Previous year questions with solutions | 01
Q1. S₁: We Indians by nature are extremely
UPSC EPFO APFC – 2004
PART- A
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Direc ons (for the next Five items):
In the following items each passage consists of six
sentences. The first sentence (S₁) and the sixth
sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The
middle four sentences in each have been removed
and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S.
You are required to find out the proper sequence
of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the
Answer Sheet.
Example X' has been solved for you.
S1: There was a boy named Jack.
S6: At last she turned him out of the house.
P: So the mother asked him to find work.
Q: They were very poor.
R: He lived with his mother.
S: But Jack refused to work.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) R-Q-P-S
(b) P-Q-R-S
(c) Q-P-R-S
(d) R-P-S-Q
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example
is R-Q-P-S which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is
the correct answer.
emo onal.
S6: What must be appreciated is that none of the
members of the Indian team has reacted to
this mind game u erance of Hayden.
P: Had the poli cal par es in India not been busy
in figh ng among themselves, they would
have asked the Central Government to refuse
visa to Hayden.
Q: Sta s cians are working over me to prove
how our players have not been selfish.
R: Suddenly Hayden has become a villain.
S: Without realizing Hayden's intent in calling
subcon nent players selfish, we have reacted
angrily.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) S-P-R-Q (b) R-Q-S-P
(c) S-Q-R-P (d) R-P-S-Q
Q2. S1: In the roll call of human history, the
sleepy capital town of Madhya Pradesh is
indelibly linked with one of the world's
worst man-made catastrophes.
S6: Industries across the globe became less
complacent and began ghtening their safety
protocols.
P: More than 2,000 died instantly.
Q: On the night of December 3, 1984, a
poisonous grey cloud spread out from the
Union Carbide Plant in Bhopal, suffoca ng
more than three lakhs of its unsuspec ng
residents.
R: The disaster shook the world, especially when
hindsight revealed that almost all safety
regula ons had been flouted by the plant.
S: The rest were doomed to wheeze, hobble and
gasp their way through life, their organs
"eaten up by the deadly combina on of gases
that leaked out of the plant.
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q-R-S-P (b) S-P-Q-R
(c) Q-P-S-R (d) S-R-Q-P
Q3. S₁: From an importer of milk powder to the
world's largest milk producer.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 02
S6: And to think that it began as a simple
experiment in a village in Gujarat only in the
1960s.
P: Opera on Flood is arguably India's biggest
and most successful revolu on since the Quit
India Movement.
Q: India's Opera on Flood has come a long way
from the days when even baby food was
imported to producing. 84 million tonnes a
year.
R: From abject despera on to becoming a global
player in the dairy sector.
S: Erom a mere few villagers and a 275-litre
processing plant to an opera on spread
across 23 States, 170 Districts and 90,000
Village Coopera ves.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-S-Q-R (b) R-Q-S-P
(c) P-Q-S-R (d) R-S-Q-P
Q4. S1: One of the ironies of the Indian economy's
consistent under-performance is that it has been
planned.
S6: As planning prospered, regional imbalances
widened and compe ve ness and free
enterprise were crushed-defeating the
fundamental purpose of planned
development.
P: It is another ma er that in each of the nine
Five-Year Plans, barring the first, more targets
were missed than met.
Q: Within two months of India becoming a
Republic, the Planning Commission was set up
to prepare a blueprint for India's future,
roughly once in five years.
R: Yet the process of planning didn't change and
excuses were found wars and droughts in the
1960s, war and oil shocks in the 70s.
S: Elaborate models were developed, backed by
immaculate calcula ons, on the investments
and policies required to achieve the targets.
The correct sequence should be:
The correct sequence should be:
(a) Q-S-P-R (b) P-R-Q-S
(c) Q-R-P-S (d) P-S-Q-R
Q5. S1: In neighbouring Tamil Nadu, Kodaikanal
has fallen on bad times.
S6: It is s ll a source water-albeit unpotable for
the thirsty Kodai.
P: Trouble started when the focus was shi ed
from Ooty to Kodai in the mid 80s.
Q: The once pris ne surroundings have been
destroyed by construc on that paid scant
respect to the ecological sensi vity of the
area.
R: Commercial forces took over the hill sta on
large-scale activi es and building commenced
around the ar ficial lake created in the 1800s.
S: There is large-scale deforesta on as well.
The correct sequence should be :
(a) P-S-Q-R (b) Q-R-P-S
(c) Q-S-P-R (d) P-R-Q-S
Direc ons (For the following 5 items): In the
following items some parts of the sentence
have been jumbled up. You are required to re-
arrange these parts which are labelled P, Q. R
and S to produce the correct sentence.
Choose the proper sequence and mark in your
Answer Sheet accordingly.
Example Z' has been solved for you.
Z. It is well-known that the effect/(P) is very
bad/(Q) On children/(R) of cinema/(S)
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-S-R-Q
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) S-R-P-Q
 Previous year questions with solutions | 03

(d) Q-S-R-P Tribes/(P) with poli cal par es, industry and
other bodies/(Q) revealed that the Government
Explanation: would ini ate a dialogue/(R) on how best the
The proper way of wri ng the sentence is "It private sector could fulfil/(S).
is well-known that the effect of cinema on The correct sequence should be:
children is very bad." This is indicated by the (a) S-P-R-Q (b) R-Q-S-P
sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct (c) S-Q-R-P (d) R-P-S-Q
answer.
COMPREHENSION
Q6. War minus shoo ng but there was nothing
to suggest any/(P) was how cricket between India Direc ons (For the following 5 items):
and Pakistan/(Q) increase of animosity between The passage given below is followed by ques ons
the players or the spectators/(R) was visualised based on its content. A er reading the passage,
before the first ball was bowled/(S). choose the best answer to each ques on. Answer
The correct sequence should be: all the five ques ons following the passage on the
(a) P-R-Q-S (b) Q-S-P-R basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
(c) P-S-Q-R (d) Q-R-P-S
PASSAGE
Q7. In 1997, NASA fact-finding mission on
microgravity/(P) by becoming the first Indian Ocean water plays an indispensable role in
woman to rocket into space on a/(Q) to reach out suppor ng life. The great ocean basins hold. about
for the stars, created history/(R) Kalpana Chawla, 300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast
a Karnal girl who wanted /(S). amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are
The correct sequence should be: sucked into the atmosphere each year by
(a) S-R-Q-P (b) P-Q-R-S evapora on and returned by precipita on and
(c) S-Q-R-P (d) P-R-Q-S drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic
miles of rain descend annually upon the
Q8. That so suggests that there are certain continents. This vast amount is required to
cultural resources/(P) many Indians excel as replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water
expatriates/(Q) that enable them to succeed while tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent.
living away from home/(R) perhaps unique to Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.
Indians/(S). The hydrosphere has strange characteris cs
The correct sequence should be: because water has proper es unlike those of any
(a) P-P-Q-R (b) Q-R-S-P other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon
(c) S-R-Q-P (d) Q-P-S-R freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas
most other liquids contract on cooling. For this
Q9. The advent we entertained and informed reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of
ourselves/(P) of satellite television was a sinking to the bo om. If the ice sank, the
silent/(Q) and completely changed the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except
way/(R) revolu on which created a whole new for a thin layer of surface melt water during the
industry/(S). summer season. Thus, all aqua c life would be
The correct sequence should be: destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold
(a) Q-R-S-P (b) P-S-R-Q currents, which moderates climates, would be
(c) Q-S-R-P (d) P-R-S-Q notably absent.
Another outstanding characteris c of water is
that water has a heat capacity which is highest of
Q10. The President the aspira ons of the
all liquids and solids except ammonia. This
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
 Previous year questions with solutions | 04

characteris c enables the oceans to absorb and (d) Water dissolves many substances
store vast quan es of heat, thereby o en
preven ng clima c extremes. In addi on, water Q15. Which of the following characteris cs of
dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It water does the author men on in the passage?
is this characteris c which helps make oceans a 1. Water expands when it is frozen
great storehouse for minerals which have been 2. Water is used as a condensing medium
washed down. from the con nents. In several for thermal power plants
areas of the world these minerals are being 3. Water is a good solvent
commercially exploited. Solar evapora on of salt Select the correct answer using the codes
is widely prac sed, potash is extracted from the given below:
Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea Codes:
water along the American Gulf Coast. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
Q11. Which one correct? of the following is (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
According to the passage, the hydrosphere is
not ANTONYMS
(a) responsible for all forms of life
(b) able to modify weather Direc ons (For the following 5 items):
(c) a source of natural resources: Each of the following five items consists of a word
(d) in danger of freezing over in capital le ers, followed by four words or groups
of words. Select the word or group of words that
Q12. What is the reason that fish can survive in is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in
the oceans? capital le ers.
(a) They do not need oxygen Q16. OUTLANDISH
(b) Ice floats on the surface of the oceans (a) Stubborn (b) Conven onal
(c) Evapora on and condensa on create a (c) Agitated (d) Fearful
water cycle
(d) There are oceans currents in the Q17. SCANTY
(a) Arrogant (b) Plen ful
Q13. What is the author's main purpose in the (c) Painful (d) Handsome
passage given above?
(a) To describe the proper es and uses of Q18. PROPENSITY
water (a) Disinclination
(b) To illustrate the importance of conserving (b) Forecast
water (c) Stagna on
(c) To explain how water is used in (d) Restlessness
commerce and industry
(d) To reveal the extent of the earth's ocean Q19. RECTITUDE
masses (a) Self-condemna on
(b) Decei ulness
Q14. What is the reason that clima c extremes (c) Reprisal
are prevented in nature? (d) Punctuality
(a) A vast quan ty of water is held in the
great ocean basins Q20. PONTIFICATE
(a) To pilfer
(b) The heat capacity of water is very high (b) To leave one's country
(c) Solar evapora on from the oceans uses (c) To speak in a humble manner.
high technology (d) To spend recklessly
 Previous year questions with solutions | 05

SYNONYMS Q27. Why does bleeding occur through nose in

high mountainous regions?
Direc ons (For the following 5 items): (a) The pressure of blood in capillaries is greater
Each of the following five items consists of a word than the outside pressure
in capital le ers, followed by four words or groups (b) The pressure at high al tudes is greater than
of words. Select the word or group of words that that on the plains
is most similar in meaning to the word in capital (c) The blood pressure of a person increases at
le ers. high altitudes
Q21. COMMISERATION (d) The blood pressure fluctuates and finally
(a) Commission decreases Dras cally
(b) Vastness
(c) Sympathy Q28. Which one of the following causes small air
(d) Commenda on. bubbles in water, which is stored in a glass vessel,
to appear to shine with a silvery luster?
Q22. SLIPSHOD (a) Reflection of light rays
(a) Vulgar (b) Refrac on of light rays
(b) Careless (c) Polariza on of light rays
(c) Commonplace (d) Total internal reflec on
(d) Retaliatory
Q29. Weight of a body on the surface of the earth
Q23. COGENT is W₁. The weight of the same body is W2, at a
(a) Forceful height of 500 metres above the surface, and W3
(b) Objec onable at a depth of 500 metres below the surface of the
(c) Excep onal earth. Which one of the following is the correct
(d) False rela on?
(a) W3 > W1 > W2
Q24. PONDEROUS (b) W₁ > W₂; W₁ > W3
(a) Facile (c) W₁ < W₂ <W3
(b) Exorbitant (d) W₂ > W3 > W₁
(c) Cautious
(d) Unwieldy Q30. Which one of the following is not a Vitamin?
(a) Folic acid
Q25. MASQUERADE (b) Oleic acid
(a) To provide support (c) Pantothenic acid
(b) To go in disguise (d) Ascorbic acid
(c) To mesmerize
(d) To run in a marathon race. Q31. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
Part - B (a) The deficiency of Vitamin A causes night
blindness
Q26. Which one of the following is a super-cooled (b) Pain in the muscles and joints along with
liquid? fa gue, loss of weight and poor wound healing
(a) Ice-cream are the symptoms of the deficiency of Vitamin
(b) Teflon C
(c) Glass (c) Bleeding gums and loosening of teeth are
(d) Mercury symptoms of the deficiency of Vitamin B,
 Previous year questions with solutions | 06

(d) The deficiency of Vitamin B can cause Q36. A le er is taken out at random from the
inflamma on of skin, memory disorder and word 'ASSAM' and a le er is taken out at random
Diarrhoea from the word 'NAGALAND'. What is the
probability that the two le ers are the same?
Q32. Which one of the following elements is not (a) 1/20
naturally found in human beings? (b) 3/20
(a) Copper (c) 1/40
(b) Zinc (d) 31/40
(c) Iodine
(d) Lead Q37. A set of 5 parallel lines is intersected by
another set of 4 parallel lines so as to form a
Direc ons: The following Two (8 & 9) items consist number of parallelograms. How many
of two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A) parallelograms can be formed?
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to (a) 12
examine these two statements carefully and (b) 20
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are (c) 40
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) (d) 60
is a correct explana on of the Asser on (A). Select
your answers to these items using the Codes given. Q38. Three dice are rolled. What is the
below and mark your answer-sheet accordingly probability that at least one die will show 6?
(a) 1/6
Codes: (b) 1/36
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (c) 91/216
explana on of A (d) 125/216
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
Q39. How many numbers are there between 999
explana on of A
and 10000 such that at least one of their digits is
(c) A is true but R is false
5?
(d) A is false but R
(a) 2879
Q33. Assertion (A): Glycerol is a cons tuent of (b) 3168
shaving cream. (c) 3200
Reason (R): Glycerol is an an sep c. (d) 3224
Q40. Four different toys are to be distributed
Q34. Assertion (A): Phenol is commonly used as a among two children such that each child gets at
disinfectant. least one toy. In how many different ways can
Reason (R): Phenol is not harmful to living human this be done?
ssues even at a very high concentra on.
(a) 6
(b) 8
Q35. What is the number of triangles that can be (c) 12
formed whose ver ces are at the ver ces of an (d) 14
octagon but have only one side common with Q41. A stadium has 10 gates. In how many
that of the octagon? different ways can 3 persons enter the stadium?
(a) 16 (a) 10
(b) 24 (b) 30
(c) 32 (c) 310
(d) 48 (d) 1000
 Previous year questions with solutions | 07

Q42. At the conclusion of a party, a total number
of 28 handshakes was exchanged. Every person in
the party shook hands with every other person
who a ended the party. What was the total
number of persons who a ended the party?
(a) 8
(b) 14
(c) 28
(d) 56
Q43. Amit has 7 friends whom he wishes to invite
to a dinner. Out of his 7 friends, 1 or more may
accept the invita on. In how many different ways
can Amit's 7 friends a end the party?
(a) 96
(b) 112
(c) 127
(d) 128
Q44. There are three envelopes with three
different addresses wri en on them. Three
le ers are to be enclosed in these three
envelopes such that one le er goes inside one
envelope without seeing the address wri en on
any envelope. What is the probability that each
of the three le ers goes into the envelope with
correct address wri en on it?
(a) 1/27
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/9
(d) 1/3
Q46. What is the nth term of the series √3, √6,
2√3, ...?
(a) √3(√2)n-1
(b) √2 (√3)n-1
(c) √3 (√2)n
(d) √2 (√3)n
Q47. The length of a rectangle is reduced by 20%
and breadth is kept constant, and the new figure
that is formed is a square.
Consider the following statements:
1. The area of square is 25% less than the area of
rectangle.
2. The perimeter of square is approximately 11%
less than 1 the perimeter of rectangle.
3. The diagonal of square is approximately 12%
less than the diagonal of rectangle.
Which of the statements given. above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Direc ons (For the next four items):
Refer to the graphs given below and answer the
items that follow:

Q45. A person and his wife appear in the

interview for the two vacancies of a post. The
probability of the selec on of the husband and
that of the wife are 1/7 and 1/5 respec vely.
What is the probability that only one of them will
be selected?
(a) 1/7
(b) 1/5
(c) 2/7
(d) 11/35
 Previous year questions with solutions | 08

(a) 800
(b) 500
(c) 840
(d) 920

Q51. In which year is the ra o of foreign

investment approvals to foreign investment
inflows highest?
(a) 1992
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1995

Q52. There are four persons A, B, C and D. The

total amount of money with A and B together is
equal to the total amount of money with C and D
together. But the total amount of money with B
and D together is more than the amount of
money with A and C together. The amount of
Q48. What is the contribution of EU in the foreign
money with A is more than that with B. Who has
investment inflows for the year 1996 in US $ Mn.?
the least amount of money?
(a) 1840
(a) B
(b) 2000
(b) C
(c) 460
(c) D
(d) Cannot be determined with the given data
(d) Cannot be determined

Q49. What are the foreign investment approvals

Q53. A printer uses a total number of 4893 digits
from SAARC, ASEAN and EU combined together in
in order to number all the pages of his book. He
the year 1996 (in US $ Mn.)?
starts with the digit 1 for the first page of the
(a) 2240
book. How many pages does the book have?
(b) 5000
(a) 4892
(c) 3500
(b) 2322
(d) 2600
(c) 2100
(d) 1500
Q50. If the net foreign investment inflows for the
year 1997 were to grow by 20% and if the
Direc ons (For the next two items):
propor on of inflows was to remain the same as
Based on the informa on given below, answer the
in case of the approvals for the year 1996, what
two items which follow it:
would be the foreign investment inflows from
Five ladies A, B, C, D, E go to a cinema hall along
NAFTA (in US $ Mn.) If NAFTA got 800 inflow in
with their husbands P, Q, R, S, T (not necessarily in
1996??
that order). Seats numbered from 1 to 10 are
 Previous year questions with solutions | 09

reserved for these 5 married couples. Each of the C. Administra ve Reforms Commission
five ladies sits on the seat immediately to the le D. Commi ee on the Preven on of Corrup on
of her husband. List-II (Chairman)
1. R.S. Sarkaria
(i) The couple E and S occupy the seats at extreme
2. K. Hanumanthaiya
right. 3. L.K. Jha
(ii) C, who is not si ng at extreme le and Q, who 4. K. Santhanam
is not si ng on the seat number 2, are not 5. D.S. Kothari
husband and wife. Code:
(iii) B and R are celebra ng their wedding A B C D
anniversary and hence are si ng at the centre. (a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 2 1 5 4
(iv) A and T are not husband and wife.
(c) 3 1 2 4
(v) D is sea ng on the seat number 3. (d) 2 4 5 1

Q54. Who is si ing on the seat number 7? Q58. Consider the following statements:
(a) A 1. The first report of the Administra ve Reforms
(b) B Commission recommended the crea on of Lok
(c) C Pal and Lok Ayukta in India.
2. Different ar cles under the Cons tu on of
(d) E
India provide for se ng up the Union Public
Service Commission, the Planning Commission
Q55. If in the last condi on (v), it is stated that D and the Vigilance Commission.
sits on the seat number 7, then who will sit on the Which of the statements given above is/are
seat number 4? correct?
(a) P (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) T
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) P or T (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Cannot be determined
Q59. Consider the following statements:
Q56. A 2-member commi ee is to be cons tuted 1. Money Bill can be introduced in any House of
out of 4 men and 2 women. What is the Parliament.
probability that a commi ee thus formed will 2. If any ques on arises whether a bill is a Money
Bill or not, the decision of the Chairman of the
have exactly one woman?
Public Accounts Commi ee is final.
(a) 1/3 3. Vote of Credit enables a grant to be approved
(b) 1/4 by the Parliament in advance of the detailed
(c) 7/15 examina on of various demands presented to
(d) 8/15 it.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Q57. Match List-I (Commission/Commi ee) with correct?
List-II (Chairman) and select the correct answer (a) 1 and 2
using the code given below the lists: (b) 2 and 3
List-I (Commission/Commi ee) (c) 1 and 3
A. Economic Reforms Commission (d) None
B. Commission on Centre-State Rela ons
 Previous year questions with solutions | 10
Q60. Consider the following statements:
1. If forty or more members support an
Adjournment Mo on, only then the related
matter can be taken up for discussion.
2. Under an Adjournment Mo on, even a sub
judice ma er can be taken up for discussion.
3. Under Ar cle 112 of the Cons tu on of India,
the Union Finance Minister causes to be laid
before both the Houses of Parliament and
'Annual Financial Statement' for each financial
year.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
Q61. Asser on (A): Recently, the four public
sector general insurance companies have
launched a community-based ‘Universal Health
Insurance Scheme’ .
Reason (R): According to the Cons tu on of India,
the task of promo ng public health primarily rests
with the Union Government.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Q62. Consider the following statements:
1. Dadra and Nagar Haveli which merged with the
Indian Union in 1961 were ruled by the
Portuguese.
2. Both Pondicherry and Chandernagore were
ruled by the French.
3. Goa got its freedom in 1961.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Q63. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the
President of India.
2. The Delhi Police and Municipal Corpora on of
Delhi do not come under the administra ve
purview of the Delhi Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q64. Consider the following statements:
1. The Legisla ve Assembly of a State cannot
have more than 450 and not less than 50
members chosen by direct elec on from
territorial cons tuencies.
2. The number of members of Legisla ve Council
of a State cannot exceed one-third of the total
membership of the Legisla ve Assembly of
that State subject to a minimum of 40.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q65. Consider the following statements:
1. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are two States with
maximum popula on of the Scheduled Castes.
2. Punjab has the highest ra o of the Scheduled
Caste popula on to its total popula on.
3. There was a provision for set ng up a Na onal
Commission for the Scheduled Castes and the
Scheduled Tribes under the Ar cle 338 of the
Cons tu on of India. However, by a
Cons tu onal Amendment Act, separate
National Commission for the Scheduled Castes
and Na onal Commission for the Scheduled
Tribes have been set up.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
 Previous year questions with solutions | 11
(d) 1 and 3
Q66. Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment of the Cons tu on of India can
be initiated by the introduc on of a Bill for the
purpose in Lok Sabha only.
2. A Bill providing for the forma on of new States
and for the altera on of boundaries or names
of exis ng States in India can be introduced in
the Parliament only on the recommenda on
of the President of India.
3. In India, a Bill seeking to amend the
representa on of States in Parliament has to
be passed by a simple majority of both Houses
of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q67. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?
The term of Lok Sabha can be extended by the
Parliament for a period
(a) not exceeding six months at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of three months a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
(b) not exceeding one year at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of six months a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
(c) not exceeding one year at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of three months a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
(d) not exceeding six months at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of one month a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
Q68. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Parliament is not sovereign, and the
legisla on passed by it is subject to judicial
review.
2. In India, the Fundamental Rights and Direc ve
Principles of State Policy are enforceable by
the courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q69. Consider the following statements related
to the World War II:
1. Germany a acked the US naval base at Pearl
Harbour.
2. Winston Churchill was the Bri sh Prime
Minister during the World War II.
3. The Versailles Treaty which is generally cited as
one of the main causes of the World War II was
signed just before the World War II in 1939.
4. Franklin Roosevelt was the President of the
United States were dropped over the Japanese
ci es of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 and 4
Q70. Assertion (A): During the Bri sh rule, the
Congress Ministers resigned in 1939 in all the
provinces where they were in office.
Reason (R): Congress wanted fresh elec ons as it
was frustrated with Jinnah’s campaign of two-
nation theory.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
 Previous year questions with solutions | 12

Q74. Match List-I with List-II and select the

Q71. Assertion (A): Aurangzeb released Shahu correct answer using the code given below the
from the prison shortly before Aurangzeb died in lists:
1707. List-I (Ba les)
Reason (R): Zulfiqar pointed that Shahu’s return to A. Battle of Chausa
his Kingdom would cause a division among the B. Battle of Ghagra
Marathas who would thus be disabled from C. Battle of Kanwah
plundering the imperial territories. D. Battle of Talikota
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct List-II (Fought between)
explana on of A 1. Babar and Rajputs
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct 2. Humayun and Sher Khan
explana on of A 3. Babar and Afghans of Bihar & Bengal
(c) A is true but R is false 4. Vijayanagar ruler and the Decca Sultanates
(d) A is false but R is true Codes:
A B C D
Q72. Match List-I with List-II and select the (a) 2 1 3 4
correct answer using the code given below the (b) 4 3 1 2
lists: (c) 2 3 1 4
List-I (Indian Kings) (d) 4 1 3 2
E. Karikala
F. Rudradaman Q75. When Akbar besieged the Fort of Chi oor,
G. Milinda who among the following defended it for four
H. Kanishka months?
(a) Uday Singh
List-II (Dynasty) (b) Rana Pratap
5. Bacteria Greek (c) Bahman Shah
6. Chola (d) Jaimal
7. Chalukya
8. Kushanas Q76. Which one of the following statements is
9. Shakas not correct?
Codes: (a) Lord Wellesley set up the first three Indian
A B C D Universi es
(e) 2 4 1 5 (b) Lord Dalhousie introduced telegraph in India
(f) 1 5 3 4 (c) Lord Ripon introduced a system of local self-
(g) 2 5 1 4 government both for towns and country-side
(h) 1 4 3 5 areas
(d) Lord Curzon presided over the Delhi Durbar of
Q73. During the World War II, Indian soldiers 1903
fought heroically in the Ba le at Monte Cassino.
Where is Monte Cassino located? Q77. Which one of the following is the correct
(a) Poland chronological sequence of the given dynas es of
(b) Italy Delhi Sultanate?
(c) Germany (a) Sayyids – Khaljis – Lodis – Tughlaqs
(d) Greece (b) Khaljis – Tughlaqs – Sayyids – Lodis
(c) Khaljis – Sayyids – Lodis – Tughlaqs
(d) Tughlaqs – Khaljis – Sayyids – Lodis
 Previous year questions with solutions | 13

(d) Tulsidas-Guru Nanak Ramdas-Tukaram

Q78. Consider the following statements:
According to the Mountba en Plan Q82. Match List-I. (Persons) with List-II (Writings)
1. The Union of India and Pakistan were to be and select the correct answer using the codes
granted freedom not later than June 1948. given below the lists:
2. The Legisla ve Assembly of Sindh was to LIST I (Persons) LIST II (Wri ngs)
decide whether it wanted to join the A. Asvaghosha 1. Buddha Charita
Cons tuent Assembly of India or not. B. Nagarjuna 2. Madhyamika
3. Baluchistan was to decide whether it wanted Sutra
to stay with the Indian Union or become C. Patanjali 3. Vedanta Sangraha
separate. D. Ramanuja 4. Yogasutra
Which of the statements given above is/are Code:
correct? A B C D
(a) 1 and 2 (a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 and 3 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 only (c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 1 and 3 (d) 1 3 4 2

Q79. In the year 1919, what was the reason for Q83. Match List-I. (Historical Sites) with List-II
Mahatma Gandhi to warn the Viceroy that a (State) and select the correct answer using the
countrywide Satyagraha would be launched? codes given below the lists:
(a) He wanted the Government to withdraw the LIST I (Historical Site) LIST II (State)
Rowla Act immediately A. Shore Temple 1. Karnataka
(b) He was forcing the Bri sh rulers to be sensi ve B. Bhimbetka 2. Tamil Nadu
to the Khilafat Movement C. Kesava Temple 3. Kerala
(c) He wanted the Government to abolish the (Hoysala
Zamindari System to alleviate the miseries of Monument)
peasants D. Hampi 4. Madhya Pradesh
(d) He was forcing the Bri sh rulers to give at least 5. Rajasthan
the dominion status to India to make Home
Code:
Rule possible
A B C D
(a) 3 5 2 1
Q80. Who among the following introduced the
(b) 2 4 1 1
celebra on of Ganesh Chaturthi and Shivaji
(c) 3 4 2 2
Festivals to bring the Indian society together and
(d) 2 5 1 4
inspire patriotic feelings among the people?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Q84. Which country among the following is the
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
biggest producer of co on?
(c) Jyo rao Govind Rao Phule
(a) China
(d) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(b) India
(c) Indonesia
Q81. Which one of the following is the correct
(d) United States of America
chronological sequence of the given Bhak
Saints?
Q85. Match List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary) with List-II
(a) Guru Nanak-Tulsidas Ramdas Tukaram
(State) and select the correct answer using the
(b) Tulsidas-Guru Nanak Tukaram-Ramdas
code given below the lists:
(c) Guru Nanak-Tulsidas Tukaram-Ramdas
 Previous year questions with solutions | 14

List-I (Wildlife List-II (Host Country) Q88. Match List-I (Country) with List-II (Loca on)
Sanctuary) and select the correct answer using the codes
A. Bhitar Kanika 1. Andhra Pradesh given below the Lists:
B. Pachmarhi 2. Karnataka List-I (Country) List-II (Loca on)
C. Pocharam 3. Madhya Pradesh A. Bahamas 1. Europe
D. Sharavathi 4. Orissa B. Belize 2. North America
5. Uttar Pradesh C. Macedonia 3.North Atlan c Ocean
Code: D. Gabon 4. Africa
A B C D 5. South America
(a) 4 2 3 1 Code:
(b) 1 3 5 2 A B C D
(c) 4 3 1 2 (a) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 5 3 (b) 1 2 5 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
Q86. Match List-I (Produce) with List-II (Major (d) 1 4 5 2
Producer State) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists: Q89. Going from the West of the United States of
List-I (Produce) List-II (Major America to its East, which one of the following is
Producer State) the correct sequence of the given major
A. Rubber 1. Andhra Pradesh American ci es?
B. Soyabean 2. Tamil Nadu (a) Houston-Los Angeles San Francisco New York
C. Groundnut 3. Madhya Pradesh (b) San Francisco-New York Houston-Los Angeles
D. Wheat 4. Kerala (c) Houston-New York-San Francisco-Los Angeles
5. Uttar Pradesh (d) San Francisco-Los Angeles Houston-New York
Code:
A B C D Q90. Match List-1 (Beach Resort) with List-II
(a) 4 1 2 5 (State) and select the correct answer using the
(b) 5 3 1 4 codes given below the Lists:
(c) 4 3 1 5 List-I (Beach Resort) List-II (State)
(d) 5 1 2 4 A. Digha 1. Kerala
B. Covelong 2. West Bengal
Q87. Consider the following statements: C. Cherai 3. Maharashtra
1. In India, intensity of cropping is high in the D. Murud-Janjira 4. Tamil Nadu
States of the peninsular plateau. Code:
2. In India, the States of Punjab and Haryana A B C D
have the highest propor on of the net sown (a) 2 4 1 3
area to total geographical area. (b) 3 1 4 2
3. South-west Monsoon season is termed as the (c) 2 1 4 3
Kharif season of crops. (d) 3 4 1 2
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 Q91. Where are the maximum numbers of major
(b) 1 and 2 ports located in India?
(c) 1 and 3 (a) Maharashtra
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Kerala
(c) Goa
(d) Tamil Nadu
 Previous year questions with solutions | 15

Q92. Which one of the following is not a tributary (b) 5 2 1 3

of the river Godavari? (c) 1 2 4 3
(a) Koyna (d) 5 3 1 2
(b) Manjra
(c) Pranhita Q97. Consider the following statements:
(d) Wardha 1. Kaziranga National Park is a World Heritage
Site recognized by the UNESCO.
Q93. Which one of the following is not a correct 2. Kaziranga Na onal Park is a home to sloth
statement? bear and hoolock gibbon.
(b) The height of the Western half of the Which of the statements given above is/are
Himalayas is greater than that of the Eastern correct?
half. (a) 1 only
(c) The Himalayas are young fold mountains (b) 2 only
(d) The Shivalik ranges are made of (c) Both 1 and 2
unconsolidated river deposits (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(e) The Himalayas are wide in Kashmir and
become narrow towards the East Q98. Match List-I (Ins tute) with List-II (Location)
and select the correct answer using the code
Q94. Which one of the following is the correct given below the lists:
statement? List-I (Institute)
(a) Spring des occur on the full moon day A. Indian Ins tute of Public Administra on
(b) Neap des occur on the new moon day only B. V.V. Giri Na onal Labour Ins tute
(c) The West Coast of India experiences des four C. National Ins tute of Financial Management
mes a day D. National Law School of India University
(d) Tides do not occur in the gulfs List-II (Loca on)
1. Fardiabad
Q95. Which one of the following pairs is not 2. Bangalore
correctly matched. 3. NOIDA
City River 4. Mumbai
(a) Ahmedabad : Sabarma 5. Delhi
(b) Hyderabad : Musi Code:
(c) Lucknow : Gomti A B C D
(d) Surat : Narmada (a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 5 3 1 2
Q96. Match List-I (Famous Place) with List-II (c) 1 3 4 2
(Country) and select the correct answer using the (d) 5 2 1 3
codes given below the lists:
List-I (Famous Place) List-II (Country) Q99. Where is the Holy Shrine of Imam Ali in
A. Alexandria 1. Turkey Najaf located?
B. Blackpool Pleasure 2. Great Britain (a) Saudi Arabia
Beach (b) Iraq
C. Constan nople 3. Italy (c) Iran
D. Florence 4. Greece (d) Kuwait
5. Egypt
Code: Q100. Why was the region of Darfur of Sudan in
A B C D news recently?
(a) 1 3 4 2
 Previous year questions with solutions | 16

(a) Americans bombed the terrorist training

camps set up over there by the Janaweed Q104. Match List-I (Railway Zone) with List-II
mili amen of Sudan (Headquarters) and select the correct answer
(b) Thousands of black African civilians were using the code given below the lists:
killed or displaced by the Janaweeds who List-I (Railway Zone)
are supported by the Arab-dominated A. East-Central Railway
Sudan's Government B. North-Western Railway
(c) Bird flu started from there C. North-Central Railway
(d) A dam over the river Blue Nile was swept D. South-Western Railway
away killing thousands of people List-II (Headquarters)
1. Hubli
Q101. What was the total expenditure on 2. Allahabad
educa on both by the Central and State 3. Hajipur
Governments during the year 2002-03 as an 4. Jabalpur
approximate percentage of the Gross Domes c 5. Jaipur
Product? Code:
(a) 2% A B C D
(b) 3% (a) 3 5 2 1
(c) 4% (b) 2 1 4 5
(d) 5% (c) 3 1 2 5
(d) 2 5 4 1
Q102. Consider the following statements with
reference to the United Na ons Organisa on: Q105. Consider the following statements:
1. In the General Assembly of the UNO, no 1. The average popula on density of India is
member-na on has veto power. between 600-700 persons per square
2 In the Security Council, all permanent kilometer.
members must vote in the affirma ve if a 2. 2002-2007 is the dura on of the Tenth
resolu on is to pass. Five-Year Plan.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Installed electricity genera on capacity in
correct? India is in excess of 2 lakh Megawa .
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
Q103. Consider the following statements with (d) 1, 2 and 3
reference to the Census 2001 of India:
1. For the first me, the country has Q106. Match List-I (Ins tute) with List-II (City)
witnessed a faster growth in female and select the correct answer using the codes
literary compared to that of males during given below the Lists:
the decade 1991-2001. List-I (Institute)
2. During the decade 1991-2001, the rural- A. Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth
urban literacy gap con nued to diverge B. Maharishi Sandipani Rashtriya Veda
Which of the statement given above is/are Vidya Prathishthan
correct? C. Central Ins tute of Indian Languages
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only D. Central Ins tute of English and Foreign
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Language
 Previous year questions with solutions | 17

List-II (City) (b) 1 3 5 4

1. Hyderabad (c) 2 3 1 4
2. Varanasi (d) 1 4 5 3
3. Mysore
4. Tirupa Q109. Who won the 100-metre race for men in
5. Ujjain the Athens Olympics in August, 2004?
Code: (a) Maurice Greene
A B C D (b) Jus ne Gatlin
(a) 2 3 1 5 (c) Asafa Powell
(b) 4 5 3 1 (d) Francis Obekwelu
(c) 2 5 3 1
(d) 4 3 1 5 Q110. Who among the following Indian film
directors/actors was honoured with the Order of
the Bri sh Empire (OBE) in year 2004?
Q107. Who among the following are the Bharat (a) Naseeruddin Shah
Ratna recipients? (b) Amitabh Bachchan
1. Amartya Sen (c) Shekhar Kapoor
2. Gulzari Lal Nanda (d) Om Puri
3. M.S. Swaminathan
4. Satyajit Ray Q111. Match List-I (Dis nguished Women) with
Select the correct answer using the codes List-II (Known As) and select the correct answer
given below: using the codes given below the Lists:
Codes: List-I (Dis nguished Women)
(a) 1 and 2 A. Maria Sharapova
(b) 3 and 4 B. Aung San Suu Kyi
(c) 1, 2 and 4 C. Asma Jahangir
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. Norah Jones
List-II (Known As)
Q108. Match List-I (Outstanding Sports persons 1. Human rights ac vist
at the Athens Olympics) with List-II (Country) and 2. Political leader
select the correct answer using the codes given 3. Singer
below the Lists : 4. Sportsperson
List-I (Outstanding Sports persons at the Codes:
Athens Olympics) A B C D
A. Michael Phelps (a) 1 2 3 4
B. Ian Thorpe (b) 4 3 2 1
C. Yulia Nesterenko (c) 1 3 2 4
D. Nicolas Massu (d) 4 2 1 3
List-II (Country)
1. Belarus Q112. Match List-I (Author) with List-II (Book) and
2. United States of America select the correct answer using the codes given
3. Australia below the Lists:
4. Chile List-I (Author)
5. Sweden A. Bill Clinton
Codes: B. Henry Kissinger
A B C D C. Nelson Mandela
(a) 2 4 1 3 D. Hillary Clinton
 Previous year questions with solutions | 18

List-II (Book) Q115. Consider the following statements:

1. Between Hope and History India had plan holiday during 1966-69 due to
2. Living History 1. Indo-Pakistan conflict in 1965.
3. Diplomacy 2. Severe drought for two successive years.
4. Long Walk to Freedom Which of the statements given above is/are
Codes: correct?
A B C D (a) 1 only
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 only
(b) 1 3 4 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1 4 3 2
Q116. Consider the following statements:
Q113. Match List-1 (Dis nguished Women) with 1. The members of the Employees' Provident
List-II (Known As/Area) and select the correct Fund and exempted Provident Funds are
answer using the codes given below the Lists: eligible for the Employees' Deposit-Linked
List-I (Dis nguished Women) Insurance Scheme.
A. Shanta Sinha 2. Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995 was
B. Kalpana Lajmi introduced for the industrial workers.
C. Romila Thapar 3. Coverage under the Employees' Provident
D. Radha Reddy Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act is
List-II (Known As/Area) restricted to establishments employing 20 or
1. Film Direc on more persons.
2. Community Leadership Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Dancer correct?
4. Historian a) 1 and 2
5. Business-woman b) 1, 2 and 3
Codes: c) 1 and 3
A B C D d) 3 only
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 5 1 Q117. Which one of the following statements is
(c) 2 3 4 1 not correct?
(d) 4 1 5 3 a) The Special Marriage Act, 1954 extends to all
the States and Union Territories of India
Q114. Asser on (A): In its Global Development b) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to
Finance Report 2004, the World Bank has Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs in addi on to Hindus
categorised India as a less indebted country for the c) The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 recognizes the
year 2002. right of women to inherit property of an
Reason (R): During the last decade, India’s intestate equally with men
outstanding external debt has considerable d) Muslims, Chris ans and Parsis in India have no
reduced. adop on laws and can take a child under the
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 only under
correct explana on of A. foster care
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not
the correct explana on of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
 Previous year questions with solutions | 19

Q118. Why did Mo lal Nehru and Chi aranjan

Das form a separate group known as Swaraj Party
within the Congress?
a) They were not sa sfied with the progress
made by the Congress in achieving Swaraj
b) It was their reac on to Mahatma Gandhi's
sudden decision to suspend the Non-
Cooperation Movement
c) They were interested in forming more ac ve
party with revolu onary ideas
d) They felt that their opinions and views were
not given due importance in the Congress
Sessions
Q119. Which of the following is detected and
estimated by the Pollu on Check' carried out on
motor cars at service sta ons?
a) Lead and carbon particles
b) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
c) Carbon monoxide
d) Carbon dioxide

Q120. Direc ons: The following items consist of

two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explana on of the Asser on (A).
Select your answers to these items using the
Codes given. below and mark your answer-sheet
accordingly
Assertion (A): The salinity of the open seas is very
high compared to that of inland seas.
Reason (R): The water of rivers flowing into open
seas contains dissolved salts.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
 Previous year questions with solutions | 20
Solutions
PART- A
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Direc ons (for the next Five items):
In the following items each passage consists of six
sentences. The first sentence (S₁) and the sixth
sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The
middle four sentences in each have been removed
and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S.
You are required to find out the proper sequence
of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the
Answer Sheet.
Example X' has been solved for you.
X S1: There wsa a boy named Jack.
S6: At last she turned him out of the house.
P: So the mother asked him to find work.
Q: They were very poor.
R: He lived with his mother.
S: But Jack refused to work.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) R-Q-P-S
(b) P-Q-R-S
(c) Q-P-R-S
(d) R-P-S-Q
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example
is R-Q-P-S which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is
the correct answer.
Q1. S₁: We Indians by nature are extremely
emo onal.
S6: What must be appreciated is that none of the
members of the Indian team has reacted to this
mind game u erance of Hayden.
P: Had the poli cal par es in India not been busy
in figh ng among themselves, they would have
asked the Central Government to refuse visa to
Hayden.
Q: Sta s cians are working over me to prove
how our players have not been selfish.
R: Suddenly Hayden has become a villain.
S: Without realizing Hayden's intent in calling
subcon nent players selfish, we have reacted
angrily.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) S-P-R-Q
(b) R-Q-S-P
(c) S-Q-R-P
(d) R-P-S-Q
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The correct sequence is S-Q-R-P
which is given in op on (c). Therefore, op on (c) is
the correct answer. S1 talks about ‘we Indians’ so
the next sentence which goes here is S as in S it is
said that ‘we have reacted angrily’. A er S the next
sentence should be Q because S talks about
‘calling subcon nent players selfish’ while Q states
that ‘our players have not been selfish’. The
following statement should be R as it is the only
one that fits here. The fourth statement is P.
Q2. S1: In the roll call of human history, the sleepy
capital town of Madhya Pradesh is indelibly linked
with one of the world's worst man-made
catastrophes.
S6: Industries across the globe became less
complacent and began ghtening their safety
protocols.
P: More than 2,000 died instantly.
Q: On the night of December 3, 1984, a poisonous
grey cloud spread out from the Union Carbide
Plant in Bhopal, suffoca ng more than three lakhs
of its unsuspecting residents.
R: The disaster shook the world, especially when
hindsight revealed that almost all safety
regula ons had been flouted by the plant.
S: The rest were doomed to wheeze, hobble and
gasp their way through life, their organs "eaten up
by the deadly combina on of gases that leaked
out of the plant.
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q-R-S-P
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) Q-P-S-R
(d) S-R-Q-P
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The correct sequence is Q-P-S-R,
which is given in op on (c). Therefore, op on (c) is
 Previous year questions with solutions | 21
the correct answer. The second statement a er S1
should be Q as S talks about the worst man-made
catastrophes and Q talks about what happened
there exactly. P should be the following statement
a er Q as it tells us that what happened a er the
catastrophe. S should come a er P because it tells
about the rest of the popula on who survived. R
should follow S as it gives the reason that why the
disaster happened.
Q3. S₁: From an importer of milk powder to the
world's largest milk producer.
S6: And to think that it began as a simple
experiment in a village in Gujarat only in the
1960s.
P: Opera on Flood is arguably India's biggest and
most successful revolu on since the Quit India
Movement.
Q: India's Opera on Flood has come a long way
from the days when even baby food was imported
to producing. 84 million tonnes a year.
R: From abject despera on to becoming a global
player in the dairy sector.
S: From a mere few villagers and a 275-litre
processing plant to an opera on spread across 23
States, 170 Districts and 90,000 Village
Cooperatives.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-S-Q-R
(b) R-Q-S-P
(c) P-Q-S-R
(d) R-S-Q-P
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The correct sequence is P-S-Q-R,
which is given in op on (a). Therefore, op on (a)
is the correct answer. Here, statement P should
follow statement S1, it is the most suitable of the
following statements as it introduces opera on
flood. S should come a er P because it talks about
the expansion of the opera on flood. Statement Q
should follow statement S here as it states about
the ‘long way’ that is covered by ‘operation flood’.
R should be the last statement a er
rearrangement according to the passage.
Q4. S1: One of the ironies of the Indian economy's
consistent under-performance is that it has been
planned.
S6: As planning prospered, regional imbalances
widened and compe veness and free enterprise
were crushed-defeating the fundamental purpose
of planned development.
P: It is another ma er that in each of the nine Five-
Year Plans, barring the first, more targets were
missed than met.
Q: Within two months of India becoming a
Republic, the Planning Commission was set up to
prepare a blueprint for India's future, roughly once
in five years.
R: Yet the process of planning didn't change and
excuses were found wars and droughts in the
1960s, war and oil shocks in the 70s.
S: Elaborate models were developed, backed by
immaculate calcula ons, on the investments and
policies required to achieve the targets.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) Q-S-P-R
(b) P-R-Q-S
(c) Q-R-P-S
(d) P-S-Q-R
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The correct sequence is Q-S-P-R,
which is given in op on (a). Therefore, op on (a)
is the correct answer. Statement S1 should be
followed by statement Q as it states the ac on of
which statement S1 is men oning about. A er Q,
statement S should come as it explains what
happens in a five year plan. According to the
passage, statement P should come a er
statement S. Statement R should be the last
statement a er arrangement.
Q5. S1: In neighbouring Tamil Nadu, Kodaikanal
has fallen on bad mes.
S6: It is s ll a source water-albeit unpotable for
the thirsty Kodai.
P: Trouble started when the focus was shi ed
from Ooty to Kodai in the mid 80s.
Q: The once pris ne surroundings have been
destroyed by construc on that paid scant respect
to the ecological sensi vity of the area.
R: Commercial forces took over the hill sta on
large-scale ac vi es and building commenced
around the ar ficial lake created in the 1800s.
S: There is large-scale deforesta on as well.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 22
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-S-Q-R
(b) Q-R-P-S
(c) Q-S-P-R
(d) P-R-Q-S
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The correct sequence is P-R-Q-S,
which is given in op on (d). Therefore, op on (d)
is the correct answer. Statement P should be the
first statement a er statement S1 as it tells about
the star ng of the bad mes which is men oned
in statement S1. Statement R should follow
statement P as it proceeds to tell the further
reason. Statement Q-S should come last in the
arrangement.
Direc ons (For the following 5 items): In the
following items some parts of the sentence have
been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange
these parts which are labelled P, Q. R and S to
produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper
sequence and mark in your Answer Sheet
accordingly.
Example Z' has been solved for you.
Z. It is well-known that the effect/(P) is very
bad/(Q) On children/(R) of cinema/(S)
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-S-R-Q
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) S-R-P-Q
(d) Q-S-R-P
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The proper way of wri ng the sentence is "It is
well-known that the effect of cinema on children
is very bad." This is indicated by the sequence P-S-
R-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
Q6. War minus shoo ng but there was nothing to
suggest any/(P) was how cricket between India
and Pakistan/(Q) increase of animosity between
the players or the spectators/(R) was visualised
before the first ball was bowled/(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) P-R-Q-S
(b) Q-S-P-R
(c) P-S-Q-R
(d) Q-R-P-S
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The correct sequence of the
sentence is Q-S-P-R. Therefore, op on (b) is the
correct answer. The sentence can not end with P
as it ends with ‘any’ which is never the end of any
sentence. Neither the sentence can start with P as
is does not make any sense. Hence, op ons (a) and
(c) should be eliminated. Op on (b) makes the
correct sense of the sentence a er
rearrangement. Therefore, it is the right answer.
Q7. In 1997, NASA fact-finding mission on
microgravity/(P) by becoming the first Indian
woman to rocket into space on a/(Q) to reach out
for the stars, created history/(R) Kalpana Chawla,
a Karnal girl who wanted /(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) S-R-Q-P
(b) P-Q-R-S
(c) S-Q-R-P
(d) P-R-Q-S
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The correct sequence of the
sentence is S-R-Q-P. Therefore, op on (a) is the
correct answer. The sentence should start with S
as it talks about the karnal girl Kalpana Chawla and
her dreams and her final achievement which is
given by the sequence SRQP. Therefore, a er
rearrangement op on (a) will be the right answer.
Q8. That so suggests that there are certain cultural
resources/(P) many Indians excel as
expatriates/(Q) that enable them to succeed while
living away from home/(R) perhaps unique to
Indians/(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) S-P-Q-R
(b) Q-R-S-P
(c) S-R-Q-P
(d) Q-P-S-R
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The correct sequence a er
rearrangement is Q-R-S-P. Therefore, op on (b) is
the correct answer. The sentence can not start
with S as it does not make any sense. Hence,
 Previous year questions with solutions | 23
options (a) and (c) are eliminated. Q should be
followed by R to make the sentence gramma cally
and meaningfully correct, so op on (d) will be
eliminated. Hence, a er rearrangement op on (b)
will be the right answer which will make the
sentence correct.
Q9. The advent we entertained and informed
ourselves/(P) of satellite television was a silent/(Q)
and completely changed the way/(R) revolu on
which created a whole new industry/(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) Q-R-S-P
(b) P-S-R-Q
(c) Q-S-R-P
(d) P-R-S-Q
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The correct sequence of the
sentence is Q-S-R-P. Therefore, op on (c) is the
correct answer. The sentence can not start with P
it does not make any sense as ‘advent’ means the
arrival of a notable person or thing. So, the
sentence should start with Q as it tells about the
advent of satellite television. Hence, according to
the sentence the correct sequence a er
rearrangement is SQRP which is given in op on (c).
Q10. The President the aspira ons of the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes/(P)
with poli cal par es, industry and other
bodies/(Q) revealed that the Government would
initiate a dialogue/(R) on how best the private
sector could fulfill/(S).
The correct sequence should be:
(a) S-P-R-Q
(b) R-Q-S-P
(c) S-Q-R-P
(d) R-P-S-Q
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The correct sequence of the
sentence is R-Q-S-P. Therefore, op on (b) is the
correct answer. The sentence should start with
The President ‘revealed’ which is given in R, so R
should come first a er rearrangement, followed
by Q as it men ons the dialogue ‘with poli cal
par es’. Q should be followed by S-P as it makes
the sentence correct in meaning. The correct
sequence a er rearrangement is RQSP which is
given in op on (b). Hence, op on (b) is the right
answer.
COMPREHENSION
Direc ons (For the following 5 items):
The passage given below is followed by ques ons
based on its content. A er reading the passage,
choose the best answer to each ques on. Answer
all the five ques ons following the passage on the
basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
PASSAGE
Ocean water plays an indispensable role in
suppor ng life. The great ocean basins hold. about
300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast
amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are
sucked into the atmosphere each year by
evapora on and returned by precipita on and
drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic
miles of rain descend annually upon the
continents. This vast amount is required to
replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water
tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent.
Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.
The hydrosphere has strange characteris cs
because water has proper es unlike those of any
other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon
freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas
most other liquids contract on cooling. For this
reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of
sinking to the bo om. If the ice sank, the
hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except
for a thin layer of surface melt water during the
summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be
destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold
currents, which moderates climates, would be
notably absent.
Another outstanding characteris c of water is that
water has a heat capacity which is highest of all
liquids and solids except ammonia. This
characteris c enables the oceans to absorb and
store vast quan es of heat, thereby o en
 Previous year questions with solutions | 24
preven ng clima c extremes. In addi on, water
dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It
is this characteris c which helps make oceans a
great storehouse for minerals which have been
washed down. from the con nents. In several
areas of the world these minerals are being
commercially exploited. Solar evapora on of salt
is widely prac sed, potash is extracted from the
Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea
water along the American Gulf Coast.
Q11. Which one of the following is correct?
According to the passage, the hydrosphere is not
(a) responsible for all forms of life
(b) able to modify weather
(c) a source of natural resources:
(d) in danger of freezing over
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Op on (d) is the correct answer here.
As given in the second paragraph of the passage
about the hydrosphere, we can say that
hydrosphere is not in danger of freezing over
because if that happens then all the aqua c life
would be destroyed and the interchange of warm
and cold currents, which moderates climates,
would be notably absent. Therefore, op on (d) is
correct.
Q12. What is the reason that fish can survive in the
oceans?
(a) They do not need oxygen
(b) Ice floats on the surface of the oceans
(c) Evapora on and condensa on create a water
cycle
(d) There are oceans currents in the
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
According to the second paragraph of the passage
it is given that ice floats on water bodies instead of
sinking to the bo om and if the ice sank, the
hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except
for a thin layer of surface melt water during the
summer season. Thus, all aqua c life would be
destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold
currents, which moderates climates, would be
notably absent. This explains that fishes can
survive in the ocean because of the ice that floats
on the surface of the ocean. Hence, (b) is the
correct option.
Q13. What is the author's main purpose in the
passage given above?
(a) To describe the proper es and uses of water
(b) To illustrate the importance of conserving
water
(c) To explain how water is used in commerce and
industry
(d) To reveal the extent of the earth's ocean
masses
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
According to the author, the main purpose of the
given passage is to illustrate the importance of
conserving water and not to commercially exploit
the water resources and minerals as the
hydrosphere permits organic existence.
Q14. What is the reason that clima c extremes are
prevented in nature?
(a) A vast quan ty of water is held in the great
ocean basins
(b) The heat capacity of water is very high
(c) Solar evapora on from the oceans uses high
technology
(d) Water dissolves many substances
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer. It is
given in the third paragraph of the passage that
another outstanding characteris c of water is that
water has a heat capacity which is highest of all
liquids and solids except ammonia. This
characteris c enables the oceans to absorb and
store vast quan es of heat, thereby o en
preven ng clima c extremes. Therefore, Op on
(b) i.e. ‘the heat capacity of water is very high’ is
the right choice as it is reason that climate
extremes are prevented in nature.
Q15. Which of the following characteris cs of
water does the author men on in the passage?
1. Water expands when it is frozen
2. Water is used as a condensing medium for
thermal power plants
3. Water is a good solvent
 Previous year questions with solutions | 25

Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Op on (c) is the correct answer. It
given in the passage that, “One anomaly is that
water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent,
whereas most other liquids contract on cooling”
and also “water dissolves more substances than
any other liquid”. Therefore, only op on 1 and 3
are men oned in the passage whereas op on 2 is
not men oned anywhere in the given passage.
Hence, op on (c) is the right answer.
(a) Arrogant
(b) Plentiful
(c) Painful
(d) Handsome
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
‘Scanty’ means ‘small or insufficient in quan ty or
amount.’, the opposite for this is ‘plen ful’ which
means ‘exis ng in or yielding great quan es;
abundant.’
‘Arrogant’ means having or revealing an
exaggerated sense of one's own importance or
abilities.
‘Painful’ means (of a part of the body) affected
with pain.
‘Handsome’ means (of a number, sum of money,
or margin) substan al or (of a man) good-looking.

ANTONYMS Q18. PROPENSITY

(a) Disinclination
Direc ons (For the following 5 items): (b) Forecast
Each of the following five items consists of a word (c) Stagna on
in capital le ers, followed by four words or groups (d) Restlessness
of words. Select the word or group of words that Answer: (a)
is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in Explanation: Op on (a) is the correct answer.
capital le ers. ‘Propensity’ means ‘an inclina on or natural
Q16. OUTLANDISH tendency to behave in a par cular way.’, the
(a) Stubborn opposite for this is ‘disinclina on’ which means ‘a
(b) Conven onal reluctance or lack of enthusiasm.’
(c) Agitated ‘Forecast’ means a calcula on or es mate of
(d) Fearful future events, especially coming weather or a
Answer: (b) financial trend.
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer. ‘Stagnation’ means the state of not flowing or
‘Outlandish’ means ‘looking or sounding bizarre or moving.
unfamiliar.’, the opposite for this is ‘conven onal’ ‘Restlessness’ means the inability to rest or relax
which means ‘based on or in accordance with what as a result of anxiety or boredom.
is generally done or believed.’
‘Stubborn’ means having or showing dogged Q19. RECTITUDE
determina on not to change one's a tude or (a) Self-condemna on
position on something, especially in spite of good (b) Decei ulness
arguments or reasons to do so. (c) Reprisal
‘Agitated’ means feeling or appearing troubled or (d) Punctuality
nervous. Answer: (b)
‘Fearful’ means feeling or appearing troubled or Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
nervous. ‘Rectitude’ means ‘morally correct behaviour or
thinking; righteousness.’, the opposite of this is
Q17. SCANTY
 Previous year questions with solutions | 26

‘decei ulness’ which means ‘having a tendency or ‘Commendation’ means a formal or official praise.
disposition to deceive or give false impressions’.
‘Self-condemna on’ means the blaming of oneself Q22. SLIPSHOD
for something. (a) Vulgar
‘Reprisal’ means an act of retalia on. (b) Careless
‘Punctuality’ means the fact or quality of being on (c) Commonplace
me. (d) Retaliatory
Answer: (b)
Q20. PONTIFICATE Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
(a) To pilfer ‘Slipshod’ means ‘characterized by a lack of care,
(b) To leave one's country thought, or organiza on.’, the word which has the
(c) To speak in a humble manner. same meaning as slipshod is ‘careless’.
(d) To spend recklessly ‘Vulgar’ means lacking sophis ca on or good
Answer: (c) taste.
Explanation: Op on (c) is the correct answer. ‘Retaliatory’ means (of an ac on) characterized by
‘Pon ficate’ means ‘to speak or write and give a desire for revenge.
your opinion about something as if you knew
everything about it and as if only your opinion was Q23. COGENT
correct’, the opposite of this is op on (c) i.e. to (a) Forceful
speak in a humble manner. (b) Objec onable
‘To pilfer’ means to steal (things of li le value). (c) Exceptional
‘Recklessly’ means without regard to the danger or (d) False
the consequences of one's ac ons; rashly. Answer: (a)
Explanation: Op on (a) is the correct answer.
SYNONYMS ‘Cogent’ means ‘(of an argument or case) clear,
logical, and convincing.’, hence, a cogent
Direc ons (For the following 5 items): argument, reason, etc. is clearly expressed and
Each of the following five items consists of a word persuades people to believe it. Here the synonym
in capital le ers, followed by four words or groups of cogent is ‘forceful’ which ‘means strong and
of words. Select the word or group of words that asser ve; vigorous and powerful.’
is most similar in meaning to the word in capital ‘Objec onable’ means arousing distaste or
le ers. opposi on; unpleasant or offensive.
Q21. COMMISERATION ‘Excep onal’ means not like most others of the
(a) Commission same type; unusual
(b) Vastness ‘False’ means not according with truth or fact;
(c) Sympathy incorrect.
(d) Commenda on.
Answer: (c) Q24. PONDEROUS
Explanation: Op on (c) is the correct answer. (a) Facile
‘Commisera on’ means ‘sympathy and sorrow for (b) Exorbitant
the misfortunes of others; compassion.’, the word (c) Cau ous
which has the same meaning as commisera on is (d) Unwieldy
‘sympathy’. Answer: (d)
‘Commission’ means an instruc on, command, or Explanation: Option (d) is the correct answer.
role given to a person or group. ‘Ponderous’ means ‘slow and clumsy because of
‘Vastness’ means very great extent or size; great weight.’, the synonym of ponderous is
immensity.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 27
‘unwieldy’ which means ‘(of an object) difficult to
move because of its size, shape, or weight.’
‘Facile’ means ignoring the true complexi es of an
issue; superficial.
‘Exorbitant’ means (of a price or amount charged)
unreasonably high.
‘Cau ous’ means (of a person) careful to avoid
poten al problems or dangers.
Q25. MASQUERADE
(a) To provide support
(b) To go in disguise
(c) To mesmerize
(d) To run in a marathon race.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Op on (b) is the correct answer.
‘Masquerade’ means ‘a false show or pretence.’,
the group of words that is similar to the meaning
of masquerade is ‘to go in disguise’, which means
‘to give a new appearance to a person or thing,
especially in order to hide its true form’.
‘To provide support’ means to give
encouragement and approval to someone or
something because you want the person or thing
to succeed.
‘To mesmerize’ means to hold completely the
atten on or interest of someone.
‘To run in a marathon race’ means to run in a long-
distance race.
Q26. Which one of the following is a super-cooled
liquid?
(a) Ice-cream
(b) Teflon
(c) Glass
(d) Mercury
Answer: C
Explanation:
Supercooling is the process of chilling a liquid
below its freezing point, without it becoming solid.
• A super-cooled liquid is a liquid below its
freezing point that has not crystalized to
freeze.
• Glass is an example of supercooled liquid.
Hence option C is correct.
• Teflon is not a product on its own, but a brand
name of a product. It refers to a chemical
coa ng known as polytetrafluoroethylene
(PTFE).
• Mercury is the only liquid metal at room
temperature.
Q27. Why does bleeding occur through nose in
high mountainous regions?
(a) The pressure of blood in capillaries is greater
than the outside pressure
(b) The pressure at high al tudes is greater than
that on the plains
(c) The blood pressure of a person increases at
high altitudes
(d) The blood pressure fluctuates and finally
decreases Dras cally
Answer: A
Explanation:
Atmospheric pressure decreases with increase in
altitude.
• At higher al tudes the blood pressure inside
our body is more than the atmospheric
pressure which forces the blood to ooze out
from openings like the nose.
• Hence the nose bleeding and Hence op on A
is correct.
Q28. Which one of the following causes small air
bubbles in water, which is stored in a glass vessel,
to appear to shine with a silvery luster?
(a) Reflection of light rays
(b) Refrac on of light rays
(c) Polariza on of light rays
(d) Total internal reflec on
Answer: D
Explanation:
The reason why the air bubble shines in water is
because of the total internal reflec on.
• Total internal reflec on is a phenomenon in
which light travels back in the same medium
or reflects back. It occurs when light travels
from an optically denser to a rarer medium.
• This happens in an air bubble in water when
light travels from water to air and back out.
This creates the shine or the silvery lustre.
Hence option D is correct.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 28
Q29. Weight of a body on the surface of the earth
is W₁. The weight of the same body is W2, at a
height of 500 metres above the surface, and W3
at a depth of 500 metres below the surface of the
earth. Which one of the following is the correct
rela on?
(a) W3 > W1 > W2
(b) W₁ > W₂; W₁ > W3
(c) W₁ < W₂ <W3
(d) W₂ > W3 > W₁
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Weight of an object is given by mul plying its
mass (m) and accelera on due to gravity (g) as
W=mxg.
• The value of g varies with al tude in an inverse
manner and as the altitude increases the value
of g decreases and as al tude (height)
decreases, the value of g increases.
• Thus, W3>W2>W1 is the correct sequence.
Q30. Which one of the following is not a Vitamin?
(a) Folic acid
(b) Oleic acid
(c) Pantothenic acid
(d) Ascorbic acid
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Folate is the natural form of vitamin B9, water-
soluble and naturally found in many foods like
citrus fruits. It is also added to foods and sold
as a supplement in the form of folic acid
• Vitamin B5, also called pantothenic acid, is
one of 8 B vitamins. All B vitamins help the
body convert food (carbohydrates) into fuel
(glucose), which the body uses to produce
energy. These B vitamins, o en referred to as
B complex vitamins, also help the body use fats
and protein.
• Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) is used as a dietary
supplement when the amount of ascorbic acid
in the diet is not enough.
• Oleic acid is an omega-9 fa y acid. It can be
made by the body. It is also found in foods.
Highest levels are found in olive oil and other
edible oils. It is not related to any Vitamin.
Hence option B is correct answer.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 29
Q31. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
(a) The deficiency of Vitamin A causes night
blindness
(b) Pain in the muscles and joints along with
fa gue, loss of weight and poor wound healing
are the symptoms of the deficiency of Vitamin
C Explanation:
(c) Bleeding gums and loosening of teeth are
symptoms of the deficiency of Vitamin B
(d) The deficiency of Vitamin B can cause
inflamma on of skin, memory disorder and
Diarrhoea
Answer: C
Explanation:
Vitamins and deficiency diseases
The deficiency of different Vitamins causes
different deficiency diseases described as follows:
• In its more severe forms, vitamin A deficiency
contributes to blindness by making the cornea
very dry, thus damaging the re na and cornea.
Hence statement A is correct.
• Vitamin C is found in citrus fruits and
vegetables. Scurvy results from a deficiency of
vitamin C in the diet.
o Symptoms may not occur for a few
months a er a person's dietary intake
of vitamin C drops too low.
o Bruising, bleeding gums, weakness,
fa gue, weight loss, poor wound
healing, and rash are among scurvy
symptoms. Hence statement B is
correct and statement C is incorrect.
• Vitamin B12 deficiency may lead to a reduc on
in healthy red blood cells (anaemia). The
nervous system may also be affected. Diet or
certain medical condi ons may be the cause.
Symptoms are rare but can include fa gue,
breathlessness, numbness, poor balance and
memory trouble. Hence statement D is
correct.
Q32. Which one of the following elements is not
naturally found in human beings?
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Iodine
(d) Lead
Answer: C
• Copper is a mineral that is found throughout
the body. It helps your body make red blood
cells and keeps nerve cells and your immune
system healthy. It also helps form collagen, a
key part of bones and connec ve ssue.
• Zinc is found in cells throughout the body. It is
needed for the body's defensive (immune)
system to properly work. It plays a role in cell
division, cell growth, wound healing, and the
breakdown of carbohydrates. Zinc is also
needed for the senses of smell and taste.
• Iodine is an essen al trace mineral not made
by the body so must be obtained by food or
supplements. It is found naturally in some
foods and is added to supplements and some
salt seasonings. Hence option C is correct.
• Although Lead is not made by the human body
and is non-biodegradable and harmful for the
human body, it is found in the human bones
and teeth.
Direc ons: The following Two (7 & 8) items consist
of two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explana on of the Asser on (A). Select
your answers to these items using the Codes given.
below and mark your answer-sheet accordingly
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
 Previous year questions with solutions | 30
Q33. Assertion (A): Glycerol is a cons tuent of
shaving cream.
Reason (R): Glycerol is an an sep c.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Glycerol is added to shaving soaps to prevent
rapid drying and so ening the skin. Hence
Asser on is correct but Reason is false.
Q34. Assertion (A): Phenol is commonly used as a
disinfectant.
Reason (R): Phenol is not harmful to living human
ssues even at a very high concentra on.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Phenol is an an sep c and disinfectant used in a
variety of se ngs.
• Phenol is an an sep c and disinfectant. It is
ac ve against a wide range of micro-organisms
including some fungi and viruses but is only
slowly effec ve against spores. Phenol has
been used to disinfect skin and to relieve
itching. Hence Assertion is true.
• Exposure to phenol may cause irrita on to the
skin, eyes, nose, throat, and nervous system.
• Some symptoms of exposure to phenol are
weight loss, weakness, exhaus on, muscle
aches, and pain. Severe exposure can cause
liver and/or kidney damage, skin burns,
tremor, convulsions, and twitching. Hence
Reason is false.
Q35. What is the number of triangles that can be
formed whose ver ces are at the ver ces of an
octagon but have only one side common with
that of the octagon?
(a) 16
(b) 24
(c) 32
(d) 48
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are 2 ver ces that will be used for base
side.
Another 2 ver ces which are adjacent to each
ver ces taken will make common side, so we
have to minus these ae well.
Therefore,
The number of triangles formed with only one
side common with octagon is 8× (8-2 -2) = 32
Q36. A le er is taken out at random from the
word 'ASSAM' and a le er is taken out at random
from the word 'NAGALAND'. What is the
probability that the two le ers are the same?
(a) 1/20
(b) 3/20
(c) 1/40
(d) 31/40
Answer: B
Explanation:
In ASSAM, we have 2As, 2Ss, 1 M
In NAGALAND, we have 2Ns, 3As, 1G,1L, 1D
1 letter is taken from each word-That needs to be
the same. So, these can be As only.
So, probability of A taken from ASSAM is 2C1/5C1 =
2/5
and A from NAGALAND is 3C1/8C1 = 3/8
So, required probability = (2/5)*(3/8) = 3/20
Q37. A set of 5 parallel lines is intersected by
another set of 4 parallel lines so as to form a
number of parallelograms. How many
parallelograms can be formed?
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 60
Answer: D
Explanation:
For a parallelogram, we need 2 pairs of parallel
lines. So, we can "choose" any two lines from the
first set of 4 parallel lines 'and' choose any two
lines from the second set of 5 parallel lines.
Hence the value we need is
4
C2 × 5C2 = 6 × 10 = 60
Thus 60 parallelograms are formed.
Q38. Three dice are rolled. What is the
probability that at least one die will show 6?
(a) 1/6
 Previous year questions with solutions | 31
(b) 1/36 (b) 8
(c) 91/216 (c) 12
(d) 125/216 (d) 14
Answer: C Answer:
Explanation: Explanation:
Dice have values from 1 to 6 There are 4 toys to be distributed among 2
So, the probability of Dice 1/Dice2/Dice3 will children such that each child gets at least 1 toy.
show 6 = 1/6
Required ways = 4C1*3C3 + 4C2*2C2 + 4C3*1C1
Probability of not showing 6 = 5/6
=4+6+4
So, require probability = 6 on only 1 Dice or 6 on = 14 ways.
any 2 Dice or 6 on all 3 dice
= 3C1*(1/6)*(5/6)*(5/6) + 3C2*(1/6)*(1/6*(5/6) + Q41. A stadium has 10 gates. In how many
(1/6)*(1/6)*(1/6) different ways can 3 persons enter the stadium?
= 75/216 + 15/216 + 1/216 (a) 10
= 91/216 (b) 30
Alternate method- (c) 310
Probability of no 6 by any dice = (5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6) (d) 1000
= 125/216
Answer:
So, required probability = 1 – 125/216 = 91/216
Explanation: D
There are 10 gates
Q39. How many numbers are there between 999 Total persons = 3
and 10000 such that at least one of their digits is Each person can choose any gate out of 10.
5? Total ways are 10*10*10 = 1000
(a) 2879
(b) 3168
Q42. At the conclusion of a party, a total number
(c) 3200
of 28 handshakes were exchanged. Every person
(d) 3224
Answer: B in the party shook hands with every other person
Explanation: who a ended the party. What was the total
There is no digit to be 5 on any place in 4 digits number of persons who a ended the party?
number from 1000 to 9999 = 8*9*9*9 (because (a) 8
of at 1000s place 0 and 5 both cannot come so, 8 (b) 14
(c) 28
chances likewise for the unit, 10s and 100s place
(d) 56
5 cannot come so chance will be 9)
Answer: A
= 5832
Explanation:
Total number between 999 and 10000 = 9000 Let n be the number of people present.
So, required numbers are = 9000 – 5832 = 3168 For every handshake, 2 persons are required.
Since each handshake is between two persons, the
Q40. Four different toys are to be distributed total number of handshakes = nC2 =28
among two children such that each child gets at n! /{(n-2)! * 2!} = 28
least one toy. In how many different ways can n(n-1) = 56
this be done? So, n =8
(a) 6
 Previous year questions with solutions | 32

Q43. Amit has 7 friends whom he wishes to invite that of the wife are 1/7 and 1/5 respec vely.
to a dinner. Out of his 7 friends, 1 or more may What is the probability that only one of them will
accept the invita on. In how many different ways be selected?
can Amit's 7 friends a end the party? (a) 1/7
(a) 96 (b) 1/5
(b) 112 (c) 2/7
(c) 127 (d) 11/35
(d) 128 Answer:
Answer: C Explanation: C
Explanation: Probability of selec on of husband = 1/7, it means
There are 7 people he wishes to invite. of not selec ng = 6/7
Every friend has 2 choices either accept or decline Probability of selec on of wife = 1/5, it means of
the invita on. not selecting = 4/5
So, total ways = 2*2*2*2*2*2*2 =27
Now, we know 1 or more may accept the So, only 1 will be selected = “Wife selected, and
invita on(given). So, no person is coming to part = husband is not selected” or “husband selected and
1 way. wife doesn’t”
So, required ways = 27 – 1 = (1/5)* (6/7) + (1/7)* (4/5)
= 128 – 1 = 6/35 + 4/35
= 127 = 10/35
= 2/7
Q44. There are three envelopes with three
different addresses wri en on them. Three Q46. What is the nth term of the series √3, √6,
le ers are to be enclosed in these three 2√3, ...?
envelopes such that one le er goes inside one (a) √3(√2)n-1
envelope without seeing the address wri en on (b) √2 (√3)n-1
any envelope. What is the probability that each (c) √3 (√2)n
(d) √2 (√3)n
of the three le ers goes into the envelope with
Answer: A
correct address wri en on it?
Explanation:
(a) 1/27 √6/√3 = 2√3/ √6
(b) 1/6
√2 = √2
(c) 1/9
(d) 1/3 So, this means it is a G.P.
Answer: B Tn = arn-1 (where Tn = nth term, a = first term, r =
Explanation: difference)
Total no. of ways =3!=6 and favourable no.of ways Tn = √3(√2)n-1
=1.
So, required probability = 1/6 Q47. The length of a rectangle is reduced by 20%
and breadth is kept constant, and the new figure
Q45. A person and his wife appear in the that is formed is a square.
interview for the two vacancies of a post. The Consider the following statements:
probability of the selec on of the husband and 1. The area of the square is 25% less than the area
of rectangle.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 33

2. The perimeter of square is approximately 11%

less than the perimeter of rectangle.
3. The diagonal of square is approximately 12%
less than the diagonal of rectangle.
Which of the statements given. above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let length of the rectangle = L, breadth of the
rectangle = B
Area= L*B
Now, length reduced by 20%. So, now length –
(4/5)L
Breadth remains same
So, new figure is square. So, (4/5)L = B
So, New area = (4/5)L*B
Q48. What is the contribu on of EU in the foreign
1. Difference in area = [{L/B – (4/5) L*B}/ L*B]*100
investment inflows for the year 1996 in US $ Mn.?
= 20% (So, wrong as given in the statement 1 to be
(a) 1840
25%)
2. perimeter of square = 2(4/5) L + 2B = (8/5) L + (b) 2000
2B (c) 460
Perimeter of rectangle = 2(L + B) (d) Cannot be determined with the given data
Difference = [{2L + 2B – (8/5)L – 2B}/ (2(L + B)]*100 Answer: D
= [(2/5)L/ 2(L + (4/5)L]*100 = 11.11% (So, right it is Explanation:
approx. 11%) As per the informa on 23% approval for EU in
1996.
3. Diagonal of rectangle = √(L2 + B2) = √(L2 + (4/5 L)2
But we don’t know how much inflows out of it.
= (L/5)*√41
Diagonal of square =side*√2 = (4/5)L*√2 So, cannot be determined with the given data.
Require %age = [{(√41 -
4√2)*(L/5)}/(L/5)*√41]*100 = 11.65% (So, right it Q49. What are the foreign investment approvals
is approx. 12%) from SAARC, ASEAN and EU combined together in
Hence op on D. the year 1996 (in US $ Mn.)?
(a) 2240
Direc ons (For the next four items):
(b) 5000
Refer to the graphs given below and answer the
items that follow: (c) 3500
(d) 2600
Answer: A
Explanation:
Foreign investment approval for 1996 = US $ 8000
mn.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 34

%age of approval for SAARC, ASEAN and EU = 2 + We can clearly see in 1995 ra o of foreign
3 + 23 =28% investment approval to inflows in highest =
So, 28% of 8000 = 2240 9900/2000

Q50. If the net foreign investment inflows for the Q52. There are four persons A, B, C and D. The
year 1997 were to grow by 20% and if the total amount of money with A and B together is
propor on of inflows was to remain the same as equal to the total amount of money with C and D
in case of the approvals for the year 1996, what together. But the total amount of money with B
would be the foreign investment inflows from and D together is more than the amount of
NAFTA (in US $ Mn.) If NAFTA got 800 inflow in money with A and C together. The amount of
1996? money with A is more than that with B. Who has
(a) 800 the least amount of money?
(b) 500 (a) B
(c) 840 (b) C
(d) 960 (c) D
Answer: D (d) Cannot be determined
Explanation: Answer: B
Net foreign investment inflows for 1996 = 2000 Explanation:
Net foreign investment inflows for 1997 increased A+B=C+D
by 20% = 1.2*2000 = 2400 B+D>A+C
A>B
Proportion of inflows with respect to approvals in Now,
1996 = (2000/8000) *100 = 25% or 1/4 B + D > A + C and A > B
As per given propor on is same in the year 1997 ⇒B+D>A+C>B+C
with respect to 1996. B+D>B+C
So, foreign investment approvals in 1997 = 4*2400 So, D > C
= 9600 Now, B + D > A + C ⇒ B + D = A + C + K
Also, A + B = C + D ⇒ B - D = C - A
Now, NAFTA got $ 700mn in 1996 ⇒ 2B = 2C + K
That is 800/2000)*100 = 40% B>C
A>B>C&D>C
So, in 1997 it got 40% of 2400 = 960 Clearly, each one of A, D, and B has more amount
than C. Hence, C has the least amount.
Q51. In which year is the ra o of foreign
investment approvals to foreign investment Q53. A printer uses a total number of 4893 digits
inflows highest? in order to number all the pages of his book. He
(a) 1992 starts with the digit 1 for the first page of the
(b) 1993 book. How many pages does the book have?
(c) 1994 (a) 4892
(d) 1995 (b) 2322
Answer: D (c) 2100
Explanation:
 Previous year questions with solutions | 35
(d) 1500 The couple E and S occupy the seats at extreme
Answer: D right.
Explanation: D is sea ng on the seat number 3
1 digit pages = 1 to 9 = 9 B and R are celebra ng their wedding anniversary
2 digits pages = 10 to 99 = 90 and hence are si ng at the centre.
3 digits pages = 100 to 999 = 900
4 digit pages = let’s say x
Now,
Number of digits used ll 999 pages = 9*1 + 90*2
+ 900*3 = 9 + 180 + 2700 = 2889
Therefore,
4x + 2889 = 4893 C, who is not si ng at extreme le and Q, who is
4x = 2004 not sit ng on the seat number 2, are not husband
X = 501 and wife.
So, total pages are 9 + 90 + 900 + 501 =1500 A and T are not husband and wife.

Direc ons (For the next two items):

Based on the informa on given below, answer the
two items which follow it:
Five ladies A, B, C, D, E go to a cinema hall along
with their husbands P, Q, R, S, T (not necessarily in
that order). Seats numbered from 1 to 10 are
So, C is si ng at seat number 7.
reserved for these 5 married couples. Each of the
five ladies sits on the seat immediately to the le
Q55. If in the last condi on (v), it is stated that D
of her husband.
sits on the seat number 7, then who will sit on the
(i) The couple E and S occupy the seats at extreme
seat number 4?
right.
(a) P
(ii) C, who is not si ng at extreme le and Q, who
(b) T
is not si ng on the seat number 2, are not
(c) P or T
husband and wife.
(d) Cannot be determined
(iii) B and R are celebra ng their wedding
Answer:
anniversary and hence are si ng at the centre. Explanation:
(iv) A and T are not husband and wife. Now, D sits on seat number is 7.
(v) D is sea ng on the seat number 3.
Q54. Who is si ing on the seat number 7?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
Answer: C Q56. A 2-member commi ee is to be cons tuted
Explanation: out of 4 men and 2 women. What is the
 Previous year questions with solutions | 36

probability that a commi ee thus formed will • The agita on for State autonomy led to the
have exactly one woman? crea on of the R. S. Sarkaria Commission by
(a) 1/3 the Central Government to recommend
(b) 1/4 changes in the Centre-State rela onship in
1983.
(c) 7/15
• The first Administra ve Reform Commission
(d) 8/15 was established on 5 January 1966. The
Answer: D Administra ve Reforms Commission was
Explanation: initially chaired by Morarji Desai, and later on
Total member = 4 + 2 = 6 K. Hanumanthaiya became its chairman when
Commi ee should have exactly 1 woman. Desai became the Deputy Prime Minister of
So, required probability = (1 Men and 1 women) India.
out of toal • In 1962, Lal Bahadur Shastri appointed K.
= 4C 1 * 2C 1/ 6 C 2 Santhanam to preside over the commi ee on
an -corruption. Because of its thorough
= 8/15
inves ga ve work and recommenda ons, the
Commi ee earned a reputa on as
Q57. Match List-I (Commission/Commi ee) with
Santhanam's Commi ee on An -Corrup on.
List-II (Chairman) and select the correct answer
Hence C is the correct answer.
using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Commission/Commi ee)
Q58. Consider the following statements:
A. Economic Reforms Commission
1. The first report of the Administra ve Reforms
B. Commission on Centre-State Rela ons
Commission recommended the crea on of Lok
C. Administra ve Reforms Commission
Pal and Lok Ayukta in India.
D. Commi ee on the Preven on of Corrup on
2. Different ar cles under the Cons tu on of
List-II (Chairman)
India provide for se ng up the Union Public
1. R.S. Sarkaria
Service Commission, the Planning Commission
2. K. Hanumanthaiya
and the Vigilance Commission.
3. L.K. Jha
Which of the statements given above is/are
4. K. Santhanam
correct?
5. D.S. Kothari
(a) 1 only
Code:
(b) 2 only
A B C D
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 3 4 2 1
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 1 5 4
Answer: A
(c) 3 1 2 4
Explanation:
(d) 2 4 5 1
• The Administra ve Reforms Commission (ARC)
Answer: C
of India (1966–1970) recommended the
Explanation:
se ng up of two special authori es
• The Economic Administra on Reforms
designated as ‘Lokpal’ and ‘lokayukta’ for the
Commission (EARC) was set up in the early
redressal of ci zens’ grievances. Hence
eigh es to suggest changes in the economic
statement 1 is correct.
administra on of the country.
• Article 315 to 323 contains provisions related
- Its chairman was L.K. Jha, a member of the
to the Union Public Service Commission but
Indian Civil Service who had specialised in
planning commission and vigilance
the economic affairs of the country.
commission are not formed under the Ar cles
of Indian Constitution.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 37
• Planning Commission is non - Cons tutional
and non-Statutory body.
• Vigilance Commission is statutory body
established by the CVC Act of 2003.
Q59. Consider the following statements:
1. Money Bill can be introduced in any House of
Parliament.
2. If any ques on arises whether a bill is a Money
Bill or not, the decision of the Chairman of the
Public Accounts Commi ee is final.
3. Vote of Credit enables a grant to be approved
by the Parliament in advance of the detailed
examina on of various demands presented to
it.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Cons tu on lays down a special
procedure for the passing of money bills in the
Parliament.
- A money bill can only be introduced in the
Lok Sabha and that too on the
recommenda on of the President. Thus,
statement 1 is not correct.
• If any ques on arises whether a bill is a money
bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the
Lok Sabha is final.
- His decision in this regard cannot be
ques oned in any court of law or in the
either House of Parliament or even by the
President. Thus, statement 2 is not
correct.
• Vote of Credit is granted for mee ng an
unexpected demand upon the resources of
India, when on account of the magnitude or
the indefinite character of the service, the
demand cannot be stated with the details
ordinarily given in a budget. Thus statement 3
is not correct.
Q60. Consider the following statements:
1. If forty or more members support an
Adjournment Mo on, only then the related
matter can be taken up for discussion.
2. Under an Adjournment Mo on, even a sub
judice ma er can be taken up for discussion.
3. Under Ar cle 112 of the Cons tu on of India,
the Union Finance Minister causes to be laid
before both the Houses of Parliament and
'Annual Financial Statement' for each financial
year.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Adjournment Mo on is introduced in the
Parliament to draw a en on of the House to a
definite ma er of urgent public importance
and needs the support of 50 members to be
admi ed.
• An Adjournment Mo on, should not deal with
any ma er that is under adjudica on by court.
• Under Article 112 of the Cons tu on of India,
the President of India (not Union Finance
Minister) causes to be laid before both the
Houses of Parliament and 'Annual Financial
Statement' for each financial year.
Q61. Asser on (A): Recently, the four public
sector general insurance companies have
launched a community-based ‘Universal Health
Insurance Scheme’ .
Reason (R): According to the Cons tu on of India,
the task of promo ng public health primarily rests
with the Union Government.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Answer: B
Explanation:
 Previous year questions with solutions | 38
• There are 4 public sector general insurance
providers who have implemented Universal
Health Insurance Scheme with the inten on to
enhance people's access of health care
especially for families at or below the poverty
line.
- This Scheme was launched on a
countrywide basis in July 2003. Hence
Assertion is correct.
• According to Article 47 in Part IV of Indian
Cons tu on, it is the duty of the State to raise
the level of nutri on and the standard of
living of people and to improve public health.
Q62. Consider the following statements:
1. Dadra and Nagar Haveli which merged with the
Indian Union in 1961 were ruled by the
Portuguese.
2. Both Pondicherry and Chandernagore were
ruled by the French.
3. Goa got its freedom in 1961.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The Portuguese ruled Dadar and Nagar Haveli
un l its libera on in 1954. Subsequently, the
administra on was carried on ll 1961 by an
administrator chosen by the people
themselves. It was converted into a union
territory of India by the 10th Cons tu onal
Amendment Act, 1961.
• The territory of Puducherry comprises the
former French establishments in India known
as Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe and Yanam.
The French handed over this territory to India
in 1954.
- On 8th June 1948, the French government
had an agreement with the Indian
Government under which it declared that
the people of the French colonies in India
would have the right to choose their own
future status.
- The French government conducted a
plebiscite on 19th June 1949 in which a
whopping 97% of the people voted in
favour of a merger with India. 7463 votes
were received in favour of the merger and
114 against it.
• India acquired Goa from the Portuguese by
means of a police ac on in 1961.
Hence A is the correct answer.
Q63. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the
President of India.
2. The Delhi Police and Municipal Corpora on of
Delhi do not come under the administra ve
purview of the Delhi Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Chief Minister of Na onal Capital Territory
of Delhi is appointed by the Indian President
(not by the lt. governor).
• Municipal Corpora on of Delhi (MCD) is the
municipal corpora on that governs most of
Delhi, India.
- The Municipal Corpora on of Delhi was
replaced by three new bodies, the North
Delhi Municipal Corpora on, the South
Delhi Municipal Corpora on and the East
Delhi Municipal Corpora on in 2012.
- They are controlled by the Government of
India.
• Delhi Police comes under the jurisdic on of
the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA),
Government of India.
Q64. Consider the following statements:
1. The Legisla ve Assembly of a State cannot
have more than 450 and not less than 50
members chosen by direct elec on from
territorial cons tuencies.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 39
2. The number of members of Legisla ve Council
of a State cannot exceed one-third of the total
membership of the Legisla ve Assembly of
that State subject to a minimum of 40.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Legisla ve assembly of State consists of
representa ves directly elected by the people
on the basis of universal adult franchise. Its
maximum strength is fixed at 500 and
minimum strength at 60.
- It means that its strength varies from 60 to
500 depending on the popula on size of
the state. Thus statement 1 is not correct.
• The maximum strength of the Legisla ve
Council in a state with bicameral legislature is
fixed at one-third of the total strength of the
assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at
40. Thus statement 2 is correct.
Q65. Consider the following statements:
1. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are two States with
maximum popula on of the Scheduled Castes.
2. Punjab has the highest ra o of the Scheduled
Caste popula on to its total popula on.
3. There was a provision for set ng up a Na onal
Commission for the Scheduled Castes and the
Scheduled Tribes under the Ar cle 338 of the
Cons tu on of India. However, by a
Cons tu onal Amendment Act, separate
National Commission for the Scheduled Castes
and Na onal Commission for the Scheduled
Tribes have been set up.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: C
Note: This answer is per the current informa on as
in 2022.
Explanation:
• U ar Pradesh stands first with 20.5% of the
total scheduled caste (SC) popula on,
followed by West Bengal with 10.7%.
- Bihar with 8.2% and Tamil Nadu with 7.2 %
come third and fourth. Thus, statement 1
is not correct.
• As per Census 2011, the State of Punjab, has
the highest percentage of Scheduled Caste
popula on amongst all the States of the
Country.
- The Scheduled Caste popula on in Punjab
is 88.60 lakh which is 31.94% of the total
popula on i.e. 277.43 lakh of the State.
• The 65th Cons tutional Amendment Act of
1990 provided for the establishment of a high
level mul -member Na onal Commission for
SCs and STs under Ar cle 338 in the place of a
single Special Officer for SCs and STs.
- Later the 89th Cons tu onal Amendment
Act of 2003 bifurcated the combined
National Commission for SCs and STs into
two separate bodies, namely, Na onal
Commission for Scheduled Castes (under
Article 338) and Na onal Commission for
Scheduled Tribes (under Ar cle 338-A).
Q66. Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment of the Cons tu on of India can
be initiated by the introduc on of a Bill for the
purpose in Lok Sabha only.
2. A Bill providing for the forma on of new States
and for the altera on of boundaries or names
of exis ng States in India can be introduced in
the Parliament only on the recommenda on
of the President of India.
3. In India, a Bill seeking to amend the
representa on of States in Parliament has to
be passed by a simple majority of both Houses
of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
 Previous year questions with solutions | 40
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
• An amendment of the Cons tu on can be
initiated only by the introduc on of a bill for
the purpose in either House of Parliament and
not in the state legislatures. Thus, statement 1
is wrong.
• Article 3 of Indian Cons tu on provides for the
formation of new States and for the altera on
of boundaries or names of exis ng States in
India. However there are 2 condi ons in this
regard:
- a bill contempla ng the above changes can
be introduced in the Parliament only with
the prior recommenda on of the
President. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
- before recommending the bill, the
President has to refer the same to the state
legislature concerned for expressing its
views within a specified period.
• Representa on of states in Parliament is
related to the federal structure of the polity
can be amended by a special majority of the
Parliament and also with the consent of half of
the state legislatures by a simple majority.
Thus, statement 3 is not correct.
Q67. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?
The term of Lok Sabha can be extended by the
Parliament for a period
(a) not exceeding six months at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of three months a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
(b) not exceeding one year at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of six months a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
(c) not exceeding one year at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of three months a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
(d) not exceeding six months at a me during
proclama on of emergency but not exceeding
in any case a period of one month a er the
proclama on of emergency has ceased to
operate
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Lok Sabha is not a con nuing chamber. Its
normal term is five years from the date of its
first mee ng a er the general elec ons, a er
which it automatically dissolves.
- The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended
during the period of na onal emergency
be a law of Parliament for one year at a
time for any length of me.
- However, this extension cannot con nue
beyond a period of six months a er the
emergency has ceased to operate.
Q68. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Parliament is not sovereign, and the
legisla on passed by it is subject to judicial
review.
2. In India, the Fundamental Rights and Direc ve
Principles of State Policy are enforceable by
the courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The adop on of an independent Judiciary with
the power of judicial review restricts the
sovereignty of Indian Parliament.
- Both the Supreme Court and high courts
can declare the laws enacted by the
Parliament as void and ultra vires
(uncons tu onal), if they contravene any
provision of the Constitu on.
• Only Fundamental Rights are jus ciable and
enforceable, allowing persons to move the
 Previous year questions with solutions | 41
courts for their enforcement, if and when they
are violated.
- The Direc ve Principles are non-justiciable
in nature, that is, they are not legally
enforceable by the courts for their
violation.
Q69. Consider the following statements related
to the World War II:
1. Germany a acked the US naval base at Pearl
Harbour.
2. Winston Churchill was the Bri sh Prime
Minister during the World War II.
3. The Versailles Treaty which is generally cited as
one of the main causes of the World War II was
signed just before the World War II in 1939.
4. Franklin Roosevelt was the President of the
United States were dropped over the Japanese
ci es of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The a ack on Pearl Harbour was a surprise
military strike by the Imperial Japanese Navy
Air Service upon the United States.
• Winston Churchill was an inspira onal
statesman, writer, orator and leader who led
Britain to victory in the Second World War.
• The Treaty of Versailles was the most
important of the peace trea es of World War
I. It ended the state of war between Germany
and the Allied Powers.
• In August of 1945, the United States was s ll
figh ng in World War II against the na on of
Japan. Having been told about the successful
Trinity Test of an atomic bomb, President
Truman decided to drop an atomic bomb on
Japan on August 6, 1945.
Hence option C is the correct answer.
Q70. Assertion (A): During the Bri sh rule, the
Congress Ministers resigned in 1939 in all the
provinces where they were in office.
Reason (R): Congress wanted fresh elec ons as it
was frustrated with Jinnah’s campaign of two-
nation theory.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Answer:
Explanation:
• When World War II started in 1939, the Bri sh
were figh ng against the Axis Powers.
- The Viceroy of India announced India’s
involvement without consul ng its
representa ve poli cal leaders. Congress
asked for transfer of power in repayment
of their coopera on in war, which the
Bri sh government denied. As a result,
Congress ministries resigned a er 28
Months of power.
Hence option C is correct answer.
Q71. Assertion (A): Aurangzeb released Shahu
from the prison shortly before Aurangzeb died in
1707.
Reason (R): Zulfiqar pointed that Shahu’s return to
his Kingdom would cause a division among the
Marathas who would thus be disabled from
plundering the imperial territories.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Shahu Maharaj I was the Chhatrapa of the
Maratha domain and the grandson of Shivaji.
- In his early life stages, when he was just a
7-year-old boy, he was taken as a prisoner
 Previous year questions with solutions | 42

alongside his mother in the year 1689 by • The Milindapañha is set up as a compila on of
the Mughal forces a er the conflict of ques ons posed by King Milinda to a revered
Raigad. senior monk named Nagasena.
- A er the decease of Aurangzeb in the year - This Milinda has been iden fied with
1707 Bahadur Shah released Shahu in the considerable confidence by scholars as the
desire of star ng an interes ng conflict Greek king Menander of Bactria, in the
between the Marathas and expec ng Sahu dominion founded by Alexander the Great,
to be on the side of Mughals for the which corresponds with much of present
succession fight of the Mughal Rule. day Afghanistan.
Hence D is the correct answer. • Kanishka, was an emperor of the Kushan
dynasty.
Q72. Match List-I with List-II and select the Hence option C is the correct answer.
correct answer using the code given below the
lists: Q73. During the World War II, Indian soldiers
List-I (Indian Kings) fought heroically in the Ba le at Monte Cassino.
A. Karikala Where is Monte Cassino located?
B. Rudradaman (a) Poland
C. Milinda (b) Italy
D. Kanishka (c) Germany
(d) Greece
List-II (Dynasty) Answer: B
1. Bacteria Greek Explanation:
2. Chola • The Ba le of Monte Cassino was a series of
3. Chalukya four assaults by the Allies against the Winter
4. Kushanas Line in Italy held by Axis forces during the
5. Shakas Italian Campaign of World War II. The inten on
Codes: was a breakthrough to Rome.
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 5 Q74. Match List-I with List-II and select the
(b) 1 5 3 4 correct answer using the code given below the
(c) 2 5 1 4 lists:
(d) 1 4 3 5 List-I (Ba les)
Answer: C A. Battle of Chausa
Explanation: B. Battle of Ghagra
• Karikala was a Chola dynasty king who ruled C. Battle of Kanwah
southern India. D. Battle of Talikota
- He is credited with the construc on of the
flood banks of the river Kaveri. He is List-II (Fought between)
recognised as the greatest of the Early 1. Babar and Rajputs
Cholas. 2. Humayun and Sher Khan
• Rudradaman I (130–150AD), a Saka monarch 3. Babar and Afghans of Bihar & Bengal
from the Western Kshatrapas dynasty, was a 4. Vijayanagar ruler and the Decca Sultanates
Saka ruler from the Western Kshatrapas Codes:
dynasty. He was the king of Castana's A B C D
grandson. (a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
 Previous year questions with solutions | 43
(d) 4 1 3 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Ba le of Chausa was a famous ba le
between the Mughal Emperor, Humayun, and
the Afghan warlord, Sher Shah Suri.
- It was fought on 26 June 1539 at Chausa,
10 miles southwest of Buxar in modern-day
Bihar, India.
• The Battle of Ghagra was the last ba le Babar
fought against the Afghans.
- Sultan Ibrahim Lodi’s brother Mahmud
Lodi and Sultan Nusrat Shah, son-in-law of
Ibrahim Lodi, conspired against Babur.
Realising the danger Babar marched
against them.
- In the ba le that ensued along the banks
of Ghagra, a tributary of Ganges, Babur
defeated the Afghans.
• Babur decided to take on Rana Sanga of
Chi oor, who as ruler of Mewar, had a strong
influence over Rajasthan and Malwa. Babur
selected Khanwa, near Agra, as a favourable
site for this inevitable encounter.
• The Deccan states, joined hands to wage the
great ba le against their common enemy
Vijayanagar.
- The ba le was fought at Talikota or
Rakshasi-Tangadi in January 1565 in which
Ramaraya, in spite of his old age,
personally commanded the forces along
with his cousins and brothers.
Hence C is the correct answer.
Q75. When Akbar besieged the Fort of Chi oor,
who among the following defended it for four
months?
(a) Uday Singh
(b) Rana Pratap
(c) Bahman Shah
(d) Jaimal
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The ruler of Mewar, Rana Uday Singh, put up
a great fight before losing Chi oor, which was
conquered by Akbar a er a siege of six
months.
Q76. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
(a) Lord Wellesley set up the first three Indian
Universi es
(b) Lord Dalhousie introduced telegraph in India
(c) Lord Ripon introduced a system of local self-
government both for towns and country-side
areas
(d) Lord Curzon presided over the Delhi Durbar of
1903
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The three universi es of Calcu a, Madras and
Bombay came into existence in 1857 during
Lord Canning. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• Lord Dalhousie was credited with the
introduc on of telegraph in India. Calcu a and
Agra were connected by telegraph.
• Lord Ripon is known for introducing the Local
Self Government in 1882.
- His scheme of local self-government
developed the Municipal ins tu ons
which had been growing up in the country
ever since India was occupied by the Bri sh
Crown.
• The Delhi Durbar was held twice more in 1903
and 1911 to proclaim first King Edward VII and
then King George V as Emperor of India.
However, it was the 1903 Delhi Durbar
presided over by Viceroy of India Lord Curzon.
Q77. Which one of the following is the correct
chronological sequence of the given dynas es of
Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Sayyids – Khaljis – Lodis – Tughlaqs
(b) Khaljis – Tughlaqs – Sayyids – Lodis
(c) Khaljis – Sayyids – Lodis – Tughlaqs
(d) Tughlaqs – Khaljis – Sayyids – Lodis
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Five dynas es ruled over the Delhi Sultanate
sequen ally: the Mamluk or Slave dynasty
(1206–1290), the Khalji dynasty (1290–1320),
the Tughlaq dynasty (1320–1414), the Sayyid
 Previous year questions with solutions | 44
dynasty (1414–1451), and the Lodi dynasty
(1451–1526).
Q78. Consider the following statements:
According to the Mountba en Plan
1. The Union of India and Pakistan were to be
granted freedom not later than June 1948.
2. The Legisla ve Assembly of Sindh was to
decide whether it wanted to join the
Cons tuent Assembly of India or not.
3. Baluchistan was to decide whether it wanted
to stay with the Indian Union or become
separate.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
In May 1947, Mountba en came up with a plan
under which he proposed that the provinces be
declared independent successor states and then
be allowed to choose whether to join the
cons tuent assembly or not. This plan was called
the ‘Dickie Bird Plan’. The important provisions of
this plan were:
• Bri sh India was to be par oned into two
dominions – India and Pakistan.
• The date for the transfer of power was to be
August 15, 1947. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• The princely states were given the choice to
either remain independent or accede to India
or Pakistan. The Bri sh suzerainty over these
kingdoms was terminated.
• The legisla ve assembly of Sind would decide
whether to join the Indian cons tuent
assembly or not. It decided to go to Pakistan.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
• A referendum was to be held on NWFP (North-
Western Fron er Province) to decide which
dominion to join. NWFP decided to join
Pakistan while Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
boyco ed and rejected the referendum. There
is no such choice for Baluchistan. Hence
statement 3 is not correct.
Q79. In the year 1919, what was the reason for
Mahatma Gandhi to warn the Viceroy that a
countrywide Satyagraha would be launched?
(a) He wanted the Government to withdraw the
Rowla Act immediately
(b) He was forcing the Bri sh rulers to be sensi ve
to the Khilafat Movement
(c) He wanted the Government to abolish the
Zamindari System to alleviate the miseries of
peasants
(d) He was forcing the Bri sh rulers to give at least
the dominion status to India to make Home
Rule possible
Answer: A
Explanation:
Gandhiji wanted the Government to withdraw the
Rowla Act immediately and for this he warned
the Bri sh Government.
• Gandhi started Satyagraha in 1919 against the
Rowla Act because the act laid down
measures which were insul ng and
challenging for the Indians.
Q80. Who among the following introduced the
celebra on of Ganesh Chaturthi and Shivaji
Festivals to bring the Indian society together and
inspire patriotic feelings among the people?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Jyo rao Govind Rao Phule
(d) Mahadev Govind Ranade
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bal Gangadhar transformed the simple Ganesh
Puja performed at home into a social and public
Ganesh fes val.
• He used the Ganesh Chaturthi and Shiv
Jayan (birth anniversary of Shivaji) fes vals
to create unity and a national spirit among the
people.
Q81. Which one of the following is the correct
chronological sequence of the given Bhak
Saints?
 Previous year questions with solutions | 45

(a) Guru Nanak-Tulsidas-Ramdas-Tukaram Answer: B

(b) Tulsidas-Guru Nanak-Tukaram-Ramdas • Buddhacharita is an epic poem in the Sanskrit
(c) Guru Nanak-Tulsidas-Tukaram-Ramdas mahakavya style on the life of Gautama
(d) Tulsidas-Guru Nanak-Ramdas-Tukaram Buddha by Aśvaghoṣa.
Answer: C • Madhyamika sutra, also known as
• Gurū Nānak (15 April 1469 – 22 September Mūlamadhyamakakārikā, is the founda onal
1539), was the founder of Sikhism and is the text of the Madhyamaka school of Mahāyāna
first of the ten Sikh Gurus in the Sikhism Buddhist philosophy. It was composed by the
religion. Indian philosopher Nāgārjuna.
• Tulsidas (1511–1623) was a Ramanandi • The Yoga Sutras was compiled in the early
Vaishnava Hindu saint and poet, renowned for centuries CE, by the sage Patanjali in India
his devo on to the deity Rama. who synthesized and organized knowledge
• He wrote several popular works in Sanskrit and about yoga from much older tradi ons.
Awadhi but is best known as the author of the • Of the nine works that Ramanujacharya
Hanuman Chalisa and of the epic wrote, Vedartha Sangraha was the first. It was
Ramcharitmanas, a retelling of the Sanskrit in fact a discourse that he gave in Tirumala.
Ramayana based on Rama's life in the The tle can be translated as 'Essence of the
vernacular Awadhi. meaning of the Vedas.
• Sant Tukaram Maharaj (1600 - 1650) was a • Hence, option B is the correct answer.
17th-century Marathi poet, Hindu sant (saint),
popularly known as Tuka, Tukobaraya, Tukoba Q83. Match List-I. (Historical Sites) with List-II
in Maharashtra.[4] He was a Sant of Varkari (State) and select the correct answer using the
sampradaya (Marathi-Vaishnav tradi on) - codes given below the lists:
that venerates the god Vithoba - in LIST I (Historical Site) LIST II (State)
Maharashtra A. Shore Temple 1. Karnataka
• Swami Ramdas (born Vittal Rao on 10 April B. Bhimbetka 2. Tamil Nadu
1884) was an Indian saint, philosopher, C. Kesava Temple 3. Kerala
philanthropist and pilgrim. Swami Ramdas (Hoysala
became a wandering asce c in his late 30s and Monument)
later established Anandashram in Kanhangad, D. Hampi 4. Madhya Pradesh
Kerala. 5. Rajasthan
Code:
Q82. Match List-I. (Persons) with List-II (Writings) A B C D
and select the correct answer using the codes (a) 3 5 2 1
given below the lists: (b) 2 4 1 1
LIST I (Persons) LIST II (Wri ngs) (c) 3 4 2 2
A. Asvaghosha 1. Buddha Charita (d) 2 5 1 4
B. Nagarjuna 2. Madhyamika Answer: B
Sutra • The Shore Temple (c. 725 AD) is a complex of
C. Patanjali 3. Vedanta Sangraha temples and shrines that overlooks the shore
D. Ramanuja 4. Yogasutra of the Bay of Bengal. It is located in
Code: Mahabalipuram, about 60 kilometres (37 mi)
A B C D south of Chennai in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 4 3 1 2 • The Bhimbetka rock shelters are an
(b) 1 2 4 3 archaeological site located in the Raisen
(c) 4 2 1 3 District in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
(d) 1 3 4 2
 Previous year questions with solutions | 46

• Chennakeshava Temple, also referred to as the Satpura Range of Madhya Pradesh.

Keshava, Kesava or Vijayanarayana Temple of Hence, B is matched with 3.
Belur, is a 12th-century Hindu temple in the • Pocharam Wildlife Sanctuary is a forest and
Hassan district of Karnataka. wildlife sanctuary located 15 km from Medak
• Hampi or Hampe, also referred to as the and 115 km from Hyderabad, Telangana. At
Group of Monuments at Hampi, is a UNESCO the me of exam, the Sanctuary was located
World Heritage Site located in Hampi town, in Andhra Pradesh. Hence, C is matched with
Vijayanagara district, east-central Karnataka. 1.
• Hence, correct answer is B. • Sharavathi Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected
wildlife sanctuary in the Western Ghats of
Q84. Which country among the following is the Karnataka. Hence, D is matched with 2.
biggest producer of cotton?
(a) China Q86. Match List-I (Produce) with List-II (Major
(b) India Producer State) and select the correct answer
(c) Indonesia using the code given below the lists:
(d) United States of America List-I (Produce) List-II (Major
Answer: A/B Producer State)
• Different sources cite India or China as the A. Rubber 1. Andhra Pradesh
biggest co on producers in the world. B. Soyabean 2. Tamil Nadu
• According to FAO, India and China both are C. Groundnut 3. Madhya Pradesh
the biggest co on producers in the world. D. Wheat 4. Kerala
Their rela ve posi on is subject to change 5. Uttar Pradesh
every year. Code:
A B C D
Q85. Match List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary) with List-II (a) 4 1 2 5
(State) and select the correct answer using the (b) 5 3 1 4
code given below the lists: (c) 4 3 1 5
List-I (Wildlife List-II (Host Country) (d) 5 1 2 4
Sanctuary) Answer: C
A. Bhitar Kanika 1. Andhra Pradesh The sta s cs of state-wise produc on of different
B. Pachmarhi 2. Karnataka crops in 2004 was different from what it is today.
C. Pocharam 3. Madhya Pradesh Thus, data presented here is the latest data
D. Sharavathi 4. Orissa available.
5. Uttar Pradesh • Natural rubber is cul vated in 16 states in
Code: India. With over 600,000 hectares, Kerala tops
A B C D rubber cul va on, followed by Tripura with
(a) 4 2 3 1 over 85,038 hectares under planta on.
(b) 1 3 5 2 Hence, A is matched with 4.
(c) 4 3 1 2 • The major soyabean growing states are
(d) 1 2 5 3 Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan,
Answer: C Karnataka, and Telangana. Hence, B is
• Bhitarkanika Na onal Park is a 145 km2 large matched with 3.
na onal park in northeast Kendrapara district • Groundnut producing States are led by
in Odisha. Hence, A is matched with 4. Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and
• Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is a non-use Maharashtra. Hence, C is matched with 1.
conserva on area and biosphere reserve in
 Previous year questions with solutions | 47

• U ar Pradesh is the largest wheat producer • The Bahamas, officially the Commonwealth of
in India, followed very closely by Madhya The Bahamas, is a country within the Lucayan
Pradesh. Hence, D is matched with 5. Archipelago of the West Indies in the North
Atlan c Ocean. Hence, A is matched with 3.
Q87. Consider the following statements: • Belize is a Caribbean country on the north-
1. In India, intensity of cropping is high in the eastern coast of Central America. Hence, B is
States of the peninsular plateau. most appropriately matched with 2.
2. In India, the States of Punjab and Haryana • Macedonia is a geographical and historical
have the highest propor on of the net sown region of the Balkan Peninsula in Southeast
area to total geographical area. Europe. Hence, C is matched with 1.
3. South-west Monsoon season is termed as the • Gabon, officially the Gabonese Republic, is a
Kharif season of crops. country on the west coast of Central Africa.
Which of the statements given above are correct? Hence, D is matched with 4.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 Q89. Going from the West of the United States of
(c) 1 and 3 America to its East, which one of the following is
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the correct sequence of the given major
Answer: A American ci es?
• In India, cropping intensity is higher in the (a) Houston-Los Angeles-San Francisco-New York
States of Northern Plains as compared to (b) San Francisco-New York-Houston-Los Angeles
States in peninsular plateau. Various reasons (c) Houston-New York-San Francisco-Los Angeles
like fer le soil, plain topography, perennial (d) San Francisco-Los Angeles-Houston-New York
rivers etc. are the reasons for this. Hence, Answer: D
statement 1 is incorrect.
• In Punjab & Haryana, net sown area is around
80% of the total area of the State, which is
much higher than the other States. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
• South west monsoon is associated with the
Kharif cropping season. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Q88. Match List-I (Country) with List-II (Loca on)
and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists:
List-I (Country) List-II (Loca on)
A. Bahamas 1. Europe
Q90. Match List-1 (Beach Resort) with List-II
B. Belize 2. North America
(State) and select the correct answer using the
C. Macedonia 3.North Atlan c Ocean
codes given below the Lists:
D. Gabon 4. Africa
List-I (Beach Resort) List-II (State)
5. South America
A. Digha 1. Kerala
Code:
B. Covelong 2. West Bengal
A B C D
C. Cherai 3. Maharashtra
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 2 5 4 D. Murud-Janjira 4. Tamil Nadu
(c) 3 2 1 4 Code:
(d) 1 4 5 2 A B C D
Answer: C (a) 2 4 1 3
 Previous year questions with solutions | 48

(b) 3 1 4 2 (e) The Himalayas are wide in Kashmir and

(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Answer: A
• Digha is a seaside resort town in the state of
West Bengal. Hence, A is matched with 2.
• Covelong Beach is actually Kovalam beach
that is located on the coast of the Bay of
Bengal near a village named Covelong,
Chennai. Hence, B is matched with 4.
• Cherai beach is located in Kochi Taluk, a
suburb of the city of Kochi, in the state of
Kerala. Hence, C is matched with 1.
• Murud-Janjira is the local name of a famous
fort and tourist spot situated on an island just
off the coastal town/city of Murud, in the
Raigad district of Maharashtra. Hence, D is
matched with 3.
Q91. Where are the maximum numbers of major
ports located in India?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Kerala
(c) Goa
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: D
• Tamil Nadu has three major ports located in
its territory: Chennai port, Kamarajar Port
(Ennore) and Chidambaranar Port (Tu corin).
Q92. Which one of the following is not a tributary
of the river Godavari?
(a) Koyna
(b) Manjra
(c) Pranhita
(d) Wardha
Answer: A
The Koyna River is a tributary of the Krishna River.
become narrow towards the East
Answer: A
• The height of eastern Himalayas is not lower
than of the western half. In fact, highest peaks
of Mt. Everest & Kanchenjunga etc. are
located in the eastern half. Hence, option A is
the correct answer.
• Rest three statements are correct.
Q94. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?
(a) Spring tides occur on the full moon day
(b) Neap des occur on the new moon day only
(c) The West Coast of India experiences des four
mes a day
(d) Tides do not occur in the gulfs
Answer: A
• Spring des occur on full moon and new moon
days. Hence, op on A is the correct answer.
• Neap des occur near the me when the
Moon and the Sun are in quadrature. Hence,
option B is incorrect.
• West coast of India experiences des twice a
day.
• Tides do occur in Gulfs as well.
Q95. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched.
City River
(a) Ahmedabad : Sabarma
(b) Hyderabad : Musi
(c) Lucknow : Gomti
(d) Surat : Narmada
Answer: D
Surat is located on the banks of Tap river. Hence,
option D is the correct answer.

Q93. Which one of the following is not a correct Q96. Match List-I (Famous Place) with List-II
statement? (Country) and select the correct answer using the
(b) The height of the Western half of the codes given below the lists:
Himalayas is greater than that of the Eastern List-I (Famous Place) List-II (Country)
half. A. Alexandria 1. Turkey
(c) The Himalayas are young fold mountains B. Blackpool Pleasure 2. Great Britain
(d) The Shivalik ranges are made of Beach
unconsolidated river deposits C. Constan nople 3. Italy
 Previous year questions with solutions | 49

D. Florence 4. Greece • Kaziranga Na onal Park is a home to sloth

5. Egypt bear and hoolock gibbon. Hence, statement 2
Code: is also correct.
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2 Q98. Match List-I (Ins tute) with List-II (Location)
(b) 5 2 1 3 and select the correct answer using the code
(c) 1 2 4 3 given below the lists:
(d) 5 3 1 2 List-I (Institute)
Answer: B A. Indian Ins tute of Public Administra on
• Alexandria is a historical city located on the B. V.V. Giri Na onal Labour Ins tute
Mediterranean coast of Egypt. Hence, A is C. National Ins tute of Financial Management
matched with 5. D. National Law School of India University
• Blackpool Pleasure Beach is an amusement List-II (Loca on)
park situated on Blackpool's South Shore, in 1. Fardiabad
the county of Lancashire, North West 2. Bangalore
England. Hence, B is matched with 2. 3. NOIDA
• Constan nople was the capital of the Roman 4. Mumbai
Empire, and later, the Eastern Roman Empire 5. Delhi
(also known as the Byzan ne Empire), the Code:
La n Empire (1204–1261), and the O oman A B C D
Empire (1453–1922). Officially renamed (a) 1 2 4 3
Istanbul in 1930, the city is today the largest (b) 5 3 1 2
city and financial centre of the Republic of (c) 1 3 4 2
Turkey (1923–present). It remains the largest (d) 5 2 1 3
city in Europe. Hence, C is matched with 1. Answer: B
• Florence is a city in Central Italy. Hence, D is Explanation:
matched with 3. Institutes Headquarters
Indian Institute of Public Delhi
Q97. Consider the following statements: Administration
1. Kaziranga Na onal Park is a World Heritage V. V. Giri National Labour Noida
Site recognized by the UNESCO. Institute
2. Kaziranga Na onal Park is a home to sloth National Ins tute of Financial Faridabad
bear and hoolock gibbon. Management
Which of the statements given above is/are National Law School of India Mumbai
correct? University
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q99. Where is the Holy Shrine of Imam Ali in
(c) Both 1 and 2
Najaf located?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Saudi Arabia
Answer: C
(b) Iraq
• Kaziranga Na onal Park is located in the
(c) Iran
Golaghat and Nagaon districts of the state of
(d) Kuwait
Assam.
Answer: B
• The park, which hosts two-thirds of the
Explanation:
world's great one-horned rhinoceroses, is a
UNESCO World Heritage Site. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 50
• Imam Ali Shrine, the holiest site of Shia
Muslims and one of the most important
sites of Najaf. Najaf is located in Iraq.
Q100. Why was the region of Darfur of Sudan in
news recently?
(a) Americans bombed the terrorist training
camps set up over there by the Janaweed
mili amen of Sudan
(b) Thousands of black African civilians were
killed or displaced by the Janaweeds who
are supported by the Arab-dominated
Sudan's Government
(c) Bird flu started from there
(d) A dam over the river Blue Nile was swept
away killing thousands of people
Answer: B
Explanation:
• In 2003, Sudanese government forces
launched the first of 2 major offensives
against rebels in Darfur.
• In 2004, the US State Department
accused Sudan of joining its
government military forces with the
Arab Janjaweed (“men with guns on
horses or camels”) militias to target and
carry out genocidal violence against
African tribal villages populated by
Black Africans.
Q101. What was the total expenditure on
educa on both by the Central and State
Governments during the year 2002-03 as an
approximate percentage of the Gross Domes c
Product?
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q102. Consider the following statements with
reference to the United Na ons Organisa on:
1. In the General Assembly of the UNO, no
member-nation has veto power.
2 In the Security Council, all permanent
members must vote in the affirma ve if a
resolu on is to pass.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
• All five permanent members have
exercised the right of veto at one me or
another.
• Decisions of the Security Council on
procedural ma ers shall be made by an
affirmative vote of nine members.
• Decisions of the Security Council on all
other ma ers shall be made by an
affirmative vote of nine members including
the concurring votes of the permanent
members
Q103. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Census 2001 of India:
1. For the first me, the country has
witnessed a faster growth in female
 Previous year questions with solutions | 51

literary compared to that of males during Answer: A

the decade 1991-2001. Explanation
2. During the decade 1991-2001, the rural- Railway Zone Headquarter
urban literacy gap con nued to diverge East-Central Railway Hajipur
Which of the statement given above is/are North-Western Railway Jaipur
correct? North-Central Railway Allahabad
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(Prayagraj)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C South-Western Railway Hubli
Explanation:
• As per the Census 2001, The literacy rate
recorded an increase of 13.17 percentage Q105. Consider the following statements:
points to from 1991 to 2001, the highest 1. The average popula on density of India is
increase in any one decade. between 600-700 persons per square
• During the decade the 1991-2001, rural- kilometer.
urban literacy gap con nued to diverge: 2. 2002-2007 is the dura on of the Tenth
o The rate of growth of literacy in the Five-Year Plan.
decade ending 2001 has been 3. Installed electricity genera on capacity in
higher in the rural areas, at 14.75 India is in excess of 2 lakh Megawa .
per cent as compared to the 7.2 per Which of the statements given above is/are
cent increase in urban areas. correct?
Despite these improvements (a) 1 and 2
literacy in urban areas was 80.3 per (b) 2 only
cent and that in rural areas 59.4 per (c) 1 and 3
cent. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: As the ques on is based on latest trends,
students are advised to prepare the latest trends
Q104. Match List-I (Railway Zone) with List-II related to important parameters (Like GPD,
Infla on, Electricity genera on etc.) for the
(Headquarters) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists: examina on.
Explanation:
List-I (Railway Zone)
A. East-Central Railway • As per the latest Data of the government for
B. North-Western Railway July 2022, Total Installed electricity genera on
C. North-Central Railway of India is 4,03,760 MW.
D. South-Western Railway • Tenth Five Year Plan was implemented during
List-II (Headquarters) the dura on of 2002-2007 with following
1. Hubli targets:
2. Allahabad o Attain 8% GDP growth per year.
3. Hajipur o Reduc on of poverty rate by 5% by
4. Jabalpur 2007.
5. Jaipur o Providing gainful and high-quality
Code: employment at least to the addi on to
A B C D the labour force.
(a) 3 5 2 1 o Reduc on in gender gaps in literacy
(b) 2 1 4 5 and wage rates by at least 50% by 2007.
(c) 3 1 2 5 o 20-point program was introduced.
(d) 2 5 4 1
 Previous year questions with solutions | 52

o Target growth: 8.1% – growth 3. M.S. Swaminathan

achieved: 7.7%. 4. Satyajit Ray
o The Tenth Plan was expected to follow Select the correct answer using the codes
a regional approach rather than given below:
sectoral approach to bring down Codes:
regional inequali es. (a) 1 and 2
o Expenditure of ₹43,825 crore (US$5.5 (b) 3 and 4
billion) for tenth five years. (c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q106. Match List-I (Ins tute) with List-II (City) Answer: C
and select the correct answer using the codes Explanation
given below the Lists: Recipient of Bharat Ratan Year
List-I (Institute) Award
A. Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth Satyajit Ray 1992
B. Maharishi Sandipani Rashtriya Veda Gulzarilal Nanda 1997
Vidya Prathishthan
Amratya Sen 1999
C. Central Ins tute of Indian Languages
D. Central Ins tute of English and Foreign
Language Q108. Match List-I (Outstanding Sports persons
List-II (City) at the Athens Olympics) with List-II (Country) and
1. Hyderabad select the correct answer using the codes given
2. Varanasi below the Lists :
3. Mysore List-I (Outstanding Sports persons at the
4. Tirupa Athens Olympics)
5. Ujjain A. Michael Phelps
Code: B. Ian Thorpe
A B C D C. Yulia Nesterenko
(a) 2 3 1 5 D. Nicolas Massu
(b) 4 5 3 1 List-II (Country)
(c) 2 5 3 1 1. Belarus
(d) 4 3 1 5 2. United States of America
Answer: B 3. Australia
Explanation: 4. Chile
5. Sweden
Institutes City
Codes:
Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth Tirupati
A B C D
Maharishi Sandipani Rashtriya Ujjain (a) 2 4 1 3
Veda Vidya Prathishthan (b) 1 3 5 4
Central Ins tute of Indian Mysore (c) 2 3 1 4
Languages (d) 1 4 5 3
Central Ins tute of English and Hyderabad Answer: C
Foreign Language Explanation
Athlete Country Event
Michael Phelp United Swimming
Q107. Who among the following are the Bharat
States of
Ratna recipients?
1. Amartya Sen America
2. Gulzari Lal Nanda Ian Thorpe Australia Swimming
 Previous year questions with solutions | 53

Yulia Nesterenko Belarus Athlete (d) 4 2 1 3

Nicolas Massu Chile T ennis Answer: D
Explanation
Q109. Who won the 100-metre race for men in Person Profession
the Athens Olympics in August, 2004? Maria Sharapova T ennis
(a) Maurice Greene Aung San Suu Kyi Myanmar
(b) Jus ne Gatlin Politician
(c) Asafa Powell Asma Jahangir Pakistan
(d) Francis Obekwelu Human Right
Answer: B Activist
Explanation
Norah Jones American
• Justine Gatlin has won the Gold Medal for
Men’s 100 metre race for men in Athens Singer
Olympics 2004.
Q112. Match List-I (Author) with List-II (Book) and
Q110. Who among the following Indian film select the correct answer using the codes given
directors/actors was honoured with the Order of below the Lists:
the Bri sh Empire (OBE) in year 2004? List-I (Author)
(a) Naseeruddin Shah A. Bill Clinton
(b) Amitabh Bachchan B. Henry Kissinger
(c) Shekhar Kapoor C. Nelson Mandela
(d) Om Puri D. Hillary Clinton
Answer: D List-II (Book)
Explanation 1. Between Hope and History
• Om Puri has honorary Officer of the 2. Living History
Order of the British Empire (OBE) in 3. Diplomacy
2004 for his contributions to the British film 4. Long Walk to Freedom
industry. Codes:
A B C D
Q111. Match List-I (Dis nguished Women) with (a) 2 4 3 1
List-II (Known As) and select the correct answer (b) 1 3 4 2
using the codes given below the Lists: (c) 2 3 4 1
List-I (Distinguished Women) (d) 1 4 3 2
A. Maria Sharapova Answer: D
B. Aung San Suu Kyi Explanation
C. Asma Jahangir Book Author
D. Norah Jones Between Hope and History Bill Clinton
List-II (Known As) Living History Hillary
1. Human rights ac vist Clinton
2. Political leader
Diplomacy Nelson
3. Singer
4. Sportsperson Mandela
Codes: Long Walk to Freedom Henry
A B C D Kissinger
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
 Previous year questions with solutions | 54

Q113. Match List-1 (Dis nguished Women) with categorised India as a less indebted country for the
List-II (Known As/Area) and select the correct year 2002.
answer using the codes given below the Lists: Reason (R): During the last decade, India’s
List-I (Dis nguished Women) outstanding external debt has considerable
A. Shanta Sinha reduced.
B. Kalpana Lajmi (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
C. Romila Thapar correct explanation of A.
D. Radha Reddy (b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not
List-II (Known As/Area) the correct explana on of A.
1. Film Direc on (c) A is true but R is false.
2. Community Leadership (d) A is false but R is true
3. Dancer Answer: Latest Edi on of the Reports released by
4. Historian Interna onal Organiza ons are important for the
5. Business-woman examina on, in these reports India Specific
Codes: Findings are the most important for the
A B C D examina on.
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 5 1 Q115. Consider the following statements:
(c) 2 3 4 1 India had plan holiday during 1966-69 due to
(d) 4 1 5 3 1. Indo-Pakistan conflict in 1965.
Answer: D 2. Severe drought for two successive years.
Explanation Which of the statements given above is/are
Women Area correct?
Shanta Sinha Community Leadership (a) 1 only
She is an Indian anti-child (b) 2 only
labour activist. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
She is the founder of
Answer: A
Mamidipudi
Explanation:
Venkatarangaiya
• The government had to declare "Plan
Foundation Holidays" (1966-67, 1967-68, and 1968-69).
Kalpana Lajmi Film Director The Sino-Indian War of 1962 and the Indo-Pak
She was an Indian film War of 1965, which caused the Third Five Year
director, producer and Plan to fail, were the primary causes of the
screenwriter. plan holidays. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Romila Thapar Historians • During 1966-67, there was the problem of
She is an Indian historian. drought but it was not the reason behind the
Her principal area of plan holiday. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
study is ancient India, a • Therefore, A is the right answer.
field in which she is pre-
eminent. Q116. Consider the following statements:
Radha Reddy Indian Kuchipudi Dancer 1. The members of the Employees' Provident
Fund and exempted Provident Funds are
Q114. Asser on (A): In its Global Development eligible for the Employees' Deposit-Linked
Finance Report 2004, the World Bank has Insurance Scheme.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 55
2. Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995 was
introduced for the industrial workers.
3. Coverage under the Employees' Provident
Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act is
restricted to establishments employing 20 or
more persons.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The members of the Employees' Provident
Fund and exempted Provident Funds are
eligible for the Employees' Deposit-Linked
Insurance Scheme. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• The Employee's Pension Scheme (EPS) was
introduced in the year 1995 with the main
aim of helping employees in the organised
sector. All employees who are eligible for the
Employees Provident Fund (EPF) scheme will
also be eligible for EPS. Hence, statement 2
is incorrect.
• Coverage under the Employees' Provident
Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act is
restricted to establishments employing 20 or
more persons. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
• Therefore, C is the right answer.
Q117. Direc ons: The following items consist of
two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explanation of the Asser on (A).
Select your answers to these items using the
Codes given. below and mark your answer-sheet
accordingly
Asser on (A): In the organiza onal structure of
the modern companies, the trend is towards wider
span of control.
Reason (R): Narrow span of control discourages
autonomy.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Span of control or span of management is
a dimension of organiza onal design
measured by the number of subordinates
that report directly to a given manager.
• This concept affects organiza on design in
a variety of ways, including speed of
communication flow, employee
motiva on, repor ng rela onships, and
administra ve overhead. Span of
management has been part of the
historical discussion regarding the most
appropriate design and structure of
organiza ons.
• A small, or narrow, span of control results
in each manager supervising a small
number of employees, while a wide span of
management occurs when more
subordinates report directly to a given
manager.
• A small span of management would make
it necessary to have more managers and
more layers of management to oversee the
same number of opera ve employees than
would be necessary for an organiza on
using a wider span of management. The
narrower span of management would
result in more layers of management and
slower communica ons between lower-
level employees and top level managers of
the firm. Recent moves to downsize
organiza ons and to eliminate
unnecessary posi ons has resulted in
many organiza ons moving to wider
spans of management and the elimina on
of layers of middle-level managers.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 56
• The trend in recent years has been to
move toward wider spans of control to
reduce costs, speed decision making,
increase flexibility and empower
employees. Therefore, asser on is
correct.
• A narrow span of control also discourages
autonomy among employees since every
employee is closely guided by a supervisor
since every supervisor has very few
subordinates to supervise. Therefore,
reason is also correct.
• Hence the correct answer will be op on A.
Q118. Direc ons: The following items consist of
two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explana on of the Asser on (A).
Select your answers to these items using the
Codes given. below and mark your answer-sheet
accordingly
Asser on (A): Unity of command cannot always
be strictly applied in prac ce.
Reason (R): Workers should report to different
supervisors for different aspects or tasks technical,
financial, administra ve etc.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Unity of command: An employee should
receive orders from only one superior as
shown in the figure below.
• This principle is against the Taylor’s
func onal foremanship where mul ple
superiors oversee the subordinate. As per
Fayol if there is no unity of command it will
lead to conflict as subordinate will never
know whom to obey. Adop on of this
principle leads to clarity about work
whereas viola on will lead to confusion
about what to do and what not to do.
• However, Unity of command cannot
always be strictly applied in prac ce,
because no manager has all the required
skills. For example, a marke ng manager
will not have the knowledge regarding the
work done in the produc on department.
Therefore, if an employee of marke ng
employee has a doubt regarding
production department, in that case, the
employee is bound to visit the produc on
manager and that is a grave viola on of
unity of command. Therefore, asser on is
correct.
• Moreover, globaliza on has forced the
Indian companies to create mul ple
business divisions, and therefore workers
should report to different supervisors for
different aspects or tasks technical,
financial, administra ve etc. and that will
lead to a higher specializa on in the work
profile of different employees. Therefore,
reason is also correct.
• Hence the correct answer will be op on A.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 57

Q119. Direc ons: The following items consist of • ERP so ware can be used by variety of
two statements, one labelled the 'Asser on (A) companies, ERP so ware has expanded to
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to include nearly all types of businesses.
examine these two statements carefully and Typically, each company will have its own
decide if the Asser on (A) and the Reason (R) are specific reasons to implement an ERP
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) solution. Therefore, assertion is incorrect.
is a correct explanation of the Asser on (A). • he components of an ERP system depend
Select your answers to these items using the on the organiza on's needs. However,
Codes given. below and mark your answer-sheet there are key features that each ERP
accordingly should include. Generally, packages
include finance, human resource, logis cs
Asser on (A): Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) and manufacturing, supply chain
is useful in a manufacturing company. It does not management, and customer rela onship
find application in service industry. management and ERP also streamlines
Reason (R): Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) various components of the Supply chain,
enables a high level of interac on and therefore the reason is correct.
coordina on along the supply chain. • Hence the correct answer will be op on D.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explana on of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explana on of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Enterprise resource planning (ERP) is a
platform companies use to manage and
integrate the essen al parts of their
businesses. Many ERP so ware
applica ons are cri cal to companies
because they help them implement
resource planning by integra ng all the
processes needed to run their companies
with a single system.
• ERP applica ons also allow the different
departments to communicate and share
informa on more easily with the rest of
the company. It collects informa on about
the ac vity and state of different divisions,
making this informa on available to other
parts, where it can be used produc vely.
• An ERP so ware system can also integrate
planning, purchasing inventory, sales,
marke ng, finance, human resources, and
more.
 Previous year questions with solutions | 58

If you find an error in any one of the underlined

Q120. Consider the following statements
parts (a, b, c), indicate your response by
concerning United Arab Emirates:
blackening the le er related to that part in the
1. Oman is one of the seven Emirates which form Answer Sheet provided. If a sentence has no
the United Arab Emirates.
error. indicate this by blackening (d) which
2. Dubai is the capital of United Arab Emirates.
stands for "No error".
3. Fishing and tourism are the key industries of
United Arab Emirates. ii. Errors may belong to grammar, usage or idiom.
Which of these statements is/are correct? Examples P and Q have been solved for you
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only P. (a) My friend and myself
(c) 2 and 3 (b) Study together
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) During holidays
Answer: B (d) No error
Explanation:
• The United Arab Emirates is an elec ve Q. (a) The rice from Dehradun is
monarchy formed from a federa on of seven (b) More superior
emirates. (c) To that of Saharanpur
• UAE’s seven emirates are Abu Dhabi, Dubai, (d) No error
Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al
Khaimah and Fujairah. Hence statement 1 is Explanation: The correct answer for P is le er 'd'
incorrect. because the sentence has no mistake in it. The
• Abu Dhabi is the capital city of Dubai. Hence correct answer for Q is 'b' because the mistake in
statement 2 is incorrect. the sentence is in the part carrying the le er 'b'.
• Fishing and tourism are the key industries of Mrupal.org
United Arab Emirates. Hence statement 3 is Q1. (a) Choose only
correct. (b) Such friends
Hence option B is the correct answer. (c) That you can trust
(d) No error

Q2. (a) While he was digging sand

(b) a large mass fell
(c) and buried him completely
(d) No error

PART- A Q3. (a) The book is well printed and a rac vely
bound
SPOTTING ERRORS (b) making together
(c) an a rac ve volume
Direc ons (for the next Five items) : (d) No error
i. In this sec on a number of sentences are
given. Each sentence has three underlined Q4. (a) A li le younger
parts. indicated by (a), (b) and (c). Read each (b) to myself we, both were
sentence to find out whether there is an error. (c) devoted to cricket and boa ng
(d) No error

Q5. (a) He had no sooner

(b) arrived than
 Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 59

What is the 6-Step Formula?

Set a
clear goal #1
Always remember that if you are not sure about WHY you want to take certain actions, it is
most likely that the action won’t yield results. Even if it does, you will not be satisfied with
the result. Same is the case with APFC exam, you need to have the clarity in your mind that
why you wish to prepare, is it because of money & power, prestige, job security, social
service or is it the postings in metro cities that motivate you to take this exam. Whatever
may be the factor, you have to have your goal crystal clear to be always motivated & act
consistently to get success.

#2 Understand
the exam
The syllabus and previous year questions are like the 2 headlights of your car of
preparation. You miss one of these and your car will meet with an accident, let me
guarantee you this right here! The biggest blunder aspirants like you commit is that they do
not define the scope of the syllabus of the examination and prepare under the impression
that anything and everything can be asked in the examination which is even remotely
related to the syllabus! Hell no! This is NOT the case. Download and print a copy of the
syllabus and then do the same for previous year questions (link has been provided above).
Go through the syllabus atleast 10 times and then go through the previous year questions
(year wise) and see for yourself what are the important topics and in what depth they need
to be studied for the examination. Believe me, more than 90% of the so-called sincere
aspirants do not do this.
 Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 60

Shortlist
Resources #3
Based on step 2 above, now is the time to shortlist your study sources - be it coaching
material, books, websites, magazines, or the like! And remember, once you prepare a list of
the resources that you are going to follow, DO NOT get swayed by new material that keeps
flooding the market through telegram, Facebook, websites, advertisements, etc! Keep your
head down and focus on completing your study sources. Yes, once you are done with your
sources, you can move to a secondary source but not before that!

Plan a
#4 Strategy
This is a very important step - you must plan a strategy for yourself. This strategy is for ‘you’
and ‘you’ alone. Do not compare your strategy with others, some like studying early in the
morning, some like to burn the midnight oil, some can sit at a stretch for 6 hours, some
study for 2 hours and take a break and then study again. Some study on all 7 days, some
study for 5 days and take a 2-day break. Whatever! The point or the goal is to have a
strategy that ‘works’ for ‘you’. It is not meant to earn shower of praises from your parents,
friends or peers!

Execute with
consistency #5
 Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 61

Ah consistency! The ever-elusive thing! The secret to developing consistency is to make

‘micro easy targets’. How? Let's compare 2 situations. Student A makes a plan that he will
study 8 hours everyday starting tomorrow and sets a goal for himself for the next day -
cover 50 pages of current affairs magazine, 20 pages of constitution of India from a book,
50 questions of arithmetical reasoning and read 20 pages of history. He starts his day full of
energy but towards the end of the day finds himself in quite an uncomfortable position
realizing that only 50% of the target has been covered. He is not able to sleep comfortably
that night and gets up the next morning tired and frustrated. Now he has to complete the
pending tasks of Day 1 as well as cover whatever he decided for Day 2 as well! Quite an
uphill task, don’t you think?
On the other hand, Student B makes a plan that he will also study 8 hours a day and sets a
goal of completing 20 pages of current affairs magazine, 10 pages of constitution of India
and 10 questions of arithmetical reasoning. What will happen is that this student will
complete his target ahead of schedule and having done that feel elated, joyful and full of
confidence! This will lead to a good night’s sleep and hence even higher energy for the next
day!
Getting my rhythm? This is how you make ‘micro and ‘easy’ targets and achieve them daily
and move ahead with consistency.

Develop
#6 Faith
Always think from your mind and feel from your heart. If you reverse this sentence, you will
get trapped in ‘emotions’. Being emotional isn’t bad at all, it’s good! Getting trapped in
emotions is what is bad! Once you complete step 1-5, you will start to develop faith in
yourself. Have a little trust on your mentors as well, talk to them, mail them, get in touch and
see how they can help you!
After you learn and understand this 6 Step Formula to dominate APFC Exam, you can
literally apply it on any examination you are taking or might take in the future!
The above formula will always help you set a clear goal and plan all your activities around
that one clear goal.
 Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 62

Do you wish to dig in deep to know more about this

6-Step formula and how

YOU can be benefitted
from this?

To get all your answers:

• Scan QR code
• Register for FREE UPSC APFC Domination Workshop
 Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 63

Our Legacy - Our Students

Rank Rank Rank

4
Rank

3 8 10
Mr. Om Prakash Birda Mr. Vidyanta Mr. Gokul Suresh Mr. Bishnu Sharma
UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO

Rank Rank

11
Rank Rank

18 30 32
Mr. Shubham Agarwal Mr. Amit Joy Mr. Animesh Kumar Ms. Nisha Panwar
UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO

Rank Rank Rank Rank

34 40 41 43
Mr. Kapil Gupta Mr. Ashish Yadav Mr. Ashok P Mr. Rajat Singh
UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO

Rank Rank Rank Rank

48 49 52 56
Mr. Vishal Harmalkar Mr. Yash Anand Mr. Kunwar Vikram Mr.Skanda Kumar
UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO

Rank Rank Rank Rank

58 66 67 72
Mr. Banoth Kethan Mr. Abhishek Sisodia Mr. Tarun Aggarwal Mr. Jithin VJ
UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO

Rank Rank Rank Rank

75 79 86 91
Mr. Zaki Anwar Naqvi Mr. Sunny Sahay Mr. Debopam De Mr. Aman Chauhan
UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO
 Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 64

Rank Rank Rank Rank

93 97 98 99
Ms. Divya Joshi Mr. Sunny Sahay Mr. Prashant Srivastava Mr. Krishnachaitanya
UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO

Rank Rank Rank Rank

101 103 107 113
Mr. Jalaj Kashyap Mr. Ishan Mishra Mr. Agrit Tyagi Ms. Rupinder Kaur
UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO

Rank Rank Rank Rank

114 116 119 126
Ms. Anushree Ms. Kiran Chillar Mr. Rahul Shrivastava Mr. Ramraj Meena
UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO

Rank Rank Rank

128 131 135

Mr. Shubham Pathak Mr. UnnikrishnanA K Mr. Maulik Thakkar

UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO UPSC EPFO EO/AO
 Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 65

What Our Toppers have to Say About Us

Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 66
Our 6 step formula to become APFC in EPFO | 67