April Affairs

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Current Affairs Q&A PDF – April 2023 Top 100
Questions
1. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the European Union(EU)-India
Aviation Summit 2023 held at New Delhi, Delhi in April 2023?
A) The Airport Authority of India (AAI) & Directorate General of Civil Aviation of India (DGCA
India) signs a deal with European agencies to deepen the ties between India and the European
Union in the aviation sector.
B) Eurocontrol signed the Declaration of Intent with AAI to establish a framework of
cooperation to enhance Air Traffic Management (ATM) for the benefit of aviation in Europe
and India.
C) DGCA and European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) have signed a letter of intent for
technical cooperation & developing a common understanding of Unmanned Aircraft Systems
and Innovative Air Mobility.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Answer- 5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
During the European Union(EU)-India Aviation Summit 2023 held from 20th to 21st April 2023 in
New Delhi, Delhi, the Airport Authority of India (AAI) and Directorate General of Civil Aviation of
India (DGCA India) signs a deal with European agencies to deepen the ties between India and
European Union(EU) in the aviation sector.
i. Eurocontrol signed the Declaration of Intent with AAI to establish a framework of cooperation to
enhance Air Traffic Management (ATM) for the benefit of aviation in Europe and India.
ii. DGCA and European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) have signed a letter of intent for
technical cooperation & developing a common understanding of Unmanned Aircraft Systems and
Innovative Air Mobility.
2. In April 2023, Union Minister for Labour & Employment & Environment, Forest and Climate
Change, Bhupender Yadav, launched new features in _________ (Portal) for unorganised workers.
1) e-Saubhagya
2) e-Sachivalaya
3) eDharti
4) e-Aushadhi
5) eShram
Answer- 5) eShram
Explanation:
On 24, April 2023, the Union Minister for Labour & Employment and Environment, Forest and Climate
Change, Bhupender Yadav, launched new features in eShram Portal to improve the utility of the
portal and facilitate ease of registration for unorganised workers.

• The new version also has a Data Sharing Portal (DSP) and a Data Analytics Portal.
i. The portal was added with a feature of capturing family details of migrant workers which will be
supportive in providing Child education and women-centric schemes to the migrant workers who
have migrated with family.
ii. Purpose: The new feature will enable the eShram registered workers to connect with Employment
opportunities, Skilling, Apprenticeship, Pension Scheme, Digital Skilling and States’ schemes through
eShram portal.
3. In which state, the Rapid Action Mobile BSL-3 Advanced Augmented Network (RAMBAAN),
India’s and Asia’s first mobile biosafety level-3 (BSL-3) laboratory was displayed at the G20
Meeting in April 2023?
1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Gujarat
3) Maharashtra
4) Goa
5) Karnataka
Answer- 4) Goa
Explanation:
Rapid Action Mobile BSL-3 Advanced Augmented Network (RAMBAAN), India’s and Asia’s first
mobile biosafety level-3 (BSL-3) laboratory, designed to investigate emerging viral infections was
showcased at the G-20 (Group of 20) Health Working Group meeting held in Goa.
• RAMBAAN will play a major role in dealing with the COVID-19 pandemic.
• RAMBAA, equipped with a -20 degree and -80-degree refrigerator, bio-safety cabinets, an
automatic Ribonucleic acid (RNA) extractor, and a real-time PCR( polymerase chain reaction)
machine, can access the remotest part of India.
4. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the ‘Trends In World Military
Expenditure, 2022’ report released by the SIPRI (Stockholm International Peace Research
Institute) in April 2023?
A) World military expenditure grew for the 8th consecutive year in 2022 by 3.7% in real terms
to an all-time high of US$2240 billion.
B) India was the third largest spender in the world in 2022 with a military expenditure of USD
86.2 billion.
C) The United States topped the List followed by China, second largest spender in the world.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only A & C
4) Only B & C
5) All A, B & C
Answer- 3) Only A & C
Explanation:
According to the SIPRI (Stockholm International Peace Research Institute) Fact Sheet April 2023
‘Trends In World Military Expenditure, 2022’, World military expenditure grew for the 8th
consecutive year in 2022 by 3.7% in real terms (i.e. when adjusted for inflation) to an all-time high of
US$2240 billion.

i. With a military expenditure of USD 81.4 billion, India was the fourth largest spender in the world
in 2022. Its spending increased by 6.0% from 2021 and 47% from 2013.
ii. The United States, China, Russia, India and Saudi Arabia, were the five biggest spenders in
2022, which together accounted for 63% of world military spending.
iii. Total world military spending accounted for 2.2% of global gross domestic product (GDP) in 2022.
5. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the 60th round of quarterly
Order books, Inventories and Capacity Utilization survey (OBICUS) conducted by the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) in April 2023?
A) In Q3FY23, New order book of companies recorded a decline to 8.4% indicating a slowdown
in demand in the manufacturing sector.
B) The Capacity Utilization (CU) at manufacturing facilities was at a robust 74.3% in Q3 FY23,
up from 74% in Q2.
C) The average inventory level of manufacturing companies increased slightly by 2.3% to Rs
519.9 crore in Q3FY23 from Rs 508.2 crore in Q2FY23.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A. B & C
Answer- 5) All A. B & C
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has conducted the 60th round of quarterly Order books, Inventories
and Capacity Utilization survey (OBICUS) covering 762 manufacturing companies. It was conducted
during Q3:2022-23 to provide a snapshot of demand conditions in India’s manufacturing sector
during October-December 2022.
i. In Q3FY23, New order book of companies recorded a decline to 8.4% indicating a slowdown in
demand in the manufacturing sector.
• The average amount of new order books has dipped from its peak of Rs 307.9 crore in Q2 FY23
to Rs 212.2 crore in Q3FY23.
ii. Capacity Utilization (CU) at manufacturing facilities was at a robust 74.3% in Q3 FY23, up from
74% in Q2.
iii. The average inventory level of manufacturing companies increased slightly by 2.3% to Rs 519.9
crore in Q3FY23 from Rs 508.2 crore in Q2FY23. The inventory levels were the highest during the
pandemic in Q4 FY20 at Rs 609.9 crore.
6. Which government agency/company recently (in April ‘23) collaborated with the Indian
Navy (IN)and conducted a maiden flight trial of a sea-based endo-atmospheric ballistic missile
defence (BMD) interceptor off the coast of Odisha in the Bay of Bengal?
1) Indian Space Research Organisation
2) Defence Research and Development Organisation
3) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
4) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
5) Bharat Electronics Limited
Answer- 2) Defence Research and Development Organisation

Explanation:
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Indian Navy (IN) successfully
conducted a maiden flight trial of sea-based endo-atmospheric Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD)
interceptor off the coast of Odisha in the Bay of Bengal.
• This has enhanced India’s deterrence capabilities against aerial intrusion.
• Purpose: To engage and neutralize a hostile ballistic missile threat.
7. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the Prime Minister (PM)
Narendra Modi's recent (in April ‘23) inaugurations in Kerala?
A) PM Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone and dedicated to the nation various
development projects worth more than Rs 3200 crores at Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
B) The development projects include India’s 1st Water Metro in Kochi (Kerala) developed by
the Cochin Shipyard and Kerala’s 1st Vande Bharat Express between Thiruvananthapuram and
Kasargod.
C) The PM also laid the foundation stone for India's first Digital Science Park in
Thiruvananthapuram which will give a boost to Digital India.
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Explanation:
Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone and dedicated to the nation various
development projects worth more than Rs 3200 crores at Central Stadium in Thiruvananthapuram,
Kerala.
i. The development projects include India’s 1st Water Metro in Kochi (Kerala) and Kerala’s 1st
Vande Bharat Express between Thiruvananthapuram and Kasargod, which were inaugurated by PM.
• Kochi Water Metro is a Made in India project and the ports for the project were developed by
the Cochin Shipyard. It is a one-of-its-kind project that connects 10 islands around Kochi
through battery-operated electric hybrid boats for seamless connectivity with Kochi city.
• Kerala’s Vande Bharat Express between Thiruvananthapuram and Kasargod will link North
Kerala with South Kerala. The train will ease the travel to pilgrimage places like Kollam,
Kottayam, Ernakulam, Thrissur and Kannur.
ii. The PM laid the foundation stone for India's first Digital Science Park in Thiruvananthapuram
which will give a boost to Digital India.
iii. Vishu is a cultural festival celebrating one of the two harvest seasons in Kerala of India. Vishu falls
on the first day of the month of Medam in the Malayalam Calendar (April 14 or 15 in the Gregorian
calendar).
8. Which bank has recently (in April ‘23) collaborated with the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub
(RBIH) to launch ‘Digitalised Submission of Form 15G/15H’?
1) Canara Bank
2) State Bank of India
3) Union Bank of India

4) Punjab National Bank
5) Bank of Baroda
Answer- 1) Canara Bank
Explanation:
Canara Bank, in collaboration with the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH), announced the launch
of a new customer-friendly service termed ‘Digitalised Submission of Form 15G/15H’.
i. Form 15G (Individual and HUF (Hindu Undivided Family)) and Form 15H (Individual-Senior
Citizen) are self-declaration forms that an individual submits to the bank requesting not to deduct
TDS (Tax Deducted at Source) on interest income as their income is below the basic exemption limit.
ii. Submission of PAN (Permanent Account Number) is necessary for the form submission.
9. In April 2023, the Government of Rajasthan announced three new wildlife conservation
reserves: Sorsan in Baran, Khichan in Jodhpur, and Hamirgarh in Bhilwara, bringing the total
number of wildlife conservation reserves in Rajasthan to _______.
1) 20
2) 18
3) 30
4) 24
5) 26
Answer- 5) 26
Explanation:
On the occasion of International Mother Earth Day (Earth Day) 2023 (22nd April 2023), the Forest
Department, Government of Rajasthan announced 3 new conservation reserves that will protect
the rare and endangered wildlife of Rajasthan.
i. The 3 new wildlife conservation reserves are Sorsan in Baran, Khichan in Jodhpur, and Hamirgarh in
Bhilwara.
ii. With the declaration of 3 new conservation reserves, the total number of reserves in Rajasthan
has now reached 26.
10. Which of the following points is “Incorrect” with respect to the recent step taken by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April 2023?
A) RBI has granted a non-banking financial company (NBFC) licence to the Neobanking
platform Jupiter enabling the latter to scale up its lending business.
B) With the new NBFC licence, Jupiter will look at offering loans from Rs 10,000 up to Rs 3 lakh.
C) RBI also has cancelled the banking licence of the Adoor Co-operative Urban Bank Ltd, Kerala
and allows it to operate as NBFC.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only A & B
5) Only B & C
Answer- 2) Only B
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has granted a non-banking financial company (NBFC) licence to the
Neobanking platform Jupiter enabling the latter to scale up its lending business.

• It will be offering the loan under Amica Financial Technologies, the private entity which
operates Jupiter.
i. With the new NBFC licence, Jupiter will look at offering loans from Rs 50,000 up to Rs 1 lakh.
ii. On April 25, 2023, RBI also has cancelled the banking licence of the Adoor Co-operative Urban
Bank Ltd, Adoor, Kerala (initiated on January 3, 1987) to carry on banking business in India under
Section 22 read with section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act,1949 with effect from the close of
business on April 24, 2023.
• However, it is allowed to function as a non-banking institution under Section 36 A(2) read
with section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
11. In April 2023, ________________ became the first Insurance company to accept eRupee(e₹)/
RBI’s CBDC (Central Bank Digital Currency) for premium payments in partnership with YES
Bank.
1) Bajaj Allianz General Insurance
2) Reliance General Insurance
3) SBI General Insurance
4) Cholamandalam MS General Insurance
5) Future Generali India Insurance
Answer- 2) Reliance General Insurance
Explanation:
Reliance General Insurance, a subsidiary of Reliance Capital, has become the first company to accept
eRupee(e₹)/ Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) CBDC (Central Bank Digital Currency) for premium
payments.
i. Reliance General Insurance accepts the eRupee through a partnership with YES Bank to enable its
customers to make premium payments digitally using the bank’s platform.
ii. The partnership will provide customers with a safe, easy, instant, and green payment solution,
enhancing the customer experience.
12. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the 2023 Hyundai Archery
World Cup Stage 1 held at Antalya, Türkiye in April 2023?
A) India finished 3rd in the overall medal tally at the 2023 Hyundai Archery World Cup Stage 1
with 3 medals (1 gold, 1 silver, 1 bronze).
B) The United States of America (USA) topped the medal tally with 4 medals (2 gold and 2
silver).
C) Indian archer Jyothi Surekha Vennam wins individual gold in Compound Women in World
Cup Stage 1 by defeating Colombia’s Sara Lopez.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C

Answer- 3) Only B & C
Explanation:
India finished 2nd in the overall medal tally at the 2023 Hyundai Archery World Cup Stage 1 held in
Antalya, Türkiye from 18th to 23rd April 2023, with 4 medals (2 gold, 1 silver, 1 bronze). The
United States of America (USA) topped the medal tally with 4 medals(2 gold and 2 silver) and
China ranked 3rd with 3 medals (1 gold, 1 silver, 1 bronze).
• The 2023 Hyundai Archery World Cup is the 17th edition of the international archery circuit
organised annually by World Archery.
i. Indian archer Jyothi Surekha Vennam wins individual gold in Compound Women in World Cup
Stage 1 in Turkey by defeating Colombia’s Sara Lopez 149-146.
• She also won the Compound Mixed Team Event with her partner Ojas Pravin Deotale (India)
with a 159-154 win over Chinese Taipei’s Chen Yi Hsuan and Chem Chieh Lun.
• Jyothi Surekha Vennam matched the record qualifying score of 713 points to top the
leaderboard in the season-opening World Cup Stage 1.
ii. The Indian Men’s Recurve Team clinched a silver medal after losing to China in the final. The men’s
recurve team comprised Tarundeep Rai, Atanu Das and Dhiraj Bommadevara.
iii. Dhiraj grabbed the bronze medal in his World Cup debut by defeating Ilfat Abdullin of Kazakhstan
7-3 (28-28, 29-26, 28-29, 29-27, 29-27) in the individual men’s recurve section.
13. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the cabinet approval on 26th
April 2023?
A) The Union Cabinet approved the National Medical Devices Policy, 2023, which is expected to
help the Medical Devices sector expand to USD 25 billion by 2025.
B) The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved the establishment of 157 new
nursing colleges in co-location with existing medical colleges established since 2014 with the
outlay of Rs 1,570 crore.
C) The maximum number of nursing colleges will be set up in Uttar Pradesh (27) followed by
Rajasthan (23).
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
On 26th April 2023, The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi approved the
National Medical Devices Policy, 2023, which is expected to help the Medical Devices sector expand
to USD 50 billion(~Rs 4 lakh crore) by 2030.
• In 2020, the market size of the medical devices sector in India is estimated to be USD 11 billion
(~Rs 90,000 crore) and its share in the global medical device market is estimated to be 1.5%.
i. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved the establishment of 157 new
nursing colleges in co-location with existing medical colleges established since 2014. The outlay for
the same will be Rs 1,570 crore.
ii. Uttar Pradesh (UP) will have the maximum number of colleges (27), while Rajasthan will have 23
and Madhya Pradesh, 14.
14. Which organisation/Institute has recently (in April ‘23) released the report “Promoting
Millets in Diets: Best Practices across States/UTs of India”?
1) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
2) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3) Indian Institute of Pulses Research
4) India Pulses and Grains Association
5) NITI Aayog
Answer- 5) NITI Aayog
Explanation:
NITI Aayog (National Institution For Transforming India) released a report titled “Promoting Millets
in Diets: Best Practices across States/UTs of India” which presents a collection of good and
innovative practices adopted by state governments and organisations in various aspects of the millet
value chain.
• Suman K. Bery, Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog unveiled the report in the presence of Member
(Health) Dr. V.K. Paul, Member (Agriculture) Dr. Ramesh Chand and B. V. R. Subrahmanyam,
Chief Executive Office(CEO) of NITI Aayog.
i. The report discusses the best practices across various aspects, especially production, processing and
consumption and serves as a guiding repository to revive and mainstream millets in our diets.
ii. This report covers different themes
• State Missions and initiatives to promote millets.
• Inclusion of millets in Integrated Child Development Scheme(ICDS).
• Research and development and use of technology for innovative practices.

15. In April 2023, the Ministry of Finance (MoF), approved the upgradation of ____________
(company) to a Navratna Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) from a Category-I MiniRatna
CPSE.
1) Bharat Dynamics Limited
2) Rail Vikas Nigam Limited
3) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited
4) Central Coalfields Limited
5) Indian Railway Finance Corporation Limited
Answer- 2) Rail Vikas Nigam Limited
Explanation:
On 26th April 2023, Union Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, Ministry of Finance (MoF), approved the
upgradation of Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) to a Navratna Central Public Sector Enterprise
(CPSE) from a Category-I MiniRatna CPSE.
i. According to the Department of Public Enterprises (DPE), RVNL, a public sector undertaking under
the Ministry of Railways (MoR), has become the 13th Navratna amongst CPSEs.
ii. The Government introduced the Navratna scheme, in 1977, to identify CPSEs with comparative
advantages and encourage them in their drive to become global giants.
16. Which company has developed the world’s first liquid Nano DAP(Diammonium phosphate)
that was launched by the Union Minister of Home Affairs, Amit Shah in April 2023?
1) Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited
2) Fertilizer Corporation of India Limited
3) Rashtriya Chemicals & Fertilizers Limited
4) National Fertilizers Limited
5) Mangalore Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited
Answer- 1) Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited
Explanation:
On April 26, 2023, Union Minister Amit Shah, Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of Cooperation,
launched “IFFCO Nano DAP(liquid)”, the world’s first liquid Nano DAP(Diammonium phosphate),
developed by Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) at NewDelhi, Delhi
i. The launch of IFFCO Nano DAP (Liquid), a nano fertiliser product containing nitrogen and
phosphorus is intended to make India self-reliant in the field of food production and fertilizers.
ii. IFFCO has registered a patent, under which IFFCO will get 20% royalty on the sale of Liquid Urea
and Liquid DAP anywhere in the world for 20 years.
17. In which Indian city, the world’s 1st Social Currency Payment Card, ‘WYLD’ was launched in
April 2023?
1) New Delhi, Delhi
2) Bengaluru, Karnataka
3) Hyderabad, Telangana
4) Mumbai, Maharashtra
5) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
Answer- 4) Mumbai, Maharashtra

Explanation:
WYLD, the world’s 1st Social Currency Payment Card, was launched in Mumbai, Maharashtra, and
was powered by San Francisco (California, USA)-based VISA Inc., an American multinational financial
services corporation.
i. The app lets anyone who has over 1000 Instagram followers and a “WYLD Score” of over 100 can
apply for the WYLD payment card via the app.
ii. WYLD has raised USD 350,000 in pre-seed funding, led by Better Capital, a British Private equity
firm.
iii. The platform is currently invite-only, and open to the first 5,000 users on their waitlist of 10,000
potential customers, for their beta-testing phase, which starts in April 2023.
18. India’s first cable-stayed railway bridge called ‘Anji Khad bridge’ in __________ (state/UT) will
be ready in May 2023 with the cost of over Rs.400 crore.
1) Arunachal Pradesh
2) Jammu & Kashmir
3) Uttarakhand
4) Himachal Pradesh
5) Sikkim
Answer- 2) Jammu & Kashmir
Explanation:
On 26th April 2023, the Anji Khad cable-stayed train bridge, the 96 cables on India’s 1st cable-stayed
bridge connecting Katra and Reasi in Jammu and Kashmir (J&K), have been installed, which will
enable its ‘superstructure’ to be ready in May 2023 with the cost of over Rs.400 crore. The cable-
stayed bridge portion is 473 metres (m) long and has a total length of 725m.
i. The bridge is a vital rail link between Kashmir and the rest of India that runs for 326km from
Udhampur to Baramulla via Srinagar. The cable-stayed train bridge crosses the Anji River, a tributary
of the Chenab.
ii. The bridge forms an important link in Indian Railways’ aim to connect J&K to the rest of the country
with all-weather rail connectivity. It connects Katra and Reasi via tunnels T2 and T3 on the Katra-
Banihal section.
19. As per market capitalization (m-cap) in April 2023, ___________ has overtaken Infosys Limited
to become India’s 6th largest company, while Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) tops the list.
1) Hindustan Unilever Limited
2) ITC Limited
3) Wipro Limited
4) Vedanta Limited
5) Dabur Limited
Answer- 2) ITC Limited
Explanation:
ITC Limited has overtaken Infosys Limited, an Indian multinational information technology
company, to become India’s 6th largest company, as per market capitalization(m-cap). ITC’s market
cap stands at Rs 5.11 lakh crore (as of April 24, 2023) while the market cap of Infosys (7th place)
stands at ~Rs 5.08 lakh crore.

i. India’s 5 biggest companies: Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) is India’s largest company with a
market cap of ~Rs 16.07 lakh crore followed by Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) with ~Rs 11.62 lakh
crore and HDFC Bank with ~Rs 9.28 lakh crore.
• ICICI Bank stands at the 4th position with an m-cap of ~Rs 6.38 lakh crore and Hindustan
Unilever Limited (HUL) stands at 5th place with an m-cap of ~Rs 5.85 lakh crore.
20. Which ministry has recently (in April ‘23) launched the ‘City Beauty Competition’ portal
across the country through an online process?
1) Ministry of Home Affairs
2) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
3) Ministry of Rural Development
4) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
5) Ministry of Tourism
Answer- 4) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Explanation:
On April 26, 2023 the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the ‘City Beauty
Competition’ portal for participation of all urban local bodies (ULBs) across the country through an
online process.
• The City Beauty Competition was launched by the MoHUA in December 2022.
i. Objective: To encourage and recognize the transformational efforts made by cities and wards across
the country to create beautiful, innovative and inclusive public spaces.
ii. Administrative Staff College of India (ASCI) as the knowledge partner will provide handholding
support to the Wards / ULBs / States in this exercise.
Note- The last date for participating in the ‘City Beauty Competition’ is July 15, 2023.
21. According to the RBI data on ‘Sectoral Deployment of bank Credit- March 2023′, the
Scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) reported credit growth of _______ in FY23.
1) 15.4%
2) 17.5%
3) 12.8%
4) 16.2%
5) 13.7%
Answer- 1) 15.4%
Explanation:
According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data on ‘Sectoral Deployment of bank Credit- March
2023′, Scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) reported a robust credit growth of 15.4% in FY23 as
compared to the 9.7% in FY22.
• The development is driven by growth in personal loans, and loans to services sector, and
agriculture and allied activities.
i. The data for the same was collected by RBI from 40 select SCBs accounting for about 93% of the
total non-food credit deployed by all SCBs.
ii. Personal loans registered a growth of 20.6% in FY23 as compared with 12.6% in FY22, driven by
housing loans.

22. As per the Asian Development Bank (ADB) Annual Report 2022, which country is the
largest recipient of ADB-funded programs/projects in 2022?
1) Sri Lanka
2) India
3) Pakistan
4) Indonesia
5) Bangladesh
Answer- 3) Pakistan
Explanation:
According to the Asian Development Bank (ADB) Annual Report 2022, Pakistan got loans of
USD5.58 billion, making it the largest recipient of ADB-funded programs/projects in 2022.
• According to the report, released on 24th April 2023, ADB has disbursed a total of over USD
31.8 billion to 40 countries in 2022.
i. Out of a total lending of USD 5.58 billion, Pakistan which is in a deep economic crisis, received USD
2.67 billion as concessional funding from ADB in 2022.
ii. These loans have been used by Pakistan to avert default. They were also conditional on Pakistan
obtaining loans from the International Monetary Fund (IMF), which imposed its own conditions.
23. Name the personality who was recently (in April ‘23) awarded with the honorary MBE
(Member of the Most Excellent Order of the British Empire) by King Charles III.
1) Arjuna Misra
2) Naheed Abidi
3) Mandan Mishra
4) M.N. Nandakumara
5) G. Balakrishnan Nair
Answer- 4) M.N. Nandakumara
Explanation:
The United Kingdom (UK) based Saskrit Scholar, Dr M.N. Nandakumara, Executive Director of the
Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan centre in London, UK has been awarded the honorary MBE (Member of the
Most Excellent Order of the British Empire) by King Charles III.
i. The honorary MBE has been granted “for services to the teaching, performance and accessibility of
Indian classical arts in the UK”.
ii. The honorary award is approved by the British monarch for foreign nationals for their contribution
to public life, and was confirmed by the UK Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Office (FCDO).
24. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the launches made by the
Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying Parshottam Rupala in April
2023?
A) The Union Minister Parshottam Rupala, launched projects, ‘Animal Pandemic Preparedness
Initiative’ (APPI) and ‘Animal Health System Support for One Health’ (AHSSOH), under the
aegis of National One Health Mission.
B) APPI is an initiative launched to enhance India’s preparedness and response to animal
pandemics and epidemics,

C) AHSSOH is India’s first animal pandemic response plan in collaboration with the World
Bank which will be implemented in 5 states over a five-year period as a Central sector scheme
with a financial provision of Rs 1228.70 Crore
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
The Union Minister Parshottam Rupala, Ministry for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
(MoFAHD), launched projects, ‘Animal Pandemic Preparedness Initiative’ (APPI) and World Bank
(WB)-funded ‘Animal Health System Support for One Health’ (AHSSOH), under the aegis of National
One Health Mission to improve India’s preparedness and response to potential animal pandemics.
• AHSSOH is India’s first animal pandemic response plan in collaboration with the World Bank.
i. About APPI: It is an initiative launched to enhance India’s preparedness and response to animal
pandemics and epidemics, with a focus on zoonotic diseases or infections caused by microorganisms
that jump from animals to humans.
ii. About AHSSOH: The collaborative project will be implemented in 5 states over a five-year period
as a Central sector scheme with a financial provision of Rs 1228.70 Crore.
25. Which regulatory body of the Ministry of Finance has recently (in April ‘23) announced the
launch of a pilot scheme ‘Mission 50K-EV4ECO‘ to enhance the electric vehicle market?
1) Reserve Bank of India
2) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
4) Securities and Exchange Board of India
5) Small Industries Development Bank of India
Answer- 5) Small Industries Development Bank of India
Explanation:
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has announced the launch of a pilot scheme
‘Mission 50K-EV4ECO‘ to unlock the electric vehicle market by providing better financing terms and
understanding other solution bouquets needed to address the better adoption of electric vehicle (EV).
i. The scheme will provide direct finance at competitive rates for the purchase of EVs to Micro, Small
and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
ii. This would cover vehicle aggregators, fleet operators, and leasing companies.
iii. SIDBI will also fund non-banking finance companies (NBFCs) that provide loans for EV purchases
and push electrification in the three-wheeler segment.
26. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the 36th edition of Asian
Wrestling Championships, held at Astana, Kazakhstan in April 2023?
A) Aman Sehrawat won India’s 1st gold medal, under the men’s 57kg freestyle category by
defeating Kyrgyzstan’s Almaz Smanbekov.
B) India has won 10 medals (one gold, three silvers and six bronze) and is ranked 5th in overall
medal tally.

C) Kazakhstan was topped in the medal tally followed by Japan and Iran.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
Aman Sehrawat, a freestyle wrestler, won India’s 1st gold medal, under the men’s 57kg freestyle
category, at the Asian Wrestling Championships 2023. The 36th edition of Asian Wrestling
Championships was held in Astana, Kazakhstan, from 9 April to 14 April 2023.
i. Aman Sehrawat won the gold medal by defeating Kyrgyzstan’s Almaz Smanbekov (9-4), who won
the bronze medal in 2022.
ii. India has won 14 medals(one gold, three silvers and ten bronze) and is ranked 7th in overall
medal tally.
iii. Kazakhstan was topped in the medal tally followed by Japan and Iran. List of Medals for India.
27. Which of the following points is/ are “correct” with respect to the recent framework
released by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in April 2023?
A) SEBI released a new framework for the upfront collection of amounts as charges from
eligible issuers at the time of allotment of debt securities to build the Settlement Guarantee
Fund of the Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation (LPCC).
B) The new framework will come into force from 1st October, 2023.
C) As per the framework, the eligible issuers shall be notified by the LPCC as per its risk
management policy.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) released a new framework for the upfront
collection of amounts as charges from eligible issuers at the time of allotment of debt securities to
build the Settlement Guarantee Fund of the Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation (LPCC).
• The new framework will come into force from May 1, 2023.
i. As per the framework, the eligible issuers shall be notified by the LPCC as per its risk
management policy.
ii. Collection of an amount of 0.5 basis points of the issuance value of debt securities per annum
based on the maturity of debt securities by the Stock Exchanges will be held and placed in an escrow
account prior to the allotment of the debt securities.
• The amount is applicable on a public issue or private placement of debt securities under the
SEBI (Issue and Listing of Non-convertible Securities) Regulations, 2021.

28. In April 2023, India made a contribution of ________ to the United Nations Entity for Gender
Equality and the Empowerment of Women, also known as UN Women, for women
empowerment.
1) USD 400,000
2) USD 300,000
3) USD 500,000
4) USD 100,000
5) USD 200,000
Answer- 3) USD 500,000
Explanation:
India has made a contribution of USD 500,000 (Rs 4.09 crore) to the United Nations Entity for
Gender Equality and the Empowerment of Women, also known as UN Women, for women
empowerment.
i. The cheque for the same was handed over by Ruchira Kamboj, the Permanent Representative of
India to the UN, supporting UN Women’s core voluntary budget.
ii. The donation was received by Sima Sami Bahous, the Under Secretary General and Executive
Director of UN Women.
iii. This funding highlights India’s commitment towards gender equality and empowerment of
women, as well as the government’s support towards UN Women’s activities.
29. In April 2023, ___________ became India’s 1st commercial bank to connect with the Bharat Bill
Payment System (BBPS) for delivering bill payment services through video banking.
1) Equitas Small Finance Bank
2) Capital Small Finance Bank
3) Ujjivan Small Finance Bank
4) Utkarsh Small Finance Bank
5) AU Small Finance Bank
Answer- 5) AU Small Finance Bank
Explanation:
AU Small Finance Bank (AU SFB), has become India’s 1st commercial bank to connect with the
Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) and deliver bill payment services through video banking. This
initiative’s primary goal is to promote digital accessibility and improve economic capability leading to
greater financial inclusion.
i. Customers can use this platform to pay their bills without having to go to a branch, which is
especially useful for senior citizens and others with mobility challenges who live in remote areas.
30. Name the union minister who has recently (in April ‘23) launched the “YUVA Portal” and
One Week- One Programme to help in connecting and identifying potential young Start-Ups.
1) Bhupender Yadav (Union Minister of Labour and Employment)
2) Dharmendra Pradhan (Union Minister of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship)
3) Narayan Tatu Rane (Union Minister of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises)
4) Jitendra Singh (Minister of State of Science & Technology)
5) Ashwini Vaishnaw (Union Minister of Electronics and IT)
Answer- 4) Jitendra Singh (Minister of State of Science & Technology)

Explanation:
Dr Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Science & Technology, launched the
“YUVA Portal” and One Week- One Programme at National Physical Laboratory (NPL) in New Delhi,
Delhi, to help in connecting and identifying potential young Start-Ups.
• YUVA- Young, Upcoming and Versatile Authors.
i. Dr Jitendra Singh highlighted the 37 Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) Labs spread
across India as examples of India’s excellence in technology, innovation, and start-ups.
ii. The One Week – One Lab programme will offer the opportunity for the CSIR labs to showcase the
work being done by them so that others can avail of it.
• CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (NPL) is going to organise the One Week- One Lab program
from 17 to 21 April 2023.
31. According to the World’s Wealthiest Cities Report 2023’ released by Henley & Partners in
April 2023, _________ (city) tops the list with 340,000 millionaires in 2022, while Mumbai
(Maharashtra) India at _______ rank with 59,400 millionaires in 2022.
1) Tokyo, Japan; 21st
2) New York, United States of America; 25th
3) Tokyo, Japan; 23rd
4) New York, United States of America; 21st
5) London, United Kingdom; 25th
Answer- 4) New York, United States of America; 21st
Explanation:
The investment migration firm Henley & Partners released its annual ‘World’s Wealthiest Cities
Report 2023’ which is again topped by New York, United States of America (USA) with 340,000
millionaires, 724 centi-millionaires, and 58 billionaires in 2022.
• New York followed by Tokyo (Japan), California’s Bay Area (USA), London (United Kingdom)
and Singapore.
• The annual survey looked at 97 cities in 9 regions around the world viz. Africa, Australasia, CIS
(Commonwealth of Independent States), East Asia, Europe, the Middle East, North America,
South Asia, and Southeast Asia. The data is supplied by wealth intelligence firm, New World
Wealth.
i. The list also featured Mumbai (Maharashtra) India at 21st rank with 59,400 millionaires, 238
Centi-millionaires, and 29 Billionaires. It has shown 65% 10-year growth (from 2012 to 2022).
ii. The other Indian cities in the list include Delhi at 36th place with 16 billionaires, Bengaluru
(Karnataka) with 8 billionaires, Kolkata (West Bengal) 7 billionaires, and Hyderabad (Telangana) with
5 billionaires.
32. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the visit of union minister of
External Affairs Subrahmanyam Jaishankar to Uganda, Ethiopia & Mozambique in April 2023?
A) During his visit to Kampala, Uganda, Union Minister S. Jaishankar launched the ‘Tulsi Ghat
Restoration Project’ of Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh), a project funded by the Indian community of
Uganda.
B) He also inaugurated the Buzi Bridge constructed as part of the 132 km Tica-Buzi-Nova-
Sofala Road project in Mozambique.

C) EAM S Jaishankar made a short transit visit to the Ethiopian capital of Addis Ababa and had
talks with the Deputy Prime Minister and Foreign Affairs Minister of Ethiopia, Demeke
Mekonnen Hassen.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
Union minister Subrahmanyam Jaishankar, Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) visited African nations
– Uganda, Ethiopia and Mozambique for 6 days from April 10 to 15, 2023 to strengthen India’s
bilateral relationship with the countries.
• During his visit to Kampala, Uganda, the External Affairs Minister (EAM), S. Jaishankar
launched the ‘Tulsi Ghat Restoration Project’ of Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh), a project funded
by the Indian community of Uganda.
• EAM inaugurated the first foreign campus of India’s National Forensic Sciences University
(NFSU) in Jinja, Uganda.
• EAM visited Mozambique from April 13 to 15, 2023, the first visit by an external affairs
minister of India to Uganda since 2010.
• Inaugurated Buzi Bridge in Mozambique: He also virtually inaugurated the Buzi Bridge
constructed as part of the 132 km Tica-Buzi-Nova-Sofala Road project. The bridge is being
constructed by India through Indian LoC.
• EAM S Jaishankar made a short transit visit to the Ethiopian capital of Addis Ababa on April
13, 2023, and had talks with the Deputy Prime Minister and Foreign Affairs Minister of
Ethiopia, Demeke Mekonnen Hassen.
33. According to the State of World Population (SOWP)2023 report published by the United
Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) in April 2023, India overtakes China to become the most
populous nation in the world with __________ population.
1) 142.86 crore
2) 139.24 crore
3) 142.57 crore
4) 136.20 crore
5) 125.34 crore
Answer- 1) 142.86 crore
Explanation:
According to the State of World Population (SOWP) 2023 titled “8 billion Lives, Infinite Possibilities:
the case for Rights and Choices” published by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA), India
overtakes China to become the most populous nation in the world, the population of India has
grown by 1.56% in the past year and it is estimated to be 142.86 crore.
• The population of China is estimated to be 142.57 crore.
i. The report states that India’s total fertility rate (births per woman in the reproductive age) is
estimated to be at 2.0 and the average life expectancy for an Indian male is 71 and Indian female is 74.
ii. India also has the largest youth cohort with 254 million youths – aged between 15-24 years.

34. Which of the following points is “Incorrect” with respect to the Global Unicorn Index 2023
released by the Hurun Research Institute in April 2023?
A) According to the Global Unicorn Index 2023, India is ranked 4th on the index with 58
unicorns.
B) Online educator BYJU’S, worth USD 22 billion, topped the list of Indian Unicorns followed by
Swiggy and Dream11 (USD 8 billion each).
C) The United States of America (USA) topped the index with 666 unicorns, followed by China
in 2nd spot with 316 unicorns.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only A & B
5) Only B & C
Answer- 1) Only A
Explanation:
According to the Global Unicorn Index 2023 published by Hurun Research Institute, India is ranked
3rd on the index with 68 unicorns (up 14 compared to 2022). Online educator BYJU’S worth USD 22
billion topped the list of Indian Unicorns, followed by on-demand delivery start-up Swiggy and
fantasy sports platform travel-stay finder Dream11 (USD 8 billion each).
i. The United States of America (USA) topped the index with 666 unicorns, up 179 compared to
2022, followed by China in 2nd spot with 316 unicorns (up 15).
ii. BYJU’S is the only Indian Unicorn among the list of the top 10 biggest rises in valuation since pre-
Covid.
35. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the recent cabinet approval
by the Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi in April 2023?
A) The Union Cabinet has approved the National Quantum Mission (NQM) with an outlay of
Rs.1234.24 crore for 5 years to scale-up Scientific & Industrial Research and
Development(R&D) for Quantum Technologies(QT).
B) The mission will be led by the Department of Science & Technology (DST), Ministry of
Science and Technology (MoST) under a Mission Director.
C) The Union Cabinet also approved the Cinematograph Amendment Bill, 2023 proposed by
the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB) to amend the Cinematograph Act, 1952.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi has approved the following
proposals:
i. The Union Cabinet has approved the National Quantum Mission (NQM) with an outlay of
Rs.6003.65 crore for 8 years (from 2023-24 to 2030-31) to scale-up Scientific & Industrial Research
and Development (R&D) for Quantum Technologies (QT).

• With this, India will join the top 6 nations (the United States of America (USA), Canada, China,
France, Austria, and Finland who are involved in the R&D in the QT.
ii. The mission will be led by the Department of Science & Technology (DST), Ministry of Science and
Technology (MoST) under a Mission Director.
iii. The Union Cabinet also approved the Cinematograph Amendment Bill, 2023 proposed by the
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB) to amend the Cinematograph Act, 1952. It will be
introduced in the upcoming Monsoon Session of Parliament, aimed to tackle the problem of film
piracy.
36. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the recent approval granted
by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in April 2023?
A) Emkay Global Financial Services has received in-principle approval from the Investment
Management Department of the SEBI for sponsoring a Mutual Fund (MF) business and
incorporating an Asset Management Company (AMC).
B) Nexus Select Trust has received the final observations, and approval from the SEBI for its
Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT) Initial Public Offering (IPO) of units.
C) The Nexus Select Trust’s Rs 4,000-crore REIT IPO consists of a fresh issue of Rs 1,600 crore
while the remaining Rs 2,400 crore is through an offer of sale from its sponsor Blackstone &
other small holders.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
Emkay Global Financial Services has received in-principle approval from the Investment
Management Department of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) for sponsoring a
Mutual Fund (MF) business and incorporating an Asset Management Company (AMC).
• Currently, there are 44 MF players with total assets under management of about Rs 40 lakh
crore with top 10 players accounting for major share of business.
i. Nexus Select Trust, the retail-focused real estate investment trust, sponsored by private equity
firm Blackstone, has received the final observations, and approval from the SEBI for its Real Estate
Investment Trust (REIT) Initial Public Offering (IPO) of units.
ii. The Nexus Select Trust’s Rs 4,000-crore REIT IPO consists of a fresh issue of Rs 1,600 crore while
the remaining Rs 2,400 crore is through an offer of sale from its main sponsor Blackstone and other
small holders.
• Nexus Select Trust plans to issue India’s first retail REIT by May 15, 2023 and the portion
raised by the REIT might be used to pay down debt.
37. Which of the following Small Finance Banks (SFBs) were recently (in April ‘23) received
Authorised Dealer(AD) category-I licence to deal in foreign exchange by Reserve Bank of India
(RBI)?
1) Equitas Small Finance Bank
2) AU Small Finance Bank

3) Capital Small Finance Bank
4) Both 1 & 2
5) Both 2 & 3
Answer- 4) Both 1 & 2
Explanation:
On 19th April 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) granted an Authorised Dealer(AD) category-I
licence to AU Small Finance Bank & Equitas Small Finance Bank under Section 10 of FEMA
(Foreign Exchange Management Act), 1999 to deal in foreign exchange.
i. The permission is subject to compliance with applicable regulations.
ii. The licence will enable AU Small Finance Bank to open a range of foreign currency-related products
to serve the importer-exporter segment and process inward and outward remittances.
38. Which of the following points is ‘Incorrect’ with respect to the 2023 edition of the Wisden
Cricketers’ Almanack released in April 2023?
1) Tom Blundell (New Zealand), Ben Foakes (England), Harmanpreet Kaur (India), Daryl Mitchell
(New Zealand) and Matthew Potts (England) were named the Five Wisden Cricketers of the Year
2023.
2) Indian Women’s cricket team Captain Harmanpreet Kaur becomes the 2nd India Women’s cricketer
to be named a “Wisden Cricketer of the Year”.
3) Ben Stokes, Captain of England’s Test team, was named leading cricketer for the 3rd time.
4) Australia batter Beth Mooney has been named the world’s top Women’s Cricketer for the 2nd time
in 3 years.
5) India’s Suryakumar Yadav picked up the Leading Twenty20 (T20) Cricketer in the World title.
Answer- 2) Indian Women’s cricket team Captain Harmanpreet Kaur becomes the 2nd India
Women’s cricketer to be named a “Wisden Cricketer of the Year”.
Explanation:
The 2023 edition of the Wisden Cricketers’ Almanack, the cricket reference book published annually
in the United Kingdom (UK), has announced the Five Wisden Cricketers of the Year 2023. Wisden
2023 is the 160th edition.
• Tom Blundell (New Zealand), Ben Foakes (England), Harmanpreet Kaur(India), Daryl Mitchell
(New Zealand) and Matthew Potts (England) were named the Five Wisden Cricketers of the
Year 2023.
• Indian Women’s cricket team Captain Harmanpreet Kaur becomes the 1st India Women’s
cricketer to be named a “Wisden Cricketer of the Year”.
• Ben Stokes, Captain of England’s Test team, was named leading cricketer for the 3rd time.
Previously he received the honour in 2019 and 2020.
• Australia batter Beth Mooney has been named the world’s top Women’s Cricketer for the 2nd
time in 3 years.
• India’s Suryakumar Yadav picked up the Leading Twenty20 (T20) Cricketer in the World title.
• He became the first Indian player to score 1,000 T20 International (T20I) runs in a
calendar year. Globally, he is only the 2nd player to achieve the feat.
• Jonny Bairstow (England) wins inaugural Wisden Trophy for Edgbaston masterclass for his
twin centuries against India at Edgbaston.

39. In April 2023, the Union Minister of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Narendra Singh Tomar,
launched the first phase of SATHI (Seed Traceability, Authentication and Holistic Inventory)
portal and mobile application.
Which government department/Centre developed the portal and app in collaboration with the
Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare?
1) Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology
2) National Informatics Centre
3) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
4) Department of Biotechnology
5) Department of Science and Technology
Answer- 2) National Informatics Centre
Explanation:
The Union Minister Narendra Singh Tomar, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW)
launched the first phase of SATHI (Seed Traceability, Authentication and Holistic Inventory) portal
and mobile application. It is a centralized online system to address seed production challenges, seed
quality identification, and certification.
• It has been developed on the theme of Uttam Beej – Samriddh Kisan.
i. It was developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) in collaboration with the Union Ministry
of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
ii. Aim: To curb the sale of spurious seeds affecting the growth of agriculture and causing loss to the
farmers, and ensure quality seeds reach farmers.
40. Which organisation, along with Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), National Institution for
Transforming India (NITI) Aayog, has recently (in April ‘23) launched a whitepaper to make
India a global agri-tech leader?
1) United Nations Development Programme
2) International Monetary Fund
3) World Bank
4) Food and Agriculture Organization
5) United Nations Capital Development Fund
Answer- 5) United Nations Capital Development Fund
Explanation:
On April 20, 2023, a whitepaper has been jointly launched by Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI
(National Institution for Transforming India) Aayog and the United Nations Capital Development
Fund (UNCDF) which is aimed at making India a global leader in Agri-Tech innovation and expanding
these innovations to the least developed countries in Asia and Africa.
• It is prepared by experts from AIM, NITI Aayog, and UNCDF.
i. The whitepaper provides practical solutions to support the growth of Agri-Tech start-ups at both
national and international levels, by addressing the challenges they face.
ii. It contains important insights and recommendations aimed at promoting sustainable agricultural
practices and addressing issues such as food security, supply chain inefficiencies, and climate change
concerns, particularly in developing economies.

41. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the “Water Bodies – 1st
Census Report” released by the Ministry of Jal Shakti in April 2023?
A) According to the report, West Bengal tops the list of States with most ponds and reservoirs.
B) Tamil Nadu has the highest number of lakes, while Andhra Pradesh (AP) has the highest
number of tanks.
C) India has 24.24 lakh water bodies such as ponds, tanks and lakes with West Bengal
accounting for the most (7.47 lakh) and Arunachal Pradesh is the least state in respective
category.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Answer- 2) Only A & B
Explanation:
According to the “Water Bodies – 1st Census Report” released by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, West
Bengal (WB) has topped the list of states with the most number of ponds and reservoirs. Tamil Nadu
has the highest number of lakes, Andhra Pradesh (AP) has the highest number of tanks and
Maharashtra is the leading state with water conservation schemes.
• The water bodies census was conducted along with the 6th Minor Irrigation Census for 2017-
18 under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme “Irrigation Census”.
i. India has 24.24 lakh water bodies such as ponds, tanks and lakes with West Bengal accounting for
the most (7.47 lakh) and Sikkim the least (134).
ii. With 3.55 lakh water bodies, South 24 Parganas of West Bengal is ranked as the top district with
the highest number of water bodies across India.
• The top 5 states (in number of water bodies) are, West Bengal (30.8% i.e., 747480) followed
by Uttar Pradesh(10.1% i.e., 245087), Andhra Pradesh(7.9% i.e., 190777), Odisha 7.5% i.e.,
181837) and Assam (7.1% i.e., 172492).
42. Which bank has secured 1st rank in the Enhanced Access & Service Excellence (EASE)
Reforms Index for Q3 FY23 released by Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) in April 2023?
1) Punjab National Bank
3) Bank of India
5) Bank of Baroda
Answer- 4) Union Bank of India
Explanation:
On April 20, 2023, As per the report on Enhanced Access & Service Excellence (EASE) Reforms Index
for Q3 FY23 published by Indian Banks’ Association (IBA), the Union Bank of India, for the first time,
secures 1st rank among all PSB (Public Sector Banks) for adopting various reforms prescribed for
PSBs.
i. EASE is an initiative by the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance, as part of
the PSB Reforms Agenda and is currently under its 5th iteration which focuses on Enhanced Digital
experience, Data – driven, Integrated and Inclusive Banking.

43. Which state government has recently (in April ‘23) launched India’s first heavy lift logistics
eVTOL (electric Vertical Take-off and Landing) BonV drone?
1) Maharashtra
2) West Bengal
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Odisha
5) Karnataka
Answer- 4) Odisha
Explanation:
On April 20, 2023, Chief Minister (CM) of Odisha Naveen Patnaik launched India’s first heavy lift
logistics eVTOL (electric Vertical Take-off and Landing) BonV drone on the opening day of “Odisha
Skill Conclave 2023“.
i. The first-of-its-kind heavy-lift logistics drone was made by Odisha-based start-up ‘BonV Aero’. It is
capable of transporting 50 kg across distances of up to 10 kilometers.
ii. The drone will play a vital role in disaster management, emergency evacuation, flood relief,
firefighting, and medical supply delivery to remote areas.
iii. IIT ( Indian Institute Of Technology) Mandi, in Himachal Pradesh, NITI (National Institution for
Transforming India) Aayog and AIC (ATAL INCUBATION CENTER)- CV Raman Global University in
Odisha are supporting the project BonV Aero, which is developing electric aerial vehicles for cargo
delivery.
44. In which city, Log9 Materials has recently (in April ‘23) inaugurated India’s first lithium-ion
cell manufacturing facility?
1) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
2) Bengaluru, Karnataka
3) Hyderabad, Telangana
4) Ahmedabad, Gujarat
5) New Delhi, Delhi
Answer- 2) Bengaluru, Karnataka
Explanation:
Log9 Materials, a Bengaluru (Karnataka) based nanotechnology company backed by Amara Raja
Group, inaugurated India’s first lithium-ion cell manufacturing facility at its campus in Jakkur,
Bengaluru, Karnataka. Log9’s commercial Li-ion cell production facility will have an initial capacity of
50 Megawatt hours (MWh).
i. This facility will cater to LTO (Lithium titanate (LTO) and LFP ((lithium ferrophosphate) cell
manufacturing
ii. The manufacturing line will support the production of large form factor cylindrical cells ranging
from 22 Series to 66 Series.
45. According to the Logistics Performance Index (LPI) and its indicators report released by
World Bank (WB) in April 2023, India secured ________ rank in the index, while _________ tops.
1) 36th; Finland
2) 40th; Singapore
3) 38th; Finland
4) 36th; Denmark

5) 38th; Singapore
Answer- 5) 38th; Singapore
Explanation:
According to the World Bank’s (WB) report titled Connecting to Compete 2023: Trade Logistics in an
Uncertain Global Economy – the Logistics Performance Index (LPI) and its indicators” released on
April 21, 2023, India’s rank increased by 6 places to 38 in the index, from 44 in 2018. India shares
the 38th rank with Lithuania, Portugal, Saudi Arabia, Türkiye.
• Singapore topped the ranking followed by Finland at second, and Denmark at third.
• This is the 7th edition of Connecting to Compet, a report that summarizes the findings from
the new dataset for LPI and its component indicators.
i. GoI (Government of India) had announced a National Master Plan, PM Gati Shakti for multi-modal
connectivity, in October 2021 to reduce logistics cost and boost the economy by 2024-25.
46. Name the bank that has recently (in April ‘23) introduced the first-of-its-kind EMI (Equated
Monthly Instalment) facility for UPI (Unified Payment Interface) payments made by scanning
QR code.
1) HDFC Bank
2) ICICI Bank
3) YES Bank
4) Axis Bank
5) IndusInd Bank
Answer- 2) ICICI Bank
Explanation:
The ICICI Bank introduced an easy first-of-its-kind EMI (Equated Monthly Instalment) facility for UPI
(Unified Payment Interface) payments made by scanning QR code.
• To improve convenience of the customers and to provide unique solutions to address their
evolving credit needs.
i. Eligibility: Customers who are eligible for PayLater, the Bank’s ‘buy now, pay later’ service can avail
of the EMI facility in an instant, easy and seamless manner.
• The facility can be availed across different categories such as electronics, groceries, fashion
apparels, travel and hotel bookings.
• Customers could pay transaction amounts above Rs 10,000 by scanning a QR code for easy
installments in three, six or nine months.
47. According to the Morgan Stanley data released in April 2023, India’s gross domestic
product (GDP) was proposed to grow at _______ in FY24 (Financial year 2023-24).
1) 5.9%
2) 5.5%
3) 6.2%
4) 5.7%
5) 6.0%
Answer- 3) 6.2%

Explanation:
According to Morgan Stanley, India’s gross domestic product (GDP) was proposed to grow at 6.2%
in FY24 (Financial year 2023-24) due to the contribution of a cyclical recovery in consumption,
increased private sector capex (Capital Expenditure), and acceleration on government spending.
i. The Inflation in India was projected to average around 5.5% in FY24 and it was likely to be below
5% in the Q2 of the calendar year 2024. Inflation for April 2023 is currently tracking at 4.7% YoY
(Year-on-Year).
ii. Inflation is expected to decrease to below 5% Q1 FY24, supported by favourable base effects and
moderating commodity prices.
48. In April 2023, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has launched PSLV-C55 with two
__________ (country) satellites – TeLEOS-2 (primary satellite) and Lumelite-4 (co-passenger
satellite), under the PSLV-C55/TeLEOS-2 mission from Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
1) Indonesia
2) Singapore
3) Philippines
4) United Arab Emirates
5) Türkiye
Answer- 2) Singapore
Explanation:
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has launched PSLV-C55 with two Singaporean satellites –
TeLEOS-2 as the primary satellite and Lumelite-4 as a co-passenger satellite, as a part of the PSLV-
C55/TeLEOS-2 mission, from Satish Dhawan Space Center(SDSC)-Sriharikota Range(SHAR),
Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
i. The 2 satellites, TeLEOS-2 and Lumelite-4 were intended to be launched into an Eastward low-
inclination orbit.
• This marks the 57th flight of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the 16th mission
using the PSLV Core Alone configuration (PSLV-CA).
ii. The PSLV-C55 also carried the PSLV Orbital Experimental Module-2 (POEM-2).
iii. The two satellites are being launched under a contract with the New Space India Limited (NSIL),
the commercial arm of ISRO.
49. Which of the following points is/are ‘correct’ with respect to the recent (in April
‘23) amendment notified by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)?
A) The MeitY notified the amendment of the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines
and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 [IT Rules 2021], related to online gaming and
spread of false and misleading information regarding government business.
B) In accordance with the 2023 amendment, MeitY is given the authority to establish a “fact-
checking unit” with broad power to ascertain what is “fake, false, or misleading” in relation to
“any business of the Union Government.”
C) As of April 2023, the fact-checking unit of the Editors Guild of India is the “preferred
agency”.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C

4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) notified the amendment of the
Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021[IT
Rules 2021], related to online gaming and spread of false and misleading information regarding
government business.
• The amended rules will be known as the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and
Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023 [IT Amendment Rules, 2023].
i. In accordance with the 2023 amendment, MeitY is given the authority to establish a “fact-checking
unit” with broad power to ascertain what is “fake, false, or misleading” in relation to “any business of
the Union Government.”
ii. Rajeev Chandrasekhar, Union Minister of State(MoS) for MeitY stated that the fact-checking unit of
the Press Information Bureau (PIB) is the “preferred agency” for the task and other government-
appointed fact-checking organisations may also be notified in future.
50. In April 2023, India presented ________ to the United Nations Trust Fund in support of the
African Union Transition Mission in Somalia (ATMIS).
1) USD 1 million
2) USD 3 million
3) USD 5 million
4) USD 6 million
5) USD 2 million
Answer- 5) USD 2 million
Explanation:
Ruchira Kamboj, India’s Permanent Representative to the United Nations (UN), presented USD 2
million to the United Nations Trust Fund in support of the African Union Transition Mission in
Somalia (ATMIS).
• With this grant, the Government of India (GoI) reaffirms its dedication to promoting peace and
stability in Somalia and the Horn of Africa.
i. ATMIS was founded on April 1, 2022, in accordance with Security Council decision 2628 (2022) and
African Union Peace and Security Council Communique 1068 of March 8, 2022.
• Objective: To assist in the implementation of the Somali Transitional Plan in order to fully
transfer security responsibilities to the Somali security forces and institutions by the end of
2024.
51. Name the company that has recently (in April ‘23) won the Best Production/Process
Development Award as part of the Vaccine Industry Excellence (ViE) awards at the World
Vaccine Congress Washington 2023.
1) Dr. Reddy's Laboratories
2) Biological E Limited
3) Bharat Biotech International Limited
4) Indian Immunologicals Limited
5) Serum Institute of India

Answer- 3) Bharat Biotech International Limited
Explanation:
On 4th April 2023, Hyderabad (Telangana) based Bharat Biotech International Limited (Bharat
Biotech) won the Best Production/Process Development Award at ViE Award 2023, the 16th
Annual ViE awards, during the World Vaccine Congress Washington 2023 held from 3rd to 6th
April 2023 at Walter E. Washington Convention Center, Washington D.C., United States of
America(USA).
i. Bharat Biotech is the world’s first producer of intranasal Covid-19 vaccine, iNcovacc. Its
intramuscular vaccine, Covaxin, is part of India’s public vaccination programme.
52. In which city, Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi inaugurated the program
‘Commemoration of 50 years of Project Tiger’ in April 2023?
1) Guwahati, Assam
2) Shivpuri, Madhya Pradesh
3) Mysuru, Karnataka
4) Guntur, Andhra Pradesh
5) Palakkad, Kerala
Answer- 3) Mysuru, Karnataka
Explanation:
On April, 9, 2023, the Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the program ‘Commemoration of 50
years of Project Tiger’ at Mysuru University in Mysuru, Karnataka, the first of its kind in India,
organised to mark 50 years of Project Tiger.
• The Government of India (GoI) launched the “Project Tiger” in 1973 for conserving the national
animal, the tiger (Panthera tigris). Thus 2023 marks the 50th year of Project Tiger.
i. The PM launched the International Big Cats Alliance (IBCA) for the conservation of seven major big
cats – tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, puma, jaguar and cheetah in collaboration with 97 countries
which contain the natural habitat of these big cat species.
ii. He released the publications ‘Amrit Kaal Ka Vision For Tiger Conservation’, a summary report of the
5th cycle of Management Effectiveness Evaluation of Tiger Reserves, declared tiger numbers and
released the summary report of All India Tiger Estimation (5th cycle).
• He also released a commemorative coin on the completion of 50 years of Project Tiger.
53. Which state is set to get the world's 1st conservation and breeding centre for the Asian king
vulture?
1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Gujarat
3) West Bengal
4) Madhya Pradesh
5) Odisha
Answer- 1) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation:
Jatayu Conservation and Breeding Centre (JCBC), the world’s 1st conservation and breeding centre
developed exclusively for the conservation of the Asian king vulture in Maharajganj district in Uttar
Pradesh (UP) is set to be inaugurated by UP Chief Minister (CM) Yogi Adityanath on the occasion of
International Vulture Awareness Day(first Saturday of September).

• The JCBC is located at the Bhari Baisi village in the Farenda range of the Gorakhpur forest
division.
• Asian king vulture is critically endangered and protected under the Wildlife Protection Act,
1972.
i. The Asian king vulture (Sarcogyps calvus), often known as the red-headed vulture (also known as
the Indian black vulture or Pondicherry vulture), is mainly found in the Indian subcontinent, with
small disjunct populations in some parts of Southeast Asia.
ii. In 2007, it was uplisted to ‘critically endangered‘ on the International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN) Red List.
54. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the ‘First International
Quantum Communication Conclave’ held in March 2023?
A) Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw inaugurated the Two days ‘First International Quantum
Communication Conclave’ at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
B) Skyroot Aerospace Private Limited, Bengaluru (Karnataka) won Pandit Deendayal
Upadhyaya Telecom Skill Excellence Awards – 2022 for the Work in Satellite communication
field.
C) Vihaan Networks Limited, Gurugram (Haryana) won Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya Telecom
Skill Excellence Awards – 2022 for Technology development and manufacturing of solar
powered 4G RAN in India for remote and rural areas.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
On March 27, 2023, Ashwini Vaishnaw, the Minister of Communications, Electronics & Information
Technology and Railways, and Devusinh Chauhan, Minister of State for Communications, inaugurated
the Two days ‘First International Quantum Communication Conclave’ which was held on 27-28 March
2023 at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
• The conclave was organised by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of
Communications, and Telecommunication Engineering Center (TEC), in collaboration with
Centre For Development Of Telematics (C-DOT), TSDSI (Telecommunications Standards
Development Society, India) and IEEE Communications Society – Delhi chapter.
i. Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya Telecom Skill Excellence Awards – 2022 was presented on March 27,
2023 at the conclave.
Name of Awardee Work/ Contribution
Sterlite Technologies Ltd, Pune Pune Skill development works in telecom sector
(Maharashtra)
Vihaan Networks Limited, Technology development and manufacturing of solar

Gurugram (Haryana) powered 4G RAN in India for remote and rural area

QuNu Labs Private Limited, Work in Quantum Communication and security solution
Bengaluru (Karnataka)
Dhruva Space Private Limited, Work in Satellite communication field

Hyderabad (Telangana)
Inntot Technologies Pvt Ltd, Development of Software Defined Radio Receiver

Ernakulam (Kerala)
55. Which of the following points is “Incorrect” with respect to the Reserve Bank of India’s
(RBI) Monetary Policy Report released in April 2023?
A) The credit growth continued to outpace deposit growth in FY23 at an 10-year high, despite
banks fully transmitting lending rates linked to external benchmarks (200 basis points) which
now account for nearly half of floating-rate loans.
B) The internal benchmark for loan pricing, the Marginal Cost of Funds-Based Lending Rate
(MCLR), increased by 140 bps from May 2022 to March 2023.
C) The 1-year median MCLR of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) increased by 135 bps from
May 2022 to February 2023.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only A & B
5) Only B & C
Answer- 1) Only A
Explanation:
According to the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Monetary Policy Report (April 2023), credit growth
continued to outpace deposit growth in financial year 2022-23 (FY23) at an eleven-year high, despite
banks fully transmitting lending rates linked to external benchmarks [250 basis points (bps)], which
now account for nearly half of floating-rate loans.
• In FY23, bank loans increased 14.6% while deposits increased just 9.6%.
• The rate of credit growth in FY23 was the greatest since FY 2011–12, when credit increased
17%.
i. The internal benchmark for loan pricing, the Marginal Cost of Funds-Based Lending Rate (MCLR),
increased by 140 bps from May 2022 to March 2023.
ii. The 1-year median MCLR of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) increased by 135 bps from May
2022 to February 2023.
56. Who was recently (in April ‘23) awarded with the 2023 International Prize in Statistics?
1) Siva Ramachandran Athreya
2) Bimal Kumar Roy
3) S. R. Srinivasa Varadhan
4) Biswatosh Sengupta
5) Calyampudi Radhakrishna Rao
Answer- 5) Calyampudi Radhakrishna Rao

Explanation:
Calyampudi Radhakrishna Rao (CR Rao), a prominent Indian-American Statistician, has been
awarded the 2023 International Prize in Statistics, the statistics’ equivalent of the Nobel Prize, for
his monumental work 75 years ago that revolutionised statistical thinking.
i. CR Rao will receive the prize, which comes with a USD 80,000 award, in July 2023 the biennial
International Statistical Institute(ISI) World Statistics Congress, which will be held in Ottawa, Ontario,
Canada.
ii. The government of India honoured him with Padma Bhushan in 1968 and Padma Vibhushan in
2001 for science and engineering.
57. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the State Energy Efficiency
Index (SEEI) 2021-2022 released by the Union Minister of Power. K. Singh in April 2023?
A) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Rajasthan, and Telangana have featured in the front-
runner category of the State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) report for 2021-22.
B) Assam, Haryana, Maharashtra, and Punjab were featured in the Achiever category of the
SEEI report for 2021-22.
C) The best-performing states in their respective state groups are Chandigarh, Andhra
Pradesh, Assam, and Karnataka.
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Explanation:
During the RPM (Review, Planning, and Monitoring) meeting of States and State Utilities in New Delhi,
Delhi, Union Minister R. K. Singh, Ministry of Power, released the report of the State Energy Efficiency
Index (SEEI) 2021-2022.
• Five states are in the Front Runner category (>60 points) in SEEI 2021-22: Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka, Kerala, Rajasthan, and Telangana.
• Four states are in the Achiever category (50–60 points): Assam, Haryana, Maharashtra, and
Punjab.
• The best-performing states in their respective state groups are: Chandigarh, Andhra Pradesh,
Assam, and Karnataka.
• The two states that improved the most from the last index are: Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
i. The SEEI 2021-22 index is developed by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), a statutory entity
under the Ministry of Power, in collaboration with the Alliance for an Energy-Efficient Economy.
(AEEE).
58. According to the summary report of the 5th cycle of Management Effectiveness Evaluation
of Tiger Reserves in India in 2022 released by the National Tiger Conservation Authority
(NTCA) in April 2023, which Tiger Reserve has topped the list of best-managed tiger reserves
in India?
1) Anamalai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu)
2) Satpura Tiger Reserve (Madhya Pradesh)

3) Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka)
4) Periyar Tiger Reserve (Kerala)
5) Similipal Tiger Reserve (Odisha)
Answer- 4) Periyar Tiger Reserve (Kerala)
Explanation:
According to the summary report of the 5th cycle of Management Effectiveness Evaluation of Tiger
Reserves in India in 2022, by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), the Periyar Tiger
Reserve (TR) in Kerala has reserve topped the list of best-managed tiger reserves in India with a
Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) score of 94.38%.
• Periya TR is followed by Satpura TR (Madhya Pradesh) and Bandipur TR (Karnataka) with an
MEE score of 93.18% and Nagarhole TR with 92.42%.
• The report was released by Prime Minister Narendra Modi while inaugurating the
Commemoration of 50 years of Project Tiger programme, at Mysuru, Karnataka.
i. A total of 12 Tiger Reserves have achieved ‘Excellent’ category, followed by 20 Tiger Reserves in
‘Very Good’ category, 14 Tiger Reserves in ‘Good’ category and 5 Tiger Reserves in ‘Fair’ category.
59. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the recent (in April ‘23)
direction/step taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
A) RBI issued the directions named RBI (Outsourcing of Information Technology Services)
Directions, 2023 for the outsourcing of IT services by banks, NBFCs and Regulated Entities to
ensure that such arrangements do not undermine their responsibilities and obligations to
customers.
B) The Directions shall come into effect from 1st May, 2023 to provide the REs with adequate
time to comply with the requirements.
C) RBI simplifies the application process for registration of Core Investment Companies (CICs)
by reducing the application form to 18 from the existing set of 52 documents.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
On April 10, 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the directions named RBI (Outsourcing of
Information Technology Services) Directions, 2023 for the outsourcing of Information Technology
(IT) services by banks, NBFCs (Non-bank financial companies) and Regulated Entities (REs) to ensure
that such arrangements do not undermine their responsibilities and obligations to customers.
• The Directions shall come into effect from October 1, 2023 to provide the REs with adequate
time to comply with the requirements.
i. As per RBI directions, the Outsourcing of any activity should not diminish RE’s obligations as also of
its Board and Senior Management.
ii. RBI has undertaken a comprehensive review of the system of processing of applications for
registration of Core Investment Companies (CICs) to make the process smoother and easier.
• To make the registration process user-friendly, the number of documents to be furnished along
with the application form has been reduced to 18 from the existing set of 52 documents.

60. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the recent (in April) steps
taken by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)?
A) SEBI has mandated alternative investment funds (AIFs) to provide investors with the option
of a “direct plan” & framework for direct investments will go into effect on May 1, 2023.
B) SEBI announced a trail model for distribution commission, stating that category III AIFs
would only levy a distribution fee to investors on an equal-trail basis.
C) SEBI has also issued guidelines for excluding an investor from an investment in an AIF.
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has mandated alternative investment funds (AIFs)
to provide investors with the option of a “direct plan” and introduced a trail model for distribution
commission. The framework for direct investments will go into effect on May 1, 2023.
• With this directive, SEBI intends to reduce misselling, promote transparency in fee payments,
bring transparency in expenses, and provide investors more options when investing in AIFs.
i. Direct plans allow investors to participate in an AIF without paying any distribution or placement
fees.
• AIFs must make sure that anyone approaching the AIF through a registered intermediary, who
is separately charging the investor for any fees, such as an advisory fee or a portfolio
management fee, is only accepted into the AIF through the direct plan.
ii. SEBI announced a trail model for distribution commission, stating that category III AIFs would
only levy a distribution fee to investors on an equal-trail basis.
• This implies that such AIFs would not impose any upfront distribution fees on their investors,
either directly or indirectly.
iii. SEBI has also issued guidelines for excluding an investor from an investment in an AIF. In light of
the recommendations made by the Alternative Investment Policy Advisory Committee (AIPAC), it has
been determined that an AIF may excuse its investor from taking part in a specific investment under
certain circumstances.
61. Name the bank that has recently (in April ‘23) signed a Rs 150 crore agreement with the
Tata Power Delhi Distribution Limited (TPDDL) to enhance power distribution in Delhi.
1) World Bank
2) International Monetary Fund
3) Asian Development Bank
4) New Development Bank
5) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
Answer- 3) Asian Development Bank
Explanation:
A Rs 150 crore (USD 18.2m) agreement has been inked between the Tata Power Delhi Distribution
Limited (TPDDL), the distribution arm of The Tata Power Company Limited (Tata Power), and Asian
Development Bank (ADB) to boost Delhi’s power distribution.

i. Under this, ADB will subscribe to non-convertible debentures worth 150 crore. The funds will be
utilized for grid enhancements.
ii. Additionally, TPDDL will receive a USD 2 million grant from ADB to partially finance the purchase
and integration of a pilot Battery Energy Storage System (BESS).
iii. This grant is provided by Goldman Sachs and Bloomberg Philanthropies’ Climate Innovation and
Development Fund (CIDF) and administered by ADB.
62. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the recent inauguration/
launches (in April ‘23) made by the Ministry of Textiles?
A) The Ministry of Textiles launched 2 Quality Control Orders (QCOs) for 31 items which
marked the first technical regulation from India for the Technical Textiles industry.
B) These QCOs consist of 19 Geo Textiles and 12 Protective Textiles in the Phase-I.
C) These two Geo Textiles and Protective Textiles QCOs will come into effect in 180 days
immediately after the date of the publication of the orders in the gazette.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
On April 11, 2023, the Ministry of Textiles launched 2 Quality Control Orders (QCOs) for 31 items
which marked the first technical regulation from India for the Technical Textiles industry.
i. These QCOs consist of 19 Geo Textiles and 12 Protective Textiles in the Phase-I.
• The information for the same was provided by Joint Secretary, Rajeev Saxena, Ministry of
Textiles in a press conference in New Delhi, Delhi.
ii. These two Geo Textiles and Protective Textiles QCOs will come into effect in 180 days immediately
after the date of the publication of the orders in the gazette and both, domestic manufacturers as well
as foreign manufacturers who intend to export their products to India.
iii. In Phase-II, the Ministry of Textiles plans to issue two more QCOs for 28 items that will cover 22
agro textile products and 6 medical textile items. In Phase-III, it plans to bring over 30 technical textile
items under the QCO.
63. In April 2023, National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC) named India’s first
semi high-speed Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS) as ‘RAPIDX’.
RAPIDX with a design speed of _______kmph, will connect Delhi with the National Capital Region
(NCR), including Meerut, Alwar and Panipat.
1) 178
2) 136
3) 129
4) 182
5) 150
Answer- 4) 182

Explanation:
National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC) has named India’s first semi high-speed
Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS) as RAPIDX as it is easy to read and simple to pronounce in
various languages.
i. It also signifies speed and progress, the ‘X’ denotes the next generation technology and the new-age
mobility solution.
ii. RAPIDX, with a design speed of 182 kmph, will connect Delhi with the National Capital Region
(NCR), including Meerut, Alwar and Panipat.
iii. NCRTC also released RAPIDX’s logo with a green leaf symbol highlighting brand’s commitment
towards decarbonisation by not only decongesting NCR by reducing the number of vehicles on the
road but also by using green energy.
64. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the Competition
(Amendment) Bill, 2023, as of April 2023?
A) Under the new bill, Mergers and Acquisitions (M&As) for more than Rs. 500 crore must be
reported to the CCI, if the acquired entity has significant business operations in India.
B) The amended law calls for the CCI to appoint a Director General (DG) [Investigation] in
addition to shortening the M&A clearance timelines (from 210 days to 150 days).
C) The bill proposes to define ‘turnover’ for the purposes of the penalty as global turnover
resulting from all products and services provided by a person or an entity.
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Explanation:
President Droupadi Murmu has given her assent to the Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2023, which
aims to amend the Competition Act, 2002, that regulates competition in the Indian market and forbids
anti-competitive practices like cartels, mergers, and acquisitions that might have a negative impact on
competition.
• This Act may be referred to as the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023, and it will go into
effect on the date that the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) “appoints” for the amended law
to take effect.
i. Under the new bill, Mergers and Acquisitions (M&As) for more than Rs. 2,000 crore must be
reported to the CCI, if the acquired entity has significant business operations in India.
ii. The amended law calls for the CCI to appoint a Director General (DG) [Investigation] in addition to
shortening the M&A clearance timelines (from 210 days to 150 days). The DG (Investigation) has so
far been appointed by the GoI.
iii. The bill proposes to define ‘turnover’ for the purposes of the penalty as global turnover resulting
from all products and services provided by a person or an entity.

65. Which of the following points is/are ‘’correct’’ with respect to the provisional statistics
released by the General Insurance Council (GIC) in April 2023?
A) In FY23, non-life insurers have underwritten a gross premium of Rs 2.6 crore, a 16.4%
increase over FY22.
B) The ICICI Lombard General Insurance revenue increased 17% year-on-year at Rs. 21,025
crore.
C) Star Health & Allied Insurance’s Gross premiums has increased 13% year-on-year to Rs.
12,951 crore.
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Explanation:
According to provisional statistics released by the General Insurance Council (GIC), India’s non-life
insurers recorded growth in the high teens in fiscal year 2023 (FY23) due to strong performance
across sectors.
i. In FY23, non-life insurers have underwritten a gross premium of Rs 2.6 crore, a 16.4% increase
over FY22.
ii. ICICI Lombard General Insurance: Revenue increased 17% year-on-year at Rs. 21,025 crore. In
March 2023, market share was 8.18%, up from 8.14% in March 2022.
iii. Star Health & Allied Insurance: Gross premiums for the standalone health insurer increased
13% year-on-year to Rs. 12,951 crore.
• Compared to 5.19% in March 2022, market share slightly decreased to 5.04% in March 2023.
• According to the IRDAI, the four public sector general insurance companies – New India
Assurance Co. Ltd, United India Insurance Company Ltd, Oriental Insurance Company Ltd., and
National Insurance Company Limited– have lost 803 basis points (bps) in market share to
their private counterparts in the past five years.
66. In April 2023, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) downgraded India’s Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) forecast to ______ for the financial year 2023-24 from 6.1% in January 2023.
1) 5.6%
2) 5.2%
3) 5.5%
4) 5.7%
5) 5.9%
Answer- 5) 5.9%
Explanation:
On April 11, 2023, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in its bi-annual World Economic Outlook
(WEO) 2023 report with a title ‘A Rocky Recovery’ has downgraded India’s Gross Domestic Product
(GDP) forecast for the financial year 2023-24 by 20 basis points (-0.2%) to 5.9% from 6.1% in
January 2023 WEO Update.
• For FY25, India’s growth projections are cut by 50 basis points (-0.5%) to 6.3% from 6.8% in
January 2023 WEO Update.

• However, India will continue to be the fastest-growing economy in the world.
67. In April 2023, Sanjay Malhotra, Revenue Secretary, Ministry of Finance launched the
unified portal of the __________ (GoI agency/organisation) to instill efficiency and transparency
and reduce the time taken by the pharmaceutical industry to get a trade licence.
1) Central Board of Excise and Customs
2) Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
3) Central Bureau of Narcotics
4) Central Bureau of Investigation
5) Bureau of Indian Standards
Answer- 3) Central Bureau of Narcotics
Explanation:
On 11th April 2023, Sanjay Malhotra, Revenue Secretary, Ministry of Finance (MoF), launched the
Unified Portal of the Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN), which will instill efficiency and
transparency and reduce the time taken by the pharma industry to get a trade licence.
i. The launch of the Unified portal of CBN will prove as a stepping stone to ease doing business with
NDPS and controlled substances in India with transparent and better compliance.
ii. Under the ambit of various United Nations Conventions and the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
Substances (NDPS) Act of 1985, the CBN is a central government organisation that deals with the
international trade of narcotic drugs, psychotropic substances, and precursor chemicals.
68. Which company was recently (in April ‘23) accorded the status of Miniratna Category-I
Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE)?
1) Solar Energy Corporation of India Limited
3) Bharat Earth Movers Limited
4) Central Warehousing Corporation
5) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers
Answer- 1) Solar Energy Corporation of India Limited
Explanation:
On April 10, 2023, the Solar Energy Corporation of India Ltd (SECI) was accorded the status of
Miniratna Category-I Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE). A communication to this effect has been
issued by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
• It is the only CPSU dedicated to the Solar Energy Sector.
i.Incorporated in the year 2011, SECI is the primary implementing agency for renewable energy
schemes/projects of MNRE towards fulfilment of India’s international commitments.
ii.It has the highest credit rating of AAA by domestic rating agency ICRA.
69. Kolkata Metro Rail Corporation Limited (KMRCL) has recently (in April ‘23) conducted the
successful trial run of India’s 1st underwater metro train under the river bed of ___________.
1) Rupnarayan
2) Hooghly
3) Jalangi
4) Ichamati
5) Dwaraka

Answer- 2) Hooghly
Explanation:
Kolkata Metro Rail Corporation Limited (KMRCL) successfully conducted the trial run of India’s 1st
underwater metro train under the river bed of Hooghly through a tunnel of 32 meters below water
level.
i.The tunnels under the river bed, 32 meters below the water level, are part of East West Metro Project
that aims to connect Howrah Maidan with Rajarhat along the 16.6-km route.
ii.The underwater tunnels will connect Kolkata and Howrah with a Metro station at Howrah. This
metro station will be the deepest Metro station (33 metres below surface) of India.
70. India ranks _____, in the 6th edition of the annual Artificial Intelligence(AI) index report
published recently (in April ‘23) by Stanford University’s Human-Centered Artificial
Intelligence (HAI).
1) 8th
2) 4th
3) 6th
4) 3rd
5) 5th
Answer- 5) 5th
Explanation:
According to ‘Artificial Intelligence Index Report 2023’, the 6th edition of the annual Artificial
Intelligence(AI) index report published by Stanford University’s Human-Centered Artificial
Intelligence (HAI), India is ranked 5th in terms of private investments received in 2022 by startups
offering AI-based products and services with a total investment of US$3.24 billion.
• In 2022, the United States (US) led the world in terms of total AI private investment with
US$47.4 billion investment followed by China (US$13.4 billion), United Kingdom (US$4.4
billion), Israel (US$3.24 billion).
• India which stood in 5th place was ahead of South Korea, Germany, Canada and Australia,
among others.
71. What type of Biometric Authentication was recently (in April ‘23) launched by Citi Union
Bank, which is considered to be India’s 1st for Logging into its Banking App?
1) Palm vein
2) Facial
3) Voice
4) Finger vein
5) Iris
Answer- 3) Voice
Explanation:
On 12th April 2023, the Citi Union Bank (CUB) based in Kumbakonam (Tamil Nadu), launched India's
1st Voice Biometric Authentication for logging into its mobile banking app at an event held in
Chennai, Tamil Nadu(TN).
• The voice biometric was developed by Kaizen Secure Voiz Pvt. Ltd based in Chennai (TN),
under the guidance of the 5G use case lab of the Institute for Development and Research in
Banking Technology (IDRBT).

• The newly introduced voice biometric will be one more option for customers to log in along
with user id, PIN, face id and fingerprint authentication.
72. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) has recently (in April
‘23) published a report “Trade and Development Report Update: Global Trends and Prospects”
(April 2023).
According to the report, India’s economic growth is projected to decline to _____ in 2023 from
6.6% in 2022.
1) 6.3%
2) 5.8%
3) 5.9%
4) 6%
5) 6.1%
Answer- 4) 6%
Explanation:
According to the “Trade and Development Report Update: Global Trends and Prospects” (April 2023)
report published by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), India’s
economic growth is projected to decline to 6% in 2023 from 6.6% in 2022.
i.According to the report, India grew at a 6.6% annual rate in 2022, giving up the top spot among G20
(Group of Twenty) countries to oil-rich Saudi Arabia, which grew at an 8.6% annual rate.
• India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth is anticipated to slow to 6.0% in 2023 as a result
of declining government spending and high export orders.
ii.According to UNCTAD, 81 developing countries’ international reserves decreased by $362 billion
(5.3%) in 2022, or $241 billion (7%) if China is excluded.
73. Which of the following points is “Incorrect” with respect to the recent (in March ‘23)
contracts signed by the Ministry of Defence (MoD)?
A) The MoD has signed contracts for the acquisition of 11 Next Generation Offshore Patrol
Vessels (NG-OPV) and 6 Next Generation Missile Vessels (NGMV), equipment and BrahMos
supersonic missiles for coastal defence for the Indian Navy.
B)The Contract for acquisition of 11 NG-OPVs was signed with Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) and
Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) at a total cost of Rs 9,781 crore.
C) The Contract for acquisition of 6 NGMVs was signed with Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
Limited at a cost of Rs 6,805 crore and delivery is scheduled to commence from March 2026.
1) Only A & B
2) Only B & C
3) Only A
4) Only B
5) Only C
Answer- 5) Only C
Explanation:
To boost ‘Aatmanirbharta’ in defence, the Ministry of Defence(MoD) signed multiple deals worth ~ Rs
32,000 crore for the Indian Armed forces- Indian Navy (IN) and Indian Army(IA).
• MoD has signed contracts for the acquisition of 11 Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels
(NG-OPV) and 6 Next Generation Missile Vessels (NGMV), equipment and BrahMos supersonic

missiles for coastal defence for the Indian Navy and improved Akash Surface to Air
missile(SAM) system and 12 Swathi Weapon Locating Radars (WLR) (Plains) for the Indian
Army.
i. Contract for acquisition of 11 NG-OPVs It was signed with Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) and Garden
Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata (West Bengal), at a total cost of Rs 9,781 crore. It
was signed under Buy {Indian-IDDM (Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured)}
category.
ii. Contract for acquisition of 6 NGMVs: It was signed with Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) at a cost of
Rs 9,805 crore and delivery is scheduled to commence from March 2027.
iii. The contract for WLR Swathi (Plains) was signed with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) at a cost of
over Rs 990 crore.
iv. MoD has also signed a contract worth Rs 1700 crore with BrahMos Aerospace Private Limited
(BAPL) for procurement of Next Generation Maritime Mobile Coastal Batteries (NGMMCB) (Long
range) and BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles.
74. Which of the following points is “Incorrect” with respect to the amendments of the
Competition Act, 2002 in March 2023?
A) Lok Sabha approved the amendments of the Competition Act, 2002, that seek to cover global
deals by digital multinational companies (MNCs) under local laws.
B) Following the amendment, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) will now have the
power to impose penalties on MNCs for violations based on their international revenue.
C) According to the bill, the entities are expected to seek approval from the Competition
Commission if the deal value exceeds Rs 5000 crore.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only A & C
5) Only B & C
Answer- 3) Only C
Explanation:
On 29th March 2023, Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament, approved the amendments of the
Competition Act, 2002, that seek to cover global deals by digital multinational companies (MNCs)
under local laws.
• The Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was passed after Finance Minister Nirmala
Sitharaman moved as many as 13 official amendments to the Bill.
i. Following the amendment, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) will now have the power to
impose penalties on MNCs for violations based on their international revenue.
• The Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2022 aims to regulate transactions made by international
digital companies, provided that the entities involved have a strong business presence in India.
• According to the bill, entities are expected to seek approval from the Competition Commission
if the deal value exceeds Rs 2000 crore and if both companies (acquiring and the target) have
substantial business operations in India.

75. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the Securities and Exchange
Board of India (SEBI) Board Meeting held in March 2023?
A) SEBI approved the legal framework for ‘ESG (Environmental, Social, and Governance)
Disclosures, Ratings, and Investing’ to encourage a balanced approach to ESG.
B) The Board has approved the proposal for the Application Supported by Blocked Amount
(ASBA)-like facility that will be made available to investors for secondary market trading.
C) The Board approved amendments to the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations,
2012, to establish the Corporate Debt Market Development Fund (CDMDF) as an Alternative
Investment Fund (AIF).
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) took a number of decisions at its board meeting on
March 29, 2023, with the goal of protecting investors’ interests and bolstering the market
infrastructure to handle disruptions.
• The announcements at the meeting, 17 announcements include 16 major decisions and
approval of SEBI budget estimates for the fiscal year 2023–2024 (FY24).
• To encourage a balanced approach to ESG, SEBI approved the legal framework for ‘ESG
(Environmental, Social, and Governance) Disclosures, Ratings, and Investing’, as well as
amendments to the SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015,
and SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996.
• The Board has given its approval to the broad proposal for the Application Supported by
Blocked Amount (ASBA)-like facility that will be made available to investors for secondary
market trading.
• The Board approved amendments to the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations,
2012, to establish the Corporate Debt Market Development Fund (CDMDF) as an Alternative
Investment Fund (AIF).
• The SEBI Board has given its approval to the SEBI budget estimates for the fiscal year 2023–
2024 (FY24).
76. In April 2023, the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) raised the interest rate on various
small savings schemes for the first quarter (Q1) of FY24.
Which of the following points is ‘Incorrect’ with respect to Small Saving Schemes (SSS) & their
interest rates as of April 2023?
1) The interest rate for Senior Citizen Savings Schemes has been increased from 8% to 8.2%.
2) The National Savings Certificates (NCS) witnessed the highest increase in rate, which increased
from 6.9 % to 7.5% from January to June.
3) Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) has changed to 115 months of maturity period with an interest rate of
7.5% from 120 months of maturity period with an interest rate of 7.2% .
4) The Public Provident Fund (PPF) has remained unchanged with the interest rate of 7.1% over Q1
FY24.

5) The Interest Rate of 1 Year Time Deposit at the post office has increase from 6.6% to 6.8%
Answer- 2) The National Savings Certificates (NCS) witnessed the highest increase in rate,
which increased from 6.9 % to 7.5% from January to June.
Explanation:
The Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Ministry of Finance (MoF) has announced an interest rate
hike on various Small Savings Schemes for the first quarter of the financial year 2023-24 ( Q1 FY24)
(i.e. April 1, 2023 to June 30, 2023), marking the third consecutive quarter of rate hikes.
• The interest rate for Senior Citizen Savings Schemes has been increased from 8% to 8.2%.
• The National Savings Certificates (NCS) witnessed the highest increase in rate, which increased
from 7% to 7.7% from January to June.
• The interest rate on these savings instruments has been raised by 10-70 basis points (bps)
[one percentage point is equivalent to 100 bps].
• However, the interest rate for PPF scheme has been kept unchanged at 7.1% over Q1 FY24, and
its returns have remained constant at 7.1% for the last three years.
• The rate for Kisan Vikas Patras was hiked from 7.2% to 7.5%. The scheme will now mature in
115 months, rather than 120 months previously.
• The interest rate on a one-year term deposit at the post office would increase from 6.6% to
6.8%. List of Various Small Savings Schemes with Interest Rates as of April 2023 .
77. Which of the following points is/are “Correct” with respect to the Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority of India’s (IRDAI)’s Liberalised Commission Regulations released in
March 2023?
A) IRDAI has announced three new regulations that are anticipated to have major economic
implications on market participants, including insurers and intermediaries.
B) In the IRDAI (Expenses of Management of Insurers transacting General/Health Insurance
business) Regulations, 2023, the standalone health insurers are permitted to incur EOM up to
25% of gross written premium in India during a financial year.
C) Under the IRDAI (Payment of Commission) Regulations, 2023, the insurance regulator has
replaced the earlier cap on different types of commission payments to intermediaries with an
overall board-approved cap that should be within the permissible expenses.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has announced three new
regulations that are anticipated to have major economic implications on market participants,
including insurers and intermediaries. The three new rules are as follows:
i. According to the IRDAI (Expenses of Management of Insurers transacting General or Health
Insurance business) Regulations, 2023, standalone health insurers are permitted to incur expenses of
management (EOM) up to 35% of gross written premium in India during a financial year, whereas
general insurers are permitted to incur EOM up to 30% of gross written premium in India for a
financial year.

ii. Under the IRDAI (Payment of Commission) Regulations, 2023, the insurance regulator has replaced
the earlier cap on different types of commission payments to intermediaries with an overall board-
approved cap that should be within the permissible expenses.
iii. The IRDAI (Expenses of Management of Insurers transacting life insurance business) Regulations,
2023
• Objective: To enable and provide flexibility to insurers in managing their expenses within the
overall limits based on their gross written premium and optimally utilizing their resources for
boosting policyholder benefits.
78. Name the Mobile app of National Logistics Portal (Marine) that was launched by the Union
Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Sarbananda Sonowal in March 2023.
1) Sagar Parikrama
2) Sagar Manthan
3) Sagar Mala
4) Sagar Baran
5) Sagar Setu
Answer- 5) Sagar Setu
Explanation:
On 31st March 2023, The Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal, Ministry of Ports, Shipping and
Waterways (MoPSW) launched a mobile application – “SAGAR SETU”, the app Version of National
Logistics Portal (Marine) in New Delhi, Delhi.
i. The app offers features such as Login Module, Service Catalogue, Common Application Format,
Letter of Credit, Bank Guarantee, Certification, Track and Trace, etc. that provide real-time
information on activities which are out of reach for importers, exporters, and customs brokers.
• This includes vessel-related details, gate information, container freight stations, and
transactions, all easily accessible through the app.
i. It enables digital transactions for payments required for the clearance process of import and export.
79. In April 2023, _______ became the 1st Indian Bank to open ‘Special Rupee Vostro Account
(SRVA)’ in Malaysia to facilitate transactions between India and Malaysia in the Indian rupee.
3) Bank of India
4) Bank of Maharashtra
5) Bank of Baroda
Answer- 2) Union Bank of India
Explanation:
On April 1, 2023, the Union Bank of India (UBI) became the first Indian Bank to open its ‘Special
Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA)’ in Malaysia to facilitate transactions between India and Malaysia in
the Indian rupee.
• This will be done through the UBI’s corresponding bank in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia i.e. India
International Bank of Malaysia (IIBM).
• The will allow the Indian and Malaysian traders to invoice the trade in Indian Rupee.
• The total trade between India and Malaysia reached $19.4 billion in FY22, as per UBI.

80. In April 2023, the Foundation of SAARC Writers and Literature (FOSWAL) bestowed the
SAARC Literature Award 2023 (Special Literary Award) to “Sheikh Mujibur Rahman’, father of
____________ (country).
1) Pakistan
2) Bhutan
3) Afghanistan
4) Nepal
5) Bangladesh
Answer- 5) Bangladesh
Explanation:
In its 63rd Literature Festival, the Foundation of SAARC Writers and Literature (FOSWAL) bestowed
the SAARC Literature Award 2023 (Special Literary Award) to Bangladesh’s Father of the Nation,
Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman. [SAARC stands for South Asian Association for Regional
Cooperation].
i. The SAARC Literary Award for 2023 was bestowed to him for his great literary excellence through
his trilogy: The Unfinished Memoirs, The Prison Diaries, and The New China as I Saw It (1952).
ii. The award was handed over to his daughter, Bangladesh Prime Minister (PM) Sheikh Hasina.
81. In April 2023, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) conducted a Reusable Launch
Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX) at the Aeronautical Test Range (ATR) in
Chitradurga, Karnataka.
The mission was performed in collaboration with which of the following
organisations/defence sectors?
1) Defence Space Research Organisation
2) Indian Air Force
4) Both 1 & 2
5) Both 1 & 3
Explanation:
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully conducted the Reusable Launch
Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX) at the Aeronautical Test Range(ATR) in Chitradurga,
Karnataka. The mission was performed in collaboration with the Defence Space Research
Organisation (DRDO), and the Indian Air Force (IAF).
• The test involved a winged body lifted to an altitude of 4.5 km by an Indian Air Force (IAF)
Chinook helicopter, subsequently freed to execute an independent high-speed (350 kmph)
landing on a runway, and achieved the landing parameters.
• This is the first time that a winged body has been released mid-air by a helicopter and carried
out an autonomous landing.
82. In March 2023, _____________has become the 1st Country in the world to launch a
mathematical model to the prevalence of tuberculosis (TB) cases.
1) Japan
2) India
3) New Zealand

4) China
5) Finland
Answer- 2) India
Explanation:
India becomes the first country in the world to estimate tuberculosis (TB) burden in-country and
launch its country-level mathematical model to estimate the prevalence of TB cases in India.
• The mathematical model to estimate TB cases was launched in the 36th Stop TB Partnership
Board meeting (participated by delegates from 40 countries) at the One World TB summit
2023 which was held in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh from 23- 26 March 2023.
• As per the Indian mathematical model’s data, the global TB reduction number was about 11%
while the reduction in TB cases in India is 18%.
83. In the “India Development Update” (Spring 2023 Edition) released in April 2023, the World
Bank (WB) reduced its fiscal year 2023-24 (FY24) growth projection for India to _________ from
6.6% in December 2022 (FY23).
1) 6.4%
2) 6.2%
3) 6.0%
4) 6.3%
5) 6.1%
Answer- 4) 6.3%
Explanation:
The World Bank (WB) lowered its fiscal year 2023-24 (FY24) growth projection for India to 6.3% in
its “India Development Update” (Spring 2023 Edition), down from 6.6% in December 2022 (FY23).
• It further added that slower consumption growth and unfavourable external conditions are
anticipated to restrain India’s GDP growth.
i. The World Bank projected a 6.9% growth in FY23.
ii. The report also states that, while headline inflation remains high, it is expected to fall to 5.2% in
FY24, down from 6.6% in the current fiscal year (FY23).
iii. According to RBI data, India’s services exports increased 24.5% year on year (Y-o-Y) in October-
December 2022, reaching a record of USD 83.4 billion during the quarter.
84. Which of the following points is ‘Incorrect’ with respect to the Asian Development Outlook
April 2023 released by Asian Development Bank’s (ADB)?
A) The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has reduced India’s GDP growth forecast for the
Financial year 2022- 2023 (FY23) to 6.0 % from 6.4% of its earlier projection.
B) India’s GDP growth forecast for FY24 was projected at 6.7% due to improvement in private
investment and growth in the industry.
C) India’s Bank credit for agriculture and allied activities grew by 14.4% and for services by
21.5%
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only A & B
5) Only B & C

Answer- 1) Only A
Explanation:
The Asian Development Bank’s (ADB) Asian Development Outlook April 2023, has reduced India’s
GDP (Gross Domestic Product) growth forecast for the Financial year 2022- 2023 (FY23) to 6.4%
from 7% of its earlier projection.
• India’s GDP growth forecast for FY24 was projected at 6.7% due to improvement in private
investment and growth in the industry.
• Growth: The Indian economy is estimated to have grown by 6.8% in fiscal year 2022 (FY2022,
ending 31 March 2023).
• Inflation: Headline inflation exceeded the inflation target range of 2%–6%, averaging 6.8% in
the first 10 months of FY22. At its highest, it reached 7.8% in April 2022.
• Banking: Bank credit for agriculture and allied activities grew by 14.4% and for services by
21.5%, but for industry the growth was only by 8.7%.
85. According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data on India’s balance of payments (BoP) for
the third quarter of Financial Year 2022-23 (Q3 FY23), India’s current account deficit declined
to _________ of the GDP in Q3 FY23 from 3.7% of GDP in Q2 FY23.
1) 3.5%
2) 3.0%
3) 2.2%
4) 2.5%
5) 2.9%
Answer- 3) 2.2%
Explanation:
According to the Preliminary data on India’s balance of payments (BoP) for the third quarter of
Financial Year 2022-23 (Q3 FY23) (i.e., October-December 2022) released by the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) on March 31, 20223, India’s current account deficit, declined to 2.2% of the GDP ($18.2
billion) in Q3 FY23 from 3.7% of GDP (US$ 30.9 billion) in Q2 FY23 and US$ 22.2 billion (2.7% of
GDP) in Q3 FY22.
i. With considerable compression in the average trade deficit in January-February 2023, relative to the
previous three months, the size of the CAD is expected to recede further to around US$10-12 billion in
Q4 FY23.
86. Name the personality from India who has recently (in April ‘23) conferred with “Chevalier
de la Légion d'Honneur” (Knight of the Legion Honour), the highest French civilian award.
1) Swati Piramal
2) Leena Tewari
3) Sangita Jindal
4) Anand Mahindra
5) Kiran Nadar
Answer- 5) Kiran Nadar
Explanation:
Kiran Nadar, Philanthropist and an art collector, was conferred with “Chevalier de la Légion
d'Honneur” (Knight of the Legion Honour), the highest French civilian award, by Emmanuel Lenain,
French Ambassador to India in a ceremony held at the Residence of France in New Delhi, Delhi.

i. Kiran Nadar was honoured for her outstanding contribution to the arts, her dedication to providing
greater access to culture both nationally and internationally, and her leading role in establishing
cultural ties between France and India.
ii. Kiran Nadar, the Chairperson of the Kiran Nadar Museum of Art (KNMA) and a Trustee of the Shiv
Nadar Foundation is the founder of India’s 1st private museum.
• As a part of the mixed team, she won the Bronze Medal in the Bridge event at the 2018 Asian
Games.
87. Which state has recently (in April ‘23) launched ‘India’s 1st Cool Roof Policy 2023-2028’ to
reduce the heat island impact and heat stress?
1) Gujarat
2) Maharashtra
3) Telangana
4) Rajasthan
5) Jharkhand
Answer- 3) Telangana
Explanation:
Telangana launched “Telangana Cool Roof Policy 2023-2028” for all types of buildings to reduce
temperatures in Hyderabad and other urban areas in Telangana. With this launch, Telangana became
India's first state to introduce Cool Roof Policy.
• The Telangana Cool Roof Policy 2023-2028 aims to reduce the heat island impact and heat
stress in Telangana.
• This policy encourages and promotes the usage of cool roofs.
i. Telangana has set a target to cover an area of 7.5 square kilometers, including 5 sq km in Hyderabad,
Telangana in the first year (2023).
ii. The government is set to cool roof an area of 300 sq km of area including 200 sq km in Hyderabad
by 2030.
88. The Government of India (GoI) has recently (in April ‘23) given the Geographical Indication
(GI) tag to 33 new products from different states.
As of April 2023, How many products received GI Tags in India?
1) 465
2) 320
3) 534
4) 210
5) 350
Answer- 1) 465
Explanation:
The Government of India (GoI) has given the Geographical Indication (GI) tag to 33 new products
from different states, including Bihar (1), Uttar Pradesh (10), Madhya Pradesh (1), Chhattisgarh (1),
and Tamil Nadu (11), as well as the Union Territories (UT) of Ladakh (1) and Jammu & Kashmir (J&K)
(8).
• The total number of GI Tags in India has risen to 465. Products that have received the GI Tag

89. According to the ‘Infertility prevalence estimates 1990-2021’ report released by World
Health Organization (WHO) in April 2023, around ______ of the adult population (roughly 1 in 6 )
worldwide experience infertility in their lifetime.
1) 25.5%
2) 15.8%
3) 17.5%
4) 12.2%
5) 10.3%
Answer- 3) 17.5%
Explanation:
According to the World Health Organization (WHO) report, ‘Infertility prevalence estimates 1990-
2021’ released on April 03, 2023, Around 17.5% of the adult population (roughly 1 in 6 ) worldwide
experience infertility in their lifetime.
i. The report, the first of its kind in a decade, provides estimates of the global and regional prevalence
of infertility by analyzing all relevant studies from 1990 to 2021
ii. As per the report, the Overall pooled Lifetime prevalence of infertility is estimated to be 17.5% and
the Period prevalence of infertility is estimated to be 12.6%.
90. Which of the following points is/are “Correct” with respect to the 37th Annual World
Billionaire List 2023, released by Forbes in April 2023?
1) Mukesh Ambani regained his spot as the richest person in Asia and India with a net worth of USD
83.4 billion, and ranked at No. 9 on the world billionaire list.
2) Elon Musk, CEO of SpaceX & Tesla topped the list for the first time with a net worth of USD 211
Billion followed by Bernard Arnault, CEO of LVMH.
3) Gautam Adani is in 2nd place with a net worth of USD 47.2 billion as the richest person in Asia and
India and ranked at 24th Place on the world billionaire list.
4) Both 1 & 2
5) Both 1 & 3
Explanation:
Forbes released its 37th Annual World Billionaire List 2023 in which Mukesh Ambani regained his
spot as the richest person in Asia and India. With a net worth of USD 83.4 billion, he was ranked at
No. 9 on the world billionaire list.
i. Bernard Arnault, Chief Executive Officer(CEO) of LVMH (Moët Hennessy Louis Vuitton) topped the
list for the first time with a net worth of USD 211 Billion followed by Elon Musk, CEO of SpaceX &
Tesla, ranked 2nd with net worth of USD 180 Billion and Jeff Bezos, founder of Amazon at 3rd rank
with a net worth of USD 114 Billion.
• This is the first time a French citizen has led the World’s Billionaires ranking, which began in
1987.
ii. Gautam Adani is in 2nd place with a net worth of USD 47.2 billion. His world ranking is 24th.
91. Name the company that has recently (in April ‘23) test-fired advanced fully 3D-printed
‘Dhawan-II’ cryogenic engine for Vikram II rocket.
1) AgniKul Cosmos
2) Bellatrix Aerospace

3) Dhruva Space
4) Vesta Space Technology
5) Skyroot Aerospace
Answer- 5) Skyroot Aerospace
Explanation:
Skyroot Aerospace, the Private space technology startup based in Hyderabad, Telangana successfully
test-fired advanced fully 3D-printed ‘Dhawan-II’ cryogenic engine for 200 seconds at Solar
Industries propulsion test facility in Nagpur, Maharashtra, using Skyroot’s indigenously developed
mobile cryogenic engine test pad.
i. The engine will be used in the upper stage of their Vikram II rocket, which is set to be launched in
2024.
ii. The Dhawan-II engine was built upon the foundation laid by Skyroot’s first privately developed
fully-cryogenic rocket engine, the 1.0 kN thrust Dhawan–I, which was successfully test fired in
November 2021.
92. Which country has recently (in March ‘23) signed the first defence cooperation agreement
with India?
1) Lithuania
2) Croatia
3) Iceland
4) Romania
5) Finland
Answer- 4) Romania
Explanation:
On March 28, 2023, India and Romania signed the defence cooperation agreement during the
bilateral meeting on defence cooperation held between Giridhar Aramane, Secretary, Ministry of
Defence and Simona Cojocaru, State Secretary and Chief of the Department for Defence Policy,
Planning and International Relations of Romania in New Delhi, Delhi.
• This is the first defence cooperation agreement between India and Romania.
i. This agreement will set the foundation of the practical cooperation between the armed forces of
India and Romania & this will also provide a new impetus to the bilateral agenda on defence.
ii. Under this agreement, Romania will cooperate with India on military education, training, cyber
defence, military medicine, military history and other domains that can benefit both the nations.
93. Which of the following points is/are ‘correct’ with respect to the ‘Top 10 Busiest Airports
Worldwide for 2022,’ report published by the Airports Council International (ACI) World in
April 2023?
A) Delhi Airport [Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGIA)] in India ranked as the 9th busiest
airport in the world in 2022, surpassing Paris Charles de Gaulle (CDG) airport in France.
B) Atlanta’s Hartsfield-Jackson International Airport (ATL, 93.7 million passengers) in the US is
ranked first on the list of the world’s top 10 busiest airports for 2022.
C) Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport (DFW, 73.4 million passengers) is in the 2nd spot,
followed by Denver International Airport (DEN, 69.3 million passengers) in the 3rd spot.
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B

3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Explanation:
The Airports Council International (ACI) World published the ‘Top 10 Busiest Airports Worldwide for
2022,’ which ranked Delhi Airport [Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGIA)] as the 9th busiest
airport in the world in 2022, surpassing Paris Charles de Gaulle (CDG) airport in France.
• IGIA improved from its previous positions of 13th in 2021 and 17th in 2019, registering a
footfall of 5,94,907 (5.94 crore) passengers in 2022.
• IGIA, operated by Delhi International Airport Limited (DIAL), is the only airport in South and
Southeast Asia to make the top 10 list.
i. Atlanta’s Hartsfield-Jackson International Airport (ATL, 93.7 million passengers) in the US is
ranked first on the list of the world’s top 10 busiest airports for 2022.
ii. Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport (DFW, 73.4 million passengers) is in the 2nd spot,
followed by Denver International Airport (DEN, 69.3 million passengers) in the 3rd spot, Chicago
O’Hare Airport (ORD, 68.3 million passengers) in the 4th spot.
94. According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data (as of April ‘23), India’s Bank credit
increased by _______ year-on-year (YoY) in the Financial year 2022-23 (FY23), which is highest
since ________ (FY).
1) 18%; FY14
2) 20%; FY12
3) 15%; FY14
4) 20%; FY15
5) 15%; FY12
Answer- 5) 15%; FY12
Explanation:
According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data, India’s Bank credit increased by 15% year-on-year
(YoY) in the Financial year 2022-23 (FY23), against 9.6% YoY in 2021-22 (FY22).
• FY23 credit growth is the highest since FY12 when it was 19.3%.
i. Bank deposits expanded 9.58% YoY in FY23, against 8.9% YoY growth in FY22.
95. Which of the following points is/are ‘correct’ with respect to the election of the United
Nations (UN) Statistical Commission and subsidiary bodies of the United Nations (UN)
Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) in April 2023?
A) India was elected to the United Nations (UN) Statistical Commission and 3 other key
subsidiary bodies of the United Nations (UN) Economic and Social Council(ECOSOC).
B) India was elected unopposed to the Commission on Narcotic Drugs for 4 years starting from
1st January 2024 & Committee for Programme and Coordination for 3 years from 1st January
2024.
C) India was also elected to the Committee of Experts on Global Geospatial Information
Management (UN-GGIM) for 4 years.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B

3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
India was elected to the United Nations (UN) Statistical Commission and 3 other key subsidiary
bodies of the United Nations (UN) Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
i. During the elections held for the membership of 14 subsidiary bodies of ECOSOC, India was elected
as a member of the UN Statistical Commission.
ii. India was elected unopposed (elected by acclamation) to the Commission on Narcotic Drugs for a
term of 4 years starting from 1st January 2024 and Committee for Programme and Coordination
for a term of 3 years beginning on 1st January 2024.
iii. India was also elected to the Programme Coordinating Board of the Joint United Nations
Programme on HIV/AIDS (UNAIDS).
96. Which company/GoI agency’s 1st Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas trainer (LT 5201)
aircraft has recently (in April ‘23) completed its maiden flight?
1) Defence Research and Development Organisation
2) Bharat Electronics Limited
3) Indian Space Research Organisation
Answer- 5) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
Explanation:
The first series production Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas trainer (LT 5201) aircraft,
manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), successfully completed its maiden flight,
marking a major milestone in the LCA Tejas programme.
i. The 1st-ever Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) trainer (LT 5201) built to series production standards
took off from their airfield and successfully completed a 35-minute flight test before landing.
ii. The trainer plane was piloted by Group Captain Venu and Wing Commander Awasthi.
97. In which state, the India Grid Trust (IndiGrid) has recently (in April ‘23) commissioned its
1st Battery Energy Storage System (BESS) project coupled with solar panels?
1) Rajasthan
2) Maharashtra
3) Punjab
4) Haryana
5) Gujarat
Answer- 2) Maharashtra
Explanation:
On 5th April 2023, India Grid Trust (IndiGrid), India’s 1st listed power sector infrastructure
investment trust, commissioned its 1st Battery Energy Storage System (BESS) project coupled with
solar panels at its Dhule sub-station in Maharashtra.
i. The BESS project will meet the substation’s auxiliary consumption requirement.

ii. The BESS solution coupled with solar energy will also act as a prototype for expanding its presence
in energy transition opportunities in the sector.
98. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the cabinet approvals in April
2023?
A) The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) has approved the Indian Space Policy 2023 to
enable the private sector to participate in various space activities.
B) The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved a mechanism to fix pricing
for domestic natural gas in India.
C) the Central Government approved the Indian Army’s decision to induct women officers in
the artillery regiments.
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Explanation:
The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi has approved the following
proposals:
i. The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) chaired by the Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi has
approved the Indian Space Policy 2023 that will enable the private sector to participate in various
space activities, such as constructing satellites, rockets, and launch vehicles, as well as collecting and
sharing data.
ii. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by PM Narendra Modi has approved a
mechanism to fix pricing for domestic natural gas in India.
• It has revised domestic natural gas pricing guidelines for gas produced from nomination fields
of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)/Oil India Limited (OIL), New Exploration Licensing
Policy (NELP) blocks and pre-NELP blocks, where Production Sharing Contract (PSC) provides
for Government’s approval of prices.
• The new mechanism will adopt the key recommendations made by the Kirit Parikh Panel, set
to decide the deregulation of gas prices in India.
iii. The Central Government approved the Indian Army’s decision to induct women officers in the
artillery regiments.
• In this regard, the first lot of women will be commissioned in the Army’s artillery regiments by
the end of April 2023 when they pass out of the Officers’ Training Academy (OTA), Chennai,
Tamil Nadu.
99. Which of the following policy rates is ‘wrongly matched’ with respect to the 1st Bi-Monthly
Monetary Policy of FY24 released by RBI in April 2023?
1) Policy Repo Rate - 6.50%
2) Reverse Repo Rate - 3.35%
3) Bank Rate - 6.25%
4) Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) Rate - 6.25%
5) Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate - 6.75%

Answer- 3) Bank Rate - 6.25%
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) 6-members Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) met on 3rd, 5th
and 6th of April 2023 and released its first bi-monthly monetary policy statement for FY24
(Financial year 2023-2024).
i. The MPC has decided to keep the policy rates unchanged with the stance remaining focused on the
withdrawal of accommodation.
ii. The Unchanged Policy rates are as follows:
Category Rates
Policy Repo Rate 6.50%
Reverse Repo Rate 3.35%
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate 6.75%
Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) Rate 6.25%
Bank Rate 6.75%
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) 4.50%
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) 18%
100. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the recent (as of April’ 23)
step taken by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)?
A) SEBI has issued a circular on the use of brand names or trade names by Investment Advisers
(IAs) and Research Analysts (RAs) with effect from May 1, 2023.
B) SEBI also released new rules on the advertisement code for IAs and RAs, as well as enforced
their compliance with the advertisement code, in order to further enforce the conduct of IAs
and RAs when releasing any advertisement.
C) The code of conduct for IAs and RAs is outlined in the Securities and Exchange Board of India
(Investment Advisers) Regulations, 2013 & Securities and Exchange Board of India (Research
Analysts) Regulations, 2014.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C

Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), India’s capital markets regulator, has issued a
circular on the use of brand names or trade names by Investment Advisers (IAs) and Research
Analysts (RAs), following its previous publication of an extensive set of guidelines for advertisements
issued by these entities.
• The provisions of the circular will take effect on May 1, 2023.
i. SEBI has released new rules on the advertisement code for IAs and RAs, as well as enforced their
compliance with the advertisement code, in order to further enforce the conduct of IAs and RAs when
releasing any advertisement. The provisions of this circular will take effect on May 1, 2023.
ii. The code of conduct for IAs and RAs is outlined in the following regulations:
• Securities and Exchange Board of India (Investment Advisers) Regulations, 2013
• Securities and Exchange Board of India (Research Analysts) Regulations, 2014
iii. Both the SEBI circular issued in the exercise of powers granted under Section 11(1) of the
Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
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Policy Repo Rate 6.50%

Reverse Repo Rate 3.35%

Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate 6.75%

Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) Rate 6.25%

Bank Rate 6.75%

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) 4.50%

Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) 18%