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2020 Electrical Engineering Detailed Solution Set B
2020 Electrical Engineering Detailed Solution Set B
SET - B
Detailed Solution
1. In a tunnel diode, the width of the junction Ans. (b)
barrier is Sol. In transistor emitter is highly doped. Base
(a) Directly proportional as the square root of region is lightly doped and collector region is
impurity concentration moderatly doped with high area.
(b) Inversely proportional as the square root So, junction between emitter and base region
of impurity concentration is prone zener breakdown and junction between
ER
(c) Directly proportional as square of impurity base and collector is prone to avalanche
concentration breakdown.
ST
its depletion width is very narrow to allow 4. In a Field Effect Transistor (FET), the
tunneling effect. maximum voltage that can be applied between
In diode depletion width w is given by formula any two terminals is given by
(a) Low |VDS| causing avalanche breakdown
2s 1 1
w = V (b) Low |VGS| causing avalanche breakdown
q Na Nd
(c) |VDS| = 0 when gate is reverse-biased
where Na = Acceptor concentration
MA
(d) |VGS| = 0 when gate is reverse-biased
Nd = donar concentration
Ans. (a)
If Na is very large.
Sol. The maximum voltage that can be applied
2 1 between any two terminals is upto it reach a
Then w q Nd breakdown region
1 ID(mA)
So, w VGS = 0
Nd IDSS
VGS = –1
Hence option (b) is correct.
VGS = –2
2. In a grounded-emitter transistor, when emitter
S
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
need to provide positive gate voltage to attract There is no distortion exist either separately
negative charge. or simultaneously in amplifier in linear region.
6. The double base diode which is operated with 8. Transistor noise caused by the recombination
the emitter forward biased and a smaller and generation of carriers on the surface of the
emitter junction is called crystal is called
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(a) Field Effect Transistor (FET) (a) Thermal noise (b) Excess noise
(b) Uni-Junction Transistor (UJT) (c) White noise (d) Shot noise
(c) Bipolar Junction Transistor (BJT) Ans. (a)
(d) Metal Oxide Semiconductor Field Effect Sol. Shot noise: It is caused by the random arrival
Transistor (MOSFET) of current carriers (holes and electrons) at the
Ans. (b) output element of electronic device.
ST
Sol. UJT has three terminals: an emitter(s) and It is due to discrete nature of current.
two base (B1 and B2) so, it is some times known Excess noise: It is flicker noise occur in
as double-base diode. resister it is 1/f where f is frequency.
As area of emitter is very small so, its junction Thermal noise: At the surface crystal due to
is very small. photon or heat there is generation of carrier
B1 which produces noise.
So, thermal noise is answer.
MA
9. During a low frequency response of an amplifier
P which is invariably of RC-coupled type, there
N is a range of frequency characteristics over
which the amplification is constant and delay
is also constant, called
(a) Low band frequency
B2
Fig: UJT (b) Mid band frequency
(c) High band frequency
7. Which one of the following is not a distortion
(d) Hyper band frequency
S
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
the inductor L, capacitor C and resistor R are (a) Voltage-series (b) Current-series
the analogs of the mechanical system as (c) Voltage-shunt (d) Current-shunt
(a) Mass, compliane, viscous-damping factor Ans. (b)
(b) Mass, spring constant, viscous-damping Sol. We know in case of transconductance with
factor negative feedback.
(c) Mass, momentum, viscous-damping factor
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Zi = input impedance = maximum
(d) Mass, displacement, viscous-damping factor Zo = output impedance = maximum
Ans. (b) So, feedback configuration is series – series.
Sol. A quartz crystal can be modelled as : Series – series = curent series.
ST
C2 applied to input terminals where the connection
Crystal L is
C1 (a) Series with both inverting as well as non-
inverting input
where, analogy can be given as
(b) Series with non-inverting input
Mass Inductance
(c) Shunt with inverting input
Stiffness (spring constant) capacitance
MA
(d) Shunt with non-inverting input
Viscous-damping factor Resistance
Ans. (a)
11. In a phase shift oscillator using an FET, at a
certain frequency if the phase shift introduced Sol. Opertational amplifier gives finite output even
by the RC network is 180°, then the total phase if input is zero this is because of offset voltage.
shift from gate around the circuit and back to This is eliminated by applying a voltage in
the gate will be series with both inverting as well as non
(a) 0° (b) 90° inverting input.
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
quasi It doesn’t cause loading effect because of use of
stable high input impedance OPAMP.
state It is easier to the tune in wide range.
0 t
It exhibit negligible insertion loss because of
amplifier present unit.
ER
Fig: without trigger
17. A two-step procedure in a typical diffusion
quasi apparatus to obtain the complementary-error-
stable function Gaussian distribution involves the first
Stable step and second step respectively as
state (a) Predeposition and Drive-in
(b) Predeposition and Drive-out
15. In a paraphase amplifier, where two amplifiers
ST
(c) Drive-in and Postdeposition
are connected in cascade, the output from second
(d) Drive-out and Postdeposition
stage
Ans. (a)
(a) Equals signal input without change of sign
Sol. In VLSI technology
(b) Equals signal input with change of sign
Predeposition also known as infinite source
(c) Does not equal to signal input and has no
diffusion is done before drive-in (finite source)
sign change
MA
diffusion.
(d) Does not equal to signal input but has sign
change 18. In AM modulation, the equation of the
Ans. (c) modulating signal is given by f(t) =
A m cos m t . If the amplitude of the carrier
Sol. Paraphase amplifier is based on the concept of
the distributed amplifier it gives gain and 180° wave is A and there is no over-modulation, the
phase shift. modulation efficiency will be
In question two paraphase amplifier are (a) 33.3% (b) 38.6%
cascaded. (c) 43.3% (d) 48.6%
So, Net phase shift = 180° + 180° = 360° Ans. (a)
S
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
(c) 55 MHz and 45 MHz 21. Which one of the following is not a transmission
(d) 75 MHz and 45 MHz parameter of a private line data circuit that
utilizes public telephone network?
Ans. (b)
(a) Geographical parameter
Sol. The Spectrum of BPSK. is
(b) Bandwidth parameter
(c) Interface parameter
ER
(d) Facility parameter
Ans. (a)
R –fc R R fc R
f c b fc b fc b fc b Sol. Transmission parameter are divided into three
2 2 2 2
broad categories.
Given fc = 70 MHz
Bandwidth parameters:- It include
Rb = 10 Mbps attenuation distortion and envelope delay
ST
So, Maximum upper side freq. distortion.
Rb Interface parameter:- It include terminal
(USP) = fc
2 impedance, in band and out of band signal
10 power, test signal power and ground
= 70 75MHz isolation
2
Minimum lower side frequency (LSF) Facility parameter:- Which include noise
R 10
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measurements frequency distortion, phase
= fc b 70
2 2 distortion amplitude distortion, and
= 65 MHz nonlinear distortion.
20. In modulation system, the energy per bit-to- 22. The Shannon limit for information capacity I
Eb is
noise power density ratio N is
o
S S
N B (a) B log 2 1 – (b) B log 2 1
C fb N N
(a) (b) C f
N B b
C B N fb S S
(c) N f (d) (c) Blog10 1 – (d) B log10 1
N N
S
b C B
Where:
Where:
N = Noise power (W)
N = Noise power of thermal (W)
B = Bandwidth (Hz)
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B = Bandwidth(Hz)
S = Signal power (W)
C = Carrier power (W)
Ans. (b)
fb = Bit rate (bps)
Sol. Shannon limit for Information capacity
Ans. (c)
S
Sol. The signal to noise ratio (SNR) of received signal I = B log 2 1
N
C Eb f b where N = noise power
= N B B = Band width
N 0
S = Signal power.
Eb C B
N 0 = N fb 23. In a time division multiplexing, there are 8000
samples for a digital signal-0 channel that uses
Eb CB 8 kHz sample rate and 8 bit PCM code. The
so N 0 = N fb line speed will be
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
(a) 56 kbps (b) 64 kbps 1. A continuous-time system is a system in
(c) 76 kbps (d) 84 kbps which, continuous-time input signals are
applied, resulting in continuous-time output
Ans. (b) signals.
Sol. Given sampling rate. 2. A system is said to be linear if it follows
fs = 8 KHz the superposition theorem.
ER
No of bits n = 8 bit 3. A system is said to be non-linear if it follows
Line speed Rb = n fs the superposition theorem.
(a) 16,000
(c) 8,000
(b) 12,000
(d) 6,000
ST
information bit rate of 24 kbps, the baud rate
will be
superposition principle, which comprises of
additivity and homogencity.
Addivity : If x1 t
& x 2 t
X1 s
X2 s
Ans. (c)
MA
homogeneity then
Sol. Given Rb = 24 Kbps.
Rb
ax1 t bx 2 t
aX1 s bX2 s
Band Rate BT = log M
2 So (2) is correct & (3) is false,
Give M = 8 for (8-PSK) A non-linear system doesn’t follow superposition
24 kbps theorem.
BT = log 2 8 A continous time signal is one which exists for
entire continuous time duration.
24
BT = kbps Whereas a system which takes continous time
3
signal as input & yields a continous time signal
S
25. During transformation of independent variable, 27. A discrete time signal is said to be a unit
IE
26. Which of the following statements is/are Sol. A discrete time signal is said to be unit sample
correct? sequence. if (a)
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
n 1 for n = 0 in a signal without distortion and attenuate or
eliminate other frequency components are called
0 for n 0 as frequency relective filters.
All other signals also have only one sample
30. If the input signal x(t) and impulse response
sequence, but their magnitude is not equal to
h(t) of a continuous-time-system are described
1.
as
ER
28. A signal is said to be x(t) = e–et.u(t) and h(t) = u(t–1), the output y(t)
will be
1. Deterministic if there is no uncertainty over
1 1
the signal at any instant of time. 1 – e –3 t–1 1 – e –3t
(a) (b)
3 3
2. Deterministic if it is expressible through a
mathematical equations. 1 1
1 e –3 t–1 1 e –3t
(c) (d)
3. Random or non-deterministic if there is 3 3
ST
uncertainty over the signal at the instant Ans. (a)
of time.
Sol. Given,
4. Random or non-deterministic if it is non
x(t) = e–3t . u(t)
expressible through a mathematical
equation. h(t) = u(t – 1)
Which of the above statements are correct? To calculate y(t)
y(t) = x(t) * h(t)
MA
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Taking Laplace transform
Ans. (d) Y(s) = X(s) . H(s)
Sol. A deterministic signal is a signal about which X(s) = Le3t u t
there is no uncertainity with respect to its
1
value at any time. These signals can be X(s) =
modelled as completely specified functions of s3
time or mathematical expression. e s
H(s) = L h t
1
Whereas, a random signal is a signal about s
which there is uncertainity before which it
e s 1 A B
S
expression. A lim Y s s
s 0 3 3
29. Linear time-invariant systems that are e3t
designed to pass some frequencies essentially B lim Y s s 3
s 3 3
undistorted and significantly attenuate or
eliminate others are 1 e3
So, Y s
(a) Frequency-shaping filters 3s 3 s 3
(b) Frequency-selective filters 1 1 e 3
Y s
(c) Time-shaping filters 3 s s 3
(d) Time-selective filters 1 3 3t
y t u t e e u t
Ans. (b) 3
Sol. Those linear time-invarient systems which are 1
1 e3 t 1 u t
designed to pass desired frequency components y t
3
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
31. Consider an LTI system whose response to the A B
input H(s) =
s2 s4
x(t) = [e–t + e–3t] u(t) is 3
A = slim s 2 H s
y(t) = [2e–t – 2e–4t] u(t).
2 2
3 3
The system’s impulse response will be B = slim
ER
4 2 2
3 –2t
(a) e e –4t u t 3 1 1
2 H(s) =
2 s 2 s 4
3 –2t
(b) e – e –4t u t
2 3 2t
h t e e4t u t
1 –2t
2
(c) e e –4t u t
ST
2 32. Consider an LTI system with a system function
1 –2t
(d) e e –4t u t 1
2 H(z) =
1
1 – z –1
Ans. (a) 4
Sol. Given, Its difference equation will be
1
LTI system (a) y n –
y n – 1 x n
2
MA
x(t) = (e–t + e–3t) u(t)
1
y(t) = (2e–t – 2e–4t) u(t) (b) y n – y n – 1 x n
4
To calculate impulse response 1
(c) y n y n – 1 x n
y(t) = x(t)*h(t) 2
y(s) = X(s).H(s) 1
(d) y n – y n 1 x n
4
y(s) = L 2e t 2e4t u t
Ans. (b)
2 2 6 Sol. Given,
y(s) =
s 1 s 4 s 1 s 4
LTI system
S
X(s) = L e t e3t u t 1
H(z) = 1
1 1 1 z 1
X(s) = 4
s 1 s 3
IE
2s 4 2 s 2 Y z Y z 1
H(z) =
= = X z X z 1
s 1 s 3 s 1 s 3 1 z 1
4
Y s The difference equation is
Now, H(s) =
X s
1
6 y n 1 z 1 = x(n)
4
s 1 s 4 6 s 3
= 2 s 2 = 1
2 s 2 s 4
y n y n 1 x n
s 1 s 3 4
3 s 3 Note: Using property of shifting
H(s) =
s 2 s 4
If x n
X z
By partial fraction
n
X z z 0
then x n n 0
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
33. It is assumed that quantization error, e(n) is 1
a sequence of random variables where X(s) =
s
1. The statistics do not change with time. 5
(s2+4s+5)y(s) = s 2 4
2. It is a sequence of uncorrelated random s
variables. 5
= s6
3. It is uncorrelated with the quantizer input s
ER
x(n). s2 6s 5 A BS C
Y(s) = = 2
4. The probability density function is s s 4s 5
2
S s 4s s
uniformly distributed over the range of By partial fraction & comparsion
values of quantization error.
A+ B= 1
Which of the above statements are correct?
4A + C = 6
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
5A = 1
ST
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A 1 B0 C2
Ans. (b)
1 2
34. For a given differential equation, y(s) =
s s2 4s 5
d2 y t dy t 1 2
4 5y t 5 t y(s) = s
dt 2 dt s 2 2 1
MA
Taking inverse laplace
dy t
with y o – 1 and 2 y(t) = (1 + 2e–2t sint) u(t)
dt 0–
The output y(t) will be 35. The Nyquist rate for the signal
(a) 2u(t) – 2e–2t sin t 1
x(t) = cos 4000t cos 1000t will be
(b) u(t) + 2e–2t sin t 2
(c) u(t) – 2e–t sin t (a) 5 kHz (b) 10 kHz
e–t
S
Differential equation 1
x t cos 4000t cos 1000t
d2 y t dy t 2
2
4 5y t 5x t
dt dt 1
x t 2cos 4000t cos 1000t
dy t 4
with y 0 1 &
2
dt 0 1
x t cos 3000t cos 5000 t
Input x(t) = u(t) 4
Taking laplace transform of differential Using cos(A–B) + cos(A+B) = 2cosA.cosB
equation m 5000
s2y(s) – sy(0) – y'(0) + 4(sy(s) – y(0)) + 5 y(s)
5000
= 5x(s) fm 2500Hz
2
y(s) (s2+4s+5) = sy(0) + y'(0) + 4y(0) + 5x(s)
So, by low pass sampling theorem Nyquist rate
x(t) = u(t)
2fm
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
for fs = 2(2500)
1
fs = 5000 Hz Sol. C(s)= R s
1 ST
1 1
36. Which of the following statements is/are C(s) =
ST 1 S2
ER
correct?
1 ST T2
1. A system is said to be Finite Impulse C(s) = 2
S 1 ST
Response (FIR), if the output samples of
the system depend only on the present 1 T 1
2
T.
input and a finite number of past or C(s) = S S 1
S
previous input samples. T
2. If the output of a system y(n) depends only Taking Laplace inverse
on the present input and past inputs, but
not on past outputs, then it is called a
non-recursive system.
ST
3. If the output of a system y(n) depends only
on the present input and past inputs, but
not on past outputs, then it is called a
Error signal,
C(t) = t – T + T.e–t/T
e(t) = t – [t – T +T.e–t/T]
( r(t) = t u(t))
e(t) = T(1 – e–t/T)
37. The value of the steady state error for first 39. The method of determination of the stability of
the feedback systems as a function of an
1 adjustable gain parameter which does not
order system, with Unit Ramp Function
sT 1 provide detailed information concerning location
will be of closed-loop poles as a function of gain K is
called
1
(a) (b) T (a) Root locus method
T
(b) Nyquist criterion method
1
(c) T 1 – –
e T
1
(d)
1 –T
T
e (c) Bode plot method
(d) Routh-Hurwitz criterion method
Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
Sol. Routh-Hurwitz criterion method is used for (a) Root locus method
determination of stability of the feedback system (b) Nyquist criterion method
as a function of an adjustable gain parameter.
This method only tells about number of roots (c) Bode plot method
lying in right half plane and doesn’t provide (d) Routh-Hurwitz criterion method
concerning location of closed poles. Ans. (a)
ER
Root locus method provides exact locations of Sol. Root locus method is a graphical technique
roots of characteristics equation . which gives location of closed loop poles of a
40. Consider the sinusoidal transfer function in rotation system as a function of value of gain.
time-constant form Root locus technique is used for both continuous
time and a discrete time system.
2 1 j
G j 2 Nyquist criterion and Bode plot method are
j not directly function of value of gain, although
1
ST
10 both can be used for discrete-time as well.
Asymptotic log magnitude characteristic of Routh-Hurwitz criterion is not a graphical
factor 1 j is straight line of technique.
a
contribution of particular factor is 0dB. Ans. (c)
1 Sol. Effects of addition of poles to left half
here, for 1 j , Ta = 1 T 1
a 1. Root locus branches shifts toward right
0 dB for 1 hand side and relative stability decreases
and every single order zero contributes for 2. System becomes more oscillatory.
+20dB/decade of slope after it’s corner Effects of addition of zeros to left half
frequency.
1. Root locus shifts towards left and relative
So, 1 and 2 are correct. stability of system increases
41. A graphical technique for plotting the closed- 2. System becomes less oscillatory
loop poles of a rational system functions as a 43. In time domain, the relative stability is
function of the value of gain for both continuous- measured by maximum overshoot and damping
time and a discrete-time system is ratio. In frequency domain, the relative stability
is measured by
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
(a) Steady state error (b) Damping ratio real parts of poles of G s H s
(c) Resonant peak (d) Bandwidth – real parts of zeros of G s H s
Centroid =
Ans. (c) Pz
0 1 2 0
Sol. In the time domain, relative stability is =
measured by parameters such as maximum 30
ER
overshoot and damping ratio. In the frequency = –1
domain, the resonant peak is used to indicate
45. Which one of the following statements
relative stability.
regarding an effect of phase lead network is
44. Consider a feedback system with the not correct ?
characteristic equation (a) The velocity constant is usually increased
(b) The slope of the magnitude curve is reduced
1
ST
1 K at the gain crossover frequency, as a result
s s 1 s 2 = 0 for root locus.
reltive stability improves
The angles of asymptotes A and the centroid (c) Phase margin increased
(d) the bandwidth decreased
of the asymptotes A are respectively
Ans. (d)
(a) 60°, 120°, 180° and –
Sol. Effects of phase lead network
MA
(b) 45°, 90°, 300° and 0 1. Velocity constant Kv increases
(c) 60°, 180°, 300° and –1 2. The slope of the magnitude plot reduces at
(d) 45°, 90°, 180° and 0 gain crossover frequency, as a result
relative stability improves.
Ans. (c)
3. Phase margin increases
Sol. Given
4. Response becomes faster
1
1 K = 0 5. Increases the system bandwidth.
s s 1 s 2
Hence option (d) is not correct.
then,
46. A lead compensator
S
K
G(s) H(s) =
s s 1 s 2 1. Speeds up the transient response.
Angle of asymptotes 2. Increases the margin of stability of a
IE
system.
180
(QA) = 2K 1 3. Helps to increase the system error constant
P z
though to a limited extent.
Where, P = No. of finite poles
Which of the above statements are correct?
z = No. of finite zeros
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
and
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
K = 0, 1, 2, ......,((z – P–1)
Ans. (d)
Hence
Sol. A lead compensator causes the following effect
180
QA = 2K 1 1. System error constant increase
30
2. Seeps up the transient response
= (2K + 1) × 60
3. Increases stability margin (pm) of system
QA = 60°, 180°, 300° 4. Increases band width of system.
Hence all of given statements are correct.
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
47. Which of the following statements are correct? change slightly with the magnetisation. At
1. The pair (AB) is controllable implies that lower flux densities in transformers, the
the pair (ATBT) is observable. amount of magnetostrition is also low. Hence
from the given options the noise can be reduced
2. The pair (AB) is controllable implies that by tightening of core by clamps as transformer
the pair (ATBT) is unobservable. oil has nothing to do with humming noise.
3. The pair (AC) is observable implies that
ER
the pair (ATCT) is controllable. 50. A transformer with a 10: 1 ratio and rated at
50 kVA, 2400/240 V, 50 Hz is used to step
4. The pair (AC) is observable implies that down the voltage of a distribution system. The
the pair (ATCT) is uncontrollable. low tension voltage is to be kept constant at
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only 240 V. If the transformer is fully loaded at 0.8
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only power factor (lag), the load impedance connected
to low-tension side will be nearly
Where: A, B and C are having their standard
ST
meanings. (a) 3.15 (b) 2.60
Ans. (a) (c) 1.15 (d) 0.60
Sol. If pair [A, B] is controllable, then pair Ans. (c)
[AT, BT] will be observable. Sol. Rated so =50 kVA
If pair [A, C] is observable, then pair Rated vol = 2400V/240V
[AT, CT] will be controllable.
MA
Rated current on LV side = I2
48. Bounded-input bounded-output stability implies So = V2I2
asymptotic stability for
So 50 103
1. Completely controllable system I2 =
V2 240
2. Completely observable system
Load impedance
3. Uncontrollable system
4. Unobservable system V2 240
ZL =
Which of the above statemetns are correct?
I2
50 103 240
asymptotic stability for system with no-pole 0.6 and field resistance is 80 , the induced
zero cancellation i.e. completely controllable and
completely observable system. emf will be
(a) 224 V (b) 218 V
49. The degree of humming level of the noise caused
(c) 212 V (d) 204 V
in the transformers may be reduced by
Ans. (a)
(a) Magnetostriction
(b) High flux density in core Sol. If Ia I I
(c) Tightening of core by clamps
(d) Quality of transformer oil Ra=0.6 E V = 200V PL = 7.5
Rf = 80
Ans. (c)
Sol. Transformer noise is basically due to a
phenomenan called magnetostriction. When a
Load current
transformer core is magnetised, it’s dimensions
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
PL 7.5 103 (a) Armature voltage
IL = 37.5 A
V 200 (b) Residual flux voltage
V 200 (c) Generated voltage
Fld current If = R 80 2.5 A (d) Voltage drop
f
ER
E = V + IaRa S I=0
= 200 + 40 × 0.6 = 224V Sol.
+
52. A 4-pole DC motor is lap-wound with 400 E Unloads
conductors. The pole shoe is 20 cm long and If –
the average flux density over one-pole-pitch is
0.4 T, the armature diameter is 30 cm. When If = 0 Q = Qres E = Eres Residual
ST
the motor is drawing 25 A and running t 1500 volume when S-closed If 0 due to small field
rpm, the torque developed will be nearly
current Q > Qres E > Eres
(a) 30 kN (b) 40 Nm
(c) 50 Nm (d) 60 Nm 54. The generator efficiency of a shunt generator
will be maximum when its variable loss is
Ans. (a) equal to
Sol. P = 4 Z = 400 (a) Constant loss
MA
Length l = 20 cm = 0.2 (b) Stray loss
Bav = 0.4 T (c) Iron loss
D = 0.3 m (d) Friction and windage loss
Flux per pole Ans. (a)
= Bav × Area/Pole Sol. Power output Po = VI
Dl Constant losses = Pc
= Bav ×
P Variable loss i.e. Cu–loss = I2R
0.4 0.3 0.2 Po Po
S
= Efficiency =
4 Pin Po Pc I2 R
= 0.006 wb
VI
=
Lup winding A = P VI Pc I2 R
IE
ZP V
Ka = =
2A Pc
V IR
400 200 I
=
2 Pc
For max Dr = V IR min
For Ia = 25 A I
T = K a Ia d Pc
dI V I IR = 0
200
= 0.006 25 = 30 Nm
Pc
R = 0
53. In an unloaded shunt generator, when switch I2
is closed, a small field current is produced Pc = I2R
which leads to generation of still larger voltages
due to addition of
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
55. Induction motor can be regarded as a 0.06 R ext
generalized transformer due to certain = 1
0.3
similarities except rated
Rext = 0.24
(a) Frequency (b) Flux
(c) Speed (d) Induced emf 57. Potier triangle method is helpful in obtaining
the voltage regulation of synchronous machines
Ans. (a)
ER
by determining the armature
Sol.
(a) Leakage reactance and its reaction mmf
(b) Leakage reactance and air-gap flux
3- V, f (c) Resistance and its reaction mmf
supply
(d) Resistance and air-gap flux
Ans. (a)
Stator (Primary)
f2 = sf
ST Sol. Sol.Potier- CBA
CB = Ia x al drop
BA = Fa
Armature reaction mmf
Emf
MA
OCC
C Ia = 0
ZPFC
Iaxal
V Ia = constant
B A
Rotor (Secondary)
In transformer frequency some on both sides
Fa (AR. MMF)
i.e. rated.
mmf
In I.M. frequency m rotor side f2 = sf 0 F
S
where slip ‘s’ depends upon frequency. 58. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of
56. A 3-Phase, 400/200 V, Y – Y connected wound- stator back emf, Eb depends on
rotor induction motor has v rotor resistance (a) Speed of the motor
IE
and 0.3 standstill reactaince per phase. to (b) Load on the motor
make the starting torque equal to the
(c) Both the speed and rotor flux
maximum torque, the additional resistance
required in the rotor circuit will be (d) Rotor excitation only
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
59. A stepper motor has a step angle of 2.5°. If (c) Either 0 or 1
the shaft is to make 25 revolutions, the number
of steps required will be (d) 0 and 1
ER
Ans. (d)
Sol. Numer or revolution = 25
2 =
25 360 = 0, 1
Number of steps = = 3600
2.5
ST
62. the eigenvalues of the matrix 5 4 are
60. In which of the following respects, the 1 2
servomotors differ in application capabilities (a) 5 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
from large industrial motors? (c) 1 and 6 (d) 7 and 5
Ans. (b)
Sol. Statement-4 wrong. because due to low inertia, Sol. Comparing
the reversal will be quick.
dy
However statement-I also not completely correct = 3x + y2 with
IE
dx
as speed torque characteristic. dy
= f(x, y)
i.e. N-increase then torque decreases. dx
T f(x, y) = 3x + y2
x y Calculation
xo = 1 yo = 1.2 NA
x1 = 1.1 y1 = ? K1 = hf(x0, y0)
N = hf(1, 1.2)
2
= 0.1(3×1)+(1.2)
61. If is eigenvalues of A, and A is idempotent
= 0.444
matrix, then
K2 = hf(x0+h, y0+k1)
(a) 0
= 0.1f(1.1, 1.644)
(b) 1
= 0.60027
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
N = –(x3 – 3x2y)
1
y1 = y o k1 k 2
2 N
= –3x2 + 6xy
x
1
= 1.2 0.444 0.60027 M N
2
y x
= 1.7221 1.7
ER
1
So, I.F. =
2 x Ee x Mx Ny
64. The expression e . 2 x (the interval of
E e 1
differencing being h) is I.F. =
2
x x y 2xy 2
y x 3
3x 2 y
(a) ex–h (b) ex+h
1 1
(c) ex (d) 2ex I.F, = 6 2 2
x y
ST
Ans. (c)
1
2 x Eex This can be taken as 2 2 only
x y
Sol. e 2 x
E e
1
By multiplying 2 2 in given D.E
2
x x y
e = 2E1ex
E 1 2
x y 2xy2dx x 3 3x 2 y dy = 0
MA
= 2E1ex x2y2
= 2 ex e h 1 2 x 3
dx 2 dy = 0 ... (i)
= e h 2 ex y x y y
= ex x
2n x 3n y = C
y
65. The solution of differential equation
S
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
Sol. u = x log xy ...(i) Sol. D3 3D2 D 4D y = ex+2y
(given)
x3 + y3 + 3xy = 1 ...(ii) (given) D3 3D2D 4D3 y = ex+2y
Differentiating (i) w.r.t x Auxiliary exhaustion
ER
u 1 y m3 – 3m2 + 4 = 0
= log xy y x
x y x m = 1, 2, 3
u 1 y C.F = f1(y–x) + f2(y+2x) + x
= log xy y x
x y x f3(y+2x)
u x y
= log xy 1 ...(iii) 1
x y x P.I =
D3 3D3 D 4D13
ST
Differentiating (ii) w.r.t x
ex+2y
y y
3x 2 3y 2 3 y x = 0 1
x x = ex 2y
1 6 32
y x2 y
= 2 ...(iv) ex 2y
x y x =
27
y z = f1(y–x) + f2(y+2x) + x
MA
Substituting value of in equation (iii)
x
1 x 2y
f3(y+2x) + e
u x x2 y 27
= log xy 1 2
x y y x
68. If the imaginary part v = ex (x sin y + y cos
u xx y 2 y) is part of analytic function f(z) = u + iv,
= log xy 1 2 then f(z) is
x y y x
(a) (1+z)ez + c (b) zez + c
u x x2 y
= 1 log xy 2 (c) ze2z = c (d) (1 – z)ez + c
x y y x
Ans. (b)
S
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
f(z) = zez (1+i) + c 3
27 z 2 177
...
c 4 3! 8
f(z) = zez +
1i
3 11 27
f(z) = z 2
z
f (z) ze k 2 4 8
59 3
(z–2)2 + 16 z 3 ....
ER
69. The first four terms of the Taylor series
z 1
expansion of f(z) = , when z = 2
z 3 z 4 70. The mean deviation about mean of a normal
is distribution is nearly
11 27 2 59 3
3 5
(a) z 2 z 2 z 2 ... (a) (b)
4 8 16 5 3
11 27 59
ST
2 3 4 5
(b) z 2 z 2 z 2 ... (c) (d)
4 8 16 5 4
3 11 27 2 59 Ans. (c)
(c) z 2 z 2 z 2 3 ....
2 4 8 16 Sol. The mean absolute deviation of the normal
3 11 27 2 59 3 distribution
(d) z 2 z 2 z 2 ..
2 4 8 16
2
= .
MA
Ans. (c)
z 1 = 0.7978
Sol. f(z) =
z 3 z 4 = 0.8
4 5 3
f(z) = Option (a) = 0.6
z 3 z 4 5
5
4 5 Option (b) = 1.67
f(z) = 3
z 3 2 z 4 2
4
11 Option (c) = 0.8
f(2) = 5
S
4
So, Option (c) is correct choice.)
8 10
f(z) = 71. Consider the following regression equations
z 3 2 z 4 3
obtained from a correlation table:
IE
27
f(2) = y = 0.516x + 33.73
4
24 30 x = 0.512y + 32.52
f(z) = 4
4
z 3 z 4
the value of the correlation coefficient will be
177 (a) 0.514 (b) 0.586
f(2) =
8
(c) 0.616 (d) 0.684
Taylor series expansion
Ans. (a)
f(z) = f(a) +(z-a) fa
2 3
Sol. y = 0.516x + 33.73 ...(i)
(z a) (z a)
fa f "'(a) ..... x = 0.512y + 32.52 ...(ii)
2! 3!
byx = 0.516
2
3 11 27
f(z) = z 2 z 2 bxy = 0.512
2 4 2! 4
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
r = byx bxy h = Plank’s constant
= frequency
= 0.516 0.512
As per de Broglie, particles and wave have
= 0.514 the same properties. So, he hypothesized that
the two energies would be equal.
72. If the probability of a bad reaction from a
ER
certain injection is 0.001, the chance that out mc2 = h
of 2000 individuals, more than two will get a
bad reaction will be However, real particle cannot travel at the
speed of light, hence he replaced speed of
(a) 0.72 (b) 0.54 light (c) by velocity (v),
(c) 0.32 (d) 0.14 hv c
Ans. (c) mv2 = h =
=
ST
Sol. P = 0.001 n = 2000 hv
mv2 =
= np = 0.001 × 2000
= 2 h
mv =
P(x > 2) = 1 – P (x < 2)
h
= 1 – (P(x = 0)+P(x=1) =
mv
+ P(x = 2))
MA
i.e., option (a).
=
0 – 1 2 74. Which of the following statements regarding
1 e e e an atom are correct?
01 11 21
= 0.323 1. If two atoms with similar ionization
potential form a bond, then this bond will most
73. As per de Broglie’s relationship, the wavelength probably be either covalent or metallic.
related to its mass m and velocity v is
2. When atoms with different ionization
h hv potentials form a bond, the bond will be mainly
(a) (b)
mv m ionic.
S
hm mv
(c) (d) 3. If the atom or molecule already has its
v h outer shells completely full, then the bonding
Where: between the atoms or molecules will be a
IE
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
potential, as ionic bond is formed by losing and 76. A transformer core is wound with a coil
gaining of electrons. carrying an alternating current at a frequency
It the atom or, molecule already has its outer of 50 Hz. The hysteresis loop has an area of
shells completely full, then the bonding between 60,000 usnits when the axes are drawn in units
the atoms or molecules will be a secondary when the axes are drawn in units of 10–4 Wb
bond when it solidifies. In such type of bonding, m–2 and 102 Am–1. If the magnetization is
uniform throughout the core volume of 0.01
ER
no major modification in the electronic structure
occurs. m3, the power loss due to hysteresis will be
(a) 300 W (b) 350 W
75. A barium titanate crystal is inserted in a parllel
plate condenser of area 10 mm × 10 mm. The (c) 400 W (d)450 W
plates having a separation of 2 mm, give a Ans. (a)
capacitance of 10 –9 F. If the value of Sol. Energy lost in hysteresis, per unit volume,
0 8.854 10 12 Fm 1 , the relative dielectric = Area of hysteresis loop
constant of the crystal will be nearly
(a) 2640
(c) 2260
Ans. (c)
Sol.
(b) 2450
(d) 2080
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
in general have a nonzero value. This behavior 79. If the interaction between the atomic
is due to crystal, stress and shape anisotropic. permanent dipole moments is zero or megligible
1. Crystal anisotropy:- Depending upon the and the individual dipole moments are oriented
crystallographic orientation of the magnetic at random, the material will be a
material, the magnetization reaches (a) Ferromagnetic material
saturation at different fields. (b) Ferrimagnetic material
ER
eg. (c) Paramagnetic material
[111] = Easy direction of magnetization. (d) Antiferromegnetic material
[100] = Hard direction of magnetization Ans. (c)
[110] = Intermediate direction of Sol. Magnetic materials which exhibit permanent
magnetization magnetism dipoles are: Paramagnetic,
2. Stress anisotropy:- Under a compressive Ferromagnetic, antiferromagnetic and
ST
force, the material can be magnetized most
easily in the direction magnetization and
under tension they magnetize easily in a
direction perpendicular to the direction of
magnetization.
3. Shape anisotropy:- Ferromagnetic material
ferrimagnetic. However, out of these, only
paramagnetic materials are such type of
magnetic material in which magnetic dipoles
do not interact with each other and are
randomly distributed in the absence of the
magnetic field.
is magnetized most easily in the direction On the other hand, ferromagnetic
MA
of its largest dimension. antiferromagnetic and ferrimagnetic
materials have dipole moments which
78. The paramagnetic susceptibility varies inversely interact between nighbouring dipoles.
with the absolute temperatrue for ordinary
fields and temperatures. It is given by the Dipole arrangements for different magnetic
relation materials are represented as:
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
— When an external field is applied to
diamagnetic material, those electrons Where, S= ; reluctance
A
having orbital magnetic moment in the
i.e., Inductance N2
same direction slows down and those in
the opposite direction speeds up, as per A
Lenz’s Law. Thus, the diamagnetic D2(or, square of diameter)
material develops a net magnetic
ER
Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
moment in the direction opposite to that
of the applied external magnetic field. 82. Light is capable of transferring electrons to
the free- state inside a material thus increasing
81. The inductance of an air-cored coil is
the electrical conductivity of the material.
proportional to
When the energy imparted to the electrons is
1. The square of the number of turns quite large, the latter may be emmited from
the material into the surrounding medium. this
2. The diameter of the coil.
ST
3. A form factor, F, dependent on the ratio of
coil radius to coil length plus winding
depth.
H = NI
1. Conductor contains a large number of
H N electrons in the conduction band at room
=
I temperature. No energy gaps exist and the
So, Inductance, valence and conduction bands overlap.
NAH 2. A semiconductor is a material is which
L=
I the energy gap is so large that practically
NA.N no electron can be given enough energy to
= jump this gap.
N2A 3. an insulator is a solid with an energy gap
= small enough for electrons to cross rather
easily from the valance band to the
N2 conduction band.
L=
S
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 0 = o H M Bin 0
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 So, magnetic susceptibility
Ans. (a)
M M
Sol. Conductors: Valence band and conduction m = 1
H M
band overlap and there is no energy gap
Negative susceptibility indicates that the
ER
between them.
superconductors are diamagnetic in nature.
Semiconductors: Energy gap between valence
band and conduction band is small, such that, 85. A voltage source-Series resistance combination
the electrons will only require a small amount is equivalent to a current source-parallel
of energy to become excited and moved into the resistance combination if and only if their
conduction band. Energy gap (Eg) for
semiconductor is normally 1 eV. 1. Respective open-circuit voltage are equal.
ST
Insulators: Energy gap between valence band 2. Respective short-circuit currents are equal
and conductor is higher than semiconductor
and electrons do not leave the valence band. In 3. Resistance remains same in both cases.
insulator, passage of electrons from valence
band to conduction band may only be accidental Which of the above statements are correct?
and occur because of some defect in the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
structure of insulating material. Energy gap (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
MA
for insulator is approx 6 eV.
Ans. (d)
84. Which of the following statements regarding Sol. Voltage series resistance combination can be
superconducting materials are correct, when a considered as thevenin equivalent voltage and
large number of metals become its resistance in series
superconducting below a temperature?
a
1. The resistivity of the superconductor is Vth
zero.
b
2. The magnetic flux density B vanishes Now, current source-parallel combination can
through the substance. be considered an Nortan’s equivalent current
S
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
Vth L
R th = IN Sol. R =
a A
Vth = INRth ...(2)
J = E
(3) Resistance must be same in both case
1 E
i.e RN = Rth =
J
ER
So equation (2) becomes
L E E.L
Vth = INRN i.e equation So R =
A J AJ
So; Both circuit to be equivalent, all these Option (c) is the correct answer
three condition must be satisfied
88. Which of the following statements are correct
86. For a network graph having its fundamental for an ideal constant voltage source?
loop matrix Bf and its sub-matrices Bt and Bl
ST
corresponding to twings and links, which of 1. Its output voltage remains absolutely
the following statements are correct? constant whateverthe change inload
current.
1. Bl is always an identity matrix.
2. It possesses zero internal resistance so that
2. Bt is an identity matrix. internal voltage drop in the source is zero.
3. Bf has a rank of b – (n – 1), where b is the 3. Output voltage provided by the source
MA
number of branches and n is the number would remain constant irrespective of the
of nodes of the graph. amount of current drawn from it.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
4. Output voltage provided by the source
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 varies with the amount of curren drawn
Ans. (c) from it.
Sol. Bf =[I Bt] (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
So Bt is not an identity matrix (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Bf has fundamental loop of = b – n + 1 Ans. (d)
which is no of row Sol. Statement I is the correct
S
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
So option (d) is correct i.e. statement 1, 2 and
3 are correct. H()
ER
Band
2. A highpass filter passes high frequenies
and rejects low frequencies. Option (d) is the correct answer
3. A band pass filter passes frequencies within 90. A point charge of 10–9 C is placed at a point A
the band and blocks/attenuates frequencies in the free space. The potential difference
outside a frequency band. between the two points 20 cm 10 cm away
from the charge at A will be
ST
4. A band stop filter passes frequencies within (a) 40 V (b) 45 V
the band and blocks/attenuates frequencies
outside a frequency band. (c) 50 V (d) 55 V
Q Q
So VB – VC =
4 AB 4 0 AC
= 45 V
1
Note: = 9 × 109
IE
4
A band pass filter 91. Which of the following statements regarding
Statement-2 is correct steam boilers are correct ?
H() 1. The boiler must be capable of quick starting
and loading.
2. The boiler should have no joints exposed to
flames.
3. The boiler must be capable of burning low
Band ash content coal efficiently.
A band stop filter stops frequency within band
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
and passes outside the band so statement 4 is
incorrect so (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
SET - B
Detailed Solution
Sol. Quality required for boilers: r = conductor radius
1. Quick starting and loading d = spacing between conductors
2. Efficient burning of coal Critical disruptive voltage is given by
3. Proper design so that no joints are exposed d
to flames. Vc = m vg v r l n
r
ER
92. Which of the following are the main parts of a Where, mr = surface irregularity factor
power system ? g = breakdown strength of
1. Generating stations surrounding air
2. Transmission systems Hence, it can be seen that the corona is
independent of the current in the conductor.
3. Distribution networks
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 94. Bundled conductors that are used to increase
ST
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 line voltage in EHV lines for raising critical
corona voltage depend on
Ans. (d)
(a) Number of conductors in the group
Sol. A power system consists of
(b) Voltage gradient
1. Generating stations
(c) Optimum spacing
2. Transmission systems
(d) Communication interference
MA
3. Distribution systems
Ans. (c)
93. Which of the following factors affect Corona?
95. In a 275 kV transmission line with line
1. Atmospheric conditions, temperature, constants A = 0.85 5 and B = 200 75, if
humidity, moisture, ice and fog the voltage profile at each end is to be
2. Current of conductor maintained at 275 kV, the power at Unity
3. Waveform Power Factor (UPF) will be nearly
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Sol. |VS| = 275 |VR| = 275 kV
SR
Ans. (b) SL
Sol. Corona loss in over head line is given by A = 0.85 5°
IE
b = 20075°
-5 f 25 r
PL = 242×10 (V –Vc)2
d
kW/km/phase
3.92P Load pf = 1 L = 0
Where, =
273 T
= air density factor SL = PL jL PL
P = atmospheric pressure SR = SL PL
T = ambient temperature
PR = PL & R 0
f = frequency
VS VR
V = phase voltage PL = cos
B
Vc = critical disruptive voltage
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
2 Imax sin(t + – ) + Imax sin (– )e–t
A VR i =
cos
B Steady state Transient
current current
2
275 cos 75
Vmax Vmax
PR =
200 Where, Imax = z R 2 L
2
ER
0.85 cos 75 5 1 L
= tan
2
R
275 cos 75 0.29 ...(i) L
PR = =
200 R
VS VR The first term in above expression, the
QR = sin steady state current is called the
symmetrical short-circuit current.
0 =
A VR
275
2
2
sin
sin 75
200
ST
The second term, unidirectional transient
component is called the DC offset current.
This transient current causes the total
short circuit current to be unsymmetrical
until transient decays
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
Va0 = zero sequence voltage Sol. L1
= 0
Vd
2
V a
= negative sequence voltage 2
= 0 a
1
V a
= positive sequence voltage
Vd
ER
Van = Va1 2770 2 Load
Sol.
AC
I0
+
V0 HVDC
–
ST 100. In a photovoltaic system, there is a thermally
generated small reverse saturation current
which flows even in the absence of light, called
(a) Photon current
(c) Leakage current
(b) Diode current
(d) Dark current
Ans. (d)
MA
Rectifier Sol. Dark current is the residual current flowing
Bridge in a photovoltaic device when there is no
incident illumination (absence of light).
Voltage of the HVDC system (V0) is obtained
from the rectification of AC supply generated 101. In a power system, due to interconnection or
from generating stations. grid formation and transmission line
redundancy, the ability to serve all power
For 3 phase full wave converter
demands without failure over long periods of
3VmL time, is due to
V0 = cos
(a) Power system quality
S
(c) Homopolar link (d) Dualpolar link (c) Tip speed (d) Blade speed
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
Sol. The frequency of induced emf of generator is AC-DC converters (controlled rectifiers)
decided by speed which is decided by blode Thyristor is used
speed.
AC-AC converters (AC Voltage controllers)
Blade speed Traic is used
Tip speed ratio =
wind speed DC-DC converters (DC Choppers) for high
ER
103. Commutation circuitry is an extra circuit used power Thyristor is used for low power
to turn off BJT is used.
(a) Line-commutated thyristors DC – AC converters (Inverters)
(b) Phase-commutated thyristors Thyristors is used.
ST
When load or line is not supporting the natural
turn off or when we want to switch-off thyristor
forcefully than an intra circuit called commuted
circuitary is used to turn it off.
105.
Controllers).
– –
(FBSOA)
(b) Reverse-Biased Safe Operating Area
Vs
(RBSOA)
Vm
(c) Power Derating
2 Q
(d) Second Breakdown (SB)
Ans. (d)
V0
Sol. Due to flow of large current, current clow to
small portion of the base, local hot spots are
p formed and large power dissipation takes place.
Q This will cause damage to the BJT. This is
2
known as secondary breakdown of BJT.
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
107. In a three-phase inverter with 180° conduction, Ans. (d)
there are six modes of operation in a cycle Sol. To brake the Speed, the torque developed ie.
where duration of each mode is Braking torque should be in the opposite
(a) 90° (b) 75° direction of rotation so, Torque is reversed by
(c) 60° (d) 45° reversing Armature current (As arm inductance
is small).
Ans. (c)
ER
TB
Sol. In 3 – inverters with 180° conduction, each
thyristor conducts for 180° of a cycle, but in 6
modes in which three different thyristors N
conducts.
6 modes 360°
1 mode 60° If armature current is reversed by keeping field
108.
So each mode conducts for 60°
ST
In a closed-loop control of squirrel cage
induction motor, the field oriented control
strategy implemented is
(a) Scalar control
current positive than braking will occure. If a
resistance is connected across the armature
terminal than dynamic braking mode will
occure and it a reversed voltage battery is
connected than plugging mode will occure.
In vector control stator currents of a speed both below and above synchronous speed.
3 – AC motor are identified as two When speed is subsynchronous slip power is
feedback to supply. In supersynchronous speed,
orthogonal components that can be visualised
slip power is injected so we are having
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as vectors.
bidirectional slip power.
Direct Torque
Control 111. In a DC-DC switched-mode converter, if the
Vector Control
output voltage polarity is opposite to input
Field Oriented
Control
voltage, then this inverting regulator is called
(a) Buck regulator
109. In a DC motor drive, if the armature current
is reversed by keeping field current positive (b) Boost regulator
producing a braking torque, then the drive is (c) Buck-Boost regulator
said to be operating in
(d) Cuk regulator
(a) Motoring mode
Ans. (c or d)
(b) Regenerative braking mode
Sol. Buck convertor, Vo = DVin
(c) Dynamic braking mode
(d) Plugging mode 1
Boost convertor, Vo = Vin
1–D
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
114. The ideal core should exhibit very high
–D
Buck-Boost convertor, Vo = Vin permeability in case of transformers and
1–D inductor core due to magnetic saturation caused
by DC imbalance condition that can be
–D minimized by
Cuk convertor, Vo = Vin
1–D
(a) Low permeability core only
ER
So, in Buck-Boost and Cuk convertor output (b) High permeability core only
voltage is of opposite polarity.
(c) Low and high permeability combination
112. In a zero current switching resonant converter, core
the switching loss and noise are increased due (d) No permeability core
to presence of capacitive coupling called
Ans. (a)
(a) Miller capacitor
ST
(b) Series resonant capacitor Directions: Each of the next six (06) items
consists of two statements, one labelled as
(c) parallel resonant capacitor ‘Statement (I)’ and the other labelled as
(d) Switch capacitor ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two
Ans. (a) statements carefully and select the answers to
these items using the codes given below:
Sol. ZCS can eliminate the switching losses at turn
off and reduce the switching loss at turn-ON. Codes:
MA
(a) Both statement (I) and Statement (II) are
When power MOSFET are zero current individually true and Statement (II) is the
switched-ON stored in the device’s capacitance correct explanation of Statement (I).
will be dissipated. (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
During turn-ON, considerable rate of change individually true, but Statement (II) is not
of voltage can be coupled to the gate drive the correct explanation of Statement (I).
circuit through the “Miller capacitor”, thus (c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is
increasing switching loss and noise. false.
ZVS eliminates the capacitive turn-ON loss. (d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is
true.
S
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
But statement II don’t explain the cause of So, power diodes are three-layer devices and
statement-I. the impurity concentrations of power diodes
vary layer to layer. So, statement (II) is not an
116. Statement (I): A cache is a memory unit explanation of statement (I).
placed between the CPU and main memory M
and is used to store instructions, data or both. 119. Statement (I): Registers are used for storage
Statement (II): The cache’s effect is to increase of small data in the microprocessor.
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the average time required to access an
Statement (II): All registers are accessible to
instruction or data word, typically to just a
the user through instructions.
single-clock cycle.
Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
Sol. In p registers are used for storage of data.
Sol. A cache is a memory unit placed between the
CPU and main memory. It is used to store So, statement-I is true.
instruction and data that are used repeatedly
ST
All registers are not accessible to the user
in the operation of programs. The cache’s effect through instruction.
reduces the average time required to access
instruction or data word. Ex- W and Z are temporary register which
can’t be access by instruction.
117. Statement (I): A buffer is not an area in RAM So, statement-II is false.
or on the hard drive designated to hold input
and output on their way in or out of the system. 120. Statement (I): In a three-phase induction
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Statement (II): The process of placing items in motor, the maximum torque is directly
a buffer so they can be retrieved by the appropriate proportional to standstill reactance.
device when needed is called spooling. Statement (II): In a three-phase induction
Ans. (d) motor, the speed or the slip at which maximum
torque occurs is determined by the rotor
Sol. The process in which data is temporarily held resistance.
is he buffer, which is special area in memory
or on a disk (hard drive) where a device can Ans. (d)
access them when it is ready. Sol. Maximum torque in a 3-phase induction motor
is given by
118. Statement (I): The power diodes are three-
2
3 V
S
layer devices.
Tmax =
Statement (II): The impurity concentrations s 2X 2
of power diodes vary layer to layer.
where, s = synchronous speed
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Ans. (b)
V = supply voltage
Sol. In power diode, to withstand large voltage a
less doped n layer is inserted between two X 2 = standstill leakage reactance of rotor
heavily doped P and N layers which is known
as drift region. Maximum torque is inversely proportional to
the standstill reactance.
Anode (+)
Hence, statement-1 is incorrect.
Slip for maximum torque is given by
P+
PN Junction
R2 R 2
–
STmax
N Drift Region X 2 X 2
Cathode (–)
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
121. According to Gauss’s theorem, the surface 123. An analogous of magnetic circuit ‘permeability’
integral of the normal component of electric in electrical circuit is
flux density D over a closed surface, containing (a) Reluctivity (b) Conductance
free charge is
(c) Conductivity (d) Resistivity
Q
(a) Q (b) Ans. (c)
0
ER
Sol. Since permeability is ability or measure of
Q2 allowing or easiness for magnetic field in
(c) 0 Q (d) magnetic path.
0
Ans. (a) So it must be analogous to conductivity in
electric circuit because it is the measure of
Sol. Surface integral of D over a casiness in electric circuit.
closed surface =
D.dS Q
ST
124. The magnetizing force at the centre of a circular
[A/c to gauss theorem] coil varies
So option (a) is the correct answer. 1. Directly as the number of its turns.
2. Directly as the current.
122. A unit magnetic pole may be defined as that
pole which when placed in vacuum at a 3. Directly as its radius.
distance of one metre from a similar and equal 4. Inversely as its radius.
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pole repels it with a force of
Which of the above statements are correct?
1 0
(a) Newtons (b) Newtons (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
4 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
1
(c) 4 Newtons (d) 4 Newtons Ans. (c)
0 0
Sol. Magnetising force at the centre of coil flux
Ans. (b) density at centre flux intensity (H) at the
Sol. Since current loop is considered as magnetic centre
dipole.
I
Since two dipole 1m apart
S
o
So option (c) is the correct
so F Newton
4 125. An uncharged capacitor of 0.01 F is charged
So option (b) is the correct answer. first by a current of 2 mA for 30 s and then
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
by a current of 4 mA for 30s. The final voltage 2V
in it will be =
d
(a) 12V (b) 18V = 2×(Initial gradient)
(c) 24V (d) 30V = Twice of earlier value
Ans. (b) Assumption:
Because earlier voltage V and distance d so
ER
Sol. First charging
V
vCO = initial capacitor voltage initial voltage gradient =
d
1
v1 = 0 2 103 30 So option (c) is the correct answer
0.01
V1 = 100 × 2 × 10–3 × 30 = 6V 127. Which of the following statements are correct?
V1 = Voltage after first charge that 1. Accuracy is the closeness with which an
becomes initial voltage for instrument approaches the true value of
second charging
Secondary charging
So V2(0) = 6V
v2 = V2 0
1
C
ST
1
idt V1 0 i t
C
the quantity being measured.
2. Precision is a measure of the
reproducibility of the measurement.
3. Precision of an instrument can be improved
upon by calibration.
4. Accuracy may be specified in terms of limits
MA
1 of errors.
= 6 4 103 30
0.01
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
= 6 + 100 × 4 × 10–3 × 30
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
V2 18 V Ans. (c)
So option (b) is the correct answer Sol. Accuracy:- It is the closeness with which on
instrument reading approaches the true value
126. A capacitor of 10 pF is connected to a voltage of the quantity being measured. It may be
source of 100 V. If the distance between the specified in terms of limits of errors.
capacitor plates is reduced to 50%, while it
Precision:- It is a measure of reproducibility
remains connected to the 100 V supply, the
S
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
Ans. (d) 3. Uses the thermocouple for heating.
Sol. An electrodynamometer instrument can be Which of the above statements are correct?
used as (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
1. Wattmeter and VAR (reactive power) (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
meter.
Ans. (a)
ER
2. Power factor meter
Sol. True RMS-reading volumeter uses some
3. Frequency meter property of a circuit element which is heated
4. Transfer instrument. by flow of current.
Transfer Instrument may be calibrated with Such type of voltmeter correctly measure
dc source and then used without modification the rms value of voltage or, current
to measure ac with same accuracy. irrespective of the waveform and hence
Electrodynamometer instrument can be used eliminates the error due to waveform.
129.
as a transfer instrument.
voltages or currents.
(a) Indicate the same values of the
ST
The moving iron instruments when measuring
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
In power system, currents and voltages the tuning capacitor. The value of tuning
are very high, therefore, direct capacitor are C1 and C2 for resonant frequencies
measurement is not possible. In such f1 and 2f1 respectively. The value of distributed
type of measurement, we use capacitance will be
instrument trnasformer. C1 C2 C1 2C2
(a) (b)
2. To isolate the measuring circuit from 2 3
ER
the power circuit. Since, secondary
C1 4 C2 C1 3C2
circuit of an instrument transformer are (c) (d)
3 2
isolated electrically from the primary
side, and hence safe to measure current Ans. (c)
or, voltage at secondary side of Sol. For Q-meter, tunning capacitance is C1 at
instrument transformer. resonant frequency f1 and that of C2 at resonant
Instrument transformers are used for frequency 2f1.
ST
metering as well as protection purpose in 1
power system. i.e., f1 = 2 L C + C ... (i)
1 d
the other is negative. The magnitude of From equation (i) & (ii), we get,
readings is different. It can be concluded that
MA
the power factor of the circuit will be 1 1
2. 2 L C + C = 2 L C + C
(a) Unity (b) Zero 1 d 2 d
capacitance.
positive and that of the other is negative,
but magnitude are different 134. In a digital voltmeter, during start of
conversion, zero indication is displayed and is
Let P1 reading is positive and P2 reading
IE
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Detailed Solution
Auto-zeroing: During start of conversion 136. An aquadag is used in a CRO to collect
in a digital voltmeter, zero indication is (a) Primary electrons only
displayed. This is called auto-zeroing. This
(b) Secondary emission electrons only
is achieved by properly discharging the
integrator circuit capacitance to ground. (c) Both primary electrons and secondary
emission electrons
C
ER
(d) heat emission electrons
Vin R
S
Ans. (b)
Sol. Secondary emission electrons:
The bombarding of electrons strike the screen
During auto-zeroing, switch S is moved from which releases secondary emission electrons.
Vin to ground so that the capacitance of the These secondary electrons are collected by an
dual slope converter discharge to the ground.
ST
aqueous solution of graphite called “Aquadag”,
which is connected to the second anode. The
135. A CRT has an anode voltage of 2000 V and
collection of secondary electrons is necessary
parallel deflecting plates 2 cm long and 5 mm
to keep the CRT screen in a state of electrical
apart. The screen is 30 cm from the centre of
equilibrium.
the plates. If the input voltage is applied to the
deflecting plates through amplifiers having an 137. A resistance wire strain gauge with a gauge
overall gain of 100, the input voltage required factor of 2 is bonded to a steel structural member
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to deflect the beam through 3 cm will be subjected to a stress of 100 MN/m2. The modulus
(a) 1 V (b) 3 V of elasticity of steel is 200 GN/m 2. The
(c) 5 V (d) 7 V percentage change in the value of the gauge
resistance due to the applied stress will be
Ans. (a)
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.3%
Sol. Given,
(c) 0.5% (d) 0.7%
Anode voltage, Ea = 2000 V
Ans. (a)
Length of deflecting plates, ld = 2cm = 2 × 10–
Sol. Given,
2 m
Distance between plates, d = 5mm = 5 × 10– Gauge factor, Gf = 2
S
R / R R / R
D = 3 cm = 3 × 10–2 Gf =
/ strain
Voltage applied to deflecting plates, We know,
2d Ea D Modulus of elasticity
Ed = stress
L d =
strain
2 5 103 2000 3 102 stress
= strain, =
30 102 2 102
So, input voltage required for a deflection, 100 106
= = 0.5 × 10–3
Ed 200 109
= R
Gain
So, = Gf /
R
100 = 2 × 0.5 × 10–3 = 10–3
=
100 So, percentage change in the value of the gauge
= 1V resistance,
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
R Given binary member is (1101 0011)2 from
100 = 10–3 × 100 = 0.1%
R table hexadecimal of (1101 0011)2 will be (D3)16.
ER
Boolean algebra pertaining to ‘AND’ operation
(a) Distance between plates cannot be verified when A and B can take on
(b) Area of plates only the value 0 1 ?
(c) Dielectric (a) AB = BA (b) AA = A
(d) Resonance (c) A1 = 1 (d) A0 = 0
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
ST
Sol. Capacitance transducers can be used for the Sol. Boolean Agebra
measurement of non-conducting liquid level. AB = BA ...(i)
Capacitive transducers using the principle of
change of capacitance with cahnge of dielectric LHS = AB = BA = RHS
are normally used for measurement of non- It is correct according to commutative law of
conducting liquid level. multiplication of Boolean variable.
Similarly when B = A in the equation (1)
139. The hexadecimal of the binary number
MA
(11010011)2 is A.A = A2 = A
(a) D316 (b) D416 So it is also correct
(c) C316 (d) C416 Now A.1 = A
Ans. (a) But option (c) A.1 = 1 which is incorrect
Sol. In Question hexadecimal equivalent of binary Now AO = O is also correct
number has been asked. So Option (c) is the correct option because we
Table shows the hexadecimal binary number: have to tell which is not correct.
0000 0
?
0001 1
0010 2 1. Gate level 2. Processor level
3. Register level 4. User level
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0011 3
0100 4 (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
0101 5 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
0110 6 Ans. (a)
0111 7
Sol. Register level design is geared toward the
1000 8 processing of words as the basic limits of
1001 9 information or signals. Gate level design:
1010 A individual bits are treated as basic signals.
1011 B
142. Which one of the following is a powerful web
1100 C platform for web applications and web services,
1101 D built-in virtualization technologies, variety of
1110 E new security tools, enhancements and
1111 F streamlined configuration and management
tools?
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
(a) Internet Explorer Ans. (b)
(b) Internet Information Services Sol. DMA controller consist of data register, address
(c) Web Matrix register and data counter.
ER
processors to utilize the processing power in
Sol. Web matrix is an integrated environment the chip that would otherwise go unused and
offered by many famous web hosting providers. lets the chip operate more efficiently resulting
It enables developers to build websites using in faster processing is called
built in templates with full support for ASP
Net, PHP, Node.55 etc. (a) Systematic multiprocessing
(b) Massively parallel processing
143. Which one of the following is the correct
(c) Co-processing
ST
sequence of steps for executing an instrument
during CPU’s processing ? (d) Hyper threading
(a) Fetch instruction, Read data, Decode Ans. (d)
instruction, Store data and Execute Sol. Hyper-threading is a technology used by some
instruction intel microprocessor’s that allows a single
(b) Decode instruction, Read data, Execute microprocessor to act like two separate
instruction, Fetch Next instruction and processors to the operating system and the
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Store data application program that use it.
(c) Decode instruction, Decode Next operands, 146. A physical implementation of the type
Fetch Next instruction, Execute instruction declaration in high-level programming
and Store data languages where major information types
(d) Fetch instruction, Decode instruction, read should be assigned formats for identification is
operands, Execute instruction and Store called
data
(a) Storage order (b) Tag
Ans. (d)
(c) Error correction (d) Error detection
Sol. Fetch instruction: Instruction will be fetched Ans. (d)
from memory.
S
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SET - B
Detailed Solution
Sol. 1. A variables represent an area of memory 149. The physical address translation in virtual
to hold a value. In a typed language such memory address with Memory Management
as C, every variable must be declared with Unit (MMU) is done by which one of the
a type. The type tells the compiler about following mechanisms?
what we expect to store in a variable. (a) Multiply virtual address by some constant
2. Range of values to be encountered. (b) Translation lookaside buffer (TLB)
ER
3. Positional rotation with fixed weight, value (c) Encryption key
of number is determined by multiplying
each digit by a weight ad then summing. (d) Using general purpose register in CPU
The weight of each digit is a power of the Ans. (b)
base and is determined by position. Sol. The reference to the page table during address
148. If a negative binary number is to be represented translation from physical address to virtual
by n-bits, then the standard format will be address taken one memory cycle because page
ST
table resides in main memory. Translation look
(a) Sign bit ‘0’ on left and magnitude on right aside buffer (TLB) is used to avoid this delay.
(b) Sign bit ‘1’ on left and magnitude on right
150. Which one of the following satellite system is
(c) Sign bit ‘0’ on right and magnitude on left most often used for Global Positioning System
(d) Sign bit ‘1’ on right and magnitude on left (GPS)?
Ans. (b) (a) Geosynchronous
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Sol. In signed binary number first digit is sign (b) Geostationary
digit which is written on the left most and (c) Low Earth Orbit
then magnitude value is written on the right
of sign bit. (d) Medium Earth Orbit
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