BASIC LEADERSHIP MANAGEMENT COURSE CL 63-2020

EVALUATION FORM

NAME: _____________________________________ DATE: ______________

Instruction. Encircle the letter that corresponds to the BEST answer.

1. It is an epidermis in the outermost layer of the skin, constantly renew itself.

A. Acne C. Athletes’ Foot

B. Dandruff D. Body Odor

2. Is a deadly disease caused by an infection with Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). AIDS

3. Following are the general principles that must follow to foster good human relation
EXCEPT. BE COURAGEOUS

4. This refers to the established rule of conduct to be followed by military officers and
personnel while assuming their roles as part of the large society. SOCIAL GRACES

5. Rules of good conduct in order not to transgress the rights and interest of others.
PROTOCOL DIPLOMATIQUE

6. The following are the types of values that we find in an organization setting EXCEPT:

A. Individual Values C. Emotional Values

B. Relationship Values D. Organizational Values

7. It is the tendency of a given culture to ascribe particular traits, characteristic and roles
distinctly to men and women. GENDER STEREOTYPING

8. It is the inequality among people in a society bared by several determinants. GENDER

ISSUES

9. It is a process or strategy through which gender perspective are integrated into the
overall operations of an agency. GENDER MAINSTREAMING

10. It is the systematic and sustained inclusion of GAD concerns in the planning,
programming, budgeting, implementing and monitoring processes. GENDER AWARENESS

11. The following are the Element Powers of the State EXCEPT for. POLICE CREDIBILITY

12. It is a graphical processing program that users can type with. MS WORD
13. It is a powerful tool/software application in Microsoft Office that allows you to create
detailed spreadsheets for viewing and collaboration. MS EXCEL

14. It is a practice of using internet information on the World Wide Web, in research.
INTERNET RESEARCH

15. It is the prescribed publication to document prescribing guidance for operations

involving large command and control thereof over a long period of time. STANDING
OPERATING PROCEDURE

16. It is used by coast guard establishment for correspondence addressed to person, with
other governmental agencies, and the Secretary of Department of Transportation (DOTr).
CIVILIAN LETTERS

17. It is the medium for the expeditious dissemination of important matters or amplification
of established forms of regulation. CIRCULARS

18. This directive may be written as a military letter addressed to the individual concerned
through coast guard channels. LETTER ORDERS

19. It is a directives applying to all or a large part of a command and permanent duration
and of such nature as to be readily susceptible to incorporation into established regulations.

A. General Orders C. Military Order

B. Letter Orders D. Special Orders

20. It is a set of instruction in giving the procedures to be followed as a matter of routine.

A. General Orders C. Personnel Action Form (PAF)

B. Letter of Instructions (LOI) D. Standing Operating Procedure
(SOP)

21. It is an information sheet which usually contains official directives as well as official and
unofficial information.

A. Coast Guard Letters C. Daily Bulletin

B. Civilian Letters D. Military Letters

22. It is used to transmit papers from office to office within a headquarters or from section
to section within an office. ROUTING SLIP

23. It is used to request, recommend, direct, or report any personnel for which no other
standard form is required.

A. General Orders C. Personnel Action Form (PAF)

B. Letter of Instructions (LOI) D. Standing Operating Procedure
(SOP)
24. Is a government agency mandated by the Constitution to audit, examine and settle in
accordance with law and regulations all accounts pertaining to the procurement and
receipts of expenditures or uses of funds and property owned or held in trust to the
government. COMMISSION ON AUDIT

25. It is used when a unit or staff offices will request supplies and materials/equipment that
are carries on stock available at the warehouse. REQUISITION ISSUE SLIP (RIS)

26. It is used/utilized for documentation in the issuances of Semi-expendable and Non-

expendable property and equipment also for clearance and transfer of accountability and
responsibility of any designated responsible person entrusted to hold and possess
equipment owned by the government. PROPERTY ACKNOWLEDGEMENT REPORT
(PAR)

27. It is a report submitted by the Inspection Officer/Committee and the Supply and or
Property Custodian on the inspection and acceptance, respectively, of the purchased
supplies/goods/equipment property. INSPECTION AND ACCEPTANCE REPORT (IAR)

28. It is used by the Supply and/or Property Custodian to report all waste materials
previously taken up in the books of accounts as assets or his/her custody so that they may
be properly disposed of and derecognized from the books.

A. Inventory and Inspection Report of C. Property Transfer Report

Unserviceable Property (IIRUP) D. Waste material Report (WMR)
B. Inspection and Acceptance Report (IAR)

29. It is an official document issued by a buyer committing to pay the seller for the sale of
specific products or services to be delivered in the future. DISBURSEMENT VOUCHER

30. It is a form used to have a check made to pay an individual or an organization for
merchandise sold or services rendered.

A. Cash Advance C. Purchase Order

B. Disbursement Voucher D. Work Order

31. The following are the four phases of Government Budgeting Process EXCEPT.
BUDGET PROGRAM

32. Funds centrally allocated and managed headquarters for the procurement in build and
distribution of supplies, materials equipment and services in their respective localities.

A. Centrally Managed Fund C. Fiscal Control

B. Direct Support Funds D. Program Directors
33. Members of the central/functional staff at headquarters responsible for the setting of
objectives, formulation of policy guidelines and monitoring of the implementation of control
programs peculiar to their respective staff responsibilities.

A. Centrally Managed Fund C. Fiscal Control

B. Direct Support Funds D. Program Directors

34. It is the process of summarizing, interpreting and communicating financial transactions

which were classified in the ledger account. ACCOUNTING

35. It is mainly related in identifying, measuring and recording financial transactions.

BOOKKEEPING

36. It covers expenditures for educations, culture, manpower development health services,
social security and welfare and employment, housing and community development and
land distribution.

A. Economic Service C. Social Service

B. General Public Service D. Safety Service

37. It includes amount for communication, roads and other transportation facilities,
agriculture and agrarian and natural resources, water resources, water resources
development and flood control, trade and industry, power and energy and tourism.

A. Economic Service C. Social Service

B. General Public Service D. Safety Service

38. Central Staff Office that supervise, monitor and evaluate the enforcement and
implementation of the international Ship and Port Security Code and other measures to
enhance port and ship security.

A. CG-8 C. CG-9
B. CG-14 D. CG-3

39. It is a written evaluation report that measures the effectivity and efficiency of a Non-
Officer in the performance of his job. EPEM

40. Refers to either optional or compulsory cessation or termination of active service upon
accumulation of minimum years or upon reaching the maximum age limit to render such
service under the specific terms and conditions provided by law, rules and regulations and
other applicable statutes.

A. Service Path C. Retirement

B. Active Service D. Time-in-Grade

41. Based on RA 9993 and its IRR, the PCG may, only at the prescribe date and time,
conduct inspections or audits to verify compliance to certain aspects of vessel
seaworthiness in accordance with applicable safety standards, rules and regulations.
FALSE

42. Upon submission of the Master’s Declaration of Safe Departure, the PCG shall board
the vessel to conduct pre-departure inspection and verification of entries or declarations
therein in areas or ports where the PCG has established its presence. TRUE

43. Private, government or non-government entities/organizations that establish/install Aids

to Navigation (ATON) shall register said ATON with the PCG. As such, PCG shall be
responsible for the maintenance, repair and operation of the same. FALSE

44. In what branch of service the PCG shall coordinate in seizing, holding or preventing
entry and transport of cargoes within waters subject to the jurisdiction of the Philippines that
are illegal and/or deemed threat to the safety and security of life and property? BUREAU
OF CUSTOMS

45. This is a written declaration of assets (i.e., land, vehicles, etc) and liabilities (i.e., loans,
debts, etc), including business and financial interests, of PCG personnel, of his or her
spouse, and of his or her unmarried children under eighteen (18) years old still living in their
parent’s households. SALN

46. This is a sworn written statement of disciplinary infractions allegedly committed by

respondent PCG Uniformed personnel, subscribe by the offended party. COMPLAINT

47. Who are the primarily responsible in enforcing the IMO conventions?

A. IMO C. Ship’s Master

B. Contracting Governments D. Shipping Line Owners

48. What international convention is responsible in laying down comprehensive regime of

law and order in the world's oceans and seas establishing rules governing all uses of the
oceans and their resources?

A. IMO C. STCW
B. SOLAS D. UNCLOS

49. Is it true that all other States have freedom of navigation and overflight in the EEZ, as
well as freedom to lay submarine cables and pipelines?

A. Yes, it is stated in the UNCLOS Convention ‘84

B. No, it is stated in the UNCLOS Convention ‘84
C. It was not clearly stated in the UNCLOS Convention ‘84
D. No provision has been given by the UNCLOS Convention ‘84

50. A list of words used to identify letters in a message transmitted by radio or telephone.

A. Scripts C. Radio Message

B. Phonetic Alphabet D. Morse Code
51. A type of ship or vessel that carries cargo, goods, and materials from one port to
another. GENERAL CARGO SHIP
52. It is a large ocean-going vessel with the extensive on-board facilities for processing
and freezing caught fish. It is also known as a fish processing vessel. FACTORY SHIP
53. Are yachts required for vessel licensing?

A. Yes, only for the yachts that is owned by a Filipino Citizen

B. Yes, only for the yachts that is built in the Philippines
C. No, license is not issued on vessels of three tons or less
D. No, license is not issued on yachts, launches and other craft that are used
exclusively for pleasure and recreation

54. Which of the following requirements should the VSEI Team must be mindful during their
inspection?

A. Ship must be in compliance with the requirement of SOLAS 1/19(f)

B. Inspectors must be wearing ID specially if not wearing their proper uniform
C. Delay and disrupt the ship’s operation for thorough inspection.
D. Inspection Team must meet the crew of the ship if the Master of Ship is not
around

55. Comprehensive inspections done periodically or when gross violations are discovered
in the course of Pre-Departure Inspection.

A. VSEI C. ORE
B. ERE D. PDI

56. Evaluation used to assess the human component of seaworthiness.

A. VSEI C. ORE
B. ERE D. PDI

57. A lighting apparatus capable of generating a light of define light character is installed
atop a tower-type or scaffold-type structure.

A. Lighthouse C. Projector Light

B. Offshore Light D. Range Light

58. It is radio equipment (transmitter, antenna, etc.) for transmitting signals (microwave) for
vessels equipped with radar.

A. Transmitter C. GSP
B. Antenna D. Radar Beacon

59. It is a marine traffic monitoring system established by harbor or port authorities, similar
to air traffic control for aircraft.
 A. Vessel Traffic System C. Waterway’s Traffic System
B. Ship’s Traffic System D. Sea Traffic System

60. Based on the SAR Support Organization who is the overall responsibility for the
development of SAR arrangements and management of operations?

A. PCG C. PN
B. NCWC D. AFP

61. What is the primary pollutant of our seas since man has learned to develop its
potential? OIL

62. This has been known as sink for radioactive waste from the production of nuclear
weapons and electric power.

A. Deep Hole C. Ocean

B. River D. Dumpsite

63. This boom method may be employed in the early stage of spill control when the
discharge rate is low and the effects of wind and current are not significant. ENCIRCLING
64. This implies the capability of a nation to defend itself, and/or deter military aggression.

A. Political Security C. Military Security

B. Environmental Security D. Economic Security

65. A unit of the PCG that maintains a Coastal Community Intelligence Network which
gathers information that is essential in identifying and neutralizing threats to ports, harbors,
vessels and national security.

A. CGSOF C. CGIF
B. CGCRS D. CGIAS

66. The doctrine that allows patrol vessels or warships to close to other vessels (except
other patrol vessels or warships) on the high seas in order to determine nationality and
identity and to board those vessels if there are reasonable grounds for suspecting the a
ships is engaging in piracy, slavery, unauthorized broadcasting, stateless (not registered in
any country) and of the same nationality as the patrol vessels or warships.

A. Right to Board C. Right to Dock

B. Right to Visit D. Right to Search

67. Claim made under international law and is defined as an overwhelming and unexpected
event, subjecting the vessel to loss, or a person onboard the vessel to loss of life, which
causes the vessel to make an unscheduled entry into the territorial waters of another state.
 A. Force Entry C. Hot Pursuit
B. Force Majeure D. Detention

68. It is a belt of sea measured twelve (12) nautical miles seaward from the country’s
baseline as determined in accordance with the 1982 UNCLOS.

A. Territorial Sea C. EEZ

B. Contiguous Zone D. High Sea

69. This refers to an accountable form issued on-site by deputized marine enforcers to the
ship owners/operators/crewmembers with respect to any violation/s or deficiency/ies found
during the conduct of compliance monitoring.

A. Maritime Complaint Receipt C. Maritime Complaint Report

B. Maritime Violation Receipt D. Maritime Violation Report

70. A ship’s condition that means/shows cannot obey the "rules of the road" so that all
other ships must give her the right of way.

A. Not Under Command C. Under Repair

B. No Master of Ship aboard D. In distress

71. A flag hoist that is to be read before another that is flying at the same time may be
described as ____.

A. Superior Position C. First in-line Position

B. Inferior Position D. Last in-line Position

72. Commonly used management tools that improves performance by identifying and
applying best demonstrated practices to operations.

A. Core Competency C. Outsourcing

B. Bench Marking D. Strategic Alliances

73. Agreements between firms in which each commit resources to achieve a common set
of objectives.

A. Core Competency C. Outsourcing

B. Bench Marking D. Strategic Alliances

74. A comprehensive process for determining what a business should become and how it
can best achieve that goal. It appraises the full potential of a business and explicitly links
the business’s objectives to the actions and resources required to achieve them.

A. Strategic Planning C. Outsourcing

 B. Bench Marking D. Strategic Alliances

75. A stimulant or stimulating factor of an action that placed in order for a person to willingly
perform his job.

A. Management C. Motivation
B. Leadership D. Controlling

76. This refers to the strength of a belief that work-related effort will results in completion of
a task.

A. Valence C. Goal
B. Motivation D. Expectancy

77. It is a theory that relates motivation as a self-assessment in order to attain a reward.

A. Valence Expectancy Theory of Motivation

B. Skinner’s Reinforcement Theory
C. McClelland’s Achievement Motivation Theory
D. Maslow Hierarchy Needs Theory

78. It is a major, unpredictable event that threatens to harm an organization and its
stakeholders

A. Crisis C. Net Loss

B. Bankruptcy D. Accident

79. This consists of skills and techniques required to assess, understand, and cope with
any serious situation, especially from the moment it first occurs to the point that recovery
procedures start.

A. Leadership Crisis C. Leadership Skill

B. Management Crisis D. Management Crisis

80. Which of the following must be observed when meeting the media in a news
conference?

A. Talk from the viewpoint of your organization.

B. Respond directly to an indirectly questions.
C. Be a little emotional in giving statements
D. Talk from the viewpoint of the public

81. Which of the following must be observed in composing the press release?

A. Show credibility by using technical terms C. Use the past tense in writing
B. Use jargons for easy understanding D. It must be written in an “pyramid”
style
82. Which of the following are included in the 10 Golden Rules in dealing with the Media?

A. Be speculative. C. Be less accessible

B. Be aware of deadlines. D. Be chatty

83. This theory claims that when people are challenged to meet higher goals, several
things happen.

A. Valence Expectancy Theory of Motivation

B. Skinner’s Reinforcement Theory
C. McClelland’s Achievement Motivation Theory
D. Locke and Latham Goal Setting Theory of Motivation

84. It is a deep proficiency that enables a company to deliver unique value to customers.

A. Core Competency C. Outsourcing

B. Bench Marking D. Strategic Alliances

85. Commonly used management tools that improves performance by identifying and
applying best demonstrated practices to operations.

A. Core Competency C. Outsourcing

B. Bench Marking D. Strategic Alliances

86. It is the highest state of mind of the individual members of unit.

A. Morale C. Esprit-de-Corps
B. Discipline D. Proficiency

87. It is the loyalty to, pride in and the enthusiasm for a unit shown by its members.

A. Morale C. Esprit-de-Corps
B. Discipline D. Proficiency

88. It is the individual or group attitude that prompts obedience to orders and the initiation
of appropriate action in the absence of orders.

A. Morale C. Esprit-de-Corps
B. Discipline D. Proficiency

89. It is the technical, tactical and physical ability of the individual members and the entire
unit in general.

A. Morale C. Esprit-de-Corps
B. Discipline D. Proficiency

90. Which of the following does not shows the benefits of coordination?
 A. Job Satisfaction C. Better Teamwork
B. Job Replication D. Common Understanding

91. When does oral direction is being used?

A. for major detail C. to clarify a given orders

B. in giving detailed instruction D. in a planned event

92. It is a condition found not to be in compliance with the requirements of the relevant
Convention code.

A. Authority C. Detention
B. Deficiency D. Party

93. Intervention taken by the Port State when the condition of the ship or its crew does not
correspond substantially with the applicable convention or codes to ensure that the ship or
persons on board, or without presenting unreasonable threat or harm to the marine
environment.

A. Authority C. Detention
B. Deficiency D. Party

94. What is the meaning of the abbreviate word APCIS?

A. Asean-Pacific Computerized Information System

B. Asean-Pacific Computerized Information System
C. Asia-Pacific Command Information System
D. Asia-Pacific Computerized Information System

95. Are all the waters that fall landward of the baseline, such as lakes, rivers, and
tidewaters.

A. Contiguous Zone C. Internal Waters

B. Continental Shelf D. Territorial Sea

96. It is the outer edge of the territorial seas to a maximum of 24 nautical miles from the
baseline.

A. Contiguous Zone C. Internal Waters

B. Continental Shelf D. Territorial Sea

97. It is a natural seaward extension of a land boundary.

A. Contiguous Zone C. Internal Waters

B. Continental Shelf D. Territorial Sea
98. Declared if winds of 30-60 kph (approximately 16-32 knots) are expected in the locality
in at least 36 hours.

A. Public Storm Warning Signal Nr 1

B. Public Storm Warning Signal Nr 2
C. Public Storm Warning Signal Nr 3
D. Public Storm Warning Signal Nr 4

99. Refers to areas covered by PSWS Nr. 1 or PSWS Nr. 2 and higher which are shown
with corresponding color codes, as provided in PAGASA website.

A. Public Storm Warning Signal Branch

B. Public Storm Warning Signal Division
C. Public Storm Warning Signal Sector
D. Public Storm Warning Signal Unit

100. Raised if winds of greater than 185 kph (approximately 100 knots and above) are
expected in the locality in at least 12 hours.

A. Public Storm Warning Signal Nr 1

B. Public Storm Warning Signal Nr 2
C. Public Storm Warning Signal Nr 3
D. Public Storm Warning Signal Nr 4