Nazar College of Physiotherapy

DAKSON Institute of Health Sciences

Email: nazarcollegeislamabad @gmail.com
Website: www.dihs.edu.com

Mid Term Examination DPT 3rd Semester 2023

Fill all the MCQs each MCQs carries 1 mark.

Total MCQs: 50
Time allowed: 1 hour
Subject: Medical Physics

1.is the smallest part of an element that retains the identity of the element.

a. Molecule
b. Atom
c. Cell
d. All of these

2. ECG is used to find the electrical activity of

a. Heart
b. Brain
C. kidney
d. GIT

3. Z=

a. Total number of electrons

b. Total number of neutrons
C. Atomic mass
d. atomic number

4. Faradic type current is short duration interrupted direct current with pulse duration of 0.1-1 ms
and frequencies. used for the stimulation of innervated muscles.

a. 5-10 Hz
b. 50-100 Hz
c. 50-500 Hz
d. 50-1000 Hz

5. All of the followings are indications of TENS, except

a. Chronic pain syndrome

b. Phantom limb pain
c. Hemorrhagic conditions
d. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy

6. Which one of the following is incorrect regarding placement of TENS electrode on body

surface

a. Area of greater intensity of pain.

b. Superficial nerve proximal to the site of pain.
c. To the appropriate myotome.
d. To the nerve trunk trigger point

7. A capacitor consists of
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a. Two conductors
b. Two semiconductors
c. Two dielectrics
d. Two insulator

8.Capacitance decreases with

a. Increase in distance between the plates

b. Decrease in plate area
c. Decrease in distance between the plates
d. Increase in density of the material

9. the electrons are arranged in definite energy shells or orbits around the nucleus called
a. electrovalent
b. covalent
c. principal quantum shell
d. chemical activity

10. elements whose atoms have few electrons in their outer orbit
a. insulator
b. conductor
c. non conductor
d. latent heat

11. the quantity of electricity is measured in

a. watt
b. meter
c. coulombs
d. pressure

12. the greater the potential difference the greater the

a. charge
b. current
c. voltage
d. EMF

13. the unit of electrical resistance is

a. coulombs
b. watt
c. ohms
d. voltage

14. choose the correct answer

a. carbon has a single electron in its outer shell
b. carbon has two electrons in its outer shell
c. copper has a single electron in its outer shell
d. copper has two electrons in its outer shell

15.the amount of heat produced in a conducter is proportional to the

a. voltage
b. pressure
c. resistance
d. watt

16. the ability to do work is called

a. power
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b. strength
c. energy
d. endurance

17. when magnet is free to rotate it will align itself in the

a. west
b. west-north
c. north-south
d. south-north

18. mutual induction is said to be

a. when an EMF is induced in an adjacent conductor
b. when an EMF is induced far away from the conductor
c. when two coil is placed near each other
d. when two coil is placed faraway from each other

19. self-induction is said to be

a. when a charge magnetic field causes a voltage in a current
b. when a coil magnetic field causes a voltage in a current
c. when a coil causes a voltage in a current
d. when a current causes voltage in a coil

20. velocity is constant for all forms of electromagnetic waves , being

a. 300000km per second
b.350000km per second
c. 400000km per second
d. 3300000km per second

21. radio waves

a.750nm-0.4nm
b.0.1mm-100km
c.400nm-750nm
d.0.01pm-100nm

22. infra-red waves

a.750nm-0.4nm
b.0.1mm-100km
c.400nm-750nm
d.0.01pm-100nm

23. visible light

a.750nm-0.4nm
b.0.1mm-100km
c.400nm-750nm
d.0.01pm-100nm

24. variable transformer is consisting of

a. primary coil
b. secondary coil
c. primary and secondary coil
d. none of them

25. the autotransformer consist of a single coil of wire with

a. one contact point
b. two contact point
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c. three contact point
d. four contact point

26. the disadvantage of autotransformer

a. allows only a small step down
b. allows only a small step up

27. capacitor is also known as a

a. condenser
b. charge
c. watt
d. voltage

28. capacitance is the ability to hold an electric charge and is measured in

a. farads
b. charge
c. voltage
d. current

29. Diode valves is a device which allow flow of current in

a. one direction
b. two direction
c. three direction
d. four direction

30. faradic type current is a short duration with a pulse duration of

a. 0.1-1ms
b. 0.1ms
c. 1ms

31. faradic-type currents are always

a. surged for treatment
b. intruded for treatment
c. not always surged
d. most of the time surged

32. faradic-type current are always surged for treatment

a. yes
b. No

33. when a shock is due to a connection between the live wire of the main and earth it is known as an

a. earth shock
b. earth free
c. black wire
d. current free

34. All of the followings are indications of TENS, except

a. Chronic pain syndrome

b. Phantom limb pain
c. Hemorrhagic conditions
d. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy

35. Which one of the following is incorrect regarding placement of TENS electrode on body

surface
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a. Area of greater intensity of pain.
b. Superficial nerve proximal to the site of pain.
c. To the appropriate myotome.
d. To the nerve trunk trigger point

36. the frequency of faradic type of current is

a. 50per second
b. 100per second
c. 50-100per second

37. nerve transmission due to

a. diffusion
b. potential difference
c. ionization

38. faradic-type of current is for innervated muscle

a. yes
b. No

39. Galvanic-type of current is for denervated muscle

a. Yes
b. No

40. Faradic-type of current is for denervated muscle

a. Yes
b. No

41. Galvanic-Type of current is for innervated muscle

a. Yes
b. No

42. when a patient is unable to produce a muscle contraction or finds difficulty in doing so
a. electrical stimulation aid in assessing voluntary contraction
b. IR may be useful
c. Ultrasound may be useful
d. Galvanic type of current may be useful

43. PRICE is indicated in

a. chronic case
b. acute case
c. in both cases
d. only in acute case

44. PRICE, P stands for

a. protraction
b. preparation
c. protection

45. PRICE, I stand for

a. icing
b. ice cold pack
c. ice cooling effect

46. Diode valves is a device which allow flow of current in

a. one direction
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b. two direction
c. three direction
d. four direction

47. faradic type current is a short duration with a pulse duration of

a. 0.1-1ms
b. 0.1ms
c. 1ms

48. faradic-type currents are always

a. surged for treatment
b. intruped for treatment
c. not always surged
d. most of the time surged

49. faradic-type current are always surged for treatment

a. yes
b. No

50. when a shock is due to a connection between the live wire of the main and earth it is known as an

a. earth shock
b. earth free
c. black wire
d. current free

51. Which of the following is not a fundamental force in nature?

a) Gravitational force
b) Electromagnetic force
c) Strong nuclear force
d) Weak nuclear force

52. X-rays are an example of:

a) Electromagnetic waves
b) Sound waves
c) Alpha particles
d) Beta particles

53. The SI unit of absorbed dose is:

a) Gray (Gy)
b) Sievert (Sv)
c) Becquerel (Bq)
d) Curie (Ci)

54. Which imaging modality uses magnetic fields and radio waves to generate images of the body?
a) X-ray
b) Ultrasound
c) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d) Positron emission tomography (PET)

55. The phenomenon of a material emitting light when exposed to radiation is called:
a) Scattering
b) Absorption
c) Fluorescence
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d) Attenuation

56. The half-value layer (HVL) is a measure of:

a) Absorbed dose
b) Radiation quality
c) Radiation output
d) Radiation intensity

57. The dose equivalent takes into account the:

a) Energy of the radiation
b) Biological effectiveness of the radiation
c) Number of photons emitted
d) Rate of radioactive decay

58. Which of the following is used to treat cancer by delivering a high dose of radiation to a localized
area?
a) Radiography
b) Computed tomography (CT)
c) Brachytherapy
d) Nuclear medicine

59. The term "linear energy transfer" (LET) refers to the:

a) Speed of a particle
b) Range of a particle
c) Distance traveled by a particle
d) Rate at which a particle deposits energy

60. Which type of radiation has the highest LET?

a) X-rays
b) Gamma rays
c) Alpha particles
d) Neutrons

61. The process of radioactive decay involves the emission of:

a) Electrons
b) Neutrons
c) Protons
d) Particles and/or photons

62. The term "radiation therapy" refers to the use of radiation for:
a) Diagnosis
b) Treatment
c) Prevention
d) Research

63. Which of the following is a commonly used unit for expressing radioactivity?
a) Watt (W)
b) Volt (V)
c) Ampere (A)
d) Becquerel (Bq)

64. The process by which an unstable nucleus spontaneously emits radiation is called:
a) Radioactive decay
b) Radioactive decay chain
c) Radioactive half-life
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d) Radioactive equilibrium

65. The term "radiobiology" refers to the study of:

a) Radiation therapy
b) Radiation safety
c) biological effects of radiation
d) Radiation detection

66. The unit "rem" stands for:

a) Radiation equivalent man
b) Radioactive exposure meter
c) Radiographic examination method
d) Roentgen equivalent measure

67. Which of the following is a potential risk associated with ionizing radiation exposure?
a) Skin burns
b) Cancer
c) Infertility
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

68. The process by which a high-energy photon interacts with matter and produces an electron-
positron pair is called:
a) Pair production
b) Compton scattering
c) Photoelectric effect
d) Bremsstrahlung

69. Which type of radiation is most commonly used for external beam radiation therapy?
a) X-rays
b) Gamma rays
c) Protons
d) Neutrons

70. The concept of "radiation weighting factor" (wR) is used to:

a) Calculate the effective dose
b) Determine the absorbed dose
c) Quantify radiation quality
d) Assess radiation dose limits

71. The process of radioactive decay follows a:

a) Linear pattern
b) Exponential pattern
c) Periodic pattern
d) Non-deterministic pattern

72. Which of the following imaging modalities uses ionizing radiation?

a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b) Ultrasound
c) Positron emission tomography (PET)
d) Optical coherence tomography (OCT)

73. The process of "scatter radiation" refers to:

a) Absorption of radiation by tissues
b) Reflection of radiation from surfaces
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c) Change in direction of radiation due to interactions with matter
d) Transmission of radiation through materials

74. The process of "attenuation" refers to the:

a) Scattering of radiation
b) Reflection of radiation
c) Absorption of radiation
d) Transmission of radiation

75. The "inverse square law" states that the intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the:
a) Distance from the source
b) Energy of the radiation
c) Atomic number of the material
d) Time of exposure

76. Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an x-ray beam?

a) Half-value layer (HVL)
b) Exposure rate
c) Collimation
d) Source-to-skin distance (SSD)

77. Which of the following is a potential biological effect of ionizing radiation exposure?
a) Radiation sickness
b) Cataracts
c) Cancer
d) All of the above

78. The process of "braking radiation" refers to the:

a) Production of x-rays by slowing down fast-moving electrons
b) Production of gamma rays by nuclear decay
c) Production of positrons by annihilation
d) Production of neutrons by nuclear reactions

79. The process of "linear attenuation coefficient" describes the:

a) Scattering of radiation
b) Reflection of radiation
c) Absorption of radiation
d) Transmission of radiation

80. Which of the following is a measure of the biological effect of radiation exposure?
a) Absorbed dose
b) Effective dose
c) Equivalent dose
d) Entrance skin dose

81. The process of "dose calibration" refers to:

a) Determining the dose rate of a radiation source
b) Calibrating the response of a radiation detector
c) Estimating the absorbed dose in a patient
d) Measuring the half-value layer of a material

82. Which of the following is a measure of the radiation output of a radiographic machine?
a) Kilovolt peak (kVp)
b) Milliamperes (mA)
c) Exposure time
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d) All of the above

83. The "Roentgen" (R) is a unit used to measure:

a) Absorbed dose
b) Dose equivalent
c) Exposure
d) Radioactivity

84. The process of "radiation therapy planning" involves:

a) Determining the radiation dose to be delivered
b) Calculating the treatment time
c) Selecting the treatment technique
d) All of the above

85. Which of the following factors affects the penetration of x-rays through matter?
a) atomic number of the material
b) Thickness of the material
c) Energy of the x-rays
d) All of the above

86. Which of the following is a measure of the rate of radioactive decay?

a) Activity
b) Exposure
c) Absorbed dose
d) Equivalent dose

87. The process of "radiation shielding" is used to:

a) Increase the dose of radiation delivered
b) Decrease the dose of radiation received
c) Measure the dose of radiation absorbed
d) Monitor the quality of radiation emitted

88. The concept of "radiation dose limits" is used to:

a) Regulate the use of radiation in medical procedures
b) Define the maximum allowable dose for radiation workers
c) Ensure patient safety during radiation therapy
d) All of the above

89. Which of the following is a measure of the biological effectiveness of radiation?

a) Linear energy transfer (LET)
b) Half-life
c) Radioactive decay constant
d) atomic number

90. The process of "radiation monitoring" involves:

a) Measuring the radiation dose received by individuals
b) Assessing the radiation output of medical devices
c) Monitoring the radiation exposure in the environment
d) All of the above

91. The process of "radiation safety" involves:

a) Minimizing radiation dose to individuals
b) Implementing safety measures in radiological procedures
c) Educating individuals about radiation risks
d) All of the above
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92. Which of the following is a measure of the energy deposited by radiation in a unit mass of tissue?
a) Absorbed dose
b) Effective dose
c) Equivalent dose
d) Entrance skin dose

93. The process of "radiation therapy delivery" involves:

a) Positioning the patient for treatment
b) Administering the radiation dose
c) Verifying the treatment plan
d) All of the above

94. The process of "radiation protection" aims to:

a) Minimize radiation dose to patients and workers
b) Maximize radiation dose for therapeutic purposes
c) Optimize radiation dose for diagnostic purposes
d) All of the above

95. Which of the following is a measure of the rate at which a radioactive material decay?
a) Activity
b) Exposure
c) Absorbed dose
d) Equivalent dose

96. The "radiation weighting factor" (wR) is used to:

a) Quantify the absorbed dose
b) Calculate the equivalent dose
c) Assess the quality of radiation
d) Determine the effective dose

97. The process of "patient positioning" is important in radiation therapy to:

a) Ensure accurate delivery of radiation dose
b) Minimize radiation scatter to surrounding tissues
c) Prevent patient movement during treatment
d) All of the above

98. Which of the following is a measure of the radiation exposure received by an individual?
a) Air kerma
b) Equivalent dose
c) Effective dose
d) Entrance skin dose

99. The "radiation oncologist" is responsible for:

a) Prescribing the radiation dose for cancer treatment
b) Planning the radiation therapy treatment
c) Administering the radiation dose to the patient
d) All of the above

100. The process of "radiation biology" involves studying the:

a) Physical properties of radiation
b) biological effects of radiation on living organisms
c) Techniques used in radiation therapy
d) Radiological protection guidelines

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