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REGIS NU650 Week 15 Final Exam

Question With 100% Correct Answers


Latest Spring 2023/2024 (Graded A+)
REGIS NU650 Week 15 Final Exam Latest 2022

Question 1 When you are assessing the internal structures of the eye, absence of a red reflex may
indicate:

a. Cataract or hemorrhage into the vitreous humor

b. Acute iritis

c. A normal finding in older adults

d. Diabetes or long-standing hypertension

Question 2 Which of the following is the correct statement regarding the size of the arterioles
and veins in the fundi of the eye?

a.The veins and the arterioles are equal in size

Incorrect: Veins will be visibly larger than the arterioles when performing a fundoscopic

exam. b.The arterioles are larger than the veins

c.The arterioles are half the size of the veins

d.The veins are larger than the arterioles

Question 3 A patient is diagnosed with conductive hearing loss in the left ear. Which of the
following is the expected results on this patient when performing the Rinne test? a.BC>AC

b.AC>BC

c.Lateralization to the bad ear

d.Lateralization to the good ear

Question 4 When the NP places a vibrating tuning fork in the midline of a patient’s skull and
asks if the tone sounds the same in both ears or is better is one, the examiner is performing:
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a.The Rinne test

b.The Weber test

c.the Proprioception test

d.a hearing acuity test

Question 5 In a young child, unilateral purulent rhinitis is most often caused by:

a.Bacterial infection

b.Allergic rhinitis

c.Viral infection

d.Foreign body

Question 6 A patient presents with pain and pressure over her cheeks and purulent nasal
discharge. The NP cannot transilluminate the sinuses and will suspect that which common sinus
may be affected? a.Maxillary sinus

b.Ethmoid sinus

c.Temporal sinus

d.Frontal sinus

Question 7 The NP suspects chronic allergy when he notes the following appearance of the
patient’s nasal mucosa:

a.Swollen and red

b.Swollen, boggy, pale, and gray

c.Hard, pale, and inflamed

d.Bright pink and inflamed

Question 8 The NP notes tenderness to palpation of the pre-auricular lymph nodes on


examination. The appropriate action at this point is to:
a.Perform a thorough examination of the ears

b.Reexamine the nodes and carefully examine lymph nodes in other regions

c.Assess the patient’s hearing

d.Assess the patient’s temperature

Question 9 To assess the position of the trachea, the NP will:

a.Use tangential lighting and inspect the neck area

b.Position the patient in a supine position at 15 degrees

c.Auscultate the carotid arteries with the bell of the stethoscope

d.Palpate the space between the trachea and sternocleidomastoid muscle

Question 10 The lymph nodes located at the angle of the mandible are:

a.Pre-auricular nodes

b.Post-auricular nodes

c.Tonsillar nodes

d.Submandibular nodes

Question 11 Which cardiac finding can be considered normal in children and young adults?

a.Third heart sound (S3)

b.Fourth heart sound (S4)

c.Ejection click

d.Diastolic murmur

Question 12 Which of the following statements is true of auscultation of the aortic valve?

a.It is best performed using the diaphragm of the stethoscope

b.It is best heard at the second left intercostal space

c.It is heard best with the patient lying in the left lateral decubitus position

d.It is best performed using the bell of the stethoscope


Question 13 Which of the following assessment findings is usually indicative of an abdominal
aortic aneurysm?

a.RUQ tenderness with light palpation over the abdomen

b.Venous hum in the abdomen with auscultation

c.Ascites and fluid wave with assessment

d.Positive bruit or wide, diffuse pulsation in the epigastric area

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Question 14 You notice a medium-pitched harsh systolic murmur during an episodic


examination of a 37-year-old woman. It is best heard at the right upper border of the sternum.
Which of the following is most likely?

a.Mitral Stenosis

b.Aortic Stenosis

c.Pulmonic Stenosis

d.Tricuspid Regurgitation

Question 15 When auscultating heart sounds at the aortic and pulmonic areas of the anterior
chest, you would expect:

a.S1 to be present, S2 to be absent

b.S1 to be louder than S2

c.S1 to be the same in intensity as S2

d.S2 to be louder than S1

Question 16 While examining a patient the nurse practitioner observes abdominal pulsations
between the xiphoid and the umbilicus. The nurse would suspect that this finding is consistent
with: a.Pulsations of the inferior vena cava

b.Abdominal aortic pulsations

c.Pulsations of the iliac arteries


d.Peristalsis from a bowel obstruction

Question 17 When palpating the abdomen of a 20-year-old patient, you note the presence of
tenderness on deep palpation in the LUQ. Which of the following structures is most likely to be
involved?

a.Spleen

b.Sigmoid

c.Appendix

d.Gallbladder

Question 18 When percussing the abdomen, hyperresonance is present:

a.over a distended bladder

b.when there is gaseous distention

c.over adipose tissue

d.over a mass or solid organ

Question 19 The NP will note positive rebound tenderness in assessment of the patient’s
abdomen as possible indication of:

a.A ventral hernia

b.Portal hypertension

c.Crohn’s disease

d.Peritoneal inflammation

Question 20 Rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point would alert the

NP to: a.Appendicitis correct

b.Peritonitis

c.A spleen injury

d.Hepatomegaly

Question 21 A Wood’s light is especially useful in diagnosing which of the following:

a.Herpes zoster
b.versicolor

c.A decubitus ulcer and necrosis

d.Melanoma

Question 22 A patient presents with a tear shaped vesicular rash on the posterior right hip. Your
list of differentials should include:

a.Tinea

b.Herpes zoster

c.Lyme disease

d.Allergic drug reaction

Question 23 The nurse practitioner discovers decreased skin turgor and knows that this is an
expected finding in which of the following conditions?

a.Severe dehydration

b.Severe obesity

c.Connected tissue disorders such as lupus

d.Growth spurts during childhood

Question 24 The NP is making morning rounds at the long term care facility and performs an
abdominal examination on a bedridden patient. The NP notes a dull sound to percussion below
the umbilical region. This most likely represents:

a.Normal bowel

b.Constipation

c.A full bladder

d.A urinary tract infection

Question 25 The NP will interpret which of the following subjective reports by a 71-year-old
male patient as most worrisome for malignancy

a.Slow, weakened urinary stream with dribbling of urine

b.Nocturia x 2

c.Painless hematuria
d.Decreased erectile function

Question 26 The NP notes that hyperresonance on percussion of the chest most likely occurs
with which of the following diagnoses:

a.Emphysema

b.Pneumonia

c.pleural effusion

d.Lung tumor

Question 27 An 18-month-old boy is seen in the clinic for a regular visit. The NP will recall that
the normal respiratory rate for this patient should be between:

a.58 – 75 breaths per minute

b.30 – 40 breaths per minute

c.23 – 42 breaths per minute

d.19 – 36 breaths per minute

Question 28 Physical exam finding associated with a consolidation in the lung may include:

a.Decreased tactile fremitus over the area of consolidation

b.Hyper resonant to percussion over the area of consolidation

c.Resonant to percussion over the area of consolidation

d. Clearly comprehensible whispered pectoriloquy

Question 29 With which voice sound technique will the NP normally hear a muffled or indistinct
sounds through the stethoscope on auscultating the chest when the patient says ‘ninety-nine’?
a.Bronchophony

b.Egophony

c.Whispered pectoriloquy

d.Tonometry

Question 30 The NP will recognize equal inspiratory and expiratory rates as normal with which
breath sounds?
a.Bronchial

b.Bronchovesicular

c.Vesicular

d.Tracheal

Question 31 Physical exam finding associated with a consolidation in the lung may include:

a.Decreased tactile fremitus over the area of consolidation

Incorrect: Percussion over a consolidated area of the lungs would result in a dull sound. Tactile
fremitus would increase over the consolidation and whispered pectoriloquy would be more
pronounced.

b.Dull to percussion over the area of consolidation

c.Resonant to percussion over the area of consolidation

d.Muffled whispered pectorilquy

Question 32 How will the NP assess cranial nerve XI?

a.Ask the patient to say ‘ah’

b.Have the patient shrug his or her should while you resist the movement

c.Have the patient stick out his or her tongue and move it from side to side

d.Touch the pharynx with a cotton–tipped applicator

Question 33 A patients presents to the clinic with complaints of a severe headache, fever,
delirium, nausea, vomiting and a stiff neck. Which physical maneuver will the NP perform to
help determine a diagnosis?

a.Babinski reflex

b.Hoffman’s sign

c.Hoover’s sign

d.Kernig’s sign

Question 34 The NP is concerned about the possibility of meningitis in her 19-year-old patient.
She asks the patient to lie supine and flex his head to his chest. The NP is assessing the patient
for what sign? a.Brudzinski sign
b.Kernig’s sign

c.Meniere’s sign

d.Dix-Hallpike sign

Question 35 The Romberg test assesses which area of the central nervous system?

a.Cerebellum

b.Midbrain

c.Temporal lobe

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d.Frontal lobe

Question 36 Which cranial nerve is being evaluated when a patient is asked to shrug his

shoulders? a.CN IX

b.CN XII

c.CN XI

d.CN X

Question 37In examining the patient, the NP places the tips of his first two fingers in front of the
patient’s ears and asks the patient to open and close his mouth. The NP then drops his fingers
into the depressed area over the joints and notes for smooth motion of the mandible. With this
action, what is the NP assessing?

a.Maxillomandibular integrity

b.Well positioned permanent teeth or well-fitting dentures

c.Temporomandibular joint syndrome

d.Mastoid inflammation

Question 38The nurse practitioner documents that her patient has a muscle grade strength of 3 in
her right leg. This means:

a.She has full ROM against gravity and resistance


b.She has full ROM against gravity and some resistance

c.She has full ROM against gravity and not against resistance

d.She has full ROM with gravity eliminated

Question 39The NP will include which of the following tests to aid in the diagnosis of meniscal

damage: a.Bulge test

b.Lachman test

c.Drawer test

d.Apley’s compression test

Question 40The NP assesses a 15-year-old patient after a football injury to his right knee. He
elicits a positive anterior/posterior drawer sign. This test indicates an injury to the:

a.Lateral meniscus

b.Cruciate ligament

c.Medial meniscus

d.Collateral ligament

The correct answer is: Cruciate ligament

Question 41You ask your patient to flex her foot downwards towards the floor. This movement is
documented as:

a.Supination

b.Pronation

c.Dorsiflexion

d.Plantar flexion

Question 42 Which of the following lines represents correct documentation of subjective

(S) data I. Patient denies change in moles or new onset of rashes.

II. Nevus on left lateral forearm measures 0.5 cm in diameter. Patient denies itching or
bleeding at site.
III. Patient admits to forgetting to use sunscreen. Face and upper torso are erythematous
without open areas.

IV. Vesicular rash on right medial thigh which patient describes as pruritic. a.Line 1

b.Line 2

c.Line 3

d.Line 4

Question 43The patient tells you that he has an itchy red rash. Where in the patient note will you
include this information?

a.Assessment

b.Plan

c.Subjective

d.Objective

Question 44

Question text

The NP will assess the extent of the patient’s weight loss by asking which of the following

questions? a.Tell me what foods you ate yesterday?

b.Have you noticed that your clothes are loose?

c.Have you developed any new food allergies or intolerances?

d.Are you able to obtain food on a regular basis?

Question 45A positive urine pregnancy test that was obtained in the office during a patient's visit
should be documented in which part of the note?

a.Subjective

b.Objective

c.Assessment

d.Plan
Question 46The CAGE screening test for alcoholism is suggestive of the disease if two of the
responses are positive. What does the E in CAGE stand for?

a.Equal parts

b.Eye opener

c.Every day use

d.(planned) End (date of use)

Question 47What Tanner stage is recorded in the note when a teenage female presents with a
secondary mound on her breasts?

a.Tanner Stage VI

b.Tanner Stage V

c.Tanner Stage IV

d.Tanner Stage III

Question 48Which of the following lines represents correct documentation of objective

(O) data I. Patient denies change in moles or new onset of rashes.

II. Patient denies itching or bleeding at site of nevus on left lateral


forearm.

III. Patient admits to forgetting to use sunscreen. IV. Vesicular

rash on right medial thigh

a.Line 1

b.Line 2

c.Line 3

d.Line 4

Question 49Which of the following lines represents correct documentation of subjective (S) data

I. Patient reports tenderness to palpation of right upper quadrant of the abdomen

II. Positive egophony noted when patient says ‘eeee’ repeatedly


III. Patient reports having a bowel movement which was dark in color with obvious bright
red blood

IV. Patient’s vision in her right eye is tested at 20/40 a.Line 1

b.Line 2

c.Line 3

d.Line 4

Question 50The assessment (A) component of the SOAP note is used to document

a.Physical assessment findings

b.The provider’s interpretation of the findings

c.Patient’s comprehensive health history

d.Plan of care to address the patient’s identified problems

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