MCAT AAMC PRACTICE FL

SECTION 1 CHEM/PHY

Q2: The Bose–Einstein Principle states that a collection of atoms cooled close to absolute zero will
coalesce into a single quantum state.

Q5: SHE= standard hydrogen electrode

Ubiquinone = quinone = 2 ketone groups  reduced to alcohol in the reaction
RC(=O)R → RCH(OH)R ketone to alcohol
ROPO32- → ROH + Pi phosphate bond being broken by phosphatase.
RC(=O)NHR'→ RCOOH + R'NH2 peptide bond broken by protease or amidase
RC(=O)OR'→ RCOOH + R'OH ester bond broken by esterase

Q6: know structure of DNA/RNS nucleotide (Adenine in NADH and FAD)

Structure of Flavin in FAD (Flavin adenine dinucleotide)

Q8: By Hess's Law, the heat of reaction will sum and be the same. The fact that the reaction can be
broken down into steps will not change the overall thermodynamics.

Q 14: heterocyclic aromatic compound pyrrole: C4H5N , found in heme

Q15: 1m3 = 1000L. 1cm3 = 1 mL. 1L = 1000 cm3

Q17: Ile and Thr have a chiral β carbon unlike all other AAs.
CD spectra arise from the presence of α carbon chirality, present in all AA except glycine.

Q18: Reading L49S variant = substitution of L(eucine) at 49 position with S(erine)

Q21: Glycerol is a tri-hydroxyl backbone for triacylglycerols, which are fats.

Steroids are a class of lipids that are derived from cholesterol.

Q26: A major obstacle to obtaining useful energy from a nuclear fusion reactor is containment of the fuel
at the very high temperatures required for fusion. The reason such high temperatures are required is to:
enable reactants to approach within range of the strong nuclear force,
Explanation: The probability of fusion increases with the decrease in the average distance between fuel
particles that enables attractive nuclear forces to overcome the repelling nuclear forces acting at medium
and long distances. An increase in the temperature is equivalent to an increase in the root-mean-square
speed of the fuel particles that will travel the average distance between fuel reactants in smaller times.
The associated increase in the kinetic energy of the particles relative to the center of mass of the nuclear
fuel system essentially correlates with a decrease in the electrostatic potential barrier that repels particles
of the same electric charge. In turn, this increases the probability of particles to undergo the tunnel effect
by penetrating the electrostatic barrier. These combined effects enable reactants to approach within range
of the strong nuclear force.
Decreasing the density of the fuel is detrimental because the probability of fusion increases with the
increase in fuel density because the attractive component of the strong nuclear force acts at short
distances indicative of high density for the fuel material.

Q27: Enantiomers have the same physical and chemical properties. They differ only in their three-
dimensional arrangement of atoms and their interactions with other chiral molecules. They can differ in
their smell due to interacting differently with chiral odorant receptors. V/S Diastereomers: have different
chemical and physical properties

Q32: Know these cyclic structures : Indole, Imidazole and pyrrole

Q34: Ammonium formate is NH4HCO2. Ammonium carbonate is (NH4)2CO3.

Ammonium bicarbonate is NH4HCO3, Ammonium acetate is NH4CH3CO2, 

Q42: if a phosphate group is present in a molecule, it carries a negative charge.

Q47: A 2 kg mass and a 5 kg mass are connected by a massless cord suspended over a massless and
frictionless pulley. If the acceleration due to gravity is g, what will be the acceleration of the masses after
they are released from rest? Concept: Tension and Pulleys
Explanation: According to Newton's second law, the net force acting on the 5-kg mass is given by the
expression Fnet= 5 kg × a1 = 5 kg × g - T, where a1 is the acceleration after the release and T is the
tension in the cord. The net force acting on the 2-kg mass is given by the expression Fnet= 2 kg × a2 = 2
kg × g - T. Because the two masses move simultaneously but in opposite directions after they are
released, a1 = -a2 = a. Substituting the expression T = 5 kg × (g - a) into the equation of motion of the 2-
kg mass yields -2 kg × a = 2 kg × g - 5 kg × (g - a) = -3 kg × g + 5 kg × a. Then 7 kg × a = 3 kg × g, hence
a = 3g/7.
SECTION 3 BIO/BIOCH

Q3: High C-G content = Higher MP/BP due to more stable duplex

Q4: Phosphodiester bond in DNA backbone

Q11: Know the alpha, beta

and gamma carbons of AA
side chains

Q6: acetate, propionate, and butyrate, which are short chain fatty acids ; can be derived from mono or
polysaccharides (glucose  glycolysis  acetyl coA  FA synthesis  FAs)

Q13: GLUT2 activity:

Q16: Blood Viscosity: measures thickness of blood

More viscous the blood = slower the flow= heart has to pump harder = hence increases BP
Depends on : plasma proteins, RBC (hematocrit: (atio of Volume of RBC to total blood volume)
Q31: If ΔG < 0 , Keq >1 and it is an exergonic reaction; vice versa

Q25: If given pH > pI, then most of functional groups will be deprotonated and less than pI will be
protonated in Amino acids questions.

Q28: KNOW Citric Acid Cycle enzymes:

Malate dehydrogenase; Succinate dehydrogenase; Isocitrate dehydrogenase; Α-Ketoglutarate
dehydrogenase

Q48: In enzyme-catalyzed reactions:

KM : is the rate constant of a reaction, does not change with changes in substrate concentration.
Kcat : is the reaction turnover number and does not change with changes in substrate concentration.
Vmax : is the maximum velocity of a reaction and is a constant property which does not change with
the addition of more substrate.
V0 : is the initial velocity of an enzymatic reaction. At low concentrations of substrate and constant
enzyme concentration, adding more substrates will increase V0 until the maximal velocity is reached.

Q53: Introns: have regulatory functions does not alter gene expression.
Promoter and enhancer regions: mutations to these alter gene expression.
SNPs: Single nucleotide polymorphisms: include insertion, deletion and substitution.

Q55: Enterocytes are the intestinal cells that produce Enzymes that digest disaccharides. This includes
lactase.

Q56: cDNA: complementary DNA usually from mRNA by Reverse transcriptase

Interpreting a radiograph for mutations; Genomic DNA (originally  cDNA (the one with mutation)

Q59: if a diploid organism is heterozygous in each of 3 unlinked genes

Then number of gametes = 2n
SECTION 4 PSYCH/SOC

Q1: Anxious-ambivalent attachment:

Participants think that others are reluctant to get close to them.
Participants want to merge completely with others and this desire pushes people away.
Avoidant attachment: Participants find it difficult to trust and depend on others.

Q2: know differences between mixed, secure, avoidant, and anxious-ambivalent attachment styles.

Q4: Insight typically refers to the novel realization of a solution to a problem.

Heuristics are cognitive rules of thumb that offer shortcuts to reasoning and problem solving.
Schemas are knowledge structures that determine one's expectations in different contexts, including
social interactions.

Q6: parietal lobe integrates sensory information.

Q7: Superego is the structure of personality which houses an individual's conscience, developed via the
internalization of parental and societal expectations and values. The superego demands that one perform
to their highest possible standard.

Q8: Reaction formation involves minimizing uncomfortable though ts or emotions by overemphasizing

their opposite.

Q11: 6 Principles of Weber’s Ideal Bureaucracy (HFFDIC)

Hierarchy of authority
Formal selection of employees
Division of labor (specialization)
Impersonal relationships
Career development
Formal Rules

Q13: racial and ethnic identities are: are institutionalized in social structures. Neither race nor ethnicity is
simply an individual characteristic. Instead, they are tied to social structures beyond an individual's
control and become institutionalized.

Q14: cultural diffusion, assimilation, transmission, relativism

Q15: Fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to attribute people's behavior to dispositional
traits, even when situational explanations are available

Q19: WEBER’S LAW: The passage states that "As more sugar is added, subtle changes in the sweetness
of wine can be detected by both experts and novices." Weber’s law states that the minimum change in
intensity necessary for the subject to sense that the stimulus has changed is a ratio of the original stimulus
intensity. This is relevant to detecting changing levels of sweetness in wine.
Perceptual constancy refers to the tendency to experience a stable perception even as the sensory input
itself is changing.
Absolute threshold refers to the smallest amount of physical stimulation required to detect a sensory input
half the time it is present.

Q27: Horizontal mobility would represent an individual's change of role within the same social class.
Vertical mobility indicates a change in someone's socioeconomic status. 
Structural mobility refers to social mobility as a result of macro-social changes, generally impacting a
significant part of the population.

Q29: Medicalization refers to the recategorization of a condition as a medical problem that requires
diagnosis and treatment by medical experts. Alcoholism provides a classic case of medicalization, as
alcohol abuse has transitioned from what was once considered a problem of individual moral character to
being considered a treatable medical condition today.

Q32: Suburbanization is the out-migration from cities to suburbs, which often involves middle-class
residents leaving behind low-income residents.

Q33. Life course approach posits that early life events influence an individual's later life outcomes. Both
the potentiator model and protective model focus on the risks a child might face in their environment
which might increase premarital birth rates, as an outcome. These two models would be most consistent
with a life course approach.

Q34: Differential association theory focuses on how an individual might learn behaviors, that are
considered as deviant in larger society, from their close social environment. The ecological perspective
focuses on the risk factors in an adolescent's local environment. Therefore, both approaches focus on how
an individual's social environment might impact their norms and values.

Q35: Front stage self refers to an individual's impression management that is consistent with the
expectations of a particular social role. 
Intersectionality (Intersectional approach) indicates that the different aspects of someone’s social
background (e.g., race, ethnicity, age, gender, and class) might concomitantly bestow privileges or
disadvantages on an individual.
Social role conflict indicates the conflicting demands of two different social roles an individual carries. 
Demographic transition refers to the association between the level of socioeconomic development and the
balance between fertility and mortality rates in a society. 

Q43: Ethnography is a qualitative research method to make in-person observations in a cultural setting
over an extended period of time.

Q46: Xenophobia refers to the fear and suspicion towards cultures perceived to be foreign.
Q56: Demand characteristics occur if the research design provides cues to the participants regarding the
study hypothesis and causes them to respond in a specific manner.