Which organ does metabolism occur?

Liver
Half life
Therapeutic index
Intracellular receptors
G protein

Drug absorption in the GI tract

passive nonionic diffusion or by active transport.

What is intramedularly of drug administration? The case in the emergency where u cant find the
vein so one goes in full force to the bone marrow and injects

Contract indication - Anything (including a symptom or medical condition) that is a

reason for a person to not receive a particular treatment or procedure because it
may be harmful.

Drug allergy and what is side effect

he most common signs and symptoms of drug allergy are hives, rash or fever.

Note:difference between posology and toxicology

the branch of medicine concerned with the determination of appropriate doses of
drugs or agents.
study of adverse effects that occur in living organisms due to chemicals

Slowest/Fastest on set of administration - IV> IM > SC

Why can drugs pass the BBB? Most drugs cross the BBB by transmembrane diffusion
[9]. This is a non-saturable mechanism that depends on the drug melding into the cell
membrane. A low molecular weight and high degree of lipid solubility favor crossing by
this mechanism

Note: half life

Understand the concept of potency

is a measure of drug activity expressed in terms of the amount required to
produce an effect of given intensity

Understand first pass effect

which a drug gets metabolized at a specific location in the body that results in a
reduced concentration of the active drug upon reaching its site of action or the
systemic circulation.

Why do u withhold food or fluid that u are giving anesthetics in the throat?
May cause patient to throw up while under anesthesia which may cause choking if goes
unoticed
Bioavailability importance?
Bioavailability is a key indicator of drug absorption. It represents the administered
dose fraction which achieves success in reaching the systemic circulation when
administered orally or through any other extravascular dosing route.
1. The same dose of a drug is given by two
different routes of administration (A, B) and
the plasma concentration is followed over
time as shown in the drawing.
(A) Curve A results from intramuscular administration
(B) Curve B results from intravenous administration
(C) Curve A results from oral administration
*(D) Curve A results from intravenous administration
(E) The bioavailability of the drug in curve B
is the greatest

2. The first-pass effect is most apt to occur after which route of drug administration?
(A) Intravenous
(B) Intramuscular
(C) Subcutaneous
*(D) Oral
(E) Inhalation

3. All of the following statements about the therapeutic index (TI) are true EXCEPT
(A) a high TI suggests that the drug is safe to use.
(B) a low TI suggests that the drug is dangerous to use therapeutically.
*(C) a high TI indicates that the ED50 far exceeds the LD50.
(D) the standard safety margin is a better measure of the drug’s safety than is TI.
(E) quantal dose–response curves are used in the calculation of the TI.

4. Which of the following statements concerning drug receptors is true?

*(A) Drug receptors play an important role in the bioavailability of a drug.
(B) Drugs cannot act unless they are first released from a drug receptor.
(C) A drug can act as an antagonist even if it is bound to a drug receptor.
(D) Drugs cannot act unless they are first bound to a receptor.
(E) Most drugs combine with their receptor by forming covalent bonds.

5. The maximum effect (E max) achieved by a drug is a measure of

(A) the drug’s potency.
*(B) the drug’s efficacy (intrinsic activity).
(C) the drug’s antagonistic magnitude.
(D) the drug’s therapeutic index.
(E) the drug’s lipid solubility.
6. A drug is eliminated by first-order processes. Assume 50 mg of the drug is
administered intravenously and at 6 hours, 25 mg remain in the body. How much drug
will remain in the body at 24 hours.
(A) 18 mg
(B) 15 mg
(C) 10 mg
(D) 6 mg
*(E) 3 mg

7. A 20-kg dog is dosed with 5 mg of drug X. If the half-life of drug X is 30 minutes, how
long will it take for the animal to have less than 1 mg of the drug remaining in the body?
*(A) 90 minutes
(B) 120 minutes
(C) 150 minutes
(D) 180 minutes
(E) 210 minutes

8. You are presented with a severely dehydrated dog in renal failure. Its glomerular
filtration rate is one fourth normal. The antibiotic you want to administer is cleared solely
by glomerular filtration. Assume the drug’s volume of distribution is only in the
extracellular fluid and that Vd is one half normal. In a normal animal the antibiotics half-
life is 60 minutes, what would it be in this animal?
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 60 minutes
(C) 90 minutes
*(D) 120 minutes
(E) 240 minutes

9. The plasma concentration of drug X in a dairy cow is 5 μg/mL. Assume drug X is a

weak base with a pKa of 8.4, and the milk pH is 6.4 and the pH of plasma is 7.4. What
is the concentration of drug X in the milk?
pKa = pH + log × ionized base (I) / nonionized base (U)
(A) 5 μg/mL
*?(B) 30 μg/mL
(C) 45 μg/mL
(D) 55 μg/mL
(E) 500 μg/mL

10. The mechanism by which most drugs are absorbed following an intramuscular
injection is
*(A) simple diffusion.
(B) active transport.
(C) pinocytosis.
(D) facilitated diffusion.

11. Drug X is a weak acid with a pKa of 4. Approximately, what percent of the drug is
ionized in a pH 2 environment?
(A) 10%
(B) 5%
*(C) 1%
(D) 0.1%
(E) 0.5%

12. The mechanism by which pretreatment with phenobarbital for several days
decreases the duration of action of pentobarbital involves. Pentobarbital is oxidized by the cytochrome P450
enzyme system present in the endoplasmic reticulum (microsomes) of the liver. Pretreatment with phenobarbital induces the liver cells to synthesize
more cytochrome P450 enzymes. Thus, animals pretreated with phenobarbital for several days have a greater capacity to metabolize pentobarbital.
*(A) stimulation by phenobarbital of the synthesis of microsomal enzymes in the liver.
(B) neutralization by phenobarbital of naturally occurring inhibitors.
(C) acceleration of the excretion of pentobarbital.
(D) competition for receptor sites in the CNS.
(E) increased binding of pentobarbital to plasma proteins.

13. The renal clearance of a drug (weak organic base) is favored if the drug
(A) has low solubility in water.
(B) reduces renal blood flow.
(C) has a high degree of binding to plasma protein.
*(D) is put in the ionized form by acidifying the urine.
(E) is put in the nonionized form by alkalinizing the urine.

14. The major organ for drug excretion is the

(A) brain.
(B) liver.
*(C) kidney.
(D) spleen.
(E) gastrointestinal tract.

15. Biotransformation of drugs usually results in the

*(A) formation of metabolites which are usually more polar.
(B) formation of metabolites which are less polar.
(C) formation of substances which are more active than the drug itself.
(D) liver toxicity.
(E) formation of a carcinogen.

16. Which of the following drug characteristics will tend to favor a low apparent volume
of distribution?
(A) Extensive plasma protein binding
(B) A large molecular weight
(C) High water solubility
*(D) All of the above are correct
(E) None of the above (A, B, C)

17. The two curves below were obtained for drug A and drug B. The ordinate represents
the percent of animals responding to the beneficial effect of the drug. Which of the
following statements is most correct?
(A) Drug A is more potent than Drug B.
(B) Drug B is more potent than Drug A.
*(C) Drug A is 30 times more potent than Drug B.
(D) Drug A is 300 times more potent than Drug B.
(E) Drug B is 30 times more potent than Drug A.

18. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding a partial agonist?

(A) It is a drug that is able to produce the full cell/tissue response.
*(B) It is a drug that induces a response, but the maximum response is less than the
maximum response to a full agonist.
(C) It is a drug that binds to the receptor, suppressing the receptor’s basal intrinsic
activity.
(D) It is the drug that has high affinity for the receptor, but has no intrinsic activity.

19. Activation of which of the following G protein-coupled receptors will mostly likely
cause an increase in Ca2+ release from the endoplasmic reticulum?
(A) Gs
(B) Gi/o
*(C) Gq

20. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding species variation in

pharmacokinetics/pharmacodynamics?
(A) In the dog, glucuronidation of drugs is only present at a low rate.
(B) Xylazine is a much more potent sedative in horses than cattle.
*(C) Horses have higher levels of plasma esterases than cattle to break down
succinylcholine.
(D) Nonherbivores have a more complete GI absorption of a benzimidazole anthelmintic
than herbivores.
(E) Most of lipophilic organic bases have smaller volumes of distribution in ruminants
than monogastric animals.

21. Acidifying the urine would be expected to increase the rate of elimination for
(A) a weak acid with a pKa of 7.
*(B) a weak base with a pKa of 6.
(C) both (A) and (B) are correct.
(D) neither (A) nor (B) is correct.

Principles of Drug Absorption, Drug Disposition, and Drug Action 2

1. α1-Receptors are associated with which one of the following effects?

(A) Cardioacceleration
(B) Vasodilation
**(C) Pupillary dilation
(D) Bronchodilation
(E) Pupillary constriction

2. What is the most likely cause of death in organophosphate poisoning?

(A) GI bleeding
(B) Hypertension
*(C) Respiratory failure
(D) Congestive heart failure
(E) Cardiac arrhythmia

3. Which of the following adrenergic agonists at clinical doses produces dilation of

vessels in muscle, constriction of cutaneous vessels, and positive inotropic and
chronotropic effects on the heart?
(A) Phenylpropanolamine
(B) Isoproterenol
(C) Isoxsuprine
*(D) Epinephrine
(E) Dobutamine

4. Which of the following drugs produces pupillary dilation (mydriasis) without causing
cycloplegia?
(A) Scopolamine
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Isoproterenol
(D) Tropicamide
*(E) Phenylephrine a decongestant that is used to treat stuffy nose and sinus congestion caused by the
common cold, hay fever, or other allergies.

5. Which of the following bronchodilators is considered the safest for use in an animal
with cardiac disease?
(A) Isoproterenol
*(B) Terbutaline Terbutaline is used to prevent and treat wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness caused by
asthma, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema. Terbutaline is in a class of medications called beta agonists. It works by relaxing and
opening the airways, making it easier to breathe
(C) Ephedrine
(D) Epinephrine

6. Nicotinic receptor sites are found in all of the following locations, except
(A) parasympathetic ganglia.
(B) sympathetic ganglia.
(C) skeletal muscle.
*(D) bronchial smooth muscle.

7. When placed in the eye, echothiophate can cause all of the following, except
*(A) mydriasis. Dilated pupils (mydriasis) are when the black center of your eyes are larger than normal.
(B) ciliary spasm.
(C) reversal of cycloplegia.
(D) reduction in intraocular pressure.

8. Which of the following autonomic drugs would be most likely to increase myometrial
contractility?
(A) Atropine
(B) Phenoxybenzamine
*(C) Ractopamine an animal feed additive used to promote leanness and increase food conversion efficiency in farmed
animals in several countries, but banned in others. Pharmacologically, it is a phenol-based TAAR1 agonist and β adrenoreceptor
agonist that stimulates β1
(D) Xylazine

9. Which of the following is the sign of bethanechol stimulation of muscarinic receptors?

(A) Skeletal muscle twitching
*(B) Urination
(C) Constipation
(D) Dry mucous membranes

10. Which of the following muscarinic receptor subtype mediates the bethanechol-
induced decrease in heart rate and contractility?
(A) M1
*(B) M2
(C) M3
(D) M4
(E) M5

11. Which of the following adrenergic receptors subtype mediates the

phenylpropanolamine-induced contraction of the trigone and sphincter muscle of the
urinary bladder? This effect is useful to treat urinary incontinence.
*(A) α1 The α1-receptors are found in sphincter muscles (except iris sphincter muscle).
(B) α2
(C) β1
(D) β2
(E) β3

12. Metoprolol is used in a cat with hyperthyroidism showing cardiac arrhythmia. The
use of metoprolol in this cat will most likely cause
(A) hypersalivation.
(B) mydriasis.
(C) bronchoconstriction.
(D) hyperglycemia.
*(E) decreased renin secretion. β1-Receptors mediate renin secretion, and thus blockade of these
receptors will decrease the secretion.

13. Which of the following would be most likely to increase airway resistance in a dog
with pulmonary obstruction?
(A) Albuterol
(B) Atenolol
(C) Isoproterenol
(D) Phenoxybenzamine
*(E) Propranolol Propranolol belongs to a group of medicines called beta blockers. It's used to treat heart problems,
help with anxiety and prevent migraines

14. In patients with liver or renal disease, which of the following neuromuscular blockers
would be the choice for these patients?
*(A) Atracurium Atracurium is indicated as an addition to general anesthesia to facilitate endotracheal intubation and provide
skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. Atracurium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drug
of the benzylisoquinolinium class.
(B) Pancuronium
(C) Succinylcholine
(D) Tubocurarine
(E) Vecuronium

15. Administration of which of the following neuromuscular blockers will cause transient
and painful skeletal muscle contractions and an increase in bronchial and salivary
secretions?
(A) Atracurium
(B) Pancuronium
*(C) Succinylcholine is an ultra short-acting depolarizing-type, skeletal muscle relaxant for intravenous (IV) administration.
Succinylcholine is a depolarizing skeletal muscle relaxant. As does acetylcholine, it combines with the cholinergic receptors of the motor
end plate to produce depolarization
(D) Tubocurarine
(E) Vecuronium

16. Which of the following β2-adrenergic agonists can be used legally as a repartitioning
agent in cattle and swine and use of it does not require preslaughter withdrawal?
(A) Albuterol
(B) Clenbuterol
*(C) Ractopamine
(D) Terbutaline

17. Which of the following β-blockers has the shortest duration of action of 20 minutes?
Such a drug can be used to test if the treatment is beneficial to animals.
(A) Atenolol
*(B) Esmolol
(C) Metoprolol
(D) Propranolol
(E) Sotalol

18. Which of the following is not a pharmacological effect of yohimbine?

(A) CNS excitation.
*(B) Hyperglycemia.
(C) Hypertension.
(D) Increased GI motility.
(E) Tachycardia.

19. Which receptor subtype mediates DAinduced vasodilatation in renal, mesenteric,

and coronary arteries?
*(A) D1
(B) D2
(C) D3
(D) D4
(E) D5

CNS Drugs Acting on the Central Nervous System 105

1. Which one of the following drugs will reverse the respiratory depression caused by
previous oxymorphone administration, but still leave the dog with some analgesia?
(A) Tramadol
(B) Fentanyl
(C) Naloxone
(D) Morphine
*(E) Nalbuphine

2. Which one of the following statements concerning buprenorphine is true?

(A) It is a partial agonist opioid with partial agonist activity at the μ-receptor and agonist
activity at the κ-receptor.
*(B) It is an agonist–antagonist opioid with partial agonist activity at the μ-receptor.
(C) It is a very potent μ-agonist used to immobilize nondomestic ungulates.
(D) It is an antagonist at μ-, κ-, and δreceptors.
(E) It is an α2-adrenoreceptor agonist in the central and peripheral nervous system.

3. Which of the following is a correct statement about phenothiazine tranquilizers?

(A) They also have potent analgesic activity.
(B) They stimulate α1-adrenergic receptors to induce hypertension.
(C) They evoke hypoglycemia by increasing insulin secretion.
(D) Most of them are desirable restraining agents for aggressive dogs.
*(E) They suppress emesis by blocking dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor-
trigger zone.

4. Which one of the following drugs is an antagonist at the μ-, κ-, and δ-receptors?
*(A) Naloxone Naloxone, sold under the brand name Narcan among others, is a medication used
to reverse the effects of opioids.
(B) Morphine
(C) Oxymorphone
(D) Sufentanil
(E) Butorphanol

5. Compared to morphine, which one of the following drugs is most potent in terms of
analgesic effect?
(A) Oxymorphone
(B) Tramadol
(C) Butorphanol
*(D) Fentanyl
(E) Methadone

6. A common side effect of oxymorphone administration in the dog is

*(A) panting.
(B) vomiting.
(C) defecation.
(D) hypotension.
(E) tachycardia.

7. Which one of the following opioid receptors is correctly matched with its function?
*(A) μ-Supraspinal analgesia
(B) μ-Vasoconstriction
(C) δ-Respiratory depression
(D) κ-Antidiuresis
(E) κ-Respiratory depression
8. Phenobarbital can be used as an oral anticonvulsant. What other anticonvulsant drug
is metabolized in the liver and produces phenobarbital as a metabolite?
*(A) Primidone
(B) Phenytoin
(C) Diazepam
(D) Pentobarbital
(E) Potassium bromide.

9. A horse to be tranquilized is given an IV injection of xylazine. The horse immediately

falls to the ground and goes into violent seizures. What is the probable cause?
(A) The horse was prone to seizures, and xylazine lowered the threshold enough
for a seizure to occur.
*(B) The injection was given into the carotid artery instead of the jugular vein.
(C) Extreme hypotension from epinephrine reversal led to cerebral hypoxia and
seizures.
(D) α2-Adrenoreceptor stimulation decreased activity at the GABA-receptors.
(E) Increased insulin release by the pancreas secondary to α2-receptor stimulation
caused acute hypoglycemia.

10. Which one of the following drugs will

reverse the effects of diazepam in case there
is an overdose?
(A) Butorphanol
(B) Naloxone
*(C) Flumazenil
(D) Yohimbine
(E) Zolazepam

11. Which of the following statements concerning α2-adrenergic agonists is incorrect?

(A) Ruminants are more sensitive to the sedative properties of these drugs than
nonruminants.
(B) IM administration of these drugs induces vomiting more frequently than does IV
administration.
*(C) They induce antidiuresis.
(D) Concurrent administration of ketamine may synergistically suppress
cardiopulmonary function.

12. The drug of choice to treat status epilepticus in dogs is

*(A) diazepam.
(B) acepromazine.
(C) phenobarbital.
(D) primidone.
(E) potassium bromide.

13. IV administration of xylazine in the horse frequently results in which of the following
cardiac abnormalities?
(A) Atrial fibrillation
(B) Sinus tachycardia
(C) Premature atrial contractions
*(D) Second-degree atrioventricular block
(E) Premature ventricular contractions

14. Which anticonvulsant is excreted unchanged by the kidneys and acts by

hyperpolarizing the neuronal membrane after entering the cell through chloride
channels?
(A) Valproic acid
(B) Phenobarbital
(C) Diazepam
(D) Gabapentin
*(E) Potassium bromide

15. IV administration of an α2-agonist produces all of the following pharmacological

effects, except
(A) bradycardia.
*(B) increased GI motility.
(C) transient hypertension.
(D) diuresis.

16. The α2-agonist with the most selectivity and potency for α2-receptors is
*(A) medetomidine
(B) detomidine
(C) romifidine
(D) xylazine
1. What is the first indicator of local anesthetic toxicity?
*(A) Skeletal muscle twitching
(B) Tonic-clonic convulsions
(C) Hypotension
(D) Cardiac arrhythmias
(E) Vomiting

2. Which inhalant anesthetic has the lowest vapor pressure?

(A) Isoflurane
*(B) Sevoflurane
(C) Desflurane
(D) Nitrous Oxide
(E) Propofol

3. If several dogs are breathing 50% nitrous oxide, they would probably all be responsive to a
painful stimuli. If the MAC of nitrous oxide is ∼200%, how much isoflurane would have to be
administered to render 50% of these dogs unresponsive to a painful stimulus?
(A) 1.00 MAC isoflurane
*(B) 0.75 MAC isoflurane
(C) 0.66 MAC isoflurane
(D) 0.50 MAC isoflurane
(E) 0.25 MAC isoflurane

4. Inhalant anesthetics vary in how quickly the alveolar concentration (blood

concentration) will approximate the inspired concentration. Which one of the following
anesthetics has the fastest rate of rise in alveolar concentration?
(A) Sevoflurane
(B) Desflurane
*(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Isoflurane

5. Which one of the following anesthetics is an NMDA receptor antagonist?

(A) Thiopental
(B) Propofol
(C) Etomidate
*(D) Ketamine
(E) Guaifenesin

6. Which one of the following drugs inhibits steroidogenesis in the adrenal gland for
several hours after administration?
(A) Thiopental
(B) Propofol
*(C) Etomidate
(D) Ketamine
(E) Guaifenesin

7. Which injectable anesthetic is best suited for use in a small animal requiring an
outpatient procedure?
*(A) Propofol
(B) Pentobarbital
(C) Thiopental
(D) Tiletamine-zolazepam
(E) Guaifenesin

8. Which of the following drugs is a highly lipid-soluble oxybarbiturate with an ultrashort

duration of action?
*(A) Methohexital
(B) Pentobarbital
(C) Thiopental
(D) Phenobarbital

9. Which local anesthetic is used topically on the cornea of animals?

(A) Lidocaine
*(B) Proparacaine
(C) Bupivacaine
(D) Procaine
(E) Mepivacaine