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FINAL COACHING
ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
June 2023 Board of Licensure Examination of Psychometrician
NAME:
1. All of the following are considered to be criticisms of
the psychodynamic perspective EXCEPT
a. It is difficult to test.
b. It pertains to processes that are not directly
observable.
c. It places too much emphasis on brain processes
d. It contains many general and unclear concepts.
2. In the diathesis-stress model, "diathesis" refers to
a. an inherited disorder.
b. conditions in the environment that can trigger a
disorder depending upon how severe the stressors are.
c. an inherited tendency or condition that makes a
person susceptible to developing a disorder.
d. the inheritance of multiple disorders.
3. Extremely low levels of dopamine activity are
associated with ________________.
a. muscle rigidity, tremors, and impaired judgment
b. schizophrenia
c. pleasure seeking
d. exploratory behaviors
4. Determining mood and affect is an important part of
the mental status exam. Although both of these terms
refer to feeling states of the individual, it would be
correct to say that affect is more _____________ than
mood.
a. Immediate
b. Severe
c. Problematic
d. Stable
5. Brett persistently injects himself with pain killers. This
has greatly increased his chance of overdosing and
dying. His behavior harms no one else. According to the
DSM, is Brett's behavior consistent with the definition of
a mental disorder?
a. Yes, because very few people in society engage in
this behavior.
b. Yes, because he is persistently acting in a way that
harms him.
c. No, because his behavior must also harm the well-
being of others in the community.
d. No, because there is no evidence that his actions are
out of his own control.
6. Abby was watching a documentary on some of the
horrors of the Vietnam War. Even when she saw soldiers
being blown up after stepping on land mines, she
showed no emotional reaction or response. In this case,
Abby is displaying symptoms of
a. blunted or flat affect
b. dissociative disorder
c. conversion disorder
d. catatonic stupor
7. When one examines the current state of knowledge
regarding genetics and life experience effects on brain
structure and function, the best overall conclusion is that
most psychological disorders are
a. the result of a complex interaction of genetics and
faulty neurotransmitter circuits.
b. the result of stressful early life experiences and the
negative effects such experiences have on brain
structure or function.
c. the result of both biological and psychosocial factors.
d. beyond our current ability to understand in any
meaningful way.
8. Depression and schizophrenia seem to appear in all
cultures but tend to be characterized by different
symptoms within individual cultures. For example,
depression in Western culture is generally characterized
by feelings of guilt and inadequacy, whereas in
developing countries it is characterized by physical
distress such as fatigue or illness. This is most likely due
to
a. genetic differences between individuals living in
different cultures.
b. differences in treatment provided in different cultures.
c. reasons that our current methods of study are
incapable of understanding.
d. the fact that social and cultural factors influence
psychopathology.
9. Meno is 64 years old. Although continuously faced
with considerable stress and difficulty in his life, he
always displays an optimistic, upbeat attitude. According
to research, Meno should
a. probably live longer than those without such positive
attitudes.
b. live about the same length of time as those without
such positive attitudes.
c. be less likely to have heart disease than those without
such positive attitudes
d. be more likely to be involved with positive community
activities than those without such positive attitudes.
10. An 18-year-old woman who experiences symptoms
of extreme sadness for about two weeks sought
psychiatric help. For about after a month, the symptoms
got worse leading to the development of other
symptoms characterized by extreme anxiety and fear.
She went back to the clinic and the psychologist said
that she is experiencing two different psychological
disorders occurring at the same time. This refers to
_____
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a. comorbidity
b. covariance
c. In vivo
d. implosion
11. Cooper is an auto mechanic at a local garage.
However, he is convinced that his phone line is tapped
and all the rooms in his house have listening devices
planted, so that enemy agents can learn all his secret
conversations. He never takes the same route to work
two days in a row, to prevent the enemy agents from
following him and learning where he works. In this case,
it appears that Cooper is experiencing
a. delusions of persecution
b. hallucinations
c. loosening of associations
d. delusions of grandeur
12. When defining abnormal behavior from the point of
view of the individual, attention is focused on
a. deviance and disability
b. distress and disarray.
c. deviance and distress
d. distress and disability
13. You and a friend are lost while walking on a street in
a foreign city. A stranger approaches, and you are
concerned that the stranger may try to mug you. Your
friend assumes that the stranger is approaching to give
you directions. As the stranger approaches, you
experience fear, but your friend experiences relief. Your
different emotional reactions can be explained by the
__________ theory of emotion.
a. Physiological
b. Neurological
c. Affective
d. Cognitive
14. Thomas Stephen Szasz’s views of mental illness
a. is chemically and biologically based
b. mental illnesses are real in the sense that cancers are
real
c. has an objective measure or methods of detecting
d. as created by the society.
15. In Japan, the anxiety syndrome termed taijin
kyofusho involves a fear of
A. performing onstage.
B. personally offending others.
C. embarrassing oneself.
D. speaking to females.
16. A psychological disorder in children characterized by
unrealistic and persistent worry that something will
happen to their parents which may result in refusal to
leave home is called
A. globus hystericus.
B. school phobia.
C. situational phobia.
D. separation anxiety disorder.
17. What happens when people with OCD attempt to
neutralize or suppress disturbing and intrusive thoughts?
A. The obsessive thoughts disappear.
B. The frequency of the obsessive thoughts increases.
C. Other kinds of obsessive thinking start to occur.
D. This strategy has no effect on the obsessive
thoughts.
18. Sophia and Layla are laying on the beach one sunny
day when they see a woman walk past. They are
astounded at the condition of the skin of the woman.
She is deeply bronzed from years of tanning, and her
skin has a wrinkled and leathery look. Sophia says, I
cannot believe she thinks that is good for her skin! Layla
says, she may be tanning like that to cover up some
flaw that she perceives in her own skin. Layla is clearly
implying that this woman suffers from ________
disorder.
A. body dysmorphic
B. somatic skin-picking
C. excoriation
D. obsessive-compulsive
19. The setting for posttraumatic stress disorder to occur
follows an experience accompanied by a triad of
feelings, including all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. horror
B. paranoia
C. helplessness
D. fear
20. One difference between panic disorders and PTSD is
A. in a panic attack, the alarm is false, while in PTSD,
the initial alarm is true.
B. in panic disorder, the alarm is true, while in PTSD, the
alarm is false.
C. panic disorder but not PTSD has a biological
vulnerability.
D. PTSD but not panic disorder has a biological
vulnerability.
21. Fear activates a
A. surge of energy in the autonomic nervous system so
we can flee.
B. psychological but not physiological response.
C. physiological but not psychological response.
D. decrease in inhibitory mechanisms in the somatic
nervous system so we can flee.
22. Normal, ordinary people who have occasional
intrusive thoughts with bizarre, sexual, or aggressive
content would not be considered to have OCD unless
they find the thoughts unacceptable or even dangerous
and also
A. use alcohol or other drugs to reduce anxiety.
B. develop insomnia and nightmares as well as
dissociation symptoms and, on occasion, psychosis.
C. become horrified by such thoughts and consider them
signs of some alien, intrusive, evil force.
D. suffer from either posttraumatic stress disorder or
social phobia.
23. Which of the following would NOT be considered an
example of social phobia?
A. A student who is reluctant to speak up in a classroom
due to fear of embarrassing herself.
B. A male who has difficulty urinating in a public
restroom when others are present.
C. A person who can only eat comfortably when he is
alone.
D. An individual who cannot travel on public
transportation without a family member present.
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24. Which of the following is NOT a basic type of panic
attack?
A. Expected
B. Unexpected
C. Cued
D. Situation inevitable
25. Which type of panic attack is most closely related to
phobias?
A. Situationally predisposed
B. Expected
C. Unexpected
D. Uncued
26. A child raised by depressed parents is likely to
A. struggle with depression as well.
B. learn how to avoid depression.
C. be inoculated against depression.
D. deny stress symptoms.
27. A common characteristic of depression in boys is
___________________.
A. aggression
B. passiveness
C. shyness
D. coping behavior
28. The physical symptoms of a major depressive
disorder include
A. changes in appetite or weight.
B. decreased ability to concentrate.
C. increased energy.
D. decreased self-esteem
29. The theory of Martin Seligman that people become
anxious and depressed because they believe that they
have no control over the stress in their lives is called
A. the learned helplessness theory.
B. cognitive-behavioral theory.
C. humanistic/existential theory.
D. the control theory of depression.
30. A 35-year-old individual named Manny has recently
formulated an elaborate plan to cure AIDS with vitamin
therapy. To provide funding for this cause, he has
withdrawn all the money from his bank account and
purchased thousands of jars of vitamins and small boxes
in which to put them. When he appeared at a hospital
emergency room loudly demanding names of patients
with AIDS, he himself was hospitalized for psychiatric
observation. What is your diagnosis of Manny?
A. Major depressive episode
B. Hypomanic episode
C. Manic episode
D. Postpartum psychosis
31. Andy is currently completing a chemical formula that
he knows will cure cancer. Shortly before, he had
submitted a book to a publisher and was sure that it
would become a bestseller. For several weeks prior to
this, he was bedridden, had no energy, and lacked any
spontaneity. He never left his bed and had to be cared
for by his family. Andy's diagnosis is
________________.
A. major depressive disorder
B. persistent depressive disorder
C. bipolar I disorder
D. bipolar II disorder
32. With regard to social support,
A. having one close friend did not affect depression
rates.
B. having social support helped speed recovery from
depressive episodes.
C. having social support had no effect in China.
D. having social support helped speed recovery from
manic episodes.
33. Katie has been diagnosed with major depressive
disorder. Most recently, she has been lying immobile for
long periods. If someone moves one of her arms to a
different position, it just stays there. Katie has stopped
speaking and does not appear to hear what is being said
to her. What specifier would you apply to her diagnosis
of major depressive disorder?
A. Chronic
B. With catatonic features
C. With atypical presentation
D. Melancholic
34. Although glorifying and romanticizing suicide in the
media contributes to copycat suicides, it is more likely
that the person copying the suicide is
A. just doing it for attention.
B. vulnerable due to an existing psychological disorder.
C. not really serious about the suicide attempt.
D. trying to impress others.
35. Which of the following statements about suicide is
correct?
A. The suicide rate is high among African Americans but
low among Native Americans.
B. The suicide rate among adolescents in the U.S. is
decreasing.
C. For teenagers, suicide is the third leading cause of
death after auto accidents and homicide.
D. Females are more likely than males to die from
suicide.
36. Regarding views of Beck on depression, which of the
following definitions of cognitive errors and negative
schema is NOT correct?
A. In a self-blame schema, depressed individuals feel
personally responsible for every bad thing that happens.
B. Arbitrary inference means that a depressed individual
emphasizes the positive rather than the negative aspects
of a situation.
C. In a negative self-evaluation schema, depressed
individuals believe that they can never do anything
correctly.
D. Overgeneralization occurs when a small error is
magnified to mean something much more significant.
37. A goal of treatment for patients who have
experienced major depressive disorders is delaying or
preventing the next episode. In which of the following
situations would this goal be LEAST important?
A. Patients who have recovered from a major depressive
episode but still have some residual symptoms
B. Patients with a past history of dysthymia
C. Patients with a past history of multiple episodes of
major depressive disorder
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D. Patients who have had a single, brief episode of
major depressive disorder and recovered without
treatment
38. The most significant feature of bulimia nervosa is
____________.
A. purging
B. overeating
C. overeating followed by an urge to vomit
D. binge eating followed by compensatory behavior
39. Which of the following conditions is thought to be a
potential explanation for UFO experiences?
A. Sleep paralysis
B. Cataplexy
C. Hypnagogic hallucinations
D. Sleep apnea
40. Abnormal events such as nightmares, sleep terrors,
and sleepwalking that occur during sleep or during the
twilight time between sleep and waking are classified as
_________.
A. parasomnias
B. dyssomnias
C. narcolepsy
D. REM disorders
41. Susan, a woman of relatively normal weight,
sometimes eats huge quantities of junk food with no
ability to stop herself. She follows this with long periods
of complete fasting. Based on this information, Susan
A. might be diagnosed with bulimia nervosa.
B. should be diagnosed with anorexia nervosa.
C. will not be diagnosed with any disorder because she
is of normal weight.
D. cannot be diagnosed with bulimia nervosa because
she is not purging.
42. The strongest contributions to etiology of eating
disorders seem to be _________.
A. genetic
B. psychological
C. somatogenic
D. sociocultural
43. Jody sometimes eats more than just about any other
girl that you know. You wonder if her eating sometimes
could be considered bingeing. In order to determine
this, you would have to know
A. the caloric intake of the foods.
B. whether she is eating junk foods.
C. whether eating gets to be out of her control.
D. the situations under which she eats a great deal.
44. Fred has been having a great deal of trouble
initiating and maintaining sleep. He guesses that he is
sleeping for an average of about 3 hours each night and
complains that he feels terrible during the day. In
addition, Fred has always experienced some anxiety but
has recently felt a tremendous increase in his overall
anxiety level. The existence of both a sleep disorder and
anxiety
A. makes the diagnosis of primary insomnia incorrect.
B. increases our confidence that primary insomnia is the
correct diagnosis.
C. indicates that the insomnia is a result of the anxiety
rather than a cause of the anxiety.
D. is extremely common since sleep problems can be
both a cause and a result of anxiety.
45. The most common reason that anorexic individuals
generally do not seek treatment on their own is that
they
A. are ashamed of their disorder.
B. fear that they will be hospitalized.
C. do not truly believe that they are too thin.
D. have little desire for food.
46. While suddenly and unexpectedly falling asleep
during normal waking hours, Sarah experiences vivid
hallucinations of being in a horrible car crash. The
experience is so realistic that she actually feels physical
sensations as if the hallucination were real. Sarah's most
likely diagnosis is _______.
A. sleep apnea
B. hypersomnia
C. schizophrenia
D. narcolepsy
47. Of the following, the correct pairing is
_______________.
A. dyssomnia and sleepwalking
B. dyssomnia and inability to fall asleep
C. parasomnia and waking up after 3 or 4 hours of sleep
and then being unable to fall back to sleep
D. parasomnia and lack of REM sleep
48. The most serious medical consequence of bulimia
nervosa is potential _____________.
A. electrolyte imbalance
B. salivary gland damage
C. starvation
D. tooth erosion
49. The common aspect of all somatic symptom
disorders is a maladaptive or excessive
A. belief that a serious medical condition will cause
death.
B. belief that one's appearance is ugly.
C. response to physical or associated health symptoms.
D. concern with the meaning of a physical pain.
50. Clients with illness anxiety disorder are likely to
A. avoid doctors.
B. avoid unnecessary medical procedures.
C. soon reject assurances that they are healthy.
D. ignore the long-term process of illness.
51. Disorders such as koro and dhat that are similar to
somatic symptom disorders demonstrate the
A. influence of culture on psychopathology.
B. physical basis of many hypochondriacs' complaints.
C. difficulty of accurately diagnosing hypochondriasis.
D. influence of genetics on psychopathology.
52. In dissociative fugue, the term fugue relates to
________________.
A. confusion
B. flight or travel
C. loss of consciousness
D. hallucination
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53. Although Jill feels fine now and believes that she is
healthy, she still worries endlessly about developing a
serious illness. Most likely Jill would be diagnosed with
A. illness anxiety disorder.
B. conversion disorder.
C. somatization disorder.
D. body dysmorphic disorder.
54. Joe injured his back at work several years ago.
Although he was treated and considered healed by his
physicians, he still complains of severe and debilitating
back pain. Other than some minor scar tissue, his
doctors cannot find anything that could be causing more
than some minor stiffness. It appears that Joe might be
diagnosed with _________________.
A. conversion disorder
B. depersonalization/derealization disorder
C. somatic symptom disorder with predominant pain
D. illness anxiety disorder
55. George has completely lost his sight during the past
year, but medical experts can find no physical reason for
his blindness. This could be an example of
_______________.
A. somatization disorder
B. hypochondriasis
C. conversion disorder
D. dissociative disorder
56. Jason suddenly notices that the world looks weird to
him. Some objects look bigger than normal and others
look smaller. Cars passing by seem oddly shaped and
people appear dead or mechanical. Joe is experiencing
________.
A. derealization
B. depersonalization
C. classic early psychosis symptoms
D. mania
57. Vanna, who is 40, apparently believes that she is a
20-year-old woman. Suddenly, she starts to speak and
behave very differently, and says she no longer thinks of
herself as Vanna. Instead, she claims to be Elise, a 10-
year-old child. It is likely that Vanna has just
experienced a _____.
A. switch
B. dissociative trance disorder
C. conversion reaction
D. alter
58. The common feature in almost every case of DID is
A. hallucinations and delusions.
B. unrelenting substance abuse.
C. a history of body dysmorphic disorder.
D. a history of severe child abuse.
59. Since Jane has been diagnosed with illness anxiety
disorder, we can expect her to see her physician
A. often and feel completely reassured that there is
nothing wrong with her health.
B. rarely but continue to believe that she is quite ill.
C. almost never because she does not trust physicians.
D. often but continue to be anxious about her health
anyway.
60. Although both panic disorder patients and persons
with somatic symptom disorder tend to misinterpret
bodily sensations, patients with panic disorder
A. are having real physical sensations, while the
sensations of those with somatic symptom disorder are
all in their heads.
B. tend to fear immediate catastrophe, while those with
somatic symptom disorder tend to fear long-term illness.
C. are having imagined physical sensations, while those
with somatic symptom disorder are experiencing real
physical sensations.
D. tend to ignore the symptoms of their first attacks,
while those with somatic symptom disorder tend to seek
immediate medical treatment following the first
indication of pain.
61. In regard to diagnosing a patient's symptoms as a
conversion disorder, it is
A. quite apparent when a patient is malingering, but it is
difficult to determine whether symptoms are due to real
physical disorders or a conversion disorder.
B. quite apparent when a symptom is due to a real
physical disorder, but it is impossible to determine the
difference between a conversion disorder and patient
malingering.
C. rather easy to determine the difference between
symptoms that the patient fakes, those caused by real
physical disorder, and symptoms caused by conversion
disorder.
D. very difficult to determine whether the symptoms are
due to malingering, real physical disorders, or
conversion disorder.
62. Dissociative trance disorder is diagnosed
A. only when the trance is unpredictable in terms of
when it appears i.e., individual goes into a trance
without prior religious ritual.
B. only when the trance is undesirable and considered
pathological in the culture of the individual.
C. only when the trance causes harm to the individual or
others.
D. whenever an individual repeatedly enters a trance
state.
63. Sue has DID. It is extremely likely that she also has
A. at least one other psychological disorder.
B. a problem with her weight.
C. a history of problems with the law.
D. no desire to get better.
64. Which of the following psychological tests has been
used to accurately identify malingering in people
claiming to have posttraumatic stress disorder?
A. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
B. Wechsler Adult Scale of Intelligence (WAIS)
C. Rorschach Malingering Detection Test (RMDT)
D. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
65. The court requested that an individual, who appears
to be suffering from a personality disorder, be assessed
for a psychological disorder due to a crime committed.
Prior to formal assessment of the individual, the
individual should be ___________.
A. Given an informed consent
B. Informed that the courts ordered an assessment
C. Observed without his knowledge
D. Interviewed regarding the crime
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66. An individual with borderline personality disorder
claims that a psychologist has unsatisfactory services
after the psychological intervention. In relation to the
ethical codes, what should the psychological clinic do?
A. Schedule less patients to the psychologist
B. Charge the appropriate fee to the patient
C. Charge the service for free
D. Refer the patient to other clinics right away
67. Which type of compulsion has the highest
prevalence rate?
A. Symmetry
B. Cleaning and contamination
C. Hoarding
D. Forbidden thoughts or actions
68. Which of the following is accurate in regard to the
long-term outlook for schizophrenic patients?
a. About 50% of people diagnosed with the disorder
eventually recover.
b. Recovery is possible only if the person stays on
medication.
c. Recovery is possible only if the patient receives
psychotherapy.
d. Complete recovery from schizophrenia is rare.
69. Bleuler described the underlying behaviors of
schizophrenia as the destruction of the forces that
connect one function to the next. He called this
underlying foundation of the disorder
a. a fugue state. b. split personality.
c. associative splitting. d. folie à deux.
70. Which of the following is the best description of
schizophrenia?
a. Schizophrenia is characterized by symptoms shared
by everyone with the diagnosis.
b. Schizophrenia is characterized by multiple
personalities.
c. Schizophrenia is characterized by behavior and
symptoms that aren’t necessarily common to everyone
with the diagnosis.
d. The course of schizophrenia is always predictable.
71. Which of the following is the persecution type of
psychotic delusion?
a. A familiar person is actually a double
b. One is a famous or important person
c. People are out to get you
d. A body part has changed in some impossible way
72. Mort has displayed a number of schizophrenic
symptoms. An obvious one was his lack of speech
content manifested in nonsensical ramblings and slowed
speech response. This symptom is called
______________.
a. anhedonia b. avolition
c. clanging d. alogia
73. Which of the following is the most accurate
definition of flat affect?
a. An inability to initiate and persist in activities.
b. The inability to experience pleasure.
c. A lack of emotional response, blank facial expression.
d. A lack of speech content and/or slowed speech
response.
74. James is a security guard at the mall who seems lost
in his own world. Often, he feels the presence of his
dead mother nearby. He knows it is an illusion and that
she is not real. Her presence does give him comfort.
James probably would be diagnosed with
a. schizoaffective disorder. b. schizotypal disorder.
c. schizoid disorder. d. brief psychotic disorder.
75. Research studies focusing on genetic factors in
schizophrenia have found that
a. An individual with a schizophrenic identical twin has
the highest risk factor (almost 50%) of developing
schizophrenia.
b. In family studies of schizophrenia, the genetic
influence can be separated from the environmental
impact.
c. If one person in a family has a particular subtype of
schizophrenia, e.g., paranoid, the other family members
inherit a predisposition for that subtype only.
d. The more severe a parent's schizophrenic disorder,
the less likely the children were to develop it.
76. The positive symptoms of schizophrenia are most
closely associated with _________ activity.
a. serotonin b. dopamine
c. norepinephrine d. acetylcholine
77. In regard to the ways that drugs affect
neurotransmitters, which of the following is TRUE?
a. A drug that is an agonist occupies the receptor sites,
blocking the neurotransmitter.
b. A drug that is an antagonist helps increase the
release of the neurotransmitter.
c. Both of these are correct
d. Neither of these is correct
78. In regard to the family interactions among
schizophrenic patients, the word "schizophrenogenic"
(no longer used), was first proposed in the 1940s to
describe
a. an abusive and alcoholic father whose child became
schizophrenic.
b. an emotionally distant mother whose child became
schizophrenic.
c. divorced parents who had several psychotic children.
d. a family in which relatives on both sides were
psychotic.
79. The following paring is correct based on the ages
most affected by the disorders:
a. inexperienced men premature ejaculation; older men
– vaginismus
b. inexperienced men - premature ejaculation; older
men - erectile dysfunction.
c. inexperienced men - inhibited orgasm; older men -
erectile dysfunction.
d. inexperienced men erectile dysfunction; older men –
male hypoactive sexual arousal disorder.
80. Greg often has problems with premature ejaculation.
As he becomes more anxious about his problem, the
amount of time between initiating intercourse and
ejaculation will most likely ___________________.
a. increase b. decrease
c. remain the same d. depend upon what is making
him anxious.
81. An unusually high concern with nocturnal emissions
has been reported in ___________ where there is a
6 | Page
strong culturally held belief that loss of semen causes
depletion of physical and mental energy.
a. Ireland b. Indonesia
c. India d. Iceland
82. Charles gets very sexually excited by women's
shoes. While he used to fantasize about women wearing
particular shoes, he now focuses almost exclusively on
the shoes themselves. Charles has a(n)
__________________.
a. sexual dysfunction
b. unusual interest but does not have a diagnosable
disorder
c. fetishistic disorder
d. frotteuristic obsession
83. All of the following are true statements regarding
transvestic disorder EXCEPT
a. all people with transvestic disorder are either
homosexual or transsexual.
b. a significant percentage of individuals with this
disorder are married or have been married at some time.
c. there are cross-dressing clubs and newsletters for
individuals with this fetish.
d. some transvestic fetishists compensate by joining
macho or paramilitary organizations.
84. One model of learning predicts that the following
boy might grow up to be a voyeur:
a. Tim, whose father is a voyeur.
b. Joe, who watches a lot of pornography.
c. Sid, who masturbates while peeping at his neighbor.
d. Jim, who thinks it's funny to spy on people.
85. Of the following, the individual who should be
diagnosed with gender dysphoria is
a. Joe, who gets sexually aroused by wearing women's
bras.
b. Lisa, who is gay and has many traditional masculine
traits.
c. Mark, who feels like a woman trapped in a man's
body.
d. Sid, who can only become sexually aroused while
dressed like a woman.
86. Which of the following statements accurately
describes a process in the activation of the HPA
(hormonal) axis?
a. The hippocampus secretes corticotropin releasing
factor (CRF).
b. CRF stimulates the thyroid gland.
c. The hippocampus (via the somatic nervous system)
activates the adrenal glands.
d. The adrenal glands secrete the stress hormone
cortisol.
87. A person who is physiologically dependent on a drug
will experience
a. tolerance to the effects of the drug.
b. withdrawal symptoms if the drug is withdrawn.
c. both tolerance and withdrawal.
d. neither tolerance nor withdrawal.
88. Angelina has had difficulty falling asleep for some
time. She started taking a prescribed sleeping pill every
night for her insomnia. Now, she needs the pill to fall
asleep. Without it, she will toss and turn all night,
getting little sleep. Angelina is
a. dependent and drug abusive.
b. dependent and not drug abusive.
c. dependent but not physiologically addicted.
d. dependent and tolerant.
89. Alcohol can initially appear to cause stimulation
because it
a. makes vision and hearing more acute.
b. has an excitatory effect on the brain.
c. depresses inhibitory centers in the brain.
d. alters motor coordination.
90. The condition called delirium tremens, also known as
the "DTs," involves hallucinations and body tremors
during withdrawal from ____________.
a. heroin b. cocaine
c. alcohol d. marijuana
91. Blackouts appear to be related to the interaction of
alcohol with the ______system.
a. glutamate b. serotonin
c. GABA d. dopamine
92. You have just heard about a situation in which
someone who was drunk vandalized a building and
assaulted a security guard. From your knowledge of
abnormal psychology, you are aware that although
alcohol does not cause aggressive behavior, it may
a. stimulate the inhibitory center of the brain, causing
aggressive behavior.
b. activate the aggressive genes in the person's DNA.
c. impair the ability to consider the consequences of
acting impulsively.
d. increase the anxiety associated with being punished
for one's actions.
93. Which of the following is an accurate statement
concerning marijuana use and abuse?
a. Paranoia and hallucinations can occur.
b. Tolerance develops rapidly.
c. Psychological dependence can occur with even
occasional use.
d. Marijuana is free of carcinogens.
94. The common factor among psychoactive drugs may
be
a. their ability to activate the "pleasure pathways" of the
brain.
b. the ease of obtaining them and the relatively
inexpensive cost.
c. the similar way in which they are metabolized in the
body.
d. their identical effect on neurotransmitters at the
synapse.
95. Pyromania
a. is fairly common among arsonists.
b. is a disorder where an individual is preoccupied with
setting fires and the associated equipment involved in
putting out those fires.
c. Is fairly common among people who were bedwetters
as children.
d. All of these
7 | Page
96. Mr. Smith (age 72) is brought to the hospital tearing off clothing, and frolicking in the streets,what
emergency room. His son explains that his father woke form of madness would you be displaying?
up this morning and was "not himself." Mr. Smith a. tarantism
appears confused, agitated, and a bit frightened. He b. Dance de Diaboli
does not know his own name and cannot recognize his c. folie en masse
son. Mr. Smith's son reports that his father had been d. Lycanthropy
completely fine with no symptoms prior to that morning.
Mr. Smith appears to be suffering from 102. Casandra was informed by her mental health
______________. professional that her anxiety symptoms were caused by
a. neurocognitive disorder due to Lewy Body disease a disrupted pattern of neurochemical messages
b. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease thatresulted in excessive motor activity, hyperalertness,
c. delirium and a sense of apprehension. What is this health
d. amnestic disorder professional's model of abnormality?
a. psychoanalytic
97. All of the following are types of neurocognitive b. cognitive
disorder EXCEPT c. biological
a. vascular neurocognitive disorder. d. Mentalistic
b. substance/medication-induced neurocognitive
disorder. 103. Hypervigilance, emotional numbing, flashbacks, and
c. neurocognitive disorder due to mononucleosis. other characteristics go together under the label "post
d. neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease. traumatic stress disorder". Patterns of characteristics
such as this are also referred to as a(n)
98. Lenny is 25 years old and has had multiple arrests a. symptom constellation.
for assaults, theft, and drug use. He has hurt strangers, b. etiology.
friends, and family and has never shown any remorse or c. prognosis
regret. Following his last arrest, Lenny met with a social d. Syndrome.
worker who told him about antisocial personality
disorder; he is now convinced that is "what's wrong" 104. Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder in which an individual
with him. Lenny recently went to a local community falls asleep without
mental health center and asked to be treated by a warning, sometimes during emotionally arousing
psychotherapist. The problem with this story is that situations. Which brain structure might be involved in
a. individuals with antisocial personality disorder do not such a disorder?
generally seek treatment. a. reticular formation
b. Lenny has misdiagnosed himself since his behaviors b. Thalamus
are more typical of conduct disorder. c. cerebrum
c. the drug use does not fit the pattern of antisocial d. occipital lobe
personality disorder.
d. the description does not fit any known personality 105. On the television show Saturday Night Live, a chef
disorder. character is known for his
obsessive cleanliness, orderliness, and perfectionism in
99. Mary has been married for 20 years and describes the kitchen. In what
how her husband has been verbally abusive toward her stage did this character become fixated?
for most of that time. She indicates that her husband a. phallic
has had multiple affairs with other women, but she can't b. oral
leave him because she "loves and needs him." When c. genital
challenged by the interviewer regarding the wisdom of d. Anal
staying with such a man, Mary agrees with the
interviewer, although she later confides that she always 106. If you learn an abnormal behavior (e. g.,
agrees with everyone to avoid conflict and disapproval. helplessness) by associating your actions with their
Mary should be diagnosed with ____________ environmental consequences (e. g., others take care of
personality disorder. your needs for you), what process accounts for this
a. avoidant b. histrionic learning?
c. dependent d. borderline a. respondent
b. operant
100. Ron is a 9-year-old boy recently diagnosed with c. classical
attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. His parents have d. Modeling
chosen a combined approach to treatment. If their
approach is based on what research suggests is most 107. An emphasis on the active information processing
effective, it will most likely involve of internal and environmental information is the primary
a. new experimental medications and behavior therapy. concern of the theories.
b. no medication but a combination of behavioral a. sociocultural
therapy and parent training. b. cognitive
c. medication such as Ritalin and behavior therapy. c. behavioral
d. medication such as Ritalin and psychoanalysis. d. Biological

101. Whether caused by naturalistic or demonic forces, 108. You are a psychologist who conceptualizes
if you joined a group of people jumping and dancing, depression as the result of frustrated attempts to

8 | Page
achieve one's potential for growth and congruence. c. involutional organic dementia
What theory guides your thinking? d. multiple personality disorder
a. cognitive
b. interpersonal 116. In Dr. Roediger's assessment report of her client,
c. humanistic Mara, where would Mara's diagnosis of "dissociative
d. Sociocultural identity disorder" be noted?
a. Axis I
109. In the 1920's, had a young woman worn a bikini to b. Axis II
a public beach, she might have been labeled as c. Axis III
"disordered". What definition applies in this case? d. Axis IV
a. deviation
b. subjective distress 117. If Axis III were not included in the DSM, which of
c. dysfunction the following diagnoses
d. Disruptive could you NOT list?
a. mental retardation
110. Dolf is a 58-year-old male who just married for the b. HIV/AIDS
first time and has decided to c. homelessness
go to medical school to become a neurosurgeon. The d. bipolar disorder
deviance definition of abnormality would define Dolf as
"disordered". What problem is reflected in 118. Erik is experiencing minor behavioral disturbances
his definition? following his family's move to a new state. A counselor
a. Failure to conform to social norms does not diagnosed him with separation anxiety disorder, which
necessarily reflect a mental was a false positive diagnosis. If Erik's disturbance
disorder. worsens as a result of this diagnosis, this would be an
b. It is unclear what level of personal distress Dolf is example of
experiencing. a. a stereotype.
c. This definition would fit only if Dolf is experiencing b. a polythetic error.
difficulty in everyday c. overpathologizing.
functioning. d. the self-fulfilling prophecy.
d. There is no evidence that Dolf has sought treatment
from a clinician. 119. Anorexia nervosa, an eating disorder, is much more
frequently diagnosed in females than in males. Based on
111. If you agreed with the most influential classification text information, which explanation below might best
system of the late 19th century, you would place all account for this difference?
disordered individuals into one of three categories. a. gender-related bias in the symptoms comprising the
These did NOT include anorexia nervosa syndrome
a. organic brain disorders. b. an actual gender-related psychosocial or biological
b. dementia praecox. difference
c. manic-depressive psychosis. c. gender-related diagnostic bias on the part of clinicians
d. Melancholia. d. b and c

112. In terms of lifetime prevalence, which of the 120. Dr. Youngman is studying the development of self-
following disorders is out of place? reliance in a group of 30
a. panic disorder children who were first observed at age 3 and have been
b. generalized anxiety disorder followed twice yearly for the past three years. What sort
c. schizophrenia of design does this represent?
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder a. prospective
b. retrospective
113. Physiological measures of blood pressure, muscle c. cross-sectional
tension, and skin conductance would be central to the d. Developmental
assessment of disorders.
a. anxiety 121. Which of the following characteristics is MOST
b. schizophrenic clearly related to potential for
c. dissociative violence?
d. depressive a. serious mental illness
b. active psychotic symptoms
114. Who proposed the first scientific classification c. lowSES
system for mental disorders? d. borderline intellectual functioning
a. Kraepelin
b. Griesinger 122. If a defendant's mental state is an issue in a court
c. Hippocrates case, it is necessary to first
d. the American Psychiatric Association determine before raising the question of .
a. intelligence; competence
115. What we now refer to as schizophrenia was termed b. competence; insanity
by Kraepelin. c. the adequacy of the McNaughton mle; the Durham
a. dementia praecox rule
b. manic-depressive psychosis d. wrongfulness; mental defect

9 | Page
 d. the host generally comes to therapy complaining of
123. Each time Sapna's client uses the explanation that depression, anxiety, or general unease and
she is "supposed" to be a dutiful daughter, Sapna asks Unhappiness.
her how she knows what she "should" be doing. Sapna's
challenges to her clients' belief system indicate that she 130. According to the psychodynamic view, Panic
is MOST likely using therapy. Disorder symptoms:
a. client-centered a. stems from unsuccessful repression of penis envy
b. interpersonal b. is a symbolic representation of repressed oral
c. psychodynamic aggressive impulses
d. rational emotive c. is internalized fear of rejection by the primary
caretaker
124. "I'll never find another person to love. No one will d. represents a reoccurrence of earlier separation
ever want me again." Beck anxiety
would characterize this depressed client's thought
process as 131. In the diathesis-stress model of mental illness:
a. negativistic. a. the diathesis is a sufficient condition, and the stress is
b. pessimistic. a necessary condition for the development
c. irrational. of the disorder.
d. Catastrophizing. b. the diathesis and the stress are each a necessary and
sufficient condition for the development of the
125. Veronica has given her client a pack of cigarettes disorder.
that will give him a mild electric shock each time he tries c. the diathesis and the stress are each a necessary, but
to take one out to smoke. Veronica is using not a sufficient, condition for the development of the
therapy to treat her client. disorder.
a. biofeedback D. None of the above.
b. aversion
c. response prevention 132. Which of the following was NOT one of the
d. object relations weaknesses we discussed concerning the use of a
purely sociocultural criterion to define pathological
126. Token economies were first successfully used in the abnormality
treatment of a. There is no agreement even within a culture of what
a. mental retardation. its standards for normal, acceptable behavior are.
b. severe depression. b. If we consider mental illness to be a real problem with
c. hyperactivity and antisocial behaviors. the brain or psyche, we cannot have culturally-relative
d. Schizophrenia. disorders.
c. Different cultures accept different behaviors.
127. For which of the following clients would you d. What a culture will accept varies from time to time.
recommend treatment via e. All of the above ARE weaknesses we discussed
systematic desensitization?
a. Heinz, who has a phobia of elevators 133. Systematic desensitization, flooding, and modeling
b. Amee, who has panic attacks are all therapeutic approaches that have been used to
c. Boris, who has generalized anxiety treat:
d. Hazel, who has a social phobia a. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
b. Specific Phobias
128. In discussing the cognitive bases of depression, c. Panic Disorder
Beck describes a systematic error in logic he d. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
calls arbitrary inference, e. None of the above
a. focusing on aspects of a situation that are most
consistent with the individual's negative views, 134. According to Freudian theory, which behavior
while ignoring other, more positive, elements. would suggest
b. drawing conclusions in the absence of or contrary to fixation at the anal stage?
evidence. A. Compulsive pursuit of gratification.
c. blowing the of significance of negative events out of B. A drive to "work and love."
proportion, while downplaying positive C. Hostility and suicidal tendencies.
events or accomplishments. D. Rigid over-control and hoarding.
d. basing far-reaching conclusions on single, minor
experiences or incidents. 135. A woman feels that she must wash her hands for
exactly 5
129. the relationship between the host and the alters in minutes after eating any food. This behavior is called:
DID we noted that: A. an obsession.
a. the host is typically not aware of the existence of the B. a compulsion.
alters. C. a delusion.
b. many alters do not believe themselves to be in need D. a specific phobia
of therapy.
c. the alters are often aware of each other, or at least of 136. Deidre has an incapacitating snake phobia. What
some subset of the others neurotransmitter may be unusually

10 | Page
low in her brain, leading to excessive limbic system disorder prevents them from knowing the difference
activity? between
a. GABA right and wrong?
b. dopamine A. The M'Naghten rule
Ec. serotonin B. The irresistible impulse test
d. Diazepine C. The Durham rule
D. The ALI guidelines
137. Carlito has been exhibiting inattentiveness and poor
concentration, decreased anxiety and little inhibition of 144. Children with _______________ Intellectual
his actions. It is possible that the neurotransmitter is Disability have very
than usual. limited vocabularies, speak in two- to three-word
a. serotonin; lower sentences,
b. norepinephrine; lower and have IQ scores between 20 and 35.
c. serotonin; higher A. mild
d. norepinephrine; higher B. moderate
C. severe
138. Schizophrenia usually has an onset D. Profound
A. in early childhood.
B. at the beginning of puberty, 145. Which of the following conduct disorder children is
C. in the early twenties. MOST
D. after age 30. likely to "grow out" of his disorder by the end of his
teenage
139. A depressed client being treated with cognitive years?
therapy came A. Billi, with a childhood onset at age 8
to her weekly session. While discussing her progress in B. Jackson, with a childhood onset at age 10
classes that week, she mentioned that she had the C. Ben, with an adolescent onset at age 12
highest D. none of the above; this disorder virtually always leads
grade in the class on the mid-term exam but insisted to adult disorders
this was
only a "fluke" and that she's really "incompetent" in the 146. The clinician's responsibility to notify a potential
course. Which of the following thinking errors is she victim of a
exhibiting? client's harmful intent toward that individual is referred
A. minimization to as:
B. personalization A. primary prevention.
C. arbitrary inference B. notification of intent.
D. Overgeneralization C. duty to warn.
D. legal commitment
140. When a patient no longer has the disorder, an
appropriate specifier would be? 147. A person who is so miserable that he or she can
A. Full remission see no
B. Relapse reason for living, BEST fits which of the following
C. Recovered definitions of
D. Prodromal stage abnormality?
A. deviance
141. Unconscious determinants of both normal and B. distress
abnormal behaviors are the central concern of C. dangerousness
a. ego analysts, D. Dysfunction
b. behavioral theories.
c. cognitive theories, 148. Dr. Jenny does not feel that she has the resources
d. Psychoanalysis. necessary
to effectively treat Jun’s condition so she gave Cindy the
142. Of the following, which best explains why bipolar name and phone number of another clinician. Dr. Jenny
disorder may provided Jun with:
be mistaken for schizophrenia? A. informed consent.
A. Psychotic delusions of grandeur or other delusions B. a referral.
can occur in both disorders C. the right to refuse treatment.
B. Both disorders are marked by episodes of major D. a mandated report
depression.
C. Functioning can become so impaired as to require 149. Proponents of which theoretical model propose that
psychiatric hospitalization people
D. Such a mistake is unlikely; the two disorders are with bulimia translate society's attitudes toward thinness
clearly different and have virtually no symptom overlap. into
extreme restraints and rigid rules about food?
143. Which of the following legal "tests" of insanity is A. Societal
based on the B. Psychodynamic
idea that people should not be judged guilty if a mental C. Family systems
D. Cognitive-behavioral

11 | Page
 disorders have reported that:
150. What is the term used for programs that are A. the disorders can be easily differentiated.
intended to B. features of these two disorders overlap.
minimize the physiological changes associated with C. both are genetically determined.
withdrawal from substances? D. they share the feature of hidden paranoia
A. Milieu
B. Therapeutic community 158. A diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires:
C. Alcoholics Anonymous A. the experience of a depressive episode.
D. Detoxification B. the experience of a manic episode.
C. a family history of mood disorder.
151. The legal principle that the state has the authority D. normal premorbid personality.
to protect
those who are unable to protect themselves is referred 159. Psychodynamic explanations of paranoid
to as: personality disorder
A. commitment. see the disorder as rooted in the defense mechanism of:
B. guardian ad litem. A. rationalization.
C. ad hominen. B. denial.
D. parens patriae C. projection.
D. reaction formation.
152. When a clinician is called on during court cases to
provide 160. Central to early psychodynamic explanations of
specialized information not commonly known by people depression is
outside the mental health profession, he/she is the notion of:
considered to A. "loss" at an unconscious level.
be a(n): B. disordered thinking patterns.
A. guardian ad litem. C. lack of positive reinforcement.
B. expert witness. D. regression to an egoless state.
C. parens patriae.
D. impartial party. 161. Which theoretical perspective views the causes of
phobias to
153. Fetishism appears to develop in a way similar to be based on the individual's faulty inferences and
exhibitionism in that: generalizations?
A. most people with fetishism were sexually abused as A. Cognitive
children. B. Humanistic
B. early life experiences result in a connection between C. Existential
sexual arousal and the behavior. D. Psychoanalytic
C. brain damage early in life appears to cause certain
paraphilias. 162. Why is confidentiality important?
D. these paraphilias are commonly associated with A. It is necessary in order for clients to feel comfortable
sexual dysfunction. disclosing intimate details about themselves.
B. It is important for the clients to feel confident about
154. Joyce believes that her heart is being eaten away improvement in their condition.
by worms, a C. It is a courtesy that has been brought about by the
delusion that fits into the category called: traditions of secrecy in the confessional.
A. somatic. D. Most clients are collecting medical benefits and fear
B. persecutory. that
C. insertion. if their bosses find out that they will lose the money.
D. Nihilistic.
163. What type of panic attack is an essential element of
155. Which of the following is the key feature of the
paraphilias? diagnosis of panic disorder?
A. The object of desire must be an inanimate object. A. Situationally bound
B. They must involve abnormal physiological functioning. B. Situationally predisposed
C. They must be short-term conditions. C. Agoraphobic
D. There must be a dependence on the sexual target for D. Unexpected
arousal.
164. What term is used to describe the factors that play
156. Compared with people with avoidant personality a role in causing a disease?
disorder, a. Prevalence
those with schizoid personality disorder: b. Resiliency
A. do not wish to have relationships. c. Etiology
B. wish to have relationships. d. Classification
C. often suffer from a mood disorder.
D. often are diagnosed with an Axis I disorder 165. Decades ago, psychiatrists in what was then the
Russia announced the discovery of a form of mental
157. Researchers studying narcissistic and histrionic illness whose main symptoms included paranoid distrust
personality of authority, and continuing criticisms of the

12 | Page
government. This case illustrates one problem in using
the criterion of __________ to define mental disorder.
a. personal distress c. adaptiveness
b. statistical criteria d. social deviance
166.Which of the following is NOT a major criterion for
distinguishing psychopathology from normalcy?
a. whether or not the individual's behavior is socially
undesirable or unacceptable
b. whether or not the individual is disturbed or
distressed by his own behavior or thinking.
c. whether or not the individual deviates from the
statistical norm with respect to some aspect of
d. psychological functioning.
e. all of the above are major criteria for
psychopathology.
167.For the past three months, Tom's speech has been
gradually deteriorating and becoming incoherent, and he
has been exhibiting purposeless and stereotyped
behaviors. His symptoms at this point are not extremely
active. In what phase of schizophrenia might Tom be at
this point?
a. Residual phase c. Remission
phase
b. Active phase d. Prodromal
phase
168.Individuals with anterograde amnesia suffer
memory loss:
a. due to a traumatic emotional experience.
b. as a result of epilepsy.
c. for events prior to their amnesia.
d. for new events that take place after the amnesia.
169.Panic disorder in women is associated with what
early childhood experience?
a. Parental illness and substance abuse
b. Overachieving school performance
c. Overindulgence by parental figures
d. Supportive family environment
170. Why does it make sense to view addiction as a
mental disorder?
a. Because the symptoms are behavioral
b. Because substance abuse often develops as an
attempt to self-medicate negative mood states
c. Because the most effective treatments are
psychological not medical
d. Because neurochemical imbalances underlie the
problem behaviors
171. Unlike psychoactive substance abuse, psychoactive
substance dependence usually involves
a. the pathological use of the substance involved
b. the use of illegal substance that laws prohibit one
from buying or using
c. physiological symptoms such as tolerance and/or
withdrawal
d. continued substance use despite social and
occupational problems
172. People with depersonalization disorder:
a. have more than one personality.
b. feel as though they are not real.
c. forget details about personal identity.
d. fabricate disturbance to get secondary gain.
173. gradual deterioration of behavior occurs during late
adolescence, suggesting that an individual is
experiencing:
a. prodromal signs of schizophrenia.
b. the residual phase of schizophrenia.
c. schizoaffective disorder.
d. a delusional disorder.
174. All of the following are groups of deficits in autism
except:
a. Activities and interests c. Social
interactions
b. Communication d. Inattention
175. Mr. K has disorganized schizophrenia, Mr. J has
major depression with psychotic features, while Mr. M
has schizoaffective disorder. Which of them will have a
better prognosis?
a. Mr. K c. Mr. M
b. Mr. J d. All have equally poor
prognosis
176. A psychometrician suspects that her client may be
malingering and may not actually have a true amnestic
disorder despite reports of severe memory impairment.
She might consider each of the following to help her
make the distinction EXCEPT:
a. performance on the Mini-Mental Status Exam.
b. inconsistent performance on systematic memory
assessment.
c. presence or absence of a supporting medical
condition.
d. presence of financial gain to the client as a result of
the diagnosis.
177. Regarding personality disorders, its resistance to
change may be explained by the following except:
a. strong genetic component
b. comorbidity with other disorders such as depression
c. ego-syntonic tendencies
d. tendency to blame others regarding their problems
178.In discussing the psychodynamic model of mental
disorder we noted that:
a. the model assumes that the processes that lead to
disorder are the same processes thatcnormally produce
or maintain order in our lives.
b. disorders that the model seems to handle particularly
well include the anxiety disorders and the dissociative
disorders.
c. the model argues that mental disorder results from
internal, unconscious conflicts.
d. treatments suggested by the model typically involves
bringing buried
e. conflict into consciousness.
f. all of the above
179. The notion that individuals with certain anxiety
disorders pay more attention to potentially
threatening stimuli is part of the ______________ model
of anxiety disorders.
a. trauma-dissociation
b. interoceptive conditioning
c. attributional bias
d. catastrophic appraisal
e. none of the above
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180. According to the cognitive model of
Hypochondriasis that we discussed the individual
a. is high in neuroticism.
b. tends to interpret all events as negative, or even
catastrophic.
c. tends to internalize the physical suffering of others.
d. misinterprets emotional arousal as illness.
e. more than one of the above
181. In discussing behavioral models of Somatoform
Disorders (SD) we noted that:
a. behaviorists suggest that positive reinforcement of SD
symptoms by others may lead to
gratification of the patient's needs for love and attention.
b. there is no clear behavioral model of somatoform
disorders.
c. behaviorists stress the role of secondary gain in the
development and maintenance of SD symptoms.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
182. In discussing the epidemiology of Major
Depressive Disorder we noted that:
a. it is more likely to be diagnosed in adolescence and
early adulthood than after age 25.
b. the lifetime prevalence of Major Depression in females
is about 15%
c. it is more commonly diagnosed in individuals with low
socioeconomic status (i.e., low income and
education)
d. it is more commonly diagnosed in females than in
males.
e. All of the above
183. Which of the following is NOT one of the common
symptoms of depression?
a. low energy or fatigue
b. poor appetite or overeating
c. anhedonia
d. sleep disturbances
e. All of the above ARE common symptoms of
depression
184. According to Seligman's learned hopelessness
model of depression:
a. the individual sees the cause of negative events as
something about themselves that is stable and
persistent.
b. the individual interprets negative events as being
caused by something internal to the person,
rather than being caused by something external about
the situation itself.
c. the individual sees the cause of negative events as
something about themselves that affects a wide
range of their lives, rather than being specific to one
event.
d. all of the above
e. a and c only
185. The distinction between Major Depression and
Bipolar Disorder is that in Bipolar Disorders:
a. there are, or have been, periods when the individual
was completely free of symptoms.
b. the period between depressive episodes is shorter
than in Major Depression.
c. there is an alternation between depressive and manic
episodes
d. there are, or have been, manic episodes
e. None of the above
186. We are most likely to give the diagnostic label
Cyclothymic Disorder to symptoms that don't meet the
full
a. Dissociative Identity Disorder
b. Major Depression
c. Bipolar Disorder
d. Somatization Disorder
e. None of the above
187. An individual whose symptoms include both
extreme avolition and extreme anhedonia is most likely
to be described as having which general class of
disorder?
a. Anxiety Disorders
b. Somatic Disorders
c. Depressive Disorders
d. Schizophrenia
e. Dissociative Disorders
188. One important distinction in the description of
schizophrenia is between positive and negative
symptoms. Which of the following lists contains ONLY
POSITIVE symptoms?
a. incoherent speech, poverty of speech, anhedonia
b. hallucinations, delusions, bizarre behavior
c. catatonia, avolition, flattened affect
d. disorganized behavior, delusions, poverty of speech
e. None of the above
189. One important distinction in the description of
schizophrenia is between positive and negative
symptoms. Which of the following lists contains ONLY
NEGATIVE symptoms?
a. incoherent speech, poverty of speech, anhedonia
b. anhedonia, flattened affect, poverty of speech
c. catatonia, avolition, flattened affect
d. hallucinations, delusions, bizarre behavior
e. None of the above
190. According to Freud's psychoanalytic model,
Schizophrenia results from:
a. a strong and punishing superego that intrudes its
negative commentary into consciousness.
b. an attachment of libido to the ego, causing the
individual to confuse internal and external
experiences.
c. a withdrawal of libido into the self, causing the
individual to be unable to relate to others.
d. an excess of anticathexes against id impulses, leaving
too little libido for the ego to function
effectively.
e. none of the above
191. One important distinction in the description of
schizophrenia is between positive and negative
symptoms.
Which of the following lists contains ONLY NEGATIVE
symptoms?
a. incoherent speech, poverty of speech, anhedonia
b. anhedonia, flattened affect, poverty of speech
c. catatonia, avolition, flattened affect
d. hallucinations, delusions, bizarre behavior
14 | Page
e. None of the above C. Symptoms keep internal conflict out of conscious
awareness
192. According to the psychodynamic view, Specific D. Underlying emotional conflicts into physical symptoms
Phobias involve a combination of two defense
mechanisms: 200. Asking past events to the client is to test his/her:
a. projection and reaction formation A. Memory
b. displacement and projection B. Orientation
c. projection and rationalization C. Insight
d. displacement and reaction formation. D. Judgement

193. The first edition of the American Psychiatric

Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
Disorders (DSM) was published in:
a. 1965
b. 1848
c. 1958
d. 1952
e. none of the above

194. Based on this belief that a person’s behavior

(whether normal or abnormal) is determined largely by
underlying dynamic psychological forces of which she or
he is not aware
A. Psychodynamic
B. Psychoanalysis
C. Humanistic
D. Cognitive

195. It is based on the idea that our normal and

abnormal actions are determined largely by our life
experiences
A. Psychodynamic
B. Cognitive
C. Behavioral
D. Biological

196. Maladaptive thinking is the cause of maladaptive

behavior. This is based from the notion of:
A. Cognitive
B. Behavioral
C. Psychodynamic
D. Humanistic

197. Psychological dysfunction is caused by self-

deception: people hide from life’s responsibilities and fail
to recognize that it is up to them to give meaning to
their lives:
A. Humanistic-existential
B. Humanistic
C. Exitential
D. Cognitive

198. The socially accepted prejudice against overweight

people may also add to the “fear” and preoccupation
about weight. This according to what factor that cause
eating disorder:
A. Biological
B. Sociocultural
C. Psychodynamic
D. None of the above

199. Which of the following best explain Somatic

Symptoms Disorder according to Behavioral perspective?
A. Physical symptoms of this disorder bring rewards to
the sufferer.
B. This disorder is form of communication, providing to
means to express their feelings

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