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The case of Persian izaafat is Urdu/Hindi words surfaces every once in a while on
various online forums ... but the discussions never resulted in any meaningful
conclusion.
Most people would agree that the izaafat is not allowed between Urdu/Hindi
words: While you can say, "rang e gul", but "rang e phool" is a no-no. But the
(million dollar) question has always remained illusive: WHY? Why we can't use
the izaafat between two Urdu/Hindi words, or one Urdu/Hindi and one
Persian (or derived from Persian) word?
Now a language is a strange beast; it's at the same time the most widely used
and one of the least understood human tool. While it readily adopt, absorb,
patronize "nouns" from other languages (especially when the lending language is
spoken by a relatively powerful society: remember the Arabic saying, "Language
of the king is the king of languages"?), they are as much as adamant to borrow
alien verbs.
Even some verbs might get exchanged, but the real distinguishing character of
any language is its grammar. That's why, in order to keep its integrity, languages
furiously resist any changes to its grammar.
Consider this:
In English, one method of pluralization is to add an "s" at the end of a word. For
example, car --> cars, book --> books, home --> homes, etc. Now in Urdu/Hindi,
we can use both "car" and "cars", "book" and "books", "home" and "homes", but
we cannot use the English grammatical *rule* of pluralization by adding an "s" to
Urdu/Hindi words. We can't, for example, say, "kitaabs", "gaaRees" and "ghars".
Can we?