A350 Oral Questions

1
A350 TRC ORAL TEST

TYPE RATING CHECK
REVIEW TRAINING FORM
LATEST NOTIFICATION
SYSTEM REVIEW
OPERATION RELATED
MEMORY ITEMS
AIRCRAFT LIMITATION 3
TYPE RATING CHECK
SYLLABUS BRIEFING
CREWS BRIEFING
SITUATION CONSIDERATION
AIRCRAFT ACCEPTANCE
SID BRIEFING
4
SYLLABUS BRIEFING
5
SYSTEM REVIEW
ATA21
ATA 21 ATA 22 ATA 23 ATA 24
PRESSURIZATION/
AIR CONDITIONING AUTOFLIGHT COMMUNICATIONS ELECTRICAL
VENTILATION
ATA30
ATA26 ATA27 ATA28 ATA29
ICE and RAIN
FIRE PROTECTION FLIGHT CONTROLS FUEL HYDRAULIC
PROTECTION
ATA31
ATA32 ATA33 ATA34 ATA 34
CONTROL AND
LANDING GEAR LIGHTS NAVIGATION SURVEILLANCE
DISPLAY SYSTEM
ATA35 ATA36 ATA38 ATA49 ATA70

OXYGEN BLEED AIR WATER/WASTE APU ENGINES
6
ATA21 AIR CONDITIONING
Q01 Q02 Q03
7
21 AIR CONDITIONING
Q01. What are sources of bleed air system?
• From engines
• From APU
• From ground air supply
8
21 AIR CONDITIONING
Q02. In case of both packs fail, what receive air from outside through
emergency ram air inlet?
The mixing unit
9
21 AIR CONDITIONING
Q03. Brief descript how does condition air to meet temperature
demand?
Cooled air comes from packs, goes through premixer with recycled air, then
hot air from bleed system is added to the mixed air, to obtain the selected
temperature.
10
ATA21 PRESSURIZATION/VENTILATION
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05
Q06 Q07 Q08 Q09
11
21 PRESSURIZATION/VENTILATION
Q01. What is the maximum cabin altitude can regulate during cruise?
The maximum cabin altitude during cruise can regulate is 6000 ft.
12
Q02. What are the components to regulate the cabin pressure?
2 identical, independent and automatic controllers,

1 manual controller, and
2 outflow valves.
13
Q03. How does negative relief valve work?
It prevents the negative differential pressure from going too high by

mechanically-opens, above the flotation line.
14
Q04. When does the overpressure relief valve open?
It automatically opens when differential pressure is below -0.725 PSI or above

10.29 PSI.
15
Q05. Which figure tells that cabin altitude control mode is in automatic?
A.
A. B.
16
Q06. Which cargo compartment has heater to regulate temperature?
Bulk cargo compartment.
17
Q07. Which cargo compartment has a temperature regulation system
from air conditioning system?
FWD cargo compartment.
18
Q08. How many circuits of avionics ventilation, and what are they
cooling?
There are 2 avionics ventilation, Left and Right circuit. They are cooling the
cockpit panels and the avionics bay.
19
Q09. When dose the avionic overboard valve open?
On ground, It opens automatically with the engines not running.

In flight, when the AVNCS EXTRACT pb-sw on the VENT panel is set to OVRD in
partially open.
20
ATA22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05 Q06
Q07 Q08 Q09 Q10 Q11 Q12
Q13 Q14 Q15 Q16 Q17 Q18
Q19 Q20 Q21 Q22 Q23
21
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q01. What are the major elements of auto flight system?
• Flight envelope
• Flight guidance
• Flight management
• Flight control data concentrator
22
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q02. How does vertical and lateral guidance work in AFS?
• Lateral and vertical guidance can be selected or managed, independently of

each other. However, managed vertical guidance is not possible, when
selected lateral guidance is used
23
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q03. In case the AFS CP fails, what page in MFD can provide alternate
control?
• The MFD FCU BKUP / AFS CP page can provides all the AFS CP controls and
indicators
24
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q04. When does Yaw Bar display on PFD?
• The Yaw Bar is displayed during takeoff or landing roll

with ILS to the runway is tuned
25
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q05. When do FDs automatic engagement?
• On ground, the FDs automatically engage at aircraft power up when ADIRS

are aligned.
• In flight, if not engaged, FDs automatically engage, if
ü The flight crew engages a go-around, or
ü The thrust levers are set to TOGA or FLX during takeoff, or
ü The AP/FD TCAS mode engages upon a RA, or
ü The EMER DES mode engages.
26
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q06. What is the recommend method to disengage AP?
• To press the sidestick pb twice (2) to disengage AP, one is AP

disengagement, second time is to clear associated AP OFF alert
27
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q07. With AP engaged, what are indications if AP fail or disengage not
correctly?
• If AP fail or disengage not correctly, the cavalry charge audio indicators

sounds at high volume, and AUTO FLT AP OFF alert is displayed.
28
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q08. With AP engaged, what are indications if AP disengaged correctly?
• AP disengaged correctly, the cavalry charge audio indicators sounds at low

volume, and the AP OFF memo appears on the PFD and on the WD.
29
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q09. What are the effects of thrust lever movement beyond active
range when the A/THR is active?
• The A/THR becomes armed as described below:
ü All engines are operative: all the thrust levers are above the CL detent,
or at least one thrust lever is above the FLX-MCT detent.
ü One engine is out: the thrust lever of the operative engine is above the
FLX-MCT detent.
• When the A/THR becomes armed, the thrust immediately increases, in
accordance with the thrust lever position.
30
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q10. With A/THR engaged, what are indications if A/THR is involuntary
disconnection?
• If A/THR is involuntary disconnected,
ü The A/THR OFF memo appears on the PFD and WD.
ü The AUTO FLT A/THR OFF alert.
ü The MASTER CAUT light comes on.
ü The single chime sounds
ü The thrust lock function activates.
31
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q11. In manual or automatic landing, what are consequences if the
flight crew doesn’t set the thrust levers to idle?
• The RETARD callout repeated

• The spoilers will not extend after touchdown, and the autobrake will not
activate.
32
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q12. What is recommend method to disconnect A/THR in flight if
needed ?
• Move thrust levers position (blue circle) to align with current thrust, then
press one of A/THR instinctive disconnect pushbutton
33
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q13. For managed speed/Mach, what the lowest and the highest target
speed are ?
• The lowest target is VLS, the highest target is VMAX – 5 kt in managed

speed/Mach.
34
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q14. When will ground speed mini function activate?
• The ground speed mini function is active when the speed is managed and
the FMS flight phase is the approach phase.
35
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q15. What is magenta dot indicated on the PFD speed scale?
• The magenta dot on speed scale is short-term managed

speed.
36
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q16. What is approximate crossover altitude for speed/Mach switching?
• The crossover altitude for speed/Mach switching is approximate 30,000 ft.
37
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q17. How to preset HDG/TRK for takeoff if NAV mode not used after
airborne ?
• The preset HDG/TRK can be set by only turning the HDG/TRK knob on the
AFS CP without pulling.
38
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q18. What difference on FMA second column for next altitude target is
selected on the AFS CP altitude window ?
• The next altitude target one is selected altitude, and the other is cruise
altitude.
39
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q19. What does this indication tell you ?
• The next altitude target is an altitude

constraint.
40
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q20. How does FMC provide data to FMS in normal operation ?
• In normal operation,
ü FMC-A provides data to FMS 1
ü FMC-B provides data to FMS 2
ü FMC-C is the backup FMC
41
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q21. What databases in FMC ?
• There are 4 databases in FMC;

ü Navigation database
ü Performance database
ü Magnetic variation database
ü Pilot-stored elements database
42
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q22. What does the triangle behind
waypoint ABN mean ?
• Waypoint ABN is an overfly waypoint.
43
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q23. How to change departure T.O. data after rejected takeoff?
• To change the FMS departure in the active flight plan, the flight crew:
ü Use an empty SEC F-PLN, or deletes a SEC F-PLN
ü Initializes the SEC F-PLN with appropriate inputs in the INIT/F-PLN/PERF
pages of the SEC F-PLN
ü Use the SWAP function in order to activate the secondary flight plan
with updated inputs.
44
ATA23 COMMUNICATION
Q01 Q02
45
23 COMMUNICATION
Q01. What does this EVAC panel tell you ?
• The CIC requests an evacuation:

ü The EVAC light comes on
ü A horn sounds in the cockpit during 3 sec.
46
23 COMMUNICATION
Q02. What does EMER pb on the CALLS panel tell you ?
The EMER pb is initialized by flight crew
47
ATA24 ELECTRICAL
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05
Q06 Q07 Q08 Q09
48
24 ELECTRICAL
Q01. During preliminary cockpit preparation, why batteries check needs
to turn off/on in specific order ?
This specific order for switching off/on batteries to prevent the display of
spurious dispatch messages.
49
24 ELECTRICAL
Q02. In order to avoid electrical reconfigurations, how to connect
EXT 1(2) when the AVAIL light is on?
In order to avoid electrical reconfiguration:
ü When only one electrical power is available, connect EXT PWR 2
ü When two electrical powers available, connect EXT PWR 2 before EXT
PWR 1
50
24 ELECTRICAL
Q03. How does A350 AC power generate?
The A350 AC power generates as:

ü 4 engine generators (GEN 1A, GEN 1B, GEN 2A, GEN 2B) provide AC 230
V power
ü An APU generator provides AC 230 V power
ü 2 external power units (EXT 1, EXT 2) can provide AC 115 V power
ü 4 ATUs (ATU 1A, ATU 1B, ATU 2A, ATU 2B) to convert AC 230 V into 115 V,
and vice versa when power source is external power unit
51
24 ELECTRICAL
Q04. How does A350 DC power generate?
The A350 DC power generates as:

ü 2 TRs (TR 1, TR 2) provide DC 28 V power from AC 230 V power
ü 2 emergency TRs (TR EMER 1, TR EMER 2) provide DC 28 V power from
emergency AC busbar 230 V power (AC EMER 1, AC EMER 2)
ü 4 batteries (BAT 1, BAT 2, BAT EMER 1, BAT EMER 2)
52
24 ELECTRICAL
Q05. How does A350 emergency power generate?
The A350 emergency power generates as:

ü A RAT provides AC 230 V power
ü 2 emergency ATUs ( ATU EMER 1, ATU EMER 2) provide AC 115 V power
from AC 230 V power
ü One DC static inverter (STAT INV) can also provide some 115 V power
from DC 28 V power
53
24 ELECTRICAL
Q06. In flight, what condition the APU will automatically start and
supply side 1 power?
When all engine flameout in flight, the APU will automatically start to supply
side 1 power
54
24 ELECTRICAL
Q07. If the normal network not available, what batteries to supply
power for refuel on batteries operation?
• BAT 1 and BAT 2 can supply the electrical power for refuel operation.
55
24 ELECTRICAL
Q08. What if the DRIVE pb has been pushed to disconnect from engine
on ELEC panel, how can be reconnected ?
• It only be reconnected by the maintenance action on the ground.
56
24 ELECTRICAL
Q09. When will RAT deploy automatically in flight?
• The RAT automatically extends, when all AC 230 V

busbars are lost.
57
ATA26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05
Q06 Q07 Q08 Q09
58
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q01. How many fire extinguisher bottles are there for each ENG, APU,
and FWD+AFT/bulk CARGO compartments?
• 2 bottles for each ENG.
• 1 bottle for APU.
• 2 bottles for FWD+AFT/bulk CARGO compartments.
59
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q02. What are the indications if fire is detected in an engine?
When fire is detected in an engine:

ü The CRC sounds
ü The MASTER WARN lights flash
ü The ECAM FIRE alert is triggered
ü The SD displays the ENG SD page
ü On the FIRE panel, the assigned FIRE light comes on
ü On the ENG MASTER panel, the assigned FIRE light comes on
60
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q03. How does the fire protection system to distinguish fire or fault if
one fire detection loop fails after the other on the same engine?
On the same engine, if one detection loop fails after the other,
ü Interval is within 5 sec, ENG FIRE triggers.
ü Interval more than 5 sec, ENG FIRE DET FAULT triggers.
61
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q04. What does this agent pb tell you on FIRE panel ?
The squibs of the fire extinguisher bottle are armed.
62
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q05. On A350, what areas equip with fire and overheat detection ?
The following areas have fire and overheat detection,

ü The engines
ü The APU
ü The MLG bay
63
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q06. On A350, what areas equip with fire extinguishing ?
The following areas have fire extinguishing,

ü The engines
ü The APU
ü The cargo compartments
ü The lavatories
64
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q07. On A350, what areas equip with smoke detection ?
The following areas have smoke detection,

ü The avionics bay
ü The flight crew rest compartment, and cabin crew rest compartment
ü The cargo compartments
ü The lavatories
ü The IFE bay
65
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q08. On ground with APU running, what happens if APU fire is
detected ?
The fire protection system for APU automatically activates the extinguishing
system if fire is detected on ground.
66
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q09. How long of SRARLUX A350 cargo compartment protection for fire
extinguishing or smoke suppression is installed?
The STARLUX A350 is equipped with 290 min for cargo compartment for fire
extinguishing and smoke suppression.
67
ATA27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05 Q06
Q07 Q08 Q09 Q10 Q11 Q12
Q13 Q14 Q15 Q16 Q17 Q18
68
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q01. How many flight control computers on A350, and what they are?
There are 6 flight control computers on A350, They are 3 PRIMs, and 3 SECs
One computer of any type (PRIM or SEC) is able to control the aircraft.
69
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q02. What kind of actuator shown in figure below, what flight controls
are fitted with ?
The figure on the left is EHA, Electro-Hydrostatic
Actuator. It is fitted on inner ailerons, elevator, and
rudder
70
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q03. What is EBHA, how does it work and which flight control is fitted
with ?
• The EBHA is a combination of a
conventional actuator and an EHA.
• It works as conventional actuator, when
hydraulic power is available. Also behaves
as EHA, when hydraulic power is lost.
• The pair of spoiler 5th is fitted with EBHA.
71
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q04. When the pitch trim is set automatically for takeoff ?
• When the first engine is started, or

• When the flight crew arms the ground spoilers.
72
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q05. Above what speed the outer ailerons wouldn’t deflect ?
• The outer ailerons are not deflected up or down above 250 kt
73
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q06. When the rudder trim is set at 0 deg. automatically for takeoff ?
• When the first engine is started, or

• When the flight crew arms the ground spoilers.
74
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q07. When will ground spoilers automatically FULL extend at landing ?
• The ground spoilers automatically FULL extend at landing,

ü The ground spoilers are armed and all thrust levers are at idle, when 2
landing gears are on ground.
ü The ground spoilers are not armed, at least 1 thrust lever in REV and the
other below CLB with 2 landing gears are on ground.
75
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q08. What do these indicate on F/CTL SD page ?
• This indicates that the associated actuator is failed.
• This indicates that the hydraulic power of associated actuator is failed.
76
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q09. What does the white round symbol indicate for aileron on F/CTL
SD page ?
• The white round symbol indicates the neutral position when aileron
droop occurs.
• The aileron droop occurs when,
ü The flaps are extended for lift augmentation, or
ü In cruise for performance optimization.
77
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q10. How to deactivate the other sidestick permanently ?
• To deactivate the other sidestick permanently, the flight crew must press
its sidestick pb for 40 sec.
• To release the deactivated sidestick, any flight crew presses its sidestick
pb again.
78
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
• Ground spoilers are armed. The blue triangle represents the fully
extended position of the ground spoilers.
79
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
• It displays when one of the following conditions is true:

ü In cruise, the speed brakes have been extended for 50 sec and at
least one engine is not at idle.
ü Below 800 ft, the speed brakes have been extended more than 5 sec.
80
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q13. What are the normal law protections ?
ü Load factor protection

ü Pitch attitude protection
ü Angle-of-attack (AOA) protection
ü High speed protection
ü Bank angle protection
81
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q14. What control law does this indication tell you ?
This PFD indicates that aircraft

is in alternate law with amber
crosses (x), and V𝛂prot, V𝛂max
are replaced V𝛂sw
82
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q15. What control law does this indication tell you ?
This PFD indicates that aircraft

is in Direct law with amber
crosses (x), V𝛂prot, V𝛂max are
replaced V𝛂sw, and auto trim is
lost (USE MAN PITCH TRIM)
83
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q16. If we lost all flight control computers (PRIMs, and SECs) in flight,
what control mode can provide control and stability of the aircraft ?
The Backup Control provides control and stability of the aircraft through
following surfaces:
ü Inner ailerons
ü Rudder
ü Elevators.
84
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q17. What is flap cruise deployment function ?
The flap cruise deployment function performs symmetrical small deflection of

the flaps and ailerons during cruise for drag and loads reducing.
85
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q18. For flaps positions indication, what do the upper and lower green
lines show ?
The upper green line shows the position of the

outer flaps,
The lower green line shows the position of the
inner flaps.
86
ATA28 FUEL
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05
87
28 FUEL
Q01. What is the surge tank for?
The surge tank is for connecting fuel tanks to atmosphere, this limits the
differential pressure between the tanks and the atmosphere, and maintains
the pressure within structural limits.
88
28 FUEL
Q02. With fuel in center tank, what is the feeding sequence for engines
with flap level at 0 ?
The center tank feeds engines first, then wing tanks
89
28 FUEL
Q03. How does APU be fed ? ( at least 2 answers )
The APU can be fed by:

ü The left center tank pump, or
ü The main and standby pump of the left wing tank, or
ü The right center tank pump, provides that one crossfeed valve is open,
or
ü The main or standby pump of the right wing tank, provided that one
crossfeed valve is open, or
ü The APU feed pump, that operates automatically, if required.
90
28 FUEL
Q04. What is the Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS) for?
The FTIS is provides a fully automatic

protection against fuel tank fire and explosion
by creating inert conditions within the free
space of all fuel tanks.
91
28 FUEL
Q05. What could happen if the (FOB+FU)-BLOCK indication shows
below ?
A fuel leak is suspected, the value

has diverged sufficiently, between
2.5 t to 4 t depending on the initial
FOB, to suspect a fuel leak.
Associated ECAM alert: FUEL LEAK
SUSPECTED might trigger.
92
ATA29 HYDRAULIC
Q01 Q02
93
29 HYDRAULIC
Q01. How many hydraulic systems ?
What is their normal system operating pressure?
A350 has 2 identical and independent hydraulic systems, which are YELLOW
and GREEN, provide 5,000 PSI.
94
29 HYDRAULIC
Q02. Which hydraulic system provide power for cargo door operation
on ground ?
YELLOW hydraulic power provides power for cargo door operation on ground.
95
ATA30 ICE and RAIN PROTECTION
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05 Q06
96
30 ICE and RAIN PROTECTION
Q01. What components use hot bleed air against from icing?
Hot air for ice protection:

ü Engine anti-ice
ü Wing anti-ice
97
Q02. What components use electrical power against from icing?
Electrical power for ice protection:

ü Window heating
ü Water/Waste drain masts heating
ü Probe heating
98
Q03. If electric power fails, what will happen to engine anti-ice and
wing anti-ice valves?
The engine anti-icing valves open, and wing anti-ice valves closed.
99
Q04. Which parts of the wing would be heated when Wing Anti-ice is
selected on ?
Hot air from the pneumatic system heats slats 3, 4 and 5 of each wing.
100
Q05. For window heating system, what is the difference between
windshield and side windows?
The windshields are heated to prevent icing and to defog,
The side windows are heated to defog only.
101
Q06. Why does the “ICE NOT DET” message appear in green on ECAM
MEMO?
If no ice has been detected 2 min after the flight crew has selected the
ENG/WING ANTI ICE pb-sw ON.
102
ATA31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05 Q06
Q07 Q08 Q09 Q10 Q11 Q12
Q13 Q14
103
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q01. Which three DUs are with touchscreen capability?
• The touchscreen function is

only available:
ü The CAPT outer DU,
ü The F/O outer DU, and
ü Center lower DU, and only
enables the interaction with
the OIS.
104
Q02. What is the priority of CDS automatic reconfiguration if DUs fail?
• The CDS automatically reconfiguration the DUs in order to display by

priority of:
ü The EFIS and the ECAM
ü The MFD
ü The OIS.
105
Q03. What does the yellow arrow point to ?
• It is tail strike pitch limit, indicates the max. pitch

attitude, in order to avoid a tail strike during landing.
106
Q04. What are those three target speeds during takeoff ?
• They are V1, VR, and V2 speed. Presents by cyan 1, cyan

circle, and magenta triangle during takeoff.
107
Q05. What do those two yellow arrow point ?
• The upper yellow arrow presents short-term managed speed.

• The lower yellow arrow presents auto retraction speed.
108
Q06. What do those three yellow arrows point in normal law ?
• The upper yellow arrow presents the VLS

• The middle yellow arrow presents the alpha protection speed
• The bottom yellow arrow presents the alpha max speed.
109
Q07. What do those two yellow arrows point in alternate or direct law ?
• The upper yellow arrow presents the VLS

• The lower yellow arrow presents the stall warning speed
110
Q08. What does this indication on altitude tape tell you?
• This indication represents the aircraft is close to the vertical

profile which provides by FMS and latched on the
profile(magenta half square) during descent.
111
Q09. What is the actual heading?
What is the selected heading?
What is the actual track?
• Actual heading: 148

• Selected heading: 140
• Actual track: 156
112
Q10. When aircraft is in HDG (TRK) mode, what do those yellow arrows
point to on ND ?
A. • A is the end of VD
D.
• B is the level off point
B. • C is energy circle
E. • D is the track of aircraft
C. • E is speed change point from FMS
113
Q11. What is different between these three ECAM alert ?
A. D. • They are different alert types, which are

independent, primary, and secondary failure.
B.
E.
C.
114
Q12. What is different between push buttons with guarded in red and
black on overhead panel ?
A. D.
• The push button with guarded in black is reversible, and
B. The push button with guarded in red is irreversible, the
E. •
system can’t get back in flight. Maintenance actions is
required to reset the system.
115
Q13. What is EMER CANC pb for on ECP panel ?
A. D. • The EMER CANC pb can be used for deleting fluctuated

caution, and
B. • When pressed, the ECAM caution is cancelled for the
E.
remainder of the flight, even if the triggering conditions
occur again.
116
Q14. What controls do PF and PM must crosscheck before any action in
flight ?
• The following controls must crosscheck by PF and PM before any
actions:
ü ENG MASTER lever
ü IR MODE selector
ü All guarded controls
ü RESET/POWER SUPPLY buttons
117
ATA32 LANDING GEAR
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05
Q06 Q07 Q08 Q09
118
32 LANDING GEAR
Q01. What is the L/G pre-arm function ?
• The L/G pre-arm function enables to reduce the L/G retraction time after
aircraft lift off with OEI. The reduction of the L/G retraction time improves
the takeoff performance.
119
32 LANDING GEAR
Q02. When will L/G CTL system change over ?
• The L/G CTL system changes over when the L/G lever is move from down to
up.
120
32 LANDING GEAR
Q03. What are the braking modes of A350 ?
• The braking modes of A350 are:

ü Normal braking
ü Alternate braking
ü Emergency braking
ü Parking brake
121
32 LANDING GEAR
Q04. How does hydraulic power distribute on MLG wheel ?
• The distribution of hydraulic power for braking is that Yellow system

supplier front wheel group, and Green system supplies the rear wheel
group on each MLG.
122
32 LANDING GEAR
Q05. When will automatic reinflation happen for accumulator ?
• An automatic reinflation is triggered:

ü As soon as the accumulator pressure goes below 2600 psi, or
ü Every hour if the accumulator pressure transducer is inoperative.
123
32 LANDING GEAR
Q06. How many A/BRK modes does A350 equipped with ?
• The A/BRK has four modes:

ü Three landing modes:
Ø BTV mode (on dry and wet runways)
Ø BTV CONTAM mode (on contaminated runways)
Ø BRK MED (basic autobrake)
ü One RTO mode
124
32 LANDING GEAR
Q07. What is braking Pre-Land Test (PLT) ?
• The purpose of the braking PLT is to:

ü Check that braking system is configured in appropriate mode for landing
ü Enable braking system reconfiguration if a failure is detected.
• The PLT may last approximately 2 min.
125
32 LANDING GEAR
Q08. What is max NWS angle vis rudder pedals below 100 kt, and via
steering handwheels below 30 kt ?
• The max NWS angle via rudder pedals below 100 kt is 6 degree.
• The max NWS angle vis steering handwheel below 30 kt is 72 degree.
126
32 LANDING GEAR
Q09. When does N/W STEER DISC indication on MEMO turn from green
into amber?
• The NWS disconnect pin is installed and at least one engine is running.
127
ATA33 LIGHTS
Q01
128
33 LIGHTS
Q01. When will cabin emergency lights on if EMER EXIT LT SW at ARM
position ?
The cabin emergency lights are on if the aircraft is no more

electrically powered.
129
ATA34 NAVIGATION
Q01 Q02 Q03
130
34 NAVIGATION
Q01. What parameters can Multi Function Probes ( MFPs) provide ?
The MFPs can provide the AOA, the total air temperature, and the total
pressure.
131
34 NAVIGATION
Q02. How to perform a complete alignment of ADIRS ?
To perform a complete alignment, the flight crew must do the following actions,
in the following sequence:
ü Turn off the IR mode selector to OFF for more than 5 s,
ü then set the IR mode selector to NAV
132
34 NAVIGATION
Q03. What is the priority of each ADIRU provide aircraft position ?
The priority of each ADIRU provides the aircraft system with the most accurate
position is:
ü The consolidated GPIRS position
ü Its own GPIRS position
ü The IR/radio position
ü Its own IR position
133
ATA34 SURVEILLANCE
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05
134
34 SURVEILLANCE
Q01. How does WXR detect weather ?
The WXR detects water drops in the surrounding area, by use the WXR
antenna.
A.
B.
135
34 SURVEILLANCE
Q02. What information do those arrows tell you?
A. is the detection area of Rain Echo

Attenuation Compensation Technique
A. ( REACT)
C. B. Is predictive hail icon
B.
C. Is predictive lightning icon
136
34 SURVEILLANCE
Q03. What system provide the reactive windshear detection and
predictive windshear (PWS) function ?
The reactive windshear detection is provided by
PRIMs,
ü During takeoff from 50 ft or 3 s after liftoff,
until reaching 1300 ft
ü During landing from 1300 ft to 50 ft
The PWS is provided by WXR,
ü During takeoff roll below 100 kt, then all
alerts are inhibited until above 50 ft to
1500 ft
ü At landing from 1500 ft to 50 ft, then
inhibited below 50 ft
137
34 SURVEILLANCE
Q04. When will TCAS system TA ONLY automatically select ?
• One of the following alerts is triggered:

ü Windshear
ü Stall
ü TAWS
• The aircraft is below 1000 ft ± 100 ft
• One engine fails
138
34 SURVEILLANCE
Q05. What do those intruder symbols on ND mean ?
• An intruder is in RA range
• An intruder is in TA range
• An intruder is in the proximate range
• Other intruder
139
34 SURVEILLANCE
Q06. Before pushback or start procedure, why both flight crew need to
select SURV/CONTROLS page SURV DEFAULT SETTINGS ?
• When clicks SURV DEFAULT SETTINGS, automatically sets all the SURV
settings to their default position from either side, but the following default
settings on WRX system are valid ONLY for the onside MFD;
• The ELEVN/TILT option list
• The GAIN button
• The MODE button
140
ATA34-32 ROW/ROP - BTV
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05
141
34-32 ROW/ROP - BTV
Q01. When will ROW/ROP transition happen ?
The ROW/ROP transition happens when one of the following condition:

The nose landing gear is on ground, or
The ground spoilers are extended for 5 s.
142
34-32 ROW/ROP - BTV
Q02. What information sources for ROW/ROP-BTV function in PRIMs to
compute selected runway landing performance above/below
ROW transition altitude ?
• Above ROW transition altitude, the FMS provides with the destination
airport information; PERF/APPR panel and the associated aircraft data;
FUEL&LOAD page predicted LW.
• Below ROW transition altitude, the ADIRUs provide real time data; the
current GS, OAT, and pressure altitude.
143
34-32 ROW/ROP - BTV
Q03. What information sources for ROW/ROP-BTV function in PRIMs to
compute selected runway landing performance above/below
ROW transition altitude ?
• Above ROW transition altitude, the FMS provides with the destination
airport information; PERF/APPR panel and the associated aircraft data;
FUEL&LOAD page predicted LW.
• Below ROW transition altitude, the ADIRUs provide real time data; the
current GS, OAT, and pressure altitude.
144
34-32 ROW/ROP - BTV
Q04. How does BTV work ?
• BTV could activate on either dry or wet runway;

ü Can delay brake, in order to optimize the brake use
ü Takes into account the distance between the aircraft and the selected
exit, releases braking when GS is approximate 10 kt, 60 m before the
selected exit.
ü BTV target changes 300 m before the runway end if selected exit is
runway end.
145
ATA35 OXYGEN
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04
146
35 OXYGEN
Q01. What is the crew oxygen discharge indicator for ?
The overboard discharge indicator is green in normal condition, but it turns

yellow if overpressure in the crew oxygen system occurs.
147
35 OXYGEN
Q02. What are the purposes for crew oxygen mask test ?
• Checking there is no residual pressure in supply host via press and hold PRESS
TO TEST AND RESET pb that the oxygen flow indicator turns yellow for a short
time, then goes black;
• Checking oxygen flow and microphone function normal via hold the PRESS TO
TEST AND RESET pb down, and press the EMERGENCY selector that the
oxygen flow indicator turns yellow, remains yellow as long as the EMERGENCY
selector is pressed. Meanwhile listen for oxygen flow through the
loudspeakers
• Checking oxygen not supply to mask via press EMERGENCY selector only, and
flow indicator remains black. Final correct setting for emergency use.
148
35 OXYGEN
Q03. What is duration of oxygen supply for cabin and crew rest
compartments ?
• The duration of oxygen supply for cabin and crew rest compartments is 22
minutes
149
35 OXYGEN
Q04. What is the red rotating knob?
Emergency pressure selector

- Turning the knob generates a permanent overpressure.
- Pressing it generates an overpressure for few seconds.
150
ATA36 BLEED AIR
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04
151
36 BLEED AIR
Q01. What systems receives high-pressure air from bleed air system ?
• Air conditioning and cabin pressurization

• Fuel tank inerting
• Engine start
• Wing anti-icing
• Pack bay ventilation
152
36 PNEUMATIC
Q02. What happen will lead to the engine bleed valve close
automatically in operation ? (answer at least 3 conditions)
• During the start sequence of the associated engine
• In the case of malfunction in the associated engine bleed air system
ü Bleed overpressure
ü Bleed overtemperature
• In the case of malfunction in the onside wing ice protection system
• In the case of a leak detection in the surrounding area
• In the case of a smoke procedure
• In the case the XBLEED selector is set to OPEN, and the wing anti-ice is set
to ON
153
36 PNEUMATIC
Q03. What valves will close automatically if a leak is detected on the
right side ?
• If a leak is detected on the right side, the following valves automatically
close:
ü The engine 2 bleed valve
ü The engine 2 bleed overpressure valve
ü The crossbleed valve
154
36 PNEUMATIC
Q04. What valves will close automatically if a leak is detected in the
pack 1 bay area and pack valve do not close automatically ?
• If a leak is detected in the pack 1 bay area and pack valve not close
autpmatically, the following valves automatically close:
ü The engine 1 bleed valve
ü The engine 1 bleed overpressure valve
ü The APU bleed valve
ü The crossbleed valve
155
ATA38 WATER/WASTE
Q01 Q02
156
38 WATER/WASTE
Q01. What waste water does drain overboard via drain masts ?
The waste water from galley sinks and lavatory washbasins drains overboard
via drain masts.
157
38 WATER/WASTE
Q02. How does flush function work in toilet system ?
The aircraft has a vacuum toilet system to flush the toilet;

ü In flight, a differential pressure forces waste from the toilet into the
waste storage tanks,
ü On ground and at low flight altitude ( below 16,000 ft), use a vacuum
generator that provides the necessary differential pressure.
158
ATA42 AVIONICS NETWORK - IMA
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05
159
Q01. How does A350’s systems communicate to each other ?
• Most of A350’s systems can communicate with each other via a high-speed
digital network which referes to as avionics network, instead of
conventional wires.
160
Q02. How does avionics network work ?
• The avionics network transmit the information that comes from the
aircraft systems via switches,
• The switches also can exchange information between systems by defined
path via one or several switches,
161
Q03. What is CPIOM ?
• CPIOM provides a same hardware shared by several avionics systems for

computation and communication.
• For computation, the CPIOM hosts several functions, in order to monitor
and control some avionics systems. As a result, one CPIOM can replace
several conventional avionics equipment.
162
Q04. What is CRDC ?
• The CRDC transforms data signals from a specific format, such as ARINC
429 data buses/analog signals, into digital format usable by the aircraft
systems connected to the avionics networks, and vice versa.
163
ATA49 AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
Q01 Q02
164
49 AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
Q01. What will system react if APU fire is detected on ground with APU
running ?
• The APU will automatically shut down, the APU fuel valves close, and
the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharges the agent 10 s after
warning appears. The APU fire light and horn on on the maintenance
nose gear panel, until the fire extinguished.
165
49 AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
Q02. In what condition the APU starts automatically in flight ?
• The APU automatically starts in flight if:

ü All engines failure is detected, but initiated 10 s after detection of
all engines failure for RAT extension.
ü MACH number is more than 0.12
ü Both main L (R) TK fuel pumps are not at low pressure
ü There is no APU inhibition start
• Following an automatic start, the APU bleed valve opens when aircraft
altitude below 25,000 ft and flight crew set one of the engine master
lever to the START position.
166
ATA52 DOORS
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04
Q05 Q06 Q07 Q08
167
52 DOORS
Q01. How does cockpit door mechanism for protection against
decompression ?
• In case of a rapid decompression in the cockpit, the cockpit door
automatically opens when the pressure drops by more than 10 psi/s. Two
Decompression Deceleration Devices (DDDs) slow down the opening of the
cockpit door
• In case of a rapid decompression in the cabin, the decompression and
evacuation panel automatically opens toward the cabin when the
differential pressure between the cabin and the cockpit is above 0.58 psi.
168
ATA70 ENGINES
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04
Q05 Q06 Q07 Q08
Q09 Q10 Q11 Q12
169
70 ENGINES
Q01. How is the overview of A350 turbofan engine?
• The turbofan engine has:

• A high bypass ratio
• A FADEC
• A fuel system
• A oil system
• An air system
• A thrust reverser system
• An ignition system and start system
170
70 ENGINES
Q02. Which shaft is connected to accessory gearbox ?
• The HP shaft is connected to accessory gearbox for driving various

accessories to operate the engine and the aircraft systems.
171
70 ENGINES
Q03. What are functions of FADEC ?
• the FADEC:
ü Manage engine power
ü Provides engine protection
ü Controls the engine fuel flow
ü Controls engine ignition and start
172
70 ENGINES
Q04. How is the FADEC electrical supply ?
• the FADEC is electrically supplied as follows:

• The alternator of the FADEC supplies when N3 is above 8%
• The electrical network of aircraft supplies when N3 is below 8% or FADEC
alternator fails.
173
70 ENGINES
Q05. How many idle settings does EIF can adjust depending on flight
phase ?
• There are three idle settings, which are approach idle, minimum reverse
idle, and normal idle.
174
70 ENGINES
Q06. what is approach idle, and when does it activate ?
• The approach idle setting enables to rapidly accelerate the engine from idle
to go-around thrust, if needed.
• The EIF selects the approach idle setting when the aircraft is in flight and:
ü Landing gear is extended, or
ü The FLAP lever is set to 2, 3 or FULL position.
175
70 ENGINES
Q07. When does normal idle activate ?
• The EIF selects the normal idle setting in flight when:

ü Landing gear is retracted
ü The FLAP lever is set to 0, 1.
176
70 ENGINES
Q08. How does FADEC protect not deploy thrust reversers in flight ?
• There are two protections to ensure thrust reversers from deploying in

flight:
ü Three lines of defense
The ETRAC monitors and controls the first and the second lines of
defense, the PRIM & SEC control the third line of defense.
ü Idle protection
If the FADEC detects an inadvertent deployment of the thrust reversers,
the FADEC automatically limits the associated engine thrust to idle.
177
70 ENGINES
Q09. Brief describe the normal engine start sequence.
• The ignition and start systems perform the following procedures in the
following sequence:
ü The start system uses bleed air in order to operate the pneumatic
starter
ü The pneumatic starter operates the HP compressor turbine assembly via
the accessory gearbox
ü Then, the fuel system adds fuel in the combustion chamber for the
ignition.
178
70 ENGINES
Q10. What are the bleed sources for pneumatic starter to start engine ?
• The pneumatic starter starts engine with the air of one of the following
sources:
ü The APU, or
ü The other engine in operation (cross engine start), or
ü The HP ground sources.
179
70 ENGINES
Q11. What information does tell you in the thrust gauge ?
• A. gray sector indicates

A. the usable thrust range
C. • B. the Idle THR
• C. the TOGA THR
B.
180
70 ENGINES
Q12. What information does tell you in the reverse thrust gauge ?
• A. gray sector indicates

the usable reverse thrust
range
C. B. • B. maximum reverse
thrust
A. • C. reverse idle thrust
181
OPERATION RELATED
LOW VISIBILITY OPERATION
COLD WX OPERATION
HOT WX OPERATION
182
Q01. What are the CAA Certified Standard Takeoff Minimums?
STARLUX Standard Takeoff Minimum for twin-engine aircraft is visibility 1,600

meters (1 statue mile) or RVR 1,500 meters (5,000 feet).
183
Q02. What are the CAA Certified Lower than Standard Takeoff
Minimums ?
184
185
COLD WEATHER OPERATION
Q01. What is the definition of “ Icing Condition “ ?
When to turn on the engine anti-ice ?
When to turn on the wing anti-ice ?
Icing condition exist when OAT(on ground) or the TAT(in flight) is at or below 10℃ and
visible moisture in any form is present.
Must turn on engine anti-ice when icing condition exists or anticipated, except during
climb and cruise when the SAT is below -40℃.
Must turn on engine anti-ice before or during descent if icing condition anticipated,
even if the SAT is below -40°C.
May turn on the wing anti-ice to prevent ice accretion when icing condition are
encountered.
Must turn on the wing anti-ice if there is evidence of ice accretion, or with the
“ SEVERE ICE DETECTED “alert.
186
Q02. When should ice shedding procedure be applied?
How to perform it ?
During ground operation, when in icing condition and the OAT is +3℃ or less,
or if significant engine vibration occurs.
To accelerate the engines approximately 50% of N1 for 5 s at intervals not
greater than 60 min.
187
Q03. What is Pre-Takeoff Check ?
What is Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check ?
Pre-Takeoff Check : A check of the aircraft’s wings or representative aircraft
surfaces for frozen contaminants. This check is conducted within the aircraft’s
HOT and may be made by observing representative surfaces from the flight
deck, cabin, or outside the aircraft.
Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check : A check (conducted after the aircraft’s HOT
has been exceeded) to ensure the aircraft’s wings, control surfaces, and other
critical surfaces, as defined in the certificate holder’s program, are free of all
frozen contaminants. This check must be completed within 5 minutes before
beginning takeoff and from outside the aircraft.
188
Q04. Takeoff and landing is not recommended on what kinds of
runway condition ?
• Water on top of compacted snow

• Dry snow or wet snow over ice
• No takeoff or landing is permitted when the reported braking action is
less than the equivalent of 0.20u
• Landing on a contaminated runway with a tailwind is not permitted
189
190
HOT WEATHER OPERATION
What is the recommended minimum downwind distance to avoid
thunderstorm?
How close to a thunderstorm should be avoided during the descent and
approach to land phase?
- Thunderstorms must be avoided. It is recommended that the minimum
downwind distance to avoid a thunderstorm is 20 NM.
- Fly the aircraft clear of thunderstorms either by holding or adopting an
alternative approach track. The circuit and approach to land should be not
closer than 3 NM or 6 KM to an approaching storm at any time.
191
(MEM) MEMORY ITEMS
BRAKES LOSS OF BRAKING
EMER DESCENT
MISC STALL RECOVERY
STALL WARNING AT LIFTOFF
NAV UNRELIABLE AIR SPEED INDICATION
TAWS CAUTION
TAWS WARNING
TCAS CAUTION – TRAFFIC ADVISORY
SURV
TCAS WARNING – RESOULYION ADVISORY
WINDSHEAR WARNING – REACTIVE
WINDSHEAR
192
LOSS OF BRAKING
PF : LOSS OF BRAKING
193
EMER DESCENT
PF : EMERGENCY DESCENT
194
STALL RECOVERY
PF : STALL, I HAVE CONTROL
195
STALL WARNING AT LIFTOFF
PF : STALL, TOGA 12.5°
196
UNRELIABLE AIR SPEED INDICATION
PF : UNRELIABLE SPEED
197
TAWS CAUTION
PF : PULL Up TOGA
“OBSTACLE AHEAD”, “TERRAIN AHEAD”, “TERRAIN TERRAIN”, or “TOO LOW TERRAIN”
198
TAWS CAUTION
“OBSTACLE AHEAD”, “TERRAIN AHEAD”, “TERRAIN TERRAIN”, or “TOO LOW TERRAIN”
199
TAWS CAUTION
200
TAWS CAUTION
201
TAWS WARNING
PF : PULL Up TOGA
202
TCAS CAUTION – TRAFFIC ADVISORY
PF : TCAS BLUE (if AP/FD TCAS mode is armed)
TCAS, I HAVE CONTROL (if AP/FD TCAS mode does not arm)
203
TCAS WARNING – RESOLUTION ADVISORY
204
205
206
WINDSHEAR WARNING - REACTIVE WINDSHEAR
PF : WINDSHEAR TOGA
207
WINDSHEAR WARNING - REACTIVE WINDSHEAR
PF : WINDSHEAR TOGA
208
LIMITATION
1. Flight Maneuvering Load Acceleration Limits
2. Airport Operations and Wind Limitations
3. Weights
4. Speeds
5. Engine EGT/Starter/Taxi in FZFG/Warm-up Limits
6. Operational Envelope
7. Auto Flight System
209
Flight Maneuvering Load Acceleration Limits
u Clean configuration -1 g to +2.5 g
u Other configuration 0 g to +2.0 g
210
Airport Operations and Wind Limitations
u Runway slope (mean) ± 2%
u Max. crosswind for takeoff and landing (gust included) 30 kt
u Max. tailwind for takeoff and landing 15 kt
u Max. wind for cabin and cargo doors operation 40 kt
u STARLUX airlines max. crosswind for takeoff and landing (gust included) 30 kt
u Airport elevation for automatic landing demonstrated 9200 ft
211
Weights
u Maximum taxi weight 280,900 kg
u Maximum takeoff weight 280,000 kg
u Maximum landing weight 207,000 kg
u Maximum zero fuel weight 195,700 kg
u Minimum weight for takeoff 144,000 kg
u Minimum weight for landing and in flight 127,000 kg
212
Speeds
u Maximum operation speed ( VMO/MMO ) 340 kt/ M 0.89
u Maximum speeds with landing gear extended (VLE/MLE) 250 kt/ M 0.55
u Maximum speeds with landing gear operating (VLO/MLO) 250 kt/ M 0.55
u Maximum speeds for landing gear gravity extension (VLO/MLO) 220 kt/ M 0.48
u Maximum speed for wipers operation 230 kt
u Maximum tire speed 204 kt
213
Engine EGT Limits
Operating Condition Time Limit EGT Limit
All engine operative 5 min 900 °C

Takeoff and Go-around
One engine inoperative 10 min 900 °C
Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT) No limited 850 °C
In flight 850 °C
Starting
On ground 700 °C
214
Engine Starter
u Maximum continuous starter operation is 5 min:
ü 2 consecutive cycles of 3 min max., plus 1 additional cycle of 1 min,
with a run down to zero N3 and wait 30 s between each cycle, or
ü One 5 min cycle
u Wait 30 min after the last cycle to allow the start to cool
u No running engagement of the starter when the N3 above 10% on

ground, or 30% in flight.
215
Maximum Taxi Time In FZFG Conditions
Engine stator
Engine stator A-ICE valve
Outside air temperature A-ICE valve
operative or failed open
failed closed
-9 °C (16 ℉) ≤ OAT < 1 ℃ (34 ℉) 120 min max. engines operation
No dispatch
OAT below -9 °C (16 ℉) 80 min max. engines operation
216
Engine Warm-Up Before Takeoff
u The engines must warm up at idle or taxi thrust before takeoff.
ü If engines were shut down 90 min or less:

Warm-up time…………………………………………. 2 min
ü If engines were shut down more than 90 min:

Warm-up time…………………………………………. 5 min
217
OPERATIONAL ENVELOPE
u Maximum operating altitude 43,100 ft
u Minimum operating altitude -2,000 ft
u Maximum altitude to assist engine start 25,000 ft
u Maximum altitude for APU supply bleed 25,000 ft / 22,500ft

air (single pack operation/dual pack operation)
u Maximum altitude Flaps/Slats extended 20,000 ft
u Maximum normal cabin altitude 6,000 ft

218
Auto Flight System
Autopilot can be used with the minimum values
At takeoff At least 5 s after liftoff
After manual go-around 100 ft AGL
In approach with F-G/S mode
In approach with V/S or FPA mode 200 ft AGL
In approach with APP-DES mode
In approach with G/S mode and APPR1 on FMA 160 ft AGL
In approach with G/S mode and one of the
0 ft AGL if Autoland
following on FMA: LAND1, LAND2, LAND3
80 ft AGL if manual landing
SINGLE, LAND3 DUAL
In all other flight phases 500 ft AGL
219
220
221
222

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1

A350 TRC ORAL TEST

ATA35 ATA36 ATA38 ATA49 ATA70

Q01 Q02 Q03

The mixing unit

2 identical, independent and automatic controllers,

It prevents the negative differential pressure from going too high by

It automatically opens when differential pressure is below -0.725 PSI or above

Bulk cargo compartment.

FWD cargo compartment.

On ground, It opens automatically with the engines not running.

• Lateral and vertical guidance can be selected or managed, independently of

• The Yaw Bar is displayed during takeoff or landing roll

• On ground, the FDs automatically engage at aircraft power up when ADIRS

• To press the sidestick pb twice (2) to disengage AP, one is AP

• If AP fail or disengage not correctly, the cavalry charge audio indicators

• AP disengaged correctly, the cavalry charge audio indicators sounds at low

• The RETARD callout repeated

• The lowest target is VLS, the highest target is VMAX – 5 kt in managed

• The magenta dot on speed scale is short-term managed

• The crossover altitude for speed/Mach switching is approximate 30,000 ft.

• The next altitude target is an altitude

• There are 4 databases in FMC;

• Waypoint ABN is an overfly waypoint.

• The CIC requests an evacuation:

The EMER pb is initialized by flight crew

Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05

Q06 Q07 Q08 Q09

The A350 AC power generates as:

The A350 DC power generates as:

The A350 emergency power generates as:

• It only be reconnected by the maintenance action on the ground.

• The RAT automatically extends, when all AC 230 V

When fire is detected in an engine:

The squibs of the fire extinguisher bottle are armed.

The following areas have fire and overheat detection,

The following areas have fire extinguishing,

The following areas have smoke detection,

• When the first engine is started, or

• The outer ailerons are not deflected up or down above 250 kt

• When the first engine is started, or

• The ground spoilers automatically FULL extend at landing,

• This indicates that the associated actuator is failed.

• This indicates that the hydraulic power of associated actuator is failed.

• It displays when one of the following conditions is true:

ü Load factor protection

This PFD indicates that aircraft

This PFD indicates that aircraft

The flap cruise deployment function performs symmetrical small deflection of

The upper green line shows the position of the

Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05

The center tank feeds engines first, then wing tanks

The APU can be fed by:

The FTIS is provides a fully automatic

A fuel leak is suspected, the value

Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05 Q06

Hot air for ice protection:

Electrical power for ice protection:

• The touchscreen function is

• The CDS automatically reconfiguration the DUs in order to display by

• It is tail strike pitch limit, indicates the max. pitch

• They are V1, VR, and V2 speed. Presents by cyan 1, cyan

• The upper yellow arrow presents short-term managed speed.