1350 Questions in Est

PREPARED BY: ENGR.
PAOLO STEVEN DM POLINTAN
CONTENTS
BLAKE MCQ – 105
NEETS CH 11 – 25
FOROUZAN
CH 1– 31
CH 2– 48
CH 3– 34
CH 4– 48
CH 5- 34
CH 6- 25
CH 7- 28
CH 8- 30
CH 9- 31
CH 10- 34
CH 11- 46
CH 12- 38
CH 13- 42
CH 14- 41
CH 15- 38
CH 16- 38
CH 17- 39
CH 18- 34
CH 19- 54
CH 20- 22
CH 21- 34
CH 22- 67
CH 23- 77
CH 24- 45
CH 25- 27
CH 26- 53
CH 27- 30
CH 28- 32
CH 29- 34
CH 30- 31
CH 31- 29
CH 32- 34
TOTAL: 1359 QUESTIONS
BLAKE MCQ (105 ITEMS)
1. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is:

a. approximately 3 kHz
b. at least 5 kHz
c. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz
d. none of the above
2. Distortion is caused by:

a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies
b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other
c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies
d. all of the above
3. A complete communication system must include:

a. a transmitter and receiver
b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel
c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer
d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel
4. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on:

a. the carrier frequency
b. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio
c. the signal-to-noise ratio
d. the baseband frequency range
5. The power density of "flicker" noise is:

a. the same at all frequencies
b. greater at low frequencies
c. greater at high frequencies
d. the same as "white" noise
6. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as:

a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
b. signal power divided by noise power
c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power
7. Noise Figure is a measure of:

a. how much noise is in a communications system
b. how much noise is in the channel
c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal
d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB
8. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by:

a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback
b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane
c. decoupling it
9. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires:

a. a nonlinear circuit
b. a linear amplifier
c. a signal containing harmonics
d. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency
10. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires:

a. loop gain equal to unity
b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees
c. both a and b, but at just one frequency
11. If two signals, Va at) and Vb bt), are fed to a mixer, the output:
a b a– b
a b b a
a b)/2
12. In a balanced mixer, the output:

a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies
b. contains the input frequencies
c. does not contain the input frequencies
d. is a linear mixture of the input signals
13. A "frequency synthesizer" is:

a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency
b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency
c. a fixed-frequency RF generator
d. same as a mixer
14. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to:
a. the baseband signal
b. the amplitude signal
c. the carrier signal
15. If the audio Va at) modulates the carrier Vc ct), then the modulation index, m, is:
a. m a c
b. m = (Va / Vc)2
c. m = Va / Vc
d. m = Va a
16. The equation for full-carrier AM is:

a. v(t) = (Ec + Em ct)
b. v(t) = (Ec Em mt ct)
c. v(t) = (Ec + Em mt ct)
d. v(t) = (Ec + Em mt ct)
17. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, m, is:
a. m = Emin / Emax
b. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin)
c. m = Emax / Emin
d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin)
18. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM:

a. is more efficient
b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit
c. requires less bandwidth
d. all of the above
19. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because:

a. AM is susceptible to noise
b. commercial AM stations use low power
c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth
d. all of the above
20. The FM modulation index:

a. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency
b. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency
c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency
d. is equal to twice the deviation
21. One way to derive FM from PM is:

a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator
b. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator
c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator
d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator
22. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because:

a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands
b. it is equal to the frequency deviation
c. it is band-limited at the receiver
d. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible
23. Pre-emphasis is used to:

a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies
b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies
c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies
d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations
24. A pre-
a. the time it takes for the circuit to work
b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs
c. the time delay between the L and R channels
d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used
25. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily:

a. using measurements at points where J0 equals one
b. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero
c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero
d. only by using Bessel functions
26. Baseband compression produces:

a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high
b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud
c. a smaller number of signals
27. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage will be:
a. approximately half the DC supply voltage
b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage
c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage
28. A direct FM modulator:

a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator
b. integrates the modulating signal
c. both a and b
29. An indirect FM modulator:

a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator
b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator
c. both a and b
30. With mixing:

a. the carrier frequency can be raised
b. the carrier frequency can be lowered
c. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value
d. the deviation is altered
31. The two basic specifications for a receiver are:

a. the sensitivity and the selectivity
b. the number of converters and the number of IFs
c. the spurious response and the tracking
d. the signal and the noise
32. "Skin effect" refers to:

a. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface
b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal
c. the increase of wire resistance with frequency
33. The frequency of the local oscillator:

a. is above the RF frequency
b. is below the RF frequency
c. can be either above of below the RF frequency
d. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz.
34. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because:
a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses
b. it increases sensitivity
c. it increases selectivity
d. it is cheaper
35. Basically, sensitivity measures:

a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received
b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received
c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier
36. Basically, selectivity measures:

a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select
b. with two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive one and reject the other
c. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator
d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer
37. Image frequencies occur when two signals:

a. are transmitted on the same frequency
b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency
c. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the
IF
d. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF
38. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:

a. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer
39. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because:

a. they are faster than silicon diodes
b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes
c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity
d. all of the above
40. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to:

a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator
b. reinject the carrier
c. use double conversion
d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC
41. The function of AFC is:

a. maintain a constant IF frequency
b. match the local oscillator to the received signal
c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency
42. The main function of the AGC is to:

a. keep the gain of the receiver constant
b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant
c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude
d. all of the above
43. SINAD stands for:

a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion
b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion
c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio
d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio
44. The Shannon Limit is given by:

a. I = ktB
b. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
c. C = 2B log2M
d. SR = 2fmax
45. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion?

a. They are two types of sampling error.
b. You can have one or the other, but not both.
c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion.
d. They are the same thing.
46. Quantizing noise (quantization noise):

a. decreases as the sample rate increases
b. decreases as the sample rate decreases
c. decreases as the bits per sample increases
d. decreases as the bits per sample decreases
47. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of:

a. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal
b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion
c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample
48. Companding is used to:

a. compress the range of base-band frequencies
b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates
c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low
d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission
49. Manchester coding:

a. is a biphase code
b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period
c. provides strong timing information
d. all of the above
50. A vocoder implements compression by:

a. constructing a model of the transmission medium
b. constructing a model of the human vocal system
c. finding redundancies in the digitized data
d. using lossless techniques
51. Call blocking:

a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded
52. Loading coils were used to:

a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data
b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals
c. reduce crosstalk
d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop
53. ASCII stands for:

a. American Standard Character-set 2
b. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
c. American Standard Code 2
d. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange
54. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and receiver are:

a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits
b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock
c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits
d. not synchronized at all, hence the name "asynchronous"
55. In synchronous transmission, the frames are:

a. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames
b. much longer than asynchronous frames
c. 128 bytes long
d. 1024 bytes long
56. Synchronous transmission is used because:

a. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency
b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required
c. it is easier to implement than asynchronous
d. all of the above
57. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission:

a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed
b. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization
c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted
d. the channel must be noise-free
58. Huffman codes:

a. allow errors to be detected but not corrected
b. allow errors to be detected and corrected
c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected
d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed
59. Dumb terminals are still used:

a. in token-passing networks
b. in networks requiring central monitoring
c. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring
60. In a circuit-switched network:

a. communication is half-duplex only
b. each channel carries only one data stream
c. connection is usually done using a bus topology
d. all of the above
61. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means:

a. the cable carries baseband signals
b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps
c. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system
62. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is:
a. to increase the data rate
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
d. all of the above
63. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is:
a. to increase the data rate
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
d. all of the above
64. A hub:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
d. are more common in token-passing networks
65. A switch:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
d. are more common in token-passing networks
66. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:

a. it is cheaper when used in large networks
b. it is faster when used in large networks
c. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks
d. all of the above
67. Broadband LANs:
a. modulate the data onto a carrier
b. use coaxial cables
c. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access
d. all of the above
68. Record locking is used to:

a. store records securely on a server
b. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously
c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to
69. A bridge:
a. separates a network into "collision domains"
b. looks at the address of each packet
c. operate at the data-link level
d. all of the above
70. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network:

a. is essentially forever
b. depends on elapsed time since transmission
c. depends on number of "hops" between nodes
d. is approximately 200 milliseconds
71. FTP is used to:

a. transfer files between a server on the network and a user
b. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted"
c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network
72. A DNS:
a. has become obsolete on the Internet
b. translates words to numbers
c. stores all domain addresses
d. describes the Internet address-naming procedure
73. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the:

a. margin of noise
b. number of possible states per symbol
c. modulation index
d. maximum number of symbols per second
74. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when:

a. the eye is maximally open
b. the eye is half open
c. the eye is maximally closed
d. the eye alternately opens and closes
75.
a. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees
c. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees

d. double phase-shift angles
76. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" shows:

a. location of symbols in "symbol space"
b. effects of noise on symbols
c. separation of symbols in "symbol space"
d. all of the above
77. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for:

a. noise and interference
b. uneven phase and frequency response
c. low SNR
d. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel
78. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for:

a. Cable Modem Terminal Server
b. Cable Modem Terminal System
c. Cable Modem Transmission System
d. Cable Modem Transmission Server
79. TDMA is used instead of TDM when:

a. all the signals come from the same source
b. the signals come from different sources
c. TDM is used in RF communications
d. they mean the same thing
80. CDMA:
a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum
b. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum
c. cannot be used on an RF channel
d. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously
81. An example of an unbalanced line is:

a. a coaxial cable
b. an open-wire-line cable
c. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable
d. all of the above
82. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on:

a. the resistance per foot of the wire used
b. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot
c. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot
d. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot
83. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse
b. would reflect as a negative pulse
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
d. would not reflect at all
84. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance:
85. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit:

86. EIRP stands for:

a. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power
b. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
c. the Effective Internal Reflected Power
d. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power
87. The "attenuation of free space" is due to:

a. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space
b. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere
c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront
d. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront
88. A "repeater" is used to:

a. send a message multiple times over a channel
b. send a message over multiple channels at the same time
c. extend the range of a radio communications system
d. cancel the effects of fading
89. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to:

a. the radiated signal
b. the SWR
c. the reflected signal
d. all of the above
90. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by:
a. radio signals reflecting off the ground
b. buildings and other structures on the ground
c. fading
d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground
91. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:

a. is fixed
b. depends on the frequency it carries
c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section
d. both b and c
92. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on:

a. the shape of the waveguide
b. the point of signal injection
c. the power level of the signal
93. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:

a. is fixed
b. depends on the frequency it carries
c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section
d. both b and c
94. An "isolator" is a device that:

a. isolates frequencies in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c. separates signals among various ports
d. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide
95. A "circulator" is a device that:

a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c. separates signals among various ports
d. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide
96. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar:

a. increases with increasing repetition rate
b. decreases with increasing pulse period
c. decreases with increasing repetition rate
97. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as:

a. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value
b. an ERP level that exceeds a given value
c. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value
98. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a:

a. low level of transmitted power
b. high level of ERP
c. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio
d. good energy per bit per noise density ratio
99. LMDS stands for:
a. Local Microwave Distribution System
b. Local Multipoint Distribution System
c. Local Multichannel Distribution System
d. Low-power Microwave Distribution System
100. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution:

a. is greater than vertical resolution
b. is about the same as vertical resolution
c. is less than vertical resolution
d. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines
100. IMSI stands for:

a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification
b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification
c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification
d. Intermodulation System Interference
101. In CDMA:
a. all frequencies are used in all cells
b. each cell uses half the available frequencies
c. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base
d. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone
102. A Bluetooth "piconet" has:

a. 2 nodes
b. 2 to 8 nodes
c. 2 to 4 nodes
d. 2 to 16 nodes
103. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used:

a. in an explosive environment
b. to connect a transmitter to an antenna
c. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard
104. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about:

a. 0.02 dB
b. 1 dB
c. 0.2 dB
d. 3 dB
105. DWDM stands for:

a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation
b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation
c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation
d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing
NEETS MODULE 11 (25 ITEMS)
1. The kinetic energy of an electron is directly proportional to what property?

a. Velocity
b. Speed
c. Mass
d. Volume
2. Which dielectric material has a much lower dielectric loss than conventional insulating materials and is used In
waveguides?
a. Air
b. Glass
c. Polyethylene
d. Polystyrene
3. If the frequency of a signal is decreased so much that ______ quarter-wavelengths are longer than the wide dimension of
a waveguide, energy will no longer pass through the waveguide.
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
4. Compared to the velocity of propagation of waves in air, what is the velocity of waves in waveguides?
a. Slower
b. Faster
c. Equal
d. Depends on the dielectric material
5. The travel of energy down a waveguide compared to the travel of electromagnetic waves in free space is _______.
a. similar and identical
b. similar but not identical
c. different
d. incomparable
6. In a waveguide, what is a frequency that would cause angles of incidence and reflection to be zero degrees?
a. Maximum usable frequency
b. Optimum working frequency
c. Critical frequency
d. Resonant frequency
7. At what frequency compared to the cutoff frequency of a waveguide will the wavefronts be reflected back and forth across
the guide (setting up standing waves) and no energy will be conducted down the waveguide?
a. Equal to the cutoff frequency
b. Above the cutoff frequency
c. Below the cutoff frequency
d. Twice the cutoff frequency
8. The waveguide yields an electric field configuration known as the half-sine electric distribution. This configuration is
known as:
a. Mode of operation
b. Cutoff operation
c. Resonance
d. Total internal refrlection
9. What is the term used when the peak H lines and peak E lines occur at the same instant in time?
a. Peak phase
b. Time phase
c. Wave phase
d. Velocity phase
10. Of the possible modes of operation available for a given waveguide, which has the lowest cutoff frequency?
a. TM mode
b. TE mode
c. TEM mode
d. Dominant mode
11. In microwave systems, what is known as a mode at which it is perpendicular to the length of the waveguide (direction of
energy travel) and part of the magnetic field is parallel to the length axis?
a. TM mode
b. TE mode
c. TEM mode
d. Dominant mode
12. A mode where the entire magnetic field is in the transverse plane and has no portion parallel to the length axis.
a. TM mode
b. TE mode
c. TEM mode
d. Dominant mode
13. In rectangular waveguides, as the probe of the probe coupler increases in diameter, the bandwidth:
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Does not change
d. Is reduced to zero
14. For the most efficient coupling to the waveguide:

a. the loop is inserted at one of several points where the magnetic field will be of greatest strength.
b. the loop is inserted at one of several points where the electric field will be of greatest strength
c. the loop is inserted at one of several points where the magnetic field will be of least strength
d. the loop is inserted at one of several points where the electric field will be of least strength
15. Electromagnetic energy is often passed through a waveguide to transfer the energy from a source into space. Which
statement is TRUE?
a. the impedance of a waveguide does not match the impedance of space
b. the impedance of a waveguide is equal to the impedance of space
c. the impedance of a waveguide is infinite
d. the impedance of a waveguide is zero
16. A waveguide may also be terminated in a resistive load that is matched to the characteristic impedance of the waveguide.
The resistive load is most often called a ______.
a. Matching resistor
b. Terminating resistor
c. Reflective resistor
d. Dummy resistor
17. The size, shape, and dielectric material of a waveguide must be constant throughout its length for energy to move from
one end to the other without reflections. What could be the effect in any abrupt change in its size or shape?
a. Reflections only
b. Increase in efficiency
c. Reflections and a loss in overall efficiency
d. Improvement of signal
18. Which is/are example/s of waveguide joints

I. PERMANENT
II. SEMI-PERMANENT
III. ROTATING JOINTS
IV. NATURAL
a. I and ll
b. l, ll, lV
c. I, II, III
d. I, II, III, IV
19. What is a device that provides a method of sampling energy from within a waveguide for measurement or use in another
circuit?
a. Cavity resonator
b. Hybrid junction
c. Directional coupler
d. Bend
20. In changing the frequency of a cavity, what is accomplished by placing a nonmagnetic slug in the area of maximum H
lines?
a. Inductive coupling
b. Capacitive coupling
c. Magnetic coupling
d. Electric coupling
21. In changing the frequency of a cavity, an adjustable slug or screw is placed in the area of maximum E lines. The distance
d represents the distance between two capacitor plates. As the slug is moved in, the distance between the two plates
becomes smaller and the capacitance increases. The increase in capacitance causes a decrease in the resonant
frequency. This is known as:
a. Inductive coupling
b. Capacitive coupling
c. Magnetic coupling
d. Electric coupling
22. What device can be constructed to attenuate a particular microwave frequency and allow all others to pass unaffected?
a. Variable modulator
b. Ferrite Phase shifter
c. Ferrite Isolator
d. Ferrite attenuator
23. What device can be constructed to allow microwave energy to pass in one direction but blocks energy in the other
direction in a waveguide?
a. Variable modulator
b. Ferrite Phase shifter
c. Ferrite Isolator
d. Ferrite attenuator
24. When microwave energy is passed through a piece of ferrite in a magnetic field, another effect occurs. If the frequency of
the microwave energy is much greater than the electron wobble frequency, the plane of polarization of the wavefront is
rotated. This is known as:
a. Lenz’s law
b. Faraday rotation effect
c. Flywheel effect
d. Faraday’s Law
25. What travels down a waveguide by reflecting from the side walls in a zigzag pattern?
a. Light
b. Wavefronts
c. Electric field
d. Magnetic field
FOROUZAN MCQ
CHAPTER 1 (31 ITEMS)
1. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.

A) Protocol
B) Medium
C) Signal
D) All the above
2. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the

_______.
A) Medium
B) Protocol
C) Message
D) Transmission
3. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the _______ of a network.
A) Performance
B) Reliability
C) Security
D) Feasibility
4. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue.

A) Performance
B) Reliability
C) Security
D) All the above
5. Which topology requires a central controller or hub?

A) Mesh
B) Star
C) Bus
D) Ring
6. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?

A) Mesh
B) Star
C) Bus
D) Ring
7. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission.

A) simplex
B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex
D) automatic
8. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission.

A) simplex
B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex
D)automatic
9. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.

A) point-to-point
B) multipoint
C) primary
D) secondary
10. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link.
A) point-to-point
B) multipoint
C) primary
D) secondary
11. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating devices at all times.
A) simplex
B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex
D) half-simplex
12. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together.

A) IMPs
B) host computers
C) networks
D) routers
13. This was the first network.

A) CSNET
B) NSFNET
C) ANSNET
D) ARPANET
14. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field?
A) ITU-T
B) IEEE
C) FCC
D) ISOC
15. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and standardize new technologies.
A) Forums
B) Regulatory agencies
C) Standards organizations
D) All of the above
16. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and electronic signaling specifications?
A) EIA
B) ITU-T
C) ANSI
D) ISO
17. _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet.

A) TCP/IP
B) NCP
C) UNIX
D) ACM
18. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in which they are presented.
A) Semantics
B) Syntax
C) Timing
D) All of the above
19. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that interpretation.
A) Semantics
B) Syntax
C) Timing
D) None of the above
20. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how fast it can be sent.
A) Semantics
B) Syntax
C) Timing
D) none of the above
21. Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way.
A) simplex
B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex
D) all of the above
22. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a dedicated link.
A) multipoint
B) point-to-point
C) (a) and (b)
23. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link.

A) multipoint
B) point-to-point
C) (a) and (b)
24. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network.
A) Data flow
B) Mode of operation
C) Topology
25. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology.

A) mesh
B) ring
C) bus
D) all of the above
26. A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or campus, or between nearby buildings.
A) MAN
B) LAN
C) WAN
27. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world.
A) MAN
B) LAN
C) WAN
28. ________ is a collection of many separate networks.

A) A WAN
B) An internet
C) a LAN
29. There are ______________ Internet service providers.

A) local
B) regional
C) national and international
D) all of the above
30. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication.

A) forum
B) protocol
C) standard
31. ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard.

A) RCF
B) RFC
C) ID
1. The Internet model consists of

_______ layers.
A) Three
B) Five
C) Seven
D) Eight
2. The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of the _______ layer.
A) Network
B) Transport
C) Application
D) Physical
3. The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.

A) Physical
B) Data link
C) Network
D) Transport
4. Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layer.
A) Data link
B) Physical
C) Transport
D) Application
5. As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are
_______.
A) Added
B) Removed
C) Rearranged
D) Modified
6. The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the application layer.
A) Physical
B) Data link
C) Transport
7. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer.
A) Network
B) Data link
C) Transport
8. When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 4 is read by B's _______ layer.
A) Physical
B) Transport
C) Application
9. The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals.

A) Physical
B) Data link
C) Transport
10. Which of the following is an application layer service?

A) Remote log-in
B) File transfer and access
C) Mail service
D) All the above
11. Why was the OSI model developed?

A) Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite.
B) The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially
C) Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate
12. The _______ model shows how the network functions of a computer ought to be organized.
A) CCITT
B) OSI
C) ISO
D) ANSI
13. The physical layer is concerned with the movement of _______ over the physical medium.
A) programs
B) dialogs
C) protocols
D) bits
14. The OSI model consists of _______

layers.
A) three
B) five
C) seven
D) eight
15. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______.
A) added
B) removed
C) rearranged
D) modified
16. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer.
A) physical
B) transport
C) session
D) presentation
17. In the OSI model, what is the main function of the transport layer?
A) node-to-node delivery
B) process-to-process message delivery
C) synchronization
D) updating and maintenance of routing Tables
18. In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the ________ layer.
A) transport
B) session
C) presentation
D) application
19. When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which address does the router look at?
A) port
B) logical
C) physical
20. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______ address must be consulted.
A) port
B) IP
C) physical
21. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses.

A) 32
B) 64
C) 128
D) variable
22. ICMPv6 includes _______.

A) IGMP
B) ARP
C) RARP
D) a and b
23. The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the next.
A) physical
B) data link
C) transport
24. The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper layer that includes the logical addresses of the sender
and receiver.
A) physical
B) data link
C) network
25. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to another.
A) physical
B) transport
C) network
26. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a ________ protocol.

A) reliable
B) connection-oriented
C) both a and b
27. _______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the
data from the upper layer.
A) TCP
B) UDP
C) IP
28. __________ provides full transport layer services to applications.

A) TCP
B) UDP
C) ARP
D)none of the above
29. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
A) port
B) physical
C) logical
30. Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on the network interface card (NIC).
A) 32-bit
B) 64-bit
C) 6-byte
31. A port address in TCP/IP is ______ bits long.

A) 32
B) 48
C) 16
32. The ____ created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection, which allows diverse systems to communicate.
A) OSI
B) ISO
C) IEEE
33. The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the development of universally compatible networking protocols.
A) OSI
B) ISO
C) IEEE
34. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support layers.
A) user
B) network
C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
35. The session, presentation, and application layers are the ____ support layers.
A) user
B) network
C) both (a) and (b)
36. The _______ layer links the network support layers and the user support layers.
A) transport
B) network
C) data link
D) session
37. The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit stream over a physical medium.
A) transport
B) network
C) data link
D) physical
38. The _______ layer is responsible for delivering data units from one station to the next without errors.
A) transport
B) network
C) data link
D) physical
39. The ______ layer is responsible for the source-to-destination delivery of a packet across multiple network links.
A) transport
B) network
C) data link
D) physical
40. The ________ layer is responsible for the process-to-process delivery of the entire message.
A) transport
B) network
C) data link
D) physical
41. The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the interactions between communicating devices.
A) transport
B) network
C) session
D) physical
42. The _______ layer ensures interoperability between communicating devices through transformation of data into a mutually
agreed upon format.
A) transport
B) network
C) data link
D) presentation
43. The _________ layer enables the users to access the network.
A) transport
B) application
C) data link
D) physical
44. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI model.
A) seven-layer; before
B) five-layer; before
C) six-layer; before
D) five-layer; after
45. The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent to the combined session, presentation, and application layers of the OSI model.
A) application
B) network
C) data link
D) physical
46. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
A) physical
B) IP
C) port
D) specific
47. The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet.

A) physical
B) IP
C) port
D) specific
48. The_____ address identifies a process on a host.

A) physical
B) IP
C) port
D) specific

1. Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to ________.
A) periodic signals
B) electromagnetic signals
C) aperiodic signals
D) low-frequency sine waves
2. A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency?

A) 1 Hz
B) 100 Hz
C) 1 KHz
D) 1 MHz
3. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________.

A) peak amplitude
B) frequency
C) phase
D) slope
4. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of ________.

A) signal amplitude
B) frequency
C) phase
D) time
5. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz, what is the highest frequency?
A) 5 KHz
B) 10 KHz
C) 47 KHz
D) 57 KHz
6. What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 1 MHz to 4 MHz?

A) 4 MHz
B) 1 KHz
C) 3 MHz
7. As frequency increases, the period ________.

A) decreases
B) increases
C) remains the same
D) doubles
8. Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then the period of B is ________ that of A.
A) one-half
B) twice
C) the same as
D) indeterminate from
9. A sine wave is ________.

A) periodic and continuous
B) aperiodic and continuous
C) periodic and discrete
D) aperiodic and discrete
10. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is ________ V.
A) 2
B) 1
C) -2
D) between -2 and 2
11. A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at the first point and P2 at the second point. The dB is 0. This
means ________.
A) P2 is zero
B) P2 equals P1
C) P2 is much larger than P1
D) P2 is much smaller than P1
12. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the resistance of the transmission
medium.
A) Attenuation
B) Distortion
C) Noise
D) Decibel
13. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the different propagation speeds of
each frequency that makes up the signal.
A) Attenuation
B) Distortion
C) Noise
D) Decibel
14. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as crosstalk corrupts a signal.
A) Attenuation
B) Distortion
C) Noise
D) Decibel
15. When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the ________.
A) throughput
B) wavelength of the signal
C) distortion factor
D) distance a signal or bit has traveled
16. Data can be ________.

A) analog
B) digital
C) (a) or (b)
17. _______ data are continuous and take continuous values.

A) analog
B) digital
C) (a) or (b)
18 _______ data have discrete states and take discrete values.

A) Analog
B) Digital
C) (a) or (b)
19. Signals can be ________.

A) analog
B) digital
C) either (a) or (b)
20. _____ signals can have an infinite number of values in a range.

A) Analog
B) Digital
C) (a) or (b)
21. _______ signals can have only a limited number of values.

A) Analog
B) Digital
C) (a) or (b)
22. Frequency and period are ______.

A) inverse of each other
B) proportional to each other
C) the same
23. ________is the rate of change with respect to time.

A) Amplitude
B) Time
C) Frequency
D) Voltage
24. _______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0.

A) Frequency
B) Phase
C) Amplitude
D) Voltage
25. A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented by one single spike in the _____ domain.
A) time; frequency
B) frequency; time
C) time; phase
D) phase; time
26. A _________ sine wave is not useful in data communications; we need to send a _______ signal.
A) composite; single-frequency
B) single-frequency; composite
C) single-frequency; double-frequency
27. The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and the lowest frequencies contained in that signal.
A) frequency
B) period
C) bandwidth
D) amplitude
28. A(n)_________ signal is a composite analog signal with an infinite bandwidth.

A) digital
B) analog
29. Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a ____ channel.
A) low-pass
B) bandpass
C) low rate
D) high rate
30. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal directly to the channel.
A) low-pass
B) bandpass
C) low rate
D) high rate
31. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical maximum bit rate.
A) noisy
B) noiseless
C) bandpass
D) low-pass
32. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the maximum bit rate.
A) noisy
B) noiseless
C) bandpass
D) low-pass
33. _________ can impair a signal.

A) Attenuation
B) Distortion
C) Noise
D) All of the above
34. The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link.
A) bandwidth-period
B) frequency-amplitude
C) bandwidth-delay
D) delay-amplitude
1. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of _______ encoding.

A) line
B) block
C) NRZ
D) Manchester
2. _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit.

A) RZ
B) Manchester
C) Differential Manchester
D) All the above
3. _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit.

A) RZ
B) Manchester
C) Differential Manchester
D) All the above
4. PCM is an example of _______ conversion.

A) digital-to-digital
B) digital-to-analog
C) analog-to-analog
D) analog-to-digital
5. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the
sampling rate, according to the Nyquist theorem?
A) 200 samples/s
B) 500 samples/s
C) 1000 samples/s
D) 1200 samples/s
6. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to be_______.

A) equal to the lowest frequency of a signal
B) equal to the highest frequency of a signal
C) twice the bandwidth of a signal
D) twice the highest frequency of a signal
7. Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for synchronization?
A) NRZ-L
B) RZ
C) NRZ-I
D) Manchester
8. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for 1s?
A) NRZ-I
B) RZ
C) Manchester
D) AMI
9. Which quantization level results in a more faithful reproduction of the signal?

A) 2
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
10. Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver.

A) Synchronization
B) Error detection
C) Attenuation
D) (a) and (b)
11. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its own wire.
A) Asynchronous serial
B) Synchronous serial
C) Parallel
D) (a) and (b)
12. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted over a single wire, one at a time.
A) asynchronous serial
B) synchronous serial
C) parallel
D) (a) and (b)
13. In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character byte.
A) asynchronous serial
B) synchronous serial
C) parallel
D) (a) and (b)
14. In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _______.

A) fixed
B) variable
C) a function of the data rate
D) zero
15. ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line coding, block coding, and scrambling.
A) Analog-to-digital
B) Digital-to-analog
C) Analog-to-analog
D) Digital-to-digital
16. ________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital signal.

A) Block coding
B) Line coding
C) Scrambling
17. _______ provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and inherent error detection.
A) Block coding
B) Line coding
C) Scrambling
18. ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it replaces each m-bit group with an n-bit group.
A) Block coding
B) Line coding
C) Scrambling
19. ________ provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits.

A) Scrambling
B) Line coding
C) Block coding
20. Two common scrambling techniques are ________.

A) NRZ and RZ
B) AMI and NRZ
C) B8ZS and HDB3
D) Manchester and differential Manchester
21. The most common technique to change an analog signal to digital data is called __________.
A) PAL
B) PCM
C) sampling
22. The first step in PCM is ________.

A) quantization
B) modulation
C) sampling
23. There are three sampling methods:

__________.
A) quantized, sampled, and ideal
B) ideal, sampled, and flat-top
C) ideal, natural, and flat-top
24. ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each sample; ____ finds the change from the previous sample.
A) DM; PCM
B) PCM; DM
C) DM; CM
25. While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel data, there is (are) three subclass(es) of serial transmission.
A) one; two
B) two; three
C) one; three
26. In ______ transmission, we send 1 start bit (0) at the beginning and 1 or more stop bits (1s) at the end of each byte.
A) synchronous
B) asynchronous
C) isochronous
27. In _________ transmission, we send bits one after another without start or stop bits or gaps. It is the responsibility of the
receiver to group the bits.
A) synchronous
B) asynchronous
C) isochronous
28. The ________ mode provides synchronization for the entire stream of bits must. In other words, it guarantees that the data
arrive at a fixed rate.
A) synchronous
B) asynchronous
C) isochronous
29. A _________ digital signal includes timing information in the data being transmitted.
A) self-synchronizing
B) self-modulated
C) self-transmitted
30. In decoding a digital signal, the receiver calculates a running average of the received signal power, called the
_______.
A) baseline
B) base
C) line
31. The ________ rate defines the number of data elements sent in 1s; the ______ rate is the number of signal elements sent in
1s.
A) data; signal
B) signal; data
C) baud; bit
32. The signal rate is sometimes called the ____ rate.

A) baud
B) bit
C) signal
33. The data rate is sometimes called the ___ rate.

A) baud
B) bit
C) signal
34. In a _____ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side of the time axis, either above or below.
A) polar
B) bipolar
C) unipolar
D) all of the above
35. In ______ schemes, the voltages are on the both sides of the time axis. For example, the voltage level for 0 can be positive and
the voltage level for 1 can be negative.
A) polar
B) bipolar
C) unipolar
D) all of the above
36. In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit.
A) NRZ-I
B) NRZ-L
C) both (a) and (b)
37. In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit.
A) NRZ-I
B) NRZ-L
C) both (a) and (b)
38. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZL are combined into the ________ scheme.
A) Manchester
B) differential Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)
39. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZI are combined into the ________ scheme.
A) Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)
40. In _______ encoding, the duration of the bit is divided into two halves. The voltage remains at one level during the first half and
moves to the other level in the second half. The transition at the middle of the bit provides synchronization.
A) Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)
41. In ___________ there is always a transition at the middle of the bit, but the bit values are determined at the beginning of the bit.
If the next bit is 0, there is a transition; if the next bit is 1, there is none.
A) Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)
42. In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the transition at the middle of the bit is used for __________.
A) bit transfer
B) baud transfer
C) synchronization
43. The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential Manchester is ____ that of NRZ.
A) the same as
B) twice
C) thrice
44. In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and negative.

A) unipolar
B) bipolar
C) polar
45. The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and encodes the 2-bit patterns as one signal element belonging to a four-level
signal.
A) 4B5B
B) 2B1Q
C) MLT-3
46. The ______ scheme uses three levels (+V, 0, and -V) and three transition rules to move between the levels.
A) 4B5B
B) 2B1Q
C) MLT-3
47. ______ substitutes eight consecutive zeros with 000VB0VB.

A) B4B8
B) HDB3
C) B8ZS
48. ______ substitutes four consecutive zeros with 000V or B00V

A) B4B8
B) HDB3
C) B8ZSf

1. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion.
C) analog-to-analog
2. AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion.

C) analog-to-analog
3. In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied.

A) frequency and amplitude
B) phase and frequency
C) amplitude and phase
4. If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ________ bps.
A) 100
B) 400
C) 800
D) 1600
5. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________.
A) 300
B) 400
C) 600
D) 1200
6. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________.
A) 300
B) 400
C) 600
D) 1200
7. If the bit rate for a 16-QAM signal is 4000 bps, what is the baud rate?
A) 300
B) 400
C) 1000
D) 1200
8. If the baud rate for a 64-QAM signal is 2000, what is the bit rate?
A) 300
B) 400
C) 1000
D) 12000
9. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest-frequency component at 705 KHz, what is the frequency
of the carrier signal?
A) 700 KHz
B) 705 KHz
C) 710 KHz
D) Cannot be determined from given information
10. _______ conversion is the process of changing one of the characteristics of an analog signal based on the information in the
digital data.
A) Digital-to-analog
B) Analog-to-analog
C) Analog-to-digital
11. Which of the following is not a digital-to-analog conversion?

A) ASK
B) PSK
C) FSK
D) AM
12. In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to create signal elements. Both frequency and phase remain constant.
A) ASK
B) PSK
C) FSK
D) QAM
13. In _________, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied to represent data. Both peak amplitude and phase remain constant.
A) ASK
B) PSK
C) FSK
D) QAM
14. In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to represent two or more different signal elements. Both peak amplitude and
frequency remain constant.
A) ASK
B) PSK
C) FSK
D) QAM
15. A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a signal element, particularly when we are using two carriers (one in-
phase and one quadrature).
A) amplitude and phase
B) amplitude and frequency
C) frequency and phase
16. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of ___________.

A) ASK and FSK
B) ASK and PSK
C) PSK and FSK
17. ________ uses two carriers, one in-phase and the other quadrature.
A) ASK
B) PSK
C) FSK
D) QAM
18. _________ conversion is the representation of analog information by an analog signal.

A) Digital-to-analog
B) Analog-to-analog
C) Analog-to-digital
19. Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is _______.

A) low-pass
B) band-pass
20. Which of the following is not an analog-to-analog conversion?

A) AM
B) PM
C) FM
D) QAM
21. In _____ transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so that its amplitude varies with the changing amplitudes of the
modulating signal.
A) AM
B) PM
C) FM
22. In _____ transmission, the frequency of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the
modulating signal. The peak amplitude and phase of the carrier signal remain constant, but as the amplitude of the information
signal changes, the frequency of the carrier changes correspondingly.
A) AM
B) PM
C) FM
23. In _____ transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the
modulating signal.
A) AM
B) PM
C) FM
24. In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the same as the amplitude of the carrier frequency.
A) PSK
B) OOK
C) FSK
25. How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK?

A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
26. How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK?

A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
27. How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK?

A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
28. How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK?

A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
29. The constellation diagram of BASK has ______ dots.

A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
30. The constellation diagram of BPSK has ______ dots.

A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
31. The constellation diagram of QPSK has ______ dots.

A) 2
B) 1
C) 4
32. The constellation diagram of 16-QAM has ______ dots.

A) 4
B) 16
C) 8
33. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for each AM station.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
34. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______ kHz for each FM station.
A) 20
B) 100
C) 200
1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _______.
A) modulation
B) encoding
C) line discipline
D) multiplexing
2.Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals?

A) FDM
B) TDM
C) WDM
D) (a) and (c)
3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?
A) FDM
B) TDM
C) WDM
4. Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency?

A) FDM
B) TDM
C) Both (a) and (b)
5. In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each frame contains _______ slots.
A) n
B) n + 1
C) n - 1
D) 0 to n
6. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of the transmission rates of the signal
sources.
A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to
D) not related to
7. Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams?

A) FDM
B) TDM
C) WDM
8. _________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to achieve specific goals.

A) Frequency
B) Bandwidth
C) Amplitude
9. ________ can be achieved by using multiplexing; ______ can be achieved by using spreading.
A) Efficiency; privacy and antijamming
B) Privacy and antijamming; efficiency
C) Privacy and efficiency; antijamming
D) Efficiency and antijamming; privacy
10. ________ is the set of techniques that allows the simultaneous transmission of multiple signals across a single data link.
A) Demodulating
B) Multiplexing
C) Compressing
11. In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth of ____ link.

A) 1; n
B) 1; 1
C) n; 1
D) n; n
12. The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ that carries a transmission.
A) channel; link
B) link; channel
C) line; channel
D) line; link
13. ______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater than the combined bandwidths of the signals to
be transmitted.
A) TDM
B) FDM
C) Both (a) or (b)
D) Neither (a) or (b)
14. FSM is an _________technique.

A) analog
B) digital
15. ____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability of fiber-optic cable.
A) FDM
B) TDM
C) WDM
16. ______ is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical signals.

A) FDM
B) TDM
C) WDM
17. _____ is a digital process that allows several connections to share the high bandwidth of a link.
A) FDM
B) TDM
C) WDM
18. _____ is a digital multiplexing technique for combining several low-rate channels into one high-rate one.
A) FDM
B) TDM
C) WDM
19. We can divide ____ into two different schemes: synchronous or statistical.
A) FDM
B) TDM
C) WDM
20. In ________ TDM, each input connection has an allotment in the output even if it is not sending data.
A) synchronous
B) statistical
C) isochronous
21. In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve bandwidth efficiency.
A) synchronous
B) statistical
C) isochronous
22. In ________, we combine signals from different sources to fit into a larger bandwidth.
A) spread spectrum
B) line coding
C) block coding
23. _______ is designed to be used in wireless applications in which stations must be able to share the medium without
interception by an eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a malicious intruder.
A) Spread spectrum
B) Multiplexing
C) Modulation
D) None of the above.
24. The _______ technique uses M different carrier frequencies that are modulated by the source signal. At one moment,
the sign modulates one carrier frequency; at the next moment, the signal modulates another carrier frequency.
A) FDM
B) DSSS
C) FHSS
D) TDM
25. The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a signal by replacing each data bit with n bits.
A) FDM
B) DSSS
C) FHSS
D) TDM
1. Transmission media are usually categorized as _______.

A) fixed or unfixed
B) guided or unguided
C) determinate or indeterminate
D) metallic or nonmetallic
2. Transmission media lie below the _______ layer.

A) physical
B) network
C) transport
D) application
3. _______ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting outer sheath.
A) Twisted-pair
B) Coaxial
C) Fiber-optic
D) Shielded twisted-pair
4. In fiber optics, the signal is _______ waves.

A) light
B) radio
C) infrared
D) very low-frequency
5. Which of the following primarily uses guided media?

A) cellular telephone system
B) local telephone system
C) satellite communications
D) radio broadcasting
6. Which of the following is not a guided medium?

A) twisted-pair cable
B) coaxial cable
C) fiber-optic cable
D) atmosphere
7. What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise than twisted-pair cable?
A) inner conductor
B) diameter of cable
C) outer conductor
D) insulating material
8. In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the cladding.

A) denser than
B) less dense than
C) the same density as
D) another name for
9. The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in composition.

A) glass or plastic
B) copper
C) bimetallic
D) liquid
10. When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if the angle of incidence is greater than the critical
angle, _______ occurs.
A) reflection
B) refraction
C) incidence
D) criticism
11. When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the light beam bends along the interface.
A) more than
B) less than
C) equal to
12. Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation.

A) ground
B) sky
C) line-of-sight
13. Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use ______ propagation.
A) ground
B) sky
C) line-of-sight
14. Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use _______propagation.

A) ground
B) sky
C) line-of-sight
15. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _______ antenna.

A) omnidirectional
B) bidirectional
C) unidirectional
D) horn
16. A(n) _____ medium provides a physical conduit from one device to another.
A) guided
B) unguided
17. ________ cable consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together.
A) Coaxial
B) Fiber-optic
C) Twisted-pair
18. _______ cable is used for voice and data communications.

A) Coaxial
B) Fiber-optic
C) Twisted-pair
19. __________ consists of a central conductor and a shield.

A) Coaxial
B) Fiber-optic
C) Twisted-pair
20. _____ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _____ cable.
A) Twisted-pair; fiber-optic
B) Coaxial; fiber-optic
C) Coaxial; twisted-pair
21. ______ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded by
cladding, all encased in an outside jacket.
A) Coaxial
B) Fiber-optic
C) Twisted-pair
22. ______ cables carry data signals in the form of light.

A) Coaxial
B) Fiber-optic
C) Twisted-pair
23. In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is propagated along the inner core by _______.
A) reflection
B) refraction
C) modulation
24. _________ media transport electromagnetic waves without the use of a physical conductor.
A) Guided
B) Unguided
C) Either (a) or (b)
25. Radio waves are _________.

A) omnidirectional
B) unidirectional
C) bidirectional
26. Microwaves are _________.

A) omnidirectional
B) unidirectional
C) bidirectional
27. _______ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN communications.
A) Radio waves
B) Microwaves
C) Infrared waves
28. ________ are used for short-range communications such as those between a PC and a peripheral device.
A) Radio waves
B) Microwaves
C) Infrared waves
1. Traditionally, _____ methods of switching have been important.

A) four
B) three
C) five
D) six
2. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories.

A) four
B) three
C) five
D) two
3. Packet-switched networks can also be divided into ______subcategories: virtual-circuit networks and datagram networks
A) four
B) three
C) two
D) five
4. A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by physical links, in which each link is divided into n
channels.
A) line-switched
B) frame-switched
C) circuit-switched
5. Circuit switching takes place at the ________ layer.

A) data line
B) physical
C) network
D) transport
6. In _______, the resources need to be reserved during the setup phase; the resources remain dedicated for the entire
duration of data transfer phase until the teardown phase.
A) datagram switching
B) circuit switching
C) frame switching
7. In _________, there is no resource allocation for a packet.

C) frame switching
8. In _________, resources are allocated on demand.

C) frame switching
9. In __________, each packet is treated independently of all others.

C) frame switching
10. In _______ there are no setup or teardown phases.

C) frame switching
11. A _________ network is a cross between a circuit-switched network and a datagram network. It has some
characteristics of both.
A) virtual-circuit
B) packet-switched
C) frame-switched
12. We can say that a packet switch has _______ types of components.
A) two
B) three
C) four
13. The simplest type of switching fabric is the ______ switch.
A) crosspoint
B) crossbar
C) TSI
D) STS
14. A ________ switch is a multistage switch with microswitches at each stage that route the packets based on the output
port represented as a binary string.
A) crossbar
B) TSI
C) banyan
15. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ stages.
A) 8
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
16. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ microswitches at each stage.
A) 8
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
17. A ________ switch combines space-division and time-division technologies to take advantage of the best of both.
A) TST
B) SSS
C) TTT
18. The most popular technology in time-division switching is called the _________.
A) STI
B) ITS
C) TSI
19. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n must be equal to or greater than ____.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
20. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then k must be equal to or greater than ____.
A) 21
B) 19
C) 31
D) 41
21. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then the minimum number of crosspoints is greater than or equal to _______.
A) 15,200
B) 18,000
C) 42,000
D) 20,000
22. In a one-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______.
A) 10,000
B) 20,000
C) 40,000
D) 30,000
23. In a three-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______.
A) 40,000
B) greater than 40,000
C) less than 40,000
D) greater than 100,000
24. A ________ switch combines crossbar switches in several (normally three) stages.
A) multistage
B) multiple crossbar
C) multiple path
25. In _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are separated from one another spatially.
A) time-division
B) space-division
C) two-dimensional
D) three-dimensional
26. A switched WAN is normally implemented as a _______ network.

A) virtual-circuit
B) datagram
C) circuit-switched
27. In a ________ network, two types of addressing are involved: global and local.
A) virtual-circuit
B) datagram
C) circuit-switched
28. The network layer in the Internet is designed as a __________ network.

A) virtual-circuit
B) datagram
C) circuit-switched
29. A switch in a datagram network uses a routing table that is based on the ______ address.
A) source
B) destination
C) local
30.The _______ address in the header of a packet in a datagram network normally remains the same during the entire
journey of the packet.
A) source
B) destination
C) local
1. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.

A) packet-switched
B) circuit-switched
C) message-switched
2. The local loop has _______ cable that connects the subscriber telephone to the nearest end office.
A) twisted-pair
B) coaxial
C) fiber-optic
3. Data from a computer are _______; the local loop handles _______ signals.
A) analog; analog
B) analog; digital
C) digital; digital
D) digital; analog
4. _______ is suitable for businesses that require comparable upstream and downstream data rates.
A) VDSL
B) ADSL
C) SDSL
D) (a) and (b)
5. DMT is a modulation technique that combines elements of _______ and _______.

A) FDM; TDM
B) QDM; QAM
C) FDM; QAM
D) PSK; FSK
6. The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______.

A) voice communication
B) upstream data
C) downstream data
D) control data
7. _______ was designed as an alternative to the T-1 line.

A) VDSL
B) ADSL
C) SDSL
D) HDSL
8. HDSL encodes data using _______.

A) 4B/5B
B) 2B1Q
C) 1B2Q
D) 6B/8T
9. Another name for the cable TV office is the _______.
A) splitter
B) fiber node
C) combiner
D) head end
10. A traditional cable TV network transmits signals ______.

A) upstream
B) downstream
C) upstream and downstream
11. In an HFC network, the downstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation technique.
A) PSK
B) QAM
C) PCM
D) ASK
12. In an HFC network, the upstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation technique.
A) QAM
B) QPSK
C) PCM
D) ASK
13. The standard for data transmission over an HFC network is called _______.
A) MCNS
B) DOCSIS
C) CMTS
D) ADSL
14. The original telephone network, which is referred to as the plain old telephone system (POTS), was an ________
system.
A) digital
B) analog
C) digital as well as analog
15. The modern telephone network is now ________.
A) digital
B) analog
C) digital as well as analog
16. The telephone network is made of ______ major components.

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
17. The United States is divided into many _______.

A) LECs
B) LATAs
C) IXCs
18. The carrier that handles intra-LATA services is called a(n) _____ .
A) POP
B) IXC
C) LEC
19. The carrier that handles inter-LATA services is called a(n) _______.
A) POP
B) IXC
C) LEC
20. In ______signaling, the same circuit is used for both signaling and data.
A) in-band
B) out-of-band
C) mixed
21. In ________signaling, a portion of the bandwidth is used for signaling and another portion for data.
A) in-band
B) out-of-band
C) mixed
22. The protocol that is used for signaling in the telephone network is called ______.
A) POP
B) SSS
C) SS7
23. Telephone companies provide two types of analog services: analog _______ services and analog _____services.
A) switched; in-band
B) out-of-band; in-band
C) switched; leased
D) leased; out-of-band
24. The two most common digital services are ________ service and ______.
A) switched/56; switched/64
B) switched/56; DDS
C) DDS; swiched 64
D) leased; out-of-band
25. The term modem is a composite word that refers to the two functional entities that make up the device: a signal _______
and a signal _______.
A) modulator; demodulator
B) demodulator; modulator
C) modern; demo
26. Most popular modems available are based on the ________standards.

A) V-series
B) X-series
C) VX-series
27. ______technology is a set of technologies developed by the telephone companies to provide high data rate
transmission.
A) ASL
B) DSL
C) LDS
28. The traditional cable TV system used ________cable end to end.

A) twisted-pair
B) coaxial
C) fiber-optic
29. The second generation of cable networks is called a(n) _________ network.
A) HFC
B) HCF
C) CFH
30. The HFC network uses _______ cable.

A) twisted-pair
B) coaxial
C) fiber-optic
D) a combination of (b) and (c)
31. To use a cable network for data transmission, we need two key devices: a ______ and a _________
A) CM; CMS
B) CT; CMTS
C) CM; CMTS
1. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?

A) Simple parity check
B) Two-dimensional parity check
C) CRC
D) Checksum
2. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit?
A) Simple parity check
B) Two-dimensional parity check
C) CRC
D) Checksum
3. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC?

A) The divisor
B) The quotient
C) The dividend
D) The remainder
4. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______ the CRC.

A) The same size as
B) one bit less than
C) one bit more than
5. A burst error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed.
A) double-bit
B) burst
C) single-bit
6. In ________ error correction, the receiver corrects errors without requesting retransmission.
A) backward
B) onward
C) forward
7. In ________ error correction, the receiver asks the sender to send the data again.
A) backward
B) retransmission
C) forward
8. We can divide coding schemes into two broad categories: ________ and ______coding.
A) block; linear
B) linear; nonlinear
C) block; convolution
9. In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ give the same results.

A) addition and multiplication
B) addition and division
C) addition and subtraction
10. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use the ______ operation for both addition and subtraction.
A) XOR
B) OR
C) AND
11. In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k bits, called ___.
A) block; blockwords
B) linear; datawords
C) block; datawords
12. We add r redundant bits to each block to make the length n = k + r. The resulting n-bit blocks are called _________.
A) datawords
B) blockwords
C) codewords
13. The ________ between two words is the number of differences between corresponding bits.
A) Hamming code
B) Hamming distance
C) Hamming rule
14. To guarantee the detection of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be
_______.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 11
15. To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be
________.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 11
16. In a linear block code, the _______ of any two valid codewords creates another valid codeword.
A) XORing
B) ORing
C) ANDing
17. A simple parity-check code can detect __________ errors.

A) an even-number of
B) two
C) no errors
D) an odd-number of
18. _______codes are special linear block codes with one extra property. If a codeword is rotated, the result is another
codeword.
A) Non-linear
B) Convolution
C) Cyclic
19. The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______.

A) correction; detection
B) detection; correction
C) creation; correction
D) creation; detection
20. In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use only the integers in the range ______, inclusive.
A) 1 to 10
B) 1 to 11
C) 0 to 10
21. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use only ______.

A) 1 and 2
B) 0 and 2
C) 0 and 1
22. Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2 arithmetic results in _________.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 0
23. In block coding, if k =2 and n =3, we have _______ invalid codewords.

A) 8
B) 4
C) 2
24. The Hamming distance between equal codewords is _________.

A) 1
B) n
C) 0
25. The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is ________.

A) 2
B) 0
C) 1
26. In block coding, if n = 5, the maximum Hamming distance between two codewords is ________.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
27. If the Hamming distance between a dataword and the corresponding codeword is three, there are _____ bits in error.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
28. The _______ of a polynomial is the highest power in the polynomial.

A) range
B) degree
C) power
29. The divisor in a cyclic code is normally called the _________.

A) degree
B) generator
C) redundancy
30. A generator that contains a factor of ____ can detect all odd-numbered errors.
A) x
B) x + 1
C) 1
31. Checksums use _________ arithmetic.

A) two's complement arithmetic
B) one's complement arithmetic
32. In one's complement arithmetic, if positive 7 is 0111, then negative 7 is ________.

A) 1111
B) 1101
C) 1000
33. The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________.

A) 1111
B) 0000
C) 1110
D) 0111
34. The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is __________.

A) 1111
B) 0000
C) 1110
D) 0111
1. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers?
A) 0 to 63
B) 0 to 64
C) 1 to 63
D) 1 to 64
2. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the receiver may send an ACK _______ to the
sender.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) any of the above
3. ARQ stands for _______.

A) Automatic repeat quantization
B) Automatic repeat request
C) Automatic retransmission request
D) Acknowledge repeat request
4. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are needed.
A) exactly 10
B) less than 10
C) more than 10
5. HDLC is an acronym for _______.

A) High-duplex line communication
B) High-level data link control
C) Half-duplex digital link combination
D) Host double-level circuit
6. Data link control deals with the design and procedures for ______ communication.
A) node-to-node
B) host-to-host
C) process-to-process
7. _______ in the data link layer separates a message from one source to a destination, or from other messages going from
other sources to other destinations.
A) Digitizing
B) Controlling
C) Framing
8. In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of frames.

A) fixed-size
B) variable-size
C) standard
9. In ________ framing, we need a delimiter (flag) to define the boundary of two frames.
A) fixed-size
B) variable-size
C) standard
10. _________framing uses two categories of protocols: character-oriented and bit-oriented.

A) Fixed-size
B) Variable-size
C) Standard
11. In a ________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of characters.

A) bit-oriented
B) character-oriented
12. In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits.

A) byte-oriented
B) bit-oriented
13. In _________ protocols, we use ________.

A) character-oriented; byte stuffing
B) character-oriented; bit stuffing
C) bit-oriented; character stuffing
14. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when there is a character with the same
pattern as the ______.
A) header
B) trailer
C) flag
15. In ________ protocols, we use ________.

A) byte-oriented; bit stuffing
B) character-oriented; bit stuffing
C) bit-oriented; bit stuffing
16. Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a sequence of bits with the same
pattern as the ________.
A) header
B) trailer
C) flag
17. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting
for acknowledgment.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) Transmission
18. ______ control refers to methods of error detection and correction.

A) Flow
B) Error
C) Transmission
19. The Simplest Protocol and the Stop-and-Wait Protocol are for ______ channels.
A) noisy
B) noiseless
20. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are for ______ channels.
A) noisy
B) noiseless
21. The ____ Protocol has neither flow nor error control.
A) Stop-and-Wait
B) Simplest
C) Go-Back-N ARQ
D) Selective-Repeat ARQ
22. The _______Protocol has flow control, but not error control.
A) Stop-and-Wait
B) Simplest
C) Go-Back-N ARQ
23. The _______Protocol has both flow control and error control.
A) Stop-and-Wait
B) Go-Back-N ARQ
C) Selective-Repeat ARQ
D) both (b) and (c)
24. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends its frames one after another with no regard to the receiver.
A) Stop-and-Wait
B) Simplest
C) Go-Back-N ARQ
25. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends one frame, stops until it receives confirmation from the receiver, and then sends
the next frame.
A) Stop-and-Wait
B) Simplest
C) Go-Back-N ARQ
26. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the _______Protocol.
A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
B) Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
C) Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ
27. In the _________Protocol, if no acknowledgment for a frame has arrived, we resend all outstanding frames.
A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ
B) Go-Back-N ARQ
28. In the _________ protocol we avoid unnecessary transmission by sending only frames that are corrupted.
A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ
B) Go-Back-N ARQ
29. Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________.

A) sliding frame
B) sliding window
C) sliding packet
30. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number,
then the maximum size of the send window must be _____
A) 15
B) 16
C) 31
D) 1
31. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the receive window
must be _____
A) 15
B) 16
C) 31
D) 1
32. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the send window
must be _____
A) 15
B) 16
C) 31
D) 1
33. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the receive
window must be _____
A) 15
B) 16
C) 31
D) 1
34. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a _______ protocol for communication over point-to-point and multipoint links.
A) bit-oriented
B) byte-oriented
C) character-oriented
35. The most common protocol for point-to-point access is the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), which is a _________protocol.
A) bit-oriented
B) byte-oriented
C) character-oriented
36. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting
for acknowledgment.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) Transmission
37. _________control in the data link layer is based on automatic repeat

request, which is the retransmission of data.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) Transmission
38. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, we use sequence numbers to number the frames. The sequence numbers are based on
__________arithmetic.
A) modulo-2
B) modulo-4
C) modulo-m
39. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number always announces in ______ arithmetic the sequence number of
the next frame expected.
A) modulo-2
B) modulo-4
C) modulo-m
40. In the Go-Back-N Protocol, if the size of the sequence number field is 8, the sequence numbers are in ________
arithmetic,
A) modulo-2
B) modulo- 8
C) modulo-256
41. Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a special case of Go-Back-N ARQ in which the size of the send window is 1.
A) 2
B) 1
C) 8
42. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary station and multiple secondary stations.
A) ABM
B) NRM
C) ARM
D) NBM
43. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and each station can function as a primary and a
secondary.
A) ABM
B) NRM
C) ARM
D) NBM
44. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining, configuring, and terminating links.
A) NCP
B) LCP
C) CHAP
D) PAP
45. In PPP, ________ is a simple authentication procedure with a two-step process:

A) NCP
B) LCP
C) CHAP
D) PAP
46. In PPP, _______ is a three-way hand-shaking authentication protocol in which the password is kept secret; it is never
sent online.
A) NCP
B) LCP
C) CHAP
D) PAP
1. In ________ each station sends a frame whenever it has a frame to send.

A) pure ALOHA
B) slotted ALOHA
C) both (a) and (b)
2. In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time.
A) the same as
B) two times
C) three times
3. The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent.

A) 12.2
B) 18.4
C) 36.8
4. In __________, each station is forced to send only at the beginning of the time slot.
A) pure ALOHA
B) slotted ALOHA
C) both (a) and (b)
5. In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time.
A) the same as
B) two times
C) three times
6. The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent.

A) 12.2
B) 18.4
C) 36.8
7. The vulnerable time for CSMA is the ________propagation time.

A) the same as
B) two times
C) three times
8. In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it sends its frame immediately. If the line is not idle, it
continuously senses the line until it finds it idle.
A) nonpersistent
B) 1-persistent
C) p-persistent
9. In the ________method, a station that has a frame to send senses the line. If the line is idle, it sends immediately. If the
line is not idle, it waits a random amount of time and then senses the line again.
A) nonpersistent
B) 1-persistent
C) p-persistent
10. In the _______method, after the station finds the line idle it sends or refrain from sending based on the outcome of a
random number generator. If the line is busy, it tries again.
A) nonpersistent
B) 1-persistent
C) p-persistent
11. We have categorized access methods into _______ groups.

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
12. In ___________ methods, no station is superior to another station and none is assigned the control over another.
A) random access
B) controlled access
C) channelization
13. In ______, the chance of collision can be reduced if a station senses the medium before trying to use it.
A) MA
B) CSMA
C) FDMA
D) CDMA
14. ________ requires that each station first listen to the medium before sending.
A) MA
B) CSMA
C) FDMA
D) CDMA
15. __________ augments the CSMA algorithm to detect collision.

A) CSMA/CA
B) CSMA/CD
D) both (a) and (b)
16. In ________, a station monitors the medium after it sends a frame to see if the transmission was successful. If so, the
station is finished. If, however, there is a collision, the frame is sent again.
A) CSMA/CA
B) CSMA/CD
D) both (a) and (b)
17. To avoid collisions on wireless networks, ________was invented.

A) CSMA/CA
B) CSMA/CD
D) both (a) and (b)
18. In _______, collisions are avoided through the use of three strategies: the interframe space, the contention window, and
acknowledgments.
A) CSMA/CA
B) CSMA/CD
D) both (a) and (b)
19. In _______ methods, the stations consult one another to find which station has the right to send.
A) random access
C) channelization
20. In _______ methods, a station cannot send unless it has been authorized by other stations.
A) random access
C) channelization
21. We discussed ______ popular controlled-access methods.

A) two
B) three
C) four
22. In the ________ method, a station needs to make a reservation before sending data. Time is divided into intervals.
A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
23. In the _____ method, time is divided into intervals. In each interval, a reservation frame precedes the data frames sent in
that interval.
A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
24. In the ______ method, all data exchanges must be made through the primary device even when the ultimate destination
is a secondary device.
A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
25. In the _______ method, the primary device controls the link; the secondary devices follow its instructions.
A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
26. In the _______ method, the stations in a network are organized in a logical ring.
A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
27. In the _______ method, each station has a predecessor and a successor.
A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
28. In the _________ method, a special packet called a ______ circulates through the ring.
A) reservation: control frame
B) polling: poll request
C) token passing: token
29. _________ is a multiple-access method in which the available bandwidth of a link is shared in time, frequency, or
through code, between different stations.
A) Random access
B) Controlled access
C) Channelization
30. We discussed ________ channelization protocols.

A) two
B) three
C) four
31. In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands.

A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
32. In ______, each station is allocated a band to send its data. In other words, each band is reserved for a specific station,
and it belongs to the station all the time.
A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
33. In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time.
A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
34. In _____, each station is allocated a time slot during which it can send data. Each station transmits its data in its
assigned time slot.
A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
35. In _____, each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot.
A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
36. In ______, the stations use different codes to achieve multiple access.
A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
37. _______ is based on coding theory and uses sequences of numbers called chips.
A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
38. In _______, the sequences are generated using orthogonal codes such the Walsh tables.
A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
1. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010
00001111?
A) 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0
B) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
C) 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F
D) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F
2. If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ address.

A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
D) any of the above
3. If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______ address.

A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
D) any of the above
4. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination?

A) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00
B) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32
C) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4
D) 48:32:21:21:4D:34
5. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination?

A) B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00
B) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32
C) 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4
D) 83:32:21:21:4D:34
6. _______ is the most widely used local area network protocol.

A) Token Ring
B) Token Bus
C) Ethernet
7. The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines _________ CSMA/CD as the access method for first-generation 10-Mbps Ethernet.
A) 1-persistent
B) p-persistent
C) non-persistent
8. The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer.
A) data link
B) physical
C) network
9. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access method and framing.
A) LLC
B) MII
C) MAC
10. Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address imprinted on its network interface card (NIC).
A) 5-byte
B) 32-bit
C) 48-bit
11. The minimum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is _______bytes.

A) 32
B) 80
C) 128
12. The maximum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is ________ bytes.
A) 1518
B) 1500
C) 1200
13. _________ uses thick coaxial cable.

A) 10Base5
B) 10Base2
C) 10Base-T
D) 10Base-F
14. __________ uses thin coaxial cable.

A) 10Base5
B) 10Base2
C) 10Base-T
D) 10Base-F
15. _________ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect each station to a common hub.
A) 10Base5
B) 10Base2
C) 10Base-T
D) 10Base-F
16. ________ uses fiber-optic cable.
A) 10Base5
B) 10Base2
C) 10Base-T
D) 10Base-F
17. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.

A) 10
B) 100
C) 1000
D) 10,000
18. In _________, autonegotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or data rate of operation.
A) Standard
B) Fast Ethernet
C) Gigabit Ethernet
D) Ten-Gigabit Ethernet
19. __________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair cable.

A) 100Base-TX
B) 100Base-FX
C) 100Base-T4
20. _________ uses two fiber-optic cables.

A) 100Base-TX
B) 100Base-FX
C) 100Base-T4
21. _________ uses four pairs of voice-grade, or higher, twisted-pair cable.

A) 100Base-TX
B) 100Base-FX
C) 100Base-T4
22. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.

A) 10
B) 100
C) 1000
D) 10,000
23. Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______ mode.

A) half-duplex
B) full-duplex
C) both (a) and (b)
24. __________ uses two optical fibers and a short-wave laser source,
A) 1000Base-SX
B) 1000Base-LX
C) 1000Base-T
25. __________uses two optical fibers and a long-wave laser source.

A) 1000Base-SX
B) 1000Base-LX
C) 1000Base-T
26. __________ uses four twisted pairs.

A) 1000Base-SX
B) 1000Base-LX
C) 1000Base-T
27. ________ uses short-wave 850-nm multimode fiber.

A) 10GBase-S
B) 10GBase-L
C) 10GBase-E
28. ________uses long-wave 1310-nm single mode fiber.

A) 10GBase-S
B) 10GBase-L
C) 10GBase-E
29. ________ uses 1550-mm single mode fiber.

A) 10GBase-S
B) 10GBase-L
C) 10GBase-E
30. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the address is _________.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
31. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the address is _________.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
32. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is _________.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
33. ______defines a protocol data unit (PDU) that is somewhat similar to that of HDLC.
A) MAC
B) LLC
C) LLU
34. The purpose of the _______ is to provide flow and error control for the upper-layer protocols that actually demand these
services
A) MAC
B) LLC
C) LLU
35. In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at the physical layer and is not (formally) part of the frame.
A) CRC
B) preamble
C) address
36. In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error detection information.
A) CRC
B) preamble
C) address
37. Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses _______ encoding

A) NRZ
B) AMI
C) Manchester
D) differential Manchester
38. 100Base-TX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding.
A) 4B/5B; NRZ
B) 8B/10B; NRZ
C) 4B/5B; MLT-3
D) 8B/10B; NRZ
39. 100Base-FX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding.
A) 4B/5B; NRZ-I
B) 8B/10B; NRZ
C) 4B/5B; MLT-3
D) 8B/10B; NRZ
40. 100Base-T4 uses ________ line coding.

A) NRZ
B) 8B6T
C) MLT-3
D) Manchester
41. 1000Base-SX, 1000Base-LX, and 1000Base-CX use _________ block coding and ________ line coding.
A) 4B/5B; NRZ
B) 8B/10B; NRZ
C) 4B/5B; MLT-3
D) 8B/10B; NRZ
42. 1000Base-T uses ________ line coding.

A) 4D-PAM5
B) 8B6T
C) MLT-3
D) Manchester1
1. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which covers the physical and data link layers.
A) IEEE 802.3
B) IEEE 802.5
C) IEEE 802.11
D) IEEE 802.2
2. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional central base station, known as the
access point (AP).
A) ESS
B) BSS
C) CSS
3. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called an _________.
A) an ad hoc architecture
B) an infrastructure network
4. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as ____________.

A) an ad hoc architecture
B) an infrastructure network
5. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually occurs via two ________.
A) BSSs
B) ESSs
C) APs
6. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not moving) or moving only inside a BSS.
A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition
C) ESS-transition
7. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS to another, but the movement is confined inside
one ESS.
A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition
C) ESS-transition
8. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS to another.
A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition
C) ESS-transition
9. In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional access method that can be implemented in an infrastructure network (not in an ad
hoc network).
A) DCF
B) PCF
10. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another without passing through the distribution
system, the address flag is _____
A) 00
B) 01
C) 10
D) 11
11. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station, the address flag is _______.
A) 00
B) 01
C) 10
D) 11
12. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address flag is _____.
A) 00
B) 01
C) 10
D) 11
13. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a wireless distribution system, the address flag is
_____
A) 00
B) 01
C) 10
D) 11
14. The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines two services: ______ and _______.
A) BSS; ASS
B) ESS; SSS
C) BSS; ESS
D) BSS; DCF
15. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the DCF sublayer is _________.
A) ALOHA
B) CSMA/CA
C) CSMA/CD
16. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______.
A) contention
B) controlled
C) polling
17. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer used for collision avoidance.
A) NAV
B) BSS
C) ESS
18. In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame has ______ fields.
A) four
B) five
C) six
19. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to ______addresses.

A) four
B) five
C) six
20. The original IEEE 802.11, uses _________.

A) FHSS
B) DSSS
C) OFDM
D) either (a) or (b)
21. The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________.

A) FHSS
B) DSSS
C) OFDM
22. The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________.

A) FHSS
B) DSSS
C) OFDM
23. The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________.

A) FHSS
B) DSSS
C) OFDM
24. The original IEEE 802.11, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

A) 1
B) 6
C) 11
D) 22
25. IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 6
26. IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 5.5
27. IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 11
D) 22
28. The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ________ types of frames.
A) four
B) five
C) six
29. Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called gadgets) in a small area.
A) wired LAN
B) wireless LAN
C) VLAN
30. A Bluetooth network is called a ________.

A) piconet
B) scatternet
C) bluenet
31. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________.

A) scatternet; piconets
B) piconets: scatternet
C) piconets: bluenet
D) bluenet; scatternet
32. A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____ secondary devices.
A) one; five
B) five; three
C) two; six
D) one; seven
33. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden station problem. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA
____ solve the exposed station problem.
A) can; cannot
B) cannot; can
C) can; can
D) cannot; cannot
34. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps

A) 2
B) 5
C) 11
35. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the physical layer of the Internet model.
A) radio
B) baseband
C) L2CAP
36. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer in LANs.
A) radio
B) baseband
C) L2CAP
37. In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is roughly equivalent to the LLC sublayer in LANs.
A) radio
B) baseband
C) L2CAP
38. The access method in Bluetooth is ________.

A) FDMA
B) TDD-TDMA
C) CDMA
39. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when avoiding latency (delay in data delivery) is more important than integrity (error-
free delivery).
A) SCO
B) ACL
C) ACO
D) SCL
40. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more important than avoiding latency.
A) SCO
B) ACL
C) ACO
D) SCL
41. Bluetooth uses ______method in the physical layer to avoid interference from other devices or other networks.
A) DSSS
B) FHSS
C) FDMA
1. A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer of the Internet model.
A) physical
B) data link
C) network
D) all of the above
2. A _______ regenerates a signal, connects segments of a LAN, and has no filtering capability.
A) repeater
B) bridge
C) router
3. A _______ is a connecting device that operates in the physical and data link layers of the Internet model.
A) repeater
B) bridge
C) router
4. A ________ bridge can forward and filter frames and automatically build its forwarding table.
A) simple
B) dual
C) transparent
5. A bridge can use the _________ algorithm to create a loopless topology.

A) binary tree
B) spanning tree
C) multiway tree
6. A _______ LAN allows several LANs to be connected.

A) backbone
B) wireless
C) wired
7. A backbone is usually a ______.

A) bus
B) star
8. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is configured by _________.

A) software
B) physical wiring
C) hardware
9. Membership in a VLAN can be based on _________.

A) port numbers
B) MAC addresses
C) IP addresses
D) all of the above
10. VLANs can_________.

A) reduce network traffic
B) provide an extra measure of security
D) both (a) and (b)
11. _________ is just a connector.

A) An active hub
B) A passive hub
12. In a star-topology Ethernet LAN, _______ is just a point where the signals coming from different stations collide; it is the
collision point.
A) An active hub
B) A passive hub
13. ________ is part of the media; its location in the Internet model is below the physical layer.
A) An active hub
B) A passive hub
14. A _______ is a device that operates only in the physical layer.

A) passive hub
B) repeater
C) bridge
D) router
15. A ________receives a signal and, before it becomes too weak or corrupted, regenerates the original bit pattern. It then
sends the refreshed signal.
A) passive hub
B) repeater
C) bridge
D) router
16. A __________ forwards every frame; it has no filtering capability.

A) passive hub
B) repeater
C) bridge
D) router
17. ________ is actually a multiport repeater. It is normally used to create connections between stations in a physical star
topology.
A) An active hub
B) A passive hub
18. A ________ operates in both the physical and the data link layer.
A) passive hub
B) repeater
C) bridge
D) router
19. A _______ can check the MAC addresses contained in the frame.
A) passive hub
B) repeater
C) bridge
D) router
20. A ______ has a table used in filtering decisions.

A) passive hub
B) repeater
C) bridge
21. A ________ is a device in which the stations are completely unaware of its existence.
A) passive hub
B) repeater
C) simple bridge
D) transparent bridge
22. IEEE 802.1d specification, defines _________ criteria for a transparent bridges.
A) two
B) three
C) four
23. A spanning tree is a graph in which there is no _____.

A) node
B) branch
C) loop
D) arc
24. In a bridged LAN, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each LAN can be reached from any other LAN
through one path only.
A) spanning tree
B) binary tree
C) unary tree
25. A three-layer switch is a kind of ________.

A) repeater
B) bridge
C) router
26. A two-layer switch is a ______.

A) repeater
B) bridge
C) router
27. Some new two-layer switches, called _______ switches, have been designed to forward the frame as soon as they
check the MAC addresses in the header of the frame.
A) cut-through
B) go-through
C) come-through
28 A _______ is a three-layer device that handles packets based on their logical addresses.
A) repeater
B) bridge
C) router
29. A ______ normally connects LANs and WANs in the Internet and has a table that is used for making decisions about the
route.
A) repeater
B) bridge
C) router
30. A ______ switch is a faster and more sophisticated router.

A) two-layer
B) three-layer
C) four-layer
31. A ________ is normally a computer that operates in all five layers of the Internet model or seven layers of OSI model.
A) repeater
B) bridge
C) router
D) gateway
32. A _____ can be used as a connecting device between two internetworks that use different models.
A) repeater
B) bridge
C) router
D) gateway
33. In a _____ backbone, the backbone is just one switch.

A) bus
B) ring
C) star
34. A ________ link acts as a LAN in a remote backbone connected by remote bridges.
A) point-to-point
B) multipoint
C) multidrop
35. VLANs create _________ domains.

A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
36. In a(n) _______ configuration, the administrator types the port numbers, the IP addresses, or other characteristics, using
the VLAN software.
A) manual
B) automatic
C) semiautomatic
37. In a(n) _____ configuration, the stations are automatically connected or disconnected from a VLAN using criteria defined
by the administrator.
A) manual
B) automatic
C) semiautomatic
38. In a(n) ______ configuration, the initializing is done manually, with migrations done automatically.
A) manual
B) automatic
C) semiautomatic
1. _______ is a first-generation cellular phone system.

A) AMPS
B) D-AMPS
C) GSM
2. __________ is a second-generation cellular phone system.

A) AMPS
B) D-AMPS
C) GSM

3. ____________ is a digital version of AMPS.
A) GSM
B) D-AMPS
C) IS-95
4. ___________ is a second-generation cellular phone system used in Europe.

A) GSM
B) D-AMPS
C) IS-95
5. ________ is a second-generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and DSSS.

A) GSM
B) D-AMPS
C) IS-95
6. The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal communication.
A) first-generation
B) second-generation
C) third-generation
7. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base station.
A) hard
B) soft
C) medium
8. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base stations at the same time.
A) hard
B) soft
C) medium
9. _______ is an analog cellular phone system using FDMA.

A) AMPS
B) D-AMPS
C) GSM
10. AMPS operates in the ISM _____ band.

A) 800-MHz
B) 900-MHz
C) 1800-MHz
11. In AMPS, each band is divided into ______ channels.

A) 800
B) 900
C) 1000
12. AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of _______.

A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
13. AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.
A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
14. D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.
A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
D) both (a) and (b)
15. GSM allows a reuse factor of _______.

A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
16. GSM is a digital cellular phone system using ________.

A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
D) both (a) and (b)
17. IS-95 is based on ____________.

A) FDMA
B) CDMA
C) DSSS
D) all of the above
18. IS-95 uses the ISM _______band.

A) 800-MHz
B) 900-MHz
C) 1900-MHz
D) either (a) or (c)
19. IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system for synchronization.

A) GPS
B) Teledesic
C) Iridium
20. In an IS-95 system, the frequency-reuse factor is normally _____.

A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
21. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses W-CDMA.

A) IMT-DS
B) IMT-MC
C) IMT-TC
D) IMT-SC
22. In the third generation of cellular phones, ________ uses CDMA2000.

A) IMT-DS
B) IMT-MC
C) IMT-TC
D) IMT-SC
23. In the third generation of cellular phones, ______ uses a combination of W-CDMA and TDMA.
A) IMT-DS
B) IMT-MC
C) IMT-TC
D) IMT-SC
24. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses TDMA.

A) IMT-DS
B) IMT-MC
C) IMT-TC
D) IMT-SC
25. The period of a satellite, the time required for a satellite to make a complete trip around the Earth, is determined by
_________ law.
A) Kepler's
B) Newton's
C) Ohm's
26. The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a specific area called the _________.
A) path
B) effect
C) footprint
27. There is (are) _____ orbit(s) for a GEO satellite.

A) one
B) two
C) many
28. MEO satellites are located at altitudes between km.

A) 3000 and 5000
B) 5000 and 10,000
C) 5000 and 15,000
29. LEO satellites are normally below an altitude of ________ km.

A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 3000
30. ______ is based on a principle called trilateration.

A) GPS
B) Teledesic
C) Iridium
31. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO) satellites have _____ orbits.

A) equatorial
B) polar
C) inclined
32. A GEO is at the ________ orbit and revolves in phase with Earth.
A) equatorial
B) polar
C) inclined
33. GPS satellites are ________ satellites.

A) GEO
B) MEO
C) LEO
34. ________ satellites provide time and location information for vehicles and ships.
A) GPS
B) Iridium
C) Teledesic
35. Iridium satellites are ________satellites.

A) GEO
B) MEO
C) LEO
36. ________ satellites can provide direct universal voice and data communications for handheld terminals.
A) GPS
B) Iridium
C) Teledesic
37. Teledesic satellites are _________satellites.

A) GEO
B) MEO
C) LEO
38. ________ satellites will provide universal broadband Internet access.

A) GPS
B) Iridium
C) Teledesic
1. _______ is a standard developed by ANSI for fiber-optic networks.

A) SONET
B) SDH

2. _______ is a standard developed by ITU-T.
A) SONET
B) SDH
3. SONET has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________.

A) STSs
B) STMs
4. SDH has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________.

A) STSs
B) STMs
5. An ______ signal is the optical modulation of an STS-n (or STM-n) signal.

A) OC-n
B) TDM-n
C) FDM-n
6. SONET defines _______ layers.

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
7. SONET is a _______ TDM system.

A) asynchronous
B) synchronous
C) statistical
8. A SONET system can use _________.

A) STS multiplexers
B) regenerators
C) add/drop multiplexers
D) all of the above
9. SONET sends ________ frames per second

A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 4000
D) 8000
10. In SONET each frame lasts _______ microseconds.

A) 20
B) 64
C) 128
11. An STS-1 frame is made of ________ rows

A) 1
B) 9
C) 90
12. An STS-1 frame is made ______columns

A) 1
B) 9
C) 90
13. An STS-3 frame is made of ______ rows.

A) 1
B) 9
C) 27
14. An STS-3 frame is made of ________ columns.

A) 9
B) 90
C) 270
15. SONET network topologies can be __________.

A) linear
B) ring
C) mesh
D) all of the above
16. A linear SONET network can be __________.

A) point-to-point
B) multipoint
17. A ring SONET network can be _________.

A) unidirectional
B) bidirectional.
18. To make SONET backward-compatible with the current hierarchy, its frame design includes a system of.
A) OCs
B) STMs
C) STSs
D) VTs
19. A ________ is a repeater.

A) regenerator
B) ADM
C) STS multiplexer/demultiplexer
20. __________ allow insertion and extraction of signals.

A) regenerators
B) ADMs
C) STS multiplexer/demultiplexers
21. A _______ is the optical link connecting two neighbor devices.

A) section
B) line
C) path
22. A ______ is the portion of the network between two multiplexers.

A) section
B) line
C) path
23. A ______is the end-to-end portion of the network between two STS multiplexers.
A) section
B) line
C) path
24. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal from its optical source to its optical destination.
A) section
B) line
C) path
D) photonic
25. The ____ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a physical line.
A) section
B) line
C) path
D) photonic
26. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a physical section.
A) section
B) line
C) path
D) photonic
27. The _______ layer corresponds to the physical layer of the OSI model.
A) section
B) line
C) path
D) photonic
28. An STS multiplexer is a ______ device.

A) one-layer
B) two-layer
C) three-layer
D) four-layer
29. An add/drop multiplexer is a ______ device.

A) one-layer
B) two-layer
C) three-layer
D) four-layer
30. A regenerator is a ________ device.

A) one-layer
B) two-layer
C) three-layer
D) four-layer
31. In SONET, for each frame, the bytes are transmitted __________.
A) from left to the right, top to bottom
B) from right to the left, bottom to top
C) from left to the right, bottom to top
D) from right to the left, top to bottom
32. In SONET, for each byte, the bits are transmitted ____________.
A) from least significant to the most significant
B) from most significant to the least significant
C) two at a time
D) three at a time
33. Each ________in a SONET frame can carry a digitized voice channel.
A) bit
B) byte
C) frame
34. The section overhead consists of ______octets.

A) 1
B) 6
C) 9
D) 18
35. Line overhead consists of ________ bytes.

A) 1
B) 6
C) 9
D) 18
36. The path overhead consists of ______ bytes.

A) 1
B) 6
C) 9
D) 18
37. In ________ APS, there are normally two lines: one working line and one protection line. Both lines are active all the
time.
A) one-plus-one
B) one-to-one
C) one-to-many
38. In ______ APS, there is one working line and one protection line. The data are normally sent on the working line until it
fails.
A) one-plus-one
B) one-to-one
C) one-to-many
39. In ________APS, there is only one protection line for many working lines. When a failure occurs in one of the working
lines, the protection line takes control until the failed line is repaired.
A) one-plus-one
B) one-to-one
C) one-to-many
1. ________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area network that was designed in response to demands for a new type of WAN in the
late 1980s and early 1990s.
A) X.25
B) Frame Relay
C) ATM
2. Frame Relay provides ________.

A) PVCs
B) SVCs
3. VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______.

A) PVC
B) SVC
C) DLCIs
4. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding table entry is recorded for all switches by the administrator
A) PVC
B) SVC
5. In Frame Relay, when. ______ is selected, it requires establishing and terminating phases
A) a PVC
B) an SVC
6. Frame Relay has _______.

A) only the physical layer
B) only the data link
C) the physical and data link layers
D) the physical, data link, and network layers
7. At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol that supports _____control.
A) flow
B) error
8. In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes.

A) only 2
B) 2 to 3
C) 2 to 4
9. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes; it is _____ in the last byte of the address.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
10. To handle frames arriving from other protocols, Frame Relay uses a device called a _________.
A) VOFR
B) FRAD
C) MUX
11. Frame Relay networks offer an option called ______________ that sends voice through the network.
A) VOFR
B) FRAD
C) MUX
12. ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the corresponding Forum and adopted by the ITU-T.
A) X.25
B) Frame Relay
C) ATM
13. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of information.

A) frame
B) packet
C) cell
14. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by _________.

A) VPI
B) VCI
C) DLCI
D) a combination of (a) and (b)
15. The ATM standard defines ______ layers.

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
16. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in length.

A) 8
B) 12
C) 16
D) 24
17. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length.

A) 8
B) 12
C) 16
D) 24
18. The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ bytes.

A) 40
B) 50
C) 52
D) 53
19. ______ eliminates the varying delay times associated with different-size packets.
A) X.25
B) Frame Relay
C) ATM
D) all of the above
20. A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch.
A) UNI
B) NNI
C) NNN
21. _________ is the interface between two ATM switches.

A) UNI
B) NNI
C) NNN
22. In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished through _______.

A) TPs
B) VPs
C) VCs
D) all of the above
23. In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer services and maps them into ATM cells.
A) physical
B) ATM
C) AAL
24. In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic management, switching, and multiplexing services.
A) physical
B) ATM
C) AAL
25. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission medium, bit transmission, encoding, and electrical-to-optical
transformation.
A) physical
B) ATM layer
C) AAL
26. The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers.

A) two
B) three
C) four
27. In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit-rate data.

A) AAL1
B) AAL2
C) AAL3/4
D) AAL5
28. In ATM, _______is for short packets.

A) AAL1
B) AAL2
C) AAL3/4
D) AAL5
29. In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching (virtual-circuit approach or datagram approach).
A) AAL1
B) AAL2
C) AAL3/4
D) AAL5
30. In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no sequencing and no error control mechanism.
A) AAL1
B) AAL2
C) AAL3/4
D) AAL5
31. ________ technology can be adapted for use in a LAN (ATM LAN).
A) X.25
B) Frame Relay
C) ATM
32. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects stations.

A) pure
B) legacy
C) mixed architecture
33. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects traditional LANs uses ATM technology.
A) pure
B) legacy
34. A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure ATM LAN and a legacy ATM LAN.
A) pure
B) legacy
1. An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits.

A) 4
B) 8
C) 32
D) 64
2. In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each block.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
3. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 4.5.6.7.

A) A
B) B
C) C

A) A
B) B
C) D
A) A
B) B
C) C
6. What is the result of ANDing 255 and 15?

A) 255
B) 15
C) 0

A) 255
B) 15
C) 0

A) 254
B) 14
C) 0

A) 192
B) 65
C) 64
10. Which one is not a contiguous mask?

A) 255.255.255.254
B) 255.255.224.0
C) 255.148.0.0
D) all are
11. The number of addresses in a class C block is _______.

A) 65,534
B) 16,777,216
C) 256
12. The number of addresses in a class B block is _______.

A) 65,536
B) 16,777,216
C) 256
13. The number of addresses in a class A block is _______.

A) 65,534
B) 16,777,216
C) 256
14. The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______.

A) can be any number
B) must be a multiple of 256
C) must be a power of 2
15. The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______.

A) must be a power of 4
B) must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses
C) must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes
16. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless addresses?
A) 2.4.6.5
B) 2.4.6.16
C) 2.4.6.64
A) 2.4.6.5
B) 2.4.6.15
C) 2.4.6.62
A) 2.4.6.5
B) 2.4.6.15
C) 2.4.6.0
19. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/27?
A) 12.2.2.0
B) 12.2.2.32
C) 12.2.2.64
A) 12.0.0.0
B) 12.2.0.0
C) 12.2.2.2
A) 12.2.2.0
B) 12.2.2.96
C) 12.2.2.112
22. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/24.
A) 32
B) 64
C) 256
23. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/30.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
24. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28?
A) 12.2.2.16
B) 12.2.2.112
C) 12.2.2.127
25. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.6/30?
A) 12.2.2.2
B) 12.2.2.6
C) 12.2.2.7
26. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/20. The organization needs 10 subnets. What is the subnet
prefix length?
A) /20
B) /24
C) /25
27. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/25. If the subnet prefix length is /28, what is the maximum
number of subnets?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
28. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.64/28. How many
addresses are granted?
A) 8
B) 16
C) 32
A) 8
B) 16
C) 32
A) 8
B) 16
C) 32
31. What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation?

A) /9
B) /8
C) /16
32. What is the default mask for class B in CIDR notation?

A) /9
B) /8
C) /16
33. What is the default mask for class C in CIDR notation?

A) /24
B) /8
C) /16
34. In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the common part of the address range.
A) suffix
B) prefix
C) netid
35. In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying part (similar to the hostid).
A) suffix
B) prefix
C) hostid
36. In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the _____________.

A) netid
B) hostid
C) mask
37. In a block, the prefix length is /24; what is the mask?
A) 255.255.255.0
B) 255.255.242.0
C) 255.255.0.0
38. In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask?

A) 255.254.0.0
B) 255.255.255.0
C) 255.255.255.128
39. In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the prefix length?

A) /20
B) /28
C) /18
40. An IPv6 address is _________ bits long.

A) 32
B) 64
C) 128
41. An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets);

A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
42. To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies ____________notation.

A) dotted decimal
B) hexadecimal colon
C) both a and b
43. In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is divided into _______ sections, each _____ hexadecimal digits in
length.
A) 8: 2
B) 8: 3
C) 8: 4
44. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons.

A) 8
B) 7
C) 4
45. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal digits.

A) 16
B) 32
C) 8
46. In IPv6, _______ address defines a single computer.

A) a unicast
B) a multicast
C) an anycast
47. In IPv6, ____ address defines a group of computers with addresses that have the same prefix.
A) a unicast
B) a multicast
C) an anycast
48. In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of computers.
A) a unicast
B) a multicast
C) an anycast
49. In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines the purpose of the address.
A) type
B) purpose
C) both a and b
50. In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal host as a unicast address.
A) provider-based unicast
B) link local
C) site local
51. In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of zero, followed by 16 bits of one, followed by the 32-bit IPv4 address.
A) link local
B) site local
C) mapped
52. In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96 bits of zero followed by 32 bits of IPv4 address.
A) link local
B) site local
C) mapped
53. In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a LAN uses the Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security
reasons.
A) link local
B) site local
C) mapped
54. In IPv6, a ______address is used if a site with several networks uses the Internet protocols but is not connected to the
Internet for security reasons.
A) link local
B) site local
C) mapped
1. A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes _______.

A) error checking
B) error correction
C) datagram acknowledgment
2. In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.

A) there are 10 bytes of options
B) there are 40 bytes of options
C) there are 10 bytes in the header
D) there are 40 bytes in the header
3. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the data field is 400 bytes?
A) 428
B) 407
C) 107
D) 427
4. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value of 12 and total length value of 40,000?
A) 39,988
B) 40,012
C) 40,048
D) 39,952
5. An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of the following is true?
A) The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three datagrams.
B) The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three datagrams.
C) The identification field is the same for all three datagrams.
D) The offset field is the same for all three datagrams.
6. In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______.
A) the datagram has not been fragmented
B) the datagram is 100 bytes in size
C) the first byte of the datagram is byte 100
D) the first byte of the datagram is byte 800
7. In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment?
A) Identification number
B) Offset number
C) Total length
D) (b) and (c)
8. The IPv4 header size _______.

A) is 20 to 60 bytes long
B) is always 20 bytes long
C) is always 60 bytes long
D) depends on the MTU
9. Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram?

A) Base header
B) Extension header
C) Data packet from the upper layer
D) (a) and (c)
10. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a datagram.
A) version
B) next-header
C) hop limit
D) neighbor-advertisement
11. The ________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the TCP/IP suite.
A) ARP
B) IP
C) RARP
12. IP is _________ datagram protocol.

A) an unreliable
B) a connectionless
C) both a and b
13. The term ________ means that IP provides no error checking or tracking. IP assumes the unreliability of the underlying
layers and does its best to get a transmission through to its destination, but with no guarantees.
A) reliable delivery
B) connection-oriented delivery
C) best-effort delivery
14. In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.

A) there are 10 bytes of options
B) there are 40 bytes of options
C) there are 40 bytes in the header
15. In IPv4, which field or bit value unambiguously identifies the datagram as a fragment?
A) Do not fragment bit ? 0
B) More Fragment bit ? 0
C) Fragment offset = 1000
16. The IPv4 header size _______.

A) is 20 to 60 bytes long
B) is 20 bytes long
C) is 60 bytes long
17. In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the datagram must be less than the _______.
A) MUT
B) MAT
C) MTU
18. The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service type field is now called the _______ field.
A) IETF
B) checksum
C) differentiated services
19. In IPv6, options are inserted between the _________ and the ___________ data.
A) base header; extension header
B) base header; upper-layer data
C) base header; frame header
20. IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4.

A) more
B) less
C) the same level
21. In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be discarded in a congested network, the decision is based on the _______ field in
the base header.
A) hop limit
B) priority
C) next header
22. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header and the sender IP address combine to indicate a unique path identifier for
a specific flow of data.
A) flow label
B) next header
C) hop limit
D) destination IP address
1. A _______ address is an internetwork address with universal jurisdiction.

A) physical
B) logical
C) a and b
2. The logical addresses in the Internet are called _______ addresses.

A) port
B) IP
C) Email
3. A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network.
A) physical
B) logical
C) a and b
4. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same network, the logical address that must be
mapped to a physical address is ______.
A) the destination IP address in the datagram header
B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table
C) either a or b
5. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be
mapped to a physical address is ______.
C) either a or b
6. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on another network. The logical address that
must be mapped to a physical address is ______.
C) either a or b
7. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on the same network. The logical address that
must be mapped to a physical address is ______.
C) either a or b
8. In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical address is updated manually.
A) static mapping
B) dynamic mapping
C) physical mapping
9. _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is found for a given logical address.
A) ARP
B) RARP
C) both a and b
10. The target hardware address on an Ethernet is _______ in an ARP request.

A) 0x000000000000
B) 0.0.0.0
C) variable
D) class dependent
11. An ARP reply is normally _______.

A) broadcast
B) multicast
C) unicast
12. An ARP request is normally _______.

A) broadcast
B) multicast
C) unicast
13. A technique called ______ is used to create a subnetting effect.

A) ARP
B) RARP
C) proxy ARP
14. A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts.

A) ARP
B) RARP
C) proxy ARP
15. ICMP is a _________ layer protocol.

A) data link
B) transport
C) network
16. ICMP messages are divided into two broad categories: _____________.
A) query and error reporting messages
B) request and response messages
C) request and reply messages
17. An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable-size data section.
A) a 16-byte
B) a 32-byte
C) an 8-byte
18. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?

A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message.
B) An ICMP error message may be generated for each fragment.
C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram.
D) none is true
19. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?

A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message.
B) An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first fragment.
C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram.
D) none is true
20. IGMP is a companion to the ______ protocol.

A) UDP
B) TCP
C) ICM
21. IGMP is _______ protocol.

A) an error reporting
B) a group management
C) a transmission
22. IGMP helps a ________ router create and update a list of loyal members related to each router interface.
A) broadcast
B) unicast
C) multicast
23. IGMP operates __________.

A) locally
B) globally
C) both a and b
24. An IGMP query is sent from a _______ to a _______.

A) host; host
B) host; router
C) router; host or router
25. The _______ is used by a router in response to a received leave report.

A) general query message
B) special query message
C) membership report
26. The least significant 23 bits in a 48-bit Ethernet address identify a ________.
A) multicast router
B) host
C) multicast group
27. The _______ field of the IGMP message is all zeros in a query message.
A) version
B) type
C) group address
28. A multicast message is sent from _______ to _______.

A) one source; one destination
B) one source; multiple destinations
C) multiple sources; one destination
29. In networks that do not support physical multicast addressing, multicasting can be accomplished through _______.
A) mapping
B) queries
C) tunneling
30. If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, a total of _______ sent in response to a general query message.
A) one membership report is
B) two membership reports are
C) three membership reports are
31. In IGMP, a membership report is sent _______.

A) once
B) twice
C) three times
32. In IGMP, the general query message ___________________ group.

A) does not define a particular
B) explicitly defines a
C) can define more than one
33. An IGMP packet is carried in an __________ packet.

A) UDP
B) IP
C) Ethernet frame
34. The IP packet that carries an IGMP packet has a value of _______ in its protocol field.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1

1. In _______ delivery, both the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on the same network.
A) a connectionless
B) a direct
C) an indirect
2. In _______ delivery, the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on different networks.
A) a connection-oriented
B) a direct
C) an indirect
3. In _______ forwarding, the full IP address of a destination is given in the routing table.
A) next-hop
B) network-specific
C) host-specific
D) default
4. In _______ forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table.
A) next-hop
B) network-specific
C) host-specific
D) default
5. In _______ forwarding, the destination address is a network address in the routing table.
A) next-hop
B) network-specific
C) host-specific
D) default
6. In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information.
A) next-hop
B) network-specific
C) host-specific
D) default
7. The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table entries when using ________.
A) classful addressing
B) classless addressing
C) both a and b
8. The principle of ________ states that the routing table is sorted from the longest mask to the shortest mask.
A) first mask matching
B) shortest mask matching
C) longest mask matching
9. The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the routing tables.
A) reduce
B) increase
C) both a and b
10. _______ deals with the issues of creating and maintaining routing tables.
A) Forwarding
B) Routing
C) Directing
11. A _______ routing table contains information entered manually.

A) static
B) dynamic
C) hierarchical
12. A _______ routing table is updated periodically using one of the dynamic routing protocols.
A) static
B) dynamic
C) hierarchical
13. The input and output ports of a router perform the ________ layer functions of the router.
A) physical and data link
B) network
C) transport
14. The routing processor of a router performs the ________ layer functions of the router.
A) physical and data link
B) network
C) transport
15. The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the output queue in a router is done by _________.
A) input and output ports
B) routing processor
C) switching fabrics
16. A static table is one _______.

A) with manual entries
B) which is updated automatically
C) either a or b
17. A dynamic table is one _______.

A) with manual entries
B) which is updated automatically
C) either a or b
18. For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into ___________.

A) wide area networks
B) autonomous networks
C) autonomous systems
19. ____________ is a group of networks and routers under the authority of a single administration.
A) An autonomous system
B) An area
C) a and b
20. Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as _______________.

A) interdomain routing
B) intradomain routing
C) both a and b
21. Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ____________.

A) interdomain routing
B) intradomain routing
C) both a and b
22. In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the route with the minimum distance.
A) path vector
B) distance vector
C) link state
23. In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every node.
A) path vector
B) distance vector
C) link state
24. In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with _________ and whenever there is a
change.
A) every other node
B) its immediate neighbors
C) one neighbor
25. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________ routing.
A) distance vector
B) link state
C) path vector
26. The metric used by _______ is the hop count.

A) OSPF
B) RIP
C) BGP
27. The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table.
A) distance vector
B) link state
C) path vector
28. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing protocol based on _______ routing.
A) distance vector
B) link state
C) path vector
29. The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the metric, to each route.
A) OSPF
B) RIP
C) BGP
30. In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host or router in between.
A) point-to-point
B) transient
C) stub
31. In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to it.
A) point-to-point
B) transient
C) stub
32. In OSPF, a ________ link is a network is connected to only one router.

A) point-to-point
B) transient
C) stub
33. In OSPF, when the link between two routers is broken, the administration may create a _________ link between them
using a longer path that probably goes through several routers.
A) point-to-point
B) transient
C) stub
34. In ________ routing, we assume that there is one node (or more) in each autonomous system that acts on behalf of the
entire autonomous system.
A) distant vector
B) path vector
C) link state
35. ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing.

A) BGP
B) RIP
C) OSPF
36. To create a neighborhood relationship, a router running BGP sends an ________ message.
A) open
B) update
C) keepalive
37. An area is _______.

A) part of an AS
B) composed of at least two ASs
C) another term for an AS
38. A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a network is classified as a _______ communication.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
39. A one-to-many communication between one source and a specific group of hosts is classified as a _______
communication.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
40. A one-to-one communication between one source and one destination is classified as a _______ communication.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
41. In ______, the router forwards the received packet through only one of its interfaces.
A) unicasting
B) multicasting
C) broadcasting
42. In _______, the router may forward the received packet through several of its interfaces.
A) unicasting
B) multicasting
C) broadcasting
43. Emulation of ________ through ___________ is not efficient and may create long delays.
A) unicasting; multiple unicasting
B) multicasting; multiple unicasting
C) broadcasting; multicasting
44. In unicast routing, each router in the domain has a table that defines a ______ path tree to possible destinations.
A) average
B) longest
C) shortest
45. In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a ________ path tree for each group.
A) average
B) longest
C) shortest
46. In the _______ tree approach, each router needs to have one shortest path tree for each group.
A) group-shared
B) source-based
C) a or b
47. In the group-shared tree approach, _________ involved in multicasting.

A) only the core router is
B) all routers are
C) only some routers are
48. Multicast link state routing uses the _______ tree approach.
A) source-based
B) group-shared
C) a or b
49. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) protocol is an extension of the OSPF protocol that uses multicast
routing to create source-based trees. The protocol is based on _______ routing.
A) distance vector
B) link state
C) path vector
50. MOSPF is a _______ protocol.

A) data-driven
B) command-driven
C) both a and b
51. _________ broadcasts packets, but creates loops in the systems.

A) Forwarding
B) Flooding
C) Backwarding
52. In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has traveled the _______ path from the source to the router.
A) shortest
B) longest
C) average
53. RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process.

A) forwarding
B) backwarding
C) flooding
54. RPF guarantees that each network receives only ____ of the multicast packet.
A) one copy
B) two copies
C) a or b
55. RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the source to each destination.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
56. RPB guarantees that each destination receives _________ of the packet.
A) one copy
B) no copies
C) multiple copies
57. In ________, the multicast packet must reach only those networks that have active members for that particular group.
A) RPF
B) RPB
C) RPM
58. _______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to create a multicast shortest path tree that supports dynamic
membership changes.
A) RPM; RPB
B) RPB; RPM
C) RPF: RPM
59. __________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector routing. It is a source-based routing protocol, based on
RIP.
A) MOSPF
B) DVMRP
C) CBT
60. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, based on RIP.

A) source-based
B) group-shared
C) both a and b
61. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______.

A) RPF
B) RPB
C) RPM
62. A _______ message tells an upstream router to stop sending multicast messages for a specific group through a specific
router.
A) weed
B) graft
C) prune
63. A _______ message tells an upstream router to start sending multicast messages for a specific group through a specific
router.
A) weed
B) graft
C) prune
64. CBT is a ________ protocol that uses a core as the root of the tree.
A) source-based
B) group-shared
C) a or b
65. PIM-DM is used in a _______ multicast environment, such as a LAN.

A) dense
B) sparse
C) a or b
66. PIM-SM is used in a _______multicast environment such as a WAN.

A) dense
B) sparse
C) a or b
67. In _______, a logical tunnel is established by encapsulating the multicast packet inside a unicast packet.
A) UNIBONE
B) MULTBONE
C) MBONE
1. One of the responsibilities of the transport layer protocol is to create a ______ communication.
A) host-to-host
B) process-to-process
C) node-to-node
2. UDP is called a ________________transport protocol.

A) connectionless, reliable
B) connection-oriented, unreliable
C) connectionless, unreliable
3. UDP does not add anything to the services of IP except for providing _______ communication.
A) node-to-node
B) process-to-process
C) host-to-host
4. UDP is an acronym for _______.

A) User Delivery Protocol
B) User Datagram Procedure
C) User Datagram Protocol
5. Although there are several ways to achieve process-to-process communication, the most common is through the
__________ paradigm.
A) client-server
B) client-client
C) server-server
6. The local host and the remote host are defined using IP addresses. To define the processes, we need second identifiers
called ____________.
A) UDP addresses
B) transport addresses
C) port addresses
7. The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 can be used as temporary or private port numbers. They are called the
________ ports.
A) well-known
B) registered
C) dynamic
8. In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit from the _______ layer.
A) application
B) transport
C) IP
9. In the sending computer, UDP sends a data unit to the _______ layer.
A) application
B) transport
C) IP
10. UDP and TCP are both _______ layer protocols.

A) data link
B) network
C) transport
11. Which of the following functions does UDP perform?

A) process-to-process communication
B) host-to-host communication
C) end-to-end reliable data delivery
12. When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, _______.

A) delivery is complete
B) a transport layer protocol takes over
C) a header is added
13. UDP needs the _______ address to deliver the user datagram to the correct application process.
A) port
B) application
C) internet
14. A port address in UDP is _______bits long.

A) 8
B) 16
C) 32
D) any of the above
15. Which of the following does UDP guarantee?

A) flow control
B) connection-oriented delivery
C) flow control
16. The source port address on the UDP user datagram header defines _______.
A) the sending computer
B) the receiving computer
C) the process running on the sending computer
17. The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a ____________.

A) transport address
B) network address
C) socket address
18. To use the services of UDP, we need ________ socket addresses.

A) four
B) two
C) three
19. UDP packets are called __________.

A) user datagrams
B) segments
C) frames
20. UDP packets have a fixed-size header of _______ bytes.

A) 16
B) 8
C) 40
21. UDP packets are encapsulated in ___________.

A) an Ethernet frame
B) an TCP segment
C) an IP datagram
22. UDP uses ________ to handle outgoing user datagrams from multiple processes on one host.
A) flow control
B) multiplexing
C) demultiplexing
23. UDP uses _______ to handle incoming user datagrams that go to different processes on the same host.
A) flow control
B) multiplexing
C) demultiplexing

24. TCP is a __________protocol.
A) stream-oriented
B) message-oriented
C) block-oriented
25. TCP allows the sending process to deliver data as a _______of bytes and allows the receiving process to obtain data as
a _________ of bytes.
A) message; message
B) stream; stream
C) block; block
26. Because the sending and the receiving processes may not write or read data at the same speed, TCP ________.
A) speeds up the slower process
B) slows down the faster process
C) uses buffers
27. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a ___________.
A) user datagram
B) segment
C) datagram
28. TCP is a ___________ protocol.

A) connection-oriented
B) connectionless
C) both a and b
29. TCP is a(n) _______ transport protocol.

A) unreliable
B) best-effort delivery
C) reliable
30. TCP uses _________________ to check the safe and sound arrival of data.
A) an acknowledgment mechanism
B) out-of-band signalling
C) the services of another protocol
31. The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. The numbering starts with a
__________________.
A) 0
B) 1
C) randomly generated number
32. TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment that is being sent. The sequence number for each segment is the
number of the _______ byte carried in that segment.
A) first
B) last
C) middle
33. Communication in TCP is ___________.

A) simplex
B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex

34. The value of the acknowledgment field in a segment defines the number of the ______byte a party expects to receive.
A) first
B) last
C) next
35. The acknowledgment number is ________.

A) independent
B) randomly generated
C) cumulative
36. The value of the window size is determined by _________.

A) the sender
B) the receiver
C) both the sender and receiver
37. The inclusion of the checksum in the TCP segment is ________.

A) optional
B) mandatory
C) at the discretion of the application program
38. A TCP segment is encapsulated in __________.

A) an IP datagram
B) an Ethernet frame
C) a UDP user datagram
39. Connection establishment in TCP is called __________ handshaking.

A) two-way
B) four-way
C) one-way
40. A SYN segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence number(s).
A) no
B) one
C) two
41. A SYN + ACK segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence number(s).
A) no
B) three
C) two
42. An ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes ______ sequence number(s).

A) no
B) one
C) two
43. The connection establishment procedure in TCP is susceptible to a

serious security problem called the _________ attack.
A) ACK flooding
B) FIN flooding
C) SYN flooding
44. The SYN flooding attack belongs to a group of security attacks known as a _____ attack.
A) denial of service
B) replay
C) man-in-the middle
45. The FIN segment consumes ____ sequence numbers if it does not carry data.
A) two
B) three
C) no
46. The FIN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence number(s) if it does not carry data.
A) two
B) three
C) one
47. In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still receiving data. This is called a ______.
A) half-close
B) half-open
C) one-way termination
48. A(n) _________ machine is a machine that goes through a limited number of states.
A) infinite state
B) finite state
C) both a and b
49. __________ control regulates the amount of data a source can send before receiving an acknowledgment from the
destination.
A) Error
B) Flow
C) Congestion
50. To accomplish flow control, TCP uses a ___________ window protocol.

A) limited-size
B) sliding
C) fixed-size
59. If the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been received successfully.
A) 199
B) 200
C) 201
60. Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a new _____________protocol.

A) reliable, character-oriented
B) reliable, message-oriented
C) unreliable, message-oriented
61. SCTP allows __________ service in each association.

A) single stream
B) multistream
C) double stream
62. SCTP association allows _____________ for each end.

A) only one IP address
B) multiple IP addresses
C) only two IP address
63. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________.

A) a TSN
B) an SI
C) an SSN
64. To distinguish between different streams, SCTP uses ___________.

A) a TSN
B) an SI
C) an SSN
65. To distinguish between different data chunks belonging to the same stream, SCTP uses ___________.
A) TSNs
B) SIs
C) SSNs
66. TCP has ____________; SCTP has ____________.

A) packets; segments
B) segments; packets
C) segments; frames
67. The control information in SCTP is included in the ________.

A) header control field
B) control chunks
C) data chunks
68. An SCTP packet can carry __________.

A) only one data chunk
B) several data chunks
C) no data chunks
69. In SCTP, the acknowledgment number and window size are part of each ________.
A) data chunk
B) control chunk
C) a or b
70. There is no need for a header length field in SCTP because ________________.
A) there are no options in the general header
B) the size of the header is fixed
C) both a and b
71. The checksum in SCTP is ________ bits.

A) 16
B) 32
C) 64
72. The association identifier in SCTP is __________________.

A) a unique verification tag
B) a combination of logical and port addresses
C) either a or b
73. In SCTP, control information and data information are carried in _______ chunks.
A) the same chunk
B) different chunks
C) either a or b
74. In SCTP, acknowledgment numbers are used to acknowledge _____________.

A) both data chunks and control chunks
B) only control chunks
C) only data chunks
75. In an SCTP packet, control chunks come ___________ data chunks.

A) after
B) before
C) a or b
76. In SCTP, ___________ can be carried in a packet that carries an INIT chunk.
A) only data chunks
B) only control chunks
C) no other chunk
77. A connection in SCTP is called an ____________.

A) negotiation
B) association
C) transmission
1. In ________ we try to avoid traffic congestion.

A) congestion control
B) quality of service
D) both (a) and (b)
2. In _________, we try to create an appropriate environment for the traffic.

A) congestion control
B) quality of service
D) both (a) and (b)
3. Traffic ______ are qualitative values that represent a data flow.

A) controls
B) descriptors
C) values
4. The _______ defines the maximum data rate of the traffic.
A) peak data rate
B) maximum burst size
C) effective bandwidth
5. The________ normally refers to the maximum length of time the traffic is generated at the peak rate.
A) peak data rate
6. The ________ is a function of three values: average data rate, peak data rate, and maximum burst size.
A) peak data rate
7. A _________ traffic model has a data rate that does not change.
A) constant bit rate
B) variable bit rate
C) bursty
8. In the ________ traffic model, the rate of the data flow changes in time, with the changes smooth instead of sudden and
sharp.
C) bursty
9. In the ______ traffic model, the data rate changes suddenly in a very short time.
C) bursty
10. _______ happens in any system that involves waiting.

A) Congestion
B) Jamming
C) Error
11. Congestion in a network or internetwork occurs because routers and switches have _______.
A) tables
B) queues
C) crosspoints
12. In a network, when the load is much less than the capacity of the network, the delay is _________.
A) at a maximum
B) at a minimum
C) constant
13. In a network, when the load reaches the network capacity, the delay _______.
A) increases sharply
B) decreases sharply
C) remains constant
D) cannot be predicted
14. In a network, when the load is below the capacity of the network, the throughput ______________.
B) increases proportionally with the load
C) declines sharply
D) declines proportionally with the load
15. In a network, after the load reaches the capacity, throughput _______.
B) increases proportionally with the load
C) declines sharply
D) declines proportionally with the load
16. In ________ congestion control, policies are applied to prevent congestion before it happens.
A) open-loop
B) closed-loop
17. In _______ congestion control, mechanisms are used to alleviate congestion after it happens.
A) open-loop
B) closed-loop
18. The technique of ________refers to a congestion control mechanism in which a congested node stops receiving data
from the immediate upstream node or nodes.
A) backpressure
B) choke packet
C) implicit signaling
D) explicit signaling
19. A ___________ is a packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion.

A) backpressure
B) choke packet
20. In __________, there is no communication between the congested node or nodes and the source. The source guesses
that there is a congestion somewhere in the network from other symptoms.
A) backpressure
B) choke packet
21. In the __________ method, the signal is included in the packets that carry data.
A) backpressure
B) choke packet
22. In the ________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until it reaches a
threshold.
A) slow-start
B) congestion avoidance
C) congestion detection
23. In the _________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window increases additively until congestion is detected.
A) slow-start
24. In the ___________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the threshold is dropped to one-half, a multiplicative decrease.
A) slow-start
25. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit warns the sender of congestion in the network.
A) BECN
B) FECN
26. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit is used to warn the receiver of congestion in the network.
A) BECN
B) FECN
27. Traditionally, ________types of characteristics are attributed to a flow.

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
28. _________ is a characteristic that a flow needs. Lack of it means losing a packet or acknowledgment, which entails
retransmission.
A) Reliability
B) Delay
C) Jitter
D) Bandwidth
29. _______ is a flow characteristic that applications can tolerate in different degrees.
A) Reliability
B) Delay
C) Jitter
D) Bandwidth
30. ________ is the variation in delay for packets belonging to the same flow.
A) Reliability
B) Delay
C) Jitter
D) Bandwidth
31. In ________, queuing packets wait in a buffer (queue) until the node (router or switch) is ready to process them.
A) FIFO
B) priority
C) weighted fair
32. In ________ queuing, packets are first assigned to a priority class. Each class has its own queue.
A) FIFO
B) priority
C) weighted fair
33. In _________ queuing, the packets are assigned to different classes and admitted to different queues. The queues,
however, are weighted based on the priority of the queues; higher priority means a higher weight. The system processes
packets in each queue in a round-robin fashion with the number of packets selected from each queue based on the
corresponding weight.
A) FIFO
B) priority
C) weighted fair
34. In the ______ bucket algorithm, bursty chunks are stored in the bucket and sent out at an average rate.
A) leaky
B) token
35. The _______ bucket algorithm allows idle hosts to accumulate credit for the future in the form of tokens.
A) leaky
B) token
36. In _________, when a source makes a reservation, it needs to define a flow specification.
A) Integrated Services
B) Differentiated Services
C) Connectionless
D) Connection-Oriented
37. _________ is a class-based QoS model designed for IP.

A) Integrated Services
B) Differentiated Services
C) Connectionless
D) Connection-Oriented
38. In Frame Relay, the user can never exceed the_________.

A) access rate
B) committed burst size
C) committed information rate
D) excess burst size
39. In Frame Relay, a ___________ is the maximum number of bits in a predefined time that the network is committed to
transfer without discarding any frame or setting the DE bit.
A) access rate
40. In Frame Relay, the _____________ defines an average rate in bits per second.
A) access rate
41. In Frame Relay, the ___________ is the maximum number of bits in excess of Bc that a user can send during a
predefined time.
A) access rate
42. In ATM, the _________ class is designed for customers who need real-time audio or video services. The service is
similar to that provided by a dedicated line such as a T line.
A) CBR
B) VBR
C) ABR
D) UBR
43. In ATM, the _________ class is divided into two subclasses: real-time (VBR-RT) and non-real-time (VBR-NRT). VBR-RT
is designed for those users who need real-time services (such as voice and video transmission) and use compression
techniques to create a variable bit rate. VBR-NRT is designed for those users who do not need real-time services but use
compression techniques to create a variable bit rate.
A) CBR
B) VBR
C) ABR
D) UBR
44. In ATM, the _________ class delivers cells at a minimum rate. If more network capacity is available, this minimum rate
can be exceeded.
A) CBR
B) VBR
C) ABR
D) UBR
45. In ATM, the _________ class is a best-effort delivery service that does not guarantee anything.
A) CBR
B) VBR
C) ABR
D) UBR
1. In a _______ name space, a name is assigned to an address. A name in this space is a sequence of characters without
structure.
A) flat
B) hierarchical
C) organized
2. In a _________name space, each name is made of several parts.

A) flat
B) hierarchical
C) organized
3. To have a hierarchical name space, a ______________ was designed.

A) domain space
B) domain name
C) domain name space
4. In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure.

A) a linear list
B) an inverted-tree
C) a graph

5. Each node in the tree has a _______, which is a string with a maximum of ___ characters.
A) label; 127
B) name; 255
C) label; 63

6. The root of the DNS tree is _______.
A) a string of characters
B) a string of 63 characters
C) an empty string
7. A full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by ________.

A) semicolons
B) dots
C) colons
8. If a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a __________.

A) PQDN
B) FQDN
C) SQDN
9. If a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a __________.

A) PQDN
B) FQDN
C) SQDN
10. A _________ is a subtree of the domain name space.

A) label
B) name
C) domain
11. What a server is responsible for or has authority over is called a _________.
A) domain
B) label
C) zone
12. A _______ is a server whose zone consists of the whole tree.

A) domain server
B) zone server
C) root server
13. A ________ server loads all information from the disk file.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) zone
14. A ________ server loads all information from the primary server.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) zone
15. When the secondary downloads information from the primary, it is called ______ transfer.
A) domain
B) zone
C) label
16. In the Internet, the domain name space (tree) is divided into _______ different sections:
A) three
B) two
C) four
17. The _______ domains define registered hosts according to their generic behavior.
A) generic
B) country
C) inverse
18. The first level in the generic domains section allows ______ possible labels.
A) 10
B) 2
C) 16
19. The ____________ domain section uses two-character country abbreviations.

A) generic
B) country
C) inverse
20. The _________ domain is used to map an address to a name.

A) generic
B) country
C) inverse
21. In __________ resolution, the resolver expects the server to supply the final answer.
A) iterative
B) recursive
C) straight
22. In __________ resolution, the server returns the IP address of the server that it thinks can resolve the query.
A) iterative
B) recursive
C) straight
23. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the least specific label.
A) chal
B) atc
C) edu
24. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the most specific label.
A) chal
B) atc
C) fhda
25. A host with the domain name pit.arc.nasa.gov. is on the _______ level of the DNS hierarchical tree. (The root is level
one.)
A) third
B) fourth
C) fifth
26. A pointer query involves the _______ domain.

A) inverse
B) reverse
C) root
27. DNS can use the services of ________ using the well-known port 53.
A) UDP
B) TCP
1. TELNET is an abbreviation for ____________.

A) terminal network
B) telephone network
C) telecommunication network
2. TELNET is a ________ client-server application program.

A) specific-purpose
B) general-purpose
C) both a and b
3. When a user logs into a local time-sharing system, it is called ________ login.
A) local
B) remote
C) temporary
4. When a user wants to access an application program or utility located on a remote machine, he or she performs
___________ login.
A) local
B) remote
C) temporary
5. NVT uses two sets of characters, one for _____and one for __________.
A) sending; receiving
B) request; reply
C) data; control
6. For data, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______.
A) 1
B) 0
C) a or b
7. For control, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______.
A) 1
B) 0
C) a or b
8. TELNET uses only one TCP connection. The server uses ________ port and the client uses ________ port.
A) a well-known; another well-known
B) an ephemeral; another ephemeral
C) a well-known; an ephemeral
9. To distinguish data from control characters, each sequence of control characters is preceded by a special control
character called ________.
A) ICA
B) IAC
C) AIC
10. In the _______ mode, the echoing is done by the client.

A) default
B) character
C) line
11. In the _______ mode, each character typed is sent by the client to the server.
A) default
B) character
C) line
12. In the ____ mode, line editing (echoing, character erasing, line erasing, and so on) is done by the client.
A) default
B) character
C) line
13. The _______ is software residing on the remote system that allows the remote system to receive characters from a
TELNET server.
A) terminal driver
B) pseudoterminal driver
C) TELNET client
14. The _______ translates local characters into NVT form.

A) terminal driver
B) TELNET client
C) TELNET server
15. The _______ translates NVT characters into a form acceptable by the remote operating system.
A) terminal driver
B) TELNET client
C) TELNET server
16. If the sender wants to disable an option, it sends a _______ command.

A) WILL
B) DO
C) WONT
17. If the sender wants to enable an option, it sends a _______ command.

A) WILL
B) DO
C) WONT
18. If the sender wants an option disabled by the receiver, it sends a _______ command.
A) WILL
B) DO
C) DONT
19. If the sender wants an option enabled by the receiver, it sends a _______ command.
A) WILL
B) DO
C) WONT
20. _______ is the standard mechanism provided by TCP/IP for copying a file from one host to another.
A) TELNET
B) SMTP
C) TFTP
21. FTP uses the services of ________.

A) UDP
B) IP
C) TCP
22. In FTP, the well-known port ____ is used for the control connection and the well-known port ________ for the data
connection.
A) 21; 22
B) 21; 20
C) 20; 21
23. In FTP, _______ is the service type used by the IP protocol because this is an interactive connection between a user
(human) and a server.
A) maximize throughput
B) minimize delay
C) minimize error
24. For the control connection, FTP uses the __________ character set
A) regular ASCII
B) EBCDIC
C) NVT ASCII
25. During an FTP session the control connection is opened _______.

A) exactly once
B) exactly twice
C) as many times as necessary
26. During an FTP session the data connection is opened _______.
A) exactly once
B) exactly twice
C) as many times as necessary
27. In FTP, a file can be organized into records, pages, or a stream of bytes. These are types of an attribute called _______.
A) file types
B) data structures
C) transmission modes
28. In FTP, there are three types of _______: stream, block, and compressed.
A) file types
B) data structures
C) transmission modes
29. In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called _______.
A) file type
B) data structure
C) transmission mode
30. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the server to the client.
A) retrieve a file
B) retrieve a list
C) a and c
31. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the client to the server.
A) retrieve a file
B) store a file
C) retrieve a list
32. ________ is part of a local hard drive, a special file with permission restrictions.
A) A message
B) A response
C) An agent
33. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on the same system, we need only ___________.
A) one UA
B) two UAs
C) one UA and one MTA
34. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we need only _____________.
A) one MTA
B) two UAs
C) two UAs and one pair of MTAs
35. When the sender is connected to the mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we need ______________.
A) two MTA
B) two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
C) two UAs and a pair of MTAs
36. When both sender and receiver are connected to a mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we need ___________________.
A) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs
B) two UAs, and two pairs of MTAs
C) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two pairs of MAAs
37. ________ provides service to the user to make the process of sending and receiving a message easier.
A) An MTA
B) An MAA
C) A UA
38. Which of the following services is not provided by a UA?

A) composing messages
B) reading messages
C) replying messages
D) all are
39. There are two types of user agents: _________ and ___________.
A) command-driven; data-driven
B) command-driven; GUI-based
C) command-based and data-based
40. The ________ usually contains the sender address, the receiver address, and other information.
A) message
B) envelope
C) both a and b
41. The message contains the ________ and the __________.

A) header; envelop
B) header; body
C) envelop; body
42. In the Internet, the email address consists of two parts: a _______ and a _______.
A) local part; domain name
B) global part; domain name
C) label; domain name
43. _________ is a supplementary protocol that allows non-ASCII data to be sent through email.
A) JPEG
B) MPEG
C) MIME
44. The actual mail transfer is done through ____________.

A) UAs
B) MTAs
C) MAAs
45. The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the Internet is called ___________.
A) SMTP
B) SNMP
C) TELNET
46. The process of transferring a mail message occurs in ________ phases.

A) two
B) four
C) five
47. SMTP is a __________protocol.

A) pull
B) push
C) both a and b
48. The third stage in an email transfer needs a ________ protocol.
A) pull
B) push
C) both a and b
49. The third stage in an email transfer uses a(n) ________ protocol.
A) UA
B) MTA
C) MAA
50. Currently two message access protocols are available: _______ and _________.
A) POP3; IMAP2
B) POP4; IMAP1
C) POP3; IMAP4
51. Which part of the mail created by the UA contains the sender and receiver names?
A) envelope
B) address
C) header
52. The MIME _______ header uses text to describe the type of data in the body of the message.
A) content-type
B) content-transfer-encoding
C) content-description
53. _______ is more powerful and complex than _______.

A) POP3; IMAP4
B) IMAP4; POP3
C) SMTP; POP3
1. _________ is a repository of information linked together from points all over the world.
A) The WWW
B) HTTP
C) HTML
2. The WWW today is a _______ client-server service, in which a client using a browser can access a service using a
server.
A) limited
B) vast
C) distributed
3. The _________ is a standard for specifying any kind of information on the Internet.
A) URL
B) ULR
C) RLU
4. In a URL, the _______ is the client-server program used to retrieve the document.
A) path
B) protocol
C) host
5. In a URL, the ______ is the computer on which the information is located.

A) path
B) protocol
C) host
6. In a URL, an optional ________ can be inserted between the host and the path, and it is separated from the host by a
colon.
A) path
B) protocol
C) host
7. In a URL, the _______ is the full name of the file where the information is located.
A) path
B) protocol
C) host
8. A cookie is made by the ________ and eaten by the _________.

A) client; client
B) client; server
C) server; server
9. The documents in the WWW can be grouped into ______ broad categories.
A) two
B) three
C) four
10. A _______ document is a fixed-content document that is created and stored in a server. The client can get a copy of the
document only.
A) static
B) dynamic
C) active
11. _____________ is a language for creating Web pages.

A) HTTP
B) HTML
C) FTTP
12. A _______ document is created by a Web server whenever a browser requests the document.
A) static
B) dynamic
C) active
13. ___________ is a technology that creates and handles dynamic documents.

A) GIC
B) CGI
C) GCI
14. Dynamic documents are sometimes referred to as _________ dynamic documents.

A) client-site
B) server-site
C) both a and b
15. For many applications, we need a program or a script to be run at the client site. These are called _______________
documents.
A) static
B) dynamic
C) active
16. One way to create an active document is to use __________.
A) CGI
B) Java stand-alone programs
C) Java applets
17. Active documents are sometimes referred to as _________ dynamic documents.

A) client-site
B) server-site
C) both a and b
18. HTTP uses the services of _________ on well-known port 80.

A) UDP
B) IP
C) TCP
19. In HTTP, the first line in a request message is called a _______ line; the first line in the response message is called the
________ line.
A) request; response
B) response; request
C) response; status
20. In a ___________ connection, one TCP connection is made for each request/response.
A) persistent
B) nonpersistent
C) both a and b
21. In a ___________connection, the server leaves the connection open for more requests after sending a response.
A) persistent
B) nonpersistent
C) both a and b
22. HTTP version 1.1 specifies a _________connection by default.

A) persistent
B) nonpersistent
C) both a and b
23. In HTTP, a _______ server is a computer that keeps copies of responses to recent requests.
A) regular
B) proxy
C) both a and b
24. An HTTP request message always contains _______.

A) a header and a body
B) a request line and a header
C) a status line, a header, and a body
25. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line?
A) HTTP version number
B) URL
C) status code
26. The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to request a document from the server.
A) GET
B) POST
C) COPY
27. A user needs to send the server some information. The request line method is _______.
A) OPTION
B) PATCH
C) POST
28. The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to get information
about a document without retrieving the document itself.
A) HEAD
B) POST
C) COPY
29. A response message always contains _______.

A) a header and a body
B) a request line and a header
C) a status line and a header
30. An applet is _______ document application program.

A) a static
B) an active
C) a passive
D) a dynamic
1. SNMP defines the ___________________ to be sent from a manager to an agent and vice versa.
A) format of the packets
B) encoding of the packets
C) number of packets
2. A manager is a host that runs the SNMP _______ process.

A) client
B) server
C) both a and b
3. An agent is a host or computer that runs the SNMP _______ process.

A) client
B) server
C) both a and b
4. SNMP uses two other protocols: ________ and _________.

A) MIB; SMTP
B) SMI; MIB
C) FTP; SMI
5. ________ defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object types, and showing how to encode objects and
values.
A) MIB
B) BER
C) SMI
6. We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both tasks need rules. In network
management this is handled by ___________.
A) SMNP
B) MIB
C) SMI
7. We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both tasks need variable declarations.
In network management this is handled by _________.
A) SMNP
B) MIB
C) SMI
8. We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both tasks have actions performed by
statements. In network management this is handled by _______.
A) SMNP
B) MIB
C) SMI
9. SMI emphasizes three attributes to handle an object: _____, ________, and _________.
A) name; data type; size
B) name; size; encoding method
C) name; data type; encoding method
10. To name objects globally, SMI uses an object identifier, which is a hierarchical identifier based on a _______ structure
A) linear
B) tree
C) graph
11. All objects managed by SNMP are given an object identifier. The object identifier always starts with _______.
A) 1.3.6.1.2.1
B) 1.3.6.1.2.2
C) 1.3.6.1.2.3
12. To define the data type, SMI uses fundamental _______ definitions and adds some new definitions.
A) AMS.1
B) ASN.1
C) ASN.2
13. SMI has two broad categories of data type: _______ and _______.
A) simple; complex
B) simple; structured
C) structured; unstructured
14. The _______ data types are atomic data types.

A) structure
B) simple
C) both a and b
15. SMI defines two structured data types: ________ and _________.
A) sequence; atomic
B) sequence; sequence of
C) a sequence of; array
16. SMI uses another standard, ___________, to encode data to be transmitted over the network.
A) MIB
B) ANS.1
C) BER
17. The _________ ordering enables a manager to access a set of variables one after another by defining the first variable.
A) lexicographic
B) linear
C) non-linear
18. The GetRequest PDU is sent from the _______ to the __________ to retrieve the value of a variable or a set of
variables.
A) client; server
B) server; client
C) server; network
19. The Response PDU is sent from the ______ to the ______ in response to GetRequest or GetNextRequest.
A) server; client
B) client; server
C) network; host
20. The Trap PDU is sent from the ______ to the _______ to report an event.
A) server; client
B) client; server
C) network; host
21. SNMP uses the services of UDP on two well-known ports, _______ and _______.
A) 161; 162
B) 160; 161
C) 160; 162
22. _______ runs the SNMP client program; _______ runs the SNMP server program.
A) A manager; a manager
B) An agent; an agent
C) A manager; an agent
D) An agent; a manager
23. INTEGER, OCTET STRING, and ObjectIdentifier are _______ definitions used by SMI.
A) MIB
B) SNMP
C) ASN.1
24. Which of the following could be a legitimate MIB object identifier?

A) 1.3.6.1.2.1.1
B) 1.3.6.1.2.2.1
C) 2.3.6.1.2.1.2
25. Which is a manager duty?

A) Retrieve the value of an object defined in an agent.
B) Store the value of an object defined in an agent.
C) a and b
26. For a 1-byte length field, what is the maximum value for the data length?
A) 127
B) 128
C) 255
27. An object id defines a _______. Add a zero suffix to define the _______.
A) variable; table
B) table; variable
C) variable; variable contents
28. An SNMP agent can send _______ messages.

A) GetRequest
B) SetRequest
C) Trap
29. An SNMP agent can send _______ messages.

A) Response
B) GetRequest
C) SetRequest
30. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU is an offset that points to the variable in error.
A) community
B) enterprise
C) error index
31. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU reports an error in a response message.
A) community
B) enterprise
C) error status
32. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU consists of a sequence of variables and their corresponding values.
A) version
B) community
C) VarBindList
1. We can divide audio and video services into _______ broad categories.
A) three
B) two
C) four
2. ________ audio/video refers to on-demand requests for compressed audio/video files.

A) Streaming live
B) Streaming stored
C) Interactive
3. ___________ audio/video refers to the broadcasting of radio and TV programs through the Internet.
A) Interactive
B) Streaming live
C) Streaming stored
4. _________ audio/video refers to the use of the Internet for interactive audio/video applications.
A) Interactive
B) Streaming live
C) Streaming stored
5. According to the Nyquist theorem, we need to sample an analog signal ________times the highest frequency.
A) three
B) two
C) four
6. In ________ encoding, the differences between the samples are encoded instead of encoding all the sampled values.
A) predictive
B) perceptual
C) both a and b
7. __________ encoding is based on the science of psychoacoustics, which is the study of how people perceive sound.
A) Predictive
B) Perceptual
C) both a and b
8. ____________ is used to compress images.

A) MPEG
B) JPEG
C) either a or b
9. ____________ is used to compress video.

A) MPEG
B) JPEG
C) either a or b
10. The first phase of JPEG is ___________.

A) DCT transformation
B) quantization
C) data compression
11. The second phase of JPEG is ___________.

B) quantization
C) data compression
12. The third phase of JPEG is ___________.

B) quantization
C) data compression
13. Jitter is introduced in real-time data by the _______________.

A) error caused during transmission
B) delay between packets
C) both a and b
14. To prevent _________, we can timestamp the packets and separate the arrival time from the playback time.
A) error
B) jitter
C) either a or b
15. A ________buffer is required for real-time traffic.

A) playback
B) reordering
C) sorting
16. A __________on each packet is required for real-time traffic.

A) timestamp
B) sequence number
C) both a and b
17. Real-time traffic needs the support of ____________.

A) broadcasting
B) multicasting
C) both a and b
18. __________ means changing the encoding of a payload to a lower quality to match the bandwidth of the receiving
network.
A) Translation
B) Mixing
C) both a and b
19. __________ means combining several streams of traffic into one stream.
A) Translation
B) Mixing
C) both a and b
20. _________ is not suitable for interactive multimedia traffic because it retransmits packets in case of errors.
A) UDP
B) TCP
C) both a and b
21. __________ is the protocol designed to handle real-time traffic on the Internet.
A) TCP
B) UDP
C) RTP
22. RTP uses a temporary even-numbered _______ port.

A) UDP
B) TCP
C) both a and b
23. ___________ is a protocol for controlling the flow and quality of data.
A) RTP
B) RTCP
C) UDP
24. RTCP uses an odd-numbered _______ port number that follows the port number selected for RTP.
A) UDP
B) TCP
C) both a and b
25. ___________ is an application protocol that establishes, manages, and terminates a multimedia session
A) RIP
B) SIP
C) DIP
26. _______ is a standard to allow telephones on the public telephone network to talk to computers connected to the
Internet.
A) SIP
B) H.323
C) Q.991
27. A real-time video performance lasts 10 min. If there is jitter in the system, the viewer spends _______ minutes watching
the performance.
A) less than 10
B) more than 10
C) exactly 10
28. A _______ shows the time a packet was produced relative to the first or previous packet.
A) timestamp
B) playback buffer
C) sequence number
29. _______ are used to number the packets of a real-time transmission.

A) Timestamps
B) Playback buffers
C) Sequence numbers
30. In a real-time video conference, data from the server is _______ to the client sites.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
31. A _______ adds signals from different sources to create a single signal.
A) timestamp
B) sequence number
C) mixer
32. A _______ changes the format of a high-bandwidth video signal to a lower quality narrow-bandwidth signal.
A) timestamp
B) sequence number
C) translator
33. An RTP packet is encapsulated in _______.

A) a UDP user datagram
B) a TCP segment
C) an IP datagram
34. When there is more than one source, the _______ identifier defines the mixer.
A) synchronization source
B) contributor
C) timestamp
1. ________ is the science and art of transforming messages to make them secure and immune to attacks.
A) Cryptography
B) Cryptoanalysis
2. The ________is the original message before transformation.

A) ciphertext
B) plaintext
C) secret-text
3. The ________ is the message after transformation.

A) ciphertext
B) plaintext
C) secret-text
4. A(n) _______ algorithm transforms plaintext to ciphertext

A) encryption
B) decryption
5. A(n) ______ algorithm transforms ciphertext to plaintext.

A) encryption
B) decryption
6. A combination of an encryption algorithm and a decryption algorithm is called a ________.

A) cipher
B) secret
C) key
7. The _______ is a number or a set of numbers on which the cipher operates.

A) cipher
B) secret
C) key
8. In a(n) ________ cipher, the same key is used by both the sender and receiver.
A) symmetric-key
B) asymmetric-key
9. In a(n) ________, the key is called the secret key.

A) symmetric-key
B) asymmetric-key
10. In a(n) ________ cipher, a pair of keys is used.

A) symmetric-key
B) asymmetric-key
11. In an asymmetric-key cipher, the sender uses the__________ key.

A) private
B) public
12. In an asymmetric-key cipher, the receiver uses the ______ key.

A) private
B) public
13. A ________ cipher replaces one character with another character.

A) substitution
B) transposition
14. _________ ciphers can be categorized into two broad categories: monoalphabetic and polyalphabetic.
A) Substitution
B) Transposition
15. The _______ cipher is the simplest monoalphabetic cipher. It uses modular arithmetic with a modulus of 26.
A) transposition
B) additive
C) shift
16. The Caesar cipher is a _______cipher that has a key of 3.

A) transposition
B) additive
C) shift
17. The ________ cipher reorders the plaintext characters to create a ciphertext.
A) substitution
B) transposition
18. A(n) ______ is a keyless substitution cipher with N inputs and M outputs that uses a formula to define the relationship
between the input stream and the output stream.
A) S-box
B) P-box
C) T-box
19. A(n) _______is a keyless transposition cipher with N inputs and M

outputs that uses a table to define the relationship between the input stream and the output stream.
A) S-box
B) P-box
C) T-box
20. A modern cipher is usually a complex _____cipher made of a combination of different simple ciphers.
A) round
B) circle
C) square
21. DES is a(n) ________ method adopted by the U.S. government.

A) symmetric-key
B) asymmetric-key
22. DES has an initial and final permutation block and _________ rounds.
A) 14
B) 15
C) 16
23. The DES function has _______ components.

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
24. DES uses a key generator to generate sixteen _______ round keys.
A) 32-bit
B) 48-bit
C) 54-bit
D) 42-bit
25. ________ DES was designed to increase the size of the DES key
A) Double
B) Triple
C) Quadruple
26. _______ is a round cipher based on the Rijndael algorithm that uses a 128-bit block of data.
A) AEE
B) AED
C) AER
D) AES
27. AES has _____ different configurations

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
28. ECB and CBC are ________ ciphers.

A) block
B) stream
C) field
29. One commonly used public-key cryptography method is the ______ algorithm.
A) RSS
B) RAS
C) RSA
D) RAA
30. The ________ method provides a one-time session key for two parties.
A) Diffie-Hellman
B) RSA
C) DES
D) AES
31. The _________ attack can endanger the security of the Diffie-Hellman method if two parties are not authenticated to
each other.
A) man-in-the-middle
B) ciphertext attack
C) plaintext attack
1. Message ________ means that the sender and the receiver expect privacy.
A) confidentiality
B) integrity
C) authentication
2. Message_____ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as sent.
A) confidentiality
B) integrity
C) authentication
3. Message _______ means that the receiver is ensured that the message is coming from the intended sender, not an
imposter.
A) confidentiality
B) integrity
C) authentication
4. _________ means that a sender must not be able to deny sending a message that he sent.
A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity
C) Authentication
D) Nonrepudiation
5. ________ means to prove the identity of the entity that tries to access the system's resources.
A) Message authentication
B) Entity authentication
C) Message confidentiality
6. A(n) _________ can be used to preserve the integrity of a document or a message.

A) message digest
B) message summary
C) encrypted message
7. A(n) ________function creates a message digest out of a message.

A) encryption
B) decryption
C) hash
8. A hash function must meet ________ criteria.

A) two
B) three
C) four
9. A _______ message digest is used as an MDC.

A) keyless
B) keyed
10. To authenticate the data origin, one needs a(n) _______.

A) MDC
B) MAC
11. A ________ signature is included in the document; a _______ signature is a separate entity.
A) conventional; digital
B) digital; digital
12. Digital signature provides ________.

A) authentication
B) nonrepudiation
C) both (a) and (b)
13. Digital signature cannot provide ________ for the message.

A) integrity
B) confidentiality
C) nonrepudiation
D) authentication
14. If _________ is needed, a cryptosystem must be applied over the scheme.

A) integrity
B) confidentiality
C) nonrepudiation
D) authentication
15. A digital signature needs a(n)_________ system.

A) symmetric-key
B) asymmetric-key
16. A witness used in entity authentication is ____________.

A) something known
B) something possessed
C) something inherent
D) all of the above
17. In _______, a claimant proves her identity to the verifier by using one of the three kinds of witnesses.
A) message authentication
B) entity authentication
C) message confidentiality
D) message integrity
18. Password-based authentication can be divided into two broad categories: _______ and _______.
A) fixed; variable
B) time-stamped; fixed
C) fixed; one-time
19. In ________ authentication, the claimant proves that she knows a secret without actually sending it.
A) password-based
B) challenge-response
20. Challenge-response authentication can be done using ________.

A) symmetric-key ciphers
B) asymmetric-key ciphers
C) keyed-hash functions
D) all of the above
21. A(n) _____ is a trusted third party that assigns a symmetric key to two parties.
A) KDC
B) CA
C) KDD
22. A(n)______ creates a secret key only between a member and the center.
A) CA
B) KDC
C) KDD
23. The secret key between members needs to be created as a ______ key when two members contact KDC.
A) public
B) session
C) complimentary
24. __________ is a popular session key creator protocol that requires an authentication server and a ticket-granting server.
A) KDC
B) Kerberos
C) CA
25. A(n) ________is a federal or state organization that binds a public key to an entity and issues a certificate.
A) KDC
B) Kerberos
C) CA
26. A(n) ______ is a hierarchical system that answers queries about key certification.
A) KDC
B) PKI
C) CA
27. The _______ criterion states that it must be extremely difficult or impossible to create the message if the message digest
is given.
A) one-wayness
B) weak-collision-resistance
C) strong-collision-resistance
28. The ________ criterion ensures that a message cannot easily be forged.
A) one-wayness
29. The _______criterion ensures that we cannot find two messages that hash to the same digest.
A) one-wayness
1. _________ is a collection of protocols designed by the IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) to provide security for a
packet at the network level.
A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP
2. _________ operates in the transport mode or the tunnel mode.

A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP
3. In the ______ mode, IPSec protects information delivered from the transport layer to the network layer.
A) transport
B) tunnel
4. IPSec in the ______ mode does not protect the IP header.

A) transport
B) tunnel
5. The _______ mode is normally used when we need host-to-host (end-to-end) protection of data.
A) transport
B) tunnel
6. In the _______ mode, IPSec protects the whole IP packet, including the original IP header.
A) transport
B) tunnel
7. IPSec defines two protocols: _______ and ________.

A) AH; SSL
B) PGP; ESP
C) AH; ESP
8. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.

A) AH
B) ESP
C) PGP
D) SSL
9. ______ provides either authentication or encryption, or both, for packets at the IP level.
A) AH
B) ESP
C) PGP
D) SSL
10. IPSec uses a set of SAs called the ________.

A) SAD
B) SAB
C) SADB
11. ______ is the protocol designed to create security associations, both inbound and outbound.
A) SA
B) CA
C) KDC
D) IKE
12. IKE creates SAs for _____.

A) SSL
B) PGP
C) IPSec
D) VP
13. IKE is a complex protocol based on ______ other protocols.

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
14. IKE uses _______.

A) Oakley
B) SKEME
C) ISAKMP
D) all of the above
15. A _______network is used inside an organization.

A) private
B) public
C) semi-private
D) semi-public
16. An ________ is a private network that uses the Internet model.

A) intranet
B) internet
C) extranet
17. An _________ is a network that allows authorized access from outside users.
A) intranet
B) internet
C) extranet
18. The Internet authorities have reserved addresses for _______.

A) intranets
B) internets
C) extranets
19. A ______ provides privacy for LANs that must communicate through the global Internet.
A) VPP
B) VNP
C) VNN
D) VPN
20. A _______ layer security protocol provides end-to-end security services for applications.
A) data link
B) network
C) transport
21. ______ is actually an IETF version of _____

A) TLS; TSS
B) SSL; TLS
C) TLS; SSL
D) SSL; SLT
22. _______ provide security at the transport layer.

A) SSL
B) TLS
D) both (a) and (b)
23. ______ is designed to provide security and compression services to

data generated from the application layer.
A) SSL
B) TLS
D) both (a) and (b)
24. Typically, ______ can receive application data from any application layer protocol, but the protocol is normally HTTP.
A) SSL
B) TLS
D) both (a) and (b)
25. SSL provides _________.
A) message integrity
B) confidentiality
C) compression
D) all of the above
26. The combination of key exchange, hash, and encryption algorithms defines a ________ for each SSL session.
A) list of protocols
B) cipher suite
C) list of keys
27. In _______, the cryptographic algorithms and secrets are sent with the message.
A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) TLS
D) PGP
28. One security protocol for the e-mail system is _________.

A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP
29. ______ was invented by Phil Zimmerman.

A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP
30. ________ provides privacy, integrity, and authentication in e-mail.

A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP
31. In PGP, to exchange e-mail messages, a user needs a ring of _______ keys.
A) secret
B) public
D) both (a) and (b)
32. In ______, there is a single path from the fully trusted authority to any certificate.
A) X509
B) PGP
C) KDC
33. In _____, there can be multiple paths from fully or partially trusted authorities.
A) X509
B) PGP
C) KDC
34._______ uses the idea of certificate trust levels.

A) X509
B) PGP
C) KDC

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PREPARED BY: ENGR.

PAOLO STEVEN DM POLINTAN

BLAKE MCQ – 105

TOTAL: 1359 QUESTIONS

BLAKE MCQ (105 ITEMS)

1. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is:

2. Distortion is caused by:

3. A complete communication system must include:

4. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on:

5. The power density of "flicker" noise is:

6. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as:

7. Noise Figure is a measure of:

8. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by:

9. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires:

10. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires:

12. In a balanced mixer, the output:

13. A "frequency synthesizer" is:

16. The equation for full-carrier AM is:

18. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM:

19. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because:

20. The FM modulation index:

21. One way to derive FM from PM is:

22. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because:

23. Pre-emphasis is used to:

25. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily:

26. Baseband compression produces:

28. A direct FM modulator:

29. An indirect FM modulator:

30. With mixing:

31. The two basic specifications for a receiver are:

32. "Skin effect" refers to:

33. The frequency of the local oscillator:

35. Basically, sensitivity measures:

36. Basically, selectivity measures:

37. Image frequencies occur when two signals:

38. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:

39. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because:

40. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to:

41. The function of AFC is:

42. The main function of the AGC is to:

43. SINAD stands for:

44. The Shannon Limit is given by:

45. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion?

46. Quantizing noise (quantization noise):

47. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of:

48. Companding is used to:

49. Manchester coding:

50. A vocoder implements compression by:

51. Call blocking:

52. Loading coils were used to:

53. ASCII stands for:

54. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and receiver are:

55. In synchronous transmission, the frames are:

56. Synchronous transmission is used because:

57. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission:

58. Huffman codes:

59. Dumb terminals are still used:

60. In a circuit-switched network:

61. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means:

66. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:

68. Record locking is used to:

70. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network:

71. FTP is used to: