indian Post Office
(Amendment) Bill from becoming law.
72. (c) Bipin Chandra made this
observation to the nature of communalism.
He tried to establish that communalism
leads to multiple discrepancy in a social
order.
73. (c) In the words of Morris Jones,
outcome of elections indicated the
emergence of ‘market polity.’ By this, it
meant, a system in which large number
of decisions are taken by a substantial
number of participants, who stand in
both positions, being dependent on with
each other as well as in conflicts. The
decisions in this alliance are reached by
a process of bargaining, where no one is
strong enough to impose his decisions.
74. (b) Line and staff functions
indicate the pattern of distribution of
authority in an organization. Simply
stated, authority is the right to act.
According to Koontz and others (1984),
Authority in an organization is the power
in a position to exercise discretion in
making decisions affecting others.
75. (d) The Central Vigilance
Commission was set up by the
Government in February,1964 on the
recommendations of the Committee on
Prevention of Corruption, headed by
Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide
Central Government agencies in the field
of vigilance.
76. (d) The bill was first brought
before the fourth Lok Sabha in 1968 and
passed in 1969. However, the House was
dissolved, resulting in the first death of
the bill.
77. (d) India became an ASEAN
Sectoral Dialogue Partner in 1992, a full
ASEAN Dialogue Partner in 1995, and
participated in the East Asia Summits
(EAS) from 2005.
78. (b) Dag Hammarskjold defined
Unite Nation as the “Sharing in the name
of solidarity’. By this statement he tried
to elaborate the utility of United Nation.
79. (c) Sustainable History and the
Dignity of Man is a new philosophy
of history. This volume outlines how
sustainable history is propelled by
good governance, which balances the
tension between the attributes. In this
book Nayef Al-Rodhan mentioned some
minimum criteria for ensuring good
national governance. The criteria are
Equity and Inclusiveness, Rule of Law
and Transparency. A system of check
and balance is not considered by him as
minimum criteria.
80. (b) Nonfeasance is a legal concept
that refers to the willful failure to execute
or perform an act or duty required by
one’s position, office, or law, whereby
that neglect results in harm or damage
to a person or property. The perpetrator
can be found liable and subject to
prosecution.
81. (d) Development administration
is a dynamic concept which brings about
socio-economic and politico-economic
changes in society. Aiming towards
development, it strives for change,
growth, progress and overall development
in every sphere of a country. It was first
introduced by Edward W. Weidner.
The following are the characteristics of
development administration:
• Change-oriented
• Result-oriented
• Client-oriented
• Citizen participation oriented
• Commitment to fulfill public
demands
• Concerned with innovation
• Administration of industrial
societies
• Effectiveness of coordination
82. (a) A domicile certificate not
only prove the residence status of a
person but also makes him eligible to
Practice Set-10
avail various benefits based on his or
her domicile such as education, job and
other benefits such as resident quotas in
the government service and educational
institutions. USA was the first country to
introduce domicile condition for public
administration servant job.
83. (a) The position minister of
Personnel, public grievance and pensions
considered to be a powerful one as of it
is the cadre controlling authority of the
Indian Administrative Service (IAS),
and is the administering agency of the
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
and the Public Enterprises Selection
Board (PESB).
84. (c) Reappropriation, which implies
the transfer of funds from one primary
unit of appropriation to another such unit
within a grant, can be sanctioned under
formal orders of a competent authority,
only when it is known or anticipated that
the appropriation for the unit from which
funds are to be diverted.
85. (d) The advancement of an
employee within a company position or
job tasks. A job promotion may be the
result of an employee’s proactive pursuit
of a higher ranking or as a reward by
employers for good performance.
Typically is also associated with a higher
rate of pay or financial bonus.
86. (a) Sadiq Ali Committee was
appointed to report on the working of
the Panchayat system in Rajasthan by
government of Rajasthan and not in for all
over India. G.V.K. Rao Committee was
appointed by the Planning Commission
to study the panchayati raj structure in
India.
87. (b)
88. (a) The scheme of Joint Consul-
tative Machinery is a platform for
constructive dialogue between the
representatives of the staff side and the
official side for peaceful resolution of
all disputes between the Government
as employer and the employees. The
scheme was introduced in 1966 with
the objectives of promoting harmonious
relations and securing the greatest
measure of cooperation between the
Central Government as the employer
and the employees in matters of common
concern and with the object of further
Practice Set-10
increasing the efficiency of the public
service combined with the well being of
those employed. The Cabinet Secretary
is the Chairman of the Council. He
is the leader of the official side and is
connecting link between the government
and the employees.
89. (b) Executive Control Over Admini-
stration is a type of control works
automatically and spontaneously with the
movement of Government machinery. It
is a sort of self-regulating device which
controls the movement of machinery
of which it is a part. Administrative
structure is hierarchical in nature.
90. (a) Due to the delay caused by
hierarchical structure in the disposal
of work. The Government of India
started what is known as “file jumping
experiment”. Both the statement are
correct and second one is an appropriate
explanation behind the first statement.
91. (c) The first paragraph and the
second paragraph clearly states that
one of the many reasons cited for the
depreciation is the ongoing euro crisis and
another prime reasons is our burgeoning
fiscal deficit.
92. (d) It has been clearly mentioned
in the first paragraph that since 2010, the
petrol has been deregulated and OMCs
can increase the price of petrol if there
is large variation in their costs. Hence,
option (d) is incorrect.
93. (c) Second paragraph clearly
states that the government’s fiscal deficit
is increasing i.e. government is spending
more than it is what it is earning. This
is because increased expenditure is not
matched by the increased tax rates.
Also, if the prices of oil products are
not increased, the deficit will keep
on increasing further impacting our
economy.
94. (b) According to twin deficit
hypothesis, there is strong linkage
between fiscal deficit and trade deficit
(imports – exports).
95. (d) An increase in prices of diesel,
LPG and kerosene will help government
reduce its fiscal deficit, meaning less
borrowing from the market leading to
more funds available for the private
investment.
96. (c) The first paragraph clearly
indicates that Stressed Assets Lending
129
Fund (SALF) will help to resurrect
troubled investments through debt funds.
97. (b) All those assets which don’t
generate regular income are known as
Non-Performing Assets (NPAs).
98. (d) The second paragraph clearly
states that according to RBI data, the
stressed assets ratio for the banking
sector, which includes gross non-perfor-
ming assets (NPAs), increased to 14.5%
at the end of December 2015 as against
9.8% at the end of March 2012. Hence,
option (d) is incorrect.
99. (c) The second paragraph clearly
states that Stressed Assets Lending Fund
(SALF) will provide last mile funding
or working capital funding to assets in
trouble because of funding constraints.
100. (d) The second paragraph clearly
states that RBI had come out with a
scheme for sustainable structuring of
stressed assets, also termed as S4A, to
strengthen the lenders’ ability to deal with
stressed assets and provide an avenue
for reworking the financial structure of
entities facing genuine difficulties. Also,
the S4A envisages determination of the
sustainable debt level for a stressed
borrower.
qqq