PRACTICE TEST 7

PART A
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in position the of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
1. A. disposal B. animal C. energy D. poverty
2. A. awareness B. solution C. importance D. happiness
3. A. origin B. dependence C. harmony D. factory
4. A. replacement B. pollutant C. resident D. depletion
5. A. instrument B. engineer C. newsletter D. family
6. A. vehicle B. musical C. article D. reduction
7. A. consumption B. chemical C. neighborhood D. pesticide
8. A. scientist B. consequence C. detergent D. influence
9. A. erosion B. atmosphere C. resources D. confusion
10. A. volunteer B. charity C. vegetable D. injury
Read the passage, and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.
Water pollution is one of the biggest threats to the environment today. There are several sources of
water pollution ranging from sewage and fertilizers to soil erosion. The impact of water pollution on wildlife
and their natural habitats can be immense. There are also a number of things that the average person can do to
help stop water pollution.
We should conserve the soil because soil conservation influences water pollution through erosion. As
soil is eroded by water, it transfers sediment from the land to the body of water, which is polluted by the
chemicals in the sediment. Phosphorus and industrial chemicals can be pulled into water through soil erosion.
When phosphorus levels in water become too high, they can lead to algae blooms that can cause massive fish
deaths and make water unsafe for human use. The best way to prevent soil erosion is to keep the banks of
rivers well-covered with plants or trees. Planting trees can have a significantly positive impact on the
reduction in soil erosion.
The oil used to lubricate engines in all types of machines needs to be changed regularly. When the oil
is changed, it presents a number of environmental hazards if not disposed of properly. When a leaky engine
releases this oil into the street, it runs to the sewer and makes its way into waterways.
Wherever you see a lot of human recreation, you will almost always see lots of evidence of human use.
Wrappers, bottles and other trash are unfortunately a common site at many well-used beaches and rivers
around the world. It should be fairly obvious that the trash from these places often ends up in waterways and
can cause pollution. Plastics are an especially big issue when it comes to water contamination at beaches and
waterways. Picking up litter wherever you find it is honestly the best, fastest way to do your part to stop this
type of water pollution.
Organize cleaning parties with local people to make the reach larger. Get businesses involved as
sponsors who will donate prizes to the person who collects the most trash if you're having a hard time finding
people to sign up to help.
It is estimated that the consumption of plastic by humans is between 250 and 300 million tons a year.
About 80% of the plastic in the oceans came from the land. Using alternatives to plastics or using “less
disposable” plastics whenever possible can have a surprising impact on ocean pollution. The fact that plastic is
cheap and useful for different purposes makes it obvious choices for many people.
1. Lubricants can cause environmental hazards when ____.
A. they may be found in the streets B. they engines work perfectly
C. they are not disposed properly D. they are changed regularly
2. The following are the effects of water pollution EXCEPT that ____.
A. it may make water unsafe for human use
B. it may spoil the beauty of beaches or waterways
C. it may cause massive fish deaths due to algae blooms
D. it may keep the banks of rivers well-covered with trees
3. Soil erosion can lead to water pollution because ____.
A. massive fish deaths will make the rivers unsafe for human use
B. soil can be eroded by rain water
C. soil erosion can occur naturally everywhere
D. chemicals in the sediment from the soil erosion will pollute water
4. In order to make beaches clean and green, we should ____.
A. follow the trash from these places which often ends up in waterways
B. find places with a lot of human recreation and of evidence of human use
C. organize campaigns in which prizes will be given to the business who collects the most trash
D. ask local people to take part in cleaning up the beaches, maybe with the sponsor from businesses
5. We can infer from the passage that ____.
A. using too much plastic can cause bad effects on ocean pollution
B. using plastics only causes ocean pollution
C. we don't know how to stop water pollution
D. alternatives to plastics or “less disposable” plastics can make the situation worse
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
1. We need to cut down on the emission of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
A. intake B. retake C. uptake D. discharge
2. Land erosion is mainly caused by widespread deforestation.
A. afforestation B. reforestation C. logging D. lawn mowing
3. In the past, a lot of countries denied having contributed to global warming.
A. agreed B. refuted C. approved D. avoided
4. Most people admit that they contribute to global warming.
A. be partly responsible for B. disapprove C. neglect D. cause
5. We must admit that people are heavily polluting the environment.
A. decline B. rebut C. deny D. accept
6. In the polluted environment, infectious diseases can be passed easily from one person to another.
A. fatal B. safe C. contagious D. immune
7. Global warming has severe impact on water supplies.
A. very good B. very bad C. normal D. long-lasting
8. Global warming occurs when the greenhouse gases in the atmosphere trap the heat from the sun.
A. catch B. discharge C. dispose D. release
9. Such unhygienic conditions encourage the spread of diseases.
A. decline B. stability C. decrease D. increase
10. Deforestation is one of the biggest environmental threats to the ecological balance in the world.
A. sureties B. certainties C. dangers D. safety
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Mobile phones: a benefit or social nuisance? Few people under 30 will be able to imagine a time before the
existence of mobile phones. Neither will they be (1) ... of the harmful effect that many people predicted text
language would have on young people's language skills.
Interestingly, linguists nowadays believe that expressing oneself clearly in texts is evidence of a good
background in grammar and sentence structure. Mobile phones are credited with encouraging people to
communicate more. They can also provide reassurance to people (2) ... are alone in dangerous situations.
Some people use mobile phones as a kind of barrier to unwelcome social contact; texting can signal your
unavailability to (3) ... people in the same way that wearing sunglasses and headphones does.
Some issues with mobile phones are still controversial. Talking loudly on the phone while on public
transport is thought to be rude and (4) ... by many people in the UK. (5) ..., a significant minority of people
still do it, despite the sighing and other obvious signs of disapproval from their fellow passengers.
1. A. anxious B. alert C. aware D. forgetful
2. A. which B. when C. where D. who
3. A. other B. another C. every D. one
4. A. inconsiderate B. insignificant C. inflexible D. inattentive
5. A. Therefore B. However C. Moreover D. Otherwise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
1. Waste from industrial and agricultural ____ pollutes the water that is used by humans, animals and plants.
A. acts B. actions C. interactions D. activities
2. Fossil fuel utilization brings about discharge of greenhouse gases, ____ causes environmental change.
A. which B. that C. it D. they
3. Wooded areas are being lost ____ a regular basis.
A. by B. with C. at D. on
4. Radioactive waste is considered ____ harmful for humans, plants, animals and surrounding environment.
A. to be B. be C. being D. been
5. Current environmental problems make us vulnerable ____ disasters and tragedies, now and in the future.
A. with B. at C. in D. to
6. ____ we address the various issues prudently and seriously, we are surely doomed for disaster.
A. If B. When C. Unless D. Though
7. Depletion of the crucial ozone layer of the atmosphere is ____ to pollution caused by CFC's.
A. attributed B. subjected C. indebted D. entitled
8. The more rubbish people throw away, ____ to protect the environment.
A. it is more irresponsible of them B. it is the more irresponsible of them
C. it is of them more irresponsible D. the more irresponsible it is of them
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
Those who are concerned with protecting the environment often use the words conservation and
preservation. These two terms are often confused and are used to mean the same thing, although differences
exist.
Conservation is the sustainable use and management of natural resources including wildlife, water, air, and
earth deposits. Natural resources may be renewable or non-renewable. The conservation of renewable
resources like trees involves ensuring that they are not consumed faster than they can be replaced. The
conservation of non-renewable resources like fossil fuels involves ensuring that sufficient quantities are
maintained for future generations to utilise. Conservation of natural resources usually focuses on the needs
and interests of human beings, for example the biological, economic, cultural and recreational values such
resources have. The rain forest for example, contains a wide range of biodiversity, providing food stocks for
local populations and a source of timber and medicines for other countries. Conservationists accept that
development is necessary for a better future, but only when the changes take place in ways that are not
wasteful. What the conservationist opposes is not the harnessing of nature for mankind's progression, but the
fact that all too often the environment comes off the worse for wear.
Preservation, in contrast to conservation, attempts to maintain in their present condition areas of the Earth
that are so far untouched by humans. This is due to the concern that mankind is encroaching onto the
environment at such a rate that many untamed landscapes are being given over to farming, industry, housing,
tourism and other human developments, and that we are losing too much of what is 'natural'. Like
conservationists, some preservationists support the protection of nature for purely human-centred reasons.
Stronger advocates of preservation however, adopt a less human-centred approach to environmental
protection, placing a value on nature that does not relate to the needs and interests of human beings. Deep
green ecology argues that ecosystems and individual species should be preserved whatever the cost, regardless
of their usefulness to humans, and even if their continued existence would prove harmful to us. This follows
from the belief that every living thing has a right to exist and should be preserved.
1. What should be the best title of the passage?
A. Conservation and Preservation B. Conservation or Preservation
C. Conservation, not Preservation D. Conservation for Preservation
2. The word "they" in the passage refers to ____.
A. trees B. renewable resources C. natural resources D. deposits
3. According to the passage, conservationists support all of the following EXCEPT that ____.
A. non-renewable resources must be sufficiently saved for future generations
B. renewable resources must not be consumed faster than they can be replaced
C. conservation focuses on the needs and interests of human beings properly
D. any changes can be taken so that humans beings develop for a better future
4. The rain forest is mentioned in the passage as an example of ____.
A. natural tourist attractions B. sources of medicines for people
C. where local people can find and keep food stocks D. how natural resources are valuable to humans
5. The word "harnessing" in the passage can be best replaced with ____.
A. exploitation B. usage C. consumption D. production
6. The phrase "the worse for wear" in the passage most likely describes a state of being ____.
A. exhausted B. worn out C. used up D. run out
7. According to the passage, reservation generally refers to which of the following?
A. that the natural resources exist not for humans' need
B. making sure that no resources are used in a wasteful way
C. saving natural resources for future generations' needs and interests
D. maintaining the untouched areas of the Earth in their current state
8. The word "untamed" in the passage almost means ____.
A. not having been explored B. having been reconstructed
C. not having been visited D. having been industrialized
9. The word "advocates" in the passage can be best replaced with ____.
A. fans B. supporters C. holders D. fighters
10. It can be learnt from the passage that both 'conservationists' and 'reservationists' ____.
A. focus on the needs and interests of human beings B. protect the natural resources for the sake of
themselves
C. work to protect the Earth and its biodiversity D. save all individual species regardless of their values
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
1. As fossil fuel resources are running out, the government has to find some types of alternative energy.
A. irreplaceable B. substitute C. impossible D. practical
2. Local people have cut down the forests to make way for farming.
A. allow farming to take place B. lose way in farming C. have a way of farming D. give way to farming
3. Because farmers had been informed about the bad effects of chemical fertilisers, they started using them
sparingly on their farms.
A. carelessly B. moderately C. recklessly D. irresponsibly
4. Global warming is one of the biggest issues facing humans nowadays.
A. causes B. factors C. concerns D. agreements
5. Coal burning releases a large amount of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
A. discourages B. reduces C. relaxes D. discharges
6. Forests absorb and capture carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
A. take up B. take in C. take over D. take to
7. The process of forests absorbing carbon dioxide has been disrupted by the alarming rate of deforestation.
A. discussed B. discovered C. disturbed D. distributed
8. Water shortages are likely to delay economic growth and damage ecosystems.
A. aid B. advance C. deter D. defer
9. Reusing and recycling glass, plastic, paper and other products help to reduce waste and pollution, and
conserve natural resources.
A. preserve B. reserve C. converse D. reverse
10. Our city is going to ban supermarkets from using plastic bags.
A. reduce B. encourage C. prohibit D. allow
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
Countries around the world have growing mountains of trash because people are throwing out more trash
than ever before. How did we become a throwaway society?
First of all, it is now easier to replace an item than to spend time and money to repair it. Thanks to modern
manufacturing and technology, companies are able to produce items quickly and inexpensively. Products are
plentiful and prices are low, so we would rather buy something new than repair it. Even if we did want to
repair something, many items are almost impossible to repair. These products contain many tiny, complicated
parts. Some even contain small computer chips. It's easier to throw these items away and buy new ones than to
fix them.
Another contributing factor is our love of disposable products. As busy people, we are always looking for
ways to save time and make our lives easier. Why should we use cloth kitchen towels? It's easier to use paper
towel once and toss it out. Companies manufacture thousands of different kinds of disposable items: paper
plates, plastic cups, cameras, and razors for shaving, to name a few. The problem is that disposable products
also contribute to our trash problem.
Our appetite for new products also contributes to the problem. We are addicted to buying things. As
consumers, we want the latest clothes, the best TVs, and cellphones with west features. Companies tell us to
buy, buy, and buy. Advertisements persuade us wer is better. The result is that we throw away useful
possessions to make room for new ones.
1. Which of the following is NOT a reason for people to replace a broken item?
A. Products are now mass produced at affordable prices. B. It takes almost no time to fix broken items.
C. Many items are too complicated to repair. D. Some products contain tiny, complicated chips.
2. All of the following are disposable products, EXCEPT ____.
A. cloth kitchen towels B. paper plates C. plastic cups D. razors for shaving
3. The word “disposable" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. convenient B. inexpensive C. throwaway D. single-use
4. Why are we hooked on buying new things?
A. We throw the old items to make room for the new ones. B. We have more money than ever before.
C. We want to own as many things as possible. D. We are made to believe that the new is the better.
5. The word “appetite” in the last paragraph can be best replaced by ____.
A. need B. demand C. desire D. taste
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
1. People ____ on the grounds of race, sex and religion.
A. should not discriminate B. must be discriminating
C. should never be discriminated D. might not be discriminated
2. The rainforests around the world are ______ threat of deforestation.
A. in B. by C. under D. on
3. Global warming is among many factors that drive many species of animals to the _____ of extinction.
A. verge B. period C. corner D. bottom
4. People still haven’t _____how dangerous pollution can be.
A. remarked B. noted C. realised D. minded
5. Those tourists showed a total _____ for the local wildlife.
A. danger B. disregard C. destruction D. ignorance
6. The pollution problems in the town have been _____ by mass tourism in the summer months.
A. exacerbated B. developed C. augmented D. contributed
7. The greenhouse _____ has changed the global climate for the worse.
A. effect B. result C. impact D. influence
8. If I were you, I would _____ starting a recycling scheme in the town.
A. consider B. think C. regard D. judge
9. The government should do more to promote environmental _____.
A. understanding B. awareness C. knowledge D. recognition
10. The burning of fossil fuels is causing a shortage in natural _____.
A. resources B. supplies C. wealth D. assets
11. The government should do more to _____ the use of renewable energy.
A. promote B. help C. upgrade D. assist
12. Sea levels are expected to _____ considerably in the next few decades.
A. rise B. raise C. arise D. lift
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
Our lives are full of cardboard. The packaging of certain things we buy, from food products to electrical
goods, is made of cardboard. In the UK, over 8 million tons of the stuff is produced every year just for
packaging. It makes the things we buy more expensive, too. On average, 16% of the money we spend on a
product is for the packaging. And where does the packaging usually end up? In the bin, of course, but
hopefully that's the recycling bin not the rubbish bin! Recycling cardboard is much more efficient than
producing it in the first place. It takes 24% less energy and produces 50% less sulphur dioxide to recycle it.
Recycled cardboard has some remarkable uses, too. Obviously, it ends up as packaging again, but it is also
used as a building material. It isn't as expensive as traditional materials and it is often more accessible. Some
innovative and environmentally friendly designers are actually using it to make furniture and buildings.
One such person is Japanese architect Shigeru Ban, who designed wonderful emergency shelters made of
cardboard tubes. The first people to use these were the survivors of the appalling earthquake in Kobe, Japan,
in 1995. Since then, they have been used in other places around the world after terrible natural disasters.
Perhaps Ban's most outstanding design is his cardboard cathedral in Christchurch, New Zealand. His modern,
eco-friendly cathedral for up to 700 people is a temporary replacement for the ancient cathedral that was
damaged in the earthquake in February 2011.
1. Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Cardboard - A Traditional Building Material B. The Future of Packaging in the UK
C. Japanese Modern Architecture D. A Building Material for the Future
2. The phrase "the stuff' in paragraph 1 refers to ...
A. food products B. cardboard C. packaging D. electrical goods
3. The word "innovative" in paragraph 2 mostly means ...
A. using new ways of doing something B. travelling around the world
C. being friendly to the environment D. becoming interested in mending something
4. According to the passage, recycled cardboard can be used for...
A. packaging B. creating energy C. producing sulphur dioxide D. making rubbish bins
5. Which of the following is TRUE about cardboard buildings as stated in the passage?
A. They were constructed in Japan and New Zealand only. B. They can serve as permanent homes for people.
C. They are shelters for people after natural disasters. D. They can house just a small number of people.
Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the blanks
The primary aim of ecotourism is to educate the traveller and bring him or her closer to nature.
Participants are given the chance to visit parts of the world (1) ______ are untouched by human intervention and
to engage in conservation work and various other kinds of environmental projects.
Visitors benefit by gaining an appreciation of natural habitats and an (2) ______ into the impact of human
beings on the environment. Local communities gain financially but also in (3) ______ ways, since not only
monuments but other buildings as well, such as bridges or windmills, are restored in order to attract more
visitors. (4) ______, there are also disadvantages to this type of tourism. There have been cases in which
tourism has been allowed to develop with no control or limits. As a result, (5) ______ cultures have been
affected or even threatened by foreign lifestyles. Many people today support that our approach to the
development of ecotourism has to be reconsidered. It is essential that this type of tourism be environmentally,
socially, and culturally friendly.
1. A. who B. that C. when D. why
2. A. advent B. intent C. access D. insight
3. A. other B. another C. every D. one
4. A. Although B. Therefore C. However D. Moreover
5. A. primary B. peculiar C. indigenous D. exotic
Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Daniel Tammet can speak eleven languages, and can solve difficult maths problems in seconds. Despite his
wonderful abilities, Daniel has had difficulty learning to communicate and understand others’ feelings.
Daniel’s skills and problems result from a mental condition that makes it hard for him to communicate with
other people. Daniel is thirty-five now, and life is easier for him. But when he was a baby, he used to cry a lot.
At school, it was difficult for him to read body language or make eye contact, so he could not understand how
others felt and never played with other children, or with toys. Numbers were his only toys.
To Daniel, numbers have colours, shapes and personalities. This allows him to experience numbers rather
than calculate them. For example, when he multiplies two numbers together, he sees two shapes. They start to
change until a third shape appears. That is the answer.
Because of his special skills, Daniel can do things that many other people cannot. He can copy a picture
accurately, and he can plan a book about his life without writing down anything. However, he also realises
that he cannot do many things. He knows that he is difficult to live with because he cannot understand how
others feel. He admits that most of the time, he has to behave as if he shared their feelings. Despite these
problems, he is slowly learning how to express more emotions. He says that when his cat died, he understood
sadness for the first time.
Now Daniel no longer wishes to have a normal life. He is using his talent for good purpose. He usually
gives lectures, has written three successful books, and taken part in many research projects. Some people say
that he is having the same effect on them as great scientists do.
1. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Man with an Amazing Mind B. The Life of a Normal Man
C. Famous Disabled Scientists in History D. New Education Methods for the Disabled
2. According to the passage, Daniel……
A. is able to read other people’s minds B. could communicate with other people well
C. had no difficulty making friends at school D. can solve maths problems very quickly
3. The word them in paragraph 3 refers to…...
A. personalities B. numbers C. colours D. shapes
4. The word accurately in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to.......
A. exactly B. seriously C. simply D. carefully
5. The word talent in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to .….
A. positive feeling B. grerat ability C. bad impact D. serious problem
6. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Daniel has to act as if he understood others' feelings most of the time.
B. Images appear in Daniel's mind when he multiplies numbers.
C. Daniel now has a harder life than when he was little.
D. Daniel has been involved in a lot of scientific projects.
7. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Daniel’s teacher taught him how to use body language properly.
B. Daniel’s ambition was to become a great scientist.
C. Daniel used to wish to be like other people.
D. Daniel’s most favourite subject at school wasn’t maths.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
1. The next meeting_________ in May.
A. will hold B. will be held C. will be holding D. will have held
2. Before eating, _________ thoroughly with soap and clean water.
A. you should wash your hands B. you should have your hands washed
C. you need washing your hands D. your hands need washed
3. If I had studied harder, I_________ better marks in the last exam.
A. would get B. would have got C. will get D. wouldn’t have got
4. Susan was alone in the house when the fire _______.
A. broke out B. broke down C. broke up D. broke away
5. In the primary school, a child is in the_________ simple setting.
A. comparison B. comparatively C. comparable D. comparative
6. We arrived_________ Ho Chi Minh City at 9 p.m._________ a hot summer day.
A. in/ on B. at/ in               C. to/ in               D. on/ on
7. If I were you, I would take more_________ in my work.
A. confidence B. pride C. dedication D. solution
8. He_________ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.
A. must have gone B. couldn’t go C. didn’t have to go D. should have gone
9. He only had time to_________ into his report. He couldn’t read it thoroughly.
A. see B. dip C. break D. read
10. Jane only makes cake with the_________ butter.
A. best unsalted Danish B. unsalted best Danish C. Danish best unsalted D. best Danish unsalted
11. Several measures have been proposed to_____ the problem of unemployment among university graduates.
A. pose B. admit C. address D. create
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. event B. enroll C. entertain D. encourage
2. A. affect B. address C. application D. alert
3. A. promote B. woman C. symbol D. complete
4. A. healthcare B. thankful C. although D. breath
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions
Today, text-messaging has probably become young people's most common form of communication. Some
teachers think that because of this, young people are not writing correctly at school.
They fear that once students get used to it, they will find it hard to switch back to using correct grammar and
spelling. How did things begin this way?
 It all began with e-mail, online chat rooms, and games. Then step by step young people made sentences,
phrases and words shorter. As text-messaging continued to become popular, people invented more and more
words. Today, it is like a real language with its own grammar and vocabulary.
The growth of text-messaging has raised an important question: As students become fluent in text-
messaging, do their writing skills suffer?
People have different ideas about the effects of text-messaging on students' writing skills. Some say that
students are losing the ability to write long, correct sentences. Others say that text-messaging is having a good
effect on the language students use in their schoolwork. It shows that they are creative and good at expressing
themselves. And if students can keep the two systems separate - one for text-messaging and one for school -
this will help students appreciate reading and writing more.
Some people suggest that one way to reduce the bad effects of text-messaging is to find ways to use
technology as a positive learning tool. For example, students can be allowed to type their assignments in a cell
phone message and send them to their teachers, but they must type correctly. In this way. students are using
the technology that they are familiar with to communicate in a form of language suitable for schoolwork. It
shows students that text-messaging is fine for social communication, but correct grammar and spelling are
necessary for communication in school.
1. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. How can Teachers Teach Text-messaging?
B. What can be Done to Increase the Quality of Text-messaging?
C. How have Schools Changed Technology?
D. What is Text-messaging Doing to Students’ Writing?
2. The word switch in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to…..
A. look B. change C. send D. give
3. The word invented in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to…..
A. described B. created C. guessed D. explained
4. According to paragraph 3, how can text-messaging affect students’ writing?
A. Students no longer use handwriting for their schoolwork.
B. Students’ ability to write long, correct sentences is gradually decreasing.
C. Students will lose interest in their school writing
D. Students are losing their creativity in writing.
5. The word them in paragraph 4 refers to …..
A. assignments B. students C. people D. effects
6. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Text-messaging has probably become the most common form of communication for young people.
B. Connect grammar and spelling are not important for communication in school.
C. Text-messaging is like a real language with its own grammar and vocabulary.
D. People have different opinions about the effects of text-messaging on students writing skills.
7. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Text-messaging can help students write more correctly.
B. Students should know how to use text-messaging properly for their purposes.
C. Text-messaging has been accepted as an official language.
D. Students should know how to use standard language in all circumstances.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
1. We are facing severe environmental pollution though many organizations are working hard to reduce it.
A. heavy B. destructive C. harmful D. serious
2. Stop the degradation of the planet's natural environment and build a future in which humans live in
harmony with nature.
A. coexist peacefully with B. fall in love with C. agree with D. cooperate with
3. Some of WWF's missions are: conserving the world's biological diversity, ensuring the use of renewable
natural resources, and promoting the reduction of pollution.
A. jobs B. careers C. tasks D. actions
4. The natural environment has been seriously degraded by human activities through many decades.
A. worsened B. damaged C. destroyed D. reduced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
1. If you follow at least one of the tips, you can be proud of taking part in the preservation of water, one of
the very important and limited natural resources on earth.
A. self-confident B. self-satisfied C. discontent D. unpleasant
2. Soil pollution leads to lack of fertile land to grow enough food for an increasing population.
A. arid B. rich C. unclean D. deserted
3. Global warming may lead to many negative changes, including harsher weather conditions.
A. more unbearable B. milder C. more extreme D. more serious
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
Oxford University has released a sample of interview questions - including what a rock looks like and
how you listen to music - to help students who want to study at the top institution. Among the list of questions
are. “What can historians not find out about the past?”, “Is religion of value whether or not there is a God?”
and “How can we estimate the mass of the atmosphere?”. Prospective earth sciences students could be asked
what a rock handed to them looks like, meanwhile chemistry candidates are asked to calculate how many
different molecules can be made from six carbon atoms and 12 hydrogen atoms.
In efforts to make the interview process more transparent, the prestigious university has released advice on
how to answer the example questions just days after the deadline for applications closed. Dr. Samina Khan,
director of admissions and outreach, said. “Interviews will be an entirely new experience for most students, and we
know many prospective applicants are already worried about being in an unfamiliar place and being questioned by
people they have not met.” She added. “We want to underscore that every question asked by our tutors has a
purpose, and that purpose is to assess how students think about their subject and respond to new information or
unfamiliar ideas. No matter what kind of educational background or opportunities you have had, the interview
should be an opportunity to present your interest and ability in your chosen subject, since they are not just about
reciting what you already know.” Laura Tunbridge, from St. Catherine’s College, explained why a music
candidate might be asked to explain the different ways they listen to music. “The question allows students to use
their own musical experiences as a starting point for a broader and more abstract discussion about the different
ways people consume music, the relationship between music and technology, and how music can define us
socially,” she said.
Candidates who successfully clear the first hurdle with their written application will be invited to interview.
“We know there are still misunderstandings about the Oxford interview, so we put as much information as possible
out there to allow students to see the reality of the process,” added Dr. Khan.
1. Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Oxford University. Lowering Standards in Times of Change!
B. The History of Oxford’s Interviewing Schemes
C. Oxford University Interview Questions. Would You Pass the Test?
D. The Oxford’s Guide to Success in Job Interviews
2. The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to_________.
A. prospective earth sciences students B. historians C. chemistry candidates D. questions
3. Why has Oxford University publicised its sample interview questions and related advice?
A. To prepare students for unfamiliar questions in their job interviews
B. To familiarise potential applicants with their interview process
C. To test public reaction to their novel interview process
D. To reduce confusion among most of their current students
4. The word “reciting” in paragraph 3 most probably means______.
A. repeating B. reassessing C. releasing D. revising
5. According to Laura Tunbridge, the question about a candidate’s ways of listening to music is intended
to___.
A. judge the candidate’s ability to react to familiar situations
B. set the context for a more abstract discussion on music-related topics
C. encourage the candidate to elaborate on their individual preferences
D. measure their understanding of how technology affects entertainment choices
6. The word “clear” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to______.
A. pass B. face C. give D. skip
7. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Dr. Khan advises candidates to focus more on showing their general knowledge at the interview.
B. Oxford University plans to use the same set of questions for all candidates.
C. Oxford University only releases sample interview questions for earth sciences and music.
D. Dr. Khan understands how the notion of attending the Oxford interview may affect prospective
candidates.
8. Which question is a history candidate LEAST likely to be asked in the Oxford interview?
A. “How can one define a revolution?”
B. “What would a historian find interesting about the place you live?”
C. “Name some pop idols you would most like to meet. Why the choice?”
D. “Which sort of person in the past would you like to interview? Why?”

PART B
Mark the letter A, B, C, D to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.
1. In some Asian countries, the groom and bride ____ their wedding rings in front of the altar.
A. change B. exchange C. give D. take
2. UN World Day for Cultural Diversity for Dialogue and Development on May 21st is a chance to celebrate
the cultural diversity of people around us, and find out more about what we have ____.
A. as usual B. as normal C. in common D. alike
3. In the past, the ____ and engagement ceremonies took place one or two years before the wedding.
A. propose B. proposing C. proposal D. proposed
4. Traditionally, most Vietnamese people never ____ the floor during the first three days of the New Year.
A. sweep B. paint C. polish D. resurface
5. Of the two bridesmaids, Lisa turned out to be the ________.
A. most charming B. more charming C. least charming D. charming
6. I’ve noticed that ______ Spanish eat a lot of vegetables.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø
7. In Yemen, women have less ____ to property ownership, credit, training and employment
A. possibility B. way C. use D. access
8. People in Mexico ____ Mother's Day on May 10 by giving their mothers handmade gifts.
A. open B. memorize C. celebrate D. perform
9. Today, Australia is one of ____ diverse countries in the world.
A. the more culturally B. the most culturally C. most cultural D. the most cultural
10. Richard Byrd was ____ first person in history ______ over the North Pole.
A. the / flying B. a / to fly C. the / to fly D. Ø / flying
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
11. (A)These students are (B)made to study so much (C)that they feel very (D)tired and boring.
12. The doctors looked at the test result, (A)but they (B)decided (C)to operate (D)on the patient.
13. (A)In the past, women (B)was often (C)passive and dependent (D)on their husbands.
14. Today, (A)many serious (B)childhood diseases (C)can prevent by (D)early immunization.
Mark the letter to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part
15. Nowadays, many women are aware of gender preferences in favour of boys.
A. fail B. ignore C. deny D. acknowledge
16. We never allow any kind of discrimination against girls at school.
A. approve B. deny C. refuse D. debate
Mark the letter to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
part
17. It is customary for the bride to throw her bouquet of flowers into a crowd of well-wishers.
A. uncommon B. inadvisable C. usual D. normal
18. Being practical, Americans avoid taking jobs which are beyond their ability.
A. out of B. far from C. within D. inside
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best response to each of the following exchanges.
19. X: “What a beautiful wedding dress you are wearing today, Daisy!" - Y: “____”
A. I'm sorry to hear that. B. Thanks, it’s nice of you to say so.
C. Don't mention it. D. Thanks for your gift!
20. X: “Well, Brad Pitt and Angelina Jolie have just decided to divorce! Don't you know?" - Y: “____”
A. I couldn’t agree more. B. Oh, thanks! C. Really? Are you kidding? D. No, not right now.
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word (s) for each of the
blanks.
The other day I wanted a cup of coffee, so I popped into the bank. I sat in a soft armchair and watched the
world (21) _____, which, in this case, was the queue for the services of the bank clerks. I'm joking, of course,
but this could soon be common in banks in big cities. The demand for ‘real coffee’ in Britain, like that for
mobile phones, seems never-ending.
However, the suspicion is that the attraction for many British people lies not so much in the coffee as in the
‘coffee culture’ that surrounds it. This is to do with big, soft sofas and the idea that if you sit on one, you too
can join the actors in the American TV comedy Friends. In London, the first café opened in 1652. Men would
gather there, often at regular times during the day, to (22) _____ news and gossip, discuss issues of the day
and (23) _____ business. The cafés acted as offices and shops in which merchants and agents, clerks and
bankers could carry out their transactions. In London today it is (24) _____that there are more than 2000 cafés
and the number is (25) _____. It won't be long before coffee is sold everywhere. You can already buy it in
hospitals, motorway service stations, supermarkets and at tourist attractions throughout the country.
21. A. fly past B. go by C. pass on D. walk along
22. A. give B. exchange C. offer D. establish
23. A. make B. perform C. do D. form
24. A. estimated B. guessed C. taken D. told
25. A. raising B. growing C. succeeding D. remaining
Read the passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each question.
Thirty years ago or so, most people in the United States, Canada, and Europe didn’t think much about what
to wear to work in an office. Men always wore suits and ties. Women wore suits or conservative skirt outfits.
But in the 1990s, that started to change.
It began with “casual Fridays”. During the summer, some companies invited their employees to “dress
down”, or wear more casual clothes to work on Fridays. The policy quickly became popular with employees.
After this, it didn’t take long for employees to start dressing more casually every day of the week.
Many employees welcomed the new dress policy and the more comfortable work environment that came
with it. Etiquette had definitely changed, and suits and ties were rarely seen in many offices. Some employees
went as far as wearing jeans, T-shirts, and sneakers to the office. Many people felt that casual clothes made
the workplace a friendlier place. Co-workers were more relaxed with each other. People enjoyed coming to
work knowing it was a comfortable place to be.
Then some people began to change their minds about casual dress at work. Many managers felt that casual
dress had led to casual attitudes toward work. Some people started to notice an increase in employees being
late for work. If “clothes make the man”, as the saying goes, then casual clothes make a casual person become
less committed to company productivity and quality.
One of the biggest reasons why there have been such mixed opinions about dressing down is that there is no
real standard for appropriate casual dress. Is it shorts, T-shirts, brightly coloured tops, and flip-flops? Is it
designer jeans, polo shirts, and trendy sneakers? Is it khakis and sport jackets? Or are Hawaiian shirts and torn
jeans OK? Without casual dress code policy, the etiquette for dress in many companies is beginning to change
back to more formal business attire - a style that everyone understands.
26. Thirty years ago, or so, people working in offices in the United States, Canada, and Europe .
A. didn’t know what to wear to work in an office B. changed their clothes in the 1990s
C. tended to wear in a more formal way D. wore the same whether male or female
27. When the policy of “casual Fridays” became popular, employees .
A. started dressing more casually on weekdays B. started wearing more casually on Fridays
C. wore casual clothes to work in summer D. got dressed as formally as possible in offices
28. Many employees welcomed the new dress policy because .
A. casual clothes made co-workers more relaxed after work
B. people enjoyed coming to work with suits and ties
C. they enjoyed wearing torn jeans, T-shirts all the week
D. they enjoyed the more comfortable work environment
29. Many managers felt that the new dress policy .
A. brought many benefits to their companies B. had some negative impact on their companies
C. increased company productivity and quality D. led to casual attitudes toward “clothes make the man”
30. The viewpoint that the writer certainly supports is that .
A. there should be a casual dress code policy at work
B. employees have to wear formal business clothes
C. people should wear Hawaiian shirts and torn jeans to work
D. it’s not necessary to have standards for casual clothes
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
31. A. engaged B. favourable C. status D. national
32. A. prevent B. education C. dependent D. eliminate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
33. A. income B. workforce C. nature D. mature
34. A. pursue B. enrol C. equal D. repeat
35. A. physically B. equality C. remarkably D. discriminate
Give the correct forms of the words given to complete the sentences below.
Body language is a very (36) …effective……form of communication. Some facial 36. EFFECT
expressions, in particular, can be understood all around the world. If we find something
disgusting for example, we wrinkle up our noses. Anyone watching immediately
knows how we feel. All people smile, and a smile is likely to get a positive 37. REACT
(37) .......reaction...........It can, however, be obvious when you don’t mean it. When
you genuinely smile, muscles around your eyes automatically contract, but these
muscles are difficult to control consciously. An authentic smile fades quickly, too,
while an artificial smile will usually last longer. The expressions we make when we are 38. DIFFER
angry, sad and scared are also common to most cultures. Despite all the (38) …
different………. languages spoken in the world, we can still communicate using this 39. UNIVERSE
(39) ...universal...............language of facial expressions. However, you sometimes
need to be careful. Certain gestures can vary, even within a single country. For
example, Southern Italians gesturing ‘yes’ tilt their heads forwards, never back, 40. CONFUSE
whereas people in the north nod by tilting the head backwards and forwards. This can
be very (40) ………confusing…….
Complete the second sentence so that it has a same meaning to the first sentence, using the word given.
41. Not many people read magazines about stamp collecting these days. WIDELY
Magazines about stamp collecting ...............are not widely read..............................these days.
42. He can’t describe people as well as you can. BETTER
You’re ………better at describing people…………………………… than he is.
43. Henry was three when he first performed in public. AGE
Henry first performed in public………in the age of…………………..three.
44. The children are very pleased to be going away on summer holiday. FORWARD
The children are ………looking forward to going…………………..on summer holiday.
45. Did they give you a map of the area? PROVIDE
Did they………provide you with…………………………..a map of the area?
Read the daily horoscope and answer the questions using letters A-E.
Your daily horoscope for
Wednesday 17th February
By Sylvia Fox
A. Taurus
You might have an argument with an important person today. If this happens, you’ll need help. A
friend or partner will be very useful to you. And who knows? You might win the argument!
B. Gemini
This will be another busy work day for you: you’ll have all the normal things to do, but there may also
be an extra job or two. But don’t worry, you’ll succeed! And think how happy you’ll be when you
finish!
C. Cancer
 You may have to choose between your public and your private life today. You won’t spend much time
with your loved ones until later in the week. Make sure they know you love them or they may feel
forgotten.
D. Leo
This will be your lucky day for education! If you’re still at school, it’ll be a good day for study -
something you’ve always thought was too hard for you will be easy. If you’ve already left school,
think about going back to your studies - you won’t regret it!
E. Virgo
There will be some money worries today. Check what you’re spending. You may need to spend some
extra money on travel, but if you buy something for a loved one, they may not thank you for it!

Which sign:
46. may have family problems? C_________________
47. will have a good day at school? D_________________
48. may need more money than usual? E_________________
49. will have more things to do than usual? B_________________
50. may get very angry? A ________________

PART C
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others
1. A. engaged B. favourable C. status D. national
2. A. contrast (v) B. force C. fortune D. Capricorn
3. A. ancestor B. complicated C. reception D. decide
Choose the word whose stress is placed differently from that of the others
4. A. personal B. proposal C. cultural D. several
5. A. superstitious B. complicated C. situated D. interestingly
Choose the option that best completes the sentences
6. Today, Australia is one of ________ diverse countries in the world.
A. most cultural B. the most cultural C. the more culturally D. the most culturally
7. To many____ street vendors, the success of their day is determined by how it starts and by their first
customer.
A. superstition B. superstitious C. superstitiously D. supernatural
8. In _____ Netherlands, singing at ___ dinner table means you are singing to ___ devil for your dinner –
which means bad luck.
A. X – a – the B. the – the – the C. X – the – the D. the – the – X
9. In every culture, there are basic standards for social ______ such as personal space distance, eye contact,
amount of body language displayed in public.
A. relationship B. relation C. reaction D. interaction
10. True gender equality _____ when both men and women reach a balance between work and family.
A. can achieve B. should be achieved C. can be achieved D. should achieve
11. Some private companies in China try to avoid employing women of child – bearing _____ and sometimes
sack them once they are going to have a baby.
A. old B. age C. years D. time
12. Domestic violence ____ women and girls must be wiped out at any cost.
A. on B.at C.for D. against
13. The climate in Sa Pa is much colder _____ of Hanoi.
A. than it B. than that C. than there D. than this
14. Ann works ________ than most of her friends.
A. much harder B. a lot more hardly C. more hardly D. many harder
15. What time________ on television?
A. is the news B. are the news C. is news D. are news
16. “Did you have ____ nice holiday?” – “Yes, it was ________ best holiday I’ve ever had.”
A. a – a B. a – the C. the – a D. the – the
17. “Where did you have ______ lunch?” “We went to ______ restaurant.”
A. X – a B. X – X C. a – a D. a – X
Put the correct form of the words given.
18. My teacher ___encourages_________me to take this examination (courage)
19. Thomas___accidentally______broke the expensive vase. (accident).
20. Pop music is growing in__popularity_________nowadays (popular).
21. She was in a very ____embarassing________situation. She felt so stupid and didn’t know what to say
(embarrassment)
22. Thousands of people have been made _____homeless______by the war (home).
Identify one mistake in each sentence, and then correct it
23. A lot of (A) people think (B) that marriage (C) women shouldn’t pursue a career(D).
24. In the past (A), women was (B) often passive and dependent (C) on their husbands (D).
25. What might happen (A) if the (B) police hadn’t arrived (C) so quickly (D)?
26. There is not enough room (A) in zoos to house (B) all the others (C) species that need preserving (D).
27. Alaska is the (A) coldest than (B) all the (C) states in the (D) United States.
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Carefully conducted studies that have followed the children of working mothers have not been able to show
any long-term problems, compared with children whose mothers stayed at home. My personal (28) _____ is
that mothers should be allowed to work if they wish. Whether we like it or not, there are a number of mothers
who just have to work. There are those who have invested such a big part of their lives in establishing a career
that they cannot (29)____to see it lost. Then there are many who must work out of pure
economic (30)________. Many mothers are not  (31)________ to be full-time parents. After a few months at
home with a much loved infant, they feel trapped and isolated. There are a number of options when
it (32)________  to choosing childcare. These range from child minders and nannies through to Granny or the
kind lady across the street. In reality, however, many parents don’t have any choice; they have to accept
anything they can get. Be prepared! No (33)_____ how good the childcare may be, some children are going
to  protest wildly if they are left. This is a (34)________  normal stage of child development. Babies separate
well in the first six months, but soon after that they start to get crush on Mum and close family (35)______.
Make sure that in the first week, you allow plenty of time to help your child settle in. All children are
different. Some are independent, while others are more (36)_____ to their mothers. Remember that if you
want to do the best for your children, it’s not the quantity of time you spend with them; it’s the (37)______
that matters.
28. A. idea B. thought C. decision D. view
29. A. hope   B. afford C. decide   D. expect
30. A. duty   B. reason C. necessity D. task  
31. A. made B. cut C. brought  D. born
32. A. turns  B. comes C. refers  D. concerns
33. A. way  B. matter  C. surprise D. exception
34. A. perfectly B. extremely C. very  D. certainly
35. A. people B. adults  C. members  D. grown-ups
36 A. used  B. attached  C. keen D. fond
37. A. quality  B. attitude C. behavior  D. manner
The people below all want to do an activity in the countryside during the autumn. There are descriptions of
eight companies which provide leisure activities in the countryside. Decide which company would be the
most suitable for the following people.
38. Susanna only has couple of hours free. She hates walking and would like to try something that brings
her into contact with animals, although she is a bit nervous with them. E
39. Kemal is looking for some excitement and is keen to do something challenging. He also wants to get to
know the area better. He can afford up to $50. G
40. Frank and Sabine want to go for a walk with their young family. They’d like to have lunch out but
Sabine doesn’t like carrying things for the baby, or picnic things, around all day. C
41. Charlotte is flying to the Brazilian rainforest soon to do some scientific research. She hopes to get
some experience of living in the open air before she goes. D
42. Tom wants to explore the natural beauty of the area in company with other people, doing something
other than walking. He doesn’t have any equipment of his own but he has $40 to spend. B
 A - Windtek
Windtek runs windsurfing training courses for beginners, involving two three-hour private lessons ($89 with
board and wetsuit hire). Experienced surfers can also practice on their own ($15 per hour). At this time of
year, the water is still warm and an exciting day in the open air is promised.
B – Country lanes
Based in a lovely forest, Country Lanes provides a relaxing experience for newcomers to cycling,
experienced cyclists and those just looking for family fun. The one-day group tour ($30 per person) includes
bike hire, route map and discounts on entry to tourist attractions.
C – Liama Treks
For something different, let this company’s friendly South American animals accompany you on a
walk through the hills. The Liama transport your bags while you enjoy the scenery. The most popular trip is a
four – hour walk with a stop at a country restaurant ($55 per adult including meal – children free).
D – Survival school 
If you are thinking of taking a trip to somewhere far from cities and people, you might want to learn
how to take care of yourself first. Survival school’s challenging weekend course ($150) will teach you fire-
making, camp building and recognizing edible plants and wild animals. These skills could save your life.
E – Park Stables
Have you ever thought of exploring a national park on horseback? Park Stables offers rides on horses
specially chosen for their gentle characters. Beginners are welcome and riding hats and boots are provided
free of charge. Private ride $25 per hour, family ride $42 per hour. 

F – Bygone Age
Practise a skill form the past! This company owns a 10 – kilometer private railway tack and offers
train-lovers the opportunity to drive a steam train through pretty countryside. The return trip ($25) lasts one
hour. There are picnic tables and a children’s playground at the station.
G – Swallow Aviation
Get a bird’s-eye view of the countryside and see some of the region’s tourist sights from the air by taking a
lesson in a two – seater microlight plane. It’s an adventure that’s not for the faint-hearted! The training plane
is an Icarus C42 which flies at around 160kph. Flights from $49.
H – Island Link
This ferry company will take you to a beautiful, walker – friendly island. Some of its footpaths take in
the coastline, while others pass through woods. You probably won’t see another walker all day! Walks vary in
length from 2 to 8 hours. Ferry fare and walker’s guidebook $5.
Read the passage below and choose the best option to answer questions.
Marriage is an ancient religious and legal practice celebrated around the world. However, wedding
customs vary from country to country.
The Wedding Dress: In many countries, it is customary for the bride to wear a white dress as a symbol of
purity. The tradition of wearing a special white dress only for the wedding ceremony started around 150 years
ago. Before that, most women could not afford to buy a dress that they would only wear once. Now, bridal
dresses can be bought in a variety of styles. In some Asian countries and in the Middle East, colors of joy and
happiness like red or orange other than white are worn by the bride or used as part of the wedding ceremony,
The Wedding Rings: In many cultures, couples exchange rings, usually made of golf or silver and worn on the
third finger of the left or right hand, during the marriage ceremony. The circular shape of the ring is symbolic
of the couple's eternal union. In Brazil, it is traditional to have the rings engraved with the bride's name on
the groom’s ring, an vice versa.
Flowers: Flowers play an important role in most weddings. Roses are said to be the flowers of love, and
because they usually bloom in June, this has become the most popular month for weddings in many countries.
After the wedding ceremony, in many countries the bride throws her bouquet into a crowd of well-wishers –
usually her single female friends. The person who catches this bouquet will be the next one to marry.
Gifts: In Chinese cultures, w edding guests give gifts of money to the newly-weds in small red envelopes.
Money is also an appropriate gift at Korean and Japanese wedding. In many Western countries, for example in
the U.K, wedding guests give the bride and groom household items that they may need for their new home. In
Russia, rather than receiving gifts, the bride and groom provide gifts to their guests instead.
With the continued internationalization of the modern world, wedding customs that originated in one part of
the world are crossing national boundaries and have been incorporated into marriage ceremonies in other
countries.
43. The tradition of wearing a special dress only on one’s wedding day is ____.
A. about 150 years ago B. over a century ago C. less than 100 years ago D. less than 200 years ago
44. The phrase “eternal union" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. never-ending relationship B. lovely relationship
C. temporary relationship D. healthy relationship
45. The word “this" in paragraph 4 refers to which of the following?
A. role B. love C. June D. rose
Write the following sentences using the words given
46. A train leaves at eight o’clock every morning.
There is ……………a train leaving at eight o’clock every morning………………………………………
47. After walking for three hours, we reached the top of the hill.
After we …… had walked for three hours, we reached the top of the hill………………………..
48. You may get hungry on the train, so take some sandwiches.
In…case you get hungry on the train, take some sandwiches…………………………………………….
49. After fighting the fire for twelve hours, the firemen succeeded in putting it out.
The firemen managed …to put out the fire after a twelve-hour fight…………………….
50. I haven’t eaten this kind of food before.
This is the first …time I’ve ever eaten this kind of food……………………………….

PART D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. click В. bride C. prize D. slice
Question 2: A. brings B. trains C. talks D. clears
Mark the letter А, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. consider B. discover C. imagine D. decorate
Question 4: A. beauty B. success C. album D. question
Mark the letterА, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 5: When I suggested he was mistaken, Mark got hot under the collar and stormed out of the room.
A. felt anxious B. got emotional C. became furious D. remained calm
Question 6: With so many bruises over the body, it is obvious that the child has had а bad fall.
A. unfair B. unclear C. known D. correct
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 7: The new movie was a big hit as tickets for most of the showings were sold out.
A. beat B. failure C. success D. threat
Question 8: Being a wise politician, Mr Brown tends to reserve his judgements till he knows all the facts.
A. benefits B. bookings C. appearances D. decisions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Pat and Sam are talking about doing exercise.
~ Pat: “I don’t think we should exercise late at night.”
~ Sam: “......... This increases our heartbeats and makes it harder to sleep.”
A. You can do it again. B. I disagree with you. C. You’re right. D. It’s not true.
Question 10: Anna is talking to Mark after their school's talent contest.
~ Anna: “So, you are the winner. Congratulations!” ~ Mark: “............”
A. You’re welcome. B. No problem. C. Not at all. D. Thank you.
Mark the letter А, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: You often drive to work,.....?
A. don't you B. didn't you C. won’t you D. haven’t you
Question 12: Having your private life splashed across the front pages of newspapers and glossy magazines is
part and......of being a celebrity.
A. package B. parcel C. packet D. post
Question 13: Sometimes it can be really......to go hiking alone in the forest.
A. dangerously B danger C. endanger D. dangerous
Question 14: Instead of reading stories from books, Michelle’s father usually......stories to lull her to sleep.
A. turns off C. makes up C. takes after D. gets on
Question 15: Mary has been financially independent since she......to work.
A. went out B. will go out C. was going out D. would go out
Question 16: Many animal species are under threat of extinction......wild deforestation.
A. although B. despite C. because D. because of
Question 17: Mr Smith is often......first person to come to the office in the morning.
A. the B. an C. a D. Ø (no article)
Question 18: Experts agree that too hard workouts may......more harm than good.
A. do B. set C. hold D. make
Question 19: Tom doesn’t mind......his father mend things around the house.
A. help B. helping C. to help D. to helping
Question 20: If I.......you, I would take the doctor's advice.
A. wcre B. are C. had been D. will be
Question 21: Dubai is famous......its exciting nightlife.
A. to B. with C. on D. for
Question 22: The director extended his gratitude to all the staff for their......support, without which the
company couldn’t have overcome its difficult time.
A. unmoving B. unbending C. unfailing D unfeeling
Question 23: Even little things like turning off the lights when not in use can make a difference to the amount
of electricity......
A. is consming B. consuming C. consumed D. is consumed
Question 24: Thousands of......packed into the stadium to support their team in the final match.
A. viewers B. audiences C. witnesses D. spectators
Question 25: He won’t understand what the responsibilities of a father are......
A. until he has his first child B. after he had had his first child
C. as soon as he had his first child D. once he had his first child......
Read the following passage and mark the letter А, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word orphrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks
Social networking sites are now estimated to have over 700 million users worldwide. As users can create
their own profiles, you might expect them to portray themselves in the best possible light. When putting up a
profile, it would be (26)....for them to present flattering images, choose sophisticated and discerning interests,
and carefully express their thoughts to appear more intelligent than in real life. (27)......, according to a recent
study conducted on 250 Facebook users, this is not the case. Far from being idealised versions of themselves,
most users’ profiles (28)......closely to what they are really like and show their true personalities including
their both psychological weaknesses and natural physical flaws.
It’s not entirely clear why online profiles depict users' personalities so accurately. It could be that users want
to portray themselves as they really are, or that people attempt to present an ideal image of themselves but fail
to do so. One thing seems clear; social networking sites can in no way be considered a false online world
(29).....is idealised and removed from reality; rather, they are simply(30)......way in which people choose to
interact with each other.
Question 26: A. controversial B. exceptional C. believable D. reasonable
Question 27: A. Besides B. Therefore C. Furthermore D. However
Question 28: A. conform B. comply C. abide D. follow
Question 29: A. that B. who C. where D. when
Question 30: A. other B. another C. few D. many
Read thefollowing passage and mark the letter А, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
 For many years, schoolchildren in the US have been taken on ‘field trips’ to cultural institutions and
historical sites. Despite these trips involving some expense and disruption to class timetables, educators
arrange them in the belief that schools exist not only to teach economically useful skills, but also to produce
civilised young people who appreciate the arts and culture.
However, there have been increasing signs in recent years that the attitude towards field trips is changing,
with a significant decrease in the number of tours organised for school groups. A survey carried out by a
group of school administrators found that over half the schools they asked had decided to cancel trips planned
for the next academic year.
So what are the reasons for this change? The most obvious one is the issue of finance. Because increasing
demands on their funds, schools are forced to make a difficult choice about how to spend the limited money
they have. Field trips are an obvious thing to cut since they are seen by many as a luxury. A large number of
school heads also consider days spent away from school a waste of time, believing that the only worthwhile
use of students’ time is spent preparing for exams in the classroom.
But why should anybody worry if schoolchildren go on fewer trips? Those that believe this is a negative
development in education would say that cultural field trips contribute to the development of students into
well-educated adults who have a healthy interest in history and the arts. Researchers warn that if schools cut
field trips, then valuable opportunities to broaden and enrich children s learning experiences are lost.
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Positive changes in American schools B. Valuable academic learning experiences
C. New trends in educational development D. Field trips for schoolchildren
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, educators believe that through field trips, children can.......
A. practise some outdoor activities B. enjoy their time at school
C. learn to value the arts and culture D. develop economically useful skills only
Question 33: The word “they" in paragraph 2 refers to......
A. school administrators B. the schools C. field trips D school groups

Question 34: The phrase “a luxury” in paragraph 3 mostly describes something which is......
A. difficult and important B. new and common
C. expensive but not essential D. cheap but comfortable
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The number of field trips organised for school groups is growing.
B. Cutting field trips may mean fewer opportunities for students' cultural learning.
C. Most school heads find it not worthwhile for students to spend time preparing for exams.
D. Schools no longer have to pay for their students’ field trips.
Head the following passage and mark the letter А, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
"I have not paid a single electricity bill since the year 1970,” says Richard Perez with noticeable glee. He
can afford to be smug. He lives "off-grid” - unconnected to the power grid and the water, gas and sewerage
supplies that most people in the world rely on. He generates his own electricity, sources his own water and
deals with his own waste disposal - and he prefers it that way. "There are times when the grid blacks out," he
says. "1 really like the security of having my own electricity company.”
Perez is not alone. Once the preserve of mavericks, hippies and survivalists, there are now approximately
200,000 off-grid households in the United States of America, a figure that Perez says has been increasing by a
third every year for the past decade. For all of the people who live off-grid, self-sufficiency means guilt-free
energy consumption and peace of mind. “It feels brilliant to make use of clean, free energy that is not from
fossil fuels,” says Suzanne Galant, a writer who lives off-grid in a rural area in Wales. "And if something goes
wrong, we can fix it ourselves.” Now even urbanites are seeing the appeal of generating some if not all of their
own power needs. So is energy freedom an eco pipe-dream or the ultimate good life?
Well, there is only one way to find out: begin to explore the possibilities of solar, wind or hydro-power. But
unless you live on a sunny, south-facing hillside with access to a nearby river or stream, that might prove
prohibitively expensive!
There is no doubt that being off-grid has its problems, and it is not always the cheapest way to get the
energy you need. Even so, pioneers like Perez have proved that it can be done, and without giving up a 21 st-
century lifestyle: “I have got five personal computers, two laser scanners, two fridge-freezers, a microwave, a
convection oven, vacuum cleaners - you name it,” says Perez. “There is an external beam antenna on the roof
for the phone and a satellite dish for an Internet connection. I have got 70 kWh in batteries that could last me
five days. I have too much electricity.” Too much electricity and no more bills. That has got to be worth
aiming for.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Unplugging from the Grid B. No Water, No Life!
C. A Day in the Life of an “Off-gridder” D. Living without Elecưicity
Question 37: The phrase “blacks out” in paragraph 1 mostly means.....
A. serves many purposes B. fails to work
C. has no functions D is able to run
Question 38: According to paragraph 1, Richard Perez has managed to...... .
A. provide energy for people in his neighborhood B. save a lot of money with his own company
C. stay independent of certain public utilities D. pay off his electricity bills since 1970
Question 39: The word “pipe-dream” in paragraph 2 mostly means......
A. a terrible situation B. an impractical hope C. a promising vision D. a real nightmare
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to.......
A. being a pioneer B. giving up a 21st-century lifestyle
C. bcing off-grid D. getting the energy
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The number of ‘off-gridders’ in the US is said to have risen by 33% over the past 10 years.
B. Some city dwellers have shown an interest in producing their own electricity.
C. ‘Off-gridders’ enjoy not doing harm to the environment.
D. People opting for off-grid living used to be considered quite eccentric.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Adopting an off-grid lifestyle is only suitable for low-income people.
B. Leading а 21st-сentuгу lifestyle means consuming a great deal of electricity.
C. Many ‘off-gridders’ have made a fortune selling their own electricity.
D. Most people living in temperate regions are against the idea of living off-grid.

Mark the letterА, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 43: Tom is more ambitious than his elder sister.
A. Tom is as ambitious as his elder sister. B. Tom’s elder sister is more ambitious than he is.
C. Tom’s elder sister is not as ambitious as he is. D. Tom is less ambitious than his elder sister.
Question 44: It is compulsory for all the students to finish their class work before going home.
A. All the students needn’t finish their class work before going home.
B. All the students must finish theừ class work before going home.
C. All the students may finish their class work before going home.
D. All the students can’t finish their class work before going home.
Question 45: “I’m going to have a job interview tomorrow,” said Paul.
A. Paul said that I am going to have a job interview tomorrow.
B. Paul said that he was going to have a job interview the following day.
C. Paul said that I was going to have a job interview the following day.
D. Paul said that he was going to have a job interview tomorrow.
Mark the letter А B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 46: My mother always (A) give me a (B) big hug before I go (C) to school in the (D) morning.
Question 47: Reading books, listening to music, and (A) play sports (B) are among (C) the most popular
pleasure (D) activities.
Question 48: One necessary (A) preventive measure to be (B) taken is that the (C) public should be on the (D)
outlook for symptoms of the disease.
Mark the letter А, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49: Some mobile applications are very tempting. They may expose users to identity theft.
A. So tempting are some mobile applications that they limit users’ exposure to identity theft.
B. Tempting though some mobile applications are, they may expose users to identity theft.
C. It is the temptation of identity theft that exposes users to some mobile applications.
D. Not only is identity theft tempting, it also exposes users to some mobile applications.
Question 50: The English patient made a miraculous recovery from Covid-19. This was thanks to the efforts
of the Vietnamese medical staff.
A. If the English patient had made a miraculous recovery from Covid-19, the Vietnamese medical staff would
have made efforts.
В. But for the efforts of the Vietnamese medical staff, the English patient couldn’t have made a miraculous
recovery from Covid-19.
C. Without the efforts of the Vietnamese medical staff, the English patient couldn’t make a miraculous
recovery from Covid-19.
D. Suppose that the English patient made a miraculous recovery from Covid-19, the Vietnamese medical staff
would make efforts.