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CORRELATION GEOLOGY

1. If the surface exposures of folded beds resemble Vs or horseshoe, then the folds must be:
a. isoclinals
b. Overturned
c. Plunging
d. Recumbent
e. Faulted

2. If you want to show on a map even the smaller details or features of a certain area , which of
the following scales will you use?
a. 1:100,00 b. 1:50,000 c. 1:10,000 d. 1:5,000

3. The collision of which tectonic plates caused the devastating March 2011 earthquake in
Japan?
a. Eurasian and North American Plates
b. North American and Pacific Plates
c. Philippine Sea Plate and Eurasian Plate
d. Pacific and Philippine Sea plates

4. What kind of faults can be found along mid-oceanic ridges that strike perpendicular to the
direction of spreading?
a. strike-slip faults
b. normal faults
c. thrust faults
d. transform faults

5. A stream which drain in a direction towards that of the original regional slope of the land
a. insequent
b. Obsequent
c. Consequent
d. Resequent

6. On a 1:50,000 topographic map with contour interval of 20 meters, what is the actual distance
between two points separated by 5 cm length of the map?
a. 2.5 km
b. 25 km
c. 5 km
d. 50 km

7. What geomorphic feature separates Central Luzon Basin from the West Luzon Platform
Basin?
a. Sierra Madre Mountains b. Zambales Ranges c. Central Cordillera Range d. Sicalao Ridge
8. Pratt‟s theory of isostasy assumes that the lithospheric blocks are of:
a. similar density and lie at different levels on the asthenosphere
b. different densities and lie at different levels on the asthenosphere
c. similar density and lie at similar levels on the asthenosphere
d. different densities and lie at similar levels on the asthenosphere
e. none of the above

9.
a. become horizontal b. Become vertical c. Decreased d. Increased e. Stayed the same

10. When was the 7.8 magnitude earthquake along the Digdig Fault segment of the Philippine
Fault that devastated cities in Luzon such as Baguio City?
a. July 1990
b. June 1990
c. July 1991
d. June 1991

11. What drainage pattern is developed when streams flow into a central depression such as
lake?
a. radial b. Centripetal c. Centrifugal d. Domal

12. An old topography in a humid environment is characterized by the presence of the following
except?
a. valleys b. Monadnocks c. Peneplain d. meandering streams

13. Which of the following would not describe a thrust fault?


A.dip-slip
b. hanging wall moves up
c. low-angle fault plane dip
d. upper plate overrides lower plate
e. horizontal tensional stress

14. _____is debris dislodged by weathering of steep slopes which accumulate at the base in a
conical, fan shape
a. alluvial fan b. Bajada c. Talus d. Delta

15. What drainage pattern is developed in strongly jointed rocky terrain?


a. deranged b. Dendritic c. Trellis d. Rectangular

16. On which island can you find the active volcano Mt. Ragang?
a. Luzon b. Leyte c. Mindanao d. Sulu

17. A map with a bar scale of 2 cm=50 meters would have a scale expressed in ratio of:
a. 1:25,000
b. 1:250
c. 1:2,500
d. 1:5,000
e. none of the above
18. Imagine the following. A road is cut by a vertical dipping fault. As you walk along the road
toward the fault, at the intersection of the fault and road, you have to turn to your right and walk
some distance along the fault until you encounter the continuation of the road. What would you
call the fault?
a. sinistral fault
b. dextral fault
c. oblique fault
d. dip-slip fault
e. none of the above.

19. Which of the following is not volcanic in origin?


a. Scarborough Seamount b. Cagayan de Sulu Ridge c. Babuyan Islands d. Kalayaan Group of
Islands

20. Baguio City has the _______as the basement rock


a. Zigzag Formation b. Klondyke Formation c. Pugo Formation d. Chico River Formation e.
None of the above

21. Which of the following terms does not refer to an elevated level expanse of land?
a. Mesa b. Butte c. Plateau d. Hogback

22. These are linear deposits of unsorted sediments formed by the advance or retreat of
glaciers.
a. Moraine b. Horn c. Cirque d. glacial striations

23. Lateral offset in drainage lines is commonly associated with


a. normal faults
b. reverse faults
c. thrust faults
d. strike-slip faults
e. block faults

24. A cross section with a vertical scale of 1cm = 125 m drawn from a 1:25,000 scale
topographic map would have a vertical exaggeration of : ____________.
a. 1.5 x
b. 2 x
c. 2.5 x
d. 3x
e. none of the above

For questions 25 and26: A cross section was drawn along a line oriented N15E and cutting
across sandstone beds oriented 325/60
25. What is the likely apparent dip of beds as viewed along the cross sectional line?
a. ~60 degrees
b. ~50 degrees
c.~40 degrees
d.~30 degrees
e. none of the above

26. What would be the apparent dip of the beds if a vertical exaggeration of 2.5x is applied?
a. ~80 degrees
b.~70 degrees
c.~60 degrees
d. ~50 degrees
e. none of the above

27. How many sedimentary basins are present within the Philippine Mobile Belt?
a. seven b. Eight c. Nine d. Ten e. Eleven

28. The Philippines has ______ provinces


A. 78 B. 79 C. 80 D. 81 E. 82

29. What global tectonic features are found where thrust faults are common?
a. rift valleys
b. transform plate boundaries
c. folded mountain ranges related to convergent plate boundaries
d. thermal plumes
e. mid-ocean ridge

30. Compared to a fault, the rocks along a joint


a. have experienced no appreciable displacement
b. are intensely deformed
c. are older on the up thrown side
d. are younger on the up thrown side
e. are associated with metamorphism

31. The following is a form of deformation except:


a. Dilation
b. Distortion
c. Rotation
d. Translation
e. None of the above

32. A pair of equal and opposite forces acting on a unit area of a body is known as:
a. Strain
b. Confining pressure
c. Stress
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

33. Shear stress acts ______ to the surface.


a. Perpendicular
b. Parallel
c. Oblique
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

34. A fifteen (15) km road stretch is represented in a 1:10,000 map by what length (in
centimeters) ?
a. 1.5 cm
b. 15 cm
c. 150 cm
d. 1500 cm
e. none of the above

35. Which of the following can be used as strain markers?


a. Bilaterally symmetrical fossils
b. Spherical objects
c. Oolites
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

36. This type of behaviour produces permanent strain which exhibits smooth variations across
the deformed sample or rock without marked discontinuities.
a. Elastic
b. Brittle
c. Ductile
d. a and b
e. b and c

37. Brittle deformation is more likely under conditions of:


a. High temperature and slow deformation rates
b. Low temperature and fast deformation rates
c. High temperature and fast deformation rates
d. Low temperature and slow deformation rates
e. None of the above

38. Which of the following is not true about the geology of Mindanao?
a. The Central Cordillera and the Pacific Cordillera belong to the same terrane
b. The Zamboanga Peninsula belongs to a terrane of Eurasian affinity
c. The Pliocene-Quaternary volcanic fields in Mindanao may be related to a detached oceanic
slab of the Molucca Sea Plate beneath the island
d. A and C
e. none of the above

39. The plate that developed at the western edge of the Pacific Plate is the:
a. Philippine Sea Plate
b. Mariana Trough
c. Eurasian Plate
d. South China Sea
e. Indo-Australian Plate

40. The Mesozoic ophiolites exposed in the Philippine Archipelago can be correlated with the
marginal basins currently surrounding the island. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. No conclusion can be drawn

41. The southeast Asian marginal basins successively opened within the:
a. Tertiary
b. Jurassic to Cretaceous
c. Paleozoic
d. a and b
e. none of the above

42. The North Palawan Block is considered to have drifted from southern China as evidenced
by:
a. stratigraphic correlation
b. paleontologic correlation
c. paleomagnetism
d. a and b
e. all of the above

43. The southward drift of the North Palawan Block resulted from the opening of the
______________:
a. South China Sea
b. Celebes Sea
c. Sulu Sea
d. All of the above
e. None of the above.

44. The following factors affect the behavior of rock materials when deformed except:
a. Time
b. Confining pressure
c. Pore fluid pressure
d. Temperature
e. None of the above

45. If the distance of two given cities in a 1:15,000 map is 5 cm, what is the actual distance? (3
pts)
a. 500 meters
b. 750 meters
c. 1250 meters
d. 1500 meters
e. none of the above

46. Which of the following is/are not true about the South China Sea basin:
a. It opened sometime during the Late Eocene to Oligocene
b. It is composed of three sub-basins
c. The Scarborough Seamount serves as the old spreading center
d. A and b
e. None of the above

47. Which of the following is/are not true about the Sulu Sea?
a. It has three sub-basins
b. It opened as a back-arc basin
c. Formed along the Cagayan de Sulu Ridge
d. Formed starting approximately 20 Ma.
e. None of the above
48. The Celebes Sea formed during the:
a. Early Miocene
b. Oligocene
c. Eocene
d. Oligocene to Miocene
e. None of the above

49. The Philippine Sea Plate is bounded by the


a. The Bonin-Marianas-Yap Trench system
b. The Nankai-Ryuku Trench
c. The East Luzon-Philippine Trench system
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

50. Models for the formation of the Celebes Sea include:


a. A fragment of the West Philippine Basin
b. A back arc basin
c. A basin rifted from the SE continental margin
d. All of the above
e. A and b only

51. The West Philippine Basin originated as_______based on existing models:


a. Trapped oceanic basin
b. Back-arc basin
c. Fore-arc basin
d. A and b
e. All of the above

52. The spreading center of the West Philippine Basin is the:


a. Central Basin Fault
b. Scarborough Seamount
c. West Philippine Sea Plate Spreading Center
d. Marianas Trough
e. None of the above

53. The part of the beach above the high tide line that is flat or slopes slightly landward is the:
a. beach face b. marine terrace c. Berm d. Surf zone e. Spit

54. Which of the following would not reflect longshore drift:


a. tombolos b.baymouth bars c. Spit d. Stacks e. Jetties and groins

55. The Parece Vela-Shikoku Basin is separated from the West Philippine Basin by:
a. Izu-Bonin Ridge
b. West Marianas Ridge
c. Palau-Kyushu Ridge
d. A and C
e. B and C
56. The back-arc basin of the northern Sierra Madre Range is
a. Cagayan Valley Basin
b. Solsona Basin
c. Central Valley Basin
d. Caraballo Mountain
e. Central Cordillera

57. Which of the following would not describe an anticline:


a. plastic strain respose b. Beds dip away from the axial plane c. Horizontal limbs d. Oldest
beds at the center e. Opens downward

58. Joints oriented in one direction and approximately parallel make up a :


a. thrust fault b. Overturned fold c,recumbent folds d. Joint stress e. Joint set

59. If Cretaceous sedimentary rocks are observed resting on Precambrian igneous and
metamorphic rocks, the contact would beb interpreted as a:
a. thrust fault b. Overturned fold c. Disconformity e. Angular unconformity e. Nonconformity
60. The Philippines is generally interpreted as a collage of insular arcs, ophiolitic suites and
continental rocks of Eurasian affinity. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. No conclusion can be drawn

61. The following is the morphological expression of the westward subduction of the Philippine
Sea Plate under the eastern Philippine arc:
a. Philippine Trench
b. Manila trench
c. Sulu trench
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

62. The following lies within the West Philippine Basin except:
a. Benham plateau
b. Urdaneta Plateau
c. Central Basin Fault
d. Gagua Ridge
e. None of the above

63. Which is true of the Philippine Mobile Belt?


a. A product of the NW-SE oblique convergence between the Eurasian Plate and the Philippine
Sea Plate
b. It extends from Taiwan in the north to the Molucca Sea Collision Zone in the south
c. It is flanked by subduction zones
d. a and c only
e. a, b and c

64. The following statements are true of the Philippine Trench except:
a. It has a well-developed accretionary prism
b. It has a relatively shallow Benioff zone
c. Its age of initiation is relatively young
d. The temporal and spatial distribution of volcanic rocks along the eastern Philippines suggests
southern propagation of subduction along the Philippine Trench from about 8 Ma
e. None of the above
65. Which is not true of the East Luzon Trough:
a. It is connected with the Philippine Trench by a transcurrent fault zone;
b. Focal mechanism solutions define a shallow, west-dipping Benioff zone for this feature
c. There is no volcanic arc in Luzon associated with the activity along the East Luzon Trough
d. A and b
e. None of the above

66. The Molucca Sea is a classic example of :


a. arc-continent collision
b. arc-arc collision
c. continent-continent collision
d. none of the above

67. Which is not true of the Negros Trench:


a. It is here that the oceanic crust of the Sulu Sea is being consumed
b. Its Benioff zone is not well defined
c. Subduction is marked by the presence of an arc which has been active since its initiation at
~10 Ma
d. The Negros Trench connects southwestwards with the Sulu Trench
e. None of the above

68. Arc development in the northern Sierra Madre-Caraballo region essentially started during
the:
a. Oligocene
b. Miocene
c. Cretaceous
d. Eocene
e. None of the above

69. The volcanic equivalent of the Coastal Batholith noted by previous workers in the northern
Sierra Madre region is the:
a. Caraballo Formation
b. Dibuluan River Formation
c. Palali Formation
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

70. Which of the following is true about the Cordon Syenite exposed in northern Luzon:
a. It represents a late Oligocene to early Early Miocene magmatic event
b. It consists of alkalic bodies
c. Its formation may be related to intra-arc rifting that led to the formation of the Cagayan Valley
Basin
d. A and b
e. A,b and c

71. The oldest known magmatic rocks (of Lower Cretaceous age) in the Philippines are found
in:
a. Bohol
b. Baguio City
c. Cebu
d. Surigao
e. None of the above

72. Which of the following comprises the basement rock of the Southern Sierra Madre?
a. Zambales Ophiolite
b. Angat Ophiolite
c. Casiguran Ophiolite
d. Pugo Formation
e. Liminangcong Formation

73. The earliest pulse of plutonic activity in the Central Cordillera in northern Luzon occurred in
the Late Eocene to Oligocene. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. No conclusion can be drawn
74. The “arc polarity reversal” model envisions Luzon as resulting from:
a. The westward subduction along the proto-East Luzon Trough possibly until the Late
Oligocene and subsequent flipping of subduction along the Manila Trench.
b. The eastward subduction along the Manila Trench possibly until the Late Oligocene and
subsequent flipping of subduction along the proto-East Luzon trough.
c. The westward subduction along the Philippine Trench possibly until the Late Oligocene and
subsequent flipping of subduction along the Manila Trench.
d. The eastward subduction along the Manila possibly until the Late Oligocene and subsequent
flipping of subduction along the Philippine Trench.
e. None of the above.

75. Which of the following portions of Mindanao can be considered as having Philippine-
Halmahera arc (Philippine Sea Plate) affinity?
a. Central Cordillera
b. Pacific Cordillera
c. Central- Western Mindanao (Saranggani-Dagum-Cotobato Basin-Zamboanga)
d. All of the above
e. A and b only

76. Which is not true of the Philippine Fault?


a. It is a sinistral fault
b. It transects the archipelago from Luzon to Eastern Mindanao for more than 1,200 km.
c. It accommodates a lateral component of the oblique convergence between the Philippine Sea
Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
d. Its formation is synchronous to that of the Philippine Trench
e. None of the above

77. The back-arc basin of the Central Cordillera in northern Luzon is:
a. Cagayan valley Basin
b. Central Valley Basin
c. South China Sea basin
d. Solsona Basin
e. none of the above
78. The following are examples of marginal basins except:
a. South China Sea
b. Sulu Sea
c. Parece Vela Basin
d. Celebes Sea
e. None of the above

79. Which of the following is generally considered as aseismic?


a. Palawan trough
b. East Luzon trough
c. Philippine Trench
d. Negros Trench
e. none of the above.

80. Which among the rock formations in the Philippines is the oldest?
a. Liminangcong Formations
b. Bacuit Formation
c. Lubuagan Formation
d. Labayug Formation
e. Guadalupe Formation

81. Which of the following rock formation in northern Luzon is dominantly composed of molasse-
type of deposits:
a. Kennon Limestone
b. Klondyke Formation
c. Cataguintingan Formation
d. Rosario Formation
e. none of the above.

82. As exposed in Baguio City, the basement rock comprising the southern Cordillera Range is?
a. Kennon Limestone
b. Zigzag Formation
c. Klondyke Formation
d. Mirador Limestone
e. none of the above

83. Which is not true of Palawan?


a. The northern region is of Eurasian affinity
b. The southern region is composed mainly of ophiolite
c. It is bounded by the Palawan trough to the east
d. The boundary between the southern and northern terrane is perceived to be the Ulugan Fault
e. none of the above.

84. The structure marking the boundary between the Manila and Negros-Sulu trench systems is:
a. Philippine Fault Zone‟
b. Antique-Tablas lineament
c. Verde Passage Suture
d. Manila Trench
e. None of the above
85. The Chocolate Hills of Bohol belongs to what formational unit?
a. Sierra Bullones Limestone
b. Maribojic Formation
c. Malay Formation
d. Anda Formation
e. None of the above

For questions 86-87 , refer to the following diagram:


86. The nature xof strain being shown in A is:
a. Continuous homogenous
b. Continuous heterogenous
c. Discontinuous heterogenous
d. None of the above

87. The nature of strain being shown in B is (same choices as 86) Continuous heterogenous

The following are consequences of the continued collision of the Indian plate with Eurasian plate
except
a. rise of the Tibetan Plateau
b. deepening of Mt. Everest’s roots
c. change in climate in the Himalayas
d. crustal shortening along collision zone

88. What sedimentary basin is located to the east of the Central Cordillera Range
a. Central Luzon Basin b. Cagayan Valley Basin c. Mindoro Basin d. West Luzon Platform Basin

89. Which of the following is not true for normal faults:


a. The maximum principal stress is vertical and corresponds to gravitation load
b. Pure dip slip occurs only if the extension direction is perpendicular to the strike of the fault
plane
c. The sense of simple shear movement on these faults implies an extension of the block
parallel to σ1 and contraction parallel to σ3.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

90. Listric normal faults are produced when the fault encounters a weak (incompetent) layer.
This statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. No conclusion can be drawn

91. Which of the following is not a tectonic habitat of normal faults:


a. completed rifts
b. intraplate rifts
c. trench outer slope
d. deltaic areas
e. None of the above

92. The following statements hold true for thrust faults except:
a. The sense of shear on the thrusts implies horizontal contraction parallel to σ1 and vertical
extension.
b. Thrusts will form more easily at relatively low levels in the crust where the lithostatic
pressure is low
c. Where thrusts affect a set of bedded rocks which are near horizontal in attitude, the thrusts
generally follow a staircase path made up of alternating ramps and flats
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

For questions 93-95, refer to the following diagram (top view):


93. The sense of movement being shown above is:
a) Sinistral strike slip fault
b) Dextral strike slip fault
c) Normal fault
d) Thrust fault
e) A and B

94. Mountains are likely to be associated with the feature above in


a. A
b. B
c. A and B
d. Neither A or B

95. Valleys and basins are likely to be associated with the feature above in (same choices as
95) A

96. In strike-slip faults, which features are likely not to be found in restraining bends?
a. Pop-up structure
b. Positive flower structure
c. Thrust faults
d. Negative flower structure
e. None of the above

97. Subsidiary strike slip shear fractures set of conjugate shear fractures that develop in strike-
slip fault
systems are known as:
a. Riedel shears
b. C-S-shears
c. P shears
AB
d. Conjugate shears
e. None of the above

98. Which of the following is not an evidence of fault movement?


a. sag ponds
b. shutter ridges
c. triangular facets
d. slumping
e. none of the above

99. In a thrust fault system, individual imbricate thrust sheets within the duplex are called _____
a. Horses
b. Imbricate zone
c. Piggyback structure
d. Schuppen structure
e. None of the above

100. Faulted and folded sheets which have moved many tens of kilometers and rest on a rock of
a totally different character is called:
a. Imbricate zone
b. Klippe
c. Nappe
d. Window
e. None of the above.

101. In a thrust fault system, this is where the thrust cuts upwards through the stratigraphic
sequence at an angle of typically around 30o to the horizontal.
a. Ramp
b. Flat
c. Decollement plane
d. Hanging wall
e. Footwall

102. A fault rock type with a relatively fine grain size as compared to the host rock and resulting
from crystal-plastic processes.
a. Mylonite
b. Schist
c. Marble
d. Phyllite
e. Eclogite

103. Relic structures of a more coarse-grained fabric formed by diminution of the grain size in
the matrix.
a. Porphyroblast
b. Porphyroclast
c. Cataclastite
d. Catablastite
e. None of the above

104. Relatively large single crystals which formed by metamorphic growth in a more fine-grained
matrix (same choices as no. 103) a. Porphyroblast

105. Which of the following is not a shear sense indicator


a. Oblique foliation
b. Mantle porphyroclast
c. Shear band cleavages
d. C-S structures
e. None of the above

106. Folds with interlimb angle of 70 to 120 degrees are called:


a. Open fold
b. Gentle fold
c. Closed fold
d. Tight fold
e. Isoclinal fold

107. Folds having constant actual bed thickness are called:


a. Isoclinal fold
b. Symmetrical fold
c. Parallel folds
d. Similar folds
e. Concentric folds

108. Folds consisting of rocks that are younging towards the core are called:
a. Antiform
b. Synform
c. Anticline
d. Syncline
e. A and c

109. En echelon, left-stepping, right-lateral strike slip faults will likely form areas of :
a. extension
b. contraction
c. non conclusion can be drawn
Refer to the figure below.

110. The sense of movement most likely being suggested by the Riedel shears is:
a. left-lateral
b. right-lateral
c. oblique fault
d. dip-slip fault
e. cannot be determined
For questions 111 to 113, refer to the following figure:

111. The type of fold most likely being depicted in the Figure above is a:
a. antiform
b. synform
c. recumbent fold
d. monocline
e. none of the above
112. The strike of the limbs of the fold is approximately:
a. N60E
b. N80E
c. N25W
d. N15W
e. due north

113. The steeper limb of the fold has a dip angle of approximately:
a. 25 degrees
b. 35 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. 55 degrees
e. 65 degrees

For Q114-115: Borehole logs showed the following stratigraphy:

Assuming that the rock units comprise a sequence of A,B,C,D,E and so on…
114. Based on the given log A, what type of fault likely caused the stratigraphy:
a. Sinistral fault
b. Dextral fault
c. Thrust fault
d. Normal fault
e. None of the above

115. _______is responsible for the stratigraphy depicted in Log B (refer to choices for No. 47)

116. Folds with axial planes oriented horizontally are called:


a. Recumbent fold
b. Inclined fold
c. Chevron folds
d. Slump fold
e. None of the above

117. A oceanic spreading center is cut by transform faults as shown below. What is the sense of
movement of the transform faults:
a. Dextral strike slip fault
b. Sinistral strike slip fault
c. Normal fault
d. Thrust fault
e. No conclusion can be drawn

118. Values of apparent dips of beds are always smaller compared to their corresponding true
dips. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. Not necessarily true

For questions 119-120, refer to the following figures.


A dipping surface which crops out in a valley or on a ridge will give rise to a V-shaped outcrop.
Given this, which of the given figure depicts a rock unit: (write the corresponding letter)
B 119. dipping steeply (i.e., dip > gradient of valley) downstream?
C 120. dipping gently (i.e, dip< gradient of valley) downstream?
A 121. dipping upstream?

122. The oblate spheroidal shape of the Earth can be explained by the fact that:
a. the gravitational force offsets the effect of centrifugal force at the poles
b. the gravitational force offsets the effect of centrifugal force at the equator
c. centrifugal force is greater at the equator than at the poles
d. a and c
e. b and c

For questions 123-124, refer to the following figure:


A sandstone-shale contact was encountered at three localities namely A, B, C with elevations of
150m , 100m and 175 m respectively. Given this:
123. What is the strike of the contact?
a. N30W
b. N60W
c. due north
d. N30E
e. N60W

124. What is the dip of the contact


a. 35NE
b. 35NW
c. 35SE
d.35SW
e. due west
125. Which of the following is a characteristic of a mature terrain?
a. has a straight stream channel
b. valley floor is insignificant
c. rivers flow through a V-shaped valley
d. stream divides are generally broad
e. none of the above

126.____________is a morphological feature formed by the interaction between a flow and


cohensionless sediment on a bed
a. bedform
b. Hjulstrom effect
c. ripples
d. dunes
e. none of the above

127. This type of stream has position which is a result of the initial slope of a land in which the
location is due solely to the original irregularities of the land surface
a. consequent
b. subsequent
c. resequent
d. insequent
e. none of the above

128. Circular arrangement of drainage pattern that may be found around maturely dissected
domes which have alternating belts of strong and weak rocks encircling them:
a. barbed
b. Angulate
c. Annular
d. deranged
e. None of the above

129. Sharp crested ridges which develop where the rock dips are steep, roughly in excess of 45
degrees -
a. cuesta
b. Hogback
c. Peneplain
d. buttes
e. None of the above

130. Folds with interli8mb angle of 70 to 120 degrees are called:


a. open fold b. Gentle fold c. Closed fold d. tight fold e. Isoclinal fold

131.Which of the following is not a mode of preservation of fossils?


a. permineralization
b. replacement
c. recrystaliization
d. distillation
e. none of the above
132. Fossil impression of a surface is a:
a. mold
b. cast
c. carbonization
d. permineralization
e. none of the above

133. If one were to squeeze a ball of clay in the palm of the hand, the clay would contain a
reverse replica of the inside or palm of the hand. This produces an:
a. internal mold
b. external mold
c. internal cast
d. external cast
e. none of the above

134. These records the effects of an organism on its environment:


a. impression
b. mold
c. cast
d. trace fossils
e. none of the above

135. Preserved feces of animals are called:


a. borings
b. coprolites
c. fecaliensis
d. trace marks
e. none of the above

136. Major reef builders of the Late Paleozoic, particularly during the Devonian were the:
a. rugose corals
b. scleratinian corals
c. scyphozoan coelenterates
d. tabulate corals
e. none of the above

137. Major reef builders during the Silurian were the:


a. rugose corals
b. scleratinian corals
c. scyphozoan coelenterates
d. tabulate corals
e. none of the above

138. The most diverse group of brachiopod during the Paleozoic :


a. pelecypods
b. articulate brachiopods
c. inarticulate brachiopods
d. b and c
e. none of the above
139. The largest phylum of living organisms is :
a. coelenterates
b.arthropods
c. mollusc
d. bryozoa
e. None of the above

140. _____is a sedimentary rock containing the waxy hydrocarbon fuel called kerogen.
a. oil sands
c. peat
b. oil shale
d. tar sand

141. Sediments that bounce or skip along the stream bed are said to be moving by ___.
a. capacity
c. saltation
b. competence
d. Traction

142 The maximum load of solid particles that a stream can transport is called its __(A)____;
however, the measure of the maximum size of solid particles that a stream can transport is
called its ___(B)____.
a. capacity (3)
c. saltation
b. competence (4)
d. Traction

143. Limestone can have a clastic or non-clastic texture.


a. True
b. False

144. There are about eleven different environments where sediments accumulate, as such,
there are about eleven different facies forming today.
a. True
b. False

145. Determining „texture‟ in calcareous rocks commonly includes which of the following
observations?
i. biologically produced textures
ii. grain type
iii. presence/absence of micrite
iv. presence/absence of sparite
a. i, ii
c. i, ii, iii, iv
b. i, iii, iv
d. iii, iv

146. What fundamental assumption is made by geologists when they interpret the geological
record noted in rocks?
a. Most geologic processes taking place today operated at rates different from those of the past.
b. Features found in the rocks were produced by the same processes that operated in the past.
c. Uniformity in the type and rate of processes
d. b and c
e. none of the above

147. How does the ocean water depth influence the production and/or preservation of carbonate
sediment?
i. Algae can produce carbonate at any depth in the water column.
ii. Calcite and aragonite are only undersaturated in water depths greater than 4500m.
iii. Shallow water carbonate production can be diluted in the sedimentary deposits by abundant
siliciclastic material from the continents.
iv. Warm surface (<100m) water can be supersaturated with respect to calcium carbonate.
a. i, ii
c. i, ii, iii, iv
b. i, iii, iv
d. iii, iv

148. Calcite and aragonite are different names for the same mineral.
a. True
b. False

149. The following description of a sedimentary rock describes a grainstone. 20% 1mm shell
fragments, 30% micrite, 50 % ooids. Mud supported
a. True
b. False

150. All of the following environmental features can favor the formation of a boundstone, except
a. Absence of siliciclastic sediment input
b. Edge of platform margin
c. High CO2 concentration in sea water.
d. Shallow (few meters) water depth.

151. The term „texture‟ in siliciclastic rocks includes which of the following features?
a. fabric
c. particle shape
b. grain size
d. all of the above

152. How do both the lithology and the climate of the source area contribute to the formation of
conglomerates?
a. Climate can preferentially destroy less resistant rocks and minerals through chemical
weathering. b. Climate is the only factor that can result in the breakdown of massive rocks into
gravel sized particles at the surface of the Earth.
c. Lithology of the source areas dictates the potential range of mineral and rock compositions.
d. both a and c

153. The following sediment description indicates a texturallysupermature sediment. Grain size:
10% of grains <0.004 mm, 40% of grains 0.004 – 0.063 mm, 50 % of grains 0.063 to 2 mm,
10% of grains > 2mm. Grains are very well rounded. 90% of grains composed of quartz.
a. True
b. False
154. Most sandstones are composed of varying proportions of quartz, feldspars and/or rock
fragments.
a. True
b. False

155. Dominantly unaltered feldspars in sandstone indicate a depositional weathering


environment dominated by mechanical weathering processes.
a. True
b. False

156. Give the sandstone rock name following grain composition: 5% plagioclase, 25%
polycrystalline quartz, 15% gneiss, 15% orthoclase and 40% monocrystaline quartz.
a. feldsphaticlitharenite
c. lithic subarkose
b. lithic arkose
d. quartz arenite

157. The phi units for cobble


a. -2 to 4
c. -6 to -8
b. -2 to -6
d. < -8

158. The abundance of a particular mineral in sedimentary rock is dependent not only its source
area geology but also on its chemical and mechanical stability.
a. True
b. False

159. Which one of the following is not related to chemical weathering?


a. decomposition
b. frost wedging
c. hydrolysis
d. Oxidation

160.Which of these factors influence the type and rate of weathering?


a. mineral content
b. climate
c. topography
d. all of the above

161. The vertical drop of a stream channel over a certain distance defines ____________.
a. Discharge
b. laminar flow
c. Runoff
d. Gradient

162. Which one of the following factors does NOT influence stream velocity?
a. channel size and shape
b. laminar flow
c. discharge
d. channel roughness

163. If you were to examine the longitudinal profile of a typical river, you would probably find
that ____________.
a. the gradient is steepest near the mouth
b. the gradient is steepest near the head
c. the gradient is about the same at both the head and the mouth
d. none of these

164. Most streams transport the greatest amount of sediment as part of their ____________
load.
a. dissolved
b. suspended
c. bed
d. none of the above

165. A natural levee is ____________.


a. an erosional feature
b. a depositional feature
c. an erosional feature, essentially parallel to the stream channel
d. a depositional feature, essentially parallel to the stream channel

166. As stream discharge increases _________.


a. stream velocity, channel width, and depth all increase
b. stream velocity increases, but channel width and depth decrease
c. stream velocity, channel width, and channel depth all decrease
d. channel depth increases, but channel width and stream velocity decrease

167. If the steep side of a drumlin is on the northeast, it indicates that the glacier advanced from
what direction?
a. southwest
b. southeast
c. northwest
d. Northeast

168. Desert pavement is the result of ________.


a. deflation
b. abrasion by windblown sand
c. erosion by running water
d. intense chemical weathering

169. The slip face of a particular barchan dune is on the southeast side. The prevailing wind in
this area is from the _________.
a. northeast
b. northwest
c. southeast
d. Southwest
170. If the half-life of a material x is 1000 years and you found a specimen with equal amounts
of material x and material z (the daughter product) the specimen would be about
____________.
a. 500 years old
b. 1000 years old
c. 1500 years old
d. 2000 years old

171. Abundant fossil evidence did not appear in the geologic record until about _________
years ago.
a. 5 billion
b. 6 million
c. 600 million
d. 300 million

172. The person most often credited with formulating the principle of faunal succession is
____________.
a. Nicolaus Steno
b. William Smith
c. John W. Powell
d. James Hutton

173. Which one of the organisms listed below would have the best chance of becoming part of
the fossil record?
a. horse
b. fish
c. butterfly
d. Ant

174. Which of the following gases was NOT part of Earth's original atmosphere?
a. water vapor
b. carbon dioxide
c. nitrogen
d. Oxygen

175. The most common Precambrian fossils are ____________, layered mounds of calcium
carbonate.
a. prokaryotes
b. chert
c. trilobites
d. Stromatolites

176. The ____________ era is known as the "age of flowering plants."


a. Precambrian
b. Paleozoic
c. Cenozoic
d. Mesozoic

177. The ____________ period was a time of major extinctions, including 75 percent of
amphibian families.
a. Jurassic
b. Mississippian
c. Permian
d. Pennsylvanian

178. The beginning of the Cambrian period marks an important event in animal evolution – the
appearance of organisms with ____________.
a. wings
b. cells
c. hard parts
d. Vertebrae

179. When are waves affected by the sea floor, that is, when do waves begin to "feel bottom"?
a. when water depth is equal to one-half the wavelength
b. when water depth is equal to the wavelength
c. when water depth is twice as great as the wavelength
d. when water depth is three times as great as the wavelength

180. When waves reach shallow water, they are often bent and tend to become parallel to the
shore. This process is referred to as ______.
a. oscillation
b. refraction
c. translation
d. Reflection

181.Narrow bands of interlayered Archaean volcanic rocks and clastic sedimentary rocks with
some chert and iron formations are called:
a. Greenstone belts
b. Shields
c. Lipalian interval
d.Vendian interval
e. none of the above

182. Craton-wide unconformity recognized in North America marking the absence Precambrian-
Eocambrian marine rocks:
a. Greenstone interval
b. Lipalian interval
c. Vendian interval
d. Kenoran interval
e. none of the above

183.One of the two oldest orogenies of Precambrian history recognized in the North American
craton is: it
a. Lipalian
b. Vendian
c. Kenoran
d. Laurentian
e. none of the above
184. The oldest unequivocal remains of a diversity of microorganisms occur in the _____ of the
Canadian Shield:
a. Gunflint Chert
b. Bitter Springs Formation
c. Ediacara Formation
d. Robertson Formation
e. none of the above

185. The proto-Atlantic Ocean that opened during the Eocambrian and Cambrian and which
may have triggered the extensive Cambrian seas of North America is called:
a. Rheic Ocean
b. Sauk Sea
c. Iapetus Ocean
d. Pan-African Sea
e. none of the above.

186. The Caledonian Orogeny that occurred during the Ordovician to Silurian in Europe has its
counterpart in North America, the name being:
a. Hercynian Orogeny
b. Taconic Orogeny
c. Acadian Orogeny
d. Kanimblan Orogeny
e. none of the above

187. The dinosaurs actually belong to at least two separate orders of reptiles that arose from a
group of reptiles called the:
a. thecodonts
b. ornithopods
c. ceratopsians
d. pterosaurs
e. none of the above

188. Mesozoic deposits of a very fine-grained lithostratigraphic limestone that originally formed
as a chemical precipitate in quiet lagoons along the shores of the regressing Late Jurassic
epeiric sea and preserved in the rocks of southern Germany are collectively referred to:
a. Solnhoffen Fossils
b. Ediacara Fossils
c. Vah Heutten Fossils
d. Cheilostomes
e. none of the above

189. The term “Tertiary” was named by:


a. Arduino
b. von Humboldt
c. d‟ Halloy
d. Murchison
e. none of the above

190. The term “Ordovician” was named by:


a. Sedgwick
b. Desnoyer
c. Williams
d. Lapworth
e. none of the above

191. The following are attributes of a formation except:


a. It is mappable
b. It is uninterrupted by regional unconformity
c. It was deposited under essentially uniform conditions or under an alteration of similar
conditions
d. It is limited in horizontal extent
e. none of the above

192. The following are attributes of a member except:


a. identified and recognized with the same criteria that is used to discriminate formations
b. It is the smallest formal unit in the hierarchy of lithostratigraphic unit
c. No fixed standard is required for the extent and thickness of a member
d. a and c
e. none of the above

193. Which of the following does not provide crucial information in interpreting the environment
of deposition of a particular outcrop?
a. type of lithology
b. internal structures
c. fossil types
d. rock texture
e. none of the above

194. Wegeners theory on continental drift was rejected by philosophers and scientists during his
time mainly due to his:
a. inability to present any evidence to support his theory
b. inability to provide an adequate explanation of the forces responsible for continental drift
c. inability to present his work with conviction
d. a and b
e. all of the above

195. Arthur Holmes‟ main contribution to continental drift theory is his idea that:
a. continents drift because sea floors spread
b. the mantle undergoes thermal convection, providing the driving force for continental drifting
c. the lithosphere is breaking apart due mainly to mantle plumes
d. all of the above‟
e. none of the above

196. Which of the following was not used to support sea floor spreading?
a. patterns of magnetic reversal
b. age patterns of the sea floor
c. polar wandering
d. paleomagnetism
e. none of the above.
197. Ventifacts are formed by:
a. deflation
b. sandblasting
c. traction
d. a and b
e. none of the above

198. Which of the following is not a diagenetic process?


a. bioturbation
b. formation of stylolites
c. cementation
d. formation of concretions in chert
e. none of the above

199. This type of volcanic eruption is characterized by a short-lived, explosive outbursts of pasty
lava ejected a few tens or hundreds of meters into the air:
a. Strombolian
b. Vulcanian
c. Hawaian
d. Plinian
e. Phreato-magmatic

200. Which of the following is always true about earthquakes?


a. The magnitude of an earthquake changes decreases with distance from the epicenter
b. The intensity of an earthquake varies with distance from the epicenter
c. Both magnitude and intensity vary with distance from the epicenter
d. Big magnitude earthquakes translates to high intensity earthquake
e. . None of the above

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