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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI OLYMPIC TRUYỀN THỐNG 30 THÁNG 4
TP. HỒ CHÍ MINH LẦN THỨ XXVI – NĂM 2021
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
Ngày thi: 03/04/2021
LÊ HỒNG PHONG
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – Khối 10
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Đề này có 08 trang.

 Thí sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm (MULTIPLE CHOICE) trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm và
phần tự luận (WRITTEN TEST) trên phiếu trả lời tự luận.
 Trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tô thêm 2 số 00 vào trước số báo danh (bằng bút
chì).
 Phần mã đề thi trên phiếu trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tô vào ô 002.

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)

I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following
sentences.
1. -"Shall I call Eddie at home?" - "I think he ______ now."
A. will be working B. is going to work C. is to work D. will work
2. Sue ______ from a severe bout of flu at the time.
A. recovered B. used to recover C. would recover D. was recovering
3. -"What lie did Liz tell you this time?" - "She claimed ______ before she was two."
A. that she could write B. to writing C. about writing D. that she would write
4. - " ______ you were ill, we wouldn't have come." -"Don't be silly! I always enjoy your company."
A. Were we to know B. Had we known C. Had we to know D. Should we have known
5. The committee asked that not only candidates but also the invigilator ______ a mask in the exam
room.
A. would wear B. to be wearing C. wear D. had been wearing
6. -"You're looking tired." -"I'm exhausted. I wish my neighbours ______ loud music when I'm trying to
sleep."
A. haven't played B. wouldn't play C. won't play D. hadn't played
7. -"Where've you been Mary?" -"Well, my tutor______ some research into post graduate studies."
A. made me to do B. had me to do C. got me to do D. put me do
8. The Browns haven't arrived as yet. They______ their bus.
A. are likely missing B. have likely been missing
C. are likely to have missed D. likely are missing
9. I'd sooner you ______ the deal in writing by the end of next week.
A. confirmed B. have confirmed C. will confirm D. confirm
10. Shall we get ______? It's getting late.
A. to go B. go C. going D. gone

II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 PTS) Choose the best options to complete
the following sentences.
11. His new song caught ______ right away and entered the top ten the week after its release.
A. on B. up C. off D. over
12. I'm really thirsty. I could do ______ a cup of tea.
A. for B. at C. on D. with
13. To avoid an argument, she fell ______ her husband's plans.
A. in for B. in with C. out of D. away from
14. I only get ______ watching TV when the children are in bed.
A. out of B. off with C. round to D. on with
15. They offered to buy her a BMW but she's holding ______ a Porsche.
A. out for B. out on C. back with D. up with
16. If we keep ______ the plan exactly, we're certain to succeed.
A. up B. on C. to D. with
17. When they heard the fire alarm, the audience made ______ the exit.

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 A. into B. up C. over D. for
18. The lecturer had difficulty in putting ______ his ideas.
A. across B. forward C. on D. through
19. Jane was so determined to become a model that her parents couldn't talk her ______ it.
A. down to B. round about C. out of D. away from
20. I'm trying to work ______ how this device was put together.
A. on B. with C. for D. out

III. VOCABULARY (10 PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following
sentences.
21. Fighting among rebel soldiers ______ last night and a curfew has now been imposed on the city.
A. enhanced B. aggravated C. heightened D. intensified
22. Mrs. Hurston was in deep______ after her husband's unexpected death.
A. regret B. grief C. lament D. disturbance
23. She ______ her finger on a sharp rose thorn.
A. stung B. bit C. stabbed D. pricked
24. Numerous ______ have prevented us from going to the lakeside again this year.
A. inhibitions B. deterrents C. impairments D. adversities
25. This city has four million ______.
A. residents B. occupants C. inhabitants D. settlers
26. The new situation has ______ a lot of anger and dissatisfaction. Our duty now is to encounter it in
the most sensible way.
A. devised B. struck C. originated D. provoked
27. The sergeant was furious because he hadn't been ______ of the manoeuvres.
A. notified B. announced C. referred D. communicated
28. I ______ the notice-board quickly, looking for secondhand cars for sale.
A. scanned B. peered at C. scrutinised D. inspected
29. The ______ boards in the staircase would always wake us up whenever somebody climbed up at
night.
A. screeching B. cracking C. roaring D. creaking
30. I was rather at a ______ in the beginning because I was the only person of different origin.
A. displeasure B. discomfort C. disadvantage D. disinterest
31. The optician says you have to wear glasses, like it or ______ it.
A. jump B. lump C. dislike D. loathe
32. Getting everything ready by tomorrow ______ working at night. I'm afraid nobody will agree to stay
after hours.
A. obliges B. implements C. entails D. indicates
33. You may think I am an old man, but I can assure you I am still ______ strong.
A. doing B. running C. making D. going
34. This year's series of open-air plays ______ with a performance of "Electra".
A. stems B. originates C. derives D. commences
35. The ______ of the project has been suspended because of the inadequate financing.
A. implementation B. establishment C. installation D. exploration
36. Your daughter may not do her best at mathematics or chemistry, but she definitely ______ at English
literature.
A. improves B. accomplishes C. excels D. masters
37. Somebody as conceited as Ron needs bringing down a ______ or two.
A. step B. notch C. peg D. rung
38. It required a harsh reprimand to ______ Joshua from leaving the camp at night again.
A. detain B. defy C. deter D. deprive
39. Mrs. Jackson was on the point of going out of her apartment when she was ______ short by a phone
call from her husband.
A. caught B. halted C. brought D. stopped
40. Due to inflation, my savings have ______ gradually to practically nothing.
A. shrank B. dwindled C. reduced D. diminished

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 IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS): Read the texts below and decide which answer best fits each
space.
Passage A
What is the (41) ______ between an argument and a quarrel? Look the word "quarrel" up in a
dictionary and you will find it defined as an "angry argument". It seems that "angry" is the key word
here. Both quarrelling and arguing involve disagreements but it is only during the former that we become
angry or upset. We may raise our voices or even display aggressive behaviour when quarrelling, (42)
______ in an argument, we maintain a (43) ______ tone of voice and refrain from physically threatening
our opponent. An argument is a discussion or debate in which two or more people put forward different
or opposing views. They may not be personally concerned in the issues under discussion. (44) ______,
the process is an objective, intellectual one. Evidence and (45) ______ may be used in order to support
the speaker's point of view and possibly to convince the other(s). A quarrel, however, is personal, bound
up with the ego and the participants' sense of self. For instance, things that the opponent may have said
or done in the past are often dragged (46) ______ at random as and when they occur to the speaker, in
(47) ______ the logical marshalling of ideas which arguing involves. A quarrel may result from a (48)
______ of personalities, may hurt the participants and may be sincerely regretted afterwards. Given that
there are hot-tempered people around, they may get carried away in an argument so that it degenerates
(49) ______ quarrel, but it should, generally speaking, be a dispassionate exchange of views (50) ______
a shouting match.
41. A. differential B. divergence C. discrepancy D. otherness
42. A. nevertheless B. when C. whereas D. however
43. A. steady B. level C. plain D. monotonous
44. A. Largely B. Admittedly C. Particularly D. Consequently
45. A. logic B. reason C. ration D. sensibility
46. A. on B. up C. back D. forth
47. A. comparison with B. tandem with C. opposition to D. contradiction
48. A. clash B. juxtaposition C. conflict D. paradox
49. A. down to B. up to C. into D. onto
50. A. better than B. other than C. more than D. rather than
Passage B
Prime numbers have been well known to mathematicians for (51) ______ considerable time, in fact
since Eratosthenes discovered the principle in the third century BCE. These are numbers which can only
be divided by one and by themselves, such as three and five, and are important (52) ______ they are
the components of integers – (53) ______ numbers. Recently, there has been a breakthrough in
understanding these unusual (54) ______.
This advance concerns the Twin Prime Conjecture – an idea that there are an infinite number of prime
number pairs which are separated from each other by only two numbers, for example 11 and 13; 17 and
19; 29 and 31; 41 and 43; 59 and 61. It seems that prime numbers (55) ______ in this pattern with
surprising frequency, (56) ______ with smaller numbers. As the numbers get larger, however, the (57)
______ also increases dramatically. This has led to the question of whether there may (58) ______ be a
ceiling to how many twin primes can be discovered.
With a new technique for identifying smaller than average gaps between primes, researchers believe
they are closer to solving this riddle. They hope that this will enable them not only to identify the
frequency and location of an indefinite number of twin primes, but may also shed light on another
(59)______, the Riemann Hypothesis, which concerns an infinite sum of numbers known as the Zeta
function, and (60) ______ there is currently a tantalizing bait of one million dollars.
51. A. such B. certain C. the D. some
52. A. in that B. now that C. much as D. just as
53. A. round B. undivided C. whole D. cardinal
54. A. figures B. indexes C. sequences D. series
55. A. happen B. materialize C. occur D. emerge
56. A. definitely B. particularly C. specially D. namely
57. A. intervention B. interval C. interpolation D. interference
58. A. in fact B. instead C. as shown D. by the way
59. A. mystification B. eccentricity C. chimera D. enigma
60. A. why B. where C. in which D. for which

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 V. READING COMPREHENSION (10 PTS): Read the texts below and choose the best
answer to each question.
Passage A
Nearsightedness, or myopia, results when the eye becomes too long from front to back. Ordinarily,
light passes through the corneal lens and focuses images on the rear portion of the eye, known as the
retina. The myopic eye is so long that the images focus in front of the retina, making objects at a distance
blurry. In the farsighted or hyperopic eye, the eye is short; images focus behind the retina, causing
nearby objects to blur.
Animal and human babies usually begin life slightly hyperopic. As they grow, their eyes lengthen until
all images fall perfectly on the retina, a process called emmetropization. By the first grade, nearly all
children have perfect vision. Researchers do not know what mechanisms spur the eye to grow to a length
that matches flawlessly the eye's optics.
It takes work to see at varying distances, even when vision is "perfect." Reading, for instance, requires
tiny muscles in the eye to accommodate for the short focus by making the lens rounder. When images
do not fall in focus on the retina, whether as the result of myopia or hyperopia, corrective lenses can be
recruited to do the work.
Increasingly, people in developed countries have come to rely on corrective lenses. Sometime
between starting school with perfect vision and beginning high school, up to 50 percent of kids in the
United States become myopic. In places like Taiwan and Hong Kong, where kids typically study 10 to 12
hours per day, 70 percent of older students need to squint to see the blackboard.
61. The condition called myopia develops when ______.
A. the distance between the corneal lens and the retina is increased
B. the lens of the eye can no longer focus
C. light is unable to pass through the corneal lens
D. light focuses on the retina
62. The process called emmetropization ______.
A. eventually produces myopia in first graders
B. produces blurry images on the retina
C. corrects the initial condition of hyperopia most newborn babies have
D. corrects the myopia that most newborn babies have
63. The mechanisms behind the process of emmetropization ______.
A. are perfectly understood B. remain a mystery
C. have been fully explained D. have never concerned researchers
64. A corrective lens is used to ensure that ______.
A. images fall in focus on the retina B. the corneal lens becomes rounder
C. distances do not vary D. tiny muscles in the eye work
65. Indications are that myopia among high school students______.
A. depends on climatic and geographical differences
B. is on the decline in developed countries
C. results from squinting in the classroom
D. results from an increased reading load

Passage B
The Hutterites call themselves the human version of a bee colony. Members of this Christian sect, who
first settled in the United States in the 19th century, shun personal gain and pour their efforts into a well-
oiled collective enterprise.
Hutterite ideology stresses the shared fate of the group and warns against the sin of selfishness.
Anyone who withholds help from others in need, turns lazy, or otherwise undermines community health
draws stern reprimands from church elders. Failure to heed these warnings results in forced exile.
Hutterite leaders are elected democratically and undergo a long probationary period before acquiring
full power. When a colony grows too large – which is not uncommon, as the Hutterites have long
experienced high birth rates – it sorts into two groups of equal size, skill, and compatibility. A lottery
determines which group stays and which moves to a new location.
Such practices sound downright strange to the average suburbanite or city dweller. Indeed, end-of-
the-millennium Western societies seem to spawn far more self-absorption than sacrifice for any “greater
good.”

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 But the bee like tactics of Hutterite colonies highlight an evolved human capacity for thinking in groups
and advancing group interests, even at the expense of personal strivings, asserts David Sloan Wilson, an
evolutionary biologist at the State University of New York at Binghamton.
“Groups can be functional units in their own right, and individuals sometimes behave more like organs
than like organism,” Wilson contends. “As a result, altruism is a common feature of both human and
biological nature.”

66. Hutterites are characterized by their ______.

A. pride B. greed C. selflessness D. individualism
67. A Hutterite who displays laziness and ignores warnings to reform ______.
A. is made to leave the group B. turns selfish
C. reprimands church elders D. shares the fate of the group
68. Which of the following does NOT apply to Hutterite leaders?
A. They have to elect deputies. B. They have to prove themselves worthy.
C. They are chosen by the group. D. They do not automatically assume full power.
69. What accounts for the division of many Hutterite colonies?
A. The skills of their members become unequal.
B. The members are unable to live together peacefully.
C. Too many immigrants join the colony.
D. New births within the colonies swell their population.
70. Wilson maintains that Hutterite practices ______.
A. mirror the average contemporary Western society.
B. reflect how strong an effect altruism can have on our actions.
C. prove that personal striving is an overwhelming force.
D. have a high capacity for self-absorption.

Passage C
It is well known that in many countries around the world people become ill and die from an inadequate
food supply. A lesser known but equally troubling problem, however, is referred to as “hidden hunger,”
which does not cause feelings of hunger in the stomach but instead causes damage to the immune
system, birth defects, and slower brain activity due to a lack of vitamin and mineral nutrients.
According to a recent report from the United Nations, “hidden hunger” is having an alarming effect
on developing countries, even those where people have enough to eat. An insufficient amount of iron in
the diet can lower the intelligence quotient (IQ) of children by five to seven points and an iodine deficiency
cuts it by 13 more points. As a result, the collective brainpower of entire nations is diminished as the
number of children with mental incapacities grows. Iron deficiency in adults affects productivity. It is
estimated that the Gross Domestic Product in the most affected countries has been lowered by 2 percent.
An Indian study showed that when iron was added to the diets of tea leaf pickers, their productivity
increased by 20 percent.
The report encourages governments to enrich common foods with nutrients during processing. Even
if people are instructed to take a vitamin pill daily, many will not comply. Adding nutrients to everyday
foods such as soy sauce, salt, and cooking oil is the most efficient way to reach the majority of the
population. In the United States, cases of two serious birth defects dropped by about 20 percent after
the government began adding folic acid, a nutrient found in nuts, to flour. The tragedy of “hidden hunger”
is that it can be easily solved. Enriching foods with nutrients is a simple process that costs only a few
cents per person per year.
71. What is “hidden hunger”? It is ______.
A. feeling hunger pains B. not getting enough to eat
C. a damaged immune system D. not getting enough nutrients
72. According to the passage, what lowers productivity?
A. slower brain activity B. iron deficiency in adults
C. damage to the immune system D. folic acid deficiency in children
73. What does the United Nations recommend?
A. adding iron to tea
B. adding nutrients to food
C. encouraging people to take vitamin pills
D. encouraging people to use more everyday foods like salt
74. What was the result of adding folic acid to a common food?

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 A. It increased productivity. B. It lowered rates of birth defects.
C. It increased the consumption of flour. D. It solved the problem of hidden hunger.
75. In paragraph 3, what reason does the author give for calling “hidden hunger” a tragedy?
A. It can be avoided. B. It affects so many people.
C. So many people aren’t aware of it. D. It affects only developing countries.

Passage D
Based on their study of ancient bones, a group of evolutionary scientists is offering a new explanation
for how humans evolved as creatures with large brains. These scientists studied the chemical composition
of the bones of early modern humans, who lived in Europe about 20,000 to 28,000 years ago, and of
Neanderthals, who lived in the same area from 28,000 to 130,000 years ago. Among other things, they
analyzed the levels of carbon and nitrogen isotopes found in these bones. The isotopes are thought to
be the chemical signature of a diet rich in fish and seafood. Their findings suggest that while Neanderthals
were mainly meat-eaters, early modern humans derived up to half of their dietary protein from fish.
Fish contains a plentiful supply of omega fatty acids, which are crucial to brain development. Two of
these fatty acids that seafood contains in high levels - docosahexaenic acid (DHA) and arachidonic acid
(AA) - make up 60 per cent of the brain’s structural material. The former is vital for the development of
neuron membranes, the latter for the construction of blood vessels in the brain. These chemicals,
however, are scarce in other foods, even in meat. Thus, the researchers who conducted this study argue
that the early modern humans’ diet provided them with an evolutionary edge over the smaller-brained
Neanderthals who for a while coexisted with them but then died out. It provided them with excess energy
and nutrients that could be directed towards brain growth.
76. What does the author say about arachidonic acid?
A. It is plentiful in both fish and meat.
B. It makes up 60% of the brain’s structural material.
C. It is necessary for the development of neuron membranes.
D. It helps to build blood vessels in the brain.
77. According to this passage, a major difference between Neanderthals and early modern humans was
that______.
A. Neanderthals ate more fish B. Neanderthals died out later
C. early modern humans ate more fish D. early modern humans had a poorer diet
78. What does the word “edge” near the end of the second paragraph refer to?
A. advantage B. speed C. weapon D. food
79. This research explores the link between ______.
A. evolution and science. B. meat and fish.
C. diet and lifestyle. D. nutrition and brain development.
80. What did the researchers conclude about a diet rich in fish and seafood?
A. It is better than a diet containing a lot of fatty acids.
B. It led to the evolution of bigger brains.
C. It can add dangerous chemicals to the body.
D. It does not provide as many nutrients as a diet rich in meat.

B. WRITTEN TEST
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS): Read the texts below and complete each space with ONE
suitable word.
Passage A
One of the fastest growing areas of business training nowadays is intercultural training. I recently
attended a seminar of this type and, although (1) ______ of it were fairly interesting, in general I found
it was not practical (2) ______ to be really useful in a day-to-day sense. I have always believed that
experience is the best teacher. In fact, I think that perhaps the most enjoyable way to study (3) ______
diversity is to observe what, when and how other nations eat.
On my last visit to the United States I spent a weekend with a family I know. (4) ______ many
other American families they always keep their fridge (5) ______ stocked so that any member of the
family can help (6) ______ to food if and when they feel hungry. Only once during my visit (7) ______
the whole family sit down together to eat a cooked meal, and my hostess explained that this was a
special (8) ______ in my honour as normally they were (9) ______ too busy at weekends with social or
sporting events to eat together. In my view, experiences like these tell us more about the role of family
life and attitudes to time in America than any (10) ______ could do.

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 Passage B
Health experts have warned that the currently soaring obesity levels in European children may
(11) ______ create health problems of epidemic proportions within the next three (12) ______. Over the
past ten years, obesity in six-year olds has doubled while the number of obese fifteen-year olds has
trebled. If present trends continue, by 2030 between 60 and 70 per cent of Europeans will be (13)
______ and 40 to 50 per cent will be obese. The (14) ______ rise in weight-related diabetes, high blood
pressure, heart disease and some forms of cancer will place intolerable strains on health services unless
steps are (15) ______ to address the problem.
The explosion in child obesity can be put (16) ______ to the increasingly inactive lifestyles of
modern children. Many parents, worried lest their children should come to harm from traffic or strangers,
discourage them from playing outdoors and instead (17) ______ up ever more opportunities for
sedentary entertainment in the home. (18) ______ should the influence of the food industry be
underestimated; (19) ______ spends one thousand times more on advertising fast foods and convenience
foods in Europe and America than the total budget for promoting health in the same (20) ______ regions.

II. WORD FORMATION: (20PTS)

PART 1: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses.
1. The company’s publishing operations include business and consumer ______. (PERIOD)
2. Yesterday the company ______ a soaring 28 percent rise in profits for the year to December. (VEIL)
3. Such changes are ______ to even the best-trained eye. (PERCEIVE)
4. As soon as the meeting began, however, ______ differences emerged. (RECONCILE)
5. The COVID-19 pandemic has been a catastrophe of ______ dimensions for the whole world.
(PRECEDE)
6. Her legs were ______ by the very high heels which she wore. (LONG)
7. School officials hope the ______ project can help both the teenagers and retired people.
(GENERATE)
8. Farmers are discouraged from applying ______ chemicals nowadays. (INSECT)
9. Our ______ trip covers everything during your trip abroad apart from travel insurance. (INCLUDE)
10. Not only large cities but also ______ places have been badly affected by the Covid-19 outbreak.
(FLING)

PART 2: Complete the passage with the appropriate forms from the words given in the box.

PERFORM SHINE DEPRIVE SPECTACLE EARN

STRIP PRIVILEGE RESENT GROUND COURAGE

Childhood self-esteem can overwhelm academic disadvantage or social (11) ______ in

determining future earning power, according to major new research.
There is now clear evidence that the (12) ______ of people who had higher self-esteem at age
ten (13) ______ those of their peers whose academic performance was better at the same age. Bright
children often have higher self-esteem, as do some from more affluent (14) ______. But the study
compared children from similar families and still found that those who were psychologically well-balanced
at ten were now (15) ______ their peers.
The research also found, surprisingly, that it is not unusual for children to have high academic
achievement and low self-esteem, leading to significant later underperformance in the job market. A
spokesman for the British Association for Counselling said:” (16) ______ for children doesn't come only
from crude parental hostility at home; it can just be (17) ______ or the constant feeling that they're
making you tired. Children pick that up. Nor is it only (18) ______ children who suffer. All too often you
can ask affluent parents who the important people in their child's life are - teachers, friends and so on -
and they haven't a clue.”
Bearing out the findings of this research, many (19) ______ successful entrepreneurs were (20)
______ academically when they were at school but had the advantage of supportive families.

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III. ERROR CORRECTION: (10PTS) The following passage contains 10 errors. Identify and
correct them.

1 Family history is one of the Britain's fastest growing passions. Genealogy used to be
considered the preserve of bearded boffins or snobbish eccentrics, but now thousand of
people who would scorn the idea of ploughing through academic tomes of historic
information were eagerly delving into official archives and public records in an effort to
5 hunt down their ancestors. Some are motivated by curiosity and the desire to piece
together a family tree; some hope to add excitement to their lives by digging up a colourful
or illustrious forebear. As a hobby, it's slow and time-consuming; some enthusiasts have
spent years poring over records of births, marriages and deaths in search for an elusive
ancestor. However, the advent of the Internet has made things much easy and may partly
10 explain the explosion of interest in tracing one's root. A host of online databases allow you
to look up a specific surname quickly and instead of visiting your local public record office
to examine the official files, it is now probably possible to carry out much of your research
online. Even so, the results may not be whom you hoped for. A friend of mine spent two
years trying in vain to trace her family back to a famous eighteenth century novelist; what
15 she came up instead is a forefather of the same name who had been the local hangman!

1. _______________________________________________________________________
2. _______________________________________________________________________
3. _______________________________________________________________________
4. _______________________________________________________________________
5. _______________________________________________________________________
6. _______________________________________________________________________
7. _______________________________________________________________________
8. _______________________________________________________________________
9. _______________________________________________________________________
10. ______________________________________________________________________

IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION: (20 PTS) Rewrite the following sentences using the
words given.
1. Her opinions on the new management policies were very different from those of her fellow
workers. (ODDS)
She was ______________________________________________________________________
2. You must remember to lock the drawer, whatever you do. (ACCOUNT)
On ___________________________________________________________________________
3. I said nothing because I was afraid of offending her. (FEAR)
I remained ______________________________________________________________ offence.
4. He was dismissed for neglecting his work. (LED)
His __________________________________________________________________________
5. You have to be more co-operative or your colleagues won't respect you. (UNLESS)
You will not be held _____________________________________________________________
6. She claimed she handed in her resignation as a result of provocation. (PROVOKED)
She claimed ___________________________________________________________________
7. You were wrong when you assumed that we would support your project. (READ)
You should ____________________________________________________________________
8. Politicians’ language is so ambiguous that I don’t understand what they really mean. (INKLING)
Such ______________________________________________________ what they really mean.
9. You will infuriate him if you don’t keep it secret. (HAT)
Keep __________________________________________________________________ the bend.
10. He admits he’s not one of the important members of the organization. (COG)
He ___________________________________________________________________________

END OF TEST – BEST OF LUCK

Họ và tên thí sinh: ...................................................................SBD: ......................................................

Trường: ...................................................................................Tỉnh/TP: .................................................

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 SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI OLYMPIC TRUYỀN THỐNG 30/4
TP. HỒ CHÍ MINH LẦN THỨ XXVI – NĂM 2021
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN Ngày thi: 03/04/2021
LÊ HỒNG PHONG Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 11
Thời gian làm bài : 180 phút
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Đề này có 08 trang.

 Thí sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm (MULTIPLE CHOICE) trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm và
phần tự luận (WRITTEN TEST) trên phiếu trả lời tự luận.
 Trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tô thêm 2 số 00 vào trước số báo danh
(bằng bút chì).
Phần mã đề thi trên phiếu trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tô vào ô 002.

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)

I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following
sentences.
1. Let me know about your decisions before putting them into practice, ______?
A. shall you B. would you C. will you D. have you
2. You’d better start looking for a new job, so ______ your friends.
A. would B. did C. had D. do
3. -"Will you ______ with the equipment by 12:30 pm?"
-"Possibly, but I'll let you know beforehand."
A. finish B. have been finishing C. be finishing D. have finished
4. -"It's a pity she had to pull out of the competition." - "Yes, especially since she ______ such excellent
progress."
A. is making B. made C. had been making D. has been making
5. -“Before, she didn’t know how to do the paperwork.” -"She ______ how to do it.”
A. could have been shown B. might show C. can have shown D. will show
6. Not only does Jack speak Spanish, ______.
A. but he is also able to work as an interpreter
B. but is also able to work as an interpreter
C. but he is also able to work as an interpreter as well
D. is he able to work as an interpreter
7. In the eastern part of New Jersey ______, a major shipping and manufacturing center.
A. lies the city of Elizabeth B. the city of Elizabeth lies there
C. around the city of Elizabeth lies D. there lies the city of Elizabeth around
8. Her hair ______ in a bun, the bride looks superficially attractive.
A. styling B. styled C. was styled D. has been styled
9. ______ I dislike Winston, I have to admit that he came up with some brilliant suggestions at the
management meeting.
A. Much as B. No matter C. However D. For all
10. Aren’t you the last person ______ the documents before they disappeared?
A. seeing B. to have seen C. having seen D. to see

II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 PTS) Choose the best options to complete the
following sentences.
11. The area has been smartened ______ by the arrival of yuppy residents.
A. out B. off C. over D. up
12. Apart from one or two flashes of brilliance from Messi, Argentina put __ a rather poor performance.
A. on B. up C. in D. through
13. The success of the peace plan hinges ______ their willingness to disarm.
A. to B. on C. by D. with
14. He says he knows nothing about the missing documents but I'm sure he's holding ______ me.
A. back for B. out on C. on with D. up for
15. Don't keep ______ me about the door; I'll fix it.
A. up with B. on for C. on at D. out against

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16. The naughty boys went on making terrible noise in the park though they had been ______ off by the
annoyed constable.
A. laid B. broken C. ticked D. thrown
17. He put his failure in the exam ______ bad luck.
A. back on B. up with C. in for D. down to
18. His jokes set the whole class ______ laughing.
A. off B. out C. up D. about
19. You can't talk me ______ giving you more money. I've given you enough already.
A. with B. on C. into D. about
20 When Sue has had a row with someone, she works it ______ by going for a long walk.
A. out B. up C. away D. off

III. VOCABULARY (10 PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
21. "He ______ my rubber, miss!" shouted the boy.
A. acquired B. ripped off C. abducted D. swiped
22. Patrick is too______ a gambler to resist placing a bet on the final game.
A. instant B. spontaneous C. compulsive D. continuous
23. Mr. Henson's bitter comments on the management's mistakes gave ______ to the conflict which has
already lasted for four months.
A. cause B. ground C. goal D. rise
24. This shoe repairer is so quick that he can sole and heel your shoes in a(n) ______.
A. moment B. hurry C. jiffy D. instant
25. All the inhabitants in the area have been asked to ______ at home if the storm returns.
A. settle B. dwell C. remain D. occupy
26. At one moment, the teacher got nervous seeing that whatever he said was ______ on the students
who weren't paying any attention to the lecture.
A. missed B. lost C. failed D. slipped
27. My young nieces kept ______ me to buy them sweets.
A. teasing B. pestering C. getting on at D. harassing
28. If it hadn't been for the hint that the professor ______ nobody would have found out the correct
answer.
A. dropped B. cast C. threw D. flung
29. Teaching high school students is relatively easy. Teaching majored students, on the other hand, is a
different _______ of fish.
A. kettle B. pot C. pan D. bowl
30. The cat slept peacefully, ______ in the long grass.
A. huddled B. nestled C. snuggled D. cuddled
31. Their relationship had been on the ______ for years before they finally broke up.
A. stones B. rocks C. pebbles D. marbles
32. He couldn't have been in his right ______ saying that he can fly.
A. minds B. brains C. senses D. thoughts
33. Julia's work is not a ______ on Natalie's.
A. spot B. patch C. scratch D. scrap
34. You say that this small spare part cost you £100? I'm sure you paid through the ______ for it.
A. eye B. nose C. ear D. lips
35. It was the______ warning from the seismologists that helped save the lives of the island inhabitants
before the volcano erupted.
A. preliminary B. hasty C. cursory D. advance
36. Rosie the kitten ______ playfully around with a ball.
A. slunk B. strutted C. slithered D. scampered
37. The comforting news from my sister was a real ______ off my mind.
A. stone B. deal C. load D. mass
38. The first amusement park in our city was a ______ success for its owners. Everybody would go there
to have a good time.
A. cracking B. ringing C. sparking D. roaring
39. The exercise routine works in ______ with the diet.
A. tandem B. league C. hand D. co-operation
40. I didn't really feel like memorizing all these definitions. It was only the risk of getting another bad
mark that made me ______ myself.

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 A. exert B. absorb C. endeavour D. deploy

IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS): Read the texts below and decide which answer best fits each
space.
Passage A
Business was bad. Sales were non-existent. I was (41) ______ at the bank. I'd (42) ______ up huge
debts and the man who sold me the shop was threatening to (43) ______ me because I hadn't paid him.
I had expected (44) ______ troubles when I took over the shop – all new businesses have problems in
the beginning – but in the eleven months I had been open I had never had a customer. I'd tried
everything to (45) ______ up business – ads in the local newspaper, mid-season sales, sponsoring the
local football team – but nothing I'd tried had worked. I was at my (46) ______ end. A friend suggested I
seek professional advice. He reassured me that his friend, Mr. Stott, would help me (47) ______ the
problem of disappointing sales. So there I was in the city, sitting across from Mr. Stott, a management
consultant. "Now you live here in Willonga, a desert town, and you bought the local bakery, but you didn't
keep it on as a bakery," he said. "No, I saw a (48) ______ in the market and changed the focus of the
business." I replied. "And things aren't going as well as they could be," he continued, sitting back in his
chair. "Don't worry, Mr. Redston, it's not unusual to (49) ______ into difficulties on first setting up a
business. I'm sure we'll be able to (50) ______ everything out." He put on his glasses. "So what is it that
you sell?" he asked. "Sand," I replied. "I sell sand."
41. A. overspent B. overtaken C. overdrawn D. overdone
42. A. put B. run C. stepped D. eaten
43. A. sue B. condemn C. claim D. charge
44. A. balancing B. teething C. growing D. opening
45. A. draw B. work C. drum D. bring
46. A. brain's B. wits’ C. nerves' D. mind's
47. A. tarnish B. tackle C. sort D. drum up
48. A. gap B. space C. opening D. opportunity
49. A. walk B. come C. bump D. run
50. A. bring B. iron C. smooth D. sort

Passage B
Those who (51) ______ for a vegetarian diet must usually weigh up a variety of aspects concerning
the nutritional (52) ______ of vegetables and the adequacy of vegetarian meals in terms of the number of
nutrients provided to the body. Vegetarianism is not a new concept, rather an ancient custom which
evolved in the Far East cultures on ethical or religious grounds.
In today's world, it has been undertaken by many followers who for a variety of reasons believe the
vegetarian diet more preferable to that containing meat. For example, there's the theory that animal meat
wasn't originally a component of the staple human diet as mankind evolved from foragers who later (53)
______ a taste for flesh. Hence, our primeval ancestors are alleged to have had a substantial intake of
proteins and vitamins from natural vegetation rather than from the meat of hunted (54) ______. What’s
more, human teeth don’t (55) ______ much resemblance to those of animal carnivores, and neither is our
digestive system equivalent to the meat eaters' one.
Apart from the enforced vegetarianism of underdeveloped communities where populations deprived of
animal protein (56) ______ the natural vegetation, there's a rising acceptance of the vegetarian diet
which (57) ______ to be regarded as an eccentricity. (58) ______ from animal food, be it for religious,
economic or humanitarian reasons, has been a quickly spreading custom as, surprisingly, the vegetarian
diet needn't be dull or deficient. Yet, it does involve taking good (59) ______ to supply the body with a
sufficient quantity of nutrients (60) ______ from corn, seeds and cereals.
51. A. prefer B. opt C. select D. favour
52. A. profit B. rate C. value D. esteem
53. A. generated B. acquired C. instituted D. accustomed
54. A. load B. game C. toll D. beat
55. A. infer B. assume C. bear D. pertain
56. A. play down on B. come in for C. fall back on D. get on for
57. A. terminates B. ceases C. concludes D. finishes
58. A. Resistance B. Defiance C. Hindrance D. Abstention
59. A. precautions B. resolutions C. proceeds D. measurements
60. A. comprised B. derived C. procured D. provided

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 V. READING COMPREHENSION (10 PTS): Read the texts below and choose the best answer
to each question.
Passage A
Recognized as having the largest “green roof” in the world, the new Ford Truck Assembly Plant in
Dearborn, Michigan, serves as a model for the 21st century. In this time of growing concern for
environmental issues from global warming to urban sprawl, the Ford plant shows it’s possible to reduce
these concerns by means of well-designed “green architecture.”
Green roofs are, as the name implies, gardens that are placed on the roof of a building. These
roofs are composed of a waterproofing and root-repellant system designed to protect the underlying
building structure, a drainage system, a lightweight growing medium, and plants selected based on
characteristics such as drought tolerance. The gardens are designed to be self-sustaining, requiring little
upkeep except for occasional weeding or fertilization.
In addition to supporting plant growth, the growing medium absorbs water. Experts cite the latter
as the single most important advantage of green roof technology, because the plants store rainwater and
return it to the atmosphere. It is predicted that the Ford Plant green roof will retain 447,000 gallons of
water per year, conserving 50 percent of the rain that falls on the roof each year. Less rainwater also
means less water that must pass through the city’s water sewage treatment facilities.
What runoff there is has been filtered by the roof system. In addition, green roofs improve air
quality by filtering the air above them and encouraging the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen
through photosynthesis. Furthermore, they reduce the “heat island” effect in cities caused by the ever-
increasing amount of hard surfaces that absorb solar radiation. Finally, green roofs are aesthetically
appealing: they improve the appearance of barren urban and industrial sites.
61. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Green roofs have a variety of environmental benefits.
B. Green roofs can solve the problem of global warming.
C. Green roofs need less maintenance than regular roofs.
D. Green roofs are becoming more common on automotive plants.
62. How often do roof gardens need to be planted?
A. annually each spring B. when there is below-average rainfall
C. every time it rains D. only once when created
63. According to the passage, what is the most significant benefit of a green roof?
A. It cools the building it is on. B. It retains rainwater.
C. It supports plant life. D. It absorbs solar radiation.
64. According to the passage, what is one way in which green roofs improve air quality?
A. by promoting gas exchange B. by reflecting solar radiation
C. by reducing air temperature D. by absorbing rainwater
65. How do green roofs reduce the “heat island” effect?
A. They retain a lot of rainwater. B. They capture less heat from the sun than traditional roofs.
C. They reflect the sun’s heat. D. They increase the movement of air around the building.

Passage B

A map created by Martin Waldseemüller in 1507 and acquired by the United States Library of
Congress for ten million dollars is the most expensive one in its collection. Out of the one thousand copies
originally produced, it is the only copy of this twelve-panel woodcut map known to exist. Its rarity is a
significant factor contributing to its value. More important though, the map is special because it is the first
to depict the Pacific Ocean as a separate body of water, the first to depict a separate Western
Hemisphere, and the first to name that mass of land “America.” Waldseemüller christened the new lands
America in recognition of the explorer Amerigo Vespucci, who was the first to identify the New World of
North and South America as separate from Asia.
More than naming the continents, the map challenges established beliefs. In the map, America is
represented as a long and slender piece of land. This appears to support the contention that the western
edge of the continents had not been explored until after 1507. However, the Americas only appear to be
narrow because the mapmaker used a technique that visually distorted the Earth’s surface on the edges
of the map. Moreover, using the longitude and latitude lines on the map to measure the width of the
continents, one comes up with measurements that match those done by satellite today. Thus, the western
edges of the Americas must have been reached earlier than presently thought.

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 Another mystery associated with the map is how Waldseemüller received the knowledge that he
needed to make the map. Waldseemüller was the canon, a high-ranking priest, of a monastery in the
mountains of France, and to this day scholars have no idea how discoveries an ocean away found their
way to this legendary mapmaker.
66. What is remarkable about the measurement accuracy of the map?
A. It accurately measures the width of the American continents.
B. It distorts the width of the American continents.
C. It is more accurate than the maps constructed today.
D. There is nothing remarkable about the measurement accuracy.
67. According to the passage, how did Waldseemüller get the information to accurately depict important
geographic discoveries in his map?
A. He studied other maps. B. He was visited by Amerigo Vespucci at his monastery.
C. No one knows. D. He corresponded with the explorers.
68. How does the map contribute to our understanding of world exploration?
A. Amerigo Vespucci must have gone to Asia.
B. The American continent used to be a different shape.
C. It confirms that the Pacific was not explored until after 1507.
D. Western America must have been explored before 1507.
69. What do measurement calculations suggest about the mapmaker?
A. He knew the size of the American continent.
B. He would have done better with a satellite.
C. He did not understand latitudes and longitudes.
D. He thought the Americas were long and narrow.
70. What is the main purpose of this passage?
A. to explain the characteristics of a valuable map B. to show how to create an accurate map
C. to discuss the significance of a particular map D. to discuss early explorers

Passage C
Lights on, lights off. Just the quick flick of a finger on a simple switch brightens or darkens the room.
That power is the envy of geneticists. They long for similar ease in activating and de-activating genes
in cultured cells and transgenic animals. In recent years, these scientists have gained some measure of
control by using chemical compounds, including the antibiotic tetracycline, to govern genes in cells and
mice.
The insect hormone ecdysone may provide the most effective gene switch yet, suggest investigators
from the Howard Hughes Medical Institute at the Salk Institute for Biological Studies in La Jolla, Calif., and
the University of California, San Diego. To support that contention, the group has made mammalian cells
and strains of mice with genes that are activated when ecdysone reaches them.
With such a system, researchers should be able to examine the importance of the timing of gene
activity, particularly during an organism's development. Since the hormone has no adverse effect on
mammalian cells, ecdysone-based switches may ultimately provide a non-toxic way to control the
therapeutic genes inserted into humans.
"It looks pretty promising. It seems to work as well as, if not better than, the tetracycline system,"
says Janet Rossant, a developmental biologist at the Mount Sinai Hospital in Toronto.
71. The opening paragraph provides an example of an application of ______.
A. lights B. rooms C. electricity D. darkness
72. In recent years chemical compounds have helped scientists ______.
A. to measure cultured cells B. to control gene activity to a certain extent
C. to train mice D. to switch from genes to mice
73. What have investigators managed to do with ecdysone? They've managed to______.
A. affect the metabolism of special mice B. produce mammalian cells
C. change the strains of ordinary mice D. activate ordinary mice
74. What is an apparent advantage of ecdysone?
A. It helps make mammalian cells. B. It does not harm mammalian cells.
C. It is therapeutic. D. It will become non-toxic.
75. According to the last paragraph, scientists are______.
A. promising miracles B. clearly in favour of tetracycline instead
C. looking for more promising alternatives D. optimistic about the potential of ecdysone

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Passage D
Soybeans or cereal grains, such as wheat or corn, usually make people think of food. However, some
agricultural researchers are now working to make plastics out of such foods. The type of plastic products
researchers say can be made from plant material is limited only by the imagination.
Depending on how it’s formulated, the plastic can be either thin or thick, malleable or hard. Uses for
this new material could range from bottles to plastic-coated paper or car parts. For example, one
prototype plastic is made in a lab with a machine that mixes and heats the material and then squeezes it
out like giant spaghetti strands. Researchers speculate that anything now made from traditional
petroleum-based plastic could, in the future, be produced from compounds using plant material. They are
already developing some plastics using both grain starches and soybean proteins, the latter of which
seems to make stronger, more elastic products than grain starches do. Researchers hope that eventually
all the petroleum in plastics can be replaced with bio-based materials that are environmentally friendly.
These plastics would join other new bio-based products such as adhesives, fiberboard, diesel fuels, and
soy-oil based inks. Utilizing bio-based plastics would also create a new use for agricultural products, thus
benefiting farmers.
An important factor in the fate of bio-based plastics is their cost. For industry, cost is the principal
driving force that determines whether a new technology is adopted. If soy-based plastics can be made
more inexpensively than petroleum-based plastics, they are more likely to be considered a viable
alternative.
Though this is not the case yet, scientists hope that with time, bio-based plastics will become more
common. As a result, the cost will come down, as is the case with most new products such as computers
and cellular phones.
76. What is the main purpose of this passage?
A. to demonstrate the manufacturing process of bio-based plastics in a lab
B. to explain how the cost of computers and cellular phones can be reduced
C. to illustrate a new application of plant products
D. to argue that bio-based products are more durable than petroleum-based products
77. Why does the author use the example of spaghetti strands? To illustrate ______.
A. one form bio-based plastic can take
B. possible uses of bio-based plastics
C. how strong bio-based plastics can be
D. how many different products can be made from bio-based plastics
78. Why does the author mention computers and cellular phones?
As an example of products that______.
A. are environmentally friendly B. can be made from bio-based materials
C. created whole new industries D. became cheaper as they became more widely used
79. What are the advantages of bio-based plastics?
A. They will reduce the costs of computers and cellular phones.
B. They will replace petroleum as a fuel.
C. They benefit the agricultural industry.
D. They benefit the petroleum industry.
80. According to the passage, what must happen to make industry adopt plant-based plastics?
They must become ______.
A. more environmentally friendly B. more durable C. less malleable D. less expensive

B. WRITTEN TEST
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS): Read the texts below and complete each space with ONE
suitable word.
Passage A
The British are widely considered to be a very polite nation, and in some respects this is true. An
Italian journalist once commented that the British need no (1) ______ than four “thank yous” (2) ______
to buy a bus ticket. The first, from the bus conductor means, “I am here”. The second accompanies the
handing (3) ______ of the money. The third, again from the conductor, means “(4) ______ is your
ticket”, and then the passenger utters a final (5) ______ as he accepts the ticket. Such transactions in
most other parts of the world are usually conducted in total silence.
In sharp (6) ______ to this excessive politeness with strangers, the British are strangely lacking in
ritual phrases for social interaction. The exhortation “Good appetite”, uttered in (7) ______ many other
languages to fellow diners before a meal, does not (8) ______ in English. The nearest equivalent - Enjoy
your dinner! - is said only by people who will not be partaking of the meal (9) ______ question. What's

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more, the British wish happiness to their friends or acquaintances only at the start of a new year and at
celebrations such as birthdays, the Greeks routinely wish (10) ______ and sundry a “good week” or a
“good month”.
Passage B
Each generation of British men has worked for a shorter period than its predecessor. This state of
affairs may be considered desirable when it is a matter of choice, (11) ______ recently many people in
their fifties have had their working lives curtailed through redundancy. Nowadays almost a third of British
men over 50 but below pension age have (12) ______ paid work, and most have given up (13) ______ it.
This fast growing trend of early retirement or redundancy risks creating a group of two million men
who are (14) ______ little with their lives and whose sedentary lifestyle may jeopardise their well-being.
Men aged 50-64 are (15) ______ two and three times as likely to die of a heart attack or stroke as (16)
______ women of the same age. They also consume less fruit and vegetables than women do, (17)
______ taking sugar in drinks and eating sweets. Those who did not elect to become economically
inactive frequently (18) ______ face the problem of loss of self-respect.
The (19) ______ also indicates there will soon be at least as many women past 50 at work as men. A
major cause of the differing employment patterns (20) ______ men and women is structural change:
while many manufacturing jobs have disappeared, there has been rapid growth in areas of largely female
employment such as hotels, catering and cleaning.
II. WORD FORMATION: (20PTS)
PART 1: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses.
1. Television can create deep dissatisfaction by portraying lifestyles that are ______. (ATTAIN)
2. This ______ country is not dependent on any of the powerful countries in the world. (ALIGN)
3. The trend in many companies is towards ______ and allowing junior employees to take personal
initiatives. (POWER)
4. After this grueling contest, we are going to treat ourselves to a ______ holiday in Da Lat. (EARN)
5. Having to do this kind of ______ task every day really gets on my nerves. (MIND)
6. He could be a severe ______ but he was not a rigid man. (DISCIPLINE)
7. From the experiences gained from the SARS outbreak in 2003, Vietnam has been ______ in treating
COVID-19 patients. (ACT)
8. Generally, social ______ are presumed to be justified, often in terms of tradition. (EQUAL)
9. In the process, many ______ secrets of nature are being lost for ever. (COVER)
10. Human ______ will disappear, for modern machines powered by steam and electricity will take over.
(SERVE)

PART 2: Complete the passage with the appropriate forms from the words given in the box.
DEFINITE TURN DETERIORATE AVOID ORDAIN
EXPECT CONCEIVE FOUND MUTATE PRECEDENT
Never in human history has a population so wilfully and deliberately defied nature as has the
present generation. How have we defied it? We have survived. Life (11) ______ at the start of the 19th
century was scarcely 40 years. Over the course of the last half-century, it has continued to increase
steadily by two years each decade. Our (12) ______ survival has produced a revolution in longevity which
is shaking the (13) ______ of societies around the world.
The idea that the physical (14) ______ associated with old age is something fixed or (15) ______
has come to be seen in a new and questioning light. The new realization is that science no longer dictates
that our bodies have to wear out and die according to some (16) ______ plan.
Many of our (17) ______ about why and how we age are beginning to be (18) ______ by recent
advances in genetics and genome research, and it is likely that we will soon understand the ageing
process even better than we do at present. We now realise that our bodies are not programmed with
some (19) ______ sell-by date. Indeed, the more we learn about how we age, the more we come to
realise that we are programmed for survival. It is by understanding why this programming falls short of
allowing us to survive (20) ______ that we may learn deep lessons that we can turn to our advantage.

III. ERROR CORRECTION: (10PTS) The following passage contains 10 errors. Identify and
correct them.
1 Located in the hypothalamus, the biological clock controls every circadian rhythm in the
body from what we eat, sleep and play to hormone levels, body temperature and
immune functions. The settings of our biological clock determine that we are by nature
early-rising “larks” or night “owls”.
5 The convenience and instant access of today's society make it tempting to regard the

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 biological clock as redundancy, but the costs of ignoring our internal timepiece can be
great. Despite several scientific studies showing that shift work is unhealthy and
disruptive to the biological clock, we are rapidly moving into a 24-hour society which
brings many of the same ills with it.
10 Studies have shown that although “owls” prefer late working shifts, their health has a
serious battering. They develop a range of symptoms including indigestion, ulcers,
fatigues and heart problems. Nor have the 'effects only physical: many subjects reported
feelings of depression and anxiety. A farther hazard of keeping unconventional hours is
an increased tendency to accident-proneness. In fact, many of the world's great disasters
15 have taken place at the early hours of the morning because of the body's inability to
function efficiently at that time. Sleep researchers believe that the pursuer of a 24-hour
society can only lead to more man-made problems, accidents and fatal errors.
1. _______________________________________________________________________
2. _______________________________________________________________________
3. _______________________________________________________________________
4. _______________________________________________________________________
5. _______________________________________________________________________
6. _______________________________________________________________________
7. _______________________________________________________________________
8. _______________________________________________________________________
9. _______________________________________________________________________
10. ______________________________________________________________________
IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION: (20 PTS) Rewrite the following sentences using the words
given.
1. The reason why I was given promotion was that Laurence recommended me. (BUT)
I wouldn't ______________________________________________________________
2. Before the new manager took over, sales were half what they are now. (DOUBLED)
Sales __________________________________________________________________
3. The Prime Minister decided to reintroduce the tax, which made people angry. (STORM)
The Prime Minister’s ______________________________________________________
4. I’m sure that Paul committed the crime. (SHADOW)
There’s _________________________________________________________________
5. He did all the illustrations for the book but no one acknowledged his work. (CREDIT)
He wasn't _______________________________________________________________
6. My father and I often have the same opinion on politics. (GROUND)
When it ________________________________________________________________
7. Their arguments won’t most likely change her mind. (ICE)
There are ______________________________________________________________ her.
8. The ending of this film makes me realize this war is pointless. (HOME)
It is ___________________________________________________________________ this war.
9. It was not surprising that Jack got into trouble with the police. (SIDE)
It came ________________________________________________________________ law.
10. When the clown fell off the ladder, the children found it extremely funny. (DIED)
On ____________________________________________________________________

END OF TEST – BEST OF LUCK

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