SAA – DECEMBER 2022 REGULATION (FC4)

1. A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because:

A) there is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance
B) the situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight.
C) the airplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome

2. Which Category of ILS is DH < 100ft and RVR not less than 700ft
A) ILS CAT II
B) ILS CAT III A
C) ILS CAT III B

3. Alert phase is declared when

A) A situation where apprehension exists as to the safety of an a/c and its
occupants
B) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to
be threatened by a danger
C) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a
state of emergency

4. By how much should a pilot avoid the beam of an AWR while in cruise
A) 2nm
B) 20nm
C) 5nm
5. Which component in the blood has an affinity to oxygen
A) Hemoglobin
B) Plasma
C) WBC

6. What is the volume percentage of gases in the atmosphere

A) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, carbon dioxide 0.03%, argon 0.9%
B) 78% nitrogen, 28% oxygen, carbon dioxide 0.03%, argon 0.9%
C) 71% nitrogen, 28% oxygen, carbon dioxide 0.06%, argon 0.69%

7. During a PAR (precision approach radar) approach, what will the pilots call
during final approach?
A) " Glideslope, Descending "
B) " 3 greens "
C) " Decision height "

8. Responsibility for compliance of rules of air

a) Operator
b) Operator and PIC
c) PIC
9. Which of the following statements is true
A) Oxygen diffusion from blood into the cells depends on the partial oxygen
pressure gradient
B) Plasma carries oxygen
C) Oxygen diffusion from lungs into blood is dependent on the partial pressure
of oxygen in the air

10. Which of the following combinations is not allowed for nationality marks
A) TTT
B) YYY
C) BBB

11. In readability scale, Level 3 is

A) Readable but with difficulty
B) Readable now and then
C) Perfectly readable

12. When is a time check done?

A) initial contact
B) pre-taxing for take off
C) before take off
13. As a cause of accidents, the human factor
A) has increased considerably since 1980 - the percentage of accident in which
this factor has been involved has more than tripled since this date
B) plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is much more
important in general aviation
C) Human factors are responsible for 70% of the accidents

14. The fuel required for a piston engine ac when no alternate is available
A) Destination fuel + 45 mins + 15% of destination fuel or for 2 hours (which is
less
B) Destination fuel + 45 mins
C) Destination fuel + 30 mins + + 15% of destination fuel or for 2 hours (which is
less

15. Which of the following drawbacks are associated with automation 1.

Reduced in manually controlling the a/c 2. Increased likelihood of slips while
programming automatic systems 3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a
sidestick 4. General decrease in technical ability
A) 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2
16. The headquarters of ICAO is in
A) London
B) Montreal
C) Washington

17. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an

approach procedure?
A) the pilot-in-command
B) the operator
C) the state

18. RVR at the runway threshold is controlling. The RVR at mid-point and
runway end is
A) Controlling if deemed by the ATC
B) controlling at the discretion of the PIC
C) controlling

19. Minimum descent height for VFR shall not be less than
A) OCA/H
B) 200 ft
C) 350 ft
20. In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon
monoxide poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
A) Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria
B) Nausea and barotitis
C) Dizziness, hypothermia

21. Up to what flight visibility will helicopters be allowed to operate if

maneuvered at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other
traffic or any obstacles in time
A) 1500m
B) 800m
C) 1000m

22. Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles)

(>10 m depth)
A) are forbidden
B) can be performed without any danger
C) are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded

23. Type ratings shall be established

A) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
B) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two
pilots
C) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least
two pilots and each type of helicopter
24. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
A) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
B) Initial, intermediate and final.
C) Arrival, intermediate and final.

25. When the visual maneuvering (circling) area has been established the
obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:
A) Only for categories A and B aircraft.
B) For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.
C) Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.

26. The general concept of NAT in flight contingencies is that

A) offset from the assigned route by 15nm and to climb or descend to an
altitude that differs (by 500' when below FL410 and 1000' when above that
altitude
B) allow a/c to divert quickly
C) allow a/c to descend quickly

27. Runway designation markings shall be with respect to

A) True north
B) Magnetic North
C) Compass North
28. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast Information shall be updated
A) As prescribed by the meteorological office
B) Immediately a significant change occurs
C) As prescribed by the state

29. An aircraft which Is being subject to unlawful interference ("hijacked") and

is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to
communicate with ATS shall try to:
A) Fly the emergency triangle
B) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000ft
when above FL 290 and 500ft when lower than FL 290
C) Declare emergency

30. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be
used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
A) Distress 7600, Hijacking 7500, Communication failure 7700
B) Distress 7500, Hijacking 7700, Communication failure 7600
C) Distress 7700, Hijacking 7500, Communication failure 7600
31. When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
A) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or
reported values
B) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR; otherwise,
hourly
C) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value

32. The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in
the order listed:
A) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position
and time over.
B) Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position
and time over and ensuing significant point.
C) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position
and time over and ensuing significant point.

32. Distance from building while refueling:

A) 15m
B) 10m
C) 25m
33. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
A) The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft
B) The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas over flown
C) The rules established under the Convention of Intenational civil aviation

34. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes:

A) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all

states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
B) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
D) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member
states.

35. An aircraft is flying under IFR in an area where the visibility is unlimited and
the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The
procedure to be followed is:
A) Descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to
IFR operations
B) Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of
landing
C) Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances in
the filed flight plan
36. You experience slight erratic changes in altitude or attitude. What is it
reported as?
A) Light chop
B) Light turbulence
C) Moderate turbulence

37. The primary factor to control the rate and depth of breathing is the:
A) total air pressure in the blood
B) partial pressure of oxygen in the blood
C) pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood

38. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure
adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface
by foreign aircraft is
A) Paris convention
B) Rome convention
C) Warsaw convention

39. White/yellow crosses on RUNWAYS and TAXIWAYS

A) Landing is prohibited.
B) Area unfit for a/c movement.
C) Special precautions to be observed in approaching to land or in landing
40. What separation should be maintained by a medium a/c following a heavy
a/c which is departing.
A) 2 NMs
B) 3 NMs
C) 5 NMs

41. Under which of the following conditions will an aircraft be reported to the
area control center or FIS?
A) When a/c does not land within 1 hour
B) 10mins after contact is not made
C) None of the above

42. What does part II of a/c rules 1937 contain?

A) Personnel
B) Prohibited areas
C) Extend to the whole of India

43. You have exceeded FDTL due to unforeseen circumstances. What document
will you refer?
A) CAR/J/section-III
B) Operations manual
C) FDTL is at discretion of pilot
44. What are the main limits of short-term memory? It is: -
1: very sensitive to interruptions and interference
2: difficult to access
3: limited in size
4: subject to a biochemical burn-in of information
A) 2,4
B) 1,3,4
C) 1,2,3

45. Hail is most likely in

A) Altocumulus
B) Cumulonimbus
C) Cumulus

46. ADC is not required for

A) Defense flights
B) Domestic flights
C) Flights not exceeding 5nms and 1000 feet from the ARP
47. Records of radiation are kept for flights above
A) 42000 feet
B) 49000 feet
C) 45000 feet

48. Role of RBC in blood? (Similar question down this line)

a) Fight foreign bacteria bodies
b) Transport oxygen
c) Clot blood

49. Which of the following disadvantages are associated with

automation? (SIMILAR QUESTION)
1. Reduced competence in manually controlling the aircraft
2. Increased likelihood of slips while programming automatic
systems

3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a sidestick

4. General decrease in technical reliability

A) 1, 2

B) 1, 2, 3, 4

C) 1, 2, 3
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