Professional Documents
Culture Documents
(Faculty Notes)
Time: 120 Minutes
Topics to be covered:
Constitution of India and its Development
Important Features of the Indian Constitution
Preamble
Fundamental Rights
President: Functions, Features and List of Presidents
Vice Presidents: Functions, Features and List of VPs
Prime Ministers: Functions, Features and list of PMs
Comptroller and Auditor General Function and Present CAG
Attorney General: Functions and Present person in-charge
Solicitor General: Functions and Present person in-charge
Supreme Court: Functions and Features
High Court: Function and Features
Functions and Powers of the Parliament
Functions and Powers of the Council of Ministers
Functions and Powers of the State Legislation
Official Languages
Schedules of the Constitution
Parts of the Constitution
Citizenship
Important Constitution Amendments
Important Commission and Committees
The last 20 minutes can be utilized for the feedback of the class exercise and for solving doubts and
queries of the students.
1. Who among the following moved the „Objectives Resolution’, which formed the basis of the Preamble of the
Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Dr B R Ambedkar, popularly known as Babasaheb Ambedkar, was one of the architects of the Indian
Constitution. He was a well-known politician and an eminent jurist. Ambedkar's efforts to eradicate the social
evils like untouchability and caste restrictions were remarkable. The leader, throughout his life, fought for the
rights of the Dalits and other socially backward classes. Ambedkar was appointed as the nation's first Law
Minister in the Cabinet of Jawaharlal Nehru. He was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest
civilian honor in 1990.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of independent India. He was the President of the Constituent
Assembly that drafted the Constitution. He had also served as a Cabinet Minister briefly in the first
Government of independent India. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was one of the foremost disciples of Gandhiji and he
played a crucial role in Indian freedom struggle.
Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel was one of the important social and political leaders of India. He played an
important role in India's struggle for freedom. Inspired by the work and philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi, he
joined India's struggle for independence. He organised peasants of Kheda, Bardoli and other parts of Gujarat
and launched non-violent Civil Disobedience Movement in Gujarat, against the payment of raised tax, levied by
the British Government. He succeeded in his goal and the British Government suspended the payment of
revenue for that year. With this, he became one of the most influential leaders in Gujarat. In 1920, he became
the President of Gujarat Pradesh Congress Committee and served in the post till 1945. He was a strong
supporter of the Non-Cooperation Movement of Gandhi and worked against alcoholism, Untouchability and
caste discrimination in Gujarat.
Jawaharlal Nehru was born on November 14, 1889, in Allahabad, India. In 1919, he joined the Indian National
Congress and joined Indian Nationalist leader Mahatma Gandhi‟s Independence Movement. In 1947, Pakistan
was created as a new, independent country for Muslims. The British withdrew and Nehru became independent
India‟s first Prime Minister. He died on May 27, 1964, in New Delhi, India.
2. Every proclamation issued under „Article 356’ shall cease to operate at the expiration of which of the following?
(a) One month unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament
(b) Two months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of
Parliament
(c) Six months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament
(d) Three years unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of parliament
3. Which is not a correct statement regarding ‘Financial Emergency’?
(a) President can ask States to follow a certain financial propriety
(b) States may be asked to reserve the money bills for the consideration of the President
(c) President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues
(d) President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges
4. The duration of proclamation of ‘Financial Emergency’ is:
(a) At the first instance one month (b) At the first instance two months
(c) At the first instance six months (d) At the first instance one year
5. Who administers the oath of office to the President?
(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister (d) Vice-President
6. Which one of the following does not constitute the Electoral College for electing the President of India?
(a) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
(b) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each State
(d) Elected members of the Legislative Council
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30. The Chairman and members of State Public Service Commission are appointed by which of the following?
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Governor (d) Chairman, UPSC
The Union Public Service Commission is India's central agency authorised to conduct the Civil Services
Examination, Indian Forest Service Examination, Engineering Services Examination, Combined Defence
Services Examination, National Defence Academy Examination, Naval Academy Examination, Combined
Medical Services Examination, Special Class Railway Apprentice, Indian Economic Service/Indian Statistical
Service Examination, Combined Geoscientist and Geologist Examination, and Central Armed Police Forces
(Assistant Commandant) Examination.
Current Chairman of UPSC: Arvind Saxena
31. Who among the following is the first Law Officer of the Government of India?
(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Law Minister
(c) Attorney General (d) Auditor General
Law Minister - The Minister of Law and Justice is the head of the Ministry of Law and Justice and one of
the Cabinet Ministers of the Government of India. Ravi Shankar Prasad is incumbent Minister of Law and
Justice.
32. The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in which of the following?
(a) any High Court (b) Supreme Court
(c) any Sessions Court (d) any Court of law within the territory of India
33. Indian Constitution was amended for the first time in which year?
(a) 1950 (b) 1951 (c) 1952 (d) 1953
34. Extradition means:
(a) forcing a foreign national to leave the country
(b) forcing a citizen of the country to leave the country
(c) delivering a foreign national for the trial of offences
(d) blocking the trade of other countries with a particular country
35. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Tej Bahadur Sapru (c) C. Rajagopalachari (d) B. R. Ambedkar
Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru, was a jurist and statesman, important in the progress of British India towards
self-government. For his integrity and wisdom he was trusted both by the British Government and by
Indian intellectual and political leaders. He was knighted in 1922. He was a member of the United
Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh) Legislative Council (1913–16) and of the Imperial Legislative Council
(1916–20), a law member of the Viceroy‟s Council (1920–23), and a delegate to the three Round Table
Conference sessions in London (1930–32) concerning the Government of India. His mediation helped to
bring about the Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931), by which the Indian Nationalist leader Mohandas K.
Gandhi terminated a Civil Disobedience Campaign and was allowed to attend the second session of the
Round Table Conference. Sapru was also in part responsible for the Poona Pact modifying the British plan
for a separate electorate of Hindu untouchables. This agreement caused Gandhi to abandon the fast that
he had begun in September 1932 in protest against the British scheme. In 1934, Sapru became a privy
councilor. Unlike most of his political colleagues in India, he supported the World War II effort of
the British Empire without insisting on an early grant of independence in return.
36. Match the following:
Committees Chairmen of Assembly Constituent
A. Drafting Committee 1. Valabhbhai Patel
B. Committee on Fundamental and Minority Rights 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Union Constitution Committee 3. Kanhaiya Lal Munshi
D. Working Committee 4. B.R. Ambedkar
A B C D A B C D
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(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
37. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in which of the following?
(a) British Parliament (b) Federal Legislature
(c) State Legislature (d) Governor-General
38. The office of Governor General of India was created by which act?
(a) Charter Act, 1813 (b) Charter Act, 1833
(c) Government of India Act, 1858 (d) Government of India Act, 1935
39. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) B.N. Rau (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Sir Benegal Narsing Rau (B.N. Rau) was an Indian Civil Servant, jurist, diplomat and statesman known
for his key role in drafting the Constitution of India. He was appointed constitutional adviser to the
assembly; Rau prepared the original draft of the constitution, and was later appointed a judge in the
Permanent Court of International Justice in The Hague. He was also India's representative to the United
Nations Security Council from 1950 to 1952. One of the foremost Indian jurists of his time, Rau helped
draft the constitutions of Burma in 1947 and India in 1950. As India's representative on the United Nations
Security Council (1950–52), he was serving as president of the council when it recommended armed
assistance to South Korea (June 1950). Later he was a member of the Korean War post Armistice United
Nations Command Military Armistice Commission (UNCMAC).
40. Match the following:
Constitutional Features Sources
A. Rule of Law 1. German Constitution
B. Directive Principles 2. Australian Constitution
C. Concurrent List 3. Irish Constitution
D. Suspension of Fundamental
Rights during Emergency 4. British Constitution
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
41. The inspiration of 'Liberty, Equality and Fraternity' was derived from which Revolution?
(a) American Revolution (b) French Revolution
(c) Russian Revolution (d) None of these
42. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the idea of Preamble from which Constitution?
(a) Italian Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution
(c) French Constitution (d) Constitution of USA
43. Which of the following Articles describes about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign
state not to be citizens?
(a) Article 5 (b) Article 7 (c) Article 8 (d) Article 9
44. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as 'The Heart and Soul of the Constitution'?
(a) Right to Freedom of Religion (b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Equality (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
45. Regarding equality before law, Indian Constitution makes exceptions in the case of which of the following?
(a) President or a Governor (b) Foreign Sovereigns only
(c) President only (d) None of these
46. How many times can the President of India return a Non-Money Bill, passed by Parliament?
(a) Twice (b) Once (c) Thrice (d) Never
47. The Constitution describes India as a:
(a) Federation of States (b) Union of States
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48. Which language is not recognised in the 8th Schedule though it is an official language of a State?
(a) English (b) Sindhi (c) Sanskrit (d) Kashmiri
49. Match the following:
A. Article 61 1. Removal of Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B. Article 67 2. Impeachment of President
C. Article 94 3. Removal of Vice President
D. Article 90 4. Removal of Speaker
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 3 4 1
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 4 2 1
50. In case a President dies while in office, the Vice-President can act as President for a maximum period of:
(a) 2 years (b) 1 year (c) 3 months (d) 6 months
51. Put in chronological order the following names of Presidents of India?
I. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan II. V.V. Giri
III. Dr. Zakir Hussain IV. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) I, III, II, IV (c) II, I, III, IV (d) I, III, IV, II
52. The pardoning power given to the President of India under Article 72 can be exercised:
(a) only after the trial and on the sentence of conviction
(b) during or after trial but never before trial
(c) at any time before, during or after the trial
(d) either before or after the trial but never during the trial of the case
53. Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice-President is available?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Auditor General of India (d) Senior most Governor of a State
54. When the Chairman of Rajya Sabha acts as President, the duties of the Chairman are performed by which of
the following?
(a) himself
(b) a newly elected Chairman
(c) the Deputy Chairman
(d) a member of Rajya Sabha deputed by the Chairman
55. What is the position of a 'Minister of State' in the Central Government?
(a) He is the nominee of the State Governor
(b) He is the nominee of the State Cabinets
(c) He looks after the interests of the State Cabinet
(d) He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet
56. The Chief Minister of a State in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election i f:
(a) he himself is a candidate
(b) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State Legislature
(c) he is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) None of these
57. What is 'zero hour'?
(a) When the proposals of the opposition are considered
(b) When matters of utmost importance are raised
(c) Interval between the morning and afternoon sessions
(d) When a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha
58. The Lok Sabha is called in session for at least how many times in a year?
(a) Twice (b) Once (c) Thrice (d) Four times
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GA-4 (Indian Constitution) – Faculty Notes
The maximum gap between to session Parliament cannot be more than6 months in the other word the
Parliament should meet atleast Twice a year. Usually there are Three session in Parliament.
59. What type of Party system has been evolved in India?
(a) Single Party (b) Bi-Party (c) Multi-Party (d) Partyless
Single Party - A single-party state or single-party system is a type of state in which one political party has
the right to form the government, usually based on the existing constitution. All other parties are either
outlawed or allowed to take only a limited and controlled participation in elections. Sometimes the term de
facto one-party state is used to describe a dominant-party system that, unlike the one-party state, allows
(at least nominally) democratic multiparty elections, but the existing practices or balance of political power
effectively prevent the opposition from winning the elections.
Bi- Party - A two-party system is a party system where two major political parties dominate politics
within a government. One of the two parties typically holds a majority in the legislature and is usually
referred to as the majority party while the other is the minority party. The term has different senses. For
example, in the United States, Jamaica, and Malta, the sense of two party system describes an arrangement
in which all or nearly all elected officials belong to one of the only two major parties, and third parties
rarely win any seats in the legislature. In such arrangements, two-party systems are thought to result from
various factors like winner takes all election rules. In such systems, while chances for third party candidates
winning election to major national office are remote, it is possible for groups within the larger parties, or in
opposition to one or both of them, to exert influence on the two major parties. In contrast, in the United
Kingdom and in other parliamentary systems and elsewhere, the term two-party system is sometimes used
to indicate an arrangement in which two major parties dominate elections but in which there are viable
third parties which do win seats in the legislature, and in which the two major parties exert proportionately
greater influence than their percentage of votes would suggest.
Multi Party- A multi-party system is a system in which multiple political parties across the political
spectrum run for national election, and all have a similar or equal chance of gaining control of government
offices, separately or in coalition government.
60. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the grades of officers in the Central Secretariat?
1. Secretary 2. Additional Secretary
3. Joint Secretary 4. Deputy Secretary
5. Under Secretary 6. Director
(a) 1,2,3,6,4,5 (b) 2,1,3,5,4,6 (c) 6,4,3,5,2,1 (d) 1,5,4,2,6,3
61. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Parliamentary Standing Committee Chaired by
(a) Public Accounts Committee Member of Opposition
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings Lok Sabha Member
(c) Committee on Private Member's Bill and Resolutions Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Business Advisory Committee Finance Minister
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a committee of selected members of Parliament, constituted by
the Parliament of India, for the auditing of the revenue and the expenditure of the Government of India. The
PAC is formed every year with a strength of not more than 22 members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha,
the lower house of the Parliament, and 7 from Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament. The term of
office of the members is one year. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Since 1967, the
Chairman of the committee is selected from the opposition. Earlier, it was headed by a member of the ruling
party. Its chief function is to examine the audit report of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) after it is laid
in the Parliament. CAG assists the committee during the course of investigation. None of the 22 members shall
be a minister in the government.
The Committee on Public Undertakings was established by the Government of India to expand the
parliamentary control over public undertakings. This committee shall consist of fifteen members that would
include ten members from Lok Sabha and five from Rajya Sabha. The members are elected on the basis of
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proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. The Committee on Public Undertaking are
supposed to perform certain functions that will establish their accountability within the parliament.
Committee on Public Member’s Bill and Resolutions- This Committee consists of 15 members and the
Deputy Speaker is its Chairman. The Committee is nominated by the Speaker. The functions of the Committee
are to allot time to Private Members' Bills and Resolutions, to examine Private Members' Bills seeking to amend
the Constitution before their introduction in Lok Sabha, to examine all private members' Bills after they are
introduced and before they are taken up for consideration in the House and to classify them according to their
nature, urgency and importance into two categories namely, category A and category B and also to examine
such Private Members' Bills where the legislative competence of the House is challenged. The Committee
thus, performs the same function in relation to Private Members' Bills and Resolutions as the Business Advisory
Committees does in regard to Government Business. The Committees holds office for a term not exceeding
one year.
Business Advisory Committee-The Business Advisory Committee is generally constituted every year by the
Chairman under Rule 30(1). It consists of 11 Members including the Chairman, Rajya Sabha who is the ex-
officio Chairman of the Committee. The Leader of the House and the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
generally attend the meeting to explain the position of the Government. The Committee meets on the opening
day of every session to allocate time for Government Legislative and other Business expected to be taken up
during the first week of the session. Meetings of the Business Advisory Committee are generally held every
Thursday afternoon when the House is in session or on any other day at the convenience of the Hon‟ble
Chairman.
62. On what grounds can a person be disqualified as a voter?
I. Unsoundness of mind II. Corrupt or illegal practice
III. Crime IV. Non-residence
(a) I, III and IV (b) I, II and III (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
63. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of India?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
64. Prorogation of the House means:
(a) House has been brought in session
(b) the session of the House has been terminated
(c) the House itself stands terminated
(d) None of these
65. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to which of the following?
(a) their performance as office bearers of cultural societies
(b) their role played in political set up of the country
(c) the recommendations made by the Vice-President
(d) their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service
66. Which of the following is true regarding the Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) One has to be a member of the Rajya Sabha for election to the post of the Vice-Chairman
(b) One need not necessarily be a member of the Rajya Sabha for election to the post of the Vice-Chairman
(c) One has to be a member of either House of Parliament for election to the post of the Vice-Chairman
(d) There is an established convention that the Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha belongs to the main
opposition party in the Rajya Sabha
67. Article 75 includes among its provisions:
(1) Prime Minister is to be appointed by the President.
(2) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
(3) The President may appoint a non-member as Prime Minister who must become a member of
Parliament before the expiration of six months.
(4) The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
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68. All money received by or on behalf of the Government of India are credited to which of the following?
(a) Consolidated Fund of India (b) Public Account of India
(c) Contingency Fund of India (d) Either (a) or (b)
Consolidated Fund of India - This term derives its origin from the Constitution of India. Under Article 266
(1) of the Constitution of India, all revenues (example: tax revenue from personal income tax, corporate
income tax, customs and excise duties as well as non-tax revenue such as licence fees, dividends and profits
from public sector undertakings etc. ) received by the Union Government as well as all loans raised by issue of
treasury bills, internal and external loans and all moneys received by the Union Government in repayment of
loans shall form a Consolidated Fund entitled the 'Consolidated Fund of India' for the Union Government.
Similarly, under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India, a Consolidated Fund of State (a separate fund for
each state) has been established where all revenues (both tax revenues such as Sales Tax/VAT, stamp duty etc.
and non-tax revenues such as user charges levied by State Governments) received by the State government as
well as all loans raised by issue of treasury bills, internal and external loans and all moneys received by the State
Government in repayment of loans shall form part of the fund. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
audits these Funds and reports to the Union/State legislatures when proper accounting procedures have not
been followed.
Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the government is merely acting as a
banker. This fund was constituted under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution. It accounts for flows for those
transactions where the government is merely acting as a banker. Examples of those are provident funds, small
savings and so on. These funds do not belong to the government. They have to be paid back at some time to
their rightful owners. Because of this nature of the fund, expenditures from it are not required to be approved
by the Parliament.
The Contingency Fund of India established under Article 267 (1) of the Constitution is in the nature of an
imprest (money maintained for a specific purpose) which is placed at the disposal of the President to enable
him/her to make advances to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the Parliament.
69. Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it?
(a) Solicitor-General of India (b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Attorney General of India (d) Chief Election Commissioner
70. Who among the following is known as the “Father of the Indian Constitution”?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
71. Match the following:
Constitutional Provisions Sources
A. Federation 1. U S A
B. Parliamentary 2. Britain
C. Method of Election of President 3. Canada
D. Fundamental Rights 4. Ireland
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 1 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
72. Which of the pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Republic : Head of the State is hereditary Monarch
(b) Sovereign : Constitution rests on people's will
(c) Democratic : Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country
(d) Secular : State is without any religion of its own
73. The word „socialist’ ‘secular‟ and „unity’ and ‘integrity of the Nation’ were added to our Constitution by which
Amendment?
(a) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution (b) 44th Amendment of the Constitution
th
(c) 46 Amendment of the Constitution (d) None of these
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74. Which of the following is not a part of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(a) Secularism (b) Socialism (c) Democratic (d) Federalism
75. If an Indian citizen is denied a public office because of his religion, which of the following Fundamental Rights is
denied to him?
(a) Right to Freedom (b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion (d) Right against Exploitation
76. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented:
(a) in the Supreme Court only
(b) in the High Court only
(c) either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court
(d) first in the Supreme Court and then in the High Court
77. The object of Directive Principles of State Policy aims at which of the following?
(a) Embodiment of the concept of a welfare State, legislature and judiciary
(b) Supremacy of executive
(c) Embodiment of multifarious concepts of judicial activism
(d) Parliament is supreme body unanswerable to any authority
78. In which one of the following does the subject of Co-operative Societies fall?
(a) Union List (b) State List
(c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary Powers of Union Government
79. Match the following:
A. Abolition of Untouchability 1. Article 24
B. Abolition of Titles 2. Article 23
C. Prohibition of Child Labour 3. Article 17
D. Prohibition of Traffic in human beings 4. Article 18
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 3 2 4
Article 24 : Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. No child below the age of fourteen years
shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment Provided
that nothing in this sub clause shall authorise the detention of any person beyond the maximum period
prescribed by any law made by Parliament under sub clause (b) of clause (7); or such person is detained in
accordance with the provisions of any law made by Parliament under sub clauses (a) and (b) of clause (7)
Article 23 : Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour:
(1) Traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any
contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
(2) Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public purpose, and in
imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or
class or any of them.
Article 17: Abolition of Untouchability - Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.
The enforcement of any disability arising out of Untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance
with law.
Article 18: Abolition of titles No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the
State. No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State. No person who is not a citizen of India
shall, while he holds any office of profit or trust under the State, accept without the consent of the President
any title from any foreign State. No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State shall, without the
consent of the President, accept any present, emolument, or office of any kind from or under any foreign State
Right to Freedom.
80. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by which of the following?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Constitutional Amendment
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DO IT YOURSELF
Students are expected to find out answers to these questions on their own.
This is to encourage research and build curiosity for General Awareness.
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