A Rigid Link AB is undergoing plane motion a shown in figure.

The velocities
and accelerations of point A and B are non-zero. VBA and ABA are the relative
velocity and acceleration of point B with respect to point A. Which one of the
following is Correct?

(a) VBA has components along and perpendicular to AB

(b) ABA has components along and perpendicular to AB

(c) VBA has only one component perpendicular to AB

B
(d) ABA has only one component perpendicular to AB
AA
AB
VB
VA
A
For the linkage mechanism as shown in figure, which of
the following statements is/are correct?

(a) I45 is at ∞, perpendicular to BE

(b) I65 is at ∞, perpendicular to BE

(c) I21 is at ∞, perpendicular to link 1 or ground

(d) I65 is at C
A rotating shaft supported on bearings A and B carries three masses as
shown in figure. Neglect the mass of shafts and rods. Assume zero
gravitational field. The mass m2 = 20 kg, m3 = 10 kg and shaft angular
velocity is 500 rad/sec. For the system to be in static and dynamic
equilibrium choose the correct option(s).

(a) For m1 = 20 kg, r1 = 0.2 m

(b) For m1 = 40 kg, r1 = 0.1 m

(c) For m1 = 20 kg, r1 = 0.1 m

(d) m1 = 10 kg, r1 = 0.2 m

A single degree of freedom underdamped spring-mass-damper system
as shown in figure, an additional spring is added in parallel such that
the system still remains underdamped. Which of the following
statements is/are always TRUE?

(a) Time period of free oscillation will decrease

(b) Time Period of free oscillation will increase

(c) Frequency of oscillation will increase

(d) Transmissibility will decrease

In the single degree of freedom system as shown in figure, the stiffness of
the spring is 100 kN/m and the damping coefficient of the dashpot is 1000
Ns/m. The system with the damper is known to be a critically damped
system. If the dashpot is now removed and the system is set into 1-D
longitudinal vibrations, choose the correct option(s)

(a) The frequency of vibration is 200 Hz

(b) The frequency of vibration is 32 rad/s

(c) The frequency of vibration is 32 Hz

(d) The frequency of vibration is 200 rad/s

The coefficient of fluctuation of speed for a 4-stroke engine is Cf , then
ratio of ωmax/ωmin of the flywheel designed for this engine will be

𝟐+𝑪𝒇
(a)
𝟐−𝑪𝒇

𝟐−𝑪𝒇
(b)
𝟐+𝑪𝒇

𝟏+𝟎.𝟓∗𝑪𝒇
(c)
𝟏−𝟎.𝟓∗𝑪𝒇

𝟏−𝟎.𝟓∗𝑪𝒇
(d)
𝟏+𝟎.𝟓∗𝑪𝒇
The turning moment diagram for an engine is shown in figure below. The
turning moment repeat itself at every half revolution of engine. The scales
for diagram, Turning Moment 1 mm = 10 Nm; Crank Angle, 1 mm = 20. The
unit of area indicated in diagram is mm2 . The rotating parts are equivalent
to mass of 40 kg and at radius of gyration of 200 mm. The engine speed is
2400 rpm. Choose correct option(s).

(a) Maximum Fluctuation of Energy 840 mm2

(b) Maximum Fluctuation of Energy 293 Nm

(c) Coefficient of Fluctuation of Speed 0.5 %

(d) Coefficient of Fluctuation of Speed 0.3 %

For epicyclic gear train system as shown in figure the Ring Gear is fixed. The
number of teeth on Sun (S) and Planet (P) gear are 24. The planet Gears are
connected by Arm A. If the speed of Sun gear is 100 rpm clockwise and the
driving torque on sun wheel is 100 N-m, then choose the correct option(s).

(a) The rotational speed of Carrier is 25 rpm CCW

(b) The rotational speed of Planet Gear is 50 rpm CW

(c) The rotational speed of Planet Gear is 50 rpm CCW

(d) The rotational speed of Carrier is 25 rpm CW

For a reverted gear train as shown in figure, the number of teeth on gear 1
(Z1) and gear 2 (Z2) should be greater then or equal to 24. The speed ratio
𝝎𝟒
= 𝟔. Choose the correct option (s) for the number of teeth on gears.
𝝎𝟏

(a) Z1=24, Z2=40, Z3=48, Z4=12

(b) Z1=24, Z2=36, Z3=54, Z4=6

(c) Z1=48, Z2=32, Z3=64, Z4=16

(d) Z1=48, Z2=28, Z3=54, Z4=12

A mass-spring-damper system undergoes forced vibration (F(t)=20*sin(50t)
N) as shown in figure. The mass of the system M=50 Kg, spring constant
K=125 kN/m. The damping coefficient c is 1000 Ns/m. Choose the correct
option (s).

(a) The transmissibility for the system is 0.4

(b) The transmissibility for the system is 2.7

(c) The magnitude of transmitted force is 8 N

(d) The magnitude of transmitted force is 54 N

In a tensile test on a metal specimen, true strain =0.08 at a true stress of 265
MPa. However the true strain is 0.27 at true stress of 325 MPa. Choose the
correct option (s).

(a) Strain Hardening exponent in the flow curve for the specimen is 0.3

(b) Strain Hardening exponent in the flow curve for the specimen is 0.17

(c) The strength coefficient for the specimen is 405.2 MPa

(d) The strength coefficient for the specimen is 810.4 Mpa

The Non-Traditional Manufacturing process in which the material is
removed by mechanical erosion of the workpiece is/are ________.

(a) Ultra sonic machining

(b) Grinding

(c) Abrasive jet machining

(d) Electro chemical machining

A workpiece of width 80 mm undergoes face milling process with cutter of
diameter 225 mm, having 10 inserts and rotating at 450 rpm with a feed rate
of 0.5 m/min. The total length travelled by tool for cutting the material
including approach and recess is 15 m. Choose the correct option (s).

(a) The feed is 0.21 mm/tooth

(b) The machining time is 45 min.

(c) The feed is 0.11 mm/tooth

(d) The machining time is 30 min.

For a material A while performing the tool life characteristic analysis
following data are obtained.

Choose the correct options(s) for Toll life index n and Constant C. Use 𝑽 ∗
𝑻𝒏 = 𝑪
Material Tool Life (min) Cutting Speed
(a)n=0.75 (m/min)
50 200
(b) C=3783 A
20 400
(c) n=0.55

(d)C=1892
A 300 mm long steel rod having diameter of 30 mm is to be reduced to 28
mm diameter in a single turning operation. Take cutting speed of 60 m/min
with a feed rate of 250 mm/min. Choose the correct option(s).

(a) The spindle speed is 636.6 rpm

(b) The spindle speed is 658.7 rpm

(c) The material removal rate is 22776 mm3/s

(d) The material removal rate is 22776 mm3/min

For a orthogonal machining process, the parameters are as following.

Ucut chip thickness=0.4 mm, Chip thickness = 0.6 mm, Rake angle = 20 deg,

Cutting speed = 25 m/min, Cutting force = 1800 N, Thrust force = 400 N.

Choose the correct option(s).

(a)The shear angle is 50.4 deg

(b) The shear angle is 39.2 deg

(c) The coefficient of friction is 0.64

(d) The ratio of friction energy to total energy is 0.37

Tailstock set over method is used to produce a taper on a shaft of length 100
mm. The taper portion has a length of 65 mm. The diameter of taper at one
end is 60 mm and 45 mm at other end. Choose the correct option(s) for
taper turning parameters.

(a) The taper angle is 6.58 deg

(b) The taper angle is 13.16 deg

(c) The set over length is 22.76 mm

(d) The set over length is 11.46 mm

From a blanking process a circular disc of 30 mm diameter is to be
produced. The shear strength of material is 300 MPa. The thickness of
material is 1.5 mm. Choose the correct option(s) for the design of tools for
blanking operation.

(a) Size of punch = 29.83 mm

(b) Size of die = 30.16 mm

(c) Size of die = 30 mm

(d) Blanking force is 42.4 KN

The power supplied to a arc welding process of stell is 25 V and 250 A. The
electrode feed rate is 10 mm/s and diameter 5 mm. The heat required to
melt unit volume of steel is 12 J/mm3 and the heat transfer efficiency is 0.8.
Choose the correct option(s).

(a) Heat required for melting is 2356.2 J/s

(b) Heat required for melting is 141.3 KJ/min

(c) Melting efficiency is 47.1 %

(d)Melting efficiency is 35 %
Which of the following welding process is/are uses non-consumable
electrode for welding

(a) Gas Metal Arc Welding

(b) Gas Tungsten Arc Welding

(c) Atomic Hydrogen Welding

(d) Plasma Arc Welding

A casting of 300 x 150 x 80 mm3 size solidifies in 10 minutes. By using
chvorinov’s rule of solidification choose the correct options(s).

(a) Solidification time for 300 x 150 x 50 mm3 casting is

(b) Solidification time for 200 x 150 x 80 mm3 casting is

(c) Solidification time for 300 x 150 x 50 mm3 casting is

(d) Solidification time for 200 x 150 x 80 mm3 casting is

The basic size of two mating parts hole and shaft is 100 mm. The
interference fit between the two is to be from 0.04 mm to 0.10 mm. The
tolerance for both shaft and hole is same. Choose the correct option(s).

(a) Size of shaft is 𝟏𝟎𝟎+𝟎.𝟎𝟑

+𝟎.𝟎𝟎

(b) Size of Hole is 𝟏𝟎𝟎+𝟎.𝟎𝟑

+𝟎.𝟎𝟎

(c) Size of Shaft is 𝟏𝟎𝟎+𝟎.𝟏𝟎

+𝟎.𝟎𝟕

(d) Size if Hole is𝟏𝟎𝟎+𝟎.𝟏𝟎

+𝟎.𝟎𝟕
For a given assembly of two mating parts shown below choose the correct
option(s). Assembly 50H8/f5

(a) H is for hole type

(b) f is for hole type

(c) IT8 Hole tolerance grade

(d) IT5 shaft tolerance grade

A propped cantilever beam of length ‘2L’ is loaded by uniformly distributed
load ‘w’ as shown in figure. Choose the correct option(s).

𝟓𝒘𝑳
(a) R1 =
𝟒

𝟑𝒘𝑳
(b) R2 = 𝟒

𝒘𝑳𝟐
(c) M = 𝟐

𝟓𝒘𝑳
(d) R2 = 𝟒
A solid circular shaft for assembly is represented by 80f7. The diameter 80
mm lies between 50-80 mm bracket. Tolerance value for IT7=16i.
Fundamental deviation =-5.5D0.41 , i=0.001D+0.45D1/3 microns. Choose the
correct option(s).

(a) Shaft lower limit = 80.00 mm

(b) Shaft upper limit = 80.03 mm

(c) Shaft lower limit = 79.94 mm

(d) Shaft upper limit = 79.94 mm

A rectangular beam having flexural rigidity EI is loaded as shown in figure
below. Choose the correct options(s)

(a) Maximum Bending Moment is 𝟎. 𝟓 ∗ 𝑾𝑳

𝟕𝑾𝟐 𝑳𝟑
(b) Strain energy stored in beam is
𝟏𝟐𝑬𝑰

(c) Maximum Bending Moment is 𝑾𝑳

𝟓𝑾𝟐 𝑳𝟑
(d) Strain energy stored in beam is
𝟏𝟐𝑬𝑰
A rigid bar of length 2L is supported by 3 vertical springs as shown in figure.
The springs have same wire diameter. The mean radii of springs are in the
proportion 10:15:20 and number of turns are 6, 8 and 12 respectively. Choose
the correct options(s).

(a) P1 = 0.77P

(b) P2 = 0.18P

(c) P3 = 0.05P

(d) P3 = 0.18P
A horizontal shaft of diameter ‘d’ is attached to a rigid horizontal rod of
length 3L as shown in figure. The vertical forces of magnitude W are applied
at two ends. Choose the correct option(s). Take Shear Modulus of shaft = G

𝟏𝟒𝟒𝑾𝑳𝟑
(a) The vertical deflection of point ‘A’ is
𝝅𝒅𝟒 𝑮

𝟗𝟔𝑾𝑳𝟑
(b) The vertical deflection of point ‘B’ is 𝟒
𝝅𝒅 𝑮

𝟗𝟔𝑾𝑳𝟑
(c) The vertical deflection of point ‘A’ is 𝟒
𝝅𝒅 𝑮

𝟏𝟒𝟒𝑾𝑳𝟑
(d) The vertical deflection of point ‘B’ is
𝝅𝒅𝟒 𝑮
A simply supported beam as shown in figure undergoes a moment M at center 𝐱 = 𝟎.
The deflection for the value of 𝟎 ≤ 𝒙 ≤ 𝑳 is given by expression

𝑴∗(−𝒙𝟑 + 𝑳−𝟐∗𝒄 ∗𝒙𝟐 +𝟑∗𝑳∗𝒄∗𝒙)

𝜹= − , where E is the young’s modulus, I is area
𝟏𝟖∗𝑬∗𝑰∗𝑳
moment of inertia and c is constant. Choose the correct option(s).

𝑴𝑳
(a) Slope at 𝐱 = 𝟎 is
𝟏𝟔𝑬𝑰

𝑴𝑳
(b) Slope at 𝐱 = 𝐋/2 is
𝟑𝟐𝑬𝑰

𝑴𝑳
(c) Slope at 𝐱 = 𝟎 is
𝟔𝑬𝑰

𝑴𝑳
(d) Slope at 𝐱 = 𝐋/2 is
𝟐𝟒𝑬𝑰
A steel beam having cross section 100 x 200 mm2 and length 5 m is simply
supported. A concentrated load P is applied at a distance ‘a’ from support as
shown in figure. If the maximum bending and shear stress induced in the
beam are 20 MPa and 2 MPa respectively, then choose the correct option(s).

(a) Load P is 29.6 KN

(b) Distance ‘a’ is 0.5 m

(c) Load P is 59.2 KN

(d) Distance ‘a’ is 1.0 m

A container having diameter of 6 m and wall thickness of 3 mm is fixed
from vertical as shown in figure. The container is filled with water to a
depth of 4 m. The self weight of cylinder is negligible. Assume thin cylinder
pressure vessel. Choose the correct option(s).

(a) Axial stress at point A is 24 MPa

(b) Hoop stress at point A is 30 MPa

(c) Axial stress at point A is 20 MPa

(d) Hoop stress at point A is 40 MPa

A beam (assume massless) undergoing a loading condition as shown in
figure. The beam has circular cross section of diameter 40 mm. Choose the
correct option(s).

(a) Maximum bending Moment is 12 KN-m

(b) Maximum shear force is 6 KN

(c) Maximum bending Moment is 21 KN-m

(d) Maximum shear force is 12 KN

A solid circular shaft undergoes bending and twisting moment of 12 KN-m
and 9 KN-m respectively. The yield strength of shaft material is 600 MPa
and ultimate shear strength is 400 MPa. Choose the correct option(s).

(a) The diameter of shaft for factor of safety 4 is 73 mm

(b) The diameter of shaft for factor of safety 2 is 60 mm

(c) The diameter of shaft for factor of safety 4 is 92 mm

(d) The diameter of shaft for factor of safety 2 is 73 mm

A shaft running at 1000 rpm is supported by a journal bearing of 50 mm
diameter and 80 mm length. Viscosity of lubricating oil is 0.015 Pa-s. The
diametrical clearance is 0.04 mm. A radial load of 1500 N is applied on
bearing. Choose the correct option(s).

(a) Coefficient of friction is 0.022

(b) Power loss due to friction is 86.4W

(c) Coefficient of friction is 0.011

(d) Power loss due to friction is 43.2 W

A cylindrical beam of diameter 40 mm is simply supported and has
concentrated load at center which fluctuates from W to 5W. The span of
beam is 500 mm. Given: Su = 700 MPa, Sy = 500 MPa, Se = 320 MPa for
reverse bending. Take factors Ka = 0.9, Kb = 0.85, Factor of safety =1.3.

Choose the correct option(s).

(a) Mean bending stress is 59.68 MPa

(b) Variable bending stress is 19.89 MPa

(c) Mean bending stress is 29.84 MPa

(d) Variable bending stress is 39.78 MPa

A solid circular shaft is subjected to combined load, a torque of 20 KN-m
and bending moment of 30 KN-m. The yield strength of material is 250
MPa, poisson’s ratio = 0.25 and factor of safety 2.0. Design the shaft using
principal stress theory. Choose correct option(s).

(a) Principal stresses 𝝈𝟏 = 𝟏𝟐𝟐 𝑴𝑷𝒂 and 𝝈𝟐 = −𝟏𝟏 𝑴𝑷𝒂

(b) Principal stresses 𝝈𝟏 = 𝟏𝟒𝟎 𝑴𝑷𝒂 and 𝝈𝟐 = −𝟐𝟎 𝑴𝑷𝒂

(c) The minimum possible diameter is 140 mm

(d) The minimum possible diameter is 120 mm

A cylindrical pressure vessel of 3 m diameter and 18 mm shell thickness is
filled with fluid under 4 MPa pressure. The yield strength in tension for the
material is 400 MPa and the poisson’s ratio is 0.3. The factor of safety is/are

(a) By maximum strain theory FOS = 1.4

(b) By maximum strain theory FOS = 1.3

(c) By maximum distortion energy theory FOS = 1.37

(d) By maximum distortion energy theory FOS = 1.2

The pressure angle for two involute mating gears is 20 deg. Module is 5 mm.
The number of teeth on gear is 32. The gear ration for the pair is 2.0 If the
interference is just avoided for pinion then choose the correct option(s)
with respect to gear design.

(a) Addendum of pinion is 5.5 mm

(b) Addendum of gear is 10.3 mm

(c) Addendum of pinion is 15.65 mm

(d) Addendum of gear is 5.65 mm

In a pulley system shown in figure the pulley weighs 20 N and its radius of
gyration is 40 cm. A 200 N weight is attached to the end of a string and a 50
N is attached to the end of the other string as shown in figure. A torque is
applied to raise the 200 N weight at an acceleration of 1.5 m/s2. Choose the
correct option(s).

(a) The tension in string attached to 50 N weight is 47.45 N

(b) The tension in string attached to 200 N weight is 230.58 N

(c) Angular acceleration of pulley is 3.57 rad/s2

(d) The tension in string attached to 200 N weight is 560.5 N

A solid circular bar having weight of 200 N is held horizontally using two
massless and inextensible strings S1 and S2. A vertical load of 100 N is
applied at distance ‘x’ as shown in figure such that the tension in two
strings are equal. Choose the correct option(s).

(a) Tension in strings are T1=T2=150 N

(b) Tension in strings are T1=T2=300 N

(c) Distance x = 3L/8

(d) Distance x = L/8

Three block system of mass m1, m2 and m3 are connected with the help of a
spring and inextensible light string as shown in figure. The blocks are kept
on a smooth horizontal plane. At the time of release of block m1
(Acceleration due to gravity = g)

𝒎𝟐 ∗𝒈
(a) Acceleration of m2 =
𝒎𝟏 +𝒎𝟐

𝒎𝟏 ∗𝒎𝟐 ∗𝒈
(b) Tension in string =
𝒎𝟏 +𝒎𝟐

(c) Acceleration of m3 is zero

𝒎𝟏 ∗𝒈
(d) Acceleration of m2 =
𝒎𝟏 +𝒎𝟐
A solid block of mass 80 kg just starts moving down when a force of 300 N is
applied upward parallel to plane and just starts moving up when a force of
500 N is applied as shown in figure. Choose the correct option.

(a) The plane inclined angle 𝜽 = 𝟔𝟎 𝒅𝒆𝒈

(b) The coefficient of friction between block

and plane is 0.144

(c) The reaction force is 693 N

(d) The plane inclined angle 𝜽 = 𝟑𝟎 𝒅𝒆𝒈

A trolley having weight ‘W” is pulled by a force ‘F’ as shown in figure.
Choose the correct option.

𝟑∗𝑾 𝟐∗𝑭∗𝒂
(a) Reaction at wheel P is −
𝟓 𝒃

𝟑∗𝑾 𝟐∗𝑭∗𝒂
(b) Reaction at wheel Q is −
𝟓 𝒃

𝟐∗𝑾 𝟐∗𝑭∗𝒂
(c) Reaction at wheel P is +
𝟓 𝒃

𝟐∗𝑾 𝟐∗𝑭∗𝒂
(d) Reaction at wheel P is +
𝟓 𝒃
In a production workshop, scheduling of 4 jobs to be carried out. The job
processing time and there respective due dates are given in below table.
Choose the correct option(s) for optimal job schedule sequence to
minimize the maximum lateness
Job 1 2 3 4
Processing Time 12 9 7 14
Due Dates (day) 20 15 18 24

(a) Optimal Job sequence is 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

(b) Average Tardiness per job is 13 days

(c) Optimal Job sequence is 2 – 1– 3 – 4

(d) Average Tardiness per job is 6.5 days

In order to sustain the production unit the company requires 1800 items per
month at a price of ₹ 30. The inventory holding cost is 15 % of the average
inventory and the ordering cost is ₹ 300. Choose the correct option(s)

(a) The economic order quantity is 1850 orders

(b) The number of order per year is 13 orders

(c) The economic order quantity is 1697 units

(d) The number of order per year is 11 orders

In order to produce two products A and B it requires machining process M1
and M2. The machining time in hours for each product is shown in table
below. Profit contribution from product A and B re Rs. 80 and Rs. 60
respectively. Choose the correct option(s) for manufacture of product A and
B so as to maximize the profit.
Machining Machining Total
(a) No. of Unit of A = 24, B=8
hours for A hours for B Machining
(b) No. of Unit of A =30, B=0 hours
M1 2 4 80
(c) No. of Unit of A =0, B=30
M2 4 3 120
(d) No. of Unit of A =8, B=24
In a mobile shop, the sales for last 4 months were shown in table below.
Choose the correct option(s) for the forecast for April and May month
Assume smoothening constant of 0.7 and forecast for Jan is 40

(a) Forecast for the month of May is 40.7

(b) Forecast for the month of April is 37.8

(c) Forecast for the month of May is 42

(d) Forecast for the month of April is 38

Month Jan Feb March April

Sale Unit 40 36 38 42
A water bottle manufacturing company has following data regarding
production. Fixed cost per month = Rs. 100,000/-, Variable cost per unit =
Rs. 600/-, Selling price per unit = Rs. 800/-,

Production capacity = 2500 units per month. Choose the correct option(s) if
the plant runs at 90 % of its rated capacity.

(a) The break even volume is 1000 units

(b) The monthly profit is 2,50,000/-

(c) The break even volume is 500 units

(d) The monthly profit is Rs. 3,50,000/-

For the network diagram shown below choose the correct option(s).

(a) Minimum project completion time = 26

(b) Minimum project completion time = 20

(c) Critical Path is B – F – H

(d) Critical Path is C – D – F – H

A single block –drum as shown in figure has diameter of 40 m and contact
angle of 45 deg. The torque generated by brake is 400 N-m at 200 rpm. Take
coefficient of friction = 0.4. Choose the correct option(s).

(a) P = 1693 N

(b) Friction force on drum = 5000 N

(c) P = 1640 N

(d) Friction force on drum = 2000 N

A water jet of area 0.1 m2 coming out of a stationary nozzle with a uniform
velocity of 5 m/s. The jet strikes a frictionless vane as shown in figure. Total
weight of cart including vane is 60 kg. In order to hold cart stationary which
of the following option(s) is/are correct.

(a) Spring Deflection = 12.5 mm

(b) Reaction from ground = 1250 N

(c) Spring Deflection = 8.4 mm

(d) Reaction from ground = 1850 N

The gap between two vertical plate is filled with newtonion fluid of viscosity
0.5 Pa-s as shown in figure. A metallic plate of size 2m x 2m x 0.4 cm and 6 kg
weight is to be lifted with constant velocity of 0.5 m/s. Choose the correct
option (s). (Take g =9.8 m/s2)

(a) Force required to pull = 159 N

(b) Force due to shear stress on plate = 50 N

(c) Force required to pull = 180 N

(d) Force due to shear stress on plate = 100 N

The figure shows a 2 m semicircular gate of 3 m diameter is place at the
bottom of reservoir. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct for
hydrostatic force in vertical & horizontal direction on gate. (Take g = 10
m/s2 , Density of water = 1000 kg/m3)

(a) Vertical Force = 70.68 KN

(b) Vertical Force = 80.7 KN

(c) Horizontal Force = 330 KN

(d) Horizontal Force = 380 KN

In a laminar boundary layer the velocity distribution of flow is given by

𝒖 𝒚
expression = . Choose the correct option (s)
𝑼∞ 𝟐𝜹
(a) Displacement thickness = 𝜹/4

(b) Shape factor = 4.5

(c) Momentum thickness = 𝜹/6

(d) Displacement thickness = 3𝜹/4

A pipe of diameter 200 mm is used to transport oil of viscosity 0.1 Pa-s. The
𝒓𝟐
velocity distribution of oil flow inside pipe is given by 𝒖 𝒓 = 𝟏𝟎(𝟏 − ).
𝑹𝟐

Where, u(r) is the velocity, ‘r’ is the radial co-ordinate and ‘R’ is the radius
of pipe. Choose the correct option(s).

(a) The shear stress at wall = 40 N/m2

(b) Pressure Gradient = -400 N/m2

(c) The shear stress at wall = 20 N/m2

(d) Pressure Gradient = -600 N/m2

A 2-D steady, incompressible and irrotational flow having velocity potential
and stream function as 𝝋 𝒙, 𝒚 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝝍 𝒙, 𝒚 respectively. Which of the
following option(s) is/are correct.

𝝏𝟐 𝝍 𝝏𝟐 𝝍 𝒅𝒚 𝒅𝒚
(a) + 𝟐 =𝟎 (b) ∗ =𝟏
𝝏𝒙𝟐 𝝏𝒚 𝒅𝒙 𝝋=𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒔𝒕 𝒅𝒙 𝝍=𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒔𝒕

𝝏𝟐 𝝋 𝝏𝟐 𝝋 𝒅𝒚 𝒅𝒚
(c) + 𝟐 =𝟎 (d) ∗ = −𝟏
𝝏𝒙𝟐 𝝏𝒚 𝒅𝒙 𝝋=𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒔𝒕 𝒅𝒙 𝝍=𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒔𝒕
A fully developed laminar flow throw a pipe have pressure gradient of 400
Pa/m. If the wall shear stress developed is 150 N/m2 , then which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct.

(a) Diameter of pipe is 15 cm

(b) Shear stress at 3 cm radius is 60 N/m2

(c) Diameter of pipe is 20 cm

(d) Shear stress at 3 cm radius is 7.5 cm

A pipe of diameter 0.8 m and 3 KM long is used to connect two reservoir at a
head difference of 20 m. The friction factor for pipe is 0.05. Choose the
correct option(s). (Take g=10 m/s2)

(a) Velocity of flow in pipe = 2.9 m/s

(b) Raito of major to minor loss = 150

(c) Velocity of flow in pipe = 1.45 m/s

(d) Raito of major to minor loss = 125

The turbine is designed for 40 MW power, when supplied at head of 40 m
and 1000 rpm. The geometrically similar model is developed at a runner
speed of 200 rpm and supplied head of 4m. Choose the correct option(s).

(a) Power developed by model = 6.2 MW

(b) Model to Prototype scale ratio = 1.6

(c) Power developed by model = 3.16 MW

(d) Model to Prototype scale ratio = 0.625

In a hydroelectric generation plant, the net head available is 25 m and water
is supplied at a flow rate of 0.3 m3/s. The turbine runs at 1000 rpm and have
a specific speed of 85.0. For a total 3 turbines in the plant choose the correct
option(s). Take g=10 m/s2 ,Density = 1000 kg/m3

(a) Power generated by individual turbine = 22.58 KW

(b) Overall efficiency = 20.07 %

(c) Power generated by individual turbine = 67.74 KW

(d) Overall efficiency = 60.2 %

A circular fin of diameter 5 cm, Length = 60 cm, K = 100 W/m-K is connected
to a heat source at 150 0C. The other end of fin is exposed to ambient air at 25
0C with a heat transfer coefficient h = 150 W/m2K. Choose the correct
option(s).

(a) Heat Loss from fin = 300 W

(b) Fin effectiveness = 4.5

(c) Heat Loss from fin = 269 W

(d) Fin effectiveness = 7.3

A mild steel sphere having 20 mm diameter is exposed to cooling air at 30
0C. The thermal conductivity K = 100 W/m-K and heat transfer coefficient h
= 200 W/m2K. The sphere is cooled from 700 K to 350 K. Choose the correct
option(s). Take Density of steel = 7800 kg/m3 , Specific Heat Capacity = 475
J/kg-K.

(a) Time required for cooling = 3.6 min

(b) Time required for cooling = 132 sec

(c) Biot Number = 6.67*10-3

(d) Time required for cooling = 2.2 min

A 1 m long cylindrical tube is heated uniformly from inner surface at a rate
of 2x105 W/m2. The outside and inside diameter is 100 mm and 50 mm
respectively. The heat is dissipated by convection to outside air at 50 0C.
Assume 1-D and steady state heat conduction, which of the following
option(s) is /are correct. Take, K=30 W/m-K, h = 600 W/m2K

(a) Rate of heat transfer = 31.4 KW/m

(b) Temperature of outside surface = 216.58 0C

(c) Rate of heat transfer = 15.7 KW/m

(d) Temperature of outside surface = 324.9 0C

A heated plate at 100 0C having 2.5 m length and 1 m width is cooled in air at
25 0C. The air is flowing along the length of plate at 10 m/s. For air use K =
0.04 W/m-K, Pr=0.6, 𝝂 = 10-4 m2/s, Nu = 0.664Re1/2Pr1/3 , Choose the correct
option(s).

(a) Rate of heat transfer from plate = 375 W

(b) Heat Transfer Coefficient = 2.0 W/m2K

(c) Rate of heat transfer from plate = 750 W

(d) Heat Transfer Coefficient = 4.0 W/m2K

A parallel floe heat exchanger is designed for 0.6 effectiveness. The hot gas
(Cp = 2 KJ/kg-K) enters the exchanger at 300 0C and 2 kg/s. The water stream
(Cp = 4 KJ/kg-K) enters at 60 0C and 2 kg/s. Choose the correct option(s).

(a) Exit temperature of gas = 156 0C

(b) Exit temperature of water = 132 0C

(c) Exit temperature of gas = 180 0C

(d) Exit temperature of gas = 110 0C

A cylinder of radius ‘R’ have a uniform volumetric heat source qG (W/m3).
The temperature at the outside wall of cylinder in Tw . Considering one
dimensional steady state heat conduction which of the following option(s)
is/are in-correct for the temperature at center Tc. Where, K = thermal
conductivity.

𝒒𝑮 𝑹 𝟐 𝒒𝑮 𝑹 𝟐
(a) 𝑻𝒄 = 𝑻𝒘 + (b) 𝑻𝒄 = 𝑻𝒘 +
𝟐𝑲 𝟒𝑲

𝒒𝑮 𝑹 𝟐 𝒒𝑮 𝑹
(c) 𝑻𝒄 = 𝑻𝒘 + (d) 𝑻𝒄 = 𝑻𝒘 +
𝑲 𝟒𝑲
For radiation heat transfer for a cylindrical cavity as shown in figure.
Choose the in-correct option(s) with respect to

shape factor.

𝒅
(a) 𝑭𝟏𝟏 =
𝟒𝒉+𝒅

𝟒𝒉
(b) 𝑭𝟐𝟏 =
𝟒𝒉+𝒅

𝒅
(c) 𝑭𝟏𝟐 =
𝟒𝒉+𝒅

(d) 𝑭𝟐𝟐 = 𝟏
A 2 m long hollow cylinder furnace having outer and inner diameter 50 mm
and 20 mm respectively. The inner surface temperature is 500 0C and outer
surface temperature is 100 0C. If the thermal conductivity of material is 30
W/m-K, then choose the correct option(s).

(a) Rate of heat flow = 165 KW

(b) Temperature at midpoint (r=17.5 mm) of cylinder = 300 0C

(c) Rate of heat flow = 330 KW

(d) Temperature at midpoint (r=17.5 mm) of cylinder = 256 0C

For biot number to be very small (Bi << 0.001) which of the following
option(s) is/are in-correct.

(a) Convective resistance of fluid surface of body is negligible

(b) Conductive resistance within the body is negligible

(c) Conductive resistance within the body is high

(d) Convective resistance of fluid surface of body is high

A flat plate 2 m high and 1 m width is heated up-to 200 0C and placed in
atmosphere at 30 0C. If the heat loss from plate occur by natural convection,
then choose the correct option(s). The properties of air at 115 0C are K =
0.032 W/m-K, 𝝂 = 25*10-6 m2/s, Pr=0.7, Nu = 0.53(Gr*Pr)1/4. Choose the correct
option(s)

(a) Rate of heat transfer from plate = 1.275 KW

(b) Heat transfer coefficient = 3.75 W/m2K

(c) Rate of heat transfer from plate = 2.55 KW

(d) Heat transfer coefficient = 7.5 W/m2K

A reversible heat engine produces 5 KW of work is connected to heat source
and sink as shown in figure. Choose the correct option(s)

(a) Q2 = -5 KW

(b) Q3 = -20 KW

(c) Q2 = -20 KW

(d) Q3 = -5 KW
A closed insulated system contains 10 kg f air at 800 kPa and 120 0C. The air
expands until its volume is doubled and its temperature become 27 0C.
Surrounding pressure and temperature are 100 kPa and 27 0C respectively.
Choose the correct option(s). Take, R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K, Cv = 0.718 kJ/kg-K

(a) Availability = 683 kJ

(b) Irreversibility = 15.15 kJ

(c) Availability = 668 kJ

(d) Irreversibility = 10.2 kJ

A rigid tank is divided into two parts as shown in figure and filled with 2 kg
of ideal gas at 727 0C. The other side is evacuated. The partition is now
removed and gas is allowed to fill (by adiabatic expansion n=1.3) the entire
tank. If heat is supplied to the gas until pressure equals the initial pressure,
then choose the correct option(s).

(a) Final temperature of gas = 3000 K

(b) Temperature of gas after expansion = 520.5 0C

(c) Final temperature of gas = 2727 0C

(d) Temperature of gas after expansion = 446.2 0C

A fluid is having enthalpy of 4500 kJ/kg enters a nozzle at 50 m/s. The
enthalpy of fluid at exit of nozzle is 3600 kJ/kg. There is a heat loss of 100
kW from nozzle. If mass flow rate of fluid is 20 kg/s and specific volume at
exit is 0.5 m3/kg, then choose the correct option(s).

(a) Velocity at nozzle exit = 1342.5 m/s

(b) Nozzle exit diameter = 120.5 mm

(c) Velocity at nozzle exit = 1339 m/s

(d) Nozzle exit diameter = 97.5 mm

Air having 20 kg mass in a piston cylinder device is heated from 30 0C to 80
0C by electric heater as shown in figure. The pressure inside cylinder is held
constant at 400 kPa during process and a heat loss of 50 kJ occur. Choose
the correct option(s). For air, R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K, Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg-K

(a) Electric energy supplied = 1055 kJ

(b) Work done by gas = 287 kJ

(c) Electric energy supplied = 0.293 kW-hr

(d) Work done by gas = 350 kJ

Which of the following options(s) is/are in-correct for thermodynamic
relations.

𝑻𝜷 𝑻𝜷
(a) 𝑻𝒅𝒔 = 𝑪𝒗 𝒅𝑻 + 𝒅𝒑 (b) 𝑻𝒅𝒔 = 𝑪𝒗 𝒅𝑻 + 𝒅𝒗
𝑲 𝑲

𝑻𝜷
(c) 𝑻𝒅𝒔 = 𝑪𝒑 𝒅𝑻 − 𝜷𝒗𝑻𝒅𝒑 (d) 𝑻𝒅𝒔 = 𝑪𝒑 𝒅𝑻 − 𝒅𝒗
𝑲
A high pressure line (500 K, 300 kPa) of air is connected to an insulated 0.8
m3 storage tank. The valve is opened and air is filled inside the tank until
pressure reaches to 300 kPa. Choose the correct option(s). ( 𝜸𝒂𝒊𝒓 =1.4,
Rair=0.287 kJ/kg-K).

(a) Final temperature of air = 700 K

(b) Mass of air filled inside tank = 2.4 kg

(c) Final temperature of air = 600 K

(d) Mass of air filled inside tank = 1.2 kg

A gas turbine power plant runs on Brayton cycle. The temperature range for
the plant is 27 0C to 927 0C. Which of the following option(s) is/are in-
correct.

(a) Maximum work done per kg of air = 301.5 kJ/kg

(b) Cycle efficiency for maximum work done = 50 %

(c) Maximum work done per kg of air = 150.75 kJ/kg

(d) Cycle efficiency for maximum work done = 70 %

A steam power plant (Rankine Cycle) operates between 5 bar and 0.1 bar.
The temperature of steam at turbine inlet is 350 0C. If the turbine efficiency
is 90 %, then which of the following option(s) is/are correct. At 5 bar and
350 0C, h = 3167 kJ/kg, s= 7.6 kJ/kg-K . Saturated steam property at 0.1 bar are
Steam hf kJ/kg hg kJ/kg sf kJ/kg-K sg kJ/kg-K
shown in figure.
0.1 bar 191.9 2584.2 0.65 8.15
(a) The quality of steam at turbine exit = 0.93

(b) Specific work output from turbine = 2410.3 kJ/kg

(c) The quality of steam at turbine exit = 0.96

(d) Specific work output from turbine = 2491.77 kJ/kg

The pressure ratio for a brayton cycle is 5.0. The air inlet condition to
compressor is 1 bar and 27 0C and to turbine is 1227 0C. A regenerator is
introduced with 90 % effectiveness. Which of the following option(s) is/are
correct.

(a) Efficiency of cycle without regeneration = 36.86 %

(b) Efficiency of cycle with regeneration = 62.96 %

(c) Efficiency of cycle without regeneration = 45.6 %

(d) Efficiency of cycle without regeneration = 70.5 %

A 4-stroke internal combustion engine has a bore diameter of 200 mm and
crank radius of 150 mm. The mean indicative pressure (mep) is found as 200
kPa. If the engine is running at 3000 rpm and have 70 % mechanical
efficiency, then choose the correct option(s).

(a) Indicated power of the engine = 47.12 kW

(b) Brake power of engine = 33 kW

(c) Indicated power of the engine = 23.56 kW

(d) Brake power of engine = 20 kW

A 4 cylinder IC engine undergoes morse test. The measured brake powers
obtained from test are shown in below table. Condition Brake Power
All Cylinder Firing 8000 KW
Choose the correct option(s). Cylinder 1 cut off 5500 KW
Cylinder 2 cut off 5550 KW
(a) Frictional power of engine = 2500 kW Cylinder 3 cut off 5500 KW
Cylinder 4 cut off 5550 KW
(b) Mechanical efficiency of engine = 80.8 %

(c) Frictional power of engine = 1900 kW

(d) Mechanical efficiency of engine = 90.2 %

A vapor compression refrigeration system uses ammonia as refrigerant. The
cycle operated between 30 0C and -10 0C. The ammonia vapor is dry and
saturated at the end of compression. The properties of refrigerant are given
in below table. If the cooling capacity required is 50 KW, then choose the
Ammonia hf kJ/kg hg kJ/kg sf kJ/kg-K sg kJ/kg-K
correct option.
30 0C 322.4 1468 1.2 4.97
-10 0C 134.4 1430.8 0.54 5.46

(a) Power required to drive compressor = 7.13 kW

(b) Mass flow rate of Ammonia = 2.57 kg/min

(c) Power required to drive compressor = 10.45 kW

(d) Mass flow rate of Ammonia = 3.4 kg/min

A mixture of air and water vapor has 50 kg of dry air and 0.75 kg of water
vapor. The total pressure and temperature of air is 1 bar and 300 K
respectively. For saturation pressure of 3.2 kPa at 300 K, which of the
following option(s) is/are correct.

(a) Relative humidity of air = 73.4 %

(b) Partial pressure of air = 97.65 kPa

(c) Relative humidity of air = 70.2 %

(d) Partial pressure of water vapor = 2.35 kPa

For the two 3x3 non-singular square matrices A and B, which of the
following option(s) is/are in-correct

(a) (A+B)2 = A2 + AB + BA + A2

(b) (A+B)2 = A2 + 2AB + A2

(c) det(A+B) = det(A) + det(B)

(d) (A-B)2 = A2 - 2AB + A2

For a 3x3 matrix as shown below choose the correct option(s).

𝟓 𝟖 −𝟐
𝟑 −𝟐 𝟓
𝟖 𝟔 𝟑
(a) Rank of matrix = 1

(b) Nullity of matrix = 2

(c) Rank of matrix = 2

(d) Nullity if matrix = 1

Which of the following function(s) is/are discontinuous at x =2

(a) 𝒇 𝒙 = |𝒙 − 𝟐|

𝒙+𝟓 𝒙≥𝟐
(b) 𝒇 𝒙 =
𝟓−𝒙 𝒙<𝟐

𝟔 𝒙≥𝟐
(c) 𝒇 𝒙 = 𝟐
𝒙+𝟐 𝒙<𝟐

𝟏𝟎 𝒙≥𝟐
(d) 𝒇 𝒙 = 𝟑
𝒙 +𝟐 𝒙<𝟐
For function 𝒇 𝒙 = 𝒙𝟑 − 𝟑𝒙𝟐 − 𝟗𝒙 + 𝟓 , choose the correct option(s).

(a) Function has maxima at x = -1

(b) Function has maxima at x = 3

(c) Function has minima at x = -1

(d) Function has minima at x = 3

If 𝒚 = 𝟐𝒙 + 𝟐𝒙 + 𝟐𝒙 + 𝟐𝒙 + … … … … … … … … … … ∞ , then choose the

correct option(s)

(a) y(3) = 4

(b) y(3) = 9

(c) y(1) = 4

(d) y(1) = 1
For a scalar field 𝑨 = 𝟑𝒙𝟐 𝒚 + 𝟐𝒚𝟐 + 𝟓𝒛𝟐 𝒙 , which of the following option(s)
is/are correct.

(a) 𝛁 𝑨 = 𝟔𝒙𝒚 + 𝟓𝒛𝟐 𝒊 + 𝟑𝒙𝟐 + 𝟒𝒚 𝒋 + 𝟏𝟎𝒛𝒙 𝒌

(b) 𝑪𝒖𝒓𝒍 𝛁 𝑨 =𝟎

(c) 𝛁 𝑨 = 𝟎

(d) 𝐂𝐮𝐫𝐥(𝜵 𝑨 ) = (𝟔𝒙𝒚 + 𝟓𝒛^𝟐 )𝒊 + (𝟑𝒙^𝟐 + 𝟒𝒚)𝒋 + (𝟏𝟎𝒛𝒙)𝒌

The area of a triangle in terms of the vectors 𝒑 , 𝒒 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒓 of the triangle
vertices is/are

𝟏
(a) 𝒑 − 𝒒 × ( 𝒑 − 𝒓)
𝟐

𝟏
(b) 𝒑 − 𝒒 ∙ ( 𝒑 − 𝒓)
𝟐

𝟏
(c) 𝒑×𝒒+𝒒×𝒓+𝒓×𝒑
𝟐

𝟏
(d) 𝒑×𝒒×𝒓
𝟐
The directional derivative of scalar field 𝑨 𝒙, 𝒚, 𝒛 = 𝟑𝒙𝟐 + 𝟓𝒚𝟐 + 𝟐𝒛𝟐 in the
෡
direction of vector 𝑽 = 𝟐𝒊Ƹ + 𝒌

(a) At point P(1 , 2 , -1) = 8.94

(b) At point P(1 , 3 , 2) = 3.58

(c) At point P(1 , 2 , -1) = 3.58

(d) At point P(1 , 3 , 2) = 8.94

Three independent and uniformly distributed random variable on [0 , 1] are
P, Q and R. A third variable ‘X’ is generated by linear combination of P, Q
and R as X = P + Q – R, then which of the following option(s) is/are correct

𝟑 𝟏
(a) Mean of ‘X’ = (b) Variance of ‘X’ =
𝟐 𝟒

𝟏 𝟏
(c) Mean of ‘X’ = (d) Variance of ‘X’ =
𝟐 𝟏𝟐
A cycle manufacturer contracted to buy tyres from two supplier A and B.
The percentage of supplies from A and B are 60 % and 40 % respectively. If
the reliability of tyre from A is 90 % and from B is 80 %, then the probability
that a randomly chosen tyre, which is found to be reliable and ……………

(a) Made by A is 0.63

(b) Made by B is 0.37

(c) Made by A is 0.45

(d) Made by B is 0.55

 𝟑+𝟐𝑷
The probability of random variable ‘X’ on the values 3, 5 and 8 are ,
𝟔

𝟏.𝟓+𝟓𝑷 𝟏+𝟑𝑷
𝒂𝒏𝒅 respectively. Choose the correct option(s).
𝟔 𝟔

(a) P = 0.5

(b) Mean of ‘X’ = 6.75

(c) P = 0.05

(d) Mean of ‘X’ = 4.54

 𝒅𝒚
The differential equation = 𝒔𝒊𝒏(𝒙 + 𝒚) has solution(s), where ‘c’ is
𝒅𝒙

constant.

(a) 𝒄𝒐𝒕 𝒙 + 𝒚 + 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝒆𝒄 𝒙 + 𝒚 = 𝒙 + 𝒄

(b) 𝒕𝒂𝒏 𝒙 + 𝒚 − 𝒔𝒆𝒄 𝒙 + 𝒚 = 𝒙 + 𝒄

𝒄𝒐𝒔 𝒙+𝒚
(c) − =𝒙+𝒄
𝟏+𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝒙+𝒚

𝟏+𝒄𝒐𝒔(𝒙+𝒚)
(d) =𝒙+𝒄
𝒔𝒊𝒏(𝒙+𝒚)
Choose the correct option(s) for the solutions of differential equation 𝒚ሷ +
𝟑𝒚ሶ + 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝒚 = 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝒆𝒙 ,

𝒆𝒙
(a) Particular Integral =
𝟑
(b) General Solution = 𝒆−𝒙 [𝑨𝒄𝒐𝒔 𝟏𝟒. 𝟏𝒙 + 𝑩𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝟏𝟒. 𝟏𝒙 ]

𝒆𝒙
(c) Particular Integral =
𝟐
(d) General Solution = 𝒆−𝟏.𝟓𝒙 [𝑨𝒄𝒐𝒔(𝟏𝟒. 𝟏𝒙) + 𝑩𝒔𝒊𝒏(𝟏𝟒. 𝟏𝒙)]
For complex integral ‫𝒛𝒅 𝒛 𝒇 ׯ‬, on a closed curve ‘c’ given by 𝒛 = 𝟏, where

𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝟑𝝅𝒛
𝒇 𝒛 = , choose the correct option(s).
(𝟐𝒛−𝟏)(𝒛−𝟐)

𝟐𝝅𝒊
(a) Value of integral =
𝟔

𝟏
(b) Residue of f(z) at (z=1/2) =
𝟑

𝟐𝝅𝒊
(c) Value of integral =
𝟑

𝟏
(d) Residue of f(z) at (z=1/2) =
𝟔
 𝟏−𝟑𝒛
The residues of complex function 𝒇 𝒛 =
𝒛(𝒛𝟐 −𝟓𝒛+𝟔)

(a) At z=2 is 0.167

(b) At z=3 is -2.67

(c) At z=0 is 0.167

(d) At z=2 is 2.5

An equation given by 𝒙𝟑 + 𝟔𝒙𝟐 − 𝟖 = 𝟎 is solved by Newton-Raphson
method. If the starting value is 𝒙𝟎 = 𝟏, then which of the following is/are
correct.

(a) Solution after first iteration 𝒙𝟏 = 𝟏. 𝟎𝟔𝟕

(b) Solution after second iteration 𝒙𝟐 = 𝟏. 𝟎𝟔𝟒

(c) Solution after first iteration 𝒙𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟖𝟒

(d) Solution after second iteration 𝒙𝟐 = 𝟏. 𝟎𝟐𝟒