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TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN

KỲ THI OLYMPIC TRUYỀN THỐNG 30 - 4 LẦN THỨ XXIV

NĂM HỌC 2017-2018
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI: 11

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

I. WORD CHOICE
Choose the word that best fits each space in the following sentences.
1. She gets fifteen per cent _____ on every insurance policy she sells.
A. wary B. commission C. bonus D. pension
2. When the ship docked at Hamburg, they found a _____ in the hold.
A. gate-crasher B. stowaway C. interloper D. trespasser
3. The _____ in our building often falls asleep at the front desk.
A. caretaker B. stockbroker C. undertaker D. bookmaker
4. "Were you told to get dinner ready?"
"No I did it of my own _____.”
A. desire B. accord C. ideas D. will
5. How about a glass of orange juice to _____ your thirst?
A. quash B. quench C. quell D. quieten
6. Mr. Wellbred went to a school which _____ good manners and self-discipline.
A. blossomed B. planted C. harvested D. cultivated
7. He was charged with a(n) _____ of currency regulations.
A. break B. disrespect C. breach D. observance
8. Don't bring those clothes in off the line yet. They're still a bit _____.
A. humid B. mild C. cool D. damp
9. Mr. Wright _____ his vegetable garden carefully.
A. attends B. grows C. maintains D. tends
10. The school playing fields are out of _____ while equipment is being up for the cricket
match.
A. bounds B. brim C. verge D. border

ANSWERS:
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B
6. D 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. A

II. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES

1. All courses at the college are offered on a full-time basis unless _____ indicated.
A. further B. otherwise C. below D. differently
2. You _____ then ; otherwise, the policeman wouldn’t have stopped you .
A. could have been speeding B. must have been speeding
C. might have been speeding D. ought to have been speeding
3. _____earning a great deal of money as a painter, Ivan Aivazovsky opened an art school and
gallery in his hometown of Feodosiya.
A. Rather B. Since C. Upon D. Until
4. Long _____ it is, the Danube is shorter than a large number of other rivers in the world.
A. but B. as C. or D. for
5. The palace is so heavy and massive that no redecoration can make it look like a little
gracious villa. Even if we _____ it pink, which, of course, is out of the question.
A. would paint B. had painted C. were to paint D. paint
6. The great French novelist Honore de Balzac would make _____ revision when he was
proofreading his work that _____ was left of the original text in the end.
A. too many – not enough B. such a lot of – a few
C. plenty of – not many D. so much – little
7. _____ a teacher in New England, Webster wrote the ‘Dictionary of the American
Language’.
A. It was when B. When C. When was D. While
8. A communications satellite orbits the earth at the same rate that the earth revolves _____
over a fixed point on the surface.
A. so it can remain B. so that it can remain C. it can remain D. so can remain
9. The fact that space exploration has increased dramatically in the past thirty years _____.
A. is an evidence of us wanting to know more of our solar system
B. indicates that we are very eager to learn all we can about our solar system
C. how we want to learn more about the solar system
D. is pointing to evidence of our intention to know a lot more about what is called our
solar system
10. I for one am not sorry. He should have _____ than to lend them money.
A. thought more B. been better C. know more D. known better

ANSWERS:
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C
6. D 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. D

III. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS

Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
1. Before they opened the new factory a lot of the young people round here were _____ the
dole.
A inB. on C. at D. up
2. Everyone laughed when he took _____ the teacher so well.
A over B. up C. off D. out
3. We used to _____ all sorts of things when our parents went out.
A. get through to B. get over C. get up to D. get on with
4. He shook me _____ the hand and helped me _____ with my coat.
A. at/ out B. by/ off C. with /on D. over/ into
5. Drivers wishing to access the stadium car park will need to approach it by Grant Lane,
which branches _____ Rampart street just after the petrol station.
A. on B. off C. in D. to
6. It is possible to _____ out of the pension scheme if you do not wish to participate.
A. back B. charge C. opt D. break
7. How’s your awful new boss? Still planning a total reorganization of the office or have you
persuaded her not to throw the baby _____ the bathwater?
A. out with B. out of C. off from D. down into
8. The sea is eating _____ the cliff and houses close to the edge are at risk.
 A. up over B. off to C. down over D. away at
9. Don’t just grasp _____ the first chance of an easy way out. it may not the right thing to do.
A. over B. about C. on D. at
10. Demand for the product is expected to peak five years from now and then to _____.
A. taper off B fall down C set back D drift away

ANSWERS
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B
6. A 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. A

IV. COLLOCATIONS AND IDIOMS

Choose the option that best fits each space in the following sentences.
1. The steak looked tender but it was as tough as _____.
A. a belt B. a saddle C. old boots D. rubber
2. Tom handed in the test and awaited the results _____.
A in the same breath B. out of breath C. with bated breath D. under her
breath
3. During the evening football match the stadium was illuminated by _____.
A. spotlights B. flashlights C. highlights D. floodlights
4. Because of cutbacks in council spending, plans for the new swimming pool had to be
_____.
A. stockpiled B. overthrown C. shelved D. disrupted
5. After six months of convalescence in a nursing home Simon is finally on the_____.
A. mend B. top C. go D. run
-
6. Many people are feeling the _____ now that there is an economic recession.
A. strain B. pinch C. prod D. pain
7. The economic situation makes many people unwilling to take the _____ and open their own
businesses.
A. plunge B. bull C. initiative D. opportunity
8. Life is so full of both good fortune and misfortunes that you have to learn to take the rough
with the _____.
A. tough B. ready C. calm D. smooth
9. Don't mention work to Ray as it's a sore _____ with him at the moment.
A. finger B. place C. point D. thumb
10. Six novels a year, you say? He’s certainly a _____ writer.
A. fruitful B. fertile C. virile D. prolific

ANSWERS
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A
6. B 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. D

V. READING
Read the passages below and choose the best answer to each question.
Passage 1:
EUTROPHICATION
All plants need nutrients, but an excess or nutrients can be lethal to the ecosystem. Water
bodies such as lakes or estuaries naturally have certain amounts of nutrients, and are rich in
species. Species-rich ecosystems have a high level of biodiversity. However, when chemical
nutrients infiltrate water in marine habitats, the plants will begin to grow without restraint
and then decay rapidly. This process, known as eutrophication, can disturb the ecological
balance and eventually result in severe reductions in water quality. Inspections of lakes and
reservoirs around the world demonstrate that 54% of lakes in Asia are eutrophic; 53% in
Europe; 48% in North America; and 28% in Africa. Today, eutrophication or what some call
nutrient pollution is the number one water quality problem around the world.
In the 1950s, eutrophication was acknowledged as a waste problem in several lakes
3% Europe and North America although it was not immediately clear what the causes
were. It had taken place over a short period of time in these lakes, and this shocked scientists
because eutrophication had normally been known as a natural process that develops over
thousands of years as a lake or river becomes older.
Scientists, who observed the excessive growth of plants and algae, often called an algal
bloom, studied the phenomenon intensely from the 1960s to the 1970s. Their research pointed
to the presence of large amounts of plant nutrients, including phosphorus, nitrogen and
carbon, which are vital for life in the river and sea. The nutrients were traced to human
activities: runoff from livestock waste, the release of domestic sewage and industrial
wastewater. Moreover, in some ecosystems, nutrients had been deliberately added for
purposes of enrichment. The large amounts of nutrients accumulated and their compounds
acted as a stimulant to uncontrolled phytoplankton growth.
The unlimited growth of phytoplankton species provokes profound changes in the lake or
river. Marine plants and plant particles breathe out oxygen during photosynthesis. When
eutrophication occurs, however, the excessive amount of phytoplankton species spread over
the surface of waters and block the sunlight, so the marine plants are not able to
photosynthesize, then the amount of oxygen is reduced. When the dead plants and animals are
decomposed , oxygen is consumed, therefore the dissolved oxygen is also reduced greatly.
The lack of oxygen causes many organisms to suffocate and numbers of dead fish begin to
appear in the water, and more animal species die out.
The water loses its transparency, sometimes changing into a murky brown, red or orange
color, and this phenomenon is called “red tide”. If the oxygen becomes completely depleted,
bacteria called Clostridium botulinum becomes abundant and causes botulism, a disease of the
nervous system that is often fatal. The bacteria poisons and kills birds and mammals that eat
any existing phytoplankton in the water body. With so much death taking place, scientists call
anaerobic waters “dead zones”. Ultimately, these effects have an impact on human beings.
The swift eutrophication in Lake Erie, one of the Great Lakes, was the subject of much
concern and instigated experimental research. In 1968, the Experimental Lakes Area (ELA)
was established as a field station and had been added various nutrients to determine which
combination of nutrients was the key to controlling eutrophication. [A] The most interesting
experiment was a lake that was divided into two with a plastic curtain. One half was left alone
while the other half was divided into three parts and each fed carbon, nitrogen and
phosphorus. [B] The lake was monitored for 8 years, and it was observed that the portion
receiving phosphorus had eutrophic algal blooms. The parts containing carbon and nitrogen
did not have those. [C] The American government has since earmarked billions of dollars for
a phosphate control program. [D]
1. The word “infiltrate” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. stimulate B. penetrate C. operate D. aggravate
2. In paragraph 1, what does the author say about the global incidence of eutrophication?
A. A majority of the lakes on earth are eutrophic and cause a big water problem.
 B. The worst incidence of eutrophication is in lakes in Asia and it results in social
problems.
C. Africa has fewer eutrophic lakes because there are not many water bodies.
D. Lakes in Asia are showing the fastest rate of lake eutrophication.
3. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence in the passage? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or
leave out essential information.
A. Scientists concluded in the 1950s that wastes from human activity were causing
eutrophication in lakes.
B. People in Europe and North America ' knew that eutrophication was the most serious
environmental pollution. but they did not understand why it was happening.
C. It was not known right away what caused eutrophication in European and North
American lakes, but by the 19503, it was accepted as an environmental problem.
D. Lakes in Europe and North America were exhibiting waste problems in the 1950s.
4. Which of the following can be inferred about the process of eutrophication?
A. It has largely been an intentional process.
B. It has been accelerated because of humans.
C. It is exacerbated by the presence of phytoplankton.
D. It is impossible to stop once it is started.
5. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as contributing to eutrophication
EXCEPT _____.
A. wastewater from cleaning activities
B. excess water from farming regions
D. garbage that is not properly subjected to treatment
D. plants growing excessively at human residences
6. The author cites the presence of huge amounts of phytoplankton in a lake as _____.
A. a sign that the lake will sustain a number of negative changes
B. an indication that the lake has a sufficient amount of nutrients
C. evidence that birds and animals are not eating marine plants
D. a warning that the water is not fit for human consumption
7. Which of the following dangers arises when there is no oxygen in a lake?
A. An increase in carbon dioxide
B. The production of a toxic germ
C. Too much of phytoplankton
D. Accelerating the decomposition of living things
8. It is stated in the passage that _____.
A. humans have overused the lake
B. if the water changes its color, it means there is no organism living in it
C. Clostridium botulinum usually has adverse effects, but can be favorable sometimes
D. botulism exerts a bad influence on the nerves in our body
9. The author discusses the work at the ELA in the passage in order to _____.
A. describe the ongoing research on what factors may be causing lakes around the world
to die
B. determine the best techniques for conducting research on lakes
C. illustrate how researchers discovered what caused eutrophication
D. compare the findings that the ELA has made with those of the United States
government
10. Look at the four positions [A], [B], [C] and [D] that indicate where the following
sentence could be added to the passage.
Thus, through these experiments, the ELA, concluded that phosphorus is the key
nutrient that needed to be controlled.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]

ANSWERS:
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D
6. A 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. C

Passage 2:
SPACE SETTLEMENTS
The United states government is currently taking a serious look at the moon and Mars as
potential places for future human settlement for number of reasons. first, they could be a
future source of natural resources desperately needed on Earth. Second, the moon could serve
as a training ground or a kind of steppingstone for later journeys to Mars. Therefore, the moon
is already on NASAs docket for further exploration within the next couple of decades, which,
at least to some experts, is completely unnecessary mainly due to the needless risks involved.
With Mars looming as the eventual long- term goal, serious questions exist as to whether the
dangers and difficulties of a lunar settlement are too extreme and unnecessary. The moons
relatively harsh environment and the greater potential of natural resources on Mars are major
reasons that make lunar settlements too great a liability and why the moon should be
bypassed.
One major reason a lunar settlement is too hazardous in the contrast between the
environment of the moon and the red planet. Numerous scientists believe the moon is too
difficult for human settlement as compared in Mars. The fact that the moon has no
atmosphere poses the greatest threat to human beings. Atmosphere is crucial because it
protects humans and all other life from continuous bombardment cosmic radiation caused by
sources such as the sun . This radiation is especially dangerous to humans because it increases
the risk of cancer and can negatively alter and mutate DNA. On the other hand, while Mars
atmosphere is significantly thinner than Earths, at least it has one and would create some sort
of protective barrier for humans.
Another important characteristic necessary for sustainable human settlement is water, of
which the moon is believed to have none . [A] If lunar settlements are to be successful , water
will be a key component and must be brought with the colonists and continually supplied by
further expeditions from Earth, which means they will have a limited capacity of it. [B]
Conversely, Mars contains vast quantities of water ice, dry ice, and also snow. [C] There is
also ample evident that water once existed at the surface of Mars and might return in the
future if the planet warms. [D] With increased technological advances in conversion
capabilities, the potential for settlers to remain on Mars indefinitely by being
increasingly self-sufficient makes Mars a much more attractive goal as a space colony
than the moon.
Future colonists will not only benefit from potential water sources on Mars; the planet is
also rich in other basic elements vital to sustained life. These resources include nitrogen,
oxygen, and hydrogen. Mars also contains many minerals that contain iron, silicon, and
magnesium, which can be used in productive ways. For example, silicon can be used to make
solar cells to store energy and create electricity. Hydrogen can be extracted from water
sources and used a fuel. Moreover, it can be combined with nitrogen to form fertilizing
materials necessary to a sustainable colony. Due to these factors ,Mars would be a more
successful candidate for exploration and settlement because it contains the basic resources
necessary for humans to survive more independently of aid from Earth than they would on the
moon.
Clearly, any future settlements on Mars or the moon will be monumental efforts for the
space agencies and astronauts involved. The expenses incurred will be extreme and are a
further reason why plans and implementation should focus on the project, which has the
greater potential of long-term success. While the moon may serve as a temporary training
ground for Mars, it could end up becoming a major diversion from Mars and place humans in
too great a risk with too little benefit. Because the environment of Mars is more similar to that
of Earth and it contains important resources necessary to sustain life, it should be the one and
only option for any kind of long-term human settlement. Furthermore, the moon has been
eclipsed by mankind, and it is only natural that Mars be the next step for space exploration.
Finally, the habitation of Mars would not only be a milestone in space but also an excellent
opportunity for mankind to redeem itself from past exploits on Earth and preserve and make
the best use of the natural resources Mars has to offer.
1. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of space settlement?
A. Their danger can not be justified due to the risk to human life and high cost.
B. They must find incorporate the moon as a practice arena for Mars exploration.
C. They should have already been instigated by NASA many years ago.
D. They could prove to be a last resort for gaining life-sustaining supplies.
2. The word looming in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. waiting B. expanding C. competing D. emerging
3. The author discuss environment in paragraph 2 in order to _____.
A. propose that cosmic radiation would have little effect on the lunar colonists
B. indicate that lunar settlements are futile because the moon has no atmosphere
C. express the notion that Mars poses less life-threatening hazards than the moon
D. justify why the moon is a more practical place than mars for human settlement
4. According to paragraph 2, the atmosphere on Mars would
A. Change the genetic makeup of humans and cause their DNA to change and mutate
B. Give human colonists a safety shield against dangerous cosmic effects
C. Protect humans completely from harmful cosmic radiation coming from space
D. Cause humans to be more openly exposed to potentially fata illnesses
5. Look at the four positions [A], [B], [C] and (D that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage.
If supplies are delayed for one reason or another, the entire project and the livelihood of
the colonists could be in serious jeopardy.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
6. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence in the passage? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or
leave out essential information.
A. The moon is easier to adapt to because of advances in technology and self-sufficiency.
B. Having settlers staying on Mars is more appealing because of its potential as a colony.
C. Mars may be a better long-term option than the moon because of the most recent
technology.
 D. Conversion capabilities will enable settlers to make traveling to the moon a more
viable goal.
7. What can be inferred about water sources on Mars?
A. They are not present at the moment though they probably once were.
B. They are not known to be present in a fluid state above or below the surface.
C. They will be easily converted into liquid forms necessary for life.
D. They exist in liquid form below the surface and ice at the immediate surface.
8. According to paragraph 4, what is true about the mineral content of Mars?
A. Most are in their rawest forms and cannot be utilized completely.
B. Their levels do not reach the magnitude of those found on the moon.
C. Some will help future colonists create their own sources of energy.
D. The planet lacks the fundamental elements of carbon and nitrogen.
9. The author of the passage implies that future space exploration
A. is in its infancy and will require a fresh vision from scientists for it to succeed
B. will look past Mars and include other planets within its parameters
C. does not make sense if humans only wish to search for alien life forms.
D. needs to move ahead to new frontiers instead of going back to old ones
10. According to paragraph 5, what is another factor against moon settlements?
A. Astronauts must be able to multitask and will be far away from life-saving aid.
B. Since the moon contains no trace of water, it must be brought from Earth.
C. Funding for them will take away from the resources appropriated to Mars missions.
D. The lack of weather and gravity will have a negative effect on the future colonists.

ANSWERS:
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. B
6. C 7. B 8. c 9. d 10. C

VI. GUIDED CLOZE TESTS

Choose the best option to complete the passage.
Passage 1:
THE BIRTH OF THE LONDON MARATHON
In 1979, hours after having run the New York Marathon, the (1) _____ Olympic champion
Chris Brasher wrote an article for The Observer newspaper which began: "To believe this
story you must believe that the human race is one joyous, happy family, working together,
laughing together, (2) _____ the impossible. Last Sunday, in one of the most trouble-stricken
cities in the world, 11,532 men and women from 40 countries in the world, assisted by over a
million black, white and yellow people, laughed, cheered and (3) _____ during the greatest
folk festival the world has seen." Enchanted with the sight of people coming together for such
an occasion, he concluded by questioning "... whether London could (4) _____ such a
festival?"
Within months the London Marathon was born, with Brasher making trips to America to
study the race organisation and finance of big city marathons such as New York and Boston,
the oldest in the world. He (5) _____ a contract with Gillette worth £50,000, established the
organisation's charitable (6) _____ , and (7) _____ down six main aims for the event, which
he not only hoped would echo the scenes he had witnessed in New York, but also put Britain
firmly on the (8) _____ as a country capable of organising major events.
His vision was realised on March 29th 1981, with the (9) _____ London Marathon (10) _____
to be an instant success. More than 20,000 people applied to run: 7,747 were accepted and
6,255 crossed the finish line on Constitution Hill as cheering crowds lined the route.
1. A. utmost B. former C. aftermost D. final
2. A. appointing B. transacting C. making D. achieving
3. A. suffered B. offended C. hurt D. pained
4. A. perform B. act C. rehearse D. stage
5. A. fastened B. tied C. secured D. possessed
6. A. grade B. rank C. status D. class
7. A. let B. set C. took D. gave
8. A. map B. border C. atlas D. territory
9. A. penultimate B. former C. inaugural D. primitive
10. A. succeeding B. checking C. resulting D. proving

ANSWERS:
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C
6. C 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. D

Passage 2:
THE INVENTION OF TELEVISION
Few inventions have (1) _____ more scorn and praise (2) _____ them at the same time than
television. And few have done so much to unite the world into one vast audience for news,
sport, information and entertainment. Television must be (3) _____ alongside printing as one
of the most significant inventions of all time in the (4) _____ of communications. In just a
few decades it has reached (5) _____ every home in the developed world and an ever-
increasing (6) _____ of homes in developing countries. It took over half a century from the
first suggestion that television might be possible before the first (7) _____ pictures were
produced in laboratories in Britain and America.
In 1926 John Logie Baird’s genius for publicity brought television to the (8) _____ of a
British audience. It has since (9) _____ such heights of success and taken on such a pivotal
function that it is difficult to imagine a world (10) _____ of this groundbreaking invention.
1. A. had B. even C. been D. done
2. A. taken over B. heaped upon C. picked on D. given over
3. A. awarded B. rated C. graduated D. assembled
4. A. location B. site C. post D. field
5. A. simultaneously B. actually C. virtually D. substantially
6. A. proportion B. rate C. portion D. part
7. A. flaring B. glimmering C. sparkling D. flickering
8. A. attention B. concentration C. initiation D. surveillance
9. A. found B. left C. gained D. reached
10. A. without B. shallow C. bereft D. lacking

ANSWERS:
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C
6. A 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. C

B. WRITTEN TEST
I. OPEN CLOZE TEST
Fill in each space with ONE suitable word.
Passage 1:
By the start of the twenty-first century, Britain had become a highly (1) _____ country,
with only a small proportion of the population in touch with the working life of the
countryside. But this has by no means always been the case. At the end of the nineteenth
century, in excess (2) _____ a million people were employed in agriculture, five (3) _____
today's figure. Even then , however, the total was significantly below that in most European
countries, high factory wages having already (4) _____ people to leave the countryside in
favour of the industrial cities. In addiction to this, the English (5) _____ of primogeniture, by
which land is (6) _____ only by the eldest son, served (7) _____ further accelerate the rural
exodus.
During the war years of the 1940s, at a time when food was short, people seized whatever
opportunities there were to improve their diet by growing their own vegetables. However, this
(8) _____ soon lost its appeal once the war was over, as (9) _____ other temporary
expediencies, such as keeping chickens in town gardens. What is more, mixed arable and
livestock farming, once the norm, became rare, so that even (10) _____ people than ever were
involved in agriculture.

ANSWERS:
1. urbanised 2. of 3. times 4. tempted 5. custom
6. inherited 7. to 8. practice 9. did 10. fewer

Passage 2:
URBAN SPARROWS
During the last 25 years, Britain's urban sparrow population has declined by as much as two-
thirds, and the bird has almost disappeared from many of its former haunts. The decline has
been (1) _____ on everything from cats to garden pesticides. Moreover, modern buildings
have far (2) _____ few nooks and crannies where the birds can nest. Factors (3) _____ these
may well be involved, but alone they (4) _____ to explain the severity of the decline, or the
fact that other urban birds have been less affected.
Denis Summers-Smith is the world's leading expert on sparrows, so when he (5) _____ up
with a theory to explain their decline, it has to be worth listening to. He suggests that the
culprit is a chemical added to unleaded petrol. It would be deeply ironic if a policy that was
intended to improve the nation's health (6) _____ to prove responsible for the decline of (7)
_____ of its favourite species.
According to Summers-Smith, social species such as the sparrow require a minimum
population in a specific area to breed successfully. If, (8) _____ whatever reason, number
drop (9) _____ this threshold, the stimulus to breed disappears. The most dramatic example is
the passenger pigeon, which in the late nineteenth century went from (10) _____ the world's
most common bird to total extinction within 50 years.

ANSWERS:
1. blamed 2. too 3. like 4. fail 5. comes
6. was 7. one 8. for 9. below/beneath 10. being

II. WORD FORMS

PART 1. Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses.
1. This is the first genuinely _____ (PARTY) government to be formed since the war; the
house stands united in the face of the daunting task that lies ahead in trying to rebuild the
nation's crumbling economy following a triple-dip recession.
2. This sparkling wine is the perfect _____ (COMPANY) to spicy food.
3. The local _____ (EAT) which I frequent the most is Gardner's on 43rd Street.
4. The ending was rather _____ (CLIMAX) considering the fact that the film had been so
intense throughout.
5. Recent inflation could _____ (NULL) the economic growth of the last several years.
6. The nomadic tribes of the Sahara are some of the few peoples well positioned to cope with
the problems which will invenitably arise as a result of _____ (DESERT).
7. Already there is some evidence of the _____ (GLACIER) of certain ice sheets in the
Arctic. Scientists say that this could get worse. The majority of mountain glaciers throughout
the world in both hemispheres are also presently in retreat.
8. He is a very _____ (EFFACE) and humble man and always credits his team when they get
a good result. Yet we all now that much of the credit for their improved performances this
year is down to his excellence as a man-manager.
9. Max is _____ (MEDDLE) in the extreme, and can't help but try to become involved in the
affairs of those around him. What he doesn’t realise, however, is that he is involvement is
seldom if ever helpful and usually makes things worse.
10. He examined the delicate artefact with _____ (REVERE) care. I doubt he could have
been any more careful were he holding his own child in his arms.

ANSWERS:
1. bipartisan 2. accompaniment 3. eatery
4. anticlimactic 5. nullify 6. desertification
7. deglaciation 8. self-effacing 9. meddlesome
10. reverential

2. Complete the passage with the appropriate forms from the words given in the box.

WHERE GOVERN COMMENT TURN FOLLOW

MELT EXTENT REGULATE LONG PUBLIC

After a number of serious failures of (1) _____ (that is, how they are managed at the highest
level), companies in Britain, as well as (2) _____ , should consider radical changes to their
directors' roles. It is clear that the role of a board director today is not an easy one. (3) _____
the 2008 financial (4) _____ , which resulted in a deeper and more (5) _____ period of
economic (6) _____ than anyone expected, the search for explanations in the many post-
mortems of the crisis has meant blame has been spread far and wide. Governments, (7) _____,
central banks and auditors have all been in the frame. The role of bank directors and
management and their widely (8) _____ failures have been (9) _____ picked over and
examined in reports, inquiries and (10) _____ .
ANSWERS:
1. governance 2. elsewhere 3. Following
4. meltdown 5. prolonged 6. downturn
7. regulators 8. publicised 9. extensively
10. commentaries
III. MISTAKE CORRECTION
The following passage contains 10 errors. Identify and correct them.
When we think of intelligent members of the animal kingdom, the creatures spring
immediately to mind are apes and monkeys. But in fact the social lives of some members of
the insect kingdom are sufficient complex to suggest more than a hint of intelligence. Among
these, the world of the ant come in for considerable scrutiny lately, and the idea that ants
demonstrate sparks of cognition has certainly not been rejected by those involved these
investigations.
Ants store food, repel attackers and use chemical signals to contact each other in case of
attack. Such chemical communication can be compared to the human use of visual and
auditory channels to arouse and propagate moods and attitudes. The biologist Lewis Thomas
wrote, “Ants are so much alike human beings as to be an embarrassment. They farm fungus,
raise aphids as livestock, launch armies to war, use chemical sprays to alarm and confuse
enemies, capture slaves, engage in child labour, exchange information ceaselessly. They do
everything and watch television.”
However, in ants there is no cultural transmission - everything must be encoded in the
genes - where in humans the opposite is true. Only basic instincts are carried in the genes of a
newborn baby, other skills being learned from others in the community as the child grows up.
It may seem that this cultural continuity gives us a huge advantage over ants. They have never
mastered fire nor progressed. Their fungus farming and aphid herding crafts are sophisticated
when comparing to the agricultural skills of humans five thousand years ago but have been
totally overtaken by modern human agribusiness.

ANSWERS:
1. the creatures spring → that/ which spring // springing
2. are sufficient complex → are sufficiently complex
3. come in for → has come in for
4. those involved these → those involved in these
5. contact each other → contact one another
6. much alike human beings → much like human beings
7. They farm fungus → They farm fungi
8. do everything and watch → do everything but watch
9. where in humans → whereas in humans
10. when comparing to → when compared to

IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION

Rewrite the following sentences using the words given.
1. It was to be another twenty-five years before Michael returned to his home town.
Not until .......................................................................................................................................
2. It shouldn’t have surprised me that my children didn’t like the new, cheaper ice-cream.
I might .........................................................................................................................................
3. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast.
The annual ...................................................................................................................................
4. The crash victim was beyond help when emergency services reach her. WHATSOEVER
There ......................................................................................... do on reaching the crash victim.
5. I said that I thought he was wrong about the best way for us to proceed. ISSUE
I .............................................................................................................. best we should proceed.
6. Her latest novel isn't as good as her previous one. PAR
Her latest novel ............................................................................................................................
7. I am aware of the fact that Rebecca is upset about something. ESCAPED
It has .............................................................................. that Rebecca is upset about something.
8. I can’t work properly because you are always watching me and then criticizing my work.
SHOULDER
I can’t work properly with you ....................................................................................................
9. The resort is isolated so there is nothing interesting to see or do. NOWHERE
The resort ................................................................. so there is nothing interesting to see or do
10. You took an enormous risk by agreeing to go up in a helicopter with such an
inexperienced pilot.
You took your life ........ by agreeing to go up in a helicopter with such an inexperienced pilot.

ANSWERS
1. Not until twenty-five years had passed/gone by/elapsed / not until 25 years later / did
Michael return to his home town.
2. I might have known my children would not like the new, cheaper ice-cream.
3. The annual rainfall in/for the northwest of Britain is higher/greater than that in the
southeast.
The annual rainfall in/for the southeast of Britain is lower/less than that in the northwest.
4. was nothing whatsoever emergency services could
5. I took issue with him about how best we should proceed.
6. Her latest novel isn't on a par with her previous one.
7. It has not escaped my notice/ attention that Rebecca is upset about something.
8. I can’t work properly with you looking over my shoulder all the time.
9. The resort is in the middle of nowhere so there is nothing interesting to see or do
10. You took your life in your hands by agreeing to go up in a helicopter with such an
inexperienced pilot.
 KỲ THI OLYMPIC TRUYỀN THỐNG 30 - 4 LẦN THỨ XXIV
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH; LỚP: 11

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÂM ĐỒNG

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN THĂNG LONG – ĐÀ LẠT

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

QUESTION 1: WORD CHOICE

Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
1. I was surrounded by a number of good choice but the ___________ was a recent talk to a
friend.
A. stimulation B. inspiration C. clincher D. muse
2. These chocolates are so ___________I can’t stop eating them.
A. moreish B. tender C. sweetened D. sugary
3. Lauren is often labelled easy-going as she tends to appear mild and relaxed rather than
tense and ___________
A. sullen B. likeable C. humorous D. excitable
4. I appealed to all ___________people to support me and I was successful.
A. same-minded B. thought-sharing C. familiar-thinking D. like-minded
5. Knowing the confidential details gave him a(n) ___________over the other candidates.
A. edge B. possibility C. exertion D. fringe
6. She likes spoiling people’s fun. She is really a ___________
A. couch potato B. wet blanket C. hard nut D. cold fish
7. There’s no place for ___________if we want to stay in this competition.
A. complaisance B. competence C. complacency D. commendation
8. I had a strong___________that a disaster would occur, and it did.
A. premonition B. prediction C. forethought D. anticipation
9. Police have ___________a plot to kidnap the daughter of a wealthy businessman.
A. shunned B. foiled C. seized D. executed
10. The film is a ___________reminder of life in small town America in the 1960s.
A. preordained B. pungent C. poignant D. protruding

KEY TO QUESTION 1:
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. C
QUESTION 2: GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
1. _____ begin their existence as ice crystals over most of the earth seems likely.
A. Raindrops B. If raindrops
C. That raindrops D. What if raindrops
2. _____ no proof, the judge refused to sentence him to death.
A. It having B. There being
C. Being D. There having
3. My father is getting old and forgetful. _____, he is experienced and helpful.
A. Be that as it may B. Regardless
C. Lest D. Consequently
4. A quick look would reveal that in Sweden the number of computers, at 500 is _____ the
figure for TV.
A. almost as big as B. almost many as
C. almost the same as D. almost much as
5. It is imperative that your facebook password _____ confidential.
A. need keeping B. need to keep
C. needs to be kept D. needed keeping
6. Issues from price, place, promotion, and product are _____ of marketing strategies
planning, despite growing calls to expand the range of issues in today’s more complex world.
A. these that are among the most conventional concerns
B. among the most conventional concerns
C. they are among the most conventional concerns
D. those are among the most conventional concerns
7. Indicate the sentence that best combines the following pair of sentences.
Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars. However, cars are
the greatest contributor of air pollution.
A. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest
contributors of air pollution.
B. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to
contribute to the pollution of air.
C. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, cars are the greatest
contributor of air pollution.
D. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the
greatest contributors of air pollution.
8. Indicate the sentence that best combines the following pair of sentences.
You should listen to the radio. You can be kept informed about current affairs.
A. Only by listening to the radio you can keep yourself informed current affairs.
B. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs.
C. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio.
D. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs.

9. Indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following sentence.

Some people will go any length to lose weight.
A. Some people will do anything to lose weight.
B. Some people haven’t lost any weight for a long time.
C. Losing weight is a long way for some people.
D. Some people find it hard to lose weight.
10. Indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following sentence.
Thanks to the efforts of environmentalists, people are becoming better aware of the problem
of endangered species.
A. Environmentalists are expressing their gratitude toward people who are better aware of the
problem of endangered species.
B. People owe their growing awareness of the problems of endangered species to the efforts
of environmentalists.
C. People have no idea about the problems of endangered species in spite of the efforts of
environmentalists.
D. Environmentalists are doing their best to make people aware of the problems of
endangered species.

KEY TO QUESTION 2:
1.C 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.D 9.A 10.B
QUESTION 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS
Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
1. The free tickets for the band’s concert were ______________ within seconds by the
enthusiasts flocking at the hall door.
A. run up B. broken up C. drawn up D. snapped up
2. The whole business sounds too irrational to me to risk ______________ all my life savings.
A. running through B. pulling down C. calling up D. handing over
3. Our grandfather can ______________ his war experiences all day round. Sometimes, we
all get truly bored with it.
A. figure out B. harp on C. turn away D. split up
4. ‘Do you think Robert is a good candidate for the job?’ ‘ Well, I have known the boy for
many years and I can ______________ his great capacity for solving complex questions.’
A. vouch for B. set in C. take back D. account for
5. You’d better be ______________ your toes all day round in case a new alarm is raised.
A. in B. on C. with D. about
6. There’s no point ______________ at Dr. Barker. She’s not responsible for what’s
happened.
A. cottoning on B. warding off C. blacking out D. lashing out
7. You should ______________ your parents ______________ and see what they think of
your plan.
A. answer …back B. sound …out C. crowd …around D. pick …on
8. The photo’s got a couple of marks on it, so I’ll scan it and ______________ it __________
with some software I’ve got.
A. make …up B. touch …up C. scrap …through D. write …off
9. These carrots have ______________ a bit, so I think I’ll throw them out.
A. shrivelled up B. creased up C. summoned up D. played up
10. That wall would fall over if it wasn’t ______________ with planks of wood.
A. watered down B. propped up C. chanced upon D. stored up

KEY TO QUESTION 3:
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. B
QUESTION 4: COLLOCATIONS AND IDIOMS
Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
1. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is _____.
A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile
C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as wood
2. They are happily married although, of course, they argue _____.
A. every now and then B. from day to day
C. most times D. on the occasion
3. Mr. Jones knew who had won the contest, but he kept it under his _____ until it was
announced publicly.
A. cap B. tongue C. hat D. umbrella
4. The professor’s _____ theory is that singing preceded speech.
A. fancied B. fond C. preferable D. pet
5. I'll have to go to the wedding of Ms. Jane, a _____ of mine.
A. heart to heart B. body and soul
C. flesh and blood D. skin and bones
6. If he tries to _____ ignorance as his excuse, just tell him we’ve got a copy of the
authorization with his signature on it.
A. defend B. plead C. pretend D. protest
7. I know you are upset about breaking up with Tom, but there are plenty more _____.
A. horses in the stable B. cows in the shed
C. tigers in the jungle D. fish in the sea
8. James never remembers anything; he’s got a memory like _____.
A. a cow B. a mouse C. a sieve D. a bucket
9. He travelled _____ for twenty years and then he decided to return home.
A. far from it B. the farthest of all
C. far and wide D. farther away
10. Indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchange
- Nadine “I’ve been offered $550 for my stereo. Should I take it or wait a better one?”
- Kitty: “Take the $550. _____.”
A. Actions speak louder than words
B. Kill two birds with one stone
C. The early bird catches the worm
D. A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush

KEY TO QUESTION 4:
1.C 2.A 3.C 4.D 5.C 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.C 10.D
QUESTION 5: READING COMPREHENSION
A. READING PASSAGE 1
Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question.
PLATE TECTONICS
Any map of the world displays the complementarily of the Atlantic coastlines of South
America and Africa. The two continents appear to fir together like pieces of jigsaw puzzle.
This observation, first noted three centuries ago, gave rise to Alfred Wegener’s early 20th-
century theory of continental drift. According to Wegener’s hypothesis, Africa and South
America had once been part of a single land mass that later separated. However, many highly
esteemed scientists were skeptical, believing it physically impossible for two continents to
shift so far apart.
Then, in the 1960s, the theory of plate tectonics arose in the scientific community. In
formulating this theory, geologists developed hypotheses that answered several different
questions: Why do volcanoes and earthquakes occur where they do? How did the topography
of the sea floor take shape? What explains the distribution of fossil forms and glacial debris
around the globe? The theory of place tectonics offers explanations for these phenomena, and
also gives credence to the concept of continental drift. In few short years, plate tectonics
revolutionized Earth Sciences.
Essentially, plate tectonics addresses the movements and changes of the Earth’s crust. The
planet is composed of three main layers. Surrounding the large, iron-rich core of the Earth is a
thick layer called the mantle. On top of the mantle lies a thin crust. The crust, or lithosphere,
is rigid and varies in thickness from about 30 miles (50 kilometers) underneath the ocean to as
much as 60 miles (100 kilometers) below the continents. This is broken up into a series of
rigid plates. These lithospheric plates lie on the asthenosphere, the upper part of the mantle,
which has an average depth of 300 miles (500 kilometers). A) Unlike the rigid lithosphere,
the asthenosphere is relatively soft, partly molten layer, B) The movement of the plates, at
an annual rate of two or three centimeters-about one inch-is responsible for volcanic activity
and earthquakes. Modern volcanoes and earthquake epicenters lie along distinct belts. C)
For instance, they are clustered along the western coasts of the Americas, running from the
southern tip of South America all the way north to Alaska. These patterns of earthquake and
volcano distribution mark the edges of the lithospheric plates, where the crust has broken and
the resulting plates knock and scrape against one another. Earthquakes are the surface
manifestations of these huge collisions. D)
The layout of the sea floor is result of oceanic plates spreading apart and molten rock from the
asthenosphere rising up to fill the chasm. Quirks in fossil records can best be explained using
plate tectonics. The unusual distribution pattern of the distinctive fossil plant Glossopteris,
found in southern Africa, South America, Australia, India, and Antarctica, is one example of
such a quirk. It is unlikely that this precise plant could have developed in the same way at
the same time on discrete continents, or that its seeds could have been carried by wind
or water across the enormous oceans that separate these locales today. Similarly, plate
tectonics explains the pattern of glacial deposits in such diverse areas as southern India,
southern Africa, the eastern coast of southern South America, the southern coast of Australia,
and Antarctica. Resolving these latter two issues returns us to the idea of continental drift.
Scientists currently believe that around 200 million years ago, these existed one huge
supercontinent. Called Pangaea, meaning “all lands” in Greek, this supercontinent broke up
into two smaller landmasses, which would later fragment into the continents of North
America, Europe, and Asia. Gondwanaland comprised the southern continents of Africa,
Australia, South America, Antarctica, and subcontinental India. A few objectors, mostly from
religious groups, point out that the actual mechanisms for plate movement have not been
conclusively expounded. Nonetheless, there is little doubt among geologists that the plates
did-and still do-move. With evidence for plate tectonics being found in so many diverse
disciplines-biology, chemistry, physics, geography, and mathematics, as well as geology-
serious doubts about its basic principles have evaporated.
1. The word credence in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. recognition B. believability C. certainty D. contradiction
2. Look at the four squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to
the passage.
It is this quality that allows the plates on the asthenosphere to slide along its surface.
Where would the sentence best fit? Choose the square [ ] where the sentence should be
added to the passage.
A. 1st square B. 2nd square C. 3rd square D. 4th square
3. Why does the author describe the distribution of volcanoes in paragraph 3?
A. To illustrate one problem with the theory of continental drift
B. To give an example of one application of the concept of plate tectonics
C. To demonstrate the interactions of the three composite parts of the Earth
D. To provide an explanation for the varying thicknesses of the Earth’s crust
4. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true about plates?
A. There are seven of them, one for each continent
B. They have an average depth of 300 miles
C. Most of them lie along the western coast of the Americas.
D. They are part of the Earth’s crust
5. According to paragraph 3, the composition of the Earth includes all of the following
EXCEPT…….
A. a large center with plenty of iron B. a soft middle layer
C. a thick, rigid mantle D. an outer layer of tectonic plate
6. The word this in the passage refers to
A. crust B. ocean C. planet D. variety
7. According to the passage, which of the following, which of the following is true about
earthquakes?
A. They originate in the Earth’s core
B. They result from the bumping and scraping of plates
C. They happen mostly along the Pacific coast
D. They can cause one plate to separate from another
8. The word quirks in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. whims B. defects C. oddities D. absences
9. Which of the sentences best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence
in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave our essential
information.
A. Glossopteris fossils are not widespread because seeds cannot be carried by wind across
large expanses of water
B. Glossopteris probably evolved simultaneously in several locations
C. The widespread discoveries of Glossopteris fossils can probably not be explained by
simultaneous evolutions or wind transport
D. Storms in earlier eras must have been very strong to carry Glossopteris seeds across oceans
10. According to the passage, the present-day continents
A. were once part of larger landmasses.
B. move less than earlier landmasses did.
C. are grouped into two categories, Laurasia and Gondwanaland.
D. have not been thoroughly explained.

KEY TO READING PASSAGE 1

1.B 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. A
B. READING PASSAGE 2
Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question.
A SIBLING RIVALRY
The man with the bullhorn encouraged the runners as they made their way up the hill.
“Two hours, fifteen minutes, forty seconds …” His deep, amplified voice boomed toward us.
It was mile 17 of the marathon.
“Hey, great stride!” a bearded spectator yelled to me. He clapped loudly. “You’re looking
strong. Keep going - go, go, go!”
You betcha I’m looking strong, I thought, as I followed my younger sister, Laura. I just got
started. She had been diligently clocking eight-minute miles since the race had begun
downtown. Initially in the middle of a pack, which was several thousand people, she had been
steadily passing other runners for the past 10 miles or so. We were now on the relatively steep
rise to the St. Cecelia Bridge. Once we crossed, we would begin heading back into town,
running along the east side of the Rincon River. Laura had asked me to run the most difficult
section of the marathon with her. Not having trained for anything more challenging than a
brisk walk, and with no experience running in organized events, I figured I might be good for
two or three miles.
Despite our running in tandem, we were taking different approaches to the event. Laura
was on an aggressive tack, maneuvering quickly through the slowing pack of runners. She
began calling out, “On your left, sir,” and “Excuse me,” as she doggedly yet gracefully
attacked the rising slope approaching the bridge. Keeping up with her was no small feat. On
one hand, I felt like saying to her, Wait up! On the other hand, I knew that a timely finish
would be a personal record for her.
Up ahead, steel drums were playing. A group of percussionists was pounding out rhythms,
chanting, and encouraging us with their music and smiles. Crossing the bridge, I recalled the
advice in the Marathon Handbook to be sure to spit off of the steely span. During my preview
of the route, it had seemed like a juvenile thing to do. But now it seemed like a fine idea, and I
spat magnificently over the side of the bridge.
“I read the handbook, too!” trumpeted a triumphant woman behind me, who also let loose
over the side of the bridge. We had now initiated a chain reaction of subsequent bridge
spitters. It was quite a sight, but I had other things to occupy my attention, namely the back of
Laura’s jersey.
Easing off the bridge, and heading south on Avila Boulevard, Laura and I found our pace
together again. Here we could hang to the left of the group and enjoy some brief conversation.
“You keeping up okay?” she asked. Being her older brother, and therefore unable to admit
weakness, I nodded convincingly.
“Hey, Lee!” yelled a waving man on the sidewalk. Immediately pleased that my marathon
efforts had been recognized by someone I knew, I waved back and reflected on the
importance of wearing tie-dyed clothing to a road race of this size. It made it a lot easier to be
spotted!
The town marathon is a “people’s” marathon in that it tends to be a family affair, with the
runners and spectators creating a festival atmosphere. The crowds are demonstrably vocal and
supportive all day, which means a lot to the participants. I managed to run six miles before
bowing out, and Laura finished the entire race in under four hours.
I now pride myself on telling people that I ran in a marathon. The distinction between
having run a marathon and having run in a marathon seems unimportant. If pressed, however,
I’ll admit that I only ran one-fourth of one.
 Inspired by this year experience, I plan to walk the course-really fast-next year. It’s not
because I’m jealous of my sister’s accomplishment. This is not some silly sibling rivalry in
which I must do whatever she does. Rather, Laura got free cookies at the finish line, and the
promise of that will lead me to any goal.
1. This story is told from the point of view of _____
A. Laura. B. Lee.
C. both Laura and Lee. D. an unidentified, third-person narrator.
2. Below are four definitions of “tack”, which is mentioned in the text, which one probably
means the same as the word is used in this section of the passage?
A. a sharp-pointed nail B. something that attaches
C. a sticky or adhesive quality D. a zigzag movement
3. What happened immediately AFTER Lee spit over the side of the bridge?
A. Laura was embarrassed. B. A woman spat over the bridge.
C. Lee apologized for his manners. D. Lee saw someone that he knew.
4. Why did the author write this story?
A. to explain how marathons are won.
B. to tell about the history of marathons.
C. to tell a story about a marathon experience.
D. to show how difficult running in a marathon can be.
5. Why was Lee glad he wore a tie-dyed shirt?
A. It helped people locate him easily. B. The shirt brought him good luck.
C. It added to the festival atmosphere. D. The shirt was a favorite of Laura’s.
6. What part of the marathon does Laura ask Lee to run?
A. the last six miles B. the downhill section
C. the most difficult section D. the last two to three miles
7. At next year’s marathon, Lee plans to _____
A. run half of the course. B. beat his sister Laura.
C. walk the race really fast. D. improve his time.
8. Which of the following words best describes Laura as she is presented in this passage?
A. competitive B. foolish C. comical D. carefree
9. The author wants the reader to think that Lee _____
A. is too aggressive. B. has little self-confidence.
C. has a future as a runner. D. is a good-natured brother.
10. Lee tells Laura that he’s keeping up okay because _____
A. he doesn’t want her to think he can’t keep up with her. B. he is always lying to her.
C. he really is doing okay. D. he wants to motivate her.

KEY TO READING PASSAGE 2:

1.B 2.D 3.B 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.C 8.A 9.D 10.A
QUESTION 6: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
A. GUIDED CLOZE TEST 1
Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space.
A QUESTION OF SAFETY
Life involves a certain amount risk or at least it did. These days, however, governments seem
to have become(1) ________ with the idea of protecting us from it. As a result, what we
actually risk most is not being allowed to live at all. (2) ________, take a recent edict which
emerged from the British governments health and safety department. It would be amusing if it
wasn’t so serious. Circus artistes performing on tightropes or the flying trapeze are being (3)
________to wear the type of hard hats more usually (4) ________with the construction
industry. Under a relatively new law (5) ________as the ‘temporary work at heights
directive’, such a hat must be worn for any working activity taking (6) ________above the
height of an ‘ average stepladder’. Now you might think that sounds (7) ________reasonable,
but the absurd thing is that the rule is being (8) ________to circus performers as well.
The first to be hit by this rule were baffled members of the Moscow State Circus, who were
touring England at the time. Used to flying through the air without even the (9) ________of a
safety net, they (10) ________ that trapeze artistes often break arms and legs, but rarely
heads. This simple fact was apparently lost on the bureaucrats at the government department,
however, who insisted that the rule be followed.
1. A. prone B. devoted C. addicted D. obsessed
2. A. In other words B. Such as C. For example D. What’s more
3. A. required B. challenged C. proposed D. demanded
4. A. regarded B. associated C. recognized D. concerned
5. A. known B. called C. entitled D. referred
6. A. forth B. place C. part D. ahead
7. A. closely B. duly C. widely D. fairly
8. A. presided B. enforced C. applied D. directed
9. A. benefit B. profit C. remedy D. welfare
10. A. came forward B. pointed out C. put across D. cleared up

KEY TO GUIDED CLOZE TEST 1

1. D 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. B
B. GUIDED CLOZE TEST 2
Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space.
J.K. ROWLING ACCUSED OF PLAGIARISM
by Anne Barrowclough in Sydney
J.K. Rowling is facing a multimillion-pound lawsuit after being accused of stealing
ideas for her Harry Potter series from the British author of another children's book. The estate
of the late Adrian Jacobs added the world's richest author as a defendant to a lawsuit that
alleges that a substantial part of Mr Jacob's 1987 book The Adventures of Willy the Wizard:
No 1 Livid Land was (1) _____ in Harry Potter and the Goblet of Fire, published 13 years
later in July 2000. Mr Jacobs' estate entered a lawsuit against Bloomsbury Publishing,
publishers of the Harry Potter series, in a London court last June. The suit claims that Mr
Jacobs used concepts and themes such as wizard prisons, wizard hospitals and wizard colleges
years before Ms Rowling did.
The Sydney agent Max Markson, who is representing Paul Allen, the Australian based
trustee of Mr Jacobs' estate, said that Ms Rowling was added to the lawsuit after Mr Allen
learned that the statute of limitations to sue her had not (2) _____, as previously thought. The
theme of Harry Potter and the Goblet of Fire - a year of wizardry competition - was (3)
_____the theme of Willy the Wizard, he added. "If your child read Willy the Wizard, he would
say to you, 'That's just like Goblet of Fire'," he said. Harry Potter and the Goblet of Fire was
the fourth of seven stratospherically successful books about the boy wizard that have become
a global brand worth (a) an (4) _____ £7 billion. Mr Jacobs, on the other hand, sold only
5,000 of his Willy the Wizard book. A millionaire businessman and lawyer, he died penniless
in 1997, ten years after losing everything in the 1987 stock market crash.
"He was a very clever man," Mr Markson said, "but he died in poverty in a hospice. It
was a terribly sad story." Mr Jacobs used to tell friends' children stories about a boy wizard
until he was persuaded to turn the tales (5) _____ a book, which he self-published. A friend of
his first noticed the similarities to Goblet of Fire in 2003 and Mr Jacob's estate (6) _____
Bloomsbury with the plagiarism claims the following year, but it took another five years
before a lawsuit was brought against the publishing company. In a statement Mr Allen said
that the estate was also seeking legal (7) _____ on whether the Harry Potter films and soon-
to-be-opened Harry Potter theme park breached copyright law.
Ms Rowling is no stranger to copyright cases. In June 2008 she brought a lawsuit
against a Harry Potter encyclopedia that had formerly been a winner of the J.K. Rowling's
Fan Site Award. Asking a Manhattan court to block publication of The Harry Potter Lexicon
on the grounds that it had "plundered" her prose, Ms Rowling told the court: "Authors have a
right to protect their works from (8) _____."
Ms Rowling said in a statement: "I am saddened that yet another claim has been made
that I have taken material from another source to write Harry. The fact is I had never heard of
the author or the book before the first accusation by those (9) _____ to the author's estate in
2004; I have certainly never read the book. The claims that are made are not only unfounded
but absurd and I am disappointed that I, and my UK publisher Bloomsbury, are put in a (10)
_____ to have to defend ourselves. We will be applying to the Court immediately for a ruling
that the claim is without merit and should therefore be dismissed without delay."
 1. A. incarnated B. modelled C. replicated D. reflected
2. A. figured out B. run out C. brought out D. taken out
3. A. identical to B. particular about C. likely to D. liable to
4. A. valued B. appreciated C. evaluated D. estimated
5. A. over B. out C. into D. to
6. A. moved forward B. came up C. neared D. approached
7. A. advice B. recommendation C. suggestion D. idea
8. A. abuse B. misuse C. usage D. use
9. A. bound B. referred C. restricted D. connected
10. A. position B. post C. place D. condition

KEY TO GUIDED CLOZE TEST 2

1.C 2.B 3.A 4.D 5.C 6.D 7.A 8.B 9.D 10.A
 B. WRITTEN TEST

QUESTION 1: OPEN CLOZE TESTS

A. OPEN CLOZE TEST 1
Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD
for each space.
The new scheme for training teachers (1) ________ a radical departure from the previous
system. The old division of training courses into periods of theoretical study dealing with such
subjects as sociology and psychology, and teaching practice, will largely disappear. Trainees
will instead be (2) ________to schools for most of their course, and learn the skills of
classroom teaching through practical experience. They will be supervised by practising
teachers, rather than as formerly, supervised by educationalists who no longer actually teach.
These changes seek to answer the complaints of trainees (3) ________, who tend to feel that
they have acquired too little practical knowledge, and of schools, who frequently report that
new teachers (4) ________ basic classroom abilities. (5) ________, there are some obvious
objections to such a scheme. First of all, it places a heavy burden onto the shoulders of
teachers who already complain of being overworked, and of having too many administrative
tasks. Secondly it runs the (6) ________of going too far from one extreme to another, and of
creating a breed of teachers with plenty of superficial classroom skill, but no theoretical
understanding of wider educational issues. There are also some voices raised in protest at (7)
________ they see as an attempt by the government to cut back the role of (8) ________
colleges as places where new ideas can be developed and put into practice. However, it may
(9) ________ be that changes in education are best pioneered in the schools themselves, to
develop from the grass roots, as it was, rather than being imposed from above. Whatever the
success of the new scheme, it throws into even more urgent relief the unavoidable fact that
education in Great Britain has (10) ________ to firmly decide what it should be teaching,
what it should be teaching it, and how best to organise its schools.

KEY TO OPEN CLOZE TEST 1:

1. envisages 2. attached 3. themselves 4. lack 5. However

6. risk 7. What 8. training 9. well 10. yet
B. OPEN CLOZE TEST 2
Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD
for each space.
A Modern-Day Problem
In the hustle and (1) _____ of today's hectic world, all of us, (2) _____ exception, have to
contend with some level of stress. Obviously, the source and amount of stress are relative to
the individual. Just (3) _____ causes and quantities of stress are subject to personal factors,
(4) _____ is the way in which a person deals with it. It is a well-known fact that some people
flourish when/if faced with a potentially stress-causing task or situation. On the other hand,
the majority of people are adversely affected when confronted (5) _____ a serious dilemma.
Abnormal levels of stress (6) _____ be a serious health hazard and may prove detrimental to
one's physical health. Stress is said to be the culprit in a high percentage of heart problems
and stomach disorders. Even (7) _____ types of cancer are, reportedly, linked to stress.
Knowing that stress is a modern-day malady which we (8) _____, to a greater or lesser extent,
suffer from, has prompted many to begin looking seriously at ways of controlling stress. Due
to the inevitable fact that stress will always play a part in our lives, it is (9) _____ paramount
importance that strategies of stress management (10) _____ found.

KEY TO OPEN CLOZE TEST 2

1. bustle 2. without 3. as 4. so 5. with/by

6. can 7. some/certain 8. all 9. of 10. be
QUESTION 2: WORD FORMATION
A. Complete each sentence, using the correct forms of the words in parentheses.
1. A combination of boredom and, increasingly, ________________ensured that the standard
of the son’s work declined alarmingly. (ABSENCE)
2. Distances between the stars are ________________vast. (IMAGINE)
3. The locals are advised to stay away from ________________ rioters. (CONFRONT)
4. Although he is not a native speaker, his foreign accent seems almost________________
(PERCEIVE)
5. A conspicuous indication of his promising career wrecked by scandal is that he has been
________________to a lower range. (PROMOTION)
6. The plan to ________________the inner cities has been unanimously approved by the
committee. (VITAL)
7. The inquiry was set up after the (RAIL) ________________ of a train near Leeds, the third
accident on the line this year.
8. The private school feared losing its (CREDIT) ________________with the state’s
university system.
9. My house is (DISTANCE) ________________ from the two pubs in the village.
10. The house survives in a largely (ALTER) ________________ state.

KEY TO QUESTION 2A:

1. absenteeism 2. unimaginably 3. confrontational 4. imperceptible

5. demoted 6. revitalize 7. derailment 8. accreditation
9. equidistant 10. unaltered
B. Complete the passage with the appropriate forms from the words given in the box.

LEG – PRODUCE – RUDIMENT – CONFIGURE – FLEX

LEAP – ALIGN – LOOP – BEHAVE – CONNECT

Look out, the transformers are coming! Kids just love those (1) _____ fiends that are
alternately monster and vehicle, but now it seems that they have (2) _____ out from the screen
to become reality. Dr. Mark Yim of Xerox's Palo Alto Research Centre (PARC for short) has
developed the Polybot, designed for use in search and rescue operations, deep-sea mining and
space exploration. Built of about a dozen identical modules, the Polybot changes shape while
in motion, re-building itself from these modules. Three different (3) _____ are possible,
depending on the terrain. On a level surface, it is a (4) _____ tractor tread. Travelling
downstairs or clambering over obstacles, it morphs into a caterpillar, and on rough ground it
becomes a four- (5) _____ "spider". How does it do it? By having the modules talk to each
other using infrared transceivers. They locate each other and achieve (6) _____ with the aid of
small on-board motors. The segments can both lock and (7) _____ from each other at will,
each being controlled by its own processor, with a (8) _____ brain located in one of the
modules. Cheap, durable and versatile once put into mass (9) _____, the Polybot will
eventually be able to regulate its own (10) _____, just like on TV. Now the kids will really
love that!

KEY TO QUESTION 2B:

1. flexible 2. leapt/leaped 3. configurations 4. looped
5. legged 6. alignment 7. disconnect 8. rudiment
9. production 10. behavior
QUESTION 3: ERROR CORRECTION
The passage below contains ten errors. Find and correct them. An example has been given.
0. open –→ opened
The first self-service stores open in America in the 1920s but they didn’t catch up in
Europe until later, when the French forged ahead with their massive hypermarkets. Britain
lagged behind. For the first self-service shop and the first supermarket were opened in the
early 1940s, it was thought that British housewives did not particularly want proficiency and
speed. Surveys showed that while American shoppers complained most about delays in
check-out queues. British ones rejected to being pushed and shoved by other customers.
The essence of supermarket shopping is impersonality, with no meditating salesman
between seller and goods, only the ‘silent persuaders’ of packaging and display. Besides,
there is a current trend towards ‘boutiques’, with personal service, within supermarkets – the
butcher, the baker, the fishseller – and small specialist shops and farmers’ markets are doing a
comeback in Britain. In france, where every self-respecting provincial town, ringed by
supermarkets, retains their specialist food shops and weekly street market, the traditional co-
exists with the ancient.

KEY TO QUESTION 3:
The first self-service stores open in America in the 1920s but they didn’t catch up in Europe
until later, when the French forged ahead with their massive hypermarkets. Britain lagged
behind. For the first self-service shop and the first supermarket were opened in the early
1940s, it was thought that British housewives did not particularly want proficiency and speed.
Surveys showed that while American shoppers complained most about delays in check-out
queues. British ones rejected to being pushed and shoved by other customers.
The essence of supermarket shopping is impersonality, with no meditating salesman
between seller and goods, only the ‘silent persuaders’ of packaging and display. Besides,
there is a current trend towards ‘boutiques’, with personal service, within supermarkets – the
butcher, the baker, the fishseller – and small specialist shops and farmers’ markets are doing a
comeback in Britain. In france, where every self-respecting provincial town, ringed by
supermarkets, retains their specialist food shops and weekly street market, the traditional co-
exists with the ancient.

1. up –→ on
2. For–→ Although
3. proficiency –→ efficiency
4. rejected–→ objected
5. seller –→ shopper
6. Besides –→ However
7. fishseller –→ fishmonger
8. doing –→ making
9. their –→ its
10. ancient –→ new
QUESTION 4. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION
Rewrite each of the sentences with the given word or the given beginning so that the new
sentence has the same meaning as the previous one
1. She was definitely displeased when I told her.
She was anything _____________________________________________________________
2. The thief must have come in through the window.
The thief almost ______________________________________________________________
3. She didn’t cry when the story ended in tragedy.
Not a ______________________________________________________________________
4. Only the managing director and the chief chemist know the details.
Knowledge _________________________________________________________________
5. Students at the school are not allowed to go into the Rainbow Disco. (BOUNDS)
The Rainbow Disco is out______________________________________________________
6. It would be easy to make a film adaptation of Danielle Steel’s latest novel. (ITSELF)
Danielle Steel’s latest novel ____________________________________________________
7. He got promoted so quickly because he knew important people who could help him.
(FRIENDS)
He got promoted so quickly because he had _______________________________________
8. We simply must pay them the whole amount before the end of the month.
(ALTERNATIVE)
___________________________________________________________________
9. I know I can convince Dave that I'm right about this matter. (BRING)
___________________________________________________________________________
10. The new plans for the school have been approved by the authorities. (MET)
___________________________________________________________________________

KEY TO QUESTION 4
1. She was anything but pleased when I told her.
2. The thief almost certainly came in through the window.
3. Not a tear did she shed when the story ended in tragedy.
4. Knowledge of the details is restricted/limited to the managing director and the chief
chemist.
5. The Rainbow Disco is out of bounds to students at the school.
6. Danielle Steel’s latest novel lends itself to being made into a film
7. He got promoted so quickly because he had friends in high places.
8. We have no alternative but to pay them the whole amount before the end of the month.
9. I know I can bring Dave round to my way of thinking on this matter.
10. The new plans for the school have met with the approval of the authorities