1. A 10 year old who has sustained a head
One day the mother of a young adult
injury is brought to the emergency
department by his mother. A diagnosis of a
mild concussion is made. At the time of
discharge, nurse Ron should instruct the
mother to:
A. Withhold food and fluids for 24
hours.
B. Allow him to play outdoors with
his friends.
C. Arrange for a follow up visit
with the child’s primary care
provider in one week.
D. Check for any change in
responsiveness every two hours
until the follow-up visit.
2. A male client has suffered a motor
accident and is now suffering from
hypovolemic shock. Nurse Helen should
frequency assess the client’s vital signs
during the compensatory stage of shock,
because:
A. Arteriolar constriction occurs
B. The cardiac workload
decreases
C. Decreased contractility of the
heart occurs
D. The parasympathetic nervous
system is triggered
3. A paranoid male client with schizophrenia
is losing weight, reluctant to eat, and voicing
concerns about being poisoned. The best
intervention by nurse Dina would be to:
A. Allow the client to open canned
or pre-packaged food
B. Restrict the client to his room
until 2 lbs are gained
C. Have a staff member personally
taste all of the client’s food
D. Tell the client the food has been
x-rayed by the staff and is safe
4.
confides to nurse Frida that she is very
troubled by he child’s emotional illness. The
nurse’s most therapeutic initial response
would be:
A. “You may be able to lessen your
feelings of guilt by seeking
counseling”
B. “It would be helpful if you
become involved in volunteer
work at this time”
C. “I recognize it’s hard to deal
with this, but try to remember
that this too shall pass”
D. “Joining a support group of
parents who are coping with
this problem can be quite
helpful.
5. To check for wound hemorrhage after a
client has had a surgery for the removal of a
tumor in the neck, nurse grace should:
A. Loosen an edge of the dressing
and lift it to see the wound
B. Observe the dressing at the
back of the neck for the
presence of blood
C. Outline the blood as it appears
on the dressing to observe any
progression
D. Press gently around the incision
to express accumulated blood
from the wound
6. A 16-year-old primigravida arrives at the
labor and birthing unit in her 38th week of
gestation and states that she is labor. To
verify that the client is in true labor nurse
Trina should:
A. Obtain sides for a fern test
B. Time any uterine contractions
C. Prepare her for a pelvic
examination
 D. Apply nitrazine paper to moist
vaginal tissue
7. As part of the diagnostic workup for
pulmonic stenosis, a child has cardiac
catheterization. Nurse Julius is aware that
children with pulmonic stenosis have
increased pressure:
A. In the pulmonary vein
B. In the pulmonary artery
C. On the left side of the heart
D. On the right side of the heart
8. An obese client asks nurse Julius how to
lose weight. Before answering, the nurse
should remember that long-term weight
loss occurs best when:
A. Eating patterns are altered
B. Fats are limited in the diet
C. Carbohydrates are regulated
D. Exercise is a major component
9. As a very anxious female client is talking
to the nurse May, she starts crying. She
appears to be upset that she cannot control
her crying. The most appropriate response
by the nurse would be:
A. “Is talking about your problem
upsetting you?”
B. “It is Ok to cry; I’ll just stay with
you for now”
C. “You look upset; lets talk about
why you are crying.”
D. “Sometimes it helps to get it out
of your system.”
10. A patient has partial-thickness burns to
both legs and portions of his trunk. Which of
the following I.V. fluids is given first?
A. Albumin
B. D5W
C. Lactated Ringer’s solution
D. 0.9% sodium chloride solution
with 2 mEq of potassium per
100 ml
11. During the first 48 hours after a severe
burn of 40% of the clients body surface, the
nurse’s assessment should include
observations for water intoxication.
Associated adaptations include:
A. Sooty-colored sputum
B. Frothy pink-tinged sputum
C. Twitching and disorientation
D. Urine output below 30ml per
hour
12. After a muscle biopsy, nurse Willy
should teach the client to:
A. Change the dressing as needed
B. Resume the usual diet as soon
as desired
C. Bathe or shower according to
preference
D. Expect a rise in body
temperature for 48 hours
13. Before a client whose left hand has been
amputated can be fitted for a prosthesis,
nurse Joy is aware that:
A. Arm and shoulder muscles
must be developed
B. Shrinkage of the residual limb
must be completed
C. Dexterity in the other extremity
must be achieved
D. Full adjustment to the altered
body image must have occurred
14. Nurse Cathy applies a fetal monitor to
the abdomen of a client in active labor.
When the client has contractions, the nurse
notes a 15 beat per minute deceleration of
the fetal heart rate below the baseline
lasting 15 seconds. Nurse Cathy should:
A. Change the maternal position
 B. Prepare for an immediate birth
C. Call the physician immediately
D. Obtain the client’s blood
pressure
15. A male client receiving prolonged
steroid therapy complains of always being
thirsty and urinating frequently. The best
initial action by the nurse would be to:
A. Perform a finger stick to test
the client’s blood glucose level
B. Have the physician assess the
client for an enlarged prostate
C. Obtain a urine specimen from
the client for screening
purposes
D. Assess the client’s lower
extremities for the presence of
pitting edema
16. Nurse Bea recognizes that a pacemaker
is indicated when a client is experiencing:
A. Angina
B. Chest pain
C. Heart block
D. Tachycardia
17. When administering pancrelipase
(Pancreases capsules) to child with cystic
fibrosis, nurse Faith knows they should be
given:
A. With meals and snacks
B. Every three hours while awake
C. On awakening, following meals,
and at bedtime
D. After each bowel movement
and after postural draianage
18. A preterm neonate is receiving oxygen
by an overhead hood. During the time the
infant is under the hood, it would be
appropriate for nurse Gian to:
A. Hydrate the infant q15 min
B. Put a hat on the infant’s head
C. Keep the oxygen concentration
consistent
D. Remove the infant q15 min for
stimulation
19. A client’s sputum smears for acid fast
bacilli (AFB) are positive, and transmission-
based airborne precautions are ordered.
Nurse Kyle should instruct visitors to:
A. Limit contact with non-exposed
family members
B. Avoid contact with any objects
present in the client’s room
C. Wear an Ultra-Filter mask when
they are in the client’s room
D. Put on a gown and gloves
before going into the client’s
room
20. A client with a head injury has a fixed,
dilated right pupil; responds only to painful
stimuli; and exhibits decorticate posturing.
Nurse Kate should recognize that these are
signs of:
A. Meningeal irritation
B. Subdural hemorrhage
C. Medullary compression
D. Cerebral cortex compression
21. After a lateral crushing chest injury,
obvious right-sided paradoxic motion of the
client’s chest demonstrates multiple rib
fraactures, resulting in a flail chest. The
complication the nurse should carefully
observe for would be:
A. Mediastinal shift
B. Tracheal laceration
C. Open pneumothorax
D. Pericardial tamponade
22. When planning care for a client at 30-
weeks gestation, admitted to the hospital
after vaginal bleeding secondary to placenta
previa, the nurse’s primary objective would
be:
 A. Provide a calm, quiet
environment
B. Prepare the client for an
immediate cesarean birth
C. Prevent situations that may
stimulate the cervix or uterus
D. Ensure that the client has
regular cervical examinations
assess for labor
23. When planning discharge teaching for a
young female client who has had a
pneumothorax, it is important that the nurse
include the signs and symptoms of a
pneumothorax and teach the client to seek
medical assistance if she experiences:
A. Substernal chest pain
B. Episodes of palpitation
C. Severe shortness of breath
D. Dizziness when standing up
24. After a laryngectomy, the most
important equipment to place at the client’s
bedside would be:
A. Suction equipment
B. Humidified oxygen
C. A nonelectric call bell
D. A cold-stream vaporizer
25. Nurse Oliver interviews a young female
client with anorexia nervosa to obtain
information for the nursing history. The
client’s history is likely to reveal a:
A. Strong desire to improve her
body image
B. Close, supportive mother-
daughter relationship
C. Satisfaction with and desire to
maintain her present weight
D. Low level of achievement in
school, with little concerns for
grades
26. Nurse Bea should plan to assist a client
with an obsessive-compulsive disorder to
control the use of ritualistic behavior by:
A. Providing repetitive activities
that require little thought
B. Attempting to reduce or limit
situations that increase anxiety
C. Getting the client involved with
activities that will provide
distraction
D. Suggesting that the client
perform menial tasks to expiate
feelings of guilt
27. A 2 ½ year old child undergoes a
ventriculoperitoneal shunt revision. Before
discharge, nurse John, knowing the
expected developmental behaviors for this
age group, should tell the parents to call the
physician if the child:
A. Tries to copy all the father’s
mannerisms
B. Talks incessantly regardless of
the presence of others
C. Becomes fussy when frustrated
and displays a shortened
attention span
D. Frequently starts arguments
with playmates by claiming all
toys are “mine”
28. A urinary tract infection is a potential
danger with an indwelling catheter. Nurse
Gina can best plan to avoid this
complication by:
A. Assessing urine specific gravity
B. Maintaining the ordered
hydration
C. Collecting a weekly urine
specimen
D. Emptying the drainage bag
frequently
29. A client has sustained a fractured right
femur in a fall on stairs. Nurse Troy with the
emergency response team assess for signs
of circulatory impairment by:
A. Turning the client to side lying
position
B. Asking the client to cough and
deep breathe
C. Taking the client’s pedal pulse
in the affected limb
D. Instructing the client to wiggle
the toes of the right foot
30. To assess orientation to place in a client
suspected of having dementia of the
alzheimers type, nurse Chris should ask:
A. “Where are you?”
B. “Who brought you here?”
C. “Do you know where you are?”
D. “How long have you been
there?”
31. Nurse Mary assesses a postpartum
client who had an abruption placentae and
suspects that disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC) is occurring when
assessments demonstrate:
A. A boggy uterus
B. Multiple vaginal clots
C. Hypotension and tachycardia
D. Bleeding from the venipuncture
site
32. When a client on labor experiences the
urge to push a 9cm dilation, the breathing
pattern that nurse Rhea should instruct the
client to use is the:
A. Expulsion pattern
B. Slow paced pattern
C. Shallow chest pattern
D. blowing pattern
33. Nurse Ronald should explain that the
most beneficial between-meal snack for a
client who is recovering from the full-
thickness burns would be a:
A. Cheeseburger and a malted
B. Piece of blueberry pie and milk
C. Bacon and tomato sandwich
and tea
D. Chicken salad sandwich and
soft drink
34. Nurse Wilma recognizes that failure of a
newborn to make the appropriate
adaptation to extrauterine life would be
indicated by:
A. flexed extremities
B. Cyanotic lips and face
C. A heart rate of 130 beats per
minute
D. A respiratory rate of 40 breath
per minute
35. The laboratory calls to state that a
client’s lithium level is 1.9 mEq/L after 10
days of lithium therapy. Nurse Reese
should:
A. Notify the physician of the
findings because the level is
dangerously high
B. Monitor the client closely
because the level of lithium in
the blood is slightly elevated
C. Continue to administer the
medication as ordered because
the level is within the
therapeutic range
D. Report the findings to the
physician so the dosage can be
increased because the level is
below therapeutic range
36. A client has a regular 30-day menstrual
cycles. When teaching about the rhythm
method, Which the client and her husband
have chosen to use for family planning,
nurse Dianne should emphasize that the
client’s most fertile days are:
A. Days 9 to 11
 B. Days 12 to 14
C. Days 15 to 17
D. Days 18 to 20
37. Before an amniocentesis, nurse
Alexandra should:
A. Initiate the intravenous therapy
as ordered by the physiscian
B. Inform the client that the
procedure could precipitate an
infection
C. Assure that informed consent
has been obtained from the
client
D. Perform a vaginal examination
on the client to assess cervical
dilation
38. While a client is on intravenous
magnesium sulfate therapy for
preeclampsia, it is essential for nurse Amy
to monitor the client’s deep tendon reflexes
to:
A. Determine her level of
consciousness
B. Evaluate the mobility of the
extremities
C. Determine her response to
painful stimuli
D. Prevent development of
respiratory distress
39. A preschooler is admitted to the hospital
with a diagnosis of acute
glomerulonephritis. The child’s history
reveals a 5-pound weight gain in one week
and peritoneal edema. For the most
accurate information on the status of the
child’s edema, nursing intervention should
include:
A. Obtaining the child’s daily
weight
B. Doing a visual inspection of the
child
C. Measuring the child’s intake
and output
D. Monitoring the child’s
electrolyte values
40. Nurse Mickey is administering
dexamethasome (Decadron) for the early
management of a client’s cerebral edema.
This treatment is effective because:
A. Acts as hyperosmotic diuretic
B. Increases tissue resistance to
infection
C. Reduces the inflammatory
response of tissues
D. Decreases the information of
cerebrospinal fluid
41. During newborn nursing assessment, a
positive Ortolani’s sign would be indicated
by:
A. A unilateral droop of hip
B. A broadening of the perineum
C. An apparent shortening of one
leg
D. An audible click on hip
manipulation
42. When caring for a dying client who is in
the denial stage of grief, the best nursing
approach would be to:
A. Agree and encourage the
client’s denial
B. Allow the denial but be available
to discuss death
C. Reassure the client that
everything will be OK
D. Leave the client alone to
confront the feelings of
impending loss
43. To decrease the symptoms of
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD),
the physician orders dietary and medication
management. Nurse Helen should teach the
client that the meal alteration that would be
most appropriate would be:
A. Ingest foods while they are hot
B. Divide food into four to six
meals a day
C. Eat the last of three meals daily
by 8pm
D. Suck a peppermint candy after
each meal
44. After a mastectomy or hysterectomy,
clients may feel incomplete as women. The
statement that should alert nurse Gina to
this feeling would be:
A. “I can’t wait to see all my
friends again”
B. “I feel washed out; there isn’t
much left”
C. “I can’t wait to get home to see
my grandchild”
D. “My husband plans for me to
recuperate at our daughter’s
home”
45. A client with obstruction of the common
bile duct may show a prolonged bleeding
and clotting time because:
A. Vitamin K is not absorbed
B. The ionized calcium levels falls
C. The extrinsic factor is not
absorbed
D. Bilirubin accumulates in the
plasma
46. Realizing that the hypokalemia is a side
effect of steroid therapy, nurse Monette
should monitor a client taking steroid
medication for:
A. Hyperactive reflexes
B. An increased pulse rate
C. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D. Leg weakness with muscle
cramps
47. When assessing a newborn suspected
of having Down syndrome, nurse Rey would
expect to observe:
A. long thin fingers
B. Large, protruding ears
C. Hypertonic neck muscles
D. Simian lines on the hands
48. A 10 year old girl is admitted to the
pediatric unit for recurrent pain and swelling
of her joints, particularly her knees and
ankles. Her diagnosis is juvenile rheumatoid
arthritis. Nurse Janah recognizes that
besides joint inflammation, a unique
manifestation of the rheumatoid process
involves the:
A. Ears
B. Eyes
C. Liver
D. Brain
49. A disturbed client is scheduled to begin
group therapy. The client refuses to attend.
Nurse Lolit should:
A. Accept the client’s decision
without discussion
B. Have another client to ask the
client to consider
C. Tell the client that attendance at
the meeting is required
D. Insist that the client join the
group to help the socialization
process
50. Because a severely depressed client has
not responded to any of the antidepressant
medications, the psychiatrist decides to try
electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Before the
treatment the nurse should:
A. Have the client speak with other
clients receiving ECT
 B. Give the client a detailed
explanation of the entire
procedure
C. Limit the client’s intake to a
light breakfast on the days of
the treatment
D. Provide a simple explanation of
the procedure and continue to
reassure the client
51. Nurse Vicky is aware that teaching
about colostomy care is understood when
the client states, “I will contact my physician
and report ____”:
A. If I notice a loss of sensation to
touch in the stoma tissue”
B. When mucus is passed from
the stoma between irrigations”
C. The expulsion of flatus while
the irrigating fluid is running
out”
D. If I have difficulty in inserting
the irrigating tube into the
stoma”
52. The client’s history that alerts nurse
Henry to assess closely for signs of
postpartum infection would be:
A. Three spontaneous abortions
B. negative maternal blood type
C. Blood loss of 850 ml after a
vaginal birth
D. Maternal temperature of 99.9° F
12 hours after delivery
53. A client is experiencing stomatitis as a
result of chemotherapy. An appropriate
nursing intervention related to this condition
would be to:
A. Provide frequent saline
mouthwashes
B. Use karaya powder to decrease
irritation
C. Increase fluid intake to
compensate for the diarrhea
D. Provide meticulous skin care of
the abdomen with Betadine
54. During a group therapy session, one of
the clients ask a male client with the
diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder
why he is in the hospital. Considering this
client’s type of personality disorder, the
nurse might expect him to respond:
A. “I need a lot of help with my
troubles”
B. “Society makes people react in
old ways”
C. “I decided that it’s time I own up
to my problems”
D. “My life needs straightening out
and this might help”
55. A child visits the clinic for a 6-week
checkup after a tonsillectomy and
adenoidectomy. In addition to assessing
hearing, the nurse should include an
assessment of the child’s:
A. Taste and smell
B. Taste and speech
C. Swallowing and smell
D. Swallowing and speech
56. A client is diagnosed with cancer of the
jaw. A course of radiation therapy is to be
followed by surgery. The client is concerned
about the side effects related to the
radiation treaments. Nurse Ria should
explain that the major side effects that will
experienced is:
A. Fatigue
B. Alopecia
C. Vomiting
D. Leucopenia
57. Nurse Katrina prepares an older-adult
client for sleep, actions are taken to help
reduce the likelihood of a fall during the
night. Targeting the most frequent cause of
falls, the nurse should:
A. Offer the client assistance to
the bathroom
B. Move the bedside table closer
to the client’s bed
C. Encourage the client to take an
available sedative
D. Assist the client to telephone
the spouse to say “goodnight”
58. When evaluating a growth and
development of a 6 month old infant, nurse
Patty would expect the infant to be able to:
A. Sit alone, display pincer grasp,
wave bye bye
B. Pull self to a standing position,
release a toy by choice, play
peek-a-boo
C. Crawl, transfer toy from one
hand to the other, display of
fear of strangers
D. Turn completely over, sit
momentarily without support,
reach to be picked up
59. A breastfeeding mother asks the nurse
what she can do to ease the discomfort
caused by a cracked nipple. Nurse Tina
should instruct the client to:
A. Manually express milk and feed
it to the baby in a bottle
B. Stop breastfeeding for two days
to allow the nipple to heal
C. Use a breast shield to keep the
baby from direct contact with
the nipple
D. Feed the baby on the
unaffected breast first until the
affected breast heals
60. Nurse Sandy observes that there is
blood coming from the client’s ear after
head injury. Nurse Sandy should:
A. Turn the client to the unaffected
side
B. Cleanse the client’s ear with
sterile gauze
C. Test the drainage from the
client’s ear with Dextrostix
D. Place sterile cotton loosely in
the external ear of the client
61. Nurse Gio plans a long term care for
parents of children with sickle-cell anemia,
which includes periodic group conferences.
Some of the discussions should be directed
towards:
A. Finding special school facilities
for the child
B. Making plans for moving to a
more therapeutic climate
C. Choosing a means of birth
control to avoid future
pregnancies
D. Airing their feelings regarding
the transmission of the disease
to the child
62. The central problem the nurse might
face with a disturbed schizophrenic client is
the client’s:
A. Suspicious feelings
B. Continuous pacing
C. Relationship with the family
D. Concern about working with
others
63. When planning care with a client during
the postoperative recovery period following
an abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral
salpingo-oophorectomy, nurse Frida should
include the explanation that:
A. Surgical menopause will occur
B. Urinary retention is a common
problem
C. Weight gain is expected, and
dietary plan are needed
 D. Depression is normal and
should be expected
64. An adolescent client with anorexia
nervosa refuses to eat, stating, “I’ll get too
fat.” Nurse Andrea can best respond to this
behavior initially by:
A. Not talking about the fact that
the client is not eating
B. Stopping all of the client’s
priviledges until food is eaten
C. Telling the client that tube
feeding will eventually be
necessary
D. Pointing out to the client that
death can occur with
malnutrition.
65. A pain scale is used to assess the
degree of pain. The client rates the pain as
an 8 on a scale of 10 before medication and
a 7 on a scale of 10 after being medicated.
Nurse Glenda determines that the:
A. Client has a low pain tolerance
B. Medication is not adequately
effective
C. Medication has sufficiently
decreased the pain level
D. Client needs more education
about the use of the pain scale
66. To enhance a neonate’s behavioral
development, therapeutic nursing measures
should include:
A. Keeping the baby awake for
longer periods of time before
each feeding
B. Assisting the parents to
stimulate their baby through
touch, sound, and sight.
C. Encouraging parental contact
for at least one 15-minute
period every four hours.
D. Touching and talking to the
baby at least hourly, beginning
within two to four hours after
birth
67. Before formulating a plan of care for a 6
year old boy with attention deficit
hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), nurse Kyla is
aware that the initial aim of therapy is to
help the client to:
A. Develop language skills
B. Avoid his own regressive
behavior
C. Mainstream into a regular class
in school
D. Recognize himself as an
independent person of worth
68. Nurse Wally knows that the most
important aspect of the preoperative care
for a child with Wilms’ tumor would be:
A. Checking the size of the child’s
liver
B. Monitoring the child’s blood
pressure
C. Maintaining the child in a prone
position
D. Collecting the child’s urine for
culture and sensitivity
69. At 11:00 pm the count of hydrocodone
(Vicodin) is incorrect. After several minutes
of searching the medication cart and
medication administration records, no
explanation can be found. The primary
nurse should notify the:
A. Nursing unit manager
B. Hospital administrator
C. Quality control manager
D. Physician ordering the
medication
70. When caring for the a client with a
pneumothorax, who has a chest tube in
place, nurse Kate should plan to:
 A. Administer cough suppressants
at appropriate intervals as
ordered
B. Empty and measure the
drainage in the collection
chamber each shift
C. Apply clamps below the
insertion site when ever getting
the client out of bed
D. Encourage coughing, deep
breathing, and range of motion
to the arm on the affected side
71. According to C.E.Winslow, which of the
following is the goal of Public Health?
A. For people to attain their
birthrights of health and
longevity
B. For promotion of health and
prevention of disease
C. For people to have access to
basic health services
D. For people to be organized in
their health efforts
72. What other statistic may be used to
determine attainment of longevity?
A. Age-specific mortality rate
B. Proportionate mortality rate
C. Swaroop’s index
D. Case fatality rate
73. Which of the following is the most
prominent feature of public health nursing?
A. It involves providing home care
to sick people who are not
confined in the hospital
B. Services are provided free of
charge to people within the
catchment area.
C. The public health nurse
functions as part of a team
providing a public health
nursing services.
D. Public health nursing focuses
on preventive, not curative,
services.
74. Which of the following is the mission of
the Department of Health?
A. Health for all Filipinos
B. Ensure the accessibility and
quality of health care
C. Improve the general health
status of the population
D. Health in the hands of the
Filipino people by the year 2020
75. Nurse Pauline determines whether
resources were maximized in implementing
Ligtas Tigdas, she is evaluating:
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Adequacy
D. Appropriateness
76. Lissa is a B.S.N. graduate. She want to
become a Public Health Nurse. Where will
she apply?
A. Department of Health
B. Provincial Health Office
C. Regional Health Office
D. Rural Health Unit
77. As an epidemiologist, Nurse Celeste is
responsible for reporting cases of notifiable
diseases. What law mandates reporting of
cases of notifiable diseases?
A. Act 3573
B. R.A. 3753
C. R.A. 1054
D. R.A. 1082
78. Nurse Fay is aware that isolation of a
child with measles belongs to what level of
prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
 C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
79. Nurse Gina is aware that the following is
an advantage of a home visit?
A. It allows the nurse to provide
nursing care to a greater
number of people.
B. It provides an opportunity to do
first hand appraisal of the home
situation.
C. It allows sharing of experiences
among people with similar
health problems.
D. It develops the family’s initiative
in providing for health needs of
its members.
80. The PHN bag is an important tool in
providing nursing care during a home visit.
The most important principle of bag
technique states that it:
A. Should save time and effort.
B. Should minimize if not totally
prevent the spread of infection.
C. Should not overshadow concern
for the patient and his family.
D. May be done in a variety of
ways depending on the home
situation, etc.
81. Nurse Willy reads about Path Goal
theory. Which of the following behaviors is
manifested by the leader who uses this
theory?
A. Recognizes staff for going
beyond expectations by giving
them citations
B. Challenges the staff to take
individual accountability for
their own practice
C. Admonishes staff for being
laggards
D. Reminds staff about the
sanctions for non performance
82. Nurse Cathy learns that some leaders
are transactional leaders. Which of the
following does NOT characterize a
transactional leader?
A. Focuses on management tasks
B. Is a caretaker
C. Uses trade-offs to meet goals
D. Inspires others with vision
83. Functional nursing has some
advantages, which one is an EXCEPTION?
A. Psychological and sociological
needs are emphasized.
B. Great control of work activities.
C. Most economical way of
delivering nursing services.
D. Workers feel secure in
dependent role
84. Which of the following is the best
guarantee that the patient’s priority needs
are met?
A. Checking with the relative of the
patient
B. Preparing a nursing care plan in
collaboration with the patient
C. Consulting with the physician
D. Coordinating with other
members of the team
85. Nurse Tony stresses the need for all the
employees to follow orders and instructions
from him and not from anyone else. Which
of the following principles does he refer to?
A. Scalar chain
B. Discipline
C. Unity of command
D. Order
86. Nurse Joey discusses the goal of the
department. Which of the following
statements is a goal?
 A. Increase the patient satisfaction
rate
B. Eliminate the incidence of
delayed administration of
medications
C. Establish rapport with patients
D. Reduce response time to two
minutes
87. Nurse Lou considers shifting to
transformational leadership. Which of the
following statements best describes this
type of leadership?
A. Uses visioning as the essence
of leadership
B. Serves the followers rather than
being served
C. Maintains full trust and
confidence in the subordinates
D. Possesses innate charisma that
makes others feel good in his
presence.
88. Nurse Mae tells one of the staff, “I don’t
have time to discuss the matter with you
now. See me in my office later” when the
latter asks if they can talk about an issue.
Which of the following conflict resolution
strategies did she use?
A. Smoothing
B. Compromise
C. Avoidance
D. Restriction
89. Nurse Bea plans of assigning competent
people to fill the roles designed in the
hierarchy. Which process refers to this?
A. Staffing
B. Scheduling
C. Recruitment
D. Induction
90. Nurse Linda tries to design an
organizational structure that allows
communication to flow in all directions and
involve workers in decision making. Which
form of organizational structure is this?
A. Centralized
B. Decentralized
C. Matrix
D. Informal
91. When documenting information in a
client’s medical record, the nurse should:
A. erase any errors.
B. use a #2 pencil.
C. leave one line blank before each
new entry.
D. end each entry with the nurse’s
signature and title.
92. Which of the following factors are major
components of a client’s general
background drug history?
A. Allergies and socioeconomic
status
B. Urine output and allergies
C. Gastric reflex and age
D. Bowel habits and allergies
93. Which procedure or practice requires
surgical asepsis?
A. Hand washing
B. Nasogastric tube irrigation
C. I.V. cannula insertion
D. Colostomy irrigation
94. The nurse is performing wound care
using surgical asepsis. Which of the
following practices violates surgical
asepsis?
A. Holding sterile objects above
the waist
B. Pouring solution onto a sterile
field cloth
C. Considering a 1″ (2.5-cm) edge
around the sterile field
contaminated
 D. Opening the outermost flap of a 99. Food fortification is one of the
sterile package away from the strategies to prevent micronutrient
body deficiency conditions. R.A. 8976 mandates
95. On admission, a client has the following fortification of certain food items. Which of
arterial blood gas (ABG) values: PaO2, 50 the following is among these food items?
mm Hg; PaCO2, 70 mm Hg; pH, 7.20;
HCO3–, 28 mEq/L. Based on these values, A. Sugar
the nurse should formulate which nursing B. Bread
diagnosis for this client? C. Margarine
D. Filled milk
A. Risk for deficient fluid volume 100. The major sign of iron deficiency
B. Deficient fluid volume anemia is pallor. What part is best
C. Impaired gas exchange examined for pallor?
D. Metabolic acidosis
96. The use of larvivorous fish in malaria A. Palms
control is the basis for which strategy of B. Nailbeds
malaria control? C. Around the lips
D. Lower conjunctival sac
A. Stream seeding
B. Stream clearing
C. Destruction of breeding places
D. Zooprophylaxis
97. In Integrated Management of Childhood
Illness, severe conditions generally require
urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the
following severe conditions DOES NOT
always require urgent referral to a hospital?

A. Mastoiditis
B. Severe dehydration
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Severe febrile disease
98. A mother brought her daughter, 4 years
old, to the RHU because of cough and colds.
Following the IMCI assessment guide,
which of the following is a danger sign that
indicates the need for urgent referral to a
hospital?

A. Inability to drink
B. High grade fever
C. Signs of severe dehydration
D. Cough for more than 30 days

1. A woman in a child bearing age receives
a rubella vaccination. Nurse Joy would give
her which of the following instructions?
A. Refrain from eating eggs or egg
products for 24 hours
B. Avoid having sexual intercourse
C. Don’t get pregnant at least 3
months
D. Avoid exposure to sun
2. Jonas who is diagnosed with encephalitis
is under the treatment of Mannitol. Which of
the following patient outcomes indicate to
Nurse Ronald that the treatment of Mannitol
has been effective for a patient that has
increased intracranial pressure?
A. Increased urinary output
B. Decreased RR
C. Slowed papillary response
D. Decreased level of
consciousness
3. Mary asked Nurse Maureen about the
incubation period of rabies. Which
statement by the Nurse Maureen is
appropriate?
A. Incubation period is 6 months
B. Incubation period is 1 week
C. Incubation period is 1 month
D. Incubation period varies
depending on the site of the bite
4. Which of the following should Nurse
Cherry do first in taking care of a male client
with rabies?
A. Encourage the patient to take a
bath
B. Cover IV bottle with brown
paper bag
C. Place the patient near the
comfort room
D. Place the patient near the door
5. Which of the following is the screening
test for dengue hemorrhagic fever?
A. Complete blood count
B. ELISA
C. Rumpel-leede test
D. Sedimentation rate
6. Mr. Dela Rosa is suspected to have
malaria after a business trip in Palawan.
The most important diagnostic test in
malaria is:
A. WBC count
B. Urinalysis
C. ELISA
D. Peripheral blood smear
7. The Nurse supervisor is planning for
patient’s assignment for the AM shift. The
nurse supervisor avoids assigning which of
the following staff members to a client with
herpes zoster?
A. Nurse who never had chicken
pox
B. Nurse who never had roseola
C. Nurse who never had german
measles
D. Nurse who never had mumps
8. Clarissa is 7 weeks pregnant. Further
examination revealed that she is
susceptible to rubella. When would be the
most appropriate for her to receive rubella
immunization?
A. At once
B. During 2nd trimester
C. During 3rd trimester
 D. After the delivery of the baby C. Positive
9. A female child with rubella should be D. Inconclusive
isolated from a: 14. Tony will start a 6 month therapy with
Isoniazid (INH). Nurse Trish plans to teach
A. 21 year old male cousin living in the client to:
the same house
B. 18 year old sister who recently A. Use alcohol moderately
got married B. Avoid vitamin supplements
C. 11 year old sister who had while o therapy
rubeola during childhood C. Incomplete intake of dairy
D. 4 year old girl who lives next products
door D. May be discontinued if
10. What is the primary prevention of symptoms subsides
leprosy? 15. Which is the primary characteristic
lesion of syphilis?
A. Nutrition
B. Vitamins A. Sore eyes
C. BCG vaccination B. Sore throat
D. DPT vaccination C. Chancroid
11. A bacteria which causes diphtheria is D. Chancre
also known as? 16. What is the fast breathing of Jana who
is 3 weeks old?
A. Amoeba
B. Cholera A. 60 breaths per minute
C. Klebs-loeffler bacillus B. 40 breaths per minute
D. Spirochete C. 10 breaths per minute
12. Nurse Ron performed mantoux skin test D. 20 breaths per minute
today (Monday) to a male adult client. 17. Which of the following signs and
Which statement by the client indicates that symptoms indicate some dehydration?
he understood the instruction well?
A. Drinks eagerly
A. I will come back later B. Restless and irritable
B. I will come back next month C. Unconscious
C. I will come back on Friday D. A and B
D. I will come back on Wednesday, 18. What is the first line for dysentery?
same time, to read the result
13. A male client had undergone Mantoux A. Amoxicillin
skin test. Nurse Ronald notes an 8mm area B. Tetracycline
of indurations at the site of the skin test. C. Cefalexin
The nurse interprets the result as: D. Cotrimoxazole
19. In home made oresol, what is the ratio
A. Negative of salt and sugar if you want to prepare with
B. Uncertain and needs to be 1 liter of water?
repeated
 A. 1 tbsp. salt and 8 tbsp. sugar 26. Budgeting is under in which part of
B. 1 tbsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar management process?
C. 1 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar
D. 8 tsp. salt and 8 tsp. sugar A. Directing
20. Gentian Violet is used for: B. Controlling
C. Organizing
A. Wound D. Planning
B. Umbilical infections 27. Time table showing planned work days
C. Ear infections and shifts of nursing personnel is:
D. Burn
21. Which of the following is a live A. Staffing
attenuated bacterial vaccine? B. Schedule
C. Scheduling
A. BCG D. Planning
B. OPV 28. A force within an individual that
C. Measles influences the strength of behavior?
D. None of the above
22. EPI is based on? A. Motivation
B. Envy
A. Basic health services C. Reward
B. Scope of community affected D. Self-esteem
C. Epidemiological situation 29. “To be the leading hospital in the
D. Research studies Philippines” is best illustrate in:
23. TT? provides how many percentage of
protection against tetanus? A. Mission
B. Philosophy
A. 100 C. Vision
B. 99 D. Objective
C. 80 30. It is the professionally desired norms
D. 90 against which a staff performance will be
24. Temperature of refrigerator to maintain compared?
potency of measles and OPV vaccine is:
A. Job descriptions
A. -3c to -8c B. Survey
B. -15c to -25c C. Flow chart
C. +15c to +25c D. Standards
D. +3c to +8c 31. Reprimanding a staff nurse for work that
25. Diptheria is a: is done incorrectly is an example of what
type of reinforcement?
A. Bacterial toxin
B. Killed bacteria A. Feedback
C. Live attenuated B. Positive reinforcement
D. Plasma derivatives C. Performance appraisal
D. Negative reinforcement
32. Questions that are answerable only by D. University of Sto. Tomas
choosing an option from a set of given 38. Florence nightingale is born on:
alternatives are known as?
A. France
A. Survey B. Britain
B. Close ended C. U.S
C. Questionnaire D. Italy
D. Demographic 39. Objective data is also called:
33. A researcher that makes a
generalization based on observations of an A. Covert
individuals behavior is said to be which type B. Overt
of reasoning: C. Inference
D. Evaluation
A. Inductive 40. An example of subjective data is:
B. Logical
C. Illogical A. Size of wounds
D. Deductive B. VS
34. The balance of a research’s benefit vs. C. Lethargy
its risks to the subject is: D. The statement of patient “My
hand is painful”
A. Analysis 41. What is the best position in palpating
B. Risk-benefit ratio the breast?
C. Percentile
D. Maximum risk A. Trendelenburg
35. An individual/object that belongs to a B. Side lying
general population is a/an: C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
A. Element 42. When is the best time in performing
B. Subject breast self examination?
C. Respondent
D. Author A. 7 days after menstrual period
36. An illustration that shows how the B. 7 days before menstrual period
members of an organization are connected: C. 5 days after menstrual period
D. 5 days before menstrual period
A. Flowchart 43. Which of the following should be given
B. Bar graph the highest priority before performing
C. Organizational chart physical examination to a patient?
D. Line graph
37. The first college of nursing that was A. Preparation of the room
established in the Philippines is: B. Preparation of the patient
C. Preparation of the nurse
A. Fatima University D. Preparation of environment
B. Far Eastern University 44. It is a flip over card usually kept in
C. University of the East portable file at nursing station.
 A. Nursing care plan A. Greenish discharge
B. Medicine and treatment record B. Brown exudates at incision
C. Kardex edges
D. TPR sheet C. Pallor around sutures
45. Jose has undergone thoracentesis. The D. Redness and warmth
nurse in charge is aware that the best 50. Nurse Ronald is aware that the amiotic
position for Jose is: fluid in the third trimester weighs
approximately:
A. Semi fowlers
B. Low fowlers A. 2 kilograms
C. Side lying, unaffected side B. 1 kilograms
D. Side lying, affected side C. 100 grams
46. The degree of patients abdominal D. 1.5 kilograms
distension may be determined by: 51. After delivery of a baby girl. Nurse Gina
examines the umbilical cord and expects to
A. Auscultation find a cord to:
B. Palpation
C. Inspection A. Two arteries and two veins
D. Percussion B. One artery and one vein
47. A male client is addicted with C. Two arteries and one vein
hallucinogen. Which physiologic effect D. One artery and two veins
should the nurse expect? 52. Myrna a pregnant client reports that her
last menstrual cycle is July 11, her expected
A. Bradyprea date of birth is
B. Bradycardia
C. Constricted pupils A. November 4
D. Dilated pupils B. November 11
48. Tristan a 4 year old boy has suffered C. April 4
from full thickness burns of the face, chest D. April 18
and neck. What will be the priority nursing 53. Which of the following is not a good
diagnosis? source of iron?
A. Butter
A. Ineffective airway clearance B. Pechay
related to edema C. Grains
B. Impaired mobility related to D. Beef
pain 54. Maureen is admitted with a diagnosis of
C. Impaired urinary elimination ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following
related to fluid loss would you anticipate?
D. Risk for infection related to
epidermal disruption A. NPO
49. In assessing a client’s incision 1 day B. Bed rest
after the surgery, Nurse Betty expect to see C. Immediate surgery
which of the following as signs of a local D. Enema
inflammatory response?
55. Gina a postpartum client is diagnosed
with endometritis. Which position would you
expect to place her based on this
diagnosis?
A. Supine
B. Left side lying
C. Trendelinburg
D. Semi-fowlers
56. Nurse Hazel knows that Myrna
understands her condition well when she
remarks that urinary frequency is caused by:
A. Pressure caused by the
ascending uterus
B. Water intake of 3L a day
C. Effect of cold weather
D. Increase intake of fruits and
vegetables
57. How many ml of blood is loss during the
first 24 hours post delivery of Myrna?
A. 100
B. 500
C. 200
D. 400
58. Which of the following hormones
stimulates the secretion of milk?
A. Progesterone
B. Prolactin
C. Oxytocin
D. Estrogen
59. Nurse Carla is aware that Myla’s second
stage of labor is beginning when the
following assessment is noted:
A. Bay of water is broken
B. Contractions are regular
C. Cervix is completely dilated
D. Presence of bloody show
60. The leaking fluid is tested with nitrazine
paper. Nurse Kelly confirms that the client’s
membrane have ruptures when the paper
turns into a:
A. Pink
B. Violet
C. Green
D. Blue
61. After amniotomy, the priority nursing
action is:
A. Document the color and
consistency of amniotic fluid
B. Listen the fetal heart tone
C. Position the mother in her left
side
D. Let the mother rest
62. Which is the most frequent reason for
postpartum hemorrhage?
A. Perineal lacerations
B. Frequent internal examination
(IE)
C. CS
D. Uterine atomy
nd
63. On 2  postpartum day, which height
would you expect to find the fundus in a
woman who has had a caesarian birth?
A. 1 finger above umbilicus
B. 2 fingers above umbilicus
C. 2 fingers below umbilicus
D. 1 finger below umbilicus
64. Which of the following criteria allows
Nurse Kris to perform home deliveries?
A. Normal findings during
assessment
B. Previous CS
C. Diabetes history
D. Hypertensive history
65. Nurse Carla is aware that one of the
following vaccines is done by intramuscular
(IM) injection?
A. Measles
 B. OPV
C. BCG
D. Tetanus toxoid
66. Asin law is on which legal basis:
A. RA 8860
B. RA 2777
C. RI 8172
D. RR 6610
67. Nurse John is aware that the herbal
medicine appropriate for urolithiasis is:
A. Akapulco
B. Sambong
C. Tsaang gubat
D. Bayabas
68. Community/Public health bag is defined
as:
A. An essential and indispensable
equipment of the community
health nurse during home visit
B. It contains drugs and
equipment used by the
community health nurse
C. Is a requirement in the health
center and for home visit
D. It is a tool used by the
community health nurse in
rendering effective procedures
during home visit
69. TT4 provides how many percentage of
protection against tetanus?
A. 70
B. 80
C. 90
D. 99
70. Third postpartum visit must be done by
public health nurse:
A. Within 24 hours after delivery
B. After 2-4 weeks
C. Within 1 week
D. After 2 months
71. Nurse Candy is aware that the family
planning method that may give 98%
protection to another pregnancy to women
A. Pills
B. Tubal ligation
C. Lactational Amenorrhea
method (LAM)
D. IUD
72. Which of the following is not a part of
IMCI case management process
A. Counsel the mother
B. Identify the illness
C. Assess the child
D. Treat the child
73. If a young child has pneumonia when
should the mother bring him back for follow
up?
A. After 2 days
B. In the afternoon
C. After 4 days
D. After 5 days
74. It is the certification recognition
program that develop and promotes
standard for health facilities:
A. Formula
B. Tutok gamutan
C. Sentrong program movement
D. Sentrong sigla movement
75. Baby Marie was born May 23, 1984.
Nurse John will expect finger thumb
opposition on:
A. April 1985
B. February 1985
C. March 1985
D. June 1985
76. Baby Reese is a 12 month old child.
Nurse Oliver would anticipate how many
teeth?
 A. 9 A. “Would you like to drink your
B. 7 medicine?”
C. 8 B. “If you take your medicine now,
D. 6 I’ll give you lollipop”
77. Which of the following is the primary C. “See the other boy took his
antidote for Tylenol poisoning? medicine? Now it’s your turn.”
D. “Here’s your medicine. Would
A. Narcan you like a mango or orange
B. Digoxin juice?”
C. Acetylcysteine 82. At what age a child can brush her teeth
D. Flumazenil without help?
78. A male child has an intelligence quotient
of approximately 40. Which kind of A. 6 years
environment and interdisciplinary program B. 7 years
most likely to benefit this child would be C. 5 years
best described as: D. 8 years
83. Ribivarin (Virazole) is prescribed for a
A. Habit training female hospitalized child with RSV. Nurse
B. Sheltered workshop Judy prepare this medication via which
C. Custodial route?
D. Educational
79. Nurse Judy is aware that following A. Intra venous
condition would reflect presence of B. Oral
congenital G.I anomaly? C. Oxygen tent
D. Subcutaneous
A. Cord prolapse 84. The present chairman of the Board of
B. Polyhydramios Nursing in the Philippines is:
C. Placenta previa
D. Oligohydramios A. Maria Joanna Cervantes
80. Nurse Christine provides health teaching B. Carmencita Abaquin
for the parents of a child diagnosed with C. Leonor Rosero
celiac disease. Nurse Christine teaches the D. Primitiva Paquic
parents to include which of the following 85. The obligation to maintain efficient
food items in the child’s diet: ethical standards in the practice of nursing
belong to this body:
A. Rye toast
B. Oatmeal A. BON
C. White bread B. ANSAP
D. Rice C. PNA
81. Nurse Randy is planning to administer D. RN
oral medication to a 3 year old child. Nurse 86. A male nurse was found guilty of
Randy is aware that the best way to proceed negligence. His license was revoked. Re-
is by: issuance of revoked certificates is after how
many years?
 A. 1 year 92. This quality is being demonstrated by
B. 2 years Nurse Ron who raises the side rails of a
C. 3 years confused and disoriented patient?
D. 4 years
87. Which of the following information A. Responsibility
cannot be seen in the PRC identification B. Resourcefulness
card? C. Autonomy
D. Prudence
A. Registration Date 93. Which of the following is formal
B. License Number continuing education?
C. Date of Application
D. Signature of PRC chairperson A. Conference
88. Breastfeeding is being enforced by milk B. Enrollment in graduate school
code or: C. Refresher course
D. Seminar
A. EO 51 94. The BSN curriculum prepares the
B. R.A. 7600 graduates to become?
C. R.A. 6700
D. P.D. 996 A. Nurse generalist
89. Self governance, ability to choose or B. Nurse specialist
carry out decision without undue pressure C. Primary health nurse
or coercion from anyone: D. Clinical instructor
95. Disposal of medical records in
A. Veracity government hospital/institutions must be
B. Autonomy done in close coordination with what
C. Fidelity agency?
D. Beneficence
90. A male patient complained because his A. Department of Health
scheduled surgery was cancelled because B. Records Management Archives
of earthquake. The hospital personnel may Office
be excused because of: C. Metro Manila Development
Authority
A. Governance D. Bureau of Internal Revenue
B. Respondent superior 96. Nurse Jolina must see to it that the
C. Force majeure written consent of mentally ill patients must
D. Res ipsa loquitor be taken from:
91. Being on time, meeting deadlines and
completing all scheduled duties is what A. Nurse
virtue? B. Priest
C. Family lawyer
A. Fidelity D. Parents/legal guardians
B. Autonomy 97. When Nurse Clarence respects the
C. Veracity client’s self-disclosure, this is a gauge for
D. Confidentiality the nurses’
 A. Respectfulness
B. Loyalty
C. Trustworthiness
D. Professionalism
98. The Nurse is aware that the following
tasks can be safely delegated by the nurse
to a non-nurse health worker except:
A. Taking vital signs
B. Change IV infusions
C. Transferring the client from bed
to chair
D. Irrigation of NGT
99. During the evening round Nurse Tina
saw Mr. Toralba meditating and afterwards
started singing prayerful hymns. What
would be the best response of Nurse Tina?
A. Call the attention of the client
and encourage to sleep
B. Report the incidence to head
nurse
C. Respect the client’s action
D. Document the situation
100. In caring for a dying client, you should
perform which of the following activities
A. Do not resuscitate
B. Assist client to perform ADL
C. Encourage to exercise
D. Assist client towards a peaceful
death
101. The Nurse is aware that the ability to
enter into the life of another person and
perceive his current feelings and their
meaning is known:
A. Belongingness
B. Genuineness
C. Empathy
D. Respect
102. The termination phase of the NPR is
best described one of the following:
A. Review progress of therapy and
attainment of goals
B. Exploring the client’s thoughts,
feelings and concerns
C. Identifying and solving patients
problem
D. Establishing rapport
103. During the process of cocaine
withdrawal, the physician orders which of
the following:
A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
B. Imipramine (Tofranil)
C. Benztropine (Cogentin)
D. Diazepam (Valium)
104. The nurse is aware that cocaine is
classified as:
A. Hallucinogen
B. Psycho stimulant
C. Anxiolytic
D. Narcotic
105. In community health nursing, it is the
most important risk factor in the
development of mental illness?
A. Separation of parents
B. Political problems
C. Poverty
D. Sexual abuse
106. All of the following are characteristics
of crisis except
A. The client may become
resistive and active in stopping
the crisis
B. It is self-limiting for 4-6 weeks
C. It is unique in every individual
D. It may also affect the family of
the client
107. Freud states that temper tantrums is
observed in which of the following:
A. Oral
 B. Anal A. Anti manic
C. Phallic B. Anti depressants
D. Latency C. Antipsychotics
108. The nurse is aware that ego D. Anti anxiety
development begins during: 113. Known as mood elevators:

A. Toddler period A. Anti depressants

B. Preschool age B. Antipsychotics
C. School age C. Anti manic
D. Infancy D. Anti anxiety
109. Situation: A 19 year old nursing student 114. The priority of care for a client with
has lost 36 lbs for 4 weeks. Her parents Alzheimer’s disease is
brought her to the hospital for medical
evaluation. The diagnosis was ANOREXIA A. Help client develop coping
NERVOSA. The Primary gain of a client with mechanism
anorexia nervosa is: B. Encourage to learn new hobbies
and interest
A. Weight loss C. Provide him stimulating
B. Weight gain environment
C. Reduce anxiety D. Simplify the environment to
D. Attractive appearance eliminate the need to make
110. The nurse is aware that the primary chores
nursing diagnosis for the client is: 115. Autism is diagnosed at:

A. Altered nutrition : less than A. Infancy

body requirement B. 3 years old
B. Altered nutrition : more than C. 5 years old
body requirement D. School age
C. Impaired tissue integrity 116. The common characteristic of autism
D. Risk for malnutrition child is:
111. After 14 days in the hospital, which
finding indicates that her condition in A. Impulsitivity
improving? B. Self destructiveness
C. Hostility
A. She tells the nurse that she had D. Withdrawal
no idea that she is thin 117. The nurse is aware that the most
B. She arrives earlier than common indication in using ECT is:
scheduled time of group
therapy A. Schizophrenia
C. She tells the nurse that she eat B. Bipolar
3 times or more in a day C. Anorexia Nervosa
D. She gained 4 lbs in two weeks D. Depression
112. The nurse is aware that ataractics or 118. A therapy that focuses on here and
psychic energizers are also known as: now principle to promote self-acceptance?
 A. Gestalt therapy
B. Cognitive therapy
C. Behavior therapy
D. Personality therapy
119. A client has many irrational thoughts.
The goal of therapy is to change her:
A. Personality
B. Communication
C. Behavior
D. Cognition
120. The appropriate nutrition for Bipolar I
disorder, in manic phase is:
A. Low fat, low sodium
B. Low calorie, high fat
C. Finger foods, high in calorie
D. Small frequent feedings
121. Which of the following activity would
be best for a depressed client?
A. Chess
B. Basketball
C. Swimming
D. Finger painting
122. The nurse is aware that clients with
severe depression, possess which defense
mechanism:
A. Introjection
B. Suppression
C. Repression
D. Projection
123. Nurse John is aware that self
mutilation among Bipolar disorder patients
is a means of:
A. Overcoming fear of failure
B. Overcoming feeling of
insecurity
C. Relieving depression
D. Relieving anxiety
124. Which of the following may cause an
increase in the cystitis symptoms?
A. Water
B. Orange juice
C. Coffee
D. Mango juice
125. In caring for clients with renal calculi,
which is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Record vital signs
B. Strain urine
C. Limit fluids
D. Administer analgesics as
prescribed
126. In patient with renal failure, the diet
should be:
A. Low protein, low sodium, low
potassium
B. Low protein, high potassium
C. High carbohydrate, low protein
D. High calcium, high protein
127. Which of the following cannot be
corrected by dialysis?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Elevated creatinine
D. Decreased hemoglobin
128. Tony with infection is receiving
antibiotic therapy. Later the client
complaints of ringing in the ears. This
ototoxicity is damage to:
A. 4th CN
B. 8th CN
C. 7th CN
D. 9th CN
129. Nurse Emma provides teaching to a
patient with recurrent urinary tract infection
includes the following:
A. Increase intake of tea, coffee
and colas
B. Void every 6 hours per day
 C. Void immediately after 135. How long will nurse John obtain an
intercourse accurate reading of temperature via oral
D. Take tub bath everyday route?
130. Which assessment finding indicates
circulatory constriction in a male client with A. 3 minutes
a newly applied long leg cast? B. 1 minute
C. 8 minutes
A. Blanching or cyanosis of legs D. 15 minutes
B. Complaints of pressure or 136. The one filing the criminal care against
tightness an accused party is said to be the?
C. Inability to move toes
D. Numbness of toes A. Guilty
131. During acute gout attack, the nurse B. Accused
administer which of the following drug: C. Plaintiff
D. Witness
A. Prednisone (Deltasone) 137. A male client has a standing DNR
B. Colchicines order. He then suddenly stopped breathing
C. Aspirin and you are at his bedside. You would:
D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
132. Information in the patients chart is A. Call the physician
inadmissible in court as evidence when: B. Stay with the client and do
nothing
A. The client objects to its use C. Call another nurse
B. Handwriting is not legible D. Call the family
C. It has too many unofficial 138. The ANA recognized nursing
abbreviations informatics heralding its establishment as a
D. The clients parents refuses to new field in nursing during what year?
use it
133. Nurse Karen is revising a client plan of A. 1994
care. During which step of the nursing B. 1992
process does such revision take place? C. 2000
D. 2001
A. Planning 139. When is the first certification of nursing
B. Implementation informatics given?
C. Diagnosing
D. Evaluation A. 1990-1993
134. When examining a client with B. 2001-2002
abdominal pain, Nurse Hazel should assess: C. 1994-1996
D. 2005-2008
A. Symptomatic quadrant either 140. The nurse is assessing a female client
second or first with possible diagnosis of osteoarthritis.
B. The symptomatic quadrant last The most significant risk factor for
C. The symptomatic quadrant first osteoarthritis is:
D. Any quadrant
 A. Obesity
B. Race
C. Job
D. Age
141. A male client complains of vertigo.
Nurse Bea anticipates that the client may
have a problem with which portion of the
ear?
A. Tymphanic membranes
B. Inner ear
C. Auricle
D. External ear
142. When performing Weber’s test, Nurse
Rosean expects that this client will hear
A. On unaffected side
B. Longer through bone than air
conduction
C. On affected side by bone
conduction
D. By neither bone or air
conduction
143. Toy with a tentative diagnosis of
myasthenia gravis is admitted for
diagnostic make up. Myasthenia gravis can
confirmed by:
A. Kernigs sign
B. Brudzinski’s sign
C. A positive sweat chloride test
D. A positive edrophonium
(Tensilon) test
144. A male client is hospitalized with
Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which assessment
finding is the most significant?
A. Even, unlabored respirations
B. Soft, non distended abdomen
C. Urine output of 50 ml/hr
D. Warm skin
145. For a female client with suspected
intracranial pressure (ICP), a most
appropriate respiratory goal is:
A. Maintain partial pressure of
arterial oxygen (Pa O2) above
80mmHg
B. Promote elimination of carbon
dioxide
C. Lower the PH
D. Prevent respiratory alkalosis
146. Which nursing assessment would
identify the earliest sign of ICP?
A. Change in level of
consciousness
B. Temperature of over 103°F
C. Widening pulse pressure
D. Unequal pupils
147. The greatest danger of an uncorrected
atrial fibrillation for a male patient will be
which of the following:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Cardiac arrest
C. Thrombus formation
D. Myocardial infarction
148. Linda, A 30 year old post hysterectomy
client has visited the health center. She
inquired about BSE and asked the nurse
when BSE should be performed. You
answered that the BSE is best performed:
A. 7 days after menstruation
B. At the same day each month
C. During menstruation
D. Before menstruation
149. An infant is ordered to recive 500 ml of
D5NSS for 24 hours. The Intravenous drip is
running at 60 gtts/min. How many drops per
minute should the flow rate be?
A. 60 gtts/min.
B. 21 gtts/min
C. 30 gtts/min
D. 15 gtts/min
150. Mr. Gutierrez is to receive 1 liter of
D5RL to run for 12 hours. The drop factor of
the IV infusion set is 10 drops per minute. A. 13-14 drops
Approximately how many drops per minutes B. 17-18 drops
should the IV be regulated? C. 10-12 drops
D. 15-16 drops