DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GTA
EPFO GENERAL ABILITY
Serial :230515
TEST – 13 A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks :300

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR DAS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.83) of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

(1-A)
SIA-A-GAT
 (2-A)
SIA-A-GAT
 PART – A

1. Which one of the following statements about 3. Which one of the following statements with
regard to the provision for ‘Welfare Officer’ is
industrial relations is NOT correct?
NOT correct?
(a) Industrial relations have to be managed in
(a) This provision is given in the Factories Act
the interest of maintaining a viable 1948

collaborative structure (b) This provision, in case of Mines and

Plantations, is given in the central rules of
(b) Formulation of rules by consensus and
these two Acts but not in the main Acts
their implementation are core to industrial
(c) For factories and plantations this provision
relations is applicable when 500 or more workers are
employed
(c) The pluralistic framework looks employee
(d) In mines this provision is made applicable
participation in industrial relations from a
when 500 or more workers are employed
disintegrative perspective

(d) The radicalists consider industrial relations

4. In India, which one of the following systems
in a distributive sense prevails in respect of adjudication in industrial
disputes?

(a) Voluntary reference and voluntary

2. The Industrial Disputes Bill 1947 observed that acceptance of the award
‘industrial peace will be most enduring where it (b) Voluntary reference but compulsory
acceptance of the award
is founded on voluntary settlement’. Which one
(c) Compulsory reference but voluntary
of the following machineries under the
acceptance of the award
Industrial Disputes Act 1947 was created for (d) Discretionary reference and compulsory

this purpose? acceptance of the award

(a) Works Committee

5. ‘Audi alterampartem’ is associated with:
(b) Board of Conciliation (a) Strikes.

(c) Court of Enquiry (b) Disciplinary action.

(c) Trade Union.

(d) Labour Court
(d) Closure.

(3-A)
SIA-A-GAT
6. Under the provisions of the Trade Union Act 10. Under the Maternity Benefit Act 1961, what is
1926, what is the maximum time period for the minimum number of days a woman
which the members of the executive and other employee must have worked under an employer
office bearers of a trade union shall be elected? in the twelve months preceding the date of
expected delivery for becoming eligible for
(a) One year
maternity benefit?
(b) Two years
(a) 90 days
(c) Four years (b) 80 days
(d) Three years (c) 180 days

(d) 240 days

7. Provision related to Recognition of the Trade

union is provided under 11. Who among the following is NOT a dependent
(a) Trade Union Act, 1926 (A)Sec 10 A under the provisions of the Employees’
Compensation Act 1923?
(b) Trade Union (Amendment} Act, 2001
(a) A widower
(c) Trade Union (Amendment) Act 1947*
(b) An adult widowed sister
(d) Trade Union (Amendment) Act 1964
(c) A parent other than a widowed mother

(d) A widowed daughter – in – law

8. What is the limitation period for filing a direct

application by the workman to the labour

12. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes
court under Section 2A of the Industrial
Act 1947, the average pay for a monthly paid
Diaputea Act.1947?
workman means the average of the:
(a) 6 month
(a) wages payable in six completed calendar
(b) 1 year months preceding the date on which the
(c) 3 years average pay becomes payable.
(d) 4 years
(b) wages payable in three completed calendar
months preceding the date on which the
9. Voluntary reference of Dispute to ‘Arbitration average pay becomes payable.
Under The Industrial Disputes Act 1947 is
(c) wages payable in four completed calendar
stated in
months preceding the date on which the
(a) Sec 10A
average pay becomes payable.
(b) Sec 9A
(d) wages payable in twelve completed calendar
(c) Sec 9B
months preceding the date on which the
(d) Sec 9C
average pay becomes payable.

(4-A)
SIA-A-GAT
13. What is the time period within which the 16. What is the share of women representatives in
Grievance Redressal Committee constituted the Advisory Committee to be constituted
under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes
under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
Act 1947 is to complete its proceedings on
receipt of a written application by or on behalf (a) One half of the total members
of the aggrieved party?
(b) One third of the total members
(a) 15 days
(c) One fourth of the total members
(b) 21 days

(c) 30 days (d) Three fourth of the total member

(d) 45 days

17. Who out of the following do NOT fall in the

14. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes
definition of ‘unorganized worker’ under the
Act 1947, what is the time period within which
Unorganized Workers’ Social Security Act,
the appropriate Government has to publish the
award of a Labour Court, Industrial Tribunal 2008?
and National Tribunal from the date of receipt
(a) Self employed worker
of the same?

(a) Thirty days (b) Wage worker

(b) Sixty days (c) Contract worker

(c) Ninety days

(d) Home based worker
(d) Forty five days

18. As per the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, ‘An

15. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes
Act 1947, which one of the following is interim or a final determination of any

considered to be retrenchment? industrial dispute or of any question relating

(a) Voluntary retirement of a workman thereto by any Labour Court, Industrial

(b) Termination of services of a workman, Tribunal or National Tribunal and includes an

otherwise than as punishment inflicted by arbitration award made under Section 10A’ can
way of disciplinary action
be termed as:
(c) Termination of service of workman on the
ground of ill health (a) Award

(d) Termination of service of a workman as a (b) Bipartite settlement

result of non-renewal of contract of
(c) Judicial agreement
employment between the employer and
workman concerned on its expiry (d) Conciliation

(5-A)
SIA-A-GAT
19. Right to collective bargaining between
employers and workers in India is:
(a) a Constitutional right.
(b) voluntary under labour law.
(c) obligatory under labour law.
(d) a fundamental right
20. Voluntary arbitration is a statutory recognized
mode of settlement of dispute under:
(a) Trade Union Act, 1926
(b) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(c) Factories Act, 1948
(d) Employee Compensation Act, 1923
21. The term ‘Protected Workmen’ is defined in:
(a) Trade Union Act 1926.
(b) Industrial Disputes Act 1947.
(c) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition)
Act 1970.
(d) Building and Other Construction Workers
(Regulation of Employment and Conditions
of Service) Act 1996.
22. The provisions of the Payment of Wages Act
1936 shall be made applicable to an employed
person drawing a monthly wages
exceeding:
(a) Rs. 18,000
(b) Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 12,000
(d) Rs. 15,000
SIA-A-GAT
23. Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages
Act 1936, the total amount of fine that may be
imposed in any one wage period on any
employed person shall NOT exceed an amount
equal to:
(a) Four per cent of wages
(b) Five per cent of wages
(c) Three per cent of wages
(d) Six per cent of wages
24. Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages
Act 1936, NO fine shall be imposed on any
employed person who is under the age of:
(a) Fifteen years.
(b) Sixteen years.
(c) Seventeen years.
(d) Eighteen years.
25. Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages
Act 1936, fine imposed on any employed person
can NOT be recovered after expiry of how many
days from the day it was imposed?
(a) One hundred days
(b) Ninety days
(c) One hundred and twenty days
(d) One hundred and eighty days
NOT 26. Under the provisions of the Minimum Wages
Act 1948, which one of the following is a
component of ‘Wages’?
(a) Value of house accommodation
(b) Value of medical attendance
(c) Travelling allowance
(d) House rent allowance
(6-A)
27. What is the extent of representation of 30. According to Trade Union Act, 1926, for which
independent persons in the Committees and one of the following purposes, the general funds
Sub-Committees constituted under the of a registered trade union may NOT be spent?
provisions of the Minimum Wages Act 1948?
(a) The conduct of trade disputes on behalf of
(a) One- half of the total members the trade union or any of its members

(b) One-fourth of the total members (b) The compensation of members for loss

(c) One-third of the total members arising out of trade disputes

(c) The maintenance of any person who is a

(d) Two-thirds of the total members
member of any legislative body constituted
under the Constitution or any local
28. Under the provisions of the Minimum Wages authority
Act 1948, which one of the following bodies is
(d) Allowances to +members or their
appointed by the appropriate Government for
dependents on account of death, old age,
the purpose of coordinating the works of the
sickness or unemployment
Committees and Sub-Committees and for
advising the appropriate Government in
matters of fixing and revising minimum wages?

(a) State Advisory Council

(b) Advisory Board

(c) State Monitoring Authority

(d) State Advisory and Monitoring Board

29. Under the provisions of the Contract Labour

(Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970, how many
members may be nominated by the Central
Government while constituting the Central
Advisory Board?

(a) Not exceeding seventeen but not less than

eleven

(b) Not exceeding fifteen but not less than ten

(c) Not exceeding twenty but not less than

fifteen

(d) Not exceeding eleven but not less than seven

(7-A)
SIA-A-GAT
 PART – B

31. Consider the following statements regarding 34. In terms of sheer numbers and value, most
“Carbon Capture, Utilization, and Storage electoral bonds sold since the introduction of
Policy Framework and its Deployment the scheme five years ago have been in
Mechanism in India”.
(a) Kolkata
1. It was released by the Ministry of (b) Hyderabad
Environment in India.
(c) Mumbai
2. It will help India achieve its net zero target
(d) Delhi
by 2070 by enabling the production of clean
value-added products despite utilizing coal.
3. It suggests CCUS technology for 35. Ela Bhatt, noted Gandhian, leading women’s
decarbonizing carbon dioxide (CO2) from empowerment activist, was associated with
high polluting sectors such as steel,
cement, oil, gas, petrochemicals, chemicals (a) Narmada Bachao Andholan

and fertilizers. (b) Chipko Movement

(c) Childline Foundation
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Self-Employed Women’s Association
correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 36. Section 8 of the Representation of the People
(c) 2 and 3 only Act (RPA), 1951, contains provisions for
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Declaring educational qualifications by the
legislators
32. Which one of the following organized the Global (b) Declaring personal assets and property by
Technology Summit in 2022 in India? the legislators
(a) Ministry of External Affairs (c) Limiting the electoral expenses by the
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology candidates
(c) NITI Aayog (d) Decriminalizing electoral politics
(d) Ministry of Innovation

37. During the elections in India Electronically

33. The Agnikul Cosmos is recently seen in the Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS), has
news in the context of been proposed to which of the following
(a) First robotics for Organ transplantation category?
(b) First Private satellite launchpad of India
(a) Armed Forces personnel
(c) First Producer of machine for manual
(b) Persons aged above 80
scavenging
(c) Government employees
(d) First producer of malaria vaccine in India
(d) NRI Voters

(8-A)
SIA-A-GAT
38. Consider the following statements regarding 42. As per the World Intellectual Property
the sealed cover jurisprudence in India. Indicators 2022, the top two countries with
1. It is a practice used by the courts of asking highest number of patent filings are
for or accepting information from
(a) Israel and USA
government agencies
2. It is clearly mentioned in the Indian (b) South Korea and Japan

Constitution and the Parliament also (c) India and China

enacted a law in this regard. (d) England and Germany
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
43. Which one of the following recently released a
(a) 1 only
paper titled “Illegal Wildlife Trade and Climate
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Change: Joining the dots”?
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(a) International Union for Conservation of
Nature
39. Justice Sri Krishna Committee, often seen in
(b) Convention on International Trade in
news, is related with
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
(a) Sub-categorisation of OBCs
Flora
(b) Fixing the interest rate for small savings
(c) United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime
(c) Framing new AI rules for India
(d) Setting out a data protection law (d) Interpol

40. Which of the following received this year’s 44. Consider the following statements regarding
Award of Excellence in UNESCO Asia-Pacific
Leith’s Softshell Turtle.
Awards for Cultural Heritage Conservation?
1. It is a large fresh water soft shelled turtle
(a) Monuments of Mahabalipuram
(b) Taj Mahal, Agra 2. It inhabits only oceans and seas

(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu 3. It is endemic to peninsular India.

Sangrahalaya
Which of the statements given above are
(d) Jantar Mantar in Jaipur
correct?

41. The Muscat Ministerial Manifesto of 2022 is (a) 1 and 2 only

related with which of the following? (b) 1 and 3 only

(a) Relaxation of patent for covid vaccines (c) 2 and 3 only

(b) Increasing the crude oil production (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Antimicrobial Resistance
(d) Ban on Chemical weapons

(9-A)
SIA-A-GAT
45. The Loss and Damage fund is related with 49. Consider the following statements regarding
which one of the following? the Koronivia Joint Work on Agriculture.

(a) World Bank 1. It is a landmark decision under the United

Nations Framework Convention on Climate
(b) International Monetary Fund
Change (UNFCCC).
(c) World Trade Organization
2. It aims to minimize greenhouse gas
(d) None of the above is correct
emissions from the agriculture sector.
3. India was the founder signatory to this
agreement held in November 2022.
46. Who is set to take over the chair of the Global
Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) for Which of the statements given above are

2022-23? correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(a) Germany
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) Japan
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) India
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Israel

50. The first-ever World Wildlife Trade Report was

47. Which state is to get India’s first Marina? recently released by which of the following?

(a) Kerala (a) International Union for Conservation of

Nature
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Convention on International Trade in
(c) Tamilnadu Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
(d) Karnataka Flora
(c) Convention on Biological Diversity
(d) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
48. Consider the following statements regarding Change
the Bali yatra festival.

1. It commemorates the 2,000-year-old

51. With respect to Lachit Barphukan, recently
maritime and cultural links between India seen in news, which one of the following
and West Asia. statements is correct?
2. It is considered to be one of Asia's largest
(a) He was a military commander in the Ahom
open trade fairs held in Odisha. Kingdom in 17th century.
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) He was a social reformer in the 20th century

correct? in the North West region

(c) He was the first one to oppose the British in
(a) 1 only the 19th in the coastal Karnataka region
(b) 2 only (d) He was the first person to resist the
(c) Both 1 and 2 invasion of Mughal kingdom in the Maratha
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2 regions.

(10-A)
SIA-A-GAT
52. Which of the following states have notified the 2. The marriage of any two persons may be
Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act solemnized under this Act, subject to the
rules or PESA Rules in their states?
man having completed 21 years of age and
1. Madhya Pradesh
the woman 18.
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Jharkhand Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Odisha
correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(d) None of the above states

53. The verdict by the supreme court in the Janhit 56. The Global Dashboard for Vaccine Equity is an
Abhiyan v Union of India case of 2022 is related effort by
with
1. United Nations Development Programme
(a) Allowing the women into the Sabari Malai
2. World Health Organization
temple
(b) Upholding the reservation for Economically 3. University of Oxford
Weaker Sections
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) Fixing the appointment procedure for
Election Commissioner of India below
(d) Decriminalising the same sex marriages
(a) 2 only

(b) 1 only
54. In 2023, the G20 troika consists of
(c) 1 and 2 only
(a) Indonesia, India and Brazil
(d) All the above
(b) Indonesia, India and Egypt
(c) Indonesia, India and South Africa
(d) Indonesia, India and Russia 57. Since the Covid Pandemic 2020, who is the

largest buyer of Gold in the World?

55. Consider the following statements regarding (a) China

the Special Marriage Act, 1954. (b) India
1. It was enacted to facilitate the marriage of (c) USA
couples professing different faiths and
(d) Japan
preferring a civil wedding.

(11-A)
SIA-A-GAT
58. Which one of the following statements is correct 62. Consider the following statements regarding
regarding the concept of Greenwashing? the e-Rupee.

(a) To present misleading or dubious claims 1. It is an electronic version of cash in the form
about their climate action of a digital token
(b) To support the developing countries for 2. It is the Central Bank Digital Currency
Green Economy (CBDC) issued by the Reserve Bank of India
(c) To assuring for the carbon neutral economy (RBI).
by 2030 3. It will be used only for the wholesale
(d) To assuring for complete switchover to transactions and not for the retail
clean energy transactions.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?
59. The Climate Change Performance Index 2023
was recently released by (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) United Nations Environment Program
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (d) 1, 2 and 3

(c) Paris Climate Change Convention

(d) None of the above
63. Consider the following statements regarding
the Nilgiri Tahr.

60. Who has become the 11th Member of the 1. It is endemic to the northern portion of the
Association of Southeast Asian Nations Western Ghats in Karnataka and
(ASEAN)? Maharashtra.
2. The species has been listed as Endangered
(a) Taiwan
(b) East Timor in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
3. Due to the numerous threats, it is protected
(c) South Korea
under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection)
(d) Papua New Guinea
Act of India, 1972.

Which of the statements given above is/are

61. The Montreal Conference of 2022 is related
correct?
with which of the following?
(a) 1 only
(a) Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF)
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) Climate Change Agreement (CCA)
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Money laundering Framework
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Global Vaccine Platform

(12-A)
SIA-A-GAT
64. Consider the following statements regarding 66. The Stay Safe Online campaign & Digital
the Delimitation process in India. Innovation Alliance was recently launched by
1. It is the act of redrawing boundaries of Lok
(a) G20
Sabha and state Assembly seats to
(b) BRICS
represent changes in population.
(c) SCO
2. It is carried out by the Election commission
of India alone. (d) G7

3. The Delimitation Commission is appointed

by the President of India and works in
collaboration with the Election Commission 67. The Zeliangrong United Front (ZUF) is an

of India. insurgent group very active at

4. Under Article 82, the Parliament is to enact
(a) Meghalaya
a Delimitation Act after every Census.
(b) Manipur
Which of the statements given above are
(c) Mizoram
correct?
(d) Nagaland
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 68. The Amrit Bharat Station Scheme mainly aims
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 at

(a) Introduce the speedy Vande Bharat trains

65. The Labour Ministry of India is currently in India
mulling to shift from the “minimum wages” to
(b) Modernize railway stations across India
“living wages”. In this regard, consider the
(c) Eliminate the diesel rail engines with
following statements.
Electric engines
1. The Minimum wage is defined as the
(d) Eliminate the all-manual railway crossings
minimum income necessary for workers to
across the country
meet their basic necessities.
2. The living wage is the lowest amount of
money a laborer can earn as mandated by
69. The Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Power Project
the law.
was built for
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) Bhutan

(a) 1 only (b) Nepal

(b) 2 only (c) Bangladesh

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Myanmar
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(13-A)
SIA-A-GAT
70. Consider the following statements regarding 73. The Nine Charts 2022 report was recently
the National Archives of India. released by

1. It is the repository of all non-current (a) International Monetary Fund

government records that can be used by (b) World Bank
administrators and scholars. (c) World Trade Organization
2. It comes under the aegis of the Union (d) World Economic Forum
Ministry of Culture.
3. It was established in 1947 after India
74. Consider the following statements regarding
attains its Independence.
the Asian Giant Tortoises.
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. It is listed as “critically endangered” on the
correct? International Union for Conservation of
(a) 1 only Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species.
(b) 1 and 2 only 2. In India, the Nagaland Zoological Park has
(c) 2 and 3 only the highest number of Asian Giant
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Tortoises

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
71. Which of the following statements regarding the
(a) 1 only
Rushikulya river, is/are correct?
(b) 2 only
1. It is one of the major rivers in the state of
(c) Both 1 and 2
West Bengal.
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
2. The large-scale nesting of olive ridley sea
turtles was taking place near the mouth of
the Rushikulya River. 75. Consider the following statements regarding
the Social Progress Index (SPI).
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below 1. It was recently released by the NITI Aayog.
2. The index assesses states and districts
(a) 1 only
based on 12 components across three
(b) 2 only
critical dimensions of social progress -
(c) Both 1 and 2
Basic Human Needs, Foundations of
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
Wellbeing, and Opportunity.
3. In this Puducherry has the highest SPI
72. The Project Vaani is recently launched by score in the country.
(a) Archeological survey of India Which of the statements given above is/are

(b) Indian Institute of Sciences, Bengaluru correct?

(c) Indian Institute of Technology, Madras (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) All India Radio
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

(14-A)
SIA-A-GAT
76. Recently the International Energy Agency (IEA) Which of the statements given above is/are
released the report “Coal 2022: Analysis and correct?
Forecast to 2025”. In this regard, consider the
(a) 1 only
following statements.
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. The domestic production of coal in India is (c) 2 and 3 only
expected to surpass a billion tonnes by
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2025
2. India and China are the largest producers,
consumers, and importers of coal. 79. The Youth Co: Lab
3. India and China are the only two countries
1. Empowers youth to accelerate the
in the world that witnessed a surge in
implementation of the Sustainable
investment in coal mine assets
Development Goals (SDGs) through
Which of the statements given above is/are leadership, social innovation, and
correct? entrepreneurship.
(a) 1 only 2. Is the largest youth innovation movement in
(b) 1 and 2 only the Asia Pacific
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. Is launched jointly by the NITI Aayog and
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the United Nations Development Program
(UNDP).
77. Who is the first to introduce the Carbon Border
Select the correct answer using the codes given
Tax in the World?
below
(a) India
(a) 1 only
(b) European Union
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) United States of America
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Japan
(d) 1, 2 and 3

78. Consider the following statements regarding

80. The 2022 Global Food Security Index (GFSI)
the Great Barrier Reef.
report was released by
1. It is the world’s largest coral reef system
(a) Global Food Safety Initiative
2. It is located off the coast of Queensland in
(b) International Food Policy Research
Australia.
Institute
3. It is suffering major bleaching events
because of the raising ocean temperatures (c) World Food Program

caused by climate change. (d) The Economist

(15-A)
SIA-A-GAT
81. India’s first indigenously developed vaccine, Select the correct answer using the codes given
“CERVAVAC”, is used for below

(a) Covid 19 (a) 1 only

(b) Cervical cancer (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Malaria (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Dengue (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
.

82. Which state recently became the first state in 86. Consider the following statements regarding
India to launch its own climate change the term Hyper-globalisation.
mission?
1. It is used to describe the dramatic increase
(a) Kerala in international trade witnessed from the
(b) Meghalaya
early 1990s.
(c) Tamilnadu
2. It believes that globalisation is happening
(d) Gujarat
and there is an emergence of a homogenous
global culture.
83. The Singapore Declaration 2022, is recently 3. It is believed that China is a complete
seen in the context of opposite to this concept.

(a) World Health organization Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) International Labour Organization correct?
(c) World Economic Forum (a) 1 only
(d) United Nations Environment Program (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only

84. Which one of the following statements (d) 1, 2 and 3

regarding the terms, Meizotropis pellita,

Fritilloria cirrhosa and Dactylorhiza hatagirea, 87. At present, which of the following parties will
is correct? not be considered the National Party in India?
(a) New variants of Covid 19 found in India 1. Aam Aadmi Party
(b) Medicinal plant species in the Himalayas 2. Trinamool Congress
(c) New vaccines for Dengue in India 3. Nationalist Congress Party
(d) New bacteria found in Himalayas 4. Communist Party of India

Select the correct answer using the codes given

85. The Wildlife Protection Act provides for the below
establishment of which of the following?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. National and State Board for Wildlife (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. Central Zoo Authority (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
4. National Green Tribunal

(16-A)
SIA-A-GAT
88. Consider the following statements 91. The Genome Valley, the first world-class
Biotech cluster in India, was recently
1. Goblin Mode is selected as the Oxford’s
established in
2022 Word of the Year.
2. Ukraine President Volodymyr Zelensky was (a) Mumbai
chosen as the 2022 Person of the Year by (b) Jaipur
the Time Magazine. (c) Hyderabad
(d) Ahmedabad
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
92. Which one is the first district in India to register
(a) 1 only
10000 new MSMEs (Micro, Small, Medium
(b) 2 only
Enterprises)?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (a) Coimbatore
(b) Mumbai
(c) Lucknow
89. The report titled “Global Status of Black Soils” (d) Ernakulam
was released by

(a) Convention on Biological Diversity

93. Which union ministry is the top buyer of the
(b) International Union of Soil Sciences
goods from MSME sector (Micro, Small,
(c) Food and Agriculture Organization
Medium Enterprises) in 2022?
(d) United Nations Forum on Forests
(a) Union Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Union ministry of Defence
90. Consider the following statements regarding (c) Union Ministry of Heavy Industries
the ChatGPT. (d) Union Ministry of Finance

1. It is a chatbot powered by artificial

intelligence that can be used to ask queries. 94. Consider the following statements regarding
2. It was developed and released by the Google Atal pension Yojana.
itself.
1. The Maximum target of enrollment under
3. It is a natural language processing (NLP)
this scheme is one crore only.
model that works using a large corpus of 2. It is targeted only at the unorganized sector.
conversational data. 3. It is administered by Pension Fund
4. It was also trained using Reinforcement Regulatory and Development Authority
Learning from Human Feedback. (PFRDA).
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(17-A)
SIA-A-GAT
 98. Consider the following statements regarding

95. The Annual Death penalty report in India is the All-India Survey on Higher Education

released by (AISHE), 2020-2021.

(a) Central Bureau of Investigation 1. Enrolment in higher education decreased to

(b) Supreme Court 1 crore for the first time, due to covid
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs impact.
(d) Project 39A
2. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu,

Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Rajasthan

96. Consider the following statements regarding are the top 6 States in terms of number of
Trans-fat.
students enrolled.
1. Trans fat, or trans-fatty acids, are 3. Highest number of universities is in
unsaturated fatty acids that come from Rajasthan (92), Uttar Pradesh (84) and
either natural or industrial sources. Gujarat (83).
2. 2023 was the set year of the target to
4. In India, 43% universities and 61.4%
completely eliminate trans fats by the World
colleges are located in Rural Areas
Health Organization.
Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

97. Justice Rohini commission, often seen in news, 99. Which one is correct regarding iNCOVACC,
is related with
recently seen in news?
(a) Sub-categorisation of OBC
(a) Imported vaccine for Dengue
(b) Reservation for EWS
(b) Indigenous vaccine for Malaria
(c) SC status to converted religions
(c) First Intranasal COVID-19 Vaccine
(d) Issue of caste census
(d) First mRNA-based vaccine for Covid

(18-A)
SIA-A-GAT
100. Consider the following statements regarding 103. Consider the following statements regarding
Khelo India Youth Games 2022. the mandatory minimum sentences.

1. It was hosted by the state of Maharashtra 1. It refers to "a sentence which must be

2. Kayaking and Canoeing were introduced for imposed without leaving any discretion to

the first time in this. the court."

2. The judgments in which the level of
Which of the statements given above is/are
punishment cannot be reduced in the
correct?
future are called mandatory minimum
(a) 1 only
sentences.
(b) 2 only 3. It applies to all the offenses booked under
(c) Both 1 and 2 the POCSO Act, that is, Protection of
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2 Children from Sexual Offences Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are

101. Who was the chief guest for the Republic Day correct?

Parade 2023? (a) 1 only

(a) Prime Minister of New Zealand (b) 1 and 2 only

(b) New Crown of UAE (c) 2 and 3 only

(c) President of Egypt (d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) Vice President of USA

104. Which state recently launched India’s first

102. Why in the recent times, India witnesses the migrant Labour survey?
increase in wheat prices? (a) Rajasthan

1. Russia-Ukraine conflict (b) Jharkhand

2. Rise in International energy prices (c) Maharashtra

3. China-Taiwan conflict (d) Karnataka

4. High demand of Indian wheat in

International Market
105. The Indus Water Treaty was signed between
Select the correct answer using the codes given the Government of India and the Government
below of Pakistan in 1960. It was mediated by

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) United Nations Development Program

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) World Bank
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) International Court of Justice

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) International Criminal Court

(19-A)
SIA-A-GAT
106. Consider the following statements regarding 108. Which one of the following statements is
the T+1 settlement Cycle in India. correct regarding the term India Stack?
(a) It is a set of application programming
1. It means that trade-related settlements
interface (API)
must be done within a day, or 24 hours, of (b) It is newly developed wheat stock exported
the completion of a transaction. from India
(c) It is a kind of new material doll alternative
2. In the World, India is the first country to
to Plastic
move towards this kind of settlement. (d) None of the above statement is correct
3. It will free up the capital, which will
increase the availability of funds to 109. Recently the UNESCO has presented the tag of
collateralize the risks. World Heritage in Danger to Odesa. It is located
at
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Turkey
correct? (b) Syria
(c) Palestine
(a) 1 only
(d) Ukraine
(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

110. The World Economic Situation and Prospects
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2023 Report was recently released by
(a) World Bank
(b) World Economic Forum
107. Which of the following will be considered as (c) United Nations Department of Economic
the stressed Assets in India, as per the RBI’s and Social Affairs
classification? (d) International Monetary Fund

1. Non – Performing assets

111. Consider the following Pairs of festivals and
2. Written–off assets
states
3. Restructured loans
Festivals States
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. Dree - Arunachal Pradesh

below 2. Majuli - Assam

3. Wangala - Meghalaya
(a) 1 only 4. Orange - Maharashtra
(b) 1 and 2 only Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(c) 1 and 3 only matched?

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

(20-A)
SIA-A-GAT
112. Consider the following statements regarding In 2023, which state in India has taken a
the Jal Jeevan Mission. massive action against the child marriage?

1. It aims to provide every rural household (a) Madhya Pradesh

with tap water connection by 2024.
(b) Odisha
2. Goa has become the first state in India to
(c) Assam
provide 100 percent tap water connections
(d) Rajasthan
in the rural areas

3. It is being implemented by the Ministry of

Rural Development 114. In 2023, which state in India has taken a

massive action against the child marriage?

Which of the statements given above are

correct? (a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Odisha
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (c) Assam

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Rajasthan

(d) 1, 2 and 3

115. Consider the following statements regarding

113. Consider the following statements regarding the immune imprinting.

Olive Ridely Turtles. 1. Immune imprinting is to become a hinder

1. It is also known as the Pacific Ridley to the performance of Booster doses of

Turtles. COVID.
2. It is found in the Indian Ocean, Atlantic,
2. During immune imprinting, rather than
and Pacific Oceans.
producing new and more powerful
3. The IUCN categorizes these turtles as
antibodies, the immune system creates
Critically endangered species.
“cross-reactive” antibodies.
4. 50% of the world’s Olive Ridley turtles can

be seen in the state of Odisha. Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
Which of the statements given above are

correct? (a) 1 only

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

(21-A)
SIA-A-GAT
116. Consider the following initiatives. 118. Consider the following statements regarding
the Asian Waterbird Census.
1. Giving to Amplify Earth Action
1. Commonly known as the ‘January Census’,
2. FireAid initiative
this exercise is undertaken to evaluate the
3. Global Collaboration Village Mission health of wetlands.
2. It is jointly coordinated by the Bombay
4. Cyber Resilience in Oil and Gas Initiative
Natural History Society and Wetlands
The above given initiatives were recently International.
3. It runs parallel to other international
launched by which one of the following?
censuses of waterbirds in Africa, Europe
(a) United Nations Environment Program and Neotropics.

(b) World Bank Which of the statements given above are

correct?
(c) World Economic Forum
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Convention on Biological Diversity
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
117. The BharOS

1. Is a free and open-source operating system

119. Which state becomes first in the country to
(OS) for use in government and public ensure menstrual leave for students studying

systems. in the state-run higher education

institutions?
2. Is unique as it allows only safe and trusted
(a) Tamilnadu
applications to be installed on the OS.
(b) Meghalaya
3. Is a mobile operating system designed and (c) Kerala
(d) Punjab
developed by the National Informatics

Centre.
120. The World Economic Forum (WEF) has
Select the correct answer using the codes given
announced the establishment of a Centre for
below the Fourth Industrial Revolution at

(a) Chennai
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Mumbai
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) Bengaluru
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Hyderabad

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(22-A)
SIA-A-GAT