PROCESS PLANT UTILITY

Unit I – Water
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. ………… is called as Universal Solvent (Water)
2. Water is …………. solvent (polar)
3. …………. of earth surface is covered by water.(4/5th)
4. pH of the water is …… (7 or neutral)
5. What are the main classifications of water…….. (Surface water & Underground water)
6. Types of surface water….… (Rain, River, Lake and Sea water)
7. Types of underground water……. (Spring, Well water)
8. What are the impurities present in water……. (Dissolved, Suspended, Colloidal and Bacterial
impurities)
9. Soft water is defined as ……….. (Absence of Calcium & Magnesium salt in water)
10. Hard water is meant by ………… (Presence of Calcium & Magnesium salt in water)
11. Types of hardness present in water…….. (Temporary and Permanent Hardness)
12. What are the salts producing temporary hardness ……. (Bicarbonates, Carbonates of Calcium
and Magnesium)
13. What are the salts producing permanent hardness ……. (Chlorides, Sulphates of Calcium and
Magnesium)
14. What are the measurements of hardness in water …….. (ppm, mg/litre, Degree Clark, Degree
French)
15. Specification of water used for Artificial silk …….. (Clear, Bright and free from colour)
16. Specification of water used for drying …… (free from iron, colour and turbidity)
17. Specification of water used for paper industry ……. (free from colour, sedimentary matter, iron
and manganese)
18. Specification of water used for photographic films …….. (free from colour, suspended matter
and metals like iron, zinc and manganese)
19. Specification of water used for tanning …….. (free from iron and lime salts)
20. Specification of water used for steam production ……. (free from sedimentary matter, calcium
& magnesium salts)
21. What are the methods of softening of water…… (Pre-boiling of water, Lime Soda Process,
Zeolite Process, Phosphate Treatment, Ion Exchange Process, Reverse Osmosis Process)
22. What is pre-boiling of water ….… (Hard water feed to boiler is passed through heat exchanger
and it reboiled)
23. Components removed during pre-boiling of water ……… (Dissolved gases, bicarbonates of
calcium and magnesium)
24. What is Lime soda process ..….. (Soluble impurities are chemically converted into insoluble
precipitates and it can be removed by settling or filtration)
25. ………. are the components removed by lime. (free acids, magnesium salts, iron salts,
aluminium salts, CO2, H2S)
26. ………. are the components removed by soda ash. (all calcium salts)
27. Types of lime soda process …… (Cold lime soda process and hot lime soda process)
28. Cold lime soda process is defined as …….. (Lime, soda ash and coagulants is mixed with water
at room temperature for particular period, precipitate is removed at bottom and soft water
is taken at the top of the column)
29. Hot lime soda process is defined as …….. (Lime, soda ash and coagulants is mixed with water
at 80 - 100℃ for particular period, precipitate is removed at bottom and soft water is taken
at the top of the column)
30. Types of cold lime soda process …….. (Batch and Continuous Process)
31. Hardness of water after lime soda process ……….. (15 – 50 ppm)
32. The chemical structure of zeolite is ……… (Na2OAl2O3. SiO2. H2O)
33. Function of zeolite in softening of water………. (It exchange calcium and magnesium ions into
sodium ions in raw water)
34. Types of zeolite ………. (Natural zeolite and Synthetic zeolite)
35. Natural zeolite obtained from …….. (green sand by washing, heating and treatment with
caustic soda)
36. Synthetic zeolite obtained from …….. (Solutions of Sodium silicate and Aluminium hydroxide)
37. Regeneration of zeolite can be done by …….. (NaCl)
38. Types of zeolite water softener ……. (Gravity type and Pressure type)
39. Hardness of water after zeolite process …….. (10 – 15 ppm)
40. What is phosphate treatment …….. (Add phosphate salt into boiler for removing scale inside
the boiler)
41. Types of ion exchanger used in ion exchange process ……… (Cation Exchange Resin and Anion
Exchange Resin)
42. The process of removing floating matter, plant bodies, wooden pieces and animals in water is
called …… (Screening)
43. The process of removing dust and clay particles, insoluble salt in water is called ……..
(Sedimentation)
44. The process of removing colloidal matter particles of clay, light materials in water is called ……..
(Coagulation)
45. The process of removing micro-organisms, sand particles in water is called …… (Filtration)
46. The process of removing pathogenic bacteria in water is called …….. (Sterilization)
47. Types of filtration ….., (Slow sand filtration, Rapid sand filtration and Pressure filtration)
48. Various methods in sterilization …….. (Boiling, Using chlorine, Ozonizing, Ultra violet light,
Potassium Permanganate)
49. Causes of hard water feed into boiler…..... (Formation of scale, Corrosion, Priming & Foaming,
Caustic Embrittlement)
50. Sludge is …….. hardness (Temporary)
51. Scale is ……… hardness (Permanent)
52. Formation of scale is due to …… (Deposition of calcium and magnesium salt inside the boiler)
53. Effect of scale formation ……… (Wastage of fuel, Damage the various parts of boiler)
54. Method of removal of scale inside the boiler …… (Scraper, Knife blade, Mechanical or thermal
shock, using chemicals)
55. Causes of corrosion inside the boiler ……. (Dissolved gases like O2, CO2, H2S)
56. Preventive method for corrosion is …….. (Degasification, Chemical Degasification)
57. The water particles mixed with steam due to very rapid boiling of water inside the boiler is called
…….. (Priming)
58. Formation of foam or bubbles on surface of water …….. (Foaming)
59. Preventive measures for priming and foaming …….. (Maintain low water level, Add Anti-Foam
agents, Blow down of boiler)
60. Cracks appear inside the boiler under stress is called ……… (Caustic Embrittlement)
61. Preventive method for caustic Embrittlement is ……… (Adding inhibitors like sodium
phosphate, tannin, lignin)
62. Types of pressure driven membrane processes …….. (Micro filtration, Ultra filtration, Nano
filtration, Reverse osmosis)
63. Microfiltration is used to remove …….. (Particulate matter)
64. Ultrafiltration is used for …….. (Dye concentration, Colour removal, Caustic recovery)
65. Nanofiltration is used for ……… (Colour removal, Water softening, Heavy metal removal, BOD
reduction, acid clarification)
66. Reverse osmosis is used for ……. (Metal ion recovery, Pre- and Post-treatment of ion
exchange, BOD reduction and COD reduction)
67. Movements of components from lower concentration to higher concentration are called ……..
(Osmosis)
68. Movements of components from higher concentration to lower concentration by applying
external pressure are called …….. (Reverse Osmosis)
69. Membrane used for reverse osmosis ….. (Thin Film Composite (TCA) and Cellulose Triacetate
(CTA))
70. Applications of reverse osmosis……. (Chemical, Food, Biomedical, Pharmaceutical,
Petrochemical industries etc.)
71. Main reason for strengthening water quality standards ……… (human health issues)
72. Primary causes for water pollution …….. (Human activities)
73. …………. technique is used to determine the odour components in water. (Stripping)
74. Which form of water is pure…….. (Steam Vapour)
75. The pH of water can affect by …….. (Minerals)
76. Important Parameter in the success of water quality is ……… (Dissolved Oxygen)
77. The temperature of water should be………… (less than 25℃)
78. Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) can be reduced by ………. methods. (Distillation, Ion Exchange)
79. …………. does not produce latter with soap solution.(Hard water)
80. Turbidity present in water should be ……….. (Less than 10 ppm)
81. Total dissolved solids should be…….. (Less than 500 ppm)
82. Amount of dissolved solids passing through the filters in the process of filtration is called ……
(Difference between total solids and suspended solids)
83. Acidity in water is caused due to ……. (Mineral acids, Free CO2, Iron Sulphate)
84. Aeration of water is done to remove …….. (Odour)
85. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) of safe drinking water must be ……. (Nil)
86. Corrosion of a pipe causes ……… (Reduces its life span, Reduces its carrying capacity, add
colour to water)
87. Low turbidity of water is detected by ……… (Baylis turbidimeter)
88. Type of pipe commonly used in water supply is ………. (Cast iron pipes)
89. Disinfection of drinking water is done to remove ……… (Bacteria)
90. Chlorination of water does not remove ……… (Dissolved oxygen)
91. Underground water is obtained from …….. (Springs)
92. Application of water in power plant is …….. (Coolant)
93. One part of CaCO3 equivalent hardness per million parts of water is called …….. (1 ppm)
94. One mg of CaCO3 equivalent in one litre is called ……. (1 mg/litre)
95. One part of CaCO3 equivalent per 70,000 parts of water is called ……. (1°Cl (Clark’s Degree))
96. One mg of CaCO3 equivalent per 106 mg of water is called ……. (1 mg/litre)
97. One part of CaCO3 equivalent per 105 mg of water is called ……. (1°Fr (Degree French))
98. 1 ppm = ………. (1 mg/litre)
99. 1 ppm = ……….. (0.1°Fr)
100. 1ppm = …….. (0.07 °Cl)
 MOHAMED SATHAK ENGINEERING COLLEGE, KILAKARAI – 623806
DEPARTMENT OF CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
CH6009 – Process Plant Utilities
UNIT – II STEAM AND STEAM GENERATION
Syllabus:
Properties of steam, Problems based on steam, Types of steam generator such as solid fuel fired
boiler, waste gas fired boiler and fluidized bed boiler, Scaling and trouble shooting, Steam traps and
Accessories.
MCQ Questions:
1. Steam is a vapour
2. Vapour does not obey laws of perfect gases in normal condition
3. Vapour does obey laws of perfect gas in highly dried condition
4. Steam in dried state is called as super heated steam
5. Dry steam and moisture mixture considered as perfect gas
6. Properties of steam first investigated by regnault
7. Property of steam subsequently investigated by Prof. Callender
8. Steam experiment is done by electrical calorimeter
9. Steam absolute values are pressure, temperature and volume
10. Steam relative quantities are enthalpy and entropy
11. Enthalpy and internal energy are zero in water at 00c
12. The temperature of water is rise when sensible enthalpy is supplied
13. Water boils at 99.63 0 c When pressure is 1 bar
14. The temperature of water rising point is saturation temperature
15. The content of mixture steam and water is known as wet steam
16. Enthalpy of evaporation = (enthalpy of dry saturated steam ) – (enthalpy of boiling water)
17. To rise the temperature of one kilogram of water from 0 0 c to 100 0 c is 418.7 KJ
18. Enthalpy for 1kg water is 418 KJ
19. Enthalpy of evaporation is also called as Latent Heat
20. Enthalpy of dry saturated steam = enthalpy of saturated water + enthalpy of evaporation
21. The quantity of steam as regards its dryness is termed as dryness fraction
22. Dryness fraction = ( ms ) / (ms + m ) m=mass of water in suspension in steam, ms=mass of
dry steam contained in steam.
23. The volume in cubic meter per kg of dry saturated steam is known as specific volume of dry
saturated steam
24. Mollier diagram can combine enthalpy and entropy
25. The boiler must follow boiler act
26. Indian boiler act established in 1923
27. Boiler act certificate valid only 12 months
28. Violates of boiler act on first day fine is Rs.500 and Rs.100 for additional days
29. Fire tube boiler rate of production maximum is 2500 kg / hr
30. Fire tube boiler limited pressure is 7.5 to 10 bar
31. Cochran boiler rate of production maximum is 4000 kg / hr
32. Cochran boiler limited pressure is 15 bar
33. Cornish boiler first adobted by Trevithick the Cornish engineer
34. Cornish boiler rate of production maximum is 6500 kg / hr
35. Cornish boiler limited pressure is 10.5 bar
36. Lancashire boiler rate of production maximum is 9000 kg / hr
37. lancashire boiler limited pressure is 16 bar
38. locomotive boiler rate of production maximum is 9000 kg / hr
39. locomotive Cornish boiler limited pressure is 14 bar
40. locomotive boilers made at chitranjan works in india
41. Scotch boiler rate of production maximum is 1000 kg / hr
42. Scotch boiler limited pressure is 17 bar
43. Water tube boiler can separate as bent tube and horizontal straight tube
44. Water tube boiler used for above 10 bar pressure operation
45. Water tube boiler used for above 7000kg of steam per hour operation
46. Babcock and Wilcox water tube boiler is a straight tube boiler
47. Babcock and Wilcox water tube boiler boiler rate of production maximum is 40000 kg / hr
48. Babcock and Wilcox water tube boiler limited pressure is 40 bar
49. Stirling boiler rate of production maximum is 50000 kg / hr
50. Stirling boiler limited pressure is 60 bar
51. Pressure gauge indicates steam pressure in kgf/cm3
52. Common type pressure gauge is Bourdon pressure gauge
53. Duplex feed pump is a double acting pump.
54. Super heater is made up of by carbon steel
55. Injector is patented by messers holden and brocke of gorton Manchester
56. Good water boiler thermal efficiency is 80%
57. Cryogenic refrigerator or cryogenic range range is -157 0c to -273 0c
58. Common cryogenic refrigerants are oxygen, air, nitrogen, hydrogen, and helium
59. Secondary refrigerants are water , sodium chloride brine, calcium chloride brine and
propylene glycol
60. Brine is solution containing salt in dissolved condition in water
61. Freezing temperature of brine is lower than freezing temperature of water
62. Eutectic temperature of calcium chloride brine is -55 0c at salt concentration 30% by weight
63. Eutectic temperature of sodium chloride brine is -21 0c at salt concentration 23% by weight
64. Methyl alcohol is known as wood alcohol is used for anti breeze
65. Glycerin is anti freezing agent
66. Low pressure and high temperature refrigerants is F-11, F-113,H2O, CH2 CL2
67. Intermediate pressure and intermediate temperature refrigerants is F-12, F-500,SO2, CH2 CL
and isobutane
68. High pressure and low temperature refrigerants are F-12,F-22,CO2,NH3
69. High pressure and ultra loco temperature refrigerants is F-13,F-14 ,C2H6 and ethylene
70. Desiccants are silica gel , activated alumina and molecular sieve
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 UNIT- 4 COMPRESSED AIR MCQ’S
1. If the flow of air through the compressor is perpendicular to its axis, then it is a
a)Reciprocating compressor
b)centrifugal compressor
c)Axial flow compressor
d)Turbo compressor
2. Gas turbines use following type of air compressor
a)Centrifugal type
b)Reciprocating type
c)lobe type
d)Axial flow type
3. The degree of reaction is usually kept for all types of axial flow compressors.
a)0.2
b)0.3
c)0.4
d)0.5
4. A Compressor mostly used for supercharging of I.C engines is
a)Radial flow compressor
b)Axial flow compressor
c)Roots blower
d)Reciprocating compressor
5. The work done on a compressor will be minimum if air is taken from
a)The atmosphere
b)A Source at 00c
c)A source of low temperature air
d)A source of high temperature air
6.To avoid moisture troubles, the branch connections from compressed air lines should be
taken from
a)Top side of main
b)Bottom side of main
c)left side of main
 d)Right side of main
7.In axial flow compressor, the ratio of pressure in the rotor blades to the pressure rise in
the compressor in one stage is known as
a)Work factor
b)Slip factor
c)Degree of reaction
d)Pressure coefficient
8.The volumetric efficiency of a compressor
a)Increases with decrease in compression ratio
b)Decreases with deacrease in compression ratio
c)Increases with increase in compression ratio
d)Decreases with increase in compression ratio
9.The capacity of compressor will be highest when its intake temperature is
a)Lowest
b)Highest
c)Anything
d)Atmospheric
10.The volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke is called
a)Free air delivery
b)Compressor capacity
c)Swept volume
d)None of these
11.Which is the false statement about multistage compression?
a)Power consumption per unit of air delivered is low
b)Volumetric efficiency is high
c)It is best suited for compression ratios around 7:1
d)The moisture in air is condensed in the inter cooler
12.Standard air is the air at and relative humidity of 36 percent.
a)0.1 bar and 200c
b)1 bar and 200c
c)0.1 bar and400c
 d)1 bar and 400c
13.Out of the following from where you will prefer to take intake for air compressor
a)From an air conditioned room maintained at200c
b)From outside atmosphere at10c
c)From coal yard Side
d)From side where cooling tower is located nearby
14.When air is to be compressed at high pressure, then it is adavantageous to use
a)Single stage compression
b)Multisatge compression without inter cooling
c)Multistage compression with inter cooling
d)None of these.
15.In Multistage compressor, the isothermal compression is achieved by
a)Employing inter cooler
b)By constantly cooling the cylinder
c)By running compressor at very slow speed
d)By insulating the cylinder
16.The area of actual indicator diagram on an air compressor as compared to area of ideal
indicator diagram is
a)Less
b)More
c)Same
d)More or less depending on compressor capacity
17.Seperators in compressor installations are located
a)Before intercooler
b)After inter cooler
c)After receiver
d)Between after cooler and air receiver
18.Reciprocating air compressor is best suited for
a)Large quantity of air at high pressure
b)Small quantity of air at high pressure
c)Small quantity of air at low pressure
 d)large quantity of air at low pressure
19.In double acting compressor, the air is compressed
a)In one cylinder
b)In two cylinder
c)In a single cylinder on both sides of the piston
d)In two cylinders on both sides of the piston
20.Mining industry usually employs following motive power
a)A.C electric power
b)Compressed air
c)Petrol engine
d)Diesel engine
21.The reason for volumetric efficiency of reciprocating compressor being less than 100
percent is
a)Pressure drop across the valves
b)Superheating in compressor
c) Clearance volume and leakages
d)All of these
22.The mean effective pressure of the compressor is the
a)Actual volume of the air delivered by the compressor when reduced to normal
temperature and pressure conditions
b)Volume of air delivered by the compressor
c)Volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke
d)None of the above
23.An ideal air compressor cycle without clearance on p-v diagram can be represented by
following process
a)One adiabatic,two isobaric, one constant volume
b)Two adiabatic and two isobaric
c)Two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant volume
d)One adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant volumes.
24.Maximu work is done in compressing air when the compression is
a)isothermal
 b)Adiabatic
c)Polytropic
d)None of the above
25.A rotary compressor is driven by
a)Electric motor
b)Engine
c)Either(a) or (b)
d)None of these
26.The ratio of work done per cycle to the swept volume in case of compressor is called
a)Compression index
b)Compression Ratio
c)Compressor efficiency
d)Mean effective pressure
27. Clearance volume in actual reciprocating compression is essential
a)To accommodate valves in the cylinder head
b)To provide cushioning effect
c)To attain high volumetric efficiency
d)To provide cushioning effect and also to avoid mechanical bang od piston with
cylinder head
28.The over all efficiency of the compressed air system is the
a)A ratio of shaft output of the air motor to the shaft input to the compressor
b)A ratio of shaft input to the compressor to the shaftoutput of air motor
c)Product of shaft output of air motor and shaft input to the compressor
d)None of the above
29.A machine used to raise the pressure of air is called
a)Gas turbine
b)I.C engine
c)Compressor
d) Air motor
30.The capacity of a compressor is 5m per min refers to
a)Standard air
 b)Free air
c)Compressed air
d)Compressed air at delivery pressure
31.The process, which causes the air to enter the impeller blades of a centrifugal compres-
sor at velocity (without effecting the mass of air to flow and velocityof flow) is
known as prewhirl.
a)Reduced
b)increased
c)Zero
d)None of these
32.In a centrifugal compressor, the ratio of the to the blade velocity is called slip
factor.
a)Inlet whirl velocity
b)Outlet whirl velocity
c)Inlet velocity of flow
d)Outlet velocity of flow
33.The performance of air compressor at high altitudes will be as compared to that at
sea level
a)Same
b)Lower
c)Higher
d)None of these
34.the pressure and temperature condition of the air the suction of compressor are
a)Atmospheriic
b)Slightly more than atmospheric
c)Slightly less than atmospheric
d)Pressure slightly less than atmospheric and temperature slightly more than at-
mospheric
35.Which of the following statement is correct as regard to centrifugal compressors?
a)The flow of air is parallel to the axis of the compressor
 b)The static pressure of air in the impeller increases in order to provide centripetal
force on the air
c)The impeller rotates at high speed
d)The maximum efficiency is higher than the multistage axial flow compressors.
36.Isothermal compression efficiency can be attained by running the compressor
a)At very high speed
b)At very slow speed
c)At average speed
d)At zero speed
37.The capacity of compressor is expressed in
a)kg/m2
b)kg/m3
c)m3/min
d)m3/kg
38.The work done per unit mass of air in compression will be least when ‘n’ is equal to
a)1
b)1.2
c)1.3
d)1.4
39.Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be
a)As large as possible
b)As small as possible
c)About 50% of swept volume
d)About 100% of swept volume
40.the ratio of work done per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is known as
a)Compressor capacity
b)Compression ratio
c)Compressor efficiency
d)Mean effective pressure
41.The compressed air may be used
a)In gas turbine plants
 b)For operating pneumatic drills
c)In starting and supercharging of I.C engines
d)All of the above
42.In axial flow compressor, exit flow angle deviation from the blade angle is a function of
a)Blade camber
b)Blade camber and incidence angle
c)Space-chord ratio
d)Blade camber and space-chord ratio
43.Volumetric efficiency of air compressors is of the order of
a)20-30%
b)40-50%
c)60-70%
d)70-90%
44.Rotary compressor is best suited for
a)Large quantity of air at high pressure
b)Small quantity of air at low pressure
c)Small quantity of air at high pressure
d)Large quantity of air at low pressure
45.The thrust on the rotar in a centrifugal compressor is produced by
a)Radial component
b)Axial component
c)Tangential component
d)None of the above
46.In a centrifugal compressor, the highest mach number leading shock wave on the fluid
flow occurs at
a)Diffuser inlet radius
b)Diffuser outlet radius
c)Impeller outlet radius
d)Impeller inlet radius
47.A compressor at high altitude will draw
a)More power
 b)Less power
c)Same power
d)More or less power depending on other factors.
48.In a single acting reciprocating air compressor, without clearance, the compression of
air may be
a)Isothermal
b)Polytropic
c)Isentropic
d)Any one of these
49.During a peak load periods, the best method of controlling compressors is
a)Start-stop motor
b)Constant speed unloader
c)Relief valve
d)variable speed
50.A centrifugal compressor works on the principle of
a)Conversion of pressure energy into kinetic energy
b)Conversion of kinetic energy into pressure energy
c)Centripetal action
d)Generating pressure directly.
51.The maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is
a)10bar
b)20bar
c)30bar
d)50bar
52.Rotary compressors are used for delivering
a)Small quantities of air at high pressures
b)large quantities of air at high pressures
c)Small quantities of air at low pressures
d)large quantities of air low pressures
53.More than one stage will be preferred for reciprocating compressor if the delivery pres-
sure is more than
 a)2kg/cm2
b)6kg/cm2
c)10kg/cm2
d)14.7kg/cm2
54.Pick up the wrong statement about advantages of multi stage compression
a)Better lubrication is possible advantages of multistage
b)More loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
c)Mechanial blance is better
d)Air can be cooled perfectly in between
55.Losses in centrifugal compressors are due to
a)Inlet losses
b)Impeller channel losses
c)Diffuser losses
d)All of the above
56.Which of the following statement is correct?
a)The ratio of the discharge pressure to the inlet pressure of air is called compres-
sor efficiency
b)The compression ratio for the compressor is always greater than unity
c)The compressor capacity is the ratio of work done per cycle to the stroke volume
d)During isothermal compression of air, the work done in a compressor is maxi-
mum
57.For supplying intermittent small quantity of air at high pressure, following compressor
is best suited
a)Centrifugal
b)Reciprocating
c)Axial
d)Screw
58.The absolute pressure of air at the outlet of a compressor is called
a)Back pressure
b)Critical pressure
c)Discharge pressure
 d)None of these
59.The volume of air delivered in a medium capacity air compressor per unit time is
a)0.1to1.2m3/s
b)0.15to5m3/s
c)Above 5m3/s
d)None of these
60.For a two stage compressor, if index of compression for higher stage is greater than in-
dex of compression for lower stage,then the optimum pressure as compared to ideal case
will
a)Increase
b)Decrease
c)remain unaffected
d)Other factors control it
61.Which one of the following is the effect of blade shape on performance of a centrifugal
compressor?
a)Backward curved blades has poor efficiency
b)Backward curved blades lead to stable performance
c)Forward curved blades has higher efficiency
d)Forward curved blades produce lower pressure ratio
62.Diffuser in a compressor is used to
a)Increase velocity
b)Make the flow streamline
c)Convert pressure energy into kinetic energy
d)Convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
63.The thermodynamic efficiency of rotary compressor is based on
a)Isothermal compression
b)Adiabatic compression
c)Isentropic compression
d)Polytropic compression
64.The type of rotary compressor used in aeroplanes, is of
a)Centrifugal type
 b)Axial flow type
c)Radial fow type
d)None of these
65.phenomenon of choking in compressor means
a)No flow of air
b)Fixed mass flow rate reagardless of pressure ratio
c)Reducing mass flow rate with increase in pressure ratio
d)Increased inclination of chord with air steam
66.With the decrease in compression ratio, the volumetric efficiency
a)Does not change
b)Increases
c)Decreases
d)First increase and then decrease
67.Pick up a wrong statement. Surging phenomenon in centrifugal compressor depends on
a)Mass flow rate
b)Pressure ratio
c)Change in load
d)Stagnation pressure at the outlet
68.In air compressor, free air delivery means
a)Actual volume of the air delivered by the compressor when reduced to normal
temperature and pressure conditions
b)Volume of air delivered by the compressor
c)Volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke
d)None of the above
69.The ratio of the increase in pressure in rotor blades to total increases in pressure in the
stage is called
a)Pressure ratio
b)Pressure coefficient
c)Degree of reaction
d)Slip factor
70.Axial flow compressor resembles
 a)Centrifugal pump
b)Reciprocating pump
c)Turbine
d)Sliding vane compressor
71.Axial floe compressor has the following advantage over centrifugal compressor
a)Larger air handling ability per unit frontal area
b)Higher pressure ratio per stage
c)Aerofoil blades are used
d)higher average velocities
72.In a centrifugal compressor, an increase in speed at a given pressure ratio causes
a)Increase in flow
b)Decrease in flow
c)Increase in efficiency
d)Increase in flow and decrease in efficiency
73.If the flow of air through the compressor is parallel to its axis, then the compressor is
a)Reciprocating compressor
b)Centrifugal compressor
c)Axial flow compressor
d)Turbo compressor
74.A compressor at high altitude will require _____power
a)Same
b)Less
c)More
d)None of these
75.The compression ratio for the compressor is always_____ unity.
a)Equal to
b)Less than
c)More than
d)None of these
76.Euler’s equation can be used for
a)Radial flowcompressors
 b)Axial flow compressors
c)Pumps
d)All of these
77.In a single reciprocating compressor, the suction, compression and delivery air takes
place in of the piston
a)One stroke
bTwo stroke
c)Three stroke
d)Four stroke
78.The degree of reaction in an axial flow compressor is defined as the ratio of static en-
thalpy rise in the
a)Rotor to static enthalpy rise in stator
b)Stator to static enthalpy rise in the rotor
c)Rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stage
d)Stator to static enthalpy rise in the stage
79.A large clearance volume in a reciprocating compressor results in
a)Reduced volume flow rate
b)Increased volume flow rate
c)Lower suction pressure
d)Lower delivery pressure
80.Intercooling in multistage compressors is done
a)To cool the air during compression
b)To cool the air at delivery
c)To enable the compression in two stages
d)To minimize the work of compression.
81.When the outlet angle fom the rotor of a centrifugal compressor is more than 900, then
the blades are said to be
a)Forward curved
b)Backward curved
c)radial
d)None of these
82.The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called
a)Free air delivery
b)Compressor capacity
c)Swept volume
d)None of these
83.The ratio of discharge pressure to the inlet pressure of air is called
a)Compression ratio
b)Expansion ratio
c)Compressor efficiency
d)Volumetric efficiency
84.An air compressor may be controlled by
a)Throttle control
b)Clearance control
c)Blow off control
d)Any one of the above
85.The minimum work required for a three stage reciprocating air compressor is______ the
work required for each stage.
a)Equal to
b)Double
c)Three times
d)Six times
86.The air power of the compressor is also known as
a)Indicated power
b)Brake power
c)Frictional power
d)None of these
87.In a centrifugal compressor, the flow of air is ------- to the axis of compressor.
a)Parallel
b)perpendicular
c)Inclined
d)None of these
88.Free air is the air at
a)Atmospheric conditions at any specific location
b)200c and 1kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 36%
c)00c and standard atmospheric conditions
d)150c and 1kg/cm2
89.Standard air is the air at
a)Atmospheric conditions at any specific location
b)200c and 1kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 36%
c)00c and standard atmospheric conditions
d)150c and 1kg/cm2
90.In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third stage is 1bar and 16 bar,
then the delivery pressure at the fourth stage will be
a)1bar
b)16bar
c)64bar
d)256bar
91.Intercooling in compressors
a)Cools the delivered air
b)Results in saving of power in compressing a given volume to given pressure
c)Is the standard practice ffor big compressors
d)Enables compression in 2 stages
92.The stagnation pressure rise in a centrifugal compressors takes place
a)In the diffuser only
b)In the impeller only
c)In the diffuser and impeller
d)In the inlet guide vanes only
93.Which is false statement about advantages of multistage compressor in comparison to
single stage compressor?
a)Less power requirement
b)Better mechanical balance
c)Less loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
 d)Lower volumetric efficiency
94.The maximum compression ratio in an actual single stage axial flow compressor is of
order of
a)1:1.2
b)1:2
c)1:5
d)1:10
95.Rotary compressors are suitable for
a)Large discharge at high pressure
b)Low discharge at high pressure
c) Large discharge at low pressure
d) Low discharge at low pressure
96.Stalling of blades in axial flow compressors is the phenomenon of
a)Air stream blocking the passage
b)Motion of air at sonic velocity
c)Unsteady periodic and reversed floe
d)Air stream not able to follow the balde contour
97.What is humidification?
a)The process of increasing the moisture of the air is called as humidification
b)The hot air when cooled with contact in water
c)The warm air taken out when brought in contact with water
d)The air-water cooling done to cool down the warm water.
98.What is dehumidification?
a)The process of increasing the moisture of the air is called as humidification
b)The hot air when cooled with contact in water
c)The warm air taken out when brought in contact with water
d)The air-water cooling done to cool down the warm water
99.What is water cooling?
a)The process of increasing the moisture of the air is called as humidification
b)The hot air when cooled with contact in water
c)The warm air taken out when brought in contact with water
 d)The air-water cooling done to cool down the warm water
100.What is gas cooling?
a)The process of increasing the moisture of the air is called as humidification
b)The hot air when cooled with contact in water
c)The warm air taken out when brought in contact with water
d)The air-water cooling done to cool down the warm water
101.What is dry bulb temperature?
a)Temperature of air measured by thermometer whose bulb is dry.
b)It is the temperature attained by small amount of evaporating water in such a
manner that sensible heat transferred from air to liquid is equalt to latent heat re-
quired for evaporation.
c)The ratio of partial pressure of water vapour in air to the vapour pressure of wa-
ter at same temperature.
d)Direct measure of moisture content in a gas.
102.What is wet bulb temperature?
a)Temperature of air measured by thermometer whose bulb is dry.
b)It is the temperature attained by small amount of evaporating water in such a
manner that sensible heat transferred from air to liquid is equalt to latent heat re-
quired for evaporation.
c)The ratio of partial pressure of water vapour in air to the vapour pressure of wa-
ter at same temperature.
d)Direct measure of moisture content in a gas.
103.What is absolute humidity?
a)Temperature of air measured by thermometer whose bulb is dry.
b)It is the temperature attained by small amount of evaporating water in such a
manner that sensible heat transferred from air to liquid is equalt to latent heat re-
quired for evaporation.
c)The ratio of partial pressure of water vapour in air to the vapour pressure of wa-
ter at same temperature.
d)Direct measure of moisture content in a gas.
 FUEL AND DISPOSAL
1. In a four stroke engine , the working cycle is completed in_____(ans: two revolution of the
crankshaft)
2. A two stroke cycle engine gives ______the number of power strokes as compared to the four stroke
cycle engine , at the same engine speed.(ans: two)
3. The thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is_____ a four stroke cycle engine.(ans:
doubled)
4. The theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is____(ans: 14:7:1)
5. The thermodynamic cycle on which the petrol engine works, is______(ans: otto cycle)
6. A diesel engine has____(ans:combustion engine)
7. If petrol is used in a diesel engine , then_____(ans: higher knocking will occur)
8. A petrol engine has compression ratio from_____(ans: 10:1 to 13.5:1)
9. The function of a distributor in a coil ignition system of I.C engines is_____(ans: to time the spark)
10. Supercharging _____the power developed by the engine.(ans: increases)
11. A carburettor is used to supply______ (ans: spark ignition)
12. A spark plug gap is kept from______(ans: 0.3-0.7mm)
13. The knocking tendency in spark ignition engines may be decreased by ______(ans: reducing
compression ratio)
14. Wobbe index is a characteristic of _____(ans; GASEOUS FUEL)
15. ______ of the coal is the basis for seylor's coal classification. (ans; ultimate analysis)

16. In flue gas analysis by orsat's apparatus, carbon monoxide is absorbed by ______(ans; cuprous
chloride)
17. The heat of combution of a fuel_____(ans; is always negative)
18. Bulk density of pulverised coal may be about____kg/m^3 (ans; 500)
19. A coal with high ash content____ (ans; is harder and stronger)
20. Calorific value of coke oven gas is around_____Kcal/Nm^3.(ans; 42000)
21. Bomb calorimeter can be used to determine the ___of the coal. (ans: sulphur content and
calorific value)
22. Combustion reaction of fuels is a/an ______reaction.(ans: exothermic )
23. Coalification means the ______(ans: process of conversion of lignite into anthracite)
24. Wood→peat→_______→bituminous →anthracite.(ans: lignite)
25. Lignite is not a good fuel because______.(ans: low carbon content)
26. The natural gas is mixture of _____and ____.(ans: methane 90%,ethane10%)
27. ______ is used to determine viscosity of iols which are comparatively thinner.(ans: red-wood
viscometer)
28. ______ is used to determine flash and fire point of the gaseous fuel.(ans: pensky viscometer)
29. Percentage of nitrogen in blast furnace may be around______(ans: 55)
30. Bright coal contains mainly _____and _____.(ans: vitrain,clarain)
31. Calorific value of tar is about_____Kcal/kg.(ans: 8800)
32. Coke oven gas constitutes mainly of ______(ans: hydrogen,methane)
33. A coal containing high amount of volatile matter will have______(ans: low ignition
temperature)
34. The thermodynamic cycle on which the petrol engine works , is ___(ans: otto cycle)
35. The pressure at the end of the compression in petrol and diesel engines
where____and____(ans: 10bar,35bar)
36. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I.C engine are usually based on ____(ans: high heat value
of oil)
37. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine , the compression_____(ans: starts at 40◦ after bottom
dead center and ends at 10◦ before top dead center)
38. The increase in intake temperature of internal combustion engines will ____efficiency.(ans:
decrease)
39. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C engine running at 1500rpm will run at____(ans: 750rpm)
40. A two stroke cycle engine gives ___the number of power strokes as compared to the four
stroke cycle engine, at the same engine speed.(ans: double)
41. The knocking in spark ignition engines can be reduced by______(ans: retarding the spark
,increasing the engine speed)
42. The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by____(ans: octane number)
43. The maximum temperature in the I.C engine cyclinder is of the order of _____(ans: 2000-
2500◦c)
44. In compression ignition engines , swirl denotes a ____(ans: rotary motion of the gases in the
chamber)
45. In a cycle , the spark lasts roughly for ______(ans:0.001sec)
46. What is a geo-net ?(ans: A synthetic material used for drainage of liquids)
47. In a leachate collection system , what is the slope of linear? (ans: 2-8%)
48. what is the most expensive component of solid waste handling? (ans:collection)
49. The term ISWM is ______(ans: integrated solid waste management)
50. which gas produced in open dumps from the decomposition of biodegradable
waste?(ans:methane)
51. Which of the integrated waste management is reduced on an indiviual level?(ans: source
reduction)
52. How many types of landfills are there?(ans: three)
53. Why it is difficult to recycle plastics?(ans: it contains different types of polymer)
54. _____are used as a waste management plan.(ans: the integrated plan)
55. The organic material of the solid waste will decompose______(ans: by the action of
microorganisms)
56. The process of burning municipal solid waste under suitable temperature and condition in
specific furnace is called____(ans: incineration)
57. Problem of solid waste disposal can be reduced through____(ans: recycling)
58. Metals are produced as waste in industries like_____(ans: electroplating)
59. Incineration is a waste treatment process that involves_______contained in waste materials.
(ans: combustion of organic substances)
60. Which of the solid wastes describe the term 'MUNICIPAL SOLID' waste?(ans: non -hazardous)
61. ______ gas generates when the matter inside the sanitary landfill breaks down.(ans: methane)
62. ______can be recycled many times.(ans: aluminium)
63. Which of the gas can be produced from landfill wastes?(ans: biogas)
64. The process of burning municipal solid wastes in a properly designed furnace under suitable
temperature and these operating conditions is called_____(ans: Incineration)
65. ______ is the simplest and most common method used in the cities to dump the collected
wastes .(ans: landfill)
66. The most disposal wastes are in the form of ______(ans: solid ,liquid,gas)
67. _______ is the good way of dealing with the solid waste problem. (ans: recycling)
68. ______ can be recycled many times. (ans: aluminium)
69. _________ gas produced from landfill.(ans: biogas)
70. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is_____(ans: contamination
of groundwater)
71. Metals are produced as waste in industries like____ (ans: electroplating)
72. Social, economical and ecological equity is the necessary condition for achieving______ (ans:
sustainable)
73. The kind of dangerous gas that formed when things rot in landfills is called_______( ans:
methane)
74. _______ can be defined as the reduction of refuse using organic methodology. (ans :
biodegradation)