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18

OET Online Test 4

Page 199
OET ONLINE - LISTENING
TEST 4

A4.1
Mrs Black
Patient
Patient's reasons for family recently moved to the area
presenting concerned daughter
Name: (1) ______________
Details about daughter
Age: (2)- ______________
doesn't eat (3)- ______________anymore
eats in (4)- ______________
Mia's eating habits
skips (5)- ______________often
change in eating habits began last year
good student but (6)- ______________
has been having trouble (7) ________________ lately
Mia's school situation
has a few close friends but not boyfriend
mum thinks Mia is concerned about (8)- ______________
does ballet
lies around in her room
mum reports Mia has (9)- ______________recently
weighs herself a lot
Mia's physical health
looks at herself in the mirror
doesn’t sleep well (tired and moody)
sometimes has headaches and has taken (10)-_________
may have been (11) ______________
Doctor's advice for Mrs schedule follow-up appointment with Mia and parents
Black possible referral to a (12) ______________

Page 200
A4.2
Patient Ryan Henderson

Patient's description of symptoms


pain located in the left knee (13) ______________
pain began 4 weeks ago (noticed first when running)
described pain as (14) ______________
worse going from sitting to standing position or when sitting with a (15) ______________
worse (16) ______________ in the day
doesn't wake patient at night
no other symptoms noted (pins, and needles, numbness)
Medical history
(17) ______________left knee 15 years ago
scare still visible (no associated discomfort)
broke little toe on left foot aged 10
broke fibula in (18) ______________ aged 25
broke little finger on right hand last year
last year bursitis in (19) ______________
Previous treatment
(20) ______________ for bursitis
stopped running for 6 months
did stretching and (21) ______________ two times a week
treatment helped - started running again last Xmas
Physical examination findings
niggly pain in front knee cap standing on left leg
half squat caused pain in (22) ______________
pain in left knee worse after half squat (sharp pain)
left knee felt (23) ______________ on strength testing
Diagnosis
left knee-cap appears to be misaligned
iliotibial band is tight
(24) ______________ on outside of left knee (underlying inflammation)

Page 201
B4
1- You hear a doctor talking to a patient who has been having trouble
with his water.
The doctor wants to confirm if the patient

Select one:
A. has had burning when passing water.
B. has a blockage in their kidneys.
C. has high blood pressure.

2- You hear a nurse briefing her colleague about a patient.


What does she want her colleague to do?
Select one:
A. Check the patient is receiving the correct amount of fluids.
B. Order another chest radiograph to check for an effusion.
C. Confirm the patient is stable and check his blood culture.

3- You hear part of a consultation at a GP practice with a patient


suffering from depression and sleep disturbances.
The GP recommends cognitive behavioural therapy because
Select one:
A. there are better ways for the patient to respond to life's challenges.
B. it will help the patient better manage the way he feels when stressed.
C. the patient needs to control his anger and medication isn't working.

Page 202
4- You hear a nurse seeking advice from a doctor.
Why does the nurse telephone the doctor?
Select one:
A. She would like to know how to proceed with the patient.
B. The patient is in intense pain and has a fever.
C. She suspects that the patient has an infection.

5- You hear the principal of an aged care home talking to staff about
osteoporosis.
She wants to highlight that
Select one:
A. there are now treatments available for men.
B. residents are not getting enough calcium and vitamin D.
C. a lot of the residents may already have osteoporosis.

6- You hear two nurses discussing a patient, Mrs Robbins.


Julie says Mrs Robbins refused to mobilise because
Select one:
A. she was happy having a sponge bath.
B. she wanted to hear directly from the doctor.
C. she was upset and wanted to be left alone.

Page 203
C4.1
1- DrTredellow believes snoring poses concerns because
Select one:

A. it is possible for anyone to become a snorer.

B. it contributes to several other health issues.

C. everyone has an upper airway that collapses.

2- DrTredellow says the main cause of snoring is


Select one:

A. drinking too much.

B. being overweight.

C. a narrow airway.

3- According to DrTredellow there may be societal impacts from snoring for a person who
Select one:

A. is suffering from obesity.

B. has concentration issues.

C. is worried about their snoring.

4- What point does DrTredellow make about obstructive sleep apnoea?


Select one:

A. snoring sometimes causes people to stop breathing.

B. snoring can be linked to obstructive sleep apnoea.

C. obstructive sleep apnoea and snoring are similar.

5- DrTredellow feels research on carotoid artery atherosclerosis


Select one:

A. is still in its infancy despite highlighting some serious issues.

B. shows that snoring may be far more dangerous than once believed.

C. demonstrates a clear connection between snoring and heart disease.

6- What does DrTredellow say about the treatment for snoring?


Select one:

A. Making specific lifestyle changes contributes to a reduction in snoring.

B. There are too many causes of snoring to be able to treat them all.

C. Treatment is best provided by a recognised sleep physician

Page 204
C4.2
1- Why does Dr Munro say he volunteered to treat Ebola patients in Liberia?

Select one:

A. because of the high death rate from Ebola in Africa.

B. because medical treatment in Africa can be aggressive.

C. because he believed he had a duty to try and help.

2- Dr Munro says the patient’s he treated were often afraid because


Select one:

A. there was a high death rate for patients who received treatment.

B. family members didn't believe that treatment was helping.

C. they didn't trust the doctors because they were foreigners.

3- What does Dr Munro say about the specialised clothing he had to wear?
Select one:

A. That he spent more time rehydrating than treating patients.

B. That patients found it similar to what is worn in a hospital.

C. That it affected the way he would treat his patients.

4- Why does Dr Munro believe the case of the young girl is tragic?
Select one:

A. It highlights how even young children can get Ebola.

B. It demonstrates how families were affected by the disease.

C. It is a situation that only affected a small group of patients.

5- Treating Ebola patients in Liberia has made Dr Munro


Select one:

A. improve how he manages the emotional needs of his patients.

B. realise that seeing patients suffering is part of a doctor's job.

C. understand that doctors can't do everything for their patients.

6- Dr Munro believes Ebola may spread to other parts of the world because
Select one:

A. it takes longer for the disease to develop than people think.

B. plane travel has made the world a much smaller place.

C. an infected person in a crows could spread the disease.

Page 205
OET Online
Test 4 – Answer

Listening Part A4.1: Answer Key

1. Mia
2. Fifteen
3. With family
4. Her room
5. Breakfast
6. She works hard
7. Concentrating
8. Been a bit shy and reserved
9. Become quite thin
10. Laxatives
11. Anorexia
12. Psychiatrist

Listening Part A4.2: Answer Key

13. Bellow knee cap


14. Niggling
15. Knee bent
16. Night
17. Cut
18. Right ankle
19. Left hip
20. Physiotherapy
21. Yoga
22. Both knees
23. Weak
24. Minor swelling

Page 206
Part B4
1. B

2. C

3 .B

4. A

5. A

6 .B

Part C4.1
1.B
2.C
3.C
4.B
5.A
6.C

Part C4.2
1.C
2.A
3.C
4.B
5.A
6.A

Page 207
19

OET Online Test 5

Page 208
OET ONLINE- LISTENING
TEST 5

A5.1
Mr Mcdonald
Patient
 removal of lump from back
Details about procedure  lump located near (1) ______________
 worried about (2) ______________ after
operation.

 has (3) ______________


Medical history  duration - approximately 5 years

 trouble (4) ______________


 falls over sometimes
 sometimes freezes in one spot (akinesia)
Physical problems
 (5) ______________ shake a lot
 (6) ______________ arms

 (7) ______________ in bed


 reaching for things
 turning around when (8) ______________ from a
Problems with daily chair
activities  tying shoelaces
 doing and undoing (9) ______________
 untidy (10) ______________

 cramps at night - 12 months


 patient's (11) ______________ is affected
Other issues  recently changed medication - cramps (12)
______________

Page 209
A5.2
Patient chloe

6 months ago Valium from GP (1)______________ began


4 months ago discharged from hospital

3 weeks ago  felt like she was going to fall over 


(2)______________
 trouble walking
 heavy legs
 palpitations
 possible (3)______________
Patient's description of  became (4)______________
symptoms  heavy arms
 difficult to (5)______________ things 
(6)______________ in arms

 busy lifestyle
Possible causes  possible underlying (7)______________

 early stage (8)______________ in hands

Other symptoms  married for two years


 husband - steel fitter (own business)
 fights about keep the (9)______________
 have seen a gynaecologist (10)______________
Personal history waiting on husband's test results
 returning in (11)______________

 prescribed (12)______________ for anxietyfollow-


Recommendations up appointment in two weeks

Page 210
B5
1- You hear a doctor talking to the daughter of a patient from an
aged care home.
The doctor wants to
Select one:
A. ensure that Mrs Cox's father has a good quality of life.
B. advise Mrs Cox that her father has Alzheimer's disease.
C. explain the improvements in medical treatment to Mrs Cox.

2- You hear a consultant giving a talk to a group of trainees.


What is the purpose of the talk?
Select one:
A. to highlight the symptoms associated with a head injury.
B. to discuss the importance of waking patients after a head injury.
C. to convey the significance of the initial 24 hours after a head injury.

3- You head a vet talking to a client who brought this pet cat,
Jimmy, to the vet clinic.
What does the vet say has caused Jimmy's problem urinating?
Select one:
A. Stress from renovations.
B. A fatal urethral obstruction.
C. Struvite cyrstals in his urethra

Page 211
4- You hear the nurse unit manager (NUM) discussing the
progress if a patient at a multi-disciplinary team meeting.
What does she indicate about the patient's son?
Select one:
A. That he hasn't been feeding the patient.
B. That the patient is largely dependent on him.
C. That he is having problems in his role as a carer.

5- You hear a radiographer talking to nursing staff at an aged


care centre.
The radiographer is
Select one:
A. helping nurses prepare patients for CT scans.
B. stressing the importance of contrast media in CT scans.
C. highlighting problems that occur when conducting CT scans.

6- You hear a GP discussing psoriasis with a patient.


The GP recommends sunbed treatment because
Select one:
A. UVB light is unique in a hospital setting.
B. there is currently a shortage of cream.
C. it will help with the effects of the rash.

Page 212
C5.1
1- What is the main focus of Sally's talk on tetanus?
Select one:

A. It is impossible to avoid tetanus bacteria.

B. It is essential to be vaccinated against tetanus.

C. It is important to develop natural tetanus immunity.

2- Sally believes that deaths from tetanus still occur because


Select one:

A. the bacteria is about to infect a person through the tiniest of wounds.

B. infected people don't seek medical treatment early enough.

C. not enough people are immunised against tetanus.

3- Why do some people believe the tetanus vaccine isn't necessary?


Select one:

A. Tetanus bacteria can't enter a person's bloodstream.

B. Tetanus bacteria are everywhere, giving people natural immunity.

C. Tetanus bacteria aren't affected by medication or vaccination.

4- Sally suggests the woman didn't understand the dangers of tetanus because
Select one:

A. she hasn't undergone a recent vaccination.

B. she sought medical treatment very late.

C. she ignored many early warning signs.

5- Sally highlights the case of the 4-year-old boy to


Select one:

A. explain the symptoms of tetanus infection.

B. show how tetanus can affect small children.

C. illustrate how difficult it is to diagnose tetanus.

6- Why does Sally believe the man's case highlights how everyone is at risk of tetanus?
Select one:

A. Because he arrived at hospital with no health complaints.

B. Because the man had no injuries, but he still had tetanus.

C. Because he couldn't remember when he was immunised

Page 213
C5.2
1- DrMene suggests that her role as CMO required her to
Select one:

A. use a range of care options to assist athletic performance.

B. work longer hours than usual to manage all the injuries.

C. exercise sympathy because it was busy for everyone.

2- DrMene says the medical support of athletes


Select one:

A. was tailored to the specific needs of the individual.

B. was the same as treating patients at a medical clinic.

C. depended on the type of health care provider available.

3- What is DrMene's view on providing care for life-threatening injuries?


Select one:

A. A level of team work would have ensured a positive outcome.

B. They knew there wouldn't be any to attend at the Olympics.

C. If they had occurred, flexible treatment would have been required.

4- DrMene says her team prevented injuries by


Select one:

A. reducing the amount of competition and travel for each athlete.

B. evaluating what athletes ate and what they did after competing.

C. having more advanced technology than other competing nations.

5- DrMene was impressed with he software they used because


Select one:

A. it was particularly useful for musculoskeletal injuries.

B. it had tremendous communication potential.

C. it can help in critical care situations.

6- DrMene thinks any physician wanting to treat athletes at a major sporting event should
Select one:

A. understand that you won't make a lot of money doing it.

B. apply what they learn at these events to their private practice.

C. take the time to forge connections that enhance your reputation.

Page 214
OET Online
Test 5 – Answer

Listening Part A5.1: Answer Key

1. Waist
2. Recovering
3. Parkinson's disease
4. Walking
5. Hand
6. Stiff
7. Turning over
8. Standing
9. Buttons
10. Hand writing
11. Sleep
12. Reduced

Listening Part A5.2 : Answer Key


1. Dizzy spells
2. Shifty / Trembly
3. Panic attack
4. Breathless
5. Lift
6. Tingling
7. Stress
8. Arthritis
9. Family
10. Couple of
11. Month
12. Ativan

Page 215
Part B5
1. A

2. C

3 .C

4. B

5.A

6 .C

Part C5.1
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. B

Part C5.2
1. A
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. C

Page 216
20

OET Online Test 6

Page 217
OET ONLINE - LISTENING
TEST 6

Miss Wells
A6.1 Patient

22 years old
lives with partner
Background details
never been pregnant
normal (1)______________ 3 months ago

Condition history
sharp stomach pain (2) ______________
Feburary started a few days before period
ended when period finished
constant pain - (3) ______________
(4) ______________ performed
After Feburary endometrosis (5) ______________ and on left ovary
took the pill without break
prescribed progesterone – weight gain, bloating and (6______________
readmitted to hospital
May (7) ______________ treatment
pain significantly reduced
pain returned – condition similar to February
August pain at different times of month
significant pain during (8) ______________

regular periods - most recent (9) ______________


never smoked
Medical history drinks at weekends - 1 or 2 drinks
no (10) ______________ in the family
regular bowel movements

Patient's concerns wants (11) ______________


(12) ______________ affecting her mood

Page 218
A6.2
Patient Mr Georges
Consultations with Mrs Georges, patient's wife
Background details
 Mrs Georges is feeling (1) ______________
 Mr Georges used to be very (2)______________  son
lives close by (3)_________________
 also has a daughter

 confused by common tasks


 has trouble (4) ______________
 he was initially (5) ______________ by his condition
 limited awareness now
 frequently repeated (6) ______________
Patient history  (7) ______________ very little now
 needs help when (8) ______________
 problem getting him to (9) ______________
 no longer interested in his appearance
 has recently started to (10) ______________ from house
 has trouble telling (11) ______________ apart
 sometimes plays with (12) ______________

Page 219
B6

1- You hear two doctors discussing a patient.


Dr Jones speaks to Dr Khan because he wants to
Select one:
A. confirm his own diagnosis.
B. hear Dr Khan’s diagnosis.
C. send the patient for tests.

2- You hear a dietician talking to a patient.


What is she doing?
Select one:
A. Showing the patient alternative diet plans that eliminate fat.
B. Explaining why the doctor wants the patient to eat a low-fat diet.
C. Empathising with the patient about the challenges of reducing fat.

3- You hear a professor of emergency medicine giving a


presentation to a group of trainee doctors.
The presentation is about
Select one:
A. why European wasps are a problem.
B. what European wasps like to eat.
C. how European wasps sting.

Page 220
4- You hear a GP talking to a regular patient who has been having
kidney problems.
What does the GP suggest?
Select one:
A. That the patient’s lifestyle will change forever.
B. That there is more than one way to treat the patient.
C. That the patient needs dialysis for the rest of their life.

5- You hear a physiotherapist in a hospital talking with John, a new


patient.
The physiotherapist is
Select one:
A. providing sports recovery options.
B. explaining why warm showers are beneficial.
C. giving instructions to assist with recovery from an injury.

6- You hear a specialist physician and a nurse discussing a patient’s


treatment.
The nurse is unable to help the physician because
Select one:
A. she isn't senior enough
B. she isn't familiar with the patient.
C. she doesn't understand the treatment options.

Page 221
C6.1
1- What does Dr Dugan suggest defines a patient’s health literacy?
Select one:

A. how frequently they use available health services.

B. how well they communicate with health professionals.

C. how clearly they understand health-related information.

2- As a result of her own research, and other studies, Dr Dugan believes


Select one:

A. most patients don't listen carefully enough to health professionals.

B. patient health outcomes rely heavily on a person's health literacy.

C. governments aren't doing enough to assist with health literacy.

3- Dr Dugan says most health professionals have at one time


Select one:

A. had complaints made about their poor communication.

B. incorrectly assumed their instructions were understood.

C. forgotten how to speak to patients in their own language.

4- Why does Dr Dugan share the examples about previous patients?


Select one:

A. to show how she teaches health literacy.

B. to illustrate findings from recent research studies.

C. to demonstrate the importance of clear communication.

5- The paediatrician example about the "teach-back" method demonstrates


Select one:

A. how easy it is to overlook whether or not a patient has understood instructions.

B. what patients do and do not understand about health literacy.

C. the best way to confirm what a patient understands.

6- What does Dr Dugan make about improving patient safety and care?
Select one:

A. It is essential to have reliable health care for all patients.

B. Focusing on acute care settings is the most important aspect.

C. Delivery of information beyond the traditional care settings is vital.

Page 222
C6.2
1- Dr Marshall believes that the low-fat era is coming to an end because
Select one:

A. the US Dietary Guidelines have changed towards fat.

B. 35 years ago the US Dietary Guidelines were very different.

C. fat and cholesterol are no longer linked in the US Dietary Guidelines.

2- Dr Marshall suggests that LDL particles


Select one:

A. are more dangerous when they’re smaller.

B. have nothing to do with saturated fat.

C. pose no risk to a person’s health.

3- What are Dr Marshall's views on saturated fats?


Select one:

A. Refined carbohydrates are more dangerous than saturated fat.

B. Not all saturated fats are the same as others.

C. Vegetable oil should replace saturated fat.

4- Why doesn't Dr Marshall believe people should stop worrying about cholesterol?
Select one:

A. Biological solutions haven’t been able to solve the problem.

B. People continue to eat too many foods high in fat and sugar.

C. More research is required to understand how fat enters the blood.

5- Dr Marshall says there is no agreement over nutritional science because


Select one:

A. there are too many opinions when it comes to a person’s diet.

B. there are a lot of different ways to interpret the information.

C. there isn’t enough money to fund high quality research.

6- In Dr Marshall's opinion, many organisations and experts need to


Select one:

A. become more open-minded about embracing current studies.

B. encourage more people to eat a diet high in vegetables.

C. stop saying that eating saturated fat is bad.

Page 223
OET Online
Test 6 – Answer

Listening Part A6.1: Answer Key

1. Cervical smear
2. At the left side / In February
3. Wouldn't do away
4. Laparoscope
5. Behind her womb
6. Acne
7. Diathermy
8. Intercourse
9. 3 weeks ago
10. Serious illness
11. Some tests
12. Getting pregnant

Listening Part A6.2 : Answer Key

1. Miss
2. Alert and active
3. The corner
4. Remember names
5. Frustrated
6. Same question
7. Speaks
8. Dressing
9. Forgot
10. Wander off
11. Difference
12. The Controls

Page 224
Part B6
1. A

2. C

3 .A

4. B

5.C

6 .B

Part C6.1
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. C

Part C6.2
1.A
2.A
3.B
4.C
5.B
6.A

Page 225
21

IRS Test 1

Page 226
Listening test

Study guide for OET © IRS Group 2018 11

Page 227
Extract 1: Questions 1 - 12

You hear a psychologist talking to a client called Candice May. For questions 13-24, complete the notes
with a word or short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient : Candice May

Reason for appointment : tension due to relationship issues

(1) ________________________________ in the workplace

makes her (2) ________________________________

Background to the condition: experiencing difficulties for the last (3) _____________________

mother is sick for the last 3-4 months

no treatment taken

Present condition : (4) _______________________________ is bit of difficult

doesn’t have (5) _______________________________ to talk to

priorities dealing with issues with (6) _______________________

thinks she is putting a lot of pressure on him

Advice offered : (7) ________________________________ on the relationship area

Further enquiries : (8) __________________________ of counselling sessions

(9) ______________________________ involved for extra sessions

Session schedule : can (10) _____________________________ as long as required

difficult to provide set time

(11) ___________________________ book a session for next week

can focus on the (12) ________________________ of relationship

Study guide for OET © IRS Group 2018

Page 228
Extract 2: Questions 13-24

You hear a psychologist talking to a client called Jane Speirs. For questions 13-24, complete the notes
with a word or short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient : Jane Speirs

Description of the condtion: feeling (13) ________________________________

(14) ________________________________ in the muscles

unable to play netball

Early symptoms : started few weeks ago with a (15) _____________________________

(16) ________________________________ head

no treatment taken

can’t do (17) ________________________________ really

Further details : (18) _______________________________ fine

weight steady

no temperature with cold

(19) ________________________________ regular


Diagnosis : (20) ________________________________ around the body

enlarged spleen

suspected (21) ________________________________


red throat
Management : (22) __________________________ to confirm diagnosis

test for (23) ________________________________

Advice given : adequate rest

no specific remedies

body cures itself

(24) ___________________________ diet and fluid intake

follow up at the end of week

That is the end of Part A.

Study guide for OET © IRS Group 2018

Page 229
Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in
a different healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
You’ll have time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a health recommendation on free sugar reduction

What does the expert call for

A Reduction in determination of ill health


B Prevent the onset of the condition
C Eradication of non-communicable illness

26. You hear a health expert talk on pregnancy in women with epilepsy

What impact does seizure have on childbirth?

A Associated risks with delivery are unlikely


B Substantial risk of post partum bleeding
C Mother will remain seizure free for a year

27. You hear an advice on codeine use by an advanced practice pharmacist.

The speaker focuses on the biophysical model to

A explain the normal action of the drug


B reveal the addictive responses seen
C convey the working of analgesics

Study guide for OET © IRS Group 2018

Page 230
28. You hear a registered nurse talk on advantages of aged care channel

How does the channel benefit as a resource

A it aids in training and developing


B it helps in preparing new recruits
C it supplements other equipment

29. You hear a doctor discuss on carT-cell therapy

The new immunotherapy involves

A increasing the intensity of resistance


B altering cell structure of pathogens
C understanding the patient’s genetics

30. You hear a patient handover by two nurses

Detail observation of the patient outlines

A cessation of smoking two years ago


B constancy maintained in oxygen saturation
C daily independent performing of ADLs

That is the end of Part B. Now look at Part C.

Study guide for OET © IRS Group 2018

Page 231
Part C
In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31 to 36

You hear a lecture on migraine by Dr Benjamin Durette.


You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

31. As per the doctor’s opinion, what may be the cause of migraine?

A Hormonal changes affecting the body


B Oedema of blood vessels inside the brain
C Aura that precedes the onset of headache

32. According to the doctor, why is aura benign?

A Since there is a difficulty in focussing eye sight


B Only rarer forms affect both sensation and speech
C The time duration during which the conditon lasts

33. What according to the doctor is visually the most widely relieving method?

A Effective sleep until the headache subsides


B Vomiting to reduce the chances of regurgitation
C Wait until the headache weans itself away

Study guide for OET © IRS Group 2018

Page 232
34. How can hormonal fluctuations be thought to be a trigger according?

A Lack of sleep even if the difference is marginal


B Around half of the women likely experience while menstruating
C The onset of the condition during sudden exercise.

35. Why does the speaker think ice treatment can reduce the impact?

A Blood vessels become swollen with blood and dilate


B It cools the blood vessels therapy resulting in relief
C It contracts the vessels and reduces the blood flow

36. According to the doctor, what can be administered to sporadic migraine?

A Relaxation techniques that include bio feedback.


B Prophylactic medication which is taken regularly
C Over the counter pain relievers like aspirin or ibuprufen

Study guide for OET © IRS Group 2018

Page 233
Extract 2: Questions 37 to 42

You hear a doctor talking about innovations in neuromuscular medicine.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. How did Dr Jeffry become a neuromuscular expert?

A The general neurology training that he started out with


B The fellowship he specialised in neuromuscular medicine
C His background in neurology and the fellowship combined

38. What best describes a typical day of the doctor?

A conducting a variety of procedures such as electromyography


B could be seeing a lot of patients or performing procedures
C seeing patients with rare conditions and serious prognosis

39. What was an exciting development regarding ALS?

A The discovery of genetic biomarkers that can be tested easily


B Ice bucket challenges helped raise funds required for research
C better understanding of its progresses in a particular patient

40. What should be a physician’s priority for an ALS patient

A Rely on treatments that really benefit patients overcome the disorder


B alleviate associated problems so that patients can lead normal lives
C help patients communicate better by helping them not to lose voices

41. What does Dr consider as one of the most under recognised problems with ALS

A How the disorder affects patient’s mental disposition


B The devastation that the diagnosis has on the patient
C The lack of social support that is required for patients

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42. What can patients with diabetic neuropathy expect in the future

A Better pain medication to reduce the pain associated


B Exciting research on drugs that patients are familiar with
C Introduction of newer drugs with greater effectiveness

That is the end of Part C.

You now have two minutes to check your answers.

END OF THE LISTENING TEST.

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LISTENING SUB-TEST 1

PART A: QUESTIONS 1 - 12

1 pressure
2 upset
3 3 months / three months
4 communication
5 anyone
6 partner
7 focus
8 number
9 money
10 continue
11 will
12 topic

PART A: QUESTIONS 13 - 24

13 tired
14 aches and pains
15 cold
16 blocked up
17 anything
18 appetite
19 bowel habits
20 scattered glands
21 glandular fever
22 blood tests
23 anemia
24 keep up

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PART B: QUESTIONS 25 - 30

25 A reduction in determination of ill health


26 A associated risks with delivery are unlikely
27 C convey the working of analgesics
28 B it helps in preparing new recruits
29 B altering cell structure of pathogens
30 C daily independent performing of ADLs

PART C: QUESTIONS 31 - 36

31 A Hormonal changes affecting the body


32 B Only rarer forms affect both sensation and speech
33 A Effective sleep until the headache subsides
34 B Around half of the women likely experience while menstruating
35 C It contracts the vessels and reduces the blood flow
36 C Over the counter pain relievers like aspirin or ibuprufen

PART C: QUESTIONS 37 - 42

37 C His background in neurology and the fellowship combined


38 B could be seeing a lot of patients or performing procedures
39 A The discovery of genetic biomarkers that can be tested easily
40 B alleviate associated problems so that patients can lead normal lives
41 C The lack of social support that is required for patients
42 C Introduction of newer drugs with greater effectiveness

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22

IRS Test 2

Page 238
Listening test

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Page 239
Extract 1. Questions 1 -12
You hear a doctor talking to Tom Levin, a patient with some concerns. For questions 1-12, complete the
notes with a word or a short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient : Tom Levin

Developments before : kept it under control from the gap year


admission recurred towards the end of the (1) __________________________
period
started to put a bit (2) __________________________
to push themselves, some people took (3) _____________________
observed (4) __________________________ building up

Effects of elevated mood : felt that it was his (5) __________________________


started to enjoy the opportunity

Client’s reasoning : did not (6) __________________________ to the best of his ability
and hence did not achieve the first

Further description : felt like he was let off the (7) __________________________
substance abuse took a hold
was before the (8) _________________________ were announced
used a lot of cocaine and (9) __________________________

Predominant thoughts : wanted himself to be the person (10) __________________________


wanted to know
thought he was the man (11) _________________________ the town

Defense Mechanism : did not have to deal with the symptoms during the
university
let it take (12) __________________________ of him

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Extract 2: Questions 13-24

You hear a pediatrician called Dr Thomas talking to the mother of a toddler called Ethan. For questions
13-24, complete the notes with a word or short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient : Ethan Lucas

Description of the condtion: started on (13) ________________________________


red patches (14) ________________________________ and on legs
had (15) ________________________________
went (16) ________________________________

Past visit : blood tests done


viral infection confirmed
called the doctor because rashes turned
(17) ________________________________

: baby was very fuzzy

Possible severe condition : patches could be fatal if (18) ________________________________


found to be negative

Diagnosis : rash goes away and reappers when rubbed


child is alert
(19) ________________________________ ; an allergic reaction

could be response to virus or (20) ________________________


child not very ill

Medication suggested : (21) ________________________________ or benadryl


basic anti-allergy medicines
prednizone may be prescribed if condition worsens
makes children (22) _______________________________and irritable

Duration of illness : could last for 7 to 10 days

Possible trigger factors : (23) ________________________ taken

food such as peanuts or (24) ______________________________


should stop food, if it triggers allergy

That is the end of Part A. Now look at Part B.

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Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have
time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a doctor explain gastroscopy to a patient.

What is the purpose of the doctor’s explanation?

A to make the patient sign the consent form before the procedure
B to reduce the patient’s fear of side effects before the procedure
C to explain possible side effects before signing the consent form

26. You hear a doctor checking a patient’s details with a colleague.

What aspect is the doctor focusing on?

A the patient’s detailed identity


B the patient’s drug administration
C the patient’s overall progress

27. You hear a dentist talking to a patient about implant surgery.

What has the patient misunderstood about the proposed treatment?

A which tooth would be replaced


B the extent of surgery required
C how much it would cost

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28. Yo hear a sports nutritionist talk on challenges in routine work

What must they be wary of?

A adopting to opinion flouted by the sportsperson


B contradictory messages being circulated around
C struggles faced by athletes for optimum BMI

29. You hear a surgeon conducting a debriefing meeting with his team

What problem are they going to follow up immediately?

A procedures not running to schedule


B equipment not being readily available
C paperwork not being dealt with efficiently

30. You hear a nurse handing over to a colleague at the end of her shift.

What does the incoming nurse need to do for the patient?

A contact the doctor about his pain management


B arrange for him to be taken for physiotherapy
C set up some monitoring of his mental acuity

That is the end of Part B. Now look at Part C.

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Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31 to 36

You hear an interview with Dr Larry Appel regarding low GI diet.


You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.

31. What was the reason for the second study?

A to find the effect of salt on blood pressure


B to identify the effect of salt on blood pressure
C to scrutinise ethe effect of fruit and vegetable diet

32. What was the finding of the omnicarb study?

A low glycaemic index was helpful


B signals that are related to LDL
C no effects of low glycaemic index

33. What was gauged from the study on comparision of diets?

A low glycaemic index has no effect on risk factors


B insulin resistance showed a difference in control diet
C LDL cholesterol increased in a low - GI diet

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34. What does the researcher think of the way ahead?

A study of confounding nutrients that travel together


B benefits could be attributed to other aspects
C finding that low glycaemic food are fibre rich

35. What does the doctor think is crucial for obesity?

A cutting back on episodes of calorie consumption


B inexpensive methods to keeping individuals engaged
C tools that assist people to keep track by monitoring

36. What in the speaker’s vies is the reason for chronic kidney disease?

A fluctuation in the body’s acid - base balance


B unchecked consumption of an adverse diet
C accumulated kidney damage due to ageing

Now look at extract two.

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Extract 2: Questions 37 to 42

You hear a gastroenterologist called Catherine Frenette talking about new treatment options for
liver cancer.
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. Why does the interviewer describe the numbers as shocking

A incidence has been hugely higher in the past decade


B unresectable liver cancer was detected in the past decade
C underlying liver conditions mutated into liver cancer

38. How does Dr Frenette see alcohol-induced cirrhosis leading to liver cancer

A reducing it should be a primary focus on the fight against liver cancer


B fatty liver developed from alcoholism is leading to more liver cancer
C unlike popular perception, alcoholism is not the leading trigger factor

39. Why are most liver cancers treated by liver doctors and not cancer doctors?

A there are not many treatment options available for liver cancers yet
B liver cancers typically have an underlying liver condition behind it
C the best treatment options are surgical including transplantations

40. Why is it harder to diagnose liver cancer unlike other cancers?

A the symptoms are all over the place and hence not possible to diagnose
B liver conditions reveal fewer symptoms until they have progressed much
C they symptoms for liver diseases and liver cancer are radically varied

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41. How does the doctor regard liver function test?

A she considers it to be simple lab test that should be done more often
B she feels that test reports can sometimes be confusing and is unreliable
C she is critical about primary care doctors not conducting the test annually

42. Why does the doctor think that liver cancer doesn’t get the attention despite being a major
concern?

A patients do not present due to the social stigma associated with liver problems
B liver cancer is ranked the fifth most common cause of cancer related deaths
C it is one of the few cancer deaths that is contrastingly increasing in frequency

That is the end of Part C.

You now have two minutes to check your answers.

THAT IS THE END OF THE LISTENING TEST

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LISTENING SUB-TEST 2

PART A: QUESTIONS 1 - 12

1 university
2 more
3 ritalin
4 momentum
5 time
6 perform
7 leash
8 exam results
9 MDMA
10 everyone
11 about
12 hold

PART A: QUESTIONS 13 - 24

13 Tuesday
14 (right) across (his) belly
15 runny nose
16 camping
17 purple / purplish
18 meningococcus
19 hives
20 immune response
21 claritin
22 grumpy
23 medication
24 eggs / strawberries / shell fish

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PART B: QUESTIONS 25 - 30

25 C to explain possible side effects before signing the consent form


26 B the patient’s drug administration
27 B the extent of surgery required
28 B contradictory messages being circulated around
29 A procedures not running to schedule
30 C set up some monitoring of his mental acuity

PART C: QUESTIONS 31 - 36

31 A to find the effect of salt on blood pressure


32 C no effects of low glycaemic index
33 C LDL cholesterol increased in a low - GI diet
34 B benefits could be attributed to other aspects
35 B inexpensive methods to keeping individuals engaged
36 B unchecked consumption of an adverse diet

PART C: QUESTIONS 37 - 42

37 A incidence has been hugely higher in the past decade


38 C unlike popular perception, alcoholism is not the leading trigger factor
39 B liver cancers typically have an underlying liver condition behind it
40 B liver conditions reveal fewer symptoms until they have progressed much
41 A she considers it to be simple lab test that should be done more often
42 A patients do not present due to the social stigma associated with liver problems

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23

IRS Test 3

Page 250
Listening test

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Page 251
Extract 1. Questions 1 -12
You hear Dr Daniel talking to Samara, a patient preparing for a surgery. For questions 1-12, complete the
notes with a word or a short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient : Samara Cox

Reason for visit : Pre-operative discussion

Surgery :joint (1) ______________________________

On the day of surgery : Morning - patient taken to (2) ____________________

Surgeons manipulate the patient

patient taken to (3) ____________________

antibiotics administered

patient set up for (4) ____________________ monitoring

patient rolled up in (5) ____________________ position

Short-term restrictions : limited activity allowed

patient should limit (6) ____________________ standing or


walking to about 30 minutes

avoid repetitive (7) _______________________

Long-term restrictions : avoid things that are (8) ____________________ to the back

avoid certain aerobic exercises

should not do extreme yoga postures

Mobility issues : surgery aims to limit (9) _________________________

mobility will improve after surgery.

Pain management : patient to start (10) _______________________ start by afternoon

pre-operative pain will be gone

: post-operative pain remains and is more


(11) _______________________ than pre-operative pain

pain (12) _______________________ less by next morning

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Extract 2. Questions 13 -24
You hear Dr Mark talking to a George Hill, a patient who has eye problems. For questions 13-24, complete the
notes with a word or a short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient : George Hill

Description of symptoms : Redness in the (13) ______________________________ of the eye

On the day of surgery (14) ____________________ conjunctivitis

More tears than usual

Thick yellow discharge that (15) ____________________ over


the eyelashes, especially after sleep

Itchy and (16) ____________________

Blurred vision, More sensitive to light

Stuffy or runny nose

Causes An allergic reaction to (17) ____________________

A common cold

Diagnosis : (18) _________________________ done in the lab

Recommendations : Through history collection

Always keep the eyes clean

: Wash or change the (19) _______________________ every day


until the infection goes away

Don’t touch or rub the infected eye

Don’t wear and never share eye make up,

(20) _______________________ or contact lenses

Don’t put a (21) _______________________ over the eye as it may


worsen the infection

Protect the eyes from dirt, especially from the


(22) _______________________

Give adequate rest to the eyes

Apply (23) _______________________ eye drops

Stay away from work for a few days

An (24) _______________________ will help to clear the symptoms


within a few days
That is the end of Part A. Now look at Part B.

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Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have
time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear an oncologist explain thyroid scan and uptake

What is the focus on the talk?

A help patients decide whether they should go for a thyroid scan or not
B explain the procedure in detail and preparation to be done in advance
C reassure that the scan is a safe procedure without major side effects

26. You hear a delivery on hospital discharge meeting

What role is most crucial for physiotherapists

A explaining how to undergo full rehabilitation


B examining the extent of mobility after surgery
C encouraging the patient to perform exercise daily

27. You hear a professional talking on a code blue system

What does he say is the distinctive feature of the system

A increased power output from the tool


B customisation to specific standards
C identification of the source of call.

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28. You hear a brief on when to do direct speech therapy for preschool stuttering

How long must pass before a thorough diagnosis

A when the child is distressed about stuttering


B after 6 months from observation of disorder
C as precipitating factors increase in intensity

29. You hear an update on the change in criteria for glaucoma

To qualify for the conditon © IRS Group

A the patient must have more than 25mm of mercury


B it must be a co-morbidity of neuromuscular disease
C the level should fall within the adequate category

30. You hear a health policy statement on structured reporting in a cardiac cath lab

What aim does the speaker state

A accessing information to improve patient quality


B utlising consistent information for quality care
C compiling documents to improve routine work

That is the end of Part B. Now look at Part C.

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Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31 to 36

You hear an associate professor Stacy Carter talking on overdiagnosis.


You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.

31. Why is having a definition to overdiagnosis important?

A results in an absence of conviction when communicating


B lack of clarity affects policies and the general public
C lack of efficiency if several meanings do exist

32. What does she fear about too much medicine

A it results in difficulty to recuperate


B it is detrimental to overall health
C allocation must be based on need

33. What is the fundamental aspect of overdiagnosis?

A identifying areas of benefit from treatment


B trying to balance the effects of both
C locating the harm of too much medicine

34. Which perspective must be taken into account?

A Primarily from the patient


B chiefly based on a consensus
C of the clinicians treating it

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35. How must the issue be addressed?

A by covering all basic social needs


B by recognising the motives behind it
C by identifying inherent social factors

36. The narrow sense meant by the speaker is

A having a set of special parameters


B rethinking the diagnostic categories
C bordering the definitive boundaries

Now look at extract two.

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Extract 2: Questions 37 to 42

You hear an interview with Tom Clarke, a science expert on break through in breast cancer
research
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. What does Mr Clarke say about the new technology

A they are beneficial for personalised care of patients


B they are tailored to the requirements of the patient
C it redefines the spectrum of identifying varying diseases

38. What does the study prove, according ot the speaker?

A treatment course for a specific condition can be mentioned


B large studies are plausible for respective conditions
C breast cancer falls broadly into ten main genetic groups

39. What is the speaker’s view on breast cancer tumor types?

A present understanding of treatment is flawed


B certain conditions have positive outcomes
C it can ensure appropriate treatment

40. Why does the speaker advocate a ‘more tailored approach’?

A due to complexities in the treatment


B because of the many facets of illness
C since the condition is a sum total of disease

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41. How do the advanced tests the doctors?

A increase the tools for diagnosis


B prevent the development of conditions
C ascertain the treatment type required

42. What does Mr Clarke ask to be wary of?

A the tests will take more time to be available


B the clinical study has been performed already
C newly diagnosed women can participate in it

That is the end of Part C.

You now have two minutes to check your answers.

THAT IS THE END OF THE LISTENING TEST

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LISTENING SUB-TEST 3

PART A: QUESTIONS 1 - 12

1 fixation
2 pre-operative area
3 surgery site
4 neuromuscular
5 prone
6 prolonged
7 bending over
8 jarring
9 micro motion
10 physical therapy
11 tolerable
12 markedly

PART A: QUESTIONS 13 - 24

13 white
14 swollen
15 crusts
16 burning eyes
17 pollen
18 eye examination
19 pillow case
20 eye drops
21 patch
22 irritants
23 over the counter
24 antihistamine

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PART B: QUESTIONS 25 - 30

25 B explain the procedure in detail and preparation to be done in advance


26 B examining the extent of mobility after surgery
27 B customisation to specific standards
28 B after 6 months from observation of disorder
29 C the level should fall within the adequate category
30 B utlising consistent information for quality care

PART C: QUESTIONS 31 - 36

31 C lack of efficiency if several meanings do exist


32 A it results in difficulty to recuperate
33 C locating the harm of too much medicine
34 B chiefly based on a consensus
35 C by identifying inherent social factors
36 A having a set of special parameters

PART C: QUESTIONS 37 - 42

37 B they are tailored to the requirements of the patient


38 A treatment course for a specific condition can be mentioned
39 C it can ensure appropriate treatment
40 C since the condition is a sum total of disease
41 C ascertain the treatment type required
42 A the tests will take more time to be available

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24

IRS Test 4

Page 262
Listening test

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Page 263
Extract 1. Questions 1 -12
You hear a nurse talking to Elizabeth, a patient who requires follow-up care.
For questions 1-12, complete the notes with a word or a short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient : Elizabeth Campbell


Reason for the visit : referral to (1) __________________________ health nurse

pain in the back

experienced discomfort and (2) ____________________ in the back

used pain relief oinments to relive the symptoms.

Treatment history : pain started one and a half years ago

was (3) _______________ a pain killer.

hospitalised © IRS Group for 2 days.

12 months ago : underwent blood tests and (4) _________________________ test.

6 months ago (5) _________________________ was found.

surgery to remove a (6) _______________________ of the bone

Recent pain control (7) _________________________ 3 times a day

alternative modalities of pain relief

smokes (8) _______________________ (dope)

Mental status : seems (9) __________________ and anxious because of tumour

considered (10) _______________________ because of bouts of


depression

Assessment & follow-up : arrange for (11) _______________________

alternative therapies - accupressure, accupuncture


and (12) ___________________

see a specialist

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Extract 2. Questions 13 -24

You hear Dr Juvenita talking to a Griffith Alexander, a patient with back problems. For questions 13-24, complete the
notes with a word or a short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient : Griffith Alexander

Patient’s condition : back spasm

Presenting symptoms (13) ____________________ , not sleeping well

exhausted with discomfort

Treatment options : (14) ____________________ for the back pain spasm, medication
for pain.

exercises and heating pad © IRS Group

back pain gets better with the (15) ____________________

Patient’s request : needs an (16) ____________________ since he is concerned

might have a (17) _________________________ or slipped disc


that requires attention

Explanation given : has (18) _______________________ that reveals other than a back
spasm

No red flags to be concerned about

(19) ___________________ treatment is enough for most patients

Patient’s concern : been over a week, will be (20) _______________________ ,


disabled for life

will be informed if something is wrong

(21) _______________________ from the machine may ease the


condition

Advice offered : MRI is an (22) _______________________ study, not a treatment


mode

MRIs may cause harm if its unrequired

most patients get better within (23) _______________________


with the prescribed treatment

Patient’s response : consider an MRI if other (24) _______________________ present

That is the end of Part A. Now look at Part B.

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Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have
time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a nurse manager instructing a batch on clinical formalities.

What is the instructor trying to convey?

A standard procedure for medication administration


B methods to improve clinical skill and performance
C checklists prepared for a physician’s appointment

26. You hear an extract of a nurse talking about ‘confidence in profession’.

What does the seminar emphasise

A acknowledge the mistake that was committed


B composed and calm admittance of any errors
C understanding that the situation can be overcome

27. You hear a doctor talking about aboriginal mental health

Why did the psychologist say culture bound prevention does not exist?

A because it is not researched thoroughly yet


B since it has not been exposed to it earlier
C due to the lack of evidence to support it

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28. You hear a pharmacist telling a patient about some medication.

Why does she give a verbal explanation of the side effects?

A to highlight their severity


B to ensure the patient understands
C to allow the patient to raise any concerns

29. You hear two nurses discussing about a patient during handover

What was administered to him?

A Stiches on the right shoulder


B morphine and antibiotic drip
C dosage to prevent blood clot

30. You hear a mental health specialist talking about therapeutic interventions

Treatment mode that worked best was by

A assisting the patient overcome sheer solitude


B understanding the person’s cognitive complexities
C empowering the patient by active listening

That is the end of Part B. Now look at Part C.

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Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31 to 36

You hear a presentation on treating scoliosis by a physiotherapist called John Booker.


You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.

31. What general point does John make about physiotherapy

A It allows patients to opt for a less invasive form of treatment.


B It tends to be used in conjunction with other forms of treatment.
C It places more emphasis on prevention than other forms of treatment.

32. John suggests that before treating a patient with scoliosis, the physiotherapist needs

A to develop a treatment plan based on a description of the symptoms.


B to establish whether the cause of the condition has been identified.
C to determine which of the two main types is being presented.

33. John feels that once scoliosis is confirmed, the priority for the multi-disciplinary team
should be

A to determine the severity of the condition.


B to agree how exercises will complement medication.
C to ensure that the patients’ pain is being well managed.

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34. The second phase in John’s preferred treatment plan for scoliosis focuses on

A using new techniques on various joints in the body.


B regaining full movement in the affected part of the spine.
C ensuring the patient has realistic aims regarding the likely outcome.

35. John believes that success in the final phase of treatment depends on

A handing long-term responsibility over to the patient.


B ongoing co-operation between physiotherapist and patient.
C practical assistance supplied by practitioners in other professions.

36. John suggests that patients with mild to moderate scoliosis often

A find the demands of physiotherapy too challenging.


B express doubts about the effectiveness of physiotherapy.
C lack the motivation to gain any benefit from physiotherapy.

Now look at extract two.

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Extract 2: Questions 37 to 42

You hear an interview with Dr Michael Greger, an expert on vegan diet.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. What is the biggest progress to vegan diet as per the doctor.

A clinics operating on plant-based diet


B surge in plant-based nutrition movement
C Palpable changes in health sector

38. Why does the doctor think a change is inevitable?

A majority of the illnesses are largely preventable


B there is a degree of control on human longevity
C risk factors to health have been precipitating

39. The doctor believes sufficient randomised control trials are in existance because

A it does not have the backing of corporate budget


B many people are dying due to preventable illnesses
C it was published in a medical journal two decades ago

40. Why does the expert feel the need to publish resources

A doctors had monopoly over health industry


B access to information by the masses
C to address immediate health concerns

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41. Doctor Michael thinks of a conflict of interest in USDA because

A they refrain from taking measures that are unviable


B the message is to eat more fruits and vegetables
C medical professionals must frame dietary guidelines

42. What is the primary barrier faced by doctors?

A big pharma companies sponsor mainstream medical associations


B they are not paid enough to communicate with patients
C the defeciency of knowledge from medical schools

That is the end of Part C.

You now have two minutes to check your answers.

THAT IS THE END OF THE LISTENING TEST

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LISTENING SUB-TEST 4

PART A: QUESTIONS 1 - 12

1 district
2 stiff feeling
3 prescribed
4 barium meal
5 tumour
6 small part
7 pethadine
8 marijuana
9 depressed
10 suicide
11 counselling (session)
12 yoga

PART A: QUESTIONS 13 - 24

13 unbearable pain
14 something
15 treatment
16 MRI
17 pinched nerve
18 nothing
19 conservative
20 unable to work
21 magnetism
22 imaging
23 4 - 6 weeks
24 symptoms

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PART B: QUESTIONS 25 - 30

25 A standard procedure for medication administration


26 C understanding that the situation can be overcome
27 B since it has not been exposed to it earlier
28 B to ensure the patient understands
29 C dosage to prevent blood clot
30 B understanding the person’s cognitive complexities

PART C: QUESTIONS 31 - 36

31 B It tends to be used in conjunction with other forms of treatment.


32 B to establish whether the cause of the condition has been identified.
33 C to ensure that the patients’ pain is being well managed.
34 B regaining full movement in the affected part of the spine.
35 A handing long-term responsibility over to the patient.
36 B express doubts about the effectiveness of physiotherapy.

PART C: QUESTIONS 37 - 42

37 C Palpable changes in health sector


38 C risk factors to health have been precipitating
39 C it was published in a medical journal two decades ago
40 C to address immediate health concerns
41 A they refrain from taking measures that are unviable
42 C the defecienty of knowledge from medical schools

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25

IRS Test 5

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Listening test

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Extract 1: Questions 1-12

You hear a doctor talking to a patient called Graham, a patient with breathing difficulty.
For questions 1-12, complete the notes with a word or short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient : Graham

Reason for presenting : trouble with (1) ________________________

Description of symptoms : experiences wheezing and breathlessness

(2) ________________________ a lot (3 weeks)

white (3) ________________________ - thought it was a cold

(4) ______________________ getting worse as weeks progressed

very worried when he is (5) _______________________ able to


take breath.

(6) ________________________ are more frequent now

worse at night and in the morning

(7) ________________________ did not go for work yesterday

chest tightness without pressing pain

Precipitating factors : no known (8) ________________________ to dust

no known use of drugs

Further factors : work has been intense

(9) ________________________ has made him anxious

Points to consider : (10) ________________________ had anything like this before

has no other known medical conditions

first time being (11) ________________________

sister and mother has (12) ________________________

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Extract 2: Questions 13-24

You hear a doctor talking to a client called Barbara Roberts, a patient with psychosomatic disorder.
For questions 13-24, complete the notes with a word or short phrase. © IRS Group

You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient : Barbara Roberts

Age : 58 years

Difficulties experienced : terrible trouble with the stomach

(13) ________________________ nearly all the time

often times, feels (14) ________________________

swings between (15) ______________________ and constipation

cramping feeling (16) ________________________

passes very smelly wind

Onset of the condition : about (17) ________________________ ago

Previous treatment and : started with (18) ________________________

investigation took other medications including (19) ________________________

gastroscopy was performed

(20) ________________________ also administered

Assessment of : feels (21) _______________________ pain, can’t be all in the head

insight thought it was an infection that had not cleared

sometimes wonders if its an (22) ________________________

Treatment options : try to bring back few (23) ____________________________

(24) ________________________ between the tablets that are


helping and ones that aren’t

wait for 2-3 months for results to show

keep an eye on the symptoms

That is the end of Part A. Now look at Part B.


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Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have
time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a nurse manager speak to his team.

What needs to be focused on

A effectively pacing the week ahead


B attending to the patient regularly
C ensuring the completion of procedures

26. You hear a doctor discussing with a patient the complications of a surgical procedure

The risks associated with the procedure are

A benign and can be corrected


B uncommon and problem free
C varied but usually infrequent

27. You hear the head of a unit discussing patient details

Observation made on the patient is

A satisfactory according to the results


B encouraging for further treatment
C stable as per ongoing treatment

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28. You hear a nurse brief about behavioural nursing

What is the purpose of the extract

A to identify shortcomings in children


B to share school nursing experience
C to highlight a shortage of expertise

29. You hear a scientist deliver a talk on physical activities for children

What does he advocate

A repetitive activities for specific areas


B minimise overuse of certain parts
C must play in a variety of sports

30. You hear a talk by a nurse anasthetist

How do the mannequins respond to procedure

A by alerting the nurses if vitals fluctuate


B by being versatile to the presenting process
C by mimicking the changes in ill patients

That is the end of Part B. Now look at Part C.

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Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31 to 36

You hear a talk on suicide prevention by a social researcher Mary Todd.


You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.

31. Mary describes the purpose of secondary suicide prevention is as

A reduce the number of new cases


B bring down the attempts in an area
C minimise the attempts by the suicidal

32. Secondary suicide prevention is understated because

A it is only starting to be applied in practice


B suicide is difficult to predict due to complexity
C recent events lead to increased suicide

33. Mary talks on the importance of suicide assessment because

A psychiatric illness is a major contributing factor


B it enables in the identification of the risk factors
C it helps develop diagnosis and treatment methods

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34. What must be done for subjective rating of severity of depression

A physicians should not hesitate to ask on suicidal ideation


B clinicians need to overcome obstacles in providing care
C additional information should be incorporated into assessment

35. Mary feels that suicide rates may be reduced by interventions like

A legal restrictions that reduce access to harmless substances


B psychological follow up and other methods including telephonic
C therapies that address repetition of suicide thoughts and behaviours

36. What is the increasing concern with digital media covering suicide

A there are still many gaps in the research


B it glamorises suicide among the vulnerable
C it provides accessible information for an attempt

Now look at extract two.

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Extract 2: Questions 37 to 42

You hear an interview with Samantha Solon, a lead scientist on diet that boosts the ‘miracle
hormone’
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. Samantha feels that prospects for are high because?

A it has been proven effective for longevity


B the effects of administration are long term
C varied indicators of health can be influenced

38. What does the study of diet in mice identify

A an influence on metabolic rate


B effective way for increasing the hormone
C the animals showed an increase in weight

39. Samantha opines the influence of protein is

A minimal without high carbohydrate


B in tandem with the carbohydrates
C optimal with high carbohydrate

40. According to the expert, evidence from paradoxical conditions are

A that reduced protein intake is crucial


B teased apart for clarity on findings
C studied for influence of insulin variation

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41. What can be done to harness the potential of the hormone?

A modify the diet and nutritional guidelines


B administration by means of chronic injection
C develop a mimetics for increased effectiveness

42. What can be said with certainty as per the expert

A everyone is in a race for an answer


B the dynamics can not be explained now
C no one knows the mechanism of action

That is the end of Part C.

You now have two minutes to check your answers.

THAT IS THE END OF THE LISTENING TEST

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LISTENING SUB-TEST 5

PART A: QUESTIONS 1 - 12

1 breathing
2 coughing
3 phlegm
4 started
5 not
6 attacks
7 nearly
8 allergy
9 mortgage
10 never
11 ill
12 eczema

PART A: QUESTIONS 13 - 24

13 (terrible) discomfort
14 bloated
15 diarrhoea
16 sometimes
17 4 years / four years
18 muscle relaxants
19 imodium
20 barium enema
21 real
22 ulcer
23 reassurable things
24 decide

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PART B: QUESTIONS 25 - 30

25 C ensuring the completion of procedures


26 C varied but usually infrequent
27 C stable as per ongoing treatment
28 C to highlight a shortage of expertise
29 C must play in a variety of sports
30 B by being versatile to the presenting process

PART C: QUESTIONS 31 - 36

31 C minimise the attempts by the suicidal


32 A it is only starting to be applied in practice
33 B it enables in the identification of the risk factors
34 A physicians should not hesitate to ask on suicidal ideation
35 C therapies that address repetition of suicide thoughts and behaviours
36 C it provides accessible information for an attempt

PART C: QUESTIONS 37 - 42

37 C varied indicators of health can be influenced


38 B effective way for increasing the hormone
39 C optimal with high carbohydrate
40 B teased apart for clarity on findings
41 A modify the diet and nutritional guidelines
42 C no one knows the mechanism of action

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THE END

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