Obs and Gyne 6th year Yaqeen

1. Regarding Trichomonas vaginalis infection, one is correct:

a. Is treated by multiple antibiotics
b. Is caused by a gram-positive bacillus
c. Commonly causes pelvic inflammatory disease
d. Is a sexually transmitted disease
e. Associated with post-term pregnancy

Answer: D

2. The most serious complication of preterm premature rupture of membrane (PPROM) at 28

weeks is:
a. Limb contraction
b. Fetal compression anomaly (something like that)
c. Intrauterine infection
d. Pulmonary hypoplasia
e. Malpresentation

Answer: C

3. A 50 something -year-old woman is found to have well-differentiated endometrioid endometrial

cancer. All the following are true except:
a. A pelvic ultrasound would show endometrial thickness more than 5mm
b. The patient is more likely to be nulliparous
c. The patient is expected to be overweight
d. The presenting symptoms of this patient is lower abdominal and pelvic pain (I think)
e. The final pathology is expected to show early-stage disease.

Answer: D

4. All of the following are theories of endometriosis except:

a. Immune factor
b. Retrograde menstruation
c. Coelomic metaplasia (I think it was written like this)
d. Endometrial hyperplasia
e. Aberrant lymphatic or vascular spread (something like this)

Answer: D

5. Regarding primary amenorrhea, all of the following are correct except:

 a. Patients with Rokitansky syndrome have 46XY karyotype
b. Gonadal failure is a common cause
c. Girl with turner syndrome are phenotypically females
d. Gonadectomy should be performed in patients with 46XY gonadal dysgenesis ‫هيك متذكرين‬
e. Secondary sexual characters could be present

Answer: A

6. Regarding Chlamydia trachomatis, all are true except:

a. The most frequent clinical manifestation in males is urethritis
b. Is a gram negative bacteria
c. May cause neonatal conjunctivitis
d. Pyuria with no bacteria growth in mid stream catch is highly suggestive (something similar)
e. Cephalosporin is the drug of choice

Answer: E

7. Regarding Management of placenta previa, one of the following is correct:

a. In placenta previa major, consultation regarding the possible hysterectomy is mandatory
b. Double set up is the recommended management in placenta previa major
c. Is less common in multiple pregnancy
d. Grade 2 posterior can be delivered vaginally
e. …

Answer: A

8. Regarding RH iso immunization, all of the following are correct except:

a. First pregnancy is usually affected
b. Only occurs in rh negative mothers
c. Only occurs in rh positive fetus
d. Only occurs in rh positive father
e. Less likely to occur when there is an ABO incompatibility between the mother and child

Answer: A

9. Regarding hysterosalpingogram, all of the following are true except:

a. It can be used to diagnose hydrosalpinx
b. It could diagnose space occupying lesions
c. Water soluble contrast injected through the cervix
d. Need general anesthesia
e. Performed in the follicular phase of the cycle

Answer: D
 10. All of the following can cause secondary amenorrhea except:
a. Cushing Syndrome
b. Asherman’s syndrome
c. Anorexia nervosa
d. Transverse vaginal septum
e. turner mosaic

Answer: D

11. Regarding uterine atony, one of the following is true:

a. It can be aggravated by uterine massage
b. It can be aggravated by misoprostol
c. Can be aggravated by inhalational anesthesia
d. Can’t be managed surgically
e. Ergometrine usage is indicated in cardiac patients (I guess)

Answer: C

12. Regarding malpresentation and malposition, all of the following are true except:
a. Both oligo and polyhydramnios increase the risk of breech presentation
b. Footling breech is an indication for C/S
c. Persistent occipitoposterior position in the second stage is an indication for C/S
d. Forceps may be used for the delivery of the upcoming head in breech position
e. Right occiput posterior is more common than left occiput posterior

Answer: C I think

13. Regarding Cervical cancer, all of the following are true except:
a. History of vulvar squamous intraepithelial neoplasia is a risk factor
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervical account for about 70% of the cases
c. The presence of hydronephrosis indicate stage 2 disease
d. If the depth of invasion is < 3 mm, the tumor could be treated with cone biopsy
e. HPV DNA is detected in more than 95% of causes of squamous cell carcinoma

Answer: C

14. Regarding Gestational trophoblastic disease, all are true except:

a. Choriocarcinoma made up of cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts without villi
b. Placental placement trophoblastic are dominantly syncytiotrophoblastic tumors
c. Age under 20 years is a risk factor
d. The risk of persistent trophoblastic disease is higher for complete than partial mole
e. Complete hydatidiform moles are diploid and androgenetic.
Answer: B

15. Regarding cholestasis of pregnancy, all of the following are true except:
a. Polyhydramnios is a known complication
b. Diagnosis is confirmed by elevated liver enzymes and/or bile salts level
c. Usually recurs in subsequent pregnancies
d. Usually occurs in (THIRST) trimester
e. Patient typically present with itching mainly on the palms and soles

Answer: D if they meant first A is also incorrect

16. Regarding the surgical management of tubal pregnancy, one of the following is correct:
a. Salpingostomy is indicated in cases of uncontrolled bleeding from the tube
b. Follow up HCG is recommended in all patients who had salpingectomy
c. As long as the contralateral tube looks health, salpingectomy is the ideal management
d. Interstitial pregnancy usually presents earlier than ampullary pregnancy
e. Laparoscopy is contraindicated in obese patients

Answer: c

17. Regarding DM in pregnancy, one of the following is true:

a. Fetal death can be easily expected and prevented
b. The risk of miscarriage is lower than in non-diabetic females
c. Facial cleft is the most common fetal anomaly
d. Serial ophthalmic assessment is mandatory for asymptomatic female who have gestational DM
e. Postprandial sugar readings are largely linked to something

Answer: C?

18. Regarding Implants, all of the following are true except:

A. Norplant is 6 rods implanted under the skin

B. Use of implants results in infertility for 1 year
C. Implanon is rod contains etonogestrel
D. Implanon is effective for 3 years
E. Side effects include vaginal spotting

Answer: B

19. Regarding gynecologic surgery, all of the following are true except:
 a. Radical hysterectomy includes removal of uterus, cervix and parametrium
b. In menorrhagia, endometrial biopsy is indicated in young women with PCOS
c. Tension free vaginal tape is used in stress incontinence
d. Small submucosal fibroid is best removed by operative hysteroscopy
e. Laparoscopic hysterectomy is associated with longed stay compared to open hysterectomy

Answer: E

20. Regarding post-term pregnancies, all of the following are true except:
a. Anencephaly pregnancies are at higher risk of post term pregnancy
b. Is associated with increased risk of shoulder dystocia
c. The perinatal mortality is doubled each week after 42
d. It occurs in about 10-20% of pregnancies
e. Is associated with increased risk of oligohydramnios

Answer: A

21. In normal pregnancy, levels of all the following hormones increase except one:
a. Total thyroxine (T4)
b. Parathyroid hormone
c. Prolactin
d. Free cortisol
e. Estradiol

Answer: B

22. All of the following need immediate delivery regardless of gestational age except:

a. Antepartum hemorrhage
b. Acute fatty liver
c. HELLP syndrome
d. Severe PET
e. Chorioamnionitis

Answer: A

23. An asymptomatic primigravida came for the booking visit at 10 weeks of gestation, a urine
culture revealed 100,000 colony/ml e.coli, the next step in management is:
a. Renal ultrasound
b. Treat with oral antibiotics
c. Admit for IV antibiotics
d. Repeat urine culture
e. Wait to see if symptoms develop
Answer: B

24. Regarding ovarian masses/cysts, all of the following are true except:
a. Granulosa cell tumor is associated with endometrial hyperplasia
b. Patients with endometrioma usually have very high CA125 (>500U/ml)
c. Functional cyst is the most common type
d. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is associated with theca luteal cysts
e. CA19.9 is usually associated with mucinous tumor

Answer: B

25. The most significant risk factor for preterm delivery is:
a. Heavy maternal work
b. Previous preterm delivery
c. Bacteriuria
d. Uterine anomaly
e. Previous second trimester abortion

Answer: B

26. All of the following should be delivered by C/S except:

a. Mild abruption at 6cm dilated cervix
b. Major placenta previa with dead fetus at 30 weeks
c. Transverse lie with rupture of membrane
d. Persistent brow presentation in the second stage of labor
e. Cord prolapse at 4 cm dilated cervix

Answer: A

27. Regarding the management of painless mild antepartum hemorrhage (placenta previa) at 32
weeks, one of the following is correct
a. Cervical cancer is not one of the differentials
b. Fetal heart rate of 160-165/min is pathological in this case
c. Placenta previa major is the cause (something like this)
d. Speculum exam is not indicated in this case
e. Expectant management till term and administration of steroids is recommended, especially if
bleeding stops

Answer: E

28. Regarding the work-up for primary amenorrhea all of the following are true except:
 a. Clinical history play an important role in reaching the diagnosis
b. TSH should be included
c. Pelvic ultrasound is mandatory
d. Karyotyping should be performed if FSH and LH are low
e. Brain tumors should be excluded in all cases of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

Answer: D

29. Regarding the second stage of labor, all of the following are true except:
a. CTG monitoring is mandatory in high-risk pregnancies
b. If a multiparous had an epidural, 2 hours may be allowed for the second stage
c. Oxytocin is contraindicated in the second stage of labor
d. Midline episiotomy is associated with low risk of bleeding
e. The need for episiotomy should be assessed all the time during crowning.

Answer: C

30. Regarding early decelerations, one of the following is correct:

a. Associated with unengaged head of the fetus
b. An indication for C/S
c. Indicates fetal hypoxia
d. A decrease in the fetal heartbeat that peaks after the peak of uterine contractions
e. Results from increased vaginal tone secondary to head compression

Answer: E

31. Hyperextension of the head is found in:

A. Breech presentation
B. Face presentation
C. Shoulder presentation
D. Hydrocephalic baby
E. Vertex

Answer: B

32. Regarding the anemia in pregnancy, all of the following are true except:
a. Blood transfusion might be necessary towards reaching term
b. IV iron can cause an allergic reaction
c. Iron deficiency anemia is confirmed if MCV is below 85fl
d. Iron supplement of 10mgs daily is not enough to treat iron deficiency anemia
e. Iron demand in pregnancy increases from 2mg to 4mg/day

Answer: C
 33. The term pelvic inflammatory disease indicates:
a. Infection of Bartholin’s glands
b. Infection of the vagina
c. Infection of Skene’s glands
d. Endometritis and salpingo-oophiritis
e. Infection of the urinary bladder

Answer: D

34. All of the following organisms may infect the neonate as a result of vaginal delivery except:
a. Malaria
b. GBS
c. HPV
d. HIV
e. Chlamydia trachomatis

Answer: A

35. A 49 years old patient gas premature ovarian failure for unknown cause, management can
include all of the following except:
a. Weight bearing exercise
b. Vitamin D
c. Estrogen only HRT
d. Raloxifene
e. Phytoestrogen

Answer: C

36. Regarding Magnesium sulfate (MGSo4), all of the following are correct except:
a. May cause Cardiac depression
b. Calcium gluconate is the antidote
c. Can abort and prevent further convulsions
d. Toxicity is confirmed by measuring the blood level
e. Absent deep tendon reflexes indicate the need for a higher dose

Answer: E

37. A 30 years old patient had cervical smear that revealed atypical squamous intraepithelial cells of
undetermined significance (ASCUS). All her previous smears were normal, the best action for this
patient is
 a. Cone biopsy
b. Repeat the smear in 6 months
c. Hysterectomy
d. HPV testing
e. Refer to colposcopy and biopsy

Answer: D?

38. The signs and symptoms of uterine inversion include all of the following except:
a. Sensation of vaginal fullness with a desire to bear down
b. Bandl’s ring
c. Shock
d. Abdominal examination: cupping of the fundus
e. Vaginal examination: soft purple mass in the vagina

Answer: B

39. Regarding fetal congenital anomalies, all of the following are correct except:
a. The commonest cause is genetic
b. Not all are detected at birth
c. Gastroschisis is an abdominal wall defect
d. Sudden intrauterine fetal death is a possible complication
e. The incidence of major anomalies is 1-2%

Answer: A?

40. Regarding female urinary system, one of the following is true:

a. Sympathetic nervous system promotes voiding
b. Bladder capacity is usually between 200 and 300 ml
c. Flow rate during voiding is normally >15/sec
d. Alpha receptors are present mainly in the bladder body
e. Overflow incontinence in females is usually due to bladder outlet obstruction

Answer: C

41. Uterine anomalies can be associated with all of the following except:
a. Urinary tract anomalies
b. Cervical incompetence
c. Premature ovarian failure
d. Miscarriages
e. Preterm labor
Answer: C?

42. Criteria for severe preeclampsia include all of the following except:
a. Low platelets count
b. Oliguria
c. Diastolic pressure of 110 or more
d. Decreased hematocrit
e. Presence of epigastric pain

Answer: D

43. In turner’s syndrome, all the following statements are correct except:
a. Has a webbed neck
b. The ovaries are usually well developed
c. It occurs in females with XO genotype
d. The girls have short stature
e. The nipples are widely spaced

Answer: B

44. Regarding cervical cancer and its prevention, only one is correct:

a. HPV DNA testing is recommended in the management of smears showing HSIL

b. Pap smear screening is started at the age of the onset sexual activity
c. HPV vaccines can prevent 100% of cervical cancer if administered on national basis
d. Pap smear screening can be safely stopped when the patient reaches menopause
e. Liquid based cytology is superior to conventional pap smear

Answer: E

45. The most important muscle in the pelvic floor:

a. Bulbo cavernousus
b. Deep transverse perineal muscle
c. Superficial transverse Perineal
d. Ischio-cavernosus
e. Levator Ani

Answer: E
 46. Regarding epithelial ovarian cancer, one of the following is correct:
a. Surgery and chemotherapy are needed in majority of cases
b. The risk is lower among women who have breast cancer
c. Usually affect old multiparous women
d. Carry a good prognosis even in advanced stage
e. Usually present with hormonal manifestation

Answer: A

47. Regarding Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCP), all of the following are true except:
a. Phenytoin reduces the efficacy of COCP
b. Venous thromboembolism is the main side effect
c. Prolonged use could cause osteoporosis
d. Thinning of endometrium is one of its mechanism of action
e. It reduces the incidence of endometrial cancer

Answer: C

48. Regarding chronic hypertension is pregnancy, all one of the following is true
a. Antihypertensive medications are not always prescribed antenatally
b. Angiotensin converting enzyme, (ACE) inhibitors are safe during pregnancy
c. The use of thiazide diuretics is advised
d. Methyldopa is a drug that acts peripherally
e. The perinatal risk is only increased in the presence of proteinuria

Answer: A or E?

49. The most common cause of secondary PPH is:

a. Uterine fibroid
b. Genital tract trauma
c. Coagulopathy
d. Infection
e. Abnormal av formation

Answer: D

50. Regarding hydatidiform mole, all of the following are true except:
a. There is no fetus tissue in partial mole
b. Complete molar pregnancy rarely contains maternal genetic material
c. B-HCG is a reliable tumor marker for treatment monitoring
d. Malignant sequelae should be treated promptly
e. Oral contraceptives is safe during post treatment monitoring

Answer: A
 51. Hysterosalpingiogram is used for diagnosis of all of the following except:
a. Endometrial polyp
b. Bicornuate uterus
c. Asherman’s syndrome
d. Atrophic endometrium
e. Submucous fibroid

Answer: D

52. Regarding the management of gestation trophoblastic disease (GTD), all are correct except:
a. The risk for the development of persistent GTD is higher among patients with initial
HCG>100,00mIU/ml
b. Serum B-HCG is a sensitive marker for treatment response
c. Methotrexate is the treatment for patients with low risk malignant GTD
d. Liver is the most common site of metastasis
e. The standard therapy is suction evacuation (something like this)

Answer: D

53.Regarding labor, one of the following is correct:

A. Ruptured membranes is diagnostic of labor
B. In primigravida, the head should be engaged when labor starts.
C. Primigravida having 3 uterine contractions in 10 minutes and the cervix was 4cm dilated is
considered in labor
D. Latent phase in primigravida is usually less than 6 hours
E. Two uterine contractions in 10 minutes each lasting for 25-30 seconds are considered effective

Answer: C

54. A 30 years old asymptomatic woman has missed period for 6 weeks, ultrasound examination
revealed an empty uterus, her HCG was 1200 and progesterone level was 35, one of the
following is correct:
A. It is recommended to give patient methotrexate
B. This is most likely unhealthy pregnancy as the HCG levels are not consistent with 6 weeks
C. Diagnostic laparoscopy is indicated to search for the pregnancy
D. This is most likely unhealthy pregnancy as the uterus was empty after 6 weeks of amenorrhea
E. It is recommended to review the situation by ultrasound and HCG levels after 48 hours
Answer: E

55. All the following measures are beneficial in reducing the maternal morbidity and mortality from
PPH except:
 A. Active management of the third stage of labor.
B. Asses the risk antenatally
C. Augmentation of labor
D. Correct anemia before labor
E. Wide bore cannulas at the time of admission

Answer: C

56. Regarding twin pregnancy, all of the following are true except:
a. Conjoined twins will result if the division occur after 12 days of fertilization
b. The most common presentation is cephalic-cephalic
c. Advanced maternal age and parity are risk factors
d. Polyhydramnios is rare in monozygotic pregnancy
e. The best time to determine chronicity is in the first trimester

Answer: D

57. Regarding management of painful heavy antepartum hemorrhage at 32 weeks, one of the
following is correct:
a. Placenta previa is the likely cause
b. Coagulation screening is not one of the investigations requested or (recommended)
c. (tractocile) atosiban is the drug of choice
d. If the bleeding cause is attributed to uterine dehiscence. Then emergency c/s is indicated
e. Steroids should be administered for lung maturity

Answer

58. Perquisites for vacuum extractor delivery include all of the following except:
a. A fully dilated cervix
b. Ruptured membranes
c. An adequate pelvis
d. Occipito-anterior position of the head
e. Engagement of the head

Answer: D?

59. Treatment of endometriosis include all of the following except:

a. Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
b. Surgical extraction of endometriotic lesions
c. Tamoxifen
 d. Oral progesterone
e. GnRH analogue

Answer: c

60. Regarding the active management of the third stage of labor, one of the following is correct
a. Uterine inversion is a common finding with proper application of active management
b. With active management, the placenta usually takes an hour for its delivery
c. Oxytocic medication should be given intravenously at the delivery of the head of the baby
d. Cord elongation is a sing of placental detachment
e. Cord traction should be initiated immediately after the delivery of the baby

Answer: D

61. Regarding acute placental abruption at 32 weeks, one of the following is correct:
A. Kielhauer betke test is the standard way of diagnosing abruption
B. Trauma to the abdomen is the most likely cause
C. There is no increased risk of recurrence in future pregnancies
D. Augmentation of labor and delivery is recommended
E. Expectant management in case of fetal demises is recommended

Answer: D

62. Regarding postmenopausal bleeding, one of the following is correct:

a. Endometrial ablation is an ideal management option
b. Pipelle endometrial sampling has similar sensitivity and specificity to hysteroscopy and
endometrial biopsy
c. Hormone replacement therapy is indicated in all women
d. Endometrial thickness of 8mm is an indication of endometrial biopsy
e. It is defined as any vaginal bleeding after 51 years of age

Answer: D

63. All of the following are increased during normal pregnancy except:
A. Red cell mass
B. Heart rate
C. Cardiac output
D. Peripheral vascular resistance
E. White blood cells count

Answer: D
 64. Regarding HELLP syndrome, all are true except:
a. It is associated with increased lactate dehydrogenase
b. It is associated with elevated liver enzymes
c. More common in primigravida
d. Can be confused with hemolytic uremic syndrome
e. May present with non-specific findings such as nausea, vomiting and epigastric pain

Answer: C

65. Screening is most effective in preventing which cancer

A. Cervical
B. Endometrial
C. Ovarian
D. Vaginal
E. …

Answer: A

66. Regarding the management of DM in pregnancy, only one is correct:

a. Polyhydramnios induced by poorly controlled sugar levels can be corrected after controlling the
sugar levels (something similar)
b. 40 weeks of gestation is the ideal time for delivery in uncontrolled DM
c. Insulin administration is always indicated in Gestational DM females
d. Shoulder dystocia in GDM women is attributed to fetal weight only
e. We aim to maintain blood sugar levels between 8 and 12 mmol/L

Answer: A

67. Regarding the management of menorrhagia, one of the following is correct

a. Tranexamic acid is contraindicated in patients with bleeding disorders
b. Endometrial ablation is preferred in young multiparous women
c. Combined pills are indicated in smoker women above 45 years old
d. Mirena is contraindicated in patients with previous C/S
e. NSAIDS can reduce the amount of bleeding by 25-50%

Answer: E

68. Regarding uterine inversion, all of the following are true except:
a. It is a common complication of delivery of the placenta
b. Johnson maneuver is the manual replacement of the inverted uterus
c. Short umbilical cord is a risk factor
 d. Hydrostatic pressure could be used for replacement
e. Is the descent of the uterine fundus in the cavity, through the cervix or vulva

Answer: A

69. Regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome, all of the following are true except:
A. At puberty the is an increase level of testosterone secretion
B. LH is high in teenagers
C. Pubic hair and axillary hair development will occur
D. The wolffian duct will degenerate
E. There is a significant gonadal/peripheral aromatization of testosterone to estrogen

Answer: c

70. All of these drugs can be used as tocolytics of labor except:

a. Nifedipine
b. Indomethacin
c. Prostaglandin
d. Magnesium Sulphate (MGSo4)
e. Ritodrine (B agonist)

Answer: C

71. Transplacental infection occur in all of the following except:

a. Toxoplasma
b. Rubella
c. Syphilis
d. Cytomegalovirus
e. Gonorrhea

Answer: E

72. Regarding HPV, all of the following are true except:

A. Most HPV infection will typically resolve within 12 months
B. Introduction of HPV vaccines have been associated with declines in cervical cancer prevalence
and incidence
C. Are double stranded DNA viruses
D. Among the 40 genital HPV types identified, approximately 15 are known to be oncogenic
E. HPV 16 and 18 are found in over than 90% of all cervical cancers

Answer:E?
 73. Regarding twins delivery, one of the following is correct
a. Augmentation with oxytocin can be used if indicated
b. Episiotomy should be performed routinely
c. Internal version should not be performed for the second tiwn (something like this
d. ..
e. ..

Answer: A

74. Regarding cervical incompetence all are correct except:

a. Abdominal cerclage is the best choice of treatment
b. Cervical cerclage should be removed if patient developed uterine contractions
c. Could be a complication of cone biopsy
d. Causes painless 2nd trimester miscarriage
e. Transvaginal ultrasound shows cervical length of <25mm

Answer: A

75. All of the following are possible complications of IUGR except:

a. Intrauterine fetal death
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Meconium aspiration
d. Fetal distress in labor
e. Shoulder dystocia

Answer:

76. In ovarian masses, ultrasound features that are suggestive of malignancy include all of the
following except:
a. Thick septation
b. Size >10cm
c. Peritoneal nodules
d. Solid component
e. Presence of ascites

Answer: B

77. Regarding puerperium, all of the following are true except:

a. After 2 weeks of delivery, the uterus fundus will be at the level of the symphysis pubis
b. The best empirical treatment in mastitis is flucloxacillin
c. Methyldopa increases the risk of postpartum depression
d. There is usually diuresis in the first 5 days after delivery
e. Warfarin is contraindicated in breastfeeding mothers
 Answer: E

78. Regarding instrumental vaginal delivery, only one of the following is correct
a. Vacuum cup should be applied over the anterior fontanelle to encourage extension
b. Cephalohematoma is more likely in forceps than in vacuum
c. Wrigley’s forceps is used in delivery of the after coming head in breech presentation
d. Kielland’s forceps have a sliding lock in order to correct asynclitism
e. …

Answer: D

79. Edematous swelling of the fetal scalp during labor is:

a. Moulding
b. Sublegal hemorrhage
c. Cephalohematoma
d. Caput succenadum
e. …

Answer: D

80. The best contraceptive method for a 43 years old female who has a regular excessive menstrual
loss:
a. Levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine device
b. Condoms
c. Copper releasing IUCD
d. Tubal Ligation
e. Combined oral contraceptive pills

Answer: A

81. Regarding hyperemesis gravidarum, all are correct except:

a. Occurs in about 1% of gravid women
b. Wernicke’s encephalopathy can complicate severe cases
c. Occurs more in frequently in first pregnancy
d. Steroid therapy is not helpful
e. Urine testing will show ketonuria

Answer: D

82. Hydatidiform mole could be characterized by all of the following except:

a. Severe hyperemesis
b. Preeclampsia
c. Theca-lutein cyst of the ovary
 d. Hypothyroidism
e. Uterus larger than gestational age

Answer: D

83. Regarding miscarriage, all are correct except:

a. In complete miscarriage, the cervical os is often closed
b. Threatened miscarriage needs expectant management
c. Inevitable miscarriage should be treated by surgical evacuation
d. Medical termination is indicated in missed miscarriage at 15 weeks gestation
e. Septic miscarriage could be complicate incomplete miscarriage

Answer: C

84. Regarding endometriosis, all of the following are true except:

a. Diagnostic laparoscopy is the gold standard diagnostic tool
b. Cause postcoital bleeding
c. Usually improve during pregnancy
d. Endometrioma is usually diagnosed by ultrasound
e. Serum Ca125 could be elevated in endometriosis
Answer: B

85. Regarding menopause, all of the following are true except:

a. There is an increased vaginal acidity
b. Contraceptive methods are necessary until the menopause is well established
c. Premature menopause is cessation of menstruation before the age of 40
d. Hot flushes are usually self-resolving
e. Mammogram is recommended before the hormonal replacement therapy use

Answer: A

86. In the days after ovulation, all of the following occur except:
a. The basal temperature rises
b. The plasma progesterone concentration rises
c. Corpus luteum form
d. The endometrium undergoes proliferative changes
e. Cervical mucous becomes more viscous and scantier

Answer: D

87. Regarding induction of labor, one of the following is correct:

a. The most common indication for induction is reduced fetal movement
b. The success rate of induction is higher among women with lower bishop score
c. Prostaglandins are the most effective methods used
d. Induction of labor is contraindicated in women with previous C/S
 e. Induction of labor is contraindicated if the fetus has congenital anomalies

Answer: D (if they meant classical)

88. Regarding regional analgesia and anesthesia, all are correct except:
a. The onset of action is earlier in epidural than in spinal
b. Epidural analgesia prolongs the second stage of labor
c. Headache is a recognized side effect of epidural
d. Meningitis is a possible complication
e. Coagulopathy is a contraindication

Answer: A

89. Regarding ultrasound examination in the third trimester, all of the following are correct except:
a. Can diagnose oligohydramnios
b. Can accurately estimate the expected date of delivery
c. Can diagnose placenta previa
d. Can diagnose fetal macrosomia
e. Can diagnose fetal anomalies

Answer: b

90. The normal sequence of puberty is:

a. Thelarche, adrenarche, growth, menarche
b. adrenarche, adrenarche, growth, menarche
c. growth, menarche, adrenarche, thelarche.
d. …
e. ..

Answer: A

91. Regarding candida albicans, all are true except:

A. It is associated with DM
B. Causes a discharge with acidic PH
C. Causes white plaques on the vaginal wall
D. Causes the typical strawberry cervix.
E. Can be treated with oral Fluconazole

Answer: D
 92. Antiphospholipid question, all are characteristics except:
a. Placental abruption
b. Can cause either arterial or venous thrombosis
c. Three embryonic Pregnancy losses unexplained by maternal or paternal causes
d. Premature births before 34 weeks because of polyhydramnios
e. Three embryonic pregnancy losses before 10 weeks unexplained by maternal
or paternal causes.
Answer: D

93. Sfa question

Answer: the abnormal number was the concentration it was 10 million

94. Regarding clomiphene citrate, only one is correct

a. It doesn’t increase the risk of multiple pregnancy
b. Can be used in premature ovarian failure
c. It is given as an injection
d. It is commonly used for induction of ovulation in IVF programs
e. Increases pituitary gonadotropin secretion

Answer: D (E is also true)

95.Regarding drugs in pregnancy and lactation one of the following is correct:

a. Weakly basic drugs are transferred easier than acidic drugs into the breast milk
b. Drugs’ ionization status is the most important determinant of transplacental drug transfer
c. The FDA drugs classification is fixed during all trimesters
d. The use of teratogenic drugs in the first couple of weeks of the embryo are not lethal (something
similar)
e. Transplacental drug transfer decreased with advancing gestational age

Answer: A

96. A 7 years old who had lower quadrant pain with ultrasound showing ovarian mass, the most
likely tumor in this patient is:
a. Brunner tumor
b. Germ cell tumor
c. …
d. …
e. …

Answer: B

97. Question regarding stress incontinence all are true except (given as a bonus due to typo)
a.Anticholinergic drugs is the treatment
b. something about voiding and filling in urodynamic study.
c. …
d. …
 e. …

98. question about urge incontinence, what is incorrect:

a. Bladder neck suspension is the surgery used
b. …
c. …
d. …
e. …
answer: A
99. Question about uterine dehiscence, what is correct
a. happens less in multipara than primi
b. more antenatally than intrapartum
c. …
d. …
e. …
Answer:

100. Full thickness myomectomy is an indication for c/s in future pregnancy ‫كان جواب بس شو السؤال ناسيين‬