2018 2019 Science Summativetest and Quizzes

SCIENCE 7
QUARTER I
SUMMATIVE TEST
(Doing Scientific Investigation)
Group No. _______

Name _______________________________ Sec. ___________Date ________ Rating ______
I. Multiple choice: Select the best answer from the choices given. Write the letter of your choice on the blank before each
number.
____ 1. Is a large body of knowledge based on facts and truths known by actual experiences and observations.
a. Biology b. Science
____ 2. A branch of science that deals with the study of matter, its properties and composition.
a. Chemistry b. Physics
____ 3. Is the natural science that studies matter and its motion and behavior through space and
time and that studies the related entities of energy and force.
a. Chemistry b. Physics
____ 4. The natural science that studies life and living organisms, including their physical structure,
Chemical composition, function, development and evolution.
a. Biology b. Physics
____ 5. The branch of science that deals with the study of the Earth’s structure and composition.
a. Physics b. Earth Science
____ 6. The ability to compute and solve problems. It is a tool for logical thinking and reasoning.
a. Determination b. Mathematical Ability
____ 7. The capacity to focus one’s attention on what one does.
a. Power of concentration b. Thoroughness and accuracy
____ 8. The ability to formulate new concepts from previous observations and experiences.
a. Power of concentration b. Imagination
____ 9. The drive to study and work hard.
a. Determination b. Mathematical Ability
____ 10. The eagerness to observe, record and evaluate data with care and exactness.
a. Power of concentration b. Thoroughness and accuracy
____ 11.The use of one or more of the five senses to perceive objects or events.
a. predicting b. observing
____ 12. The process of determining the dimensions of an object, the number of objects in a group
or other characteristics in a precise units.
a. measuring b. observing
____ 13. The process of formulating testable statements about observable phenomena.
a. hypothesizing b. predicting
____ 14. The process of testing a hypothesis or prediction by carrying out data gathering procedure under controlled
conditions.
a. analyzing b. experimenting
____ 15. It involves placing observations and measurements in some kind of logical order such as in a graph, chart, table
or a map.
a. organizing b. experimenting
II. Arrange the steps of the Scientific Method in proper order.(5 points)
__________ 1. Formulate the hypothesis.
__________ 2. Make a conclusion.
__________ 3. Verify the conclusion.
__________ 4. State and define the problem.
__________ 5. Test the hypothesis.
__________ 6. Gather enough information and study them.
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER I
SUMMATIVE TEST
(Solutions)
Group No. _______

Name _______________________________ Sec. ___________Date ________ Rating ______
I. Multiple choice: Select the best answer from the choices given. Write the letter of your choice on the blank before each number.
____ 1. It is a homogeneous mixture of one or more solutes dissolved in a solvent.
a. Solution b. Substance
____ 2. The component of a solution that is present in small amount is called ______.
a. Solute b. Solvent
____ 3. The component of a solution that is present in greater amount is called ______.
a. Solute b. Solvent
____ 4. A solution that contains the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolve in a given amount of solvent at a certain
temperature is called _____.
a. Unsaturated solution b. Saturated solution
____ 5. A solution that contains less solute than the maximum amount it can dissolve at a given temperature is called ______.
a. Unsaturated solution b. Saturated solution
II. Classify the following if they are solutions or not.
____ 1. Air (a. Solution b. Not a solution)
____ 2. Sea water (a. Solution b. Not a solution)
____ 3. Water and oil (a. Solution b. Not a solution)
____ 4. Water and sand (a. Solution b. Not a solution)
____ 5. Carbonated soft drinks (a. Solution b. Not a solution)
____ 6. Soil (a. Solution b. Not a solution)
____ 7. Gasoline (a. Solution b. Not a solution)
____ 8. Brewed Coffee (a. Solution b. Not a solution)
____ 9. Rain water (a. Solution b. Not a solution)
____ 10. Gold ring (a. Solution b. Not a solution)
III. Joel and Ben wanted to find out how much salt is needed to make a saturated solution in 100 mL of water.
Use the following data to answer the questions below the table.
Step Number Amount of Salt added Observations
1 6 grams After stirring, salt completely dissolved.
7 6 grams After stirring, some salt is seen at the bottom of the container.
____ 1. Which is the solvent in the solution?
a. sugar b. salt c. water d. coffee
____ 2. Which is the solute in the solution?
a. sugar b. salt c. water d. coffee
____ 3. In which step is the solution described as unsaturated?
a. step 4 b. step 6 c. step 7 d. all of these
____ 4. In which step is the solution described as saturated?
a. step 4 b. step 6 c. step 7 d. all of these
____ 5. What is the concentration of the solution in step 4?
a. 12 grams/100 mL c. 18 grams/100 mL
b. 24 grams/100 mL d. 36 grams/100 m
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER I
SUMMATIVE TEST
(Substances and Mixtures)
Group No. _______
Name _______________________________ Sec. ____________Date ___________ Rating ______
I. Fill in the blanks: Select your answers on the box.
Mixture Evaporation Substance Distillation Matter
____________________ 1. Is anything that has mass and volume.

____________________ 2. It is the simplest kind of matter.
____________________ 3. It consists of two or more substances which are not joined together chemically.
____________________ 4. A solid dissolved in a liquid solution can be separated by letting the solution dry out
in the process called ____.
____________________ 5. The process of heating a solution containing soluble solids to form vapor of the
liquid and then cooling the vapor to get the liquid back.
II. Classify the following as to substance and mixture: Write S if substance and M if mixture.
____ 1. Sea water
____ 2. Flour
____ 3. Sugar water
____ 4. Iron
____ 5. Atmosphere
____ 6. Soil
____ 7. Carbonated drinks
____ 8. Rice
____ 9. Garbage
____ 10. Mongo seeds
III. Which method can be used to separate the components of the following mixtures? Select your
answers on the box.
Filtration Evaporation Physical Manipulation Magnetizing Decantation

_______________________ 1. Oil and water
_______________________ 2. Salt and water
_______________________ 3. Metals and nonmetals
_______________________ 4. Sand and water
_______________________ 5. Mixture of different seeds
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER I
SUMMATIVE TEST
(Elements and Compounds)
Group No. _______
Name _______________________________ Sec. _____________Date ___________ Rating ______
I. Fill in the blanks: Select your answers on the box.
Electrolysis Periodic Table Elements Minerals Compounds
_________________ 1. Are substances that are made up of only one kind of atom.
_________________ 2. Are substances that are made up of two or more kinds of elements.
_________________ 3. The process by which electric current is passed through a substance to separate the
components of water is called____.
_________________ 4.This is a systematically organized arrangement of the 118 elements according to their
properties and characteristics.
_________________ 5.The elements in food are in combination with other elements and the resulting compounds
are referred to as ________.
II. Select the right symbol of the elements on the choices given.
____ 1.Magnesium
a. Mn b. Ms c. Mg d. Mm
____ 2. Copper
a. Ca b. Cu c. Cr d. Co
____ 3. Silver
a. Si b. Ag c. K d. Hg
____ 4. Antimony
a. Am b. An c. Sb d. Sn
____ 5.Gold
a. Au b. Ag c. Hg d. Mg
____ 6.Potassium
a. P b. K c. Pt d. Pm
____ 7.Iron
a. I b. F c. Fe d. Pb
____ 8.Nitrogen
a. Ni b. Ag c. N d. No
____ 9.Mercury
a. Ag b. Hg c. M d. Me
____ 10.Platinum
a. Pt b. P c. Pa d. Pl
III. Classify the following as to Elements and Compounds.
______________ 1. Alcohol
______________ 2. Phosphorus
______________ 3. Table sugar
______________ 4. Vinegar
______________ 5. Aluminum
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER I
SUMMATIVE TEST
(Acids and Bases)
Group No. _______
I. Multiple choice: Choose the letter of the correct answer to each question. Write the letter of your choice on
the blank provided before each number.
_____ 1. Which of the following properties best describe acids?
a. They have a bitter taste c. They affect indicators
b. They have sour taste d. They neutralize base
_____ 2. Which statement DOES NOT correctly describe bases?
a. They have a bitter taste c. They turn red litmus paper to blue
b. They have a sour taste d. They are a slippery and soapy feel
_____ 3. A dye that changes into different color depending on whether it is in acid or on base is called ___.
a. indicator b. litmus paper c. pH scale d. none of these
_____ 4. It is used to measure the degree of acidity and basicity of a mixture.
a. acid b. base c. indicator d. pH
_____ 5. All of the following are used as plant indicator EXCEPT ____.
a. Purple camote b. red mayana leaves c. violet eggplant d. red papaya II. II. Indicate
the nature of the substance as shown by the color indicator. Select your answers from the
choices given.
____ 1. When an indicator gives a pale red color to the solution, it is ________.
a. strongly acidic b. strongly basic c. weakly acidic d. weakly basic
____ 2. If the indicator shows a yellow color to the solution, it is _____.
____ 3. After adding the dye to the solution it shows a green color, this means the solution is ___.
____ 4. The solution turns to blue color after adding the dye indicator, this means the solution is ___.
____ 5. If the solution gives a colorless result, this means that the solution is _______.
a. strongly acidic b. strongly basic c. neutral d. weakly basic
III. Classify the following compounds as to acid, base and salt:
__________________ 1.HCl
__________________ 2.NaCl
__________________ 3. KOH
__________________ 4. HNO3
__________________ 5.CaOH
IV. Classify the following solutions as to acid or base. Write A if acid and B if base.
_____ 1. Vinegar
_____ 2. Coffee
_____ 3. Soft drinks
_____ 4. Baking soda
_____ 5. Fruit extract
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER I
SUMMATIVE TEST
(Metals and Non-metals)
Group No. _______
I. Select the characteristic of metals that is describe, write the letters on the blank before each number.
____ 1. Some metals has the ability to be drawn into wires, this means the metal is ______.
a. malleable b. luster c. ductile d. magnetic
____ 2. This means that metals can be hammered or rolled into thin sheets without breaking.
____ 3. This is the ability of metals to be attracted by a magnet.
____ 4. This is the property of metals that make them shiny in appearance.
____ 5. This is the property of metals that allows electricity to pass through a material.
a. malleable b. luster c. ductile d. electrical conductivity
II. Multiple choice, select the best answer on the given choices. Write the letters only.
____ 1. Which statement about metals is TRUE? Metals _____.
a. are compounds. c. conduct electricity.
b. break easily into pieces. d. produce acidic oxides
____ 2.Why does “rust” form on some metallic materials?
a. exposed for a long time to oxygen. c. presence of acids
b. moisture in the air. d. all of these
____3. One of the following is not true about metals.
a. metals can be bent c. metals can be drawn into wires b.
metals are powdery and brittle d. metals are good conductors of electricity
____ 4. Metals are different from nonmetals in terms of _____.
a. strength, color c. ability to conduct heat
b. ability to react fast d. physical state
____ 5. The only metals that is liquid in form is _____.
a. Copper b. Iron c. Aluminum d. Mercury
I. Classify the following as Metal and Nonmetal
_____________________ 1. Mercury
_____________________ 2. Silicon
_____________________ 3. Sulfur
_____________________ 4. Manganese
_____________________ 5. Aluminum
_____________________ 6. Calcium
_____________________ 7. Gold
_____________________ 8. Copper
_____________________ 9. Iodine
_____________________ 10. Silve
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 2
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT
(Parts of the Microscope and their Functions)
Group No. _______
Name ________________________________________________ Sec. ________________Date _____________ Rating ______
I. Multiple Choice. Select the best answer from choices given. Write your answer on the blank provided before each number.
____1.Which connects the eyepiece to the revolving nosepiece with the objectives?
a. Inclination joint b. body tube c. stage d. base
____2. Which part connects the arm and the base of the microscope?
a. coarse adjustment b. eyepiece c. revolving nosepiece d. inclination joint
____3. Which two parts of the light microscope magnify the image of an object?
a. eyepiece and mirror b. eyepiece and objectives c. objectives and mirror d. objectives and diaphragm
____4. What is the correct way of carrying a microscope?
a. Hold the arm by grasping it with one hand and support the base with the other hand.
b. Hold the arm by grasping with one hand and the stage with the other hand.
c. Hold the base by grasping with two hands.
d. Hold the arm by grasping with one hand.
____5.Which of the following shows why it is always important to look at the side of the microscope every time you change the objectives?
a. To ensure that the objective lens does not touch the glass slide. c. To achieve higher magnification.
b. To have a clearer view of the specimen. d. To have a higher field of view.
____ 6. In order to observe bacteria under a light microscope we should use_____.
a. 43x objective and 10x eye piece c. 60 x objective and 15 eye piece
b. 60x objective with immersion oil and 10x eye piece d. 97 x objective with immersion oil and 5 x eye piece
____7. A plant cell is viewed using a 10x eyepiece and 43x HPO. How much will the cell be magnified?
a.400 times b. 410 times c. 430 times d. 450 times
____8. What is accomplished by turning the coarse adjustment upwards?
a. It lowers the body tube with the objectives. c. Tilt the upper part of the microscope.
b. It raises the body tube with the objectives. d. Both a and b
Use the letters in the figure on the right to answer questions 9 to 16.
____9. It moves the body tube and objectives up and down.
a. part A b. part B c. part H d. part I
____10. Which part makes possible the changing of the objectives?
a. part B b. part I c. part J d. part L
____11. Which part will you adjust if the onion cell you are observing under the HPO is not clear?
a. part B b. part C c. part G d. part J
____12. It is where you look through the microscope.
a. part A b. part G c. part J d. part H
____13. Which part connects the arm and the body tube of the microscope?
a. part B b. part c c. part G d. part I
____14. Which part support the entire weight of the microscope?
a. Part K b. part L c. part F d. part J
____15. Edgar needs to raise the stage to focus the specimen he is studying using the low power objective. Which part should he manipulate?
a. part C b. part B c. part I d. part K
____16. Which of the following should be used in obtaining a sharp image in observing a specimen under the High Power objective?
a. part C b. part B c. part I d. part K
____17. You are to transfer the microscope to the next room. Which parts should you be holding in carrying the microscope properly?
a. eye piece and body tube c. arm and body tube
b. arm and base d. mirror and inclination joint
____18. Which of the following can be observed using the light microscope?
a. acacia bark b. five peso coin c. piece of stone d. tip of a gumamela leaf
____19. Why it is necessary for the specimen to be observed under the microscope must be thin?
a. so that the image will be clear.
b. so that the image would be bigger.
c. so that light could pass through the specimen.
d. so that a high magnification objective can be used.
____20. What is the total magnification of a microscope with two lenses when one lens has a magnification of 15x and the other lens has
a magnification of 30x?
a. 15x b. 45x c. 30x d. 450x
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 2
(Levels of Biological Organization)
Group No. _______
Name ______________________________________ Sec. ________________Date ___________ Rating ______
I. Matching type: Match column A with Column B.
A B
_____ 1. Muscles a. Respiratory System
_____ 2. Stomach b. Excretory System
_____ 3. Nerves c. Digestive System
_____ 4. Kidneys d. Muscular System
_____ 5. Lungs e. Nervous System
II. Multiple choice: Write the letter of the correct answer on the blanks provided for.
___ 1. At which smallest level of organization in an organism can the characteristics of life be carried out?
a. Organ system b. Organ c. Tissue d. Cell
___ 2. What is the use of the nervous system?
a. Help in breathing. b. Give shape to the body. c. Control bodily activities. d. Distributes food nutrients.
___ 3. The heart pumps blood that carries oxygen and nutrients to the different parts of the body. To which organ system does the heart belong?
a. Circulatory b. Digestive c. Excretory d. Reproductive
___ 4. Cancer starts from cells that start to grow uncontrollably fast. They destroy tissues and organs. What does this say about the effects
of diseased cells on the higher levels of organization in an organism?
a. Cancer involves only certain kinds of cells and does not affect any other kind of cell.
b. Diseased cells affect only the next higher levels of organization that they make up – the tissues.
c. Diseased cells damage the higher levels of organization they make up: tissues, organs, organ systems and the whole organism.
d. Diseased cells do not affect the other parts of an organism.
___ 5. Which is the correct sequence – from biggest to smallest – of the levels of organization in an organism?
a. Cell Organ Organ System Tissue
b. Organ Organ System Tissue Cell
a. Tissue Cell Organ Organ System
b. Organ System Organ Tissue Cell
___ 6. Which of the following organs make up the nervous system?
a. Nose, eyes, ears, skin b. Lungs, bronchial tubes c. Mouth, stomach, intestine d. Brain, spinal cord, nerve cells
___ 7. Each part of an organ system plays a specific function. Which of the following structures does not match the function?
a. Eyes: Sight b. Kidneys: Respiration c. Heart: Circulation d. Stomach: Digestion
___ 8. Which diagram shows the path of blood in the circulatory system?
a. Heart Lungs Parts of the body Heart
b. Lungs Heart Parts of the body Heart
c. Heart Lungs Heart Parts of the body
d. Heart Parts of the body Lungs Heart
___ 9. Which of the following differentiate organs from tissues?
a. Organs make up tissues; tissues make up organs. c. Organs and tissues are made up of cells.
b. Tissues make up organs; cells make up tissues. d. Organs and tissues make up an organ system.
___ 10. Which organ system helps the body eliminate metabolic wastes that are no longer needed by the body?
a. Circulatory b. Digestive c. Excretory d. Reproductive
___ 11. Some plants bear flowers during the summer season. How are flowers different from the reproductive organs of animals?
a. Flowers have male and female parts; animals have either male or female parts.
b. Flowers need pollinators like bees to reproduce: animals do not.
c. Flowers are shed from time to time; nothing is shed from animals.
d. There is no difference between flowers and the reproductive organs of animals.
___ 12. The organ systems of plants consist of the root and shoot systems. Why is it important for these organ systems to wok together?
a. To grow and survive. c. To survive floods and strong winds.
b. To avoid pests and other animals. d. To survive drought and earthquakes.
___ 13. Why is it important to have a healthy body?
a. A healthy body is big. c. A healthy body is beautiful.
b. A healthy body never gets sick. d. A healthy body can also produce a healthy mind.
___ 14. How does the circulation of the blood help the body cells?
a. It brings water to the cells. c. It brings digested food to the cells.
b. It brings enzymes to the cells. d. It brings carbon dioxide to the cells.
___ 15. What is the most important function of the nerves?
a. They are all over our body. c. They are connected to the spinal cord.
b. They are connected to the brain. d. They carry messages throughout the body.
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 2
(Comparing Plant and Animal Cells)
Group No. _______
Name _______________________________________________ Sec. _____________________Date ________________ Rating ______
____1. Which is the basic unit of structure and function of all living things?
a. Cell b. Lungs c. Tissues d. nerves
____ 2. Which of the following parts allow different activities of the cell to happen?
a. Vacuole b. lysosome c. cytoplasm d. vesicle
____ 3. Which part of the cell allows or prevents substances to grow into and out of the cell?
a. Plasma membrane b. nucleus c. cell wall d. cytoplasm
____4. If the chloroplasts of a plant cell are damaged, which will it be unable to do?
a. Protect the cell b. Made food for the cell c. excrete waste materials d. give instructions for the cell to reproduce
____5.Compare the shape of the plant cell with that of an animal cell.
a. Plant cells are elongated while animal cells are flat circular. c. Plant cells are rounded while animal cells are rectangular.
b. Plant cells are rectangular while animal cells are rounded. d. Plant cells are triangular in shape while animal cells are angular.
____6.Plant cells have cell wall that makes them different from animal cells. What is the purpose of the cell wall in plant cells?
a. Gives shape and protection to the plant cells. c. Serve as defense against animals that eat them.
b. It is where the food is made. d. Carry protein to the different parts of the cell.
____7. You are asked to identify an unknown slide. Which could help you identify it to be an animal cell?
a. Absence of centrioles: presence of cell wall c. Absence of centrioles: angular and rigid shape
b. Irregular shape: absence of chloroplast d. Presence of cell wall: absence of chloroplast
____8. Which of the following structures can be found in ALL plant cells?
I. Cell wall II. Cell membrane III. Cytoplasm IV. Chloroplast
a. II and III b. I, II and III c. I, II and IV d. I, II, III and IV

____9. How is plant cell similar to an animal cell?
a. Both have nuclei, chloroplast and cytoplasm c. Both have nuclei, cytoplasm and cell membrane
b. Both cell walls, nuclei and cell membrane d. Both have cell walls, chloroplast and cell membranes
The table below enumerates the parts that are present or absent in two kinds of cells.
____10. Which is a plant cell? Cell A or Cell B?
a. Cell A b. Cell B Structure Cell A Cell B
____11. Which is an animal cell? Cell A or Cell B? Cell wall x √
a. Cell A b. Cell B Plasma membrane √ √
chloroplast x √
vesicle √ x
nucleus √ √
Questions 12 and 16 are about the figure below. Identify what part of the cell is asked.
____ 12. Which part of this cell functions in the excretion of waste materials?
a. Vesicle b. Nucleus c. centrioles d. cytoplasm
____ 13. Which is the control center of this cell?
a. Nucleus b. cytoplasm c. lysosome d. mitochondrion
____14. These parts are found only in animal cells, which help organize structure during cell
division.
a. cytoplasm b. centrioles c. lysosome d. nucleus
____15. Present in both plant and animal cells that store and transport different substances
in the cell.
a. cytoplasm b. centrioles c. lysosome d. vesicle
____16. What part of this cell store water and maintains its rigidity?
a. vacuole b. centrioles c. lysosome d. vesicle
____17. Which are the basic parts of the cell?
a. nucleus, plasma membrane and cytoplasm c. nucleus, plasma membrane and centrioles
b. plasma membrane, centrioles and mitochondrion d. centrioles, golgi body, and nucleus
____18. These parts are important to the plant because it is where food is made.
a. cytoplasm b. chloroplasts c. lysosome d. nucleus I. A cell is the smallest unit of life.
II. Not all living things are made up of cells.
For item 19 use the following options on the blank to answer the question:
III. Different cells have different shapes and functions.
____19. Which of the following statements about cells are TRUE?
IV. As an organism grows bigger, the cells in the body
a. I and III b. III and IV c. I, III and IV d. I, II, III and IV
For number 20 use the following options on the box to answer the next question: increase in size.
____ 20. You are asked to identify an unknown slide. Which could help you identify
it to be an animal cell? I. absence of centrioles
a. I and III b. II and IV c. I and IV d. III and IV II. irregular shape
III. presence of cell wall
SCIENCE 7 IV. angular and rigid shape
QUARTER 2 V. absence of chloroplast
(Fungi, Protists and Bacteria)
Group No. _______
Name _______________________________________________________ Sec. ______________________Date __________________ Rating ______
_____ 1. Just like many living things, fungi have certain needs to survive. What are these needs?
I. Food III. Sunlight and soil
II. Air and water IV. Water
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. II and IV
_____ 2. Fungi cannot make their own food. What is the effect of their food getting activities?
a. Release of oxygen c. Trapping of solar energy
b. Production of starch d. Decomposition of living things
_____ 3.What characteristic differentiates fungi, algae and bacteria from the plants studied in Grades 3-6 aside from their small size?
a. They do not have true roots, true leaves, true stems, fruits and flowers.
b. Most do not make their own food unlike plants.
c. They are at the base of the food chain while animals are at the top.
d. They cause diseases while plants and animals have many uses.
_____ 4.The green alga, Caulerpa, and mushrooms both have some characteristics similar to plants. What are these characteristics common to both
that are also found in plants?
I . Green color for food making III. Spores
II. Stem-like parts IV. Fruit-like parts
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. II and IV
_____ 5. Is mushroom a kind of plant?
a. Yes. Because it has roots, stems and seeds. c. Yes. Because it produces spores.
b. No. Because it cannot make its own food. d. No. Because it is poisonous.
_____ 6. These living things breakdown once living matter into its simplest components and are also responsible for food spoilage. Which living
things are these?
a. Algae b. Lichen c. Molds d. Mushroom
_____ 7. They can be seen only when in colonies or big numbers, used for making fermented products and decomposes once living matter. Which
are these living things?
a. Algae b. Bacteria c. Molds d. Mushrooms
_____ 8.Which of the following organisms does NOT match their group?
a. Bacteria: Fungi b. Green algae: Protist c. Lichen: Alga d. Mushroom: Fungi
_____ 9. Which of the following is TRUE about fungi?
a. They can produce starch. c. They trap the solar energy to produce sugar.
b. They release oxygen in the air. d. They can cause decomposition of living things.
_____ 10. Which does not belong to the group of fungi?
a. Algae b. Molds c. Mushroom d. Yeast
_____ 11. Which statement describes the characteristics of algae?
a. make their own food c. Algal part can photosynthesize: fungal part cannot
b. cannot make its own food d. has root-like, stem-like, fruit-like parts: has spores
_____ 12. Based on the results of the activity, what can you conclude about the big group of fungi, algae and bacteria?
a. serves as food for humans c. some are poisonous when eaten
b. may cause disease to humans d. all of these
_____ 13. Species of these organisms can cause athletes foot, ringworm and some are poisonous when eaten. Which group of organisms are these?
a. Algae b. Fungi c. Lichen d. Molds
_____ 14. Which of these organisms are responsible for the spoilage of food?
a. Algae b. Fungi c. Lichen d. Molds
_____ 15. Why are lichens more useful than molds in the environment? Because lichens _____.
a. act as seed bed. c. fungal part provide home for the alga.
b. act as indicator of air pollution d. all of these
_____ 16. Which of these organisms may cause diseases like TB, diarrhea and pneumonia to humans?
a. Algae b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Lichen
_____ 17. A loaf of bread was left on the cabinet and stayed there for days. John got hungry one day and looked for something to eat in the kitchen.
He found the loaf of bread covered with greenish thread and smells foul. What could have happened to the loaf of bread?
a. It was covered with algae causing it to spoil. c. It was covered with bacteria causing it to spoil.
b. It was covered with molds causing it to spoil. d. It was covered with seaweeds causing it to spoil.
_____ 18. Why are bacteria and fungi important in the environment?
a. They act as decomposers. c. They cause disease to humans.
b. They are sources of energy. d. They help beautify the surroundings.
_____ 19. The shore of a beach was seen to have a greenish color. What could have been present in the waters to cause such color?
a. algae b. bacteria c. molds d. yeasts
_____ 20. Study the table which shows the comparison between a plant and an alga. Which comparisons are correct?
PLANT ALGA
A It can make its own food. It cannnot make its own food.
B It has true roots, stems and leaves. It has no true roots, stems and leaves.
a. A is correct and B is incorrect. b. A is incorrect and B is correct c. Both A and B are correct d. Both A and B are incorrect
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 2
(Hereditary, Inheritance and Variation)
(Reproduction: The Continuity of Life)
Group No. _______
Name _________________________________________________ Sec. _____________________Date ____________________ Rating ______
___ 1. How does protococcus reproduced?
a. Budding b. Fission c. Conjugation d. Spore formation
___ 2. How does potato reproduced?
a. Budding b. Fission c. Conjugation d. Spore formation
___ 3. Which of the following structures are NOT involved in asexual reproduction?
a. Gametes b. Tuber c. Stem d. Root
___ 4. Which is NOT a characteristic of sexual reproduction?
a. Gametes from two parents unite to form a zygote. c. Offspring are different from their parents and sibling.
b. Offspring are genetically identical with the parent.
d. Genetic variability of offspring helped to ensure survival in changing environmental conditions
___ 5.A farmer grew only one type of onion. All of the onion plants died from the same disease. What can be said of this onion plant population?
a. Only a few plants were resistant to the disease. c. The onion plants were genetically identical.
b. All of the onion plants were resistant to the disease. d. The onion plants were genetically different from each other.
___ 6.A farmer wants to propagate a good variety of a crop in a way which maintained all its desirable traits. Which
of the following methods should be used?
a. Self-pollination c. Growing seeds produced from this variety
b. Vegetative propagation d. Cross-pollinating this crop with another good variety and growing the seeds resulting from the cross
___ 7.A sperm cell unites with an egg cell to form a zygote. Which process is taking place?
a. Pollination b. Fertilization c. Asexual reproduction d. Vegetative propagation
___ 8. In sexual reproduction, what is the source of the genetic material in a zygote?
a. An egg cell only b. A sperm cell only c. A pollen and a sperm cell d. An egg cell and a sperm cell
___ 9.Which species can produce offspring that are genetically different from their parents?
a. A species that has few variations c. A species that reproduces sexually
b. A species that reproduces asexually d. A species that competes with a similar species
___ 10. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using vegetative propagation?
a. Vegetative propagation results in growing plants faster than growing plants from seeds.
b. Offspring are 100% genetically identical to the parent.
c. Offspring are 50% genetically identical to the parent.
d. Reproduction of offspring is greater.
___ 11. The type of reproduction where only one parent is involved is called ____.
a. sexual b. asexual c. di-clonal d. di-zygomatic
___ 12. Humans and all animals that reproduce sexually have cells called ____
a. buds b. pollen c. gametes d. spores
___ 13. Which type of asexual reproduction where a cell divides to form two identical daughter cells?
a. budding b. fission c. regeneration d. spore formation
___14. In a certain types of starfish, an arm that breaks off from the body can develop into a new individual. What type of asexual reproduction is this?
a. budding b. fission c. regeneration d. spore formation
___ 15. The fertilized cell during fertilization which develops into a new organism is called_____.
a. egg b. sperm c. zygote d. gametes
___ 16. How many parents are required for sexual reproduction?
a. One b. two c. six d. four
___ 17. Type of asexual reproduction in which new plants are developed by vegetative parts of plants such as stems, leaves and roots are called___.
a. diploid vegetation b. haploid vegetation c. vegetative propagation d. fragmented propagation
___ 18. In cutting method of vegetative propagation, cuttings are mainly taken from ___.
a. Buds of parent plant b. shoots of parent plant c. leaves of parent plant d. roots or stems of parent plant
For item number 19, refer to the situation below:
A group of students are studying the types of reproduction. They have searched the following examples.
I. Mushroom reproduces by spore formation
II. Hydra reproduces by budding
III. Humans reproduce by fertilization
IV. Flowering plants reproduce when pollen meets egg producing the fruit and seeds.
___ 19. Which of the following is TRUE about the groups’ findings?
a. I and IV are examples of sexual reproduction c. I, II, and III are examples of asexual reproduction
b. III and IV are examples of sexual reproduction d. I, II, III and IV are examples of asexual reproduction
___ 20. Which of the following statement is TRUE about asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction?
1. Asexual reproduction forms new individuals without involving sex cells.

2. Sexual reproduction forms new individuals using body parts.
a. Both 1 and II b. neither I nor II c. I only but not II d. II only but not I
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 2
(Ecosystems)
Group No. _______
Name ________________________________________________________ Sec. ___________________Date __________________ Rating ______
_____ 1. A plant needs water, radiant energy, minerals, oxygen, and carbon dioxide to live. This statement shows that an organism depends on
which of the following?
a. Abiotic components b. Biotic components c. Climate d. Minerals
_____ 2. Setting up an aquarium that represents a mini ecosystem has to have which of the following requirements?
a. Fish and water only c. Populations of fish, snails, and plants only
b. Water, sand, soil, and light only d. Communities of different species of organisms, water, sand, soil, and sunlight
_____ 3.Which of the following represents an abiotic component of the environment?
a. Sprouting mongo seeds c. Grass on mountain slopes
b. Dugong nursing its young d. Flowing lava
_____ 4. Conditions such as food, living space, water and disease that control the size of a population in a community are called ____.
a. Abiotic factors b. Biotic factors c. Cycles d. Limiting factors
_____ 5. An area where living and nonliving things interact by exchanging energy and materials is called ___.
a. Community b. population c. ecosystem d. consumer
_____ 6.Which of the following is the correct food chain?
a. Grass →grasshopper→ mayabird→hawk c. Grass → mouse →snake→ hawk
b. Grass →grasshopper→snake→frog→ hawk d. Grass →mouse→ crocodile
_____ 7.Which of the following describes parasitism?
a. Barnacle sticking on the shell of an oyster c. An orchid living on a truck of a mahogany tree
b. Fern plant growing on a trunk of a tree d. An insect larva staying on the leaves of a plant
_____ 8. Why are plants considered as producers?
a. Plants produce fruits that can be eaten by animals
b. Plants produce root crops that supply carbohydrates to animals.
c. Plants provide vegetable for animals and human consumption.
d. Plants convert energy from the Sun into chemical energy in the form of glucose (food).
_____ 9. Frogs feed on insects. Which type of consumer is the frog?
a. Producer b. First order Consumer c. Second order consumer d. Third order consumer
_____ 10. In a given environment, which of the following refers to a population?
a. Any organisms that live together and eat in one place.
b. Several numbers of organisms living in the same place.
c. Different organisms live together in the same place and in the same time.
d. Group of organisms of the same kind living in the same place and at the same time.
_____ 11.If there were no decomposers, which would take place in an ecosystem?
a. Energy from the sun would not be absorbed. c. Nutrients in the ecosystem will be used up.
b. There would be no photosynthesis and respiration. d. Simple substances will remain as they are.
_____ 12. In the energy pyramid on 10% of the energy absorbed in any level is passed on to the next because most of it is __.
a. Used for building tissues. b. Lost as heat. c. Used to increase mass. d. Used for other purposes.
_____ 13. The primary source of energy in a food chain is ____.
a. Animal b. Sun c. Oxygen d. Plant
_____ 14. A Maya bird eats a grasshopper. What kind of consumer is the Maya bird?
a. First order consumer b. Second order consumer c. Third order consumer d. Fourth order consumer
_____ 15.An organism that cannot make its own food and depends on other organisms for food are the _______.
a. Decomposers b. Consumers c. Producers d. Energy
_____ 16. Why is there a need for continuous input of sunlight into the biosphere?
a. Sunlight is used for photosynthesis.
b. Light energy is transformed into chemical energy during photosynthesis.
c. Consumers convert the chemical energy on the food they eat into other forms of energy.
d. The heat released by living things does not return to the biosphere.
_____ 17. Some animals in the environment hunt and feed upon other animals. Which relationship is being described?
a. mutualism b. predation c. parasitism d. competition
_____ 18. Which of the following organisms is first- order consumer?
a. snake eating rat b. bird eating worm c. worm eating leaves d. hawk eating bird
_____ 19. In an ecosystem, which of the following is NOT a biotic factor?
a. butterflies b. sunlight c. plants d. bacteria
_____ 20. What type of relationship is commensalism?
a. one organism benefits and the other is not affected at all c. one organisms benefits while the other is harmed
b. both organisms involved benefit from the relationship d. competing for the same food source
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 3
( Motion in One Dimension )
Group No. _______
Name _____________________________________________________ Sec. _____________________Date _____________ Rating ______
_____ 1.When is an object considered to be in motion?
I. When its position changes with respect to a point of reference.
II. When its distance changes with respect to a point of reference.
III. When its direction changes with respect to a point of reference.
a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III
_____ 2. Which will describe the exact position of an object?
I. How far the object is from the point of reference.
II. Describing the direction relative to the point of reference.
a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. none of these
_____ 3. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the object moving with constant speed?
a. The object is not accelerating c. The distance travelled by the object increases uniformly
b. The speed of the object is equal to zero. d. The speed of the object remains the same all throughout the travel
_____ 4. Which of the following are accelerating?
a. The Earth moving around the sun. c. A student running around the track oval at constant speed.
b. A car moving in a straight highway at constant speed. d. A ball rolling to a stop.
_____ 5. Which of the following graphs shows that the object’s motion is accelerating?
For questions 6 to 9, refer to the table below. Data were obtained from a 200-meter dash competition.
Female Athlete Recorded Time Male Athlete Recorded Time

1 26.5 1 22.4
2 26.1 2 21.9
3 25.3 3 23.0
4 26.7 4 22.6
_____ 6. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. The male athletes are faster than the female athletes.
II. Compared to the speed of the fastest male athlete, the average speed of the fastest female athlete is slightly less.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II
_____ 7. How do you compute for the average speed of each athlete?
a. Multiply 200 meters by the recorded time of travel. c. Divide the recorded time of travel by 200 meters.
b. Divide 200 meters by the recorded time of travel. d. Divide 200 meters by twice the recorded time of travel.
_____ 8. Who is the fastest female runner?
a. Athlete 1 b. Athlete 2 c. Athlete 3 d. Athlete 4
_____ 9. Who is the fastest male athlete?
a. Athlete 1 b. Athlete 2 c. Athlete 3 d. Athlete 4
_____ 10. To accelerate a bigger mass, the following should be done.
a. Apply a bigger force.
b. Apply a smaller force.
c. Apply an equal force.
d. Balance the mass and force.
_____11. Which of the following is true about an object that travels 5 meters to the left, then 2 meters up, then another 5 meters to the right?
a. The displacement of the object is equal to 12 meters.
b. The total distance travelled by the object is equal to 12 meters.
c. The displacement of the object is equal to 12 meters down.
d. The total distance travelled by the object is equal to 12 meters down.
For numbers 12 to16 refer to the given table below:

Runners Distance (m) Time (s) Speed (m/s)
A 80 10 8
B 50 10 5
C 95 10 9.5
D 85 10 8.5
_____ 12.The control variable in the table is_____________.

a. Runners b. distance c. time d. speed
_____ 13. Who covered the longest distance among the runners?
a. runner A b. runner B c. runner C d. runner D
_____ 14. Who is the fastest among the runners?
a. runner A b. runner B c. runner C d. runner D
_____ 15. A toy when whirled has a uniform speed and moved in a circular path. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are TRUE?
I. The toy has a uniform velocity
II. The toy is accelerating
a. I b. II c. Both I and II d. neither I nor II

_____ 16. In which of the following situations is the object accelerating ?
I. A truck changing direction.

II. A car speeding up in a highway.
III. A moving motorcycle comes to a stop.
IV. A rolling ball moving with a uniform speed.
a. I and II b. I, II and III c. I, II and IV d. I, III and IV
_____ 17.What is the average speed of a bus that travels 450 km in 5 hours?
a. 9 km/h b. 90 km/h c. 9.5 km/h d. 95 km/h
_____ 18. A bicycle has an average speed of 2 m/s. This means that _____.
a. It can travel 4 meters in 2 seconds. c. It takes 2 seconds to travel I meter.
b. In 1 second, it travels 1 meter. d. It can travel 2 kilometers in one hour.
_____ 19.A car can travel 50 meters in 10 seconds. A fast motor bike can travel 5 meters in a second. A bus can cover
500 meters in 100 seconds. Which vehicle has the highest speed?
a. The bike has the highest speed because it has the shortest travel time.
b. The bus has the highest speed because it can travel the greatest distance.
c. The car has the highest speed because it travels a great distance in a short time.
d. All their speeds are equal.
_____ 20. Lydia ran the 100 m dash in 10 seconds. What was her average speed?
a. 1 m/s b. 3 m/s c. 10 m/s 5 m/s
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 3
(Waves)
Group No. _______
Name _____________________________________________________ Sec. ____________________Date __________________ Rating ________
_____ 1. This is a periodic disturbance that moves away from a source and carries energy with it.
a. Electricity b. Wave c. Sound d. Light
_____ 2. In a transverse wave, the individual particles of the medium________.
a. move in circles c. move parallel to the direction of travel
b. move in ellipses d. move perpendicular to the direction of travel
_____3. In a surface wave, the individual particles of the medium ____________.
_____ 4. In a longitudinal wave, the individual particles of the medium_____.
_____ 5. Mechanical waves transport energy from one place to another through____.
a. Alternately vibrating particles of the medium c. Vibrating particles and traveling particles
b. Particles traveling with the wave d. None of the above
_____ 6. Waves in a lake are 5.00 m in length and pass an anchored boat 1.25 s apart. The speed of the waves is__________.
a. 0.25 m/s b. 4.00 m/s c.6.25 m/s d. impossible to find from the information given
_____ 7. Energy from the sun reaches the earth through________.
a. ultraviolet waves b. infrared waves c. mechanical waves d. electromagnetic waves
For items 8-10 refer to the diagram below to answer the questions.
_____8. The high part of the wave is represented by letter B. This is called the ________.
a. trough b. crest c. wavelength d. wave height
_____9. The low part of the wave is represented by letter A. This is called the ________.
_____10. The horizontal distance from A to A or from B to B is called __________.
_____ 11. What will happen as the frequency of a wave increases and its speed remains constant?
a. The wavelength increases
b. The wavelength decreases
c. The amplitude increases
d. The wave period increases
_____12. The higher the frequency of a wave, ______.
a. the lower its speed b. the shorter its wavelength c. the greater its amplitude d. the longer its period
_____ 13. Which of the following is NOT correct about waves?
a. Waves carry energy from place to place but the particles do not move with the waves.
b. Waves can be classified as either electromagnetic or mechanical.
c. Waves have the capacity to transmit messages.
d. Waves transfer particles (matter) and energy
For items 14 to 20 identify the following electromagnetic waves:
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 3
(Sounds)
Group No. _______
Name __________________________________________________ Sec. ___________________Date _____________Rating _____
_____ 1. A sound wave is a _____________.
a. longitudinal wave b. transverse wave c. standing wave d. shock wave
_____ 2. Which of the following objects will produce sound?
a. soft objects b. radio stations c. vibrating objects d. objects under pressure
_____ 3. The molecules of solids are closest to one another compared to liquids and gases. The energy carried by sound can easily
transfer, thus sound travels in solids ________.
a. the slowest b. the fastest c. with undetermined speed d. with varying speed
_____4. The more energy the sound wave has ______.
a. the softer the sound c. the louder the sound
b. the moderate the sound d. none of these
_____ 5. Humans can only sense within the frequency range of about 20 Hz to 20000 Hz. This is called ______.
a. Ultrasonic b. Infrasonic c. Audible d. none of these
_____ 6.Which property of sound describes how soft and how intense the sound as perceived by the ear then interpreted by the brain.
a. Pitch b. Loudness c. Frequency d. Intensity
_____ 7. In a guitar, which string vibrates faster when strummed?
a. string 1 b. string 3 c. string 5 d. string 6
_____ 8. Which string of a guitar has the lowest frequency?
a. string 1 b. string 3 c. string 5 d. string 6
_____ 9. The outer ear collects the sound waves and focuses them into the ear canal. What do you call this outer part of the ear?
a. Tympanum b. cochlea c. pinna d. anvil
_____ 10. Which of the following would most likely transmit sound best?
a. Steel in cabinet b. Water in the ocean c. Air in your classroom d. Water in a swimming pool
_____ 11. Compared to a thin string of the same length and tightness a thick string produces sounds of _______.
a. the same pitch b. lower pitch c. higher pitch d. lower then higher pitch
_____ 12.Which refers to the frequency of sound as perceived by the human ear.
a. Quality b. Pitch c. Loudness d. none of these
_____ 13. Which measures the amount of energy in a sound wave?
a. wavelength c. frequency
b. amplitude d. compressions
_____ 14. A satellite explodes in the outer space and can be seen quickly from a spaceship in lunar orbit but the explosion cannot
be heard, because ______.
a. there is no air on the moon c. the light is reflected around the moon
b. light travels faster than sound d. sound waves don’t travel in straight lines
_____ 15. A loud speaker in front of the room produces sound waves that pass thru the room towards you causing the air molecules
in their path to :
a. move toward you in wave c. vibrate horizontally back and forward
b. vibrate vertically up and down d. vibrate both vertically and horizontally
_____ 16. On which of the following will we NOT be able to hear any sound?
a. a theater c. in a spaceship
b. a closed room d. in the outer space
_____ 17.Volcanoes, avalanches, earthquakes and meteorites produced sound waves under the frequency 20 Hz.
What kind of sound is this?
a. Ultrasonic b. Infrasonic c. Audible d. none of these
_____ 18. Which produces a high pitch sound?
a. a siren b. a lion’s oar c. drum beats d. human heart beats
_____ 19. The speed of sound is different in air, steel and water. Which of the following gives the correct order of
speed of sound from slowest to fastest?
a. air, steel, water c. steel, air, water
b. air, water, steel d. steel, water, air
_____ 20. How will you relate the relationship of pitch with frequency of sound?
. a. The lower the frequency, the higher the pitch.
b. The higher the frequency, the high the pitch.
c. The higher the frequency, the lower the pitch.
d. No relationship.
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 3
(Light)
Group No. _______
Name ______________________________________________ Sec. ______________________Date ______________Rating _____
I. Multiple Choice. Select the best answer from choices given. Write your answer on the blank provided before each
number.
_____1.It is an electromagnetic radiation with both wave and particle properties.
a. Sound b. light c. heat d. electricity
_____2.Which of the following is NOT an electromagnetic wave?
a. Infrared b. Radio c. Sound d. X ray
_____3. How does light reach the Earth? Through ________.
a. conduction b. convection c. radiation d. none of these
_____4. Which is NOT an artificial source of light?
a. Lamp b. candles c. sun d. bulbs
_____5.Light is an electromagnetic wave. Which characteristic is common in all electromagnetic waves?
a. amplitude b. frequency c. speed d. wavelength
_____6. A phenomenon in which a prism separates white light into its component colors.
a. Dispersion b. brightness c. Luminous intensity d. none of these
_____7.ROYGBIV is the basic component of white light. Which color of light carries the most energy?
a. Blue b. Green c. Orange d. Red
_____8.Which substance DOES NOT allow light to pass through it?
a. Opaque b. translucent c. transparent d. reflection
_____9. Which substance allows light to pass through it?
_____10. The property of light that describes the turning back of light waves from a medium is _______.
_____11.How does the wavelength of infrared (IR) compare with the wavelength of ultraviolet (UV) waves?
a. Infrared waves have longer wavelength. c. IR waves have the same wavelength as the UV waves.
b. Infrared waves have shorter wavelength. d. IR is not comparable in wavelength with the UV
waves.
_____12. Among all the electromagnetic waves (EM), which has the highest frequency?
a. Infrared radiation b. Radio wave c. Ultraviolet d. Gamma rays
_____13.If the frequency of light increases, the wavelength decreases. Then they are ______.
a. Directly related b. inversely related c. constant d. no relationship
_____14. As the frequency of light is increased, the energy is also increased. Then they are _____.
a. Directly related b. inversely related c. constant d. no relationship
_____15. Light travels in a ______.
a. Straight line b. curve line c. wavy line d. dotted line
_____16.Which of the following color has the highest frequency?
a. violet b. red c. orange d. green
_____17.It is an arrangement of the different electromagnetic waves according to frequency.
a. Electromagnetic spectrum b. Electromagnetism c. Electrolytes d. Electricity
_____18. How does frequency vary with wavelength?
a. The higher the frequency of a wave, the shorter the wavelength. c. The lower the frequency of a wave, the
shorter the wavelength.
b. The higher the frequency of a wave, the longer the wavelength. d. Frequency does not vary with wavelength.
_____19 Is a scientist that tells light behaves like a particle.
a.Max Plunk b. Sir Isaac Newton c. James Clark Maxwell d.Max Huygen
For item 20 refer to the table below:
Color of Light Wavelength Frequency
Violet 400 nm 744 THz
Green 530 nm 566 THz
Yellow 580 nm 517 THz
Red 700 nm 422 THz
____ 20. Which of the following statements is NOT correct based on the table?
a. Different colors of light have different wavelengths. c. When the wavelength is long, the frequency is low.
b. Different colors of light have different frequencies. d. When the wavelength is long, the frequency is high.
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 3
( Heat)
Group No. _______
Name _____________________________________________ Sec. ______________________Date ______________Rating _____
I. Multiple Choice. Select the best answer from choices given. Write your answer on the blank provided before
each number.
_____ 1. What is the condition for heat transfer to occur?
a. The objects must be of the same temperature. c. Both a and b
b. The objects must be of different temperature. d. None of these
_____ 2.It is the result of the continuous motion and vibration of the atoms and molecules that constitute all matter.
a. Sound b. Light c. Heat d. Wave
_____ 3.This is how the heat from the Sun reaches the Earth.
a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation d. All of these
_____ 4.Heat energy moves or is transferred by radiation, conduction or convection no matter how heat travels.
How does heat move?
a. From hot to cold b. from cold to hot c. from hot to hot d. from cold to cold
_____ 5. Which of the following material is a good conductor of heat?
a. Silver coin b. paper c. rubber d. plastic
_____6. The energy possessed by any object due to the movement of its particles is called _______.
a. thermal b. potential c. kinetic d. chemical
_____ 7.Which instrument measures the hotness or coldness of a material?
a. Graduated cylinder b. thermometer c. meter stick d. beaker
_____ 8.Which energy transfer involves the movement of the heated part of the liquid or gas?
a. Conduction b. convection c. radiation d. all of these
_____ 9.In which direction does heat transfer between objects happens?
a. Heat transferred from objects of higher temperature to lower temperature.
b. Heat transferred from objects of lower temperature to higher temperature.
c. Heat transferred from objects of both higher temperatures.
d. Heat transferred from objects of both lower temperatures.
_____ 10.Plants use the energy from the sun in photosynthesis. In turn, man and animals eat and use the energy stored
in plants. This path of energy tells us that ___________.
a. Energy cannot be conserve. c. Energy is always created and destroyed.
b. Energy transformation produces heat. d. Energy is transferred from one body to another.
For items 11 to 15:The illustration on the right shows a lady making a noodle soup using a pan made of metal.
Use this illustration to answer the questions below.
_____ 11.How does heat travel through the pan?
a. by radiation b. by convection c. by dispersion d. by conduction
_____ 12. How does heat travel through the soup?
a. by radiation b. by convection c. by dispersion d. by conduction
_____ 13. In what direction does heat travel through the soup?
a. from top to bottom c. both a and b
b. from bottom to top d. neither a nor b
_____ 14. Which of the following explains why the lady is able to hold the handle of the pan with her bare hands?
I. The handle is made of good insulator of heat.
II. The handle has low thermal conductivity.
III. The handle has high thermal expansion.
a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III
_____15.Which of the following methods of heat transfer is NOT taking place in the given situation?
a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation d. None of these
For items 16 to 20: Identify the mode of heat transfer from the situations given.
_____ 16.Heat transfer useful in drying clothes under the sun.
a. Radiation b. conduction c. convection d. none of these
_____ 17. Josie uses a metal ladle in cooking. After sometime, she feels the handle getting warm.
_____ 18.Heat transfer causing land and sea breeze.
_____ 19. You get sunburned when you go swimming on a sunny day.
_____ 20. Transfer of energy through a substance by direct contact.
.a. Radiation b. conduction c. convection d. none of these
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 3
( Electricity)
Group No. _______
Name _____________________________________ Sec. _____________________Date __________________Rating
_____
I. Multiple Choice. Select the best answer from choices given. Write your answer on the blank provided before
each number.
_____ 1.When a material lost some electrons it becomes a ______.
a. positively charged b. negatively charged c. neutral d. both a and b
_____ 2. When a material gained electrons it becomes a _______.
_____ 3.An uncharged object that has balanced positive and negative charges is called ____.
_____ 4.Which phenomenon is described when a neutral object is placed near a charged object the charges within the
neutral object are rearranged
such that the charged object attracts the opposite charges within the neutral object?
a. grounding b. discharging c. polarization d. none of these
_____ 5. Which is the process of removing the excess charges on an object?
_____ 6. When discharging is done by means of providing a path between the charged object and a ground.
_____ 7.Why is grounding necessary in electrical devices and equipment?
a. It can prevent the build -up of excess charges where it is not needed.
b. For protection against electrical overloads.
c. Makes it easier for the amount of power to be distributed to all the right places.
d. All of these.
_____ 8.How do lightning rods work?
a. the rod serves to prevent a charged cloud from releasing a bolt of lightning.
b. the lightning rod serves to divert the lightning to the ground in event that the cloud does discharge its lightning
via bolt.
c. a only d. both a and b
_____ 9.Which form of energy results from the existence of charged particles (such as electrons or protons), either
statically as an
accumulation of charge or dynamically as a current?
a. Nuclear b. Electrical c. Sound d. Thermal
_____ 10.The charging process where an object can be charge without actual contact to any other charged object is
called__________.
a. charging by conduction b. electric circuit c. charging by induction d. discharging
_____ 11.What will happen when two like charges are brought together?
a. They will repel each other. c. They will attract each other.
b. They will neutralize each other. d. They will have no effect on each other.
_____ 12.Two unlike charges______
a. attract each other b. repel each other c. neutralize each other d. have no effect on each other
_____ 13.If you comb your hair and the comb becomes positively charged, what will happen to your hair?
a. It will remain uncharged. c. It will be repelled by the comb.
b. It will become positively charged . d. It will become negatively charged.
_____ 14.Which of the following can be attracted by a positively charged object?

a. Another positively charged object. b. A neutral object. _____ 14.Which of the following can be
attracted by a positively charged object?
a. Another positively charged object. b. A neutral object.
c. Any other object. d. A negative object
_____ 15.A negatively charged rod is brought near a metal can that rests on a wooden box. You touch the opposite side of
the can momentarily with your finger. If you remove your finger before removing the rod, what will happen to the can?
a. It will be discharged. c. Its charge will remain as it was.
b. It will become positively charged. d. It will become negatively charged.
_____ 16.Is it possible to charge an electrical insulator?
a. No, because they hinder charges from passing through them. c. Yes, because they can also conduct electricity.
b. No, because insulators have no free charges in them. d. Yes, because electrons can be transferred
between insulators through friction.
_____ 17.Two uncharged objects__________ .
a. attract each other b. repel each other c. neutralize each other d. have no effect on each other
_____ 18.Charges cannot be created nor destroyed , but can be transferred from one materials to another. The total charge
in a system must remain constant.
a. Law of Conservation of Charge. c. Law of Conservation of Negative.
b. Law of Conservation of Positive d. The potential energy of electrons is changed into another form.
_____ 19.Are materials that hinder the free flow charges within it.
a. grounding b. insulators c. polarization d. conductors

_____ 20.In which set-up(s) will the bulb light up?
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 3
(The Philippine Environment)
Group No. _______
Name _____________________________________________________ Sec. __________________Date __________Rating _____
I. Multiple Choice. Select the best answer from choices given. Write your answers on the blank provided
before each number.
_____ 1. .How do you describe the location of a certain place?
a. By using latitude and longitude. c. a only
b. By identifying the landmasses and bodies of water found in the area. d. Both a and b
_____ 2. Which of the following divides the Earth into Eastern and Western Hemisphere?
a. Equator b. Latitude c. Longitude d. Prime Meridian
_____ 3. Which of the following refers to the imaginary circle located midway between the poles that divides
the Earth into Northern and Southern Hemisphere?
a. Equator b. Latitude c. Longitude d. Prime Meridian
_____ 4. The Prime Meridian is indicated as______.
a. 0o longitude b. 0o latitude c. 10o latitude d. 10o longitude
_____ 5. The Equator is indicated as ________.
a. 0o longitude b. 0o latitude c. 10o latitude d. 10o longitude
_____ 6. The measure of how far north or south a place is from the equator is ___.
a. Latitude b. Longitude c. Prime Meridian d. Equator
_____ 7. The reference line that represents the distance from 0 o at the prime meridian to 180o east or west of the earth is __.
a. Latitude b. Prime Meridian c. Longitude d. Equator
_____ 8. The location of a place may be described by using latitude and longitude. To the nearest degree, what
is the latitude and longitude of Manila?
a. 14 °N, 121°E b. 14 °N, 121°W c. 14 °S, 121°E d. 14 °S, 121°W
_____ 9. Which of the following is not a description of latitude?
a. Latitudes are parallel to the equator and to each other.
b. Lines of latitudes do not meet.
c. Latitudes form circles that are smaller at the poles.
d. Lines of latitudes have the same length.
_____ 10. To see the true shape of the Earth’s oceans and continents, you should use ______.
a. a map of the world because it lies flat. c. a road map because it shows details.
b. a globe because it is a model of our planet. d. a textbook because it has lots of information.
_____ 11. On which hemisphere do you live?
a. Northern Hemisphere c. Southern Hemisphere
b. Eastern Hemisphere d. Western Hemisphere
_____ 12. The closer to the Equator a place is ______.
a. the colder it is. b. the hotter it is. c. the temperature is fair. d. all of these
_____ 13. These are the two bodies of water located to the East of the Philippines.
a. Philippine Sea and Pacific Ocean c. Philippine Sea and South China Sea
b. South China Sea and Indian Ocean d. Pacific Ocean and Indian Ocean
_____ 14. Which large landmass is found to the north of the Philippines?
a. Malay Peninsula b. Asian Continent c. Indonesian Archipelago d. Australian Continent
_____ 15. One of the big bodies of water found in the Philippines is the South China Sea, which sometimes referred to as ____.
a. North Philippine Sea c. South Philippine Sea
b. West Philippine Sea. d. East Philippine Sea
_____ 16. The Philippines is called an archipelago because __________.
a. It is located near the equator. c. It is a part of Asia.
b. It is surrounded with bodies of water. d. It is rich with natural resources.
_____ 17. What regions on Earth experience four seasons?
a. Tropics b. Temperate zone c. Polar regions d. none of these
_____ 18. Which body of water is located in the East of the Philippines?
a. Celebes Sea b. Indian Sea c. Pacific Ocean d. West Philippine Sea
_____ 19. Where can you find Tropic of Capricorn in the Globe?
a. 23.5o South b. 23.5o North c. 23.5o East d. 23.5o West
_____ 20. Where can you find Antartic Circle in the Globe?
a. 66.5 o North b. 66.5 o South c. 66.5 o East d. 66.5 o West
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 3
(Earth’s Resources)
Group No. _______
Name _______________________________________________________ Sec. ______________________Date ________________Rating _____
I. Multiple Choice. Select the best answer from choices given. Write your answers on the blank provided before each number.
____ 1. What are natural resources? These are materials or element from the environment that people ___.
a. did not create. c. use to meet their needs.
b. invented for themselves. d. observe using a scientific equipment.
____ 2 What do you call a resource that people can use again and again but its supply can be replaced?
a. Renewable b. Reliable c. Recyclable d. Unlimited
____ 3. Which pair of resources is renewable?
a. cotton and leather b. aluminum and iron c. coal and solar energy d. soil and minerals
____ 4. The following are factors that affect soil formation EXCEPT;
a. Biological action b. Climate c. Temperature d. Water
____ 5. The richness of the Philippines in terms of mineral resources is being attributed to _________.
a. its location in the so-called Pacific Ring of Fire. c. the big bodies of water surrounding the Philippines.
b. the kind of climate the Philippines have. d. its fertile soil suitable for farming.
____ 6. Which is NOT a natural resources?
a. air b. fire c. water d. land
____ 7. Why is the Philippines considered rich with natural resources? Because of ____.
a. Use of nuclear energy for electricity generation c. its fertile and arable lands
b. More supply of fossil fuels d. all of these
____ 8. Which two factors have the greatest influence on soil formation?
a. temperature and rainfall c. kind of soil particles and temperature
b. slope of the land and rainfall d. reforestation and use of compost as fertilizer
____ 9. Reports show that in many islands of the Philippine archipelago, there is a high number of endemic plants and
animals. Endemic means ______.
a. The Philippines shelters only half of species that are found all over the world.
b. The Philippines shelters more diversity of life than any countries on the planet.
c. There are no species of living things found in the Philippines.
d. Limited species are found in the Philippines.
____ 10. Why are coal, petroleum, and natural gas considered nonrenewable resources if they were produced from plant
and animal remains?
a. It takes a very long time to produce them. c. They are difficult to locate and explore from Earth.
b. Using these results in environmental problems. d. The Philippines is dependent on supply from other
countries.
____ 11. Which of the following will NOT help soil conservation?
a. Use of strip cropping c. Grow different crops on the same field for several years.
b. Let the soil rest between planting season. d. Plant the same crops on the same field for several years.
____ 12. If you practice _____, you are protecting, preserving and managing Earth’s natural resources.
a. smoking b. littering c. conservation d. pollution
____ 13. Which of the following lists includes ALL renewable resources?
a. solar, nuclear, wind, natural gas c. nuclear, natural gas, oil, coal
b. hydroelectric, solar, biomass, wind, geothermal d. geothermal, wind, nuclear, solar
____ 14. Which natural resource like uranium or coal that is not replaced as it is used?
a. renewable b. nonrenewable c. radioactive d. fossil fuel
____ 15. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a natural resource?
a. soil b. rivers c. scenery d. climate
____ 16. The important metallic minerals are found in various parts of the Philippines making our country rank ___ mineral country in
the world.
a. 4th b. 5th c. 6th d. 7th
____ 17. What is the major environmental problem associated with fossil fuels?
a. They are nonrenewable.
b. The process which forms them involves millions of years.
c. Their supply in the Philippines is not sufficient to meet the demand.
d. They increase atmospheric carbon dioxide when burned.
____ 18. When rice fields are turned into residential or commercial centers, what is the effect on our natural resources?
a. Food resources are reduced. c. a only
b. Areas are excavated sometimes also destroying waterways. d. Both a and b
____ 19. The resource base varies in different parts of the world because resources are not _______.
a. sufficient to meet the needs of developed countries. c. taken from both land and water in all countries.
b. needed in the same amount by all people. d. evenly distributed on the earth.
____ 20. When people practice conservation, they __________.
a. stop the use of energy resource. c. use their resources wisely.
b. worsen the problem of scarcity. d. increased deposits of mineral resources.
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 4
( Interactions in the Atmosphere)
Group No. _______
Name _________________________________________________________ Sec. _________________________Date ______________Rating _____
_____ 1. What is the correct order of Earth’s atmospheric layers from bottom to top?
a. Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere
b. Stratosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere, Exosphere
c. Troposphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere
d. Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere
_____2. In which atmospheric layer is most water vapor found?
a. Troposphere b. Mesosphere c. Stratosphere d. Thermosphere
_____ 3. What is the basis for the division of the layers of the atmosphere surrounding Earth?
a. changing temperature c. changing amount of oxygen
b. changing weather patterns d. changing composition of gases
_____ 4. What is a greenhouse gas?
a. The warmth you feel from the sun. c. The oxygen the plants produce.
b. Gases that trap heat in the atmosphere. d. Oxygen that helps plants grow.
_____ 5. What is the layer of the atmosphere that contains greenhouse gases?
a. Stratosphere b. Exosphere c. Mesosphere d. Troposphere
_____ 6. The most abundant greenhouse gas in the earth's atmosphere:
a. carbon dioxide (CO2) b. nitrous oxide (N2O) c. water vapor (H2O) d. methane (CH4)
_____ 7. What happens when air is heated?
a. it expands, then rises c. it stays in place
b. it spreads in all directions d. it moves toward a lower elevation
_____ 8. Which warms up faster, land or water?
a. land c. both warm up at the same rate
b. water d. rate of warming varies; depends on weather conditions.
_____ 9. What happens to the surrounding air as warm air rises?
a. moves in all direction c. moves away from the rising air
b. moves to the higher altitude d. moves toward the place where warm air rises
_____ 10. Air in this layer is very thin and cold. Meteors or rock fragments burn up here. Which layer of the atmosphere is this?
a. Mesosphere b. Stratosphere c. Thermosphere d. Troposphere
_____ 11. In which layer do virtually all weather phenomena take place?
a. Exosphere b. Mesosphere c. Stratosphere d. Troposphere
_____ 12. Greenhouse effect refers to _____.
a. ability of atmosphere to retain water vapor.
b. ability of certain atmospheric gases to trap heat and keep the planet relatively warm.
c. ability of cloud to scatter electromagnetic radiation.
d. none of the above
_____ 13. Too many greenhouse gasses in the atmosphere may block heat from escaping into space and trap too much heat next to the Earth’s
surface causing: ____________.
a. another ice age b. global warming b. earthquakes d. volcanic eruptions
_____ 14. Something that might happen because of global warming is: __________.
a. melting polar ice caps c. more reflected sunlight off the ice pack
b. lower sea levels d. a sale on bathing suits
_____ 15. In what direction do winds blow?
a. from the northeast to the southwest c. from the low pressure areas to the high pressure areas
b. from the southwest to the northeast d. from the high pressure areas to the low pressure areas
_____ 16. Which of the following does NOT describe the amihan?
a. brings lots of rain c. comes around July to September
b. brings cold weather d. comes from the northeast and moves southward
_____ 17. Which is NOT TRUE about ITCZ?
a. It results in thunderstorms.
b. It occurs in countries near the equator.
c. It occurs in the Philippines all year round.
d. It is a place where winds in the tropics meet, rise, and form clouds.
_____ 18. What is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?
a. Argon b. Carbon dioxide c. Nitrogen d. Oxygen
_____ 19. Which of the following phenomena BEST illustrates the idea that the earth’s atmosphere undergoes constant changes?
a. sunrise and sunset c. the phases of the moon
b. weather conditions d. the El Niño phenomenon
_____ 20. Which of the following human activities affects the weather?
a. Use of motor vehicles c. use of products with chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
b. Cutting down of trees d. all of the above
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 4
(Seasons)
Group No. _______
Name _________________________________________________ Sec. _______________________Date __________Rating _____
____ 1. The Earth completes one rotation every ______.
a. 24 hours b. 25 hours c. 29 hours d. 30 hours
____ 2. Day and night are caused by the ______.
a. Earth’s rotation around the sun c. Earth’s rotation on its axis
b. Earth’s revolution on its axis d. Earth’s revolution and rotation
____ 3. The Earth is tilted _______ degrees from the right-angled position.
a.21 ½ b. 22 1/3 c. 23 ½ d. 24
____ 4.What is the reason for Earth’s season?
a. Earth’s elliptical orbit and varying speed of revolution.
b. Earth’s greater distance from the Sun during winter.
c. Inclination of Earth’s axis of rotation to the planet of its orbit and revolution around the Sun.
d. Variation in the amount of energy given off by the Sun.
____ 5. Which event is a direct result of Earth’s revolution?
a. the daily rising and setting of the Sun. c. the seasonal change
b. the changing of Moon phases. d. the apparent deflection of winds.
____ 6.We do not feel the earth moving because _____.
a. it moves very fast. c. it moves sometimes slowly and sometimes fast.
b. it moves very slowly. d. it moves at a constant velocity.
____7. How do we know that the earth is moving?
a. alternating tides c. watching the phases of the moon
b. alternating day and night and season d. coming of El Nino and La Nina
____8. Which place experiences the four seasons?
a. equator b. near the equator c. middle latitude d. poles
____9.The rising of the sun in the east and its setting in the west is caused by the____.
a. rotation of the earth from east to west c. counterclockwise revolution of the earth
b. rotation of the earth from west to east d. clockwise revolution of the earth
____10. How long does Earth take to complete one orbit around the Sun?
a. 1 day b. 1 month c. 1 year d. 1 decade
____ 11. What is the name of a day in which the day and night are of equal duration ?
a. Soltice b. Equinox c. Habagat d. Amihan
____ 12. Which of the following best describe the tilt of the earth when it is summer in the Southern Hemisphere?
a. The Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the sun.
b. The Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the sun.
c. The Northern Hemisphere is tilted neither toward or away from the sun.
d. None of the above
____ 13. The Soltices are in the months of _______.
a. September and December b. March and June c. March and September d. June and December
____ 14. Occurs in September, marks the start of fall in the Northern Hemisphere. Day and night are both about 12 hours long.
a. Vernal Equinox b. Summer Soltice c. Autumnal Equinox d. Winter Soltice
____ 15. Occurs in December, marks the start of winter in the Northern Hemisphere. It is the shortest day of the year in
the Northern Hemisphere.
a. Vernal Equinox b. Summer Soltice c. Autumnal Equinox d. Winter Soltice
____ 16. In the month of June which hemisphere receives direct rays from the sun?
I. Northern Hemisphere
II. Southern Hemisphere
III. Northern and Southern Hemisphere
a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I, II and III
____ 17. If the Earth’s axis were NOT tilted, which of these would have happen?
a. The Earth will be very cold. c. There will be no changes in seasons.
b. There will be no wind system. d. There will be different seasons on Earth.
____ 18.Why do seasons change in the Philippines?
a. The sun is directed to the southern hemisphere only.
b. The sun is somehow tilted to both Northern and Southern Hemisphere.
c. Because the Earth’s stationary directing its rays to Northern Hemisphere always.
d. Because direct rays of the sun shift from one hemisphere to the other as the earth goes around the sun.
____ 19. During which season in the Northern Hemisphere are the days the shortest?
a. Winter b. Fall c. Summer d. Spring
____ 20. What do “direct rays” mean?
a. The rays of the sun hit the ground at 30 degrees. c. The rays of the sun hit the ground at 90 degrees.
b. The rays of the sun hit the ground at 60 degrees. d. The rays of the sun hit the ground at 1200 degrees.
SCIENCE 7
QUARTER 4
( Eclipses)
Group No. _______
Name ____________________________________________________________ Sec. _______________________Date _______________Rating _____
____ 1. An eclipse was a meeting between the _____ and the _____.
a. stars and the planets b. sun and the moon c. sun and stars d. moon and Saturn
____ 2. During a lunar eclipse the moon looks _________.
a. black b. green c. pink d. reddish orange
____ 3. In a lunar eclipse, what seems to darken?
a. moon b. sun c. earth d. all of these
____ 4. During what phase of the moon can a lunar eclipse occur?
a. new moon b. first quarter c. waxing gibbous d. full moon
____ 5. During what phase of the moon can a solar eclipse occur?
a. new moon b. first quarter c. waxing gibbous d. full moon
____ 6. During a total lunar eclipse the moon is in Earth ______.
a. corona b. penumbra c. orbit d. umbra
____ 7. What is the correct alignment during a total lunar eclipse?
a. Sun – Earth – Moon b. Sun – Moon – Earth c. Earth – Sun – Moon d. none of these
____ 8. How does a solar eclipse happen?
a. When the shadows of Earth and moon are cast in space.
b. When the moon comes directly between the Sun and Earth.
c. When the shadows of moon and Earth is neither too high nor too low.
d. When the sun is on the opposite side of the Earth and the moon.
____ 9. How does a lunar eclipse occur?
a. When the moon comes directly between the Sun and Earth.
b. The Earth has moved along its orbit taking the moon with it.
c. When the moon moves through Earth’s shadow during full moon.
d. When the moon is directly on the opposite side of the Earth and Sun.
____ 10. Which of the following statement is true about umbra and penumbra?
I. Umbra and penumbra are the two types of shadows
II. Umbra and penumbra are the two types of eclipse
III. Umbra is the darker inner area, while penumbra is the lighter outer area
IV. Umbra is the lighter inner area, while penumbra is the darker outer area
a. I and II only c. I and IV only
b. III and IV only d. I and III only
____ 11. Which objects are needed to form a shadow?
a. a source of light c. a screen where the shadow falls
b. an opaque object d. all of these
____ 12. The partial or total blocking of one object in space by another is called _______.
a. penumbra b. umbra c. orbit d. eclipse
____ 13. For a solar eclipse to occur, the alignment must be:
a. Sun – Earth – Moon c. Earth – Sun – Moon
b. Sun – Moon – Earth d. none of these
____14. What is the reason why the earth and the moon do not bump with each other as they travel around the sun?
a. moon is smaller than the earth c. earth rotates faster than the moon
b. moon is far away from the earth d. earth and moon have their own orbits and planes
____ 15. During a total lunar eclipse, an observer on Earth would see _____.
a. a new moon c. the moon turning a red color
b. no change in the moon’s brightness d. a first quarter moon
____ 16.Bianca used a pinhole camera to view the _________.
a. solar eclipse b. lunar eclipse c. phases of the moon d. none of these
____ 17. Which of the following precautions can be used in observing eclipses?
a. Do not look directly on the sun. c. Use a negative film in viewing.
b. Use a Polaroid pair of eyeglasses. d. all of the above.
____ 18. Largest part of an eclipse, less dark, outer part of the shadow is the ______.
a. umbra b. penumbra c. solar eclipse d. lunar eclipse
____ 19. People who stand in the moon’s umbra the darkest part of its shadow, experience a ________.
a. Partial lunar eclipse c. Total solar eclipse
b. Partial solar eclipse d. Total lunar eclipse
____ 20. Which of the following beliefs and practices have NO scientific basis?
I. During eclipse we are advised to watch in a basin with water.
II. During eclipse there is an increase in harmful microorganism.
III. During eclipse, alternating light and dark wavy lines can be seen, called shadow Bands.
a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I, II, and III

2018 2019 Science Summativetest and Quizzes

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SCIENCE 7

Group No. _______

Group No. _______

Mixture Evaporation Substance Distillation Matter

____________________ 1. Is anything that has mass and volume.

Filtration Evaporation Physical Manipulation Magnetizing Decantation

_______________________ 2. Salt and water

_______________________ 3. Metals and nonmetals

_______________________ 4. Sand and water

_______________________ 5. Mixture of different seeds

Electrolysis Periodic Table Elements Minerals Compounds

a. II and III b. I, II and III c. I, II and IV d. I, II, III and IV

1. Asexual reproduction forms new individuals without involving sex cells.

Female Athlete Recorded Time Male Athlete Recorded Time

For numbers 12 to16 refer to the given table below:

_ 12.The control variable in the table is_________.

a. I b. II c. Both I and II d. neither I nor II

I. A truck changing direction.

a. I and II b. I, II and III c. I, II and IV d. I, III and IV

_____ 14.Which of the following can be attracted by a positively charged object?

a. grounding b. insulators c. polarization d. conductors

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