(17) CanonicalTransforms

Tomotivateournexttheoreticalstep,canonicaltransformations,let’sremind
ourselveshow weuseLagrangiansandHamiltonianstosolve mechanicsproblems.
I’llusethesimplependulumasaconcreteexample

Howtodomechanics,stepbystep
1)WriteT andU inCartesiancoordinates
1 �

T (~ṙ) = m ẋ2 + ẏ 2 , U (~r) = mgy
2

2)Writetransformationtogeneralizedcoordinates
~r(q) e.g. x = R sin φ , y = −R cos φ
~ṙ(q, q̇) e.g. ẋ = R cos φ φ˙ , ẏ = R sin φ φ̇

3)WriteT (q, q̇) andU (q)

  1
T φ, φ̇ = mR2 φ̇2 , U (φ) = −mgR cos φ
2

4)Computegeneralizedmomenta
∂L
pi = , with L = T − U e.g. p φ = mR2 φ̇
∂q̇i

Fromhere,youcancontinueontheLagrangianpathand...

Lagrangian
5)ComputeF i = ∂q ∂L
i
e.g.F φ = mgR sin φ
6) Findequationsofmotionwith ṗ i = Fi e.g.φ¨ = g
R sin φ
oryoucanusethesegeneralizedmomentaintheHamiltonian

1
 Hamiltonian
p2φ
5)WriteT (p, q) e.g.T (p φ , φ) = 2mR 2

6)FindequationsofmotionwithH = T + U and
∂H ∂H pφ
q̇ = , ṗ = − e.g. φ˙ = , ṗφ = mgR sin φ
∂p ∂q mR2

It may seem strange that we need to go through the Lagrangian to find the
momenta used in the Hamiltonian, but this just highlights a difference between
thesetwoapproaches.

The Lagrangian is based on a choice of generalized coordinates. Any

choice will do, and the momenta are a result of that choice.

   
L0 Q, Q̇ = L q(Q), q̇(Q, Q̇)

foranyQ(q) transform(invertable,differentiable,...) e.g. fromCartesiantopolar

in2D

p  
2 2 −1 y
Q(q) ⇒ r = x + y , φ = tan
  x
0
⇒ L r, φ, r,
˙ φ̇ = L (x(r, φ), y(r, φ), ẋ(...), ẏ(...))

Momentaresultfromourchoiceofcoordinates

∂L ∂L0
pi = , Pi =
∂q̇i ∂Q̇i
andyouplugthisintoE-LandgettheEoM.Easy.

The Hamiltonian, on the other hand, offers no clear connection between

p and q. You have a lot more freedom in that q need note even be a
spatial coordinate, nor p related to the velocity of anything. But, if you
forego that freedom and q is a generalized spatial coordinate, then...

2
 Givensomegeneralizedcoordinatesq i ,
themomentap i = ∂q̇
∂L
i
arethoserequiredforH(p, q)

Does this mean we need to construct L(q, q̇) every time we want to change
coordinateswithH?
No! There are 3 other ways...
Ineachcasewestartwithsteps 1 and 2.
Forthefirstpath, wetakestep 3andnotethatmomentaareusuallyeasyto
guess(e.g.p~ = m~r ˙ ).

Path1:“guessandcheck”
GuessyourmomentaP (p, q)

e.g. p φ = mR2 φ̇ = Lz = xpy − ypx

andcheckthePoissonBrackets(necessaryandsufficient)

[Qj , Qk ]pq = 0 , [Pj , Pk ]pq = 0 , [Pj , Qk ]pq = δjk

   
−x −x
e.g. [φ, φ] = [tan −1 , tan−1 ]=0
y y
[pφ , pφ ] = 0 ([f, f ] = 0 forany f )

 
−1 x
[pφ , φ] = [xpy − ypx , tan ]
y
   
−1 −x −1 −x
= x [py , tan ] − y [px , tan ]
y y
   
∂ −x ∂ −x
= x tan−1 − y tan−1
∂y y ∂x y
2 2
x y
= + =1
R2 R2

3
 Of course, we only have one generalized coordinate, φ, in this example. In
general,youwillhave n32(n − 1) non-trivialPBtocomputewhichgivezero,and
n ofthemwhich give1,toperformthischeck.Ifn > 2,you’llneedacomputeror
afreeweekend.

Result:
p2x + py2 0
p2φ
H= + mgy ⇒ H = − mgR cos φ
2m 2mR2

Paths 2 and 3 aresimilarandrequiresomebackstory.Rememberthatcurious

factaboutLagrangiansthataddingthetotaltimederivativeofafunctiondoesn’t
change theequation ofmotion? (LL eq. 2.8) I promised we would get back to that
andhereweare.

d
Recall: L 0 = L + f (q, t) ⇒ sameEoM
 dt 
0 ˙
˙ t) = L Q, Q, t ⇒ sameE-L
and L (q, q,
and L = pq̇ − H , L 0 = P Q̇ − H 0
d
⇒ pq̇ − H = P Q̇ − H 0 + F (q, Q, p, P, t)
dt
IfwelimitF to be afunction ofoneold variable (p orq) andonenew variable (P
orQ) it iscalled a“generatingfunction”. Thereare 4wayswecan dothis,each
withits ownimplications forthetransformation(fromp,q toP ,Q) thatresults.
Thegeneralrulesare

∂F1 ∂F1
for F 1 (q, Q) pi = , Pi = −
∂qi ∂Qi
∂F2 ∂F2
for F 2 (q, P ) pi = , Qi =
∂qi ∂Pi

4
 ∂F3 ∂F3
for F 3 (p, Q) qi = − , Pi = −
∂pi ∂Qi
∂F4 ∂F4
for F 4 (p, P ) qi = − , Qi =
∂pi ∂Pi

So,ifyouwanttomakeacoordinatetransformwithaHamiltonian,youeitherdo
itthroughtheLagrangian,youguessandcheckwithPoissonBrackets,oryoufind
ageneratingfunction.

Let’sdothisforourpendulumexample. Givenacoordinatetransformfrom
oldtonew,weuseF 2

~ q ) · P~ = P Qi (q~) Pi
GivenQ~ (~q),useF 2 (q, P ) = Q(~
∂F2 ∂F2
⇒ Qi = = Qi (q) , pi =
∂Pi ∂qi

Forpendulum
 
−x −1
Q(~q) ⇒ φ(x, y) = tan
y
 
~ q ) · P~ ⇒ F2 (x, y, pφ ) = tan−1 −x
F2 = Q(~ pφ
y
∂F2
Thisgeneratingfunctionisconstructedtomake ∂Pi trivially give usthedesired
Qi (pointtransform).Theseconddifferential givesusthenewmomenta.

   
∂F2 ∂ −1 −x −y cos φ
px = = pφ tan = pφ = p φ
∂x ∂x y R2 R
   
∂F2 ∂ −x x sin φ
py = = pφ tan−1 = pφ 2
= pφ
∂y ∂y y R R

5
Since I only have one newmomenta and two old, this is overconstrained, and both
givethesameanswer.Thecartesianmomentaare

px = mẋ = mR cos φφ̇ ⇒ pφ = mR2 φ̇

py = mẏ = mR sin φφ̇

whereweinvertedeitherexpressiontogetp φ .Thismatchesourguess,sowehave
H(p, q).
Wecanalsousethe F 3 generatorfunction in asimilar way. Again, we trivially
recoverourpointtransform,withthefirstdifferentialequation,
   
Given~q Q~ ,useF 3 (~
p, ~
Q) = −~
q ~ · p~
Q

∂F3  
⇒ qi = − ~ , Pi = − ∂F3
=q Q
∂pi ∂Qi

andthesecond givesusthenewmomentaP .

Forpendulum
~ → x = R sin φ , y = −R cos φ
~q(Q)
F3 (px , py , φ) = −R sin φ px + R cos φ py

∂F3
pφ = − = R (cos φ px + sin φ py )
∂φ
= R (cos φ (mẋ) + sin φ (mẏ))
    
= mR cos φ R cos φ φ̇ + sin φ R sin φ φ̇
= mR2 φ̇

For
 our example, in which the coordinate transform is most easily expressed as
~
~q Q , this path through F 3 is the most direct way to go from step 2 to step 5

6
withoutpassingthroughL (atthepriceofneedingtoinvertP i = f (~
p, ~q)).

Ofcourse,wehaveexploredonlyaverylimitedrangeofgeneratorfunctions.
Theseneedn’tresultinpointtransforms; theHamiltonianisnotlimitedlikethe
LagrangiantopointtransformsQ (q) ⇒ Q ˙ (q, q̇). Rather,youcanhaveQ (p, q)
andP (p, q).
Forinstance,let’strythis...

Transform H fromφ, p φ
pφ2
H(pφ , φ) = − mgR cos φ
2mR2
p2φ k 2
' + φ + const for φ  1
2I 2
gI
with I = mR 2 , k = mgR = = Iω 2 .
R
Dropping the constantq
gives us the Hamiltonian of a simple harmonic oscillator
g
withfrequencyω = R.

r
Iωφ2 g
try F 1 (φ, θ) = with ω =
2 tan θ R
∂F1 Iωφ
pφ = =
∂φ tan θ
Iωφ
⇒ tan θ =
pφ
∂F1 Iωφ2 ∂ −1 Iωφ2
pθ = − = =
∂θ 2 ∂θ tan θ 2 sin2 θ
NowweneedtowriteH(p θ , θ) basedonH(p φ , φ),justlikewegotH(p φ , φ)
fromH incartesiancoordinates.

7
 FindH(p θ , θ)
p2φ Iω 2 2 Iω 2 φ2 Iω 2 φ2
H(pθ , θ) = + φ = +
2I 2 2 tan2 θ 2
1 1
use +1= ⇒ H = ωp θ
tan2 θ sin2 θ

NowthatisasimpleHamiltonian!

EoMforθ
∂H ∂H
θ̇ = = ω , ṗθ = − =0
∂pθ ∂θ
θ = ωt + θ0 , pθ = const

Whatdoesthismeanphysically?Let’sreturntoourangularcoordinateφ;

r
2pθ
φ = sin (ωt + θ0 )
p Iω
pφ = 2pθ Iω cos (ωt + θ0 )
1 E
SHO: E = Iω 2 A2 ⇒ pθ =
2 ω
soθ isthephaseoftheoscillator,andp θ isrelatedtotheenergyoftheoscillation.
(NotethatH = E asexpected.)
Sothisgeneratorfunctionmovedusintoa“cordinate”systemwhereour“mo-
mentum” wasactuallyenergy (aconstant) and“position” wasactually the phase of
theharmonicoscillatorsolution!

This would not work with a Lagrangian!