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UTTAR PRADESH JUDICIAL SERVICES MOCK EXAMINATION - 2023

TEST - I
JURISPRUDENCE, CONTRACT, TPA, DV, POCSO and CA

Negative Marking: 0.33 marks per question

Total Questions: 200

Maximum Marks: 200
Duration: 2:00 Hours
Date: 01/01/2023
Jurisprudence
1. Mark the correct statement:
(a) Natural law is the idea that there are rational objective limits to the power of
legislative rulers. The foundations of law are accessible through human
reason and it is from these laws of nature that human created laws gain
whatever force they have.
(b) Legal Positivism, by contrast to natural law, holds that there is no necessary
connection between law and morality and that the force of law comes from
some basic social facts although positivists differ on what those facts are.
(c) Legal Realism is a third theory of jurisprudence which argues that the real
world practice of law is what determines what law is. The law has the force
that it does because of what legislators, judges, and executives do with it.
(d) All of the above
2. When was the term ‘jurisprudence’ first attested?
(a) 1628
(b) 1629
(c) 1630
(d) 1631
3. Who among the following distinguished between expositorial Jurisprudence and
censorial Jurisprudence?
(a) Bentham
(b) Austin
(c) Julius Stone
(d) Buckland

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4. Austin occupied himself with which of the following?
(a) Expositorial jurisprudence
(b) Censorial jurisprudence
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
5. Who among the following said “The law of every country is the outcome and
result of the economic and social conditions of that country as well as the
expression of its intellectual capacity for dealing with these conditions.”?
(a) Salmond
(b) Holland
(c) Savigny
(d) Lord Bryce
6. Who said that “Law grows with the growth and strengthens with the strength of
people and its standard of excellence will generally be found of any given period
to be in complete harmony with the prevailing ideas of the best class of citizens
Progress in the formation of law keep pace with the progress in the knowledge of
the people”?
(a) Austin
(b) Savigny
(c) Bentham
(d) None of the above
7. Who said “Jurisprudence is the formal science of positive law. It is a formal or
analytical science rather than material science. He terms the positive law as the
general rule of external human action enforced by a sovereign political authority.
He follows the definition of auction but he adds the term formal which means that
which concerns only the form and not its essence. A formal science is one, which
describes only the form or the external side of the subject and not it internal
contents.”?
(a) Salmond
(b) Savigny
(c) Holland
(d) Keeton

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8. Who said that “Jurisprudence as the science of law means civil law or law of the
land.”?
(a) Roscoe Pound
(b) Gray
(c) Salmond
(d) Austin
9. Who said that “Jurisprudence the study and systematic arrangement of general
principles of law. Jurisprudence deals with the distinction between public and
private laws and considers the contents of the principal departments of law.”?
(a) Gray
(b) Keeton
(c) Pound
(d) Bentham
10. Who said that “Jurisprudence the science of law using the term law in the juridical
sense as denoting the body of principles recognized or enforced by public and
regular tribunals in the administration of justice.”?
(a) Austin
(b) Salmond
(c) Savigny
(d) Pound
11. Which of the following is correct about privilege, according to Hohfeld?
(a) Privilege means the freedom which a person has i.e. to do or not to do
something.
(b) Privilege means what one can do for himself without being prevented by the
law or one is free of the possibility of legal interference by others e.g., a
person of a certain age would be entitled to vote–this confers not right but in
fact privilege because one may entertain this right or not–it is the choice of
the individual concerned–the state cannot compel him for the same.
(c) The jural opposition between duty and privilege does not mean simply that
the one cancels out the other, but that they will only have that effect when the
content of one is irreconcilable with the content of the other.
(d) All of the above

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12. Who among the following is stated to be the father of natural law?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Thomas Aquinas
(c) Socrates
(d) Plato
13. Mark the correct statement:
(a) If ‘Y’ has a right, there must be duty on ‘X’. A duty in ‘X’ implies the absence
of privilege in ‘X’. Therefore, a right in ‘Y’ implies the absence of privilege in
‘X’, i.e., right and privilege as ‘Jural contradictions’.
(b) The presence of a privilege in ‘X’ implies the absence of a right in ‘Y’. Hohfeld
calls the condition ‘no-right’ therefore a privilege in ‘X’ implies the presence of
a ‘no-right’ in ‘Y’, i.e., privilege and no-right are ‘jural correlatives’.
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
14. Who distinguished the kinds of law into eternal law, natural law, human law and
divine law?
(a) Thomas Aquinas
(b) Socrates
(c) Plato
(d) None of the above
15. Who among the following expressed a view of natural law as a precept, or
general rule, found out by reason, by which a man is forbidden to do that which is
destructive of his life, or takes away the means of preserving the same; and to
omit that by which he thinks it may best be preserved. Hobbes was a social
contrarian and believed that the law gained peoples' tacit consent. He believed
that society was formed from a state of nature to protect people from the state of
war between mankind that exists otherwise. Life is, without an ordered society,
solitary, poor, nasty and short?
(a) Thomes Hobbes
(b) Thomas Aquinas
(c) Plato
(d) Aristotle

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16. Which of the following means that laws may seek to enforce justice, morality, or
any other normative end, but their success or failure in doing so does not
determine their validity. Provided a law is properly formed, in accordance with the
rules recognized in the society concerned, it is a valid law, regardless of whether
it is just by some other standard?
(a) Positive law
(b) Natural Law
(c) Realist Law
(d) None of the above
17. Who propounded pure theory of law?
(a) Kelson
(b) Hart
(c) Salmond
(d) Austin
18. Who defined customs as the embodiment of those principles which have
commended themselves to the national and national conscience as the principles
of justice and public utility?
(a) Salmond
(b) Holland
(c) Hans Kelson
(d) Hart
19. Who stated that custom is a rule of conduct which the governed observed
spontaneously and not in pursuance of law set by political superior?
(a) Austin
(b) Holland
(c) Salmond
(d) Keeton
20. Analytical school of jurisprudence is also known by which of the following names?
(a) The Austinian school
(b) The imperative school
(c) The Positivist School
(d) All of the above

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21. Who is known as the father of English Jurisprudence?
(a) John Austin
(b) Hans Kelson
(c) John Locke
(d) Rousseau
22. Who distinguishes law from morality?
(a) Holland
(b) Pound
(c) Heeton
(d) Bentham
23. Who defined law as an assemblage of signs declarative of a volition conceived or
adopted by the sovereign in a state, concerning the conduct to be observed in a
certain case by a certain person or class of persons, who in the case in question
are or are supposed to be subject to his power?
(a) Austin
(b) Bentham
(c) Pound
(d) Socrates
24. Who supported the economic principle of ‘laissez faire’?
(a) Hart
(b) Bentham
(c) Savigny
(d) Duguit
25. Mark the correct statement pertaining to the principle of utilitarianism.
(a) Bentham propounded the principle of utilitarianism.
(b) According to this theory, the right aim of legislation is the carrying out of the
principle utility.
(c) Bentham defined utility as the property or tendency of a thing to prevent
some evil or procure some good. According to him, the consequences of
good and evil are respectively 'pleasure and pain'.
(d) All of the above
26. Duguit belonged to which of the following schools of jurisprudence?
(a) Analytical
(b) Sociological
(c) Historical
(d) Philosophical

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27. Fill in the blank: ___________ concentrates more on functional aspect of law. So,
his approach may also be known as functional approach. According to him 'The
end of law should be to satisfy a maximum of wants with a minimum of friction.'
He demands for maximum happiness with less disagreement.
(a) John Locke
(b) Hans Kelson
(c) Roscoe Pound
(d) Duguit
28. Who among the following propounded the theory of social engineering?
(a) Roscoe Pound
(b) Duguit
(c) Savigny
(d) Friedmann
29. Whose theory under one of the schools of jurisprudence is known as a social
solidarity?
(a) Roscoe Pound
(b) John Locke
(c) Thomes Hobbes
(d) Duguit
30. Who founded the Historical School of Jurisprudence?
(a) Friedrich Karl von Savigny
(b) George Friedrich Puchta
(c) Holland
(d) Pullock
31. Who defined natural law as the dictate of right reason which points out that an
act, according as it is or is not in conformity with rational nature, has in it a quality
of moral baseness or moral necessity?
(a) Immanuel Kant
(b) Hegel
(c) Grotius
(d) Gray

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32. Mark the correct statement with respect to the realist school:
(a) Realist School is a type of school which focuses on decisions. It is a branch
of sociological school.
(b) Realists have a pragmatic approach towards understanding jurisprudence
and thus it emphasizes the judicial organization more which is responsible for
the application of the law.
(c) The realist school of law believes that law is real and co-relates law with
reality.
(d) All of the above
33. John Chipman Grey belonged to which of the following schools?
(a) Realist School
(b) Historical School
(c) Analytical School
(d) Socialist School
34. Who is considered as the father of American Realism?
(a) George Friedrich Puchta
(b) John Chipman Grey
(c) Holland
(d) Immanuel Kant
35. Who said that law is the sum total of the conditions under which the personal
wishes of man can be reconciled with the personal wishes of another man in
accordance with a general law of freedom?
(a) Immanuel Kant
(b) Grey
(c) Hegel
(d) Grotius
36. Who came up with the theory of ‘The Volksgeist’?
(a) Kelson
(b) Savigny
(c) Kant
(d) Hegel

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37. Which of the following is a theory of rights?
(a) The Will Theory
(b) The Interest Theory
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
38. Which of the following may be regarded as the elements of a legal right?
(i) The subject: Subject means the person in whom the right is vested, or the
holder of the right. There can be no right without a subject.
(ii) The act of forbearance: Right relates to some act or forbearance. It obliges a
person to act or forbear in favour of the person who is entitled to the right.
(iii) The object of right or the res concerned: it is the thing in respect of which the
rightexists or is exercised.
(iv) The person bound or the person of incidence: It means the person upon who
falls the correlative duty.
Codes:
(a) (i)(ii)(iii)
(b) (ii)(iii)(iv)
(c) (iii)(iv)
(d) (i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
39. Who said that A legal right is an “interest which is protected and recognized by
the rule of law. It is an interest which has its duty and disregard of which is
wrong”?
(a) Salmond
(b) Bentham
(c) Austin
(d) Gray
40. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court stated that “Legal rights in the
strict sense are correlatives of legal duties and legal rights are defined as the
interests which the law protects by imposing duties on other persons. But the
legal right in the strict sense means right is the immunity from the legal power of
another. Immunity is no subjection at all”?
(a) State of Rajasthan v Union of India
(b) State of Gujrat v Union of Indaia
(c) State of Maharashtra v Union of India
(d) None of the above

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 The Indian Contract Act
41. When a thing which is commonly the subject of sale, is lost, if the owner cannot,
with reasonable diligence, be found, or if he refuses on demand, to pay the lawful
charges of the finder, the finder may sell it–
[Mark the incorrect statement]
(a) When the thing is in danger of perishing
(b) When the thing is in danger of losing the greater part of its value
(c) When the lawful charges of the finder, in respect of the thing found, amount
to one-third of its value
(d) The provision of Section 169 deals with the cases where the finder of thing,
commonly on sale, may sell it
42. A entrusts B with negotiable instruments endorsed in blank. B sells them to his
‘C’ in violation of private orders from A. In such a case–
(a) The sale is good
(b) The sale is void
(c) The sale is voidable at the option of A
(d) Both (a) and (c) are correct, depending upon the circumstances
43. A gives authority to B to sell A’s land and to pay himself, out of the proceeds, the
debts due to him from A. In such a case-
(a) A can revoke this authority
(b) Such authority can be terminated by A’s death
(c) Such authority cannot be terminated by the insanity of A
(d) All of the above are correct
44. A sells and delivers goods to B. C afterwards, without consideration, agrees to
pay for them in default of B. The agreement is:
(a) Valid
(b) Voidable
(c) Void
(d) Either (a) or (b); depending upon the circumstances
45. If the parties to a contract agree to substitute a new contract for it, or to rescind or
alter it, the original contract need not be performed. This rule is contained in:
(a) Section 61
(b) Section 62
(c) Section 63
(d) Section 64

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46. Which of the following statement is incorrect:
(a) Law of contract is law of promises
(b) Law of contract is exhaustive law relating to the contract
(c) The contract is obligatory on the parties just as the law is
(d) None of the above
47. Mark the correct statement :
(a) Intention to contract is a specific element under Section 10 of Contract Act
(b) Intention to the contract has been made a requirement of Contract by the
express statutory provisions
(c) Test of intention to contract is subjective
(d) None of the above
48. Which of the following does not constitute a quasi-contract?
(a) Quantum meriut
(b) Novation
(c) Responsibility of finder of goods
(d) Obligation of a person enjoying benefit of non-gratuitous Act
49. Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in determining the question of
(a) Free consent
(b) Fraud
(c) Undue influence
(d) None of the above
50. Enumerate the statutory exceptions where a promise without consideration is a
contract-
(i) Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act
(ii) Section 185 of the Indian Contract Act
(iii) Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act
(iv) Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act
(a) Only (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), are correct
51. The basic principles for award of compensation for breach of contract were laid
down in:
(a) Hadley vs. Bexendale
(b) Carlil vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Company
(c) Smith vs. Hughes
(d) Both (a) and (c)

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52. A and B go into a shop. There B says to the shopkeeper–“Let A have the goods
and I will ensure that you are paid.” This is a contract of:
(a) Guarantee
(b) Indemnity
(c) Bailment
(d) Pledge
53. If only a part of the consideration or object is unlawful, the contract under Section
24 of the Act shall be–
(a) Void to the extent the same is unlawful
(b) Void as a whole
(c) Valid as a whole
(d) Valid to the extent the same is lawful
54. A bank guarantee is an independent contract between:
(a) Creditor and debtor
(b) Buyer and seller
(c) Bank and beneficiary
(d) All of the above
55. An agreement without consideration is:
(a) Void ab initio
(b) Voidable
(c) Valid
(d) Void, barring few exceptional circumstances
56. Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of
fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is:
(a) Valid
(b) Void
(c) Illegal
(d) None of the above
57. The maxim Impossibilium nulla obligitio est is related to which o the following
provision of the Indian contract act?
(a) Section 10
(b) Section 37
(c) Section 56
(d) Section 73

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58. The provisions with respect to a guarantee which extends to a series of
transactions is laid down in:
(a) Section 126
(b) Section 127
(c) Section 128
(d) Section 129
59. With special reference of Section 56, in which case it was held that it is not
permissible for the Courts to travel outside the provisions of the Section and
import the principles of English Law de hors the statutory provisions?
(a) SatyabrataGhose vs. MugneeramBangur
(b) Taylor vs. Caldwell
(c) Hadley vs bexendale
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
60. A gratuitous bailment is terminated by the death either of the bailor or of the
bailee, as laid down under:
(a) Section 162
(b) Section 163
(c) Section 164
(d) Section 165
61. Can the claim under section 70, Indian contract Act, 1872 be raised where the
parties are governed by a contract
(a) yes, as it is a statutory right
(b) yes, as it is an inherent right
(c) yes, as it is a right based upon equity & justice
(d) No
62. Damages under law of contract are:
(a) punitive
(b) not punitive
(c) may or may not be punitive
(d) none of the above
63. What is Bank Guarantee?
(a) It is a promise from a bank that if a particular borrower defaults on a loan, the
bank will cover the loss.
(b) It is a guarantee given by the bank to its borrowers regarding availability of
the funds.
(c) It is the security deposited by the borrower in the bank against his loan.
(d) none of the above

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64. Which of the following is true with respect to Indian contract Act?
(a) An agreement imposing penalty upon remarriage amounts to restraint of
marriage & thus, void
(b) An agreement restraining a minor from marriage amounts to restraint of
marriage & thus, void
(c) An agreement restraining a person to marry for fixed period of time does not
amount to restraint of marriage under section 26 of ICA & thus, a void
contract
(d) none of theabove
65. A Agrees to sell a property worth Rs. 5 Lakhs for Rs 1000. A's consent to the
agreement was freely given. Such an agreement is :
(a) Void as it is highly improbable that 'A' has freely consented
(b) Voidable as itis highly improbable that 'A' has freely consented
(c) Illegal as it is highly improbable that 'A' has freely consented
(d) A Valid Contract
66. 'A' finds B's bag & gives it to him. B promises to give 'A' Rs. 500. This is a
contract by virtue of:-
(a) Section 2(d) of the ICA
(b) Section 25(2) of the ICA
(c) Section 71 of ICA
(d) both (b) & (c)
67. 'A' and 'B' being traders, enter upon a contract,‘A’has private information of a
change in prices which would affect B's willingness to proceed with the contract
here:-
(a) 'A' is bound to inform 'B'
(b) 'A' is not bound to inform 'B'
(c) It depends upon A's willingness
(d) None of the above
68. 'A' knows that his horse had a damaged hoof which he filled in such a way as to
defy detention and sold it to 'B'. This defect was subsequently discovered by 'B'.
The Act of 'A' will amount to:-
(a) Active concealment of fact
(b) Misrepresentation
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above

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69. A, B & C are under a joint promise to pay 'D' Rs. 30000. 'C' is unable to pay
anything and A is compelled to pay the whole 'A' is:-
(a) Not entitled to recover anything from D & C
(b) Entitled to recover Rs. 15000 from 'B'
(c) Entitled to recover Rs. 30000 from 'B' & 'C'
(d) Entitled to recover Rs. 15000 from 'C'
70. 'A' &'B' contract that 'A' shall deliver goods to 'B' to be paid for by 'B' on delivery.
Then:-
(a) 'A' need not to deliver the goods, unless 'B' is ready & willing to pay for the
goods on delivery
(b) 'B' need not to pay for the goods, unless 'A' is ready & willing to deliver them
on payment
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
71. A, B & C as sureties for 'D' enter into three several bonds each in a different
penalty namely 'A' in the penalty of Rs. 10000, 'B' in that of Rs. 20000, C in that
of Rs. 40000, conditioned for D's duly accounting to E. 'D' makes default of Rs.
40000 what is the liability of A, B & C?
(a) C is liable to pay the whole of the defaulted amount Rs. 40000
(b) A, B & C are liable to pay equally
(c) A is liable to pay Rs. 10000 & 'B' is liable to pay Rs. 20000 & 'C' is liable to
pay Rs. 10000
(d) 'A' is liable to pay Rs 10000 & 'B' & 'C' Rs. 15000 each
72. If the bailee does any act with regard to the goods bailed, inconsistent with the
conditions of the bailment, the contract of bailment is
(a) void
(b) voidable at option of the bailee
(c) voidable at option of the bailor
(d) valid
73. Select the incorrect option
(a) all void agreements are illegal
(b) All illegal agreements are void
(c) A void agreement may or may not be illegal
(d) None of the above

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74. 'A' employs 'B' to beat 'C' and agree to indemnify him against all consequences of
the act. 'B' thereupon beats 'C' and has to pay damages to 'C' for so doing:-
(a) ‘A’ is liable to indemnify 'B' for those damages
(b) 'A' is not liable to indemnify 'B' for those damages
(c) Neither 'A' nor 'B' liable to 'C' for damages
(d) the Court has to decide
75. Promises which form the consideration or part of the consideration for each other
are called:-
(a) Agreement
(b) Reciprocal Promises
(c) Contract
(d) Both (a) & (b)
76. A continuing guarantee may at any time be revoked by the surety :
(a) as to future transactions without notice to the creditor
(b) as to future transactions by notice to the creditor
(c) as to past & future transaction by notice to creditor
(d) as to past & future transaction with or without notice to the creditor
77. Under which provision the term 'Proposer' & 'acceptor' is defined:-
(a) Section 2(a), ICA
(b) Section 2(b), ICA
(c) Section 2(c), ICA
(d) None of the above
78. Which of the following cases is/are related to Doctrine of Restitution?
(a) Leslie V. sheill
(b) Stocks V. Wilson
(c) Khan Gul V. Lakha Singh
(d) All of the above
79. Law of contract is source of transactions made by :
(i) Government
(ii) Corporations
(iii) Businessmen
(iv) Individuals
Choose the correct option :
(a) (iv) only
(b) (iii) & (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), & (iv)

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80. Mark the incorrect statement :
(a) The function of the contract is a constructive one i.e. to facilitate forward
planning of the transactions and to make provisions for the future
contingencies.
(b) The contract establishes what are the respective responsibilities of the parties
and the standard of performance to be expected from them.
(c) The contract may provide for what is to happen if the things go wrong.
(d) None of the above
The Transfer of Property Act
81. In case of usufructuary mortgage the mortgage is placed in possession who has
a right to receive the rent and other profits till :
(a) Mortgage money is paid
(b) Contract is rescinded
(c) Period of thirty years
(d) Period of 99 years
82. A transfers Rs 500 to B on condition that she shall murder C, the transfer is
(a) Valid
(b) Void
(c) Voidable
(d) Regular
83. A transfers Rs 5000 to B, on the condition that he shall marry with the consent of
C, D and E, and E dies, B marries with the consent of C and D. B is
(a) Deemed to have fulfilled the condition
(b) Has not fulfilled the condition
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) None of these
84. The doctrine of Lis Pendens applies, where :
(a) The suit is collusive
(b) The transfer is made after the decree of the trial court but before filing of an
appeal
(c) Right to movable property is in question
(d) Property is situated outside the territorial jurisdiction of the Court
85. Which of the following gift is Valid?
(a) A gift Rs. 5,000 to B on condition that he shall murder C
(b) A makes a gift of his field to B with a proviso that if B does not become
insolvent, B’s interest in the field shall cease
(c) A makes a gift of his field to B with a condition that if B does not within a year
set fire to C’s house, his interest shall cease
(d) A makes a gift of a house to B on the condition that the gift will be forfeited if
B does not reside in it

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86. A transfers Rs. 500 to his niece if she will desert her husband. The transfer is
(a) Valid
(b) Voidable
(c) Void
(d) None
87. A Mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called:
(a) English Mortgage
(b) Simple Mortgage
(c) Usufructuary Mortgage
(d) Equitable Mortgage
88. A lets a farm to B in condition that he shall walk a hundred miles in an hour. The
lease is
(a) Void
(b) Valid
(c) Voidable
(d) None
89. Doctrine of Acceleration is contained in:
(a) Section 14
(b) Section 17
(c) Section 27
(d) Section 36
90. Every transfer in immovable property made with intent of defeat or delay the
creditors of the transferor shall be voidable at the option of any creditor so
defeated or delayed. This is contained in:
(a) Section 50
(b) Section 53
(c) Section 53 A
(d) Section 57
91. “The transfer of immovable property for the purpose of securing the payment of
money advanced or to be advanced by way of loan, an existing or future debt, or
the performance of an engagement which may give rise to a pecuniary liability.”
This is the definition contained in :
(a) Section 58
(b) Section 105
(c) Section 54
(d) None of the above

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92. Section 44 deals with:
(a) Transfer by ostensible owner
(b) Transfer by one co-owner
(c) Joint transfer for consideration
(d) Transfer by co-owners of share in common property
93. Section 132 provides
(a) Transfer of actionable claim
(b) Transfer of policy of marine insurance
(c) Liability of transferee of actionable claim
(d) Notice to be in writing
94. Every notice of actionable claim shall be
(a) In writing, signed by transferor
(b) Registered
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
95. A gives a lakh of rupees to B, reserving to himself with B’s assent the right to take
back rs 10,000 at pleasure out of that amount, this gift is
(a) Absolutely valid
(b) Absolutely invalid
(c) This cannot be said to be gift
(d) Holds goods as to rs 9000 but it is void as to rs 10000
96. The donor and the done may agree that on the happening of any specified event
which does not depend on the will of the donor, a gift shall be
(a) Revoked
(b) Suspended
(c) Revoked or suspended
(d) None of these
97. Exchange is defined under
(a) Section 116
(b) Section 117
(c) Section 118
(d) Section 119
98. Which of the following is a ground for determination of a lease by forfeiture
(a) On breach of express condition
(b) On expiry of lease period
(c) On surrender by lessee
(d) On vesting of lessors interest in the lessees

19
 99. In the absence of contract or local law or usage the contrary a lease of
immovable property (other than agricultural land) shall be deemed to be
(a) Month to month
(b) Bimonthly
(c) Year to year
(d) Biannual
100. waiver of forfeiture is provided in
(a) Section 111
(b) Section 112
(c) Section 113
(d) Section 116
101. where the time is so limited is expressed to be terminable before its expiration
and the lease omits to mention at whose option it is so terminable who shall have
such option ?
(a) The lessee
(b) The lessor
(c) The lessee or the lessor
(d) The lessee and the lessor
102. section 111 provides
(a) Determination of lease
(b) Rights of lessor’s transferee
(c) Exclusion of day on which term commences
(d) None of these
103. A lease of immovable property from year to year or for any term exceeding one
year or reserving yearly rent can be made
(a) Only by registered instrument
(b) Only by oral agreement
(c) Either by oral agreement or by registered instrument
(d) N of these
104. section 106 provides
(a) Lease defined
(b) Duration of certain leases in absence of written contract or local usage
(c) Leases how made
(d) Rights and liabilities of lessor and lessee

20
105. lease of any immovable property for agricultural or manufacturing shall be
deemed to be a lease from
(a) Year to year
(b) Month to month
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
106. in transaction of lease, the transferee is called
(a) Lessor
(b) Lessee
(c) Owner
(d) None of the above
107. which definition is not provided in section 105
(a) Lessor
(b) Premium
(c) Deed
(d) Rent
108. A mortgage which is not covered by the definitions under section 58 of transfer of
property Act is called
(a) Anomalous mortgage
(b) English mortgage
(c) Equitable mortgage
(d) Usufructuary mortgage
109. how many types of mortgages are there in section 58 of the transfer of property
act
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Seven
110. A transfers a farm to B for his life with a proviso that in case B cuts down a
certain wood, the transfer shall cease to have any effect, B cuts down the wood
(a) B loses his life interest in the farm
(b) B doesnot lose his life interest in the farm
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

21
111. kinds of subrogation are
(a) legal and conventional subrogation
(b) moral and immoral subrogation
(c) proper and improper subrogation
(d) all of these
112. which provisions apply to charge ?
(a) provisions of mortgage by deposit of title deeds
(b) provisions of English mortgage
(c) provisions of simple mortgage
(d) provisions of anomalous mortgage
113. section 91 provides
(a) cessation of interest
(b) person who may sue for redemption
(c) subrogation
(d) all of these
114. section 66 provides
(a) waste by mortgagor in possession
(b) implied contracts by mortgagor
(c) right to redeem separately or simultaneously
(d) none of these
115. when the mortgaged property is lease and the mortgagee obtains a renewal of
lease, who upon redemption shall in absence of a contract by him to the contrary
have the benefit to new lease
(a) the mortgagor
(b) the mortgagee
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
116. where mortgaged property in possession of the mortgagee has during the
continuance of the mortgage received any accession, who is entitled for
accession
(a) the mortgagee
(b) the mortgagor
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

22
117. Section 59A provides
(a) mortgage when to be by assurance
(b) references to mortgagors and mortgagees to include persons deriving title
from them
(c) right of mortgagor to redeem
(d) rights to inspection and production of document
118. Section 18 is an exception to
(a) Section 14
(b) Section 16
(c) Section 17
(d) All of these
119. section 61 provides
(a) right to redeem separately or simultaneously
(b) obligation to transfer to third party instead of re transference to mortgagor
(c) right to inspection and production of documents
(d) accession to mortgaged property
120. A has let his house at a rent of Rs 100 payable on the last date of each month. A
sells house to B on the 15th of June, on 30th June, what will be apportionment?
(a) A will get rs 100
(b) B will get rs 100
(c) Rs 50 to A and rs 50 to B
(d) The tenant will be exempted from payment of rent in that month
The Protection from Domestic Violence Act
121. Under which section of PWDVA, 2005 term ‘Dowry’ has been defined?
(a) Section 2(h)
(b) Section 2(d)
(c) Section 2(e)
(d) Section 2(f)
122. On which date Domestic Violence Act, 2005 get the assent of the President?
(a) 11-5-2005
(b) 17-7-2005
(c) 13-9-2005
(d) 2-10-2005

23
123. Under which section of Domestic Violence Act, 2005 term ‘shared household’
defined?
(a) Section 2(i)
(b) Section 2(k)
(c) Section 2(r)
(d) Section 2(s)
124. Under which section of Domestic Violence Act, 2005 Duties of Police officers,
service providers and Magistrate has been provided?
(a) Section 4
(b) Section 5
(c) Section 7
(d) Section 11
125. The Magistrate shall endeavour to dispose of every application made under
section 12 of Domestic Violence Act, 2005 within a period of......................from
the date of its first hearing.
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 1 month
126. Under which section of Domestic Violence Act, 2005 proceedings to be held in
camera?
(a) Section 11
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 15
(d) Section 16
127. How many chapters are there in Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 10
128. As per Domestic Violence Act, 2005 ‘child’ means?
(a) Any person below the age of 21 years and includes any adopted, step or
foster child.
(b) Any person below the age of 18 years and includes any adopted, step or
foster child.
(c) Any person below the age of 18 years
(d) None of the above

24
129. On which date Domestic Violence Act, 2005 came into force?
(a) 24-9-2005
(b) 25-10-2006
(c) 26-10-2006
(d) 13-09-2005
130. Who has the power to notify the shelter home?
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) District Magistrate
(d) Tribunal
131. Under which section of Domestic Violence Act, 2005 term medical facility
defined?
(a) Section 2(h)
(b) Section 2(j)
(c) Section 2(k)
(d) Section 2(q)
132. Provisions regarding the Monetary reliefs has been provided under which section
of Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(a) Section 17
(b) Section 20
(c) Section 22
(d) Section 23
133. To which court appeal shall lie in Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(a) District court
(b) Court of Session
(c) High Court
(d) Tribunal
134. Every offence under Domestic Violence Act, 2005 will be..........?
(a) Cognizable and Bailable
(b) Non-cognizable and Bailable
(c) Cognizable and Non-bailable
(d) Non-Cognizable and non-compoundable

25
135. What will be the penalty for not discharging duty by protection officer under
Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(a) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year,
or with fine which may extend to 20,000 rupees, or with both
(b) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to 2 years, or
with fine which may extend to 10,000 rupees, or with both
(c) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to 3 years, or
with fine which may extend to 30,000 rupees, or with both
(d) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to 7 years, or
with fine which may extend to 15,000 rupees, or with both
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act
136. The authority is responsible for monitoring the implementation of POCSO ACT is
(a) State Legal Services Authority
(b) Central Government
(c) High Court
(d) National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
137. Which among the following is not to be included in interpreting the words and
expression used under Protection of Children from sexual offence Act, 2012?
(a) Code of Criminal Procedure
(b) Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act, 2000
(c) Indian Evidence Act
(d) Information Technology Act, 2000
138. The evidence of the child shall be recorded within a period of
_________________ of the court taking cognizance of the offence and reasons
for delay, if any shall be recorded by the Special Court.
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days
139. Which statement stands valid in regards to the POCSO Act?
(i) Every crime against children must be reported as per POCSO Act.
(ii) Those who do not report sexual offences against children may be punished as
per the Act.
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both i and ii
(d) None of the above

26
140. The police are required to report the matter of child sexual abuse to the Child
Welfare Committee (CWC) within
(a) 24 hours of the act being done
(b) 24 hours of the report being received
(c) 18 hours of the crime
(d) 48 hours of the report being received
141. What can be the reasons for a child's interrogation as per the POCSO Act?
(a) To establish whether the child needs urgent medical attention
(b) To hear the child's version of the circumstances leading to the concern
(c) To get a picture of the child's relationship with their parents or family
(d) All of the above
142. Which of the following statements is true?
(i) The POCSO Act provides for compensation for medical expenses for the child
offended.
(ii) The medical expenses may be provided after the registration of FIR only.
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both i and ii
(d) None of the above
143. When was the POCSO Act implemented?
(a) November 14, 2012
(b) November 14, 2020
(c) November 9, 2012
(d) November 9, 2011
144. Who introduced the POCSO Amendment Bill?
(a) Virendrea Kumar
(b) Manmohan Singh
(c) Menaka Gandhi
(d) None of the above
145. The special court under POCSO shall follow the procedure specified in CrPC for-
(a) Trial of summon cases
(b) Trial of warrant cases
(c) Summary trial
(d) Trial before a court of session

27
146. Presumption under Section 29 of POCSO Act is a
(a) discretionary
(b) mandatory
(c) Conclusive
(d) None of the above
147. Where a child makes a false complaint or provides false information for any
offence committed under Section 3,5, 7 and 9, solely with the intention to
humiliate, extort or threaten or defame the accused person, he shall be punished
with
(a) Imprisonment of 3 months, and shall be liable to fine
(b) Imprisonment of 6 months, and shall be liable to fine
(c) Only liable to fine
(d) No Punishment
148. Mark the incorrect statements with respect to the procedure and powers of
special court under POCSO-
(a) Special court may take cognizance of any offence, without the accused being
committed to it for trial, upon receiving a complaint of facts which constitute
such offence, or upon a police report of such facts.
(b) Special court may, if it considers necessary, permit frequent breaks for the
child during the trial.
(c) The Special Court shall not permit aggressive questioning or character
assassination of the child and ensure that dignity of child is maintained at all
times during the trial.
(d) Special court shall ensure that the child is called regularly to testify in the
court.
149. ‘Punishment for Abetment’ has been provided under?
(a) Section 17
(b) Section 20
(c) Section 25
(d) Section 15
150. The Special Court shall complete the trial, as far as possible, within a period of
___________ from the date of taking cognizance of offence.
(a) 6 Months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 3 years

28
 Current Affairs
151. The National Voters’ Day is observed every year on ________ in India.
(a) 21st January
(b) 22nd January
(c) 23rd January
(d) 25th January
152. Who among the following is the only female representative in the parliamentary
standing committee constituted to examine “The Prohibition of Child Marriage
(Amendment) Bill, 2021?
(a) Anjana Kumari
(b) Sushmita Dev
(c) Sarojini Singh
(d) Vimla Kashyap
153. Who has been appointed as the President of the U.S.-India Business Council
(USIBC)?
(a) Milind Pant
(b) Nisha Biswal
(c) Vijay Advani
(d) Atul Keshap
154. Which place has been handpicked by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to host the
25th National Youth Festival?
(a) Puducherry
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab
155. Who has been named as the new chief economist of the International Monetary
Fund (IMF)?
(a) Pablo Moreno Garcia
(b) Pierre-Olivier Gourinchas
(c) Paul Hilbers
(d) Piotr Trabinski
156. What is the objective of the ‘Parvat Mala’ scheme announced recently?
(a) Promotion of Adventure Sports
(b) Transportation in Hills
(c) Promotion of Pilgrimage Sites
(d) Protection of Wildlife

29
157. Which country was the largest trading partner of India in 2021?
(a) United States
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) South Korea
158. The 2022 Winter Olympics is being held in Beijing. What is the official slogan of
the event?
(a) United by Emotion
(b) Faster, Higher, Stronger
(c) Together for a Shared Future
(d) Passion. Connected
159. Who has been appointed as the new Chairman of the University Grants
Commission (UGC) in 2022?
(a) M Jagadesh Kumar
(b) Hridaynath Kunzru
(c) Satish Chandra
(d) V.S. Krishna
160. Who is the author of the book ‘The Great Tech Game: Shaping Geopolitics and
the Destinies of Nations.’?
(a) Amitav Ghosh
(b) Harsh Madhusudan
(c) Anirudh Suri
(d) Amartya Sen
161. What is the theme of Zero Discrimination Day 2022?
(a) End Inequalities
(b) Zero Discrimination against Women and Girls
(c) Stand Out
(d) Remove laws that harm, create laws that empower
162. What is the rank of India in the Sustainable Development Report 2021 list?
(a) 117
(b) 120
(c) 115
(d) 126

30
163. Which of the following state government has announced a ‘Camel Protection and
Development Policy’ in its budget 2022-23?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
164. Who has been selected to represent India at the 2041 Climate Force Antarctica
Expedition which is set to be held in March 2022?
(a) Rajni Chaudhary
(b) Deepika Soni
(c) Soniya Sharma
(d) Aarushi Verma
165. Which country will host a virtual meeting of agriculture ministers from the G7
countries?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) India
(d) United States
166. Mawmluh Cave in ___________has become the first Indian Geoheritage Site to
be recognised by UNESCO.
(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Assam
167. Which state government has introduced a scheme that allows prisoners to obtain
personal loans from banks of up to Rs 50,000?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
168. According to the list of Hurun Richest Self-Made Women In The World 2022,
Falguni Nayar is ranked _________ with a wealth of USD 7.6 billion.
(a) 5th
(b) 8th
(c) 10th
(d) 12th

31
169. Who has authored the new book titled “Tiger of Drass: Capt. Anuj Nayyar, 23,
Kargil Hero”?
(a) Meena Nayyar
(b) Himmat Singh Shekhawat
(c) Jayanta Ghosal
(d) Both a & b
170. Which organization has released a draft battery swapping policy?
(a) National Development Council
(b) Invest India
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
171. Salim Ghouse passed away recently. He was a/an
(a) Musician
(b) Poet
(c) Kathak dancer
(d) Actor
172. Which state cabinet has approved the ‘Gene Bank’, a first-of-its-kind project in
India for biodiversity conservation?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
173. Which bank has launched India’s first comprehensive ‘open-for-all’ digital
ecosystem for all Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the country?
(a) DBS Bank
(b) CSB Bank
(c) HDFC Bank
(d) ICICI Bank
174. International Labour Day is observed every year on ______________.
(a) 1 May
(b) 2 May
(c) 3 May
(d) 4 May
175. The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) has banned journalist ________
for 2 years in Wriddhiman Saha case.
(a) Jatin Sapru
(b) Sanjeeb Mukherjee
(c) Boria Majumdar
(d) Kadambari Murali

32
176. 7th Forbes 30 Under 30 Asia list 2022 released. How many Indian are included in
the list?
(a) 30
(b) 32
(c) 33
(d) 61
177. India has successfully test-launched Short-Range Ballistic Missile, Prithvi-II from
an integrated test range in Chandipur, Odisha. What is the range of Prithvi-II?
(a) 150 Km
(b) 250 Km
(c) 325 Km
(d) 350 Km
178. Japan has participated in NATO Summit in Madrid for the first time in June 2022.
Who is the present Secretary General of NATO?
(a) Robert Abela
(b) Ian Fry
(c) Gilbert Houngbo
(d) Jens Stoltenberg
179. What is the theme of International Yoga Day 2022?
(a) Yoga at Home and Yoga with Family
(b) Yoga for Humanity
(c) Yoga for Harmony and Peace
(d) Yoga for Peace
180. Where is India’s largest floating Solar Power Project commissioned?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Telangana
181. Which state government has launched the ‘Naari Ko Naman’ scheme?
(a) Odisha
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Himachal Pradesh
182. Who was the winner at the Femina Miss India 2022?
(a) Shinata Chauhan
(b) Sini Shetty
(c) Rubal Shekhawat
(d) Gargee Nandy

33
183. Which of the following state will soon launch, first of its kind in India – ‘Right to
Health Bill’ in assembly?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttar Pradesh
184. Former Prime Minister of Japan Shinzo Abe passed away. In which year did he
receive the Padma Vibhusan Award?
(a) 2018
(b) 2019
(c) 2020
(d) 2021
185. Jyothi Surekha Vennam has won gold medal for India in which sports at The
World Games 2022 in Birmingham?
(a) Archery
(b) Sprinting
(c) Shooting
(d) Wrestling
186. World Day for International Justice is observed on _____ to commemorate the
organisations that work to bring justice to the victims of international criminal acts.
(a) July 13
(b) July 14
(c) July 15
(d) July 17
187. Which city has been selected as the host city for the World Athletics
Championship 2025?
(a) Tokyo
(b) Paris
(c) Beijing
(d) New Delhi
188. Which country has become the seventh country in the world to launch a mission
to the Moon?
(a) France
(b) Pakistan
(c) Australia
(d) South Korea

34
189. The Uttar Pradesh government has appointed which organization as its
consultant for achieving USD 1 trillion state economy?
(a) Infosys
(b) Deloitte
(c) Wipro
(d) Emphasis
190. Who has become the first woman director general of the Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research?
(a) Vijaya Sharma
(b) Sonam Dixit
(c) Nallathamby Kalaiselvi
(d) Deepika Kumari
191. Which of the following film bagged “Best Film award” at the Indian Film Festival of
Melbourne (IFFM) 2022?
(a) 83
(b) Sardar Udham
(c) Jai Bhim
(d) Gangubai Kathiawadi
192. Who among the following has elected as new president of the All India Football
Federation?
(a) Mehmood Khan
(b) Kalyan Chaubey
(c) Laxman Narasimhan
(d) Chris Sinclair
193. India’s first-ever “Night Sky Sanctuary” to be set up in _______.
(a) Sikkim
(b) Assam
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Ladakh
194. The government of India has announced to change the name of Rajpath and
Central Vista lawns into __________.
(a) Kartavya Path
(b) Agnipath
(c) Ramsetu
(d) Ahimsa Path

35
195. Which of the following company has topped the 25 startups in India listed by
LinkedIn?
(a) CRED
(b) upGrad
(c) Groww
(d) Zepto
196. Who has become the first player from India to feature in 400 T20 matches?
(a) KL Rahul
(b) Rishabh Pant
(c) Rohit Sharma
(d) Virat Kohli
197. Who has been appointed as Chairman and Managing Director of Gas Authority of
India Limited (GAIL)?
(a) Rajesh Verma
(b) Vijay Jasuja
(c) Vinayak Godse
(d) Sandeep Kumar Gupta
198. In October 2022, India has emerged as the world’s largest producer of Sugar.
India is the ____________ largest sugar exporter in the world.
(a) Sixth
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
199. Who among the following has won the Nobel Prize in Literature for 2022?
(a) Olga Tokarczuk
(b) Annie Ernaux
(c) Abdulrazak Gurnah
(d) Kazuo Ishiguro
200. President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the ‘PARAM KAMRUPA’ Supercomputer
facility and a high-power active and passive component laboratory of SAMEER at
which IIT?
(a) IIT Guwahati
(b) IIT Delhi
(c) IIT Madras
(d) IIT Kanpur

36
 Rahul’s a blue p rint of success

UTTAR PRADESH JUDICIAL SERVICES MOCK EXAMINATION - 2023

TEST SERIES
JURISPRUDENCE, CONTRACT, TPA, DV, POCSO and CA
Answer and Explanations
Total Questions: 150
Maximum Marks: 150
Duration: 2:00 Hours
Date: 01/01/2023

Q. No. Ans. Explanations

1. D All of the above
2. A The English term is based on the Latin word jurisprudentia: juris is the
genitive form of jus meaning law, and prudentia means knowledge. The word
is first attested in English in 1628, at a time when the word prudence had the
now obsolete meaning of knowledge or skill in a matter.
3. A Bentham distinguished between the two.
4. A Austin occupied himself with expository Jurisprudence.
5. D Lord Bryce made the above-mentioned statement.
6. B Savigny made the above-mentioned statement.
7. C The above-mentioned statement was said by Holland.
8. C The above-mentioned statement was said by Salmond
9. B These words were said by Keeton.
10. D These words were stated by Pound.
11. D All the statements are correct.
12. A Aristotle is said to be the father of natural law.
13. C Both the statements are correct.
14. A Thomas Aquinas was the most important Western medieval legal scholar. He
is the foremost classical proponent of natural theology. Aquinas distinguished
four kinds of law.
15. A Thomes Hobbes, He was an English enlightenment scholar. Hobbes
expressesed the above mentioned content.
16. A Positivism simply means that the law is something that is positive: laws are
validly made in accordance with socially accepted rules.

37
17. A Kelson propounded pure theory of law.
18. A Salmond defined customs in the manner stated above.
19. A Austin stated that custom is a rule of conduct which the governed observed
spontaneously and not in pursuance of law set by political superior.
20. D The analytical school is also known by the names mentioned hereinabove.
21. A John Austin is known as the father of English Jurisprudence.
22. D John Austin distinguishes law from morality- divine law and human law.
23. B Bentham
24. B Bentham supported the economic principle of 'laissez faire' which meant
interference of the State in the economic activities of individuals.
25. D All the statements are correct.
26. B Duguit belonged to Sociological school of jurisprudence.
27. C Pound concentrates more on functional aspect of law. So, his approach may
also be known as functional approach. According to him 'The end of law
should be to satisfy a maximum of wants with a minimum of friction.' He
demands for maximum happiness with less disagreement.
28. A Pound has given a theory of 'Social engineering' which means a balance
between the competing interests in society. Social means group of
individuals forming a society. Engineering means applied science carried out
by engineers to produce finished products, based on continuous
experimentation and experience to get the finished product by means of an
instrument or device.
29. D The theory of Duguit under sociological school is a social solidarity. Social
solidarity means the greatness of society.
30. A The historical school of jurists was founded by Friedrich Karl von Savigny.
31. C Gray defined natural law as the dictate of right reason which points out that
an act, according as it is or is not in conformity with rational nature, has in it a
quality of moral baseness or moral necessity.
32. D All the statements are correct.
33. A John Chipman Grey belonged to realist school.
34. B John Chipman Grey is considered as the father of American Realism.
35. A Immanuel Kant said that law is the sum total of the conditions under which
the personal wishes of man can be reconciled with the personal wishes of
another man in accordance with a general law of freedom.

38
36. B The beginning of law lies in the well-known soul of the general population
which Savigny named as ‘Volksgeist‘.
37. C Both the theories are the theories of rights,
38. D All the above are the elements of a legal right.
39. A Salmond said that A legal right is an “interest which is protected and
recognized by the rule of law. It is an interest which has its duty and
disregard of which is wrong”.
40. A Refer State of Rajasthan v Union of India 1978 SCR (1) 1.
41. C Refer Section 169 of the Contract Act
42. A Refer section 237 of the Indian Contract Act. When an agent has, without
authority, done acts or incurred obligations to third persons on behalf of his
principal, the principal is bound by such acts or obligations, if he has by his
words or conduct induced such third persons to believe that such acts and
obligations were within the scope of the agent’s authority.
43. C Refer section 202 of the Indian Contract Act. Where the agent has himself
an interest in the property which forms the subject-matter of the agency, the
agency cannot, in the absence of an express contract, be terminated to the
prejudice of such interest.
44. C Refer Section 127 of the Indian Contract Act,1872. Anything done, or any
promise made, for the benefit of the principal debtor, may be a sufficient
consideration to the surety for giving the guarantee.
45. B Refer Section 62 of the Indian Contract Act,1872

46. B
47. D
48. B Refer Section 62 of the Indian Contract Act,1872
49. A Refer Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act,1872. An agreement to which the
consent of the promisor is freely given is not void merely because the
consideration is inadequate; but the inadequacy of the consideration may be
taken into account by the Court in determining the question whether the
consent of the promisor was freely given.
50. D Refer Section 25, 185 and 122 of the Indian Contract Act,1872.
51. A Refer Section 73 of the Contract Act. The basic principles for award of
compensation for breach of contract were laid down in Hadley vs. Bexendale.

39
52. A This is Contract of guarantee, Refer Section 126 of the Contract Act, 1872.
53. B Refer Section 24 of the Contract Act. If any part of a single consideration for
one or more objects, or any one or any part of any one of several
considerations for a single object, is unlawful, the agreement is void.
54. C Bank Guarantee is an Independent Contract between bank and Beneficiary.
55. D Refer Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act. An agreement without
consideration is void.
56. B Refer Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act. Where both the
parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential
to the agreement, the agreement is void
57. C The maxim is related to section 56 of the Indian Contract Act
58. D Refer Section 129 of the Indian Contract Act. A guarantee which extends to a
series of transactions, is called a “continuing guarantee”
59. A Refer SatyabrataGhose vs. MugneeramBangur
60. A Refer Section 162 of the Indian Contract Act. A gratuitous bailment is
terminated by the death either of the bailor or of the bailee.
61. D Claim under section 70 cannot be raised where the parties governed by a
Contract. Section 70 provides for a quasi contractual obligation.
62. B Concept of damages in law of contract is not punitive, it is Compensatory in
nature.
63. A Bank Guarantee is a promise from a bank that if a particular borrower
defaults on a loan, the bank will cover the loss.
64. D Hint- Refer Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
65. D adequacy of consideration is not material for a valid Contract. An agreement
to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void merely
because the consideration is inadequate; but the inadequacy of the
consideration may be taken into account by the Court in determining the
question whether the consent of the promisor was freely given
66. B Refer Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. An agreement made
without consideration is void, unless it is a promise to compensate, wholly or
in part, a person who has already voluntarily done something for the
promisor, or something which the promisor was legally compellable to do
67. B Refer Section 17 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
68. A

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69. B Refer Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
70. C Refer Section 51 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
71. D Refer Section 147 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
72. C Refer Section 153 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. — A contract of bailment
is avoidable at the option of the bailor, if the bailee does any act with regard
to the goods bailed, inconsistent with the conditions of the bailment.
73. A All illegal agreements are void but not vice versa.
74. B refer- Section 224 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
75. B Section 2(f) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Promises which form the
consideration or part of the consideration for each other are called reciprocal
promises
76. B Section 130 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. —A continuing guarantee may
at any time be revoked by the surety, as to future transactions, by notice to
the creditor
77. D Refer Section 2 of the Contract Act.
78. D All the above mentioned cases are related to the doctrine of Restitution
79. D
80. D
81. A Refer section 58 TPA
82. B Refer section 25 TPA
83. A Refer section 26 TPA
84. B Refer to explanation section 52 TPA
85. D Refer section 126 TPA
86. C Refer section 25 TPA
87. D
88. A Refer section 25 TPA
89. C
90. B
91. D
92. B
93. A
94. A Refer section 131 TPA

41
95. D Refer section 126 TPA
96. C Refer section 126 TPA
97. C
98. A Refer section 111 TPA
99. A Refer section 106 TPA
100. B
101. A Refer section 110 TPA
102. A
103. A Refer section 107 TPA
104. B
105. A Refer section 106 TPA
106. B Refer section 105 TPA
107. C
108. A
109. C
110. A Refer section 31TPA
111. A
112. C Refer section 100 TPA
113. B
114. A
115. A Refer Section 64 TPA
116. B Refer section 63 TPA
117. B
118. D
119. A
120. C Refer section 109 TPA
121. A
122. C
123. D
124. B

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125. B Refer section 12 of Domestic Violence Act, 2005
126. D Refer section 16 of Domestic Violence, Act 2005
127. A
128. B Refer section 2(b) of 2005 Act.
129. C
130. B Refer section 2(t) of 2005 Act.
131. B
132. B
133. B Refer section 29 of 2005 Act.
134. C Refer section 32 of 2005 Act.
135. A
136. D Section 44
137. C Section 2(2)
138. A Section 35(2)
139. B The Act casts a legal duty upon a person who has knowledge that a child has
been sexually abused to report the offence; if he fails to do so, he may be
punished with six months‟ imprisonment and/ or a fine
140. B The police are also required to bring the matter to the attention of the Child
Welfare Committee (CWC) within 24 hours of receiving the report.
141. D The reasons to interview a child include all of the above clauses along with
some like- to support the child to participate in decisions affecting them
according to their age and maturity, getting a picture of the child's physical
and emotional state etc.
142. C Rule 7 provides further details in relation to the payment of this
compensation. It specifies that the Special Court may order that the
compensation be paid not only at the end of the trial, but also on an interim
basis, to meet the immediate needs of the child for relief or rehabilitation at
any stage after registration of the First Information Report.
143. A The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 came
into force on November 14, 2012.
144. A The POCSO Amendment Bill was introduced by Minister of State in Ministry
of Women and Child Development Virendra Kumar.
145. D Section 33(9)

43
146. B Section 30 provides a rule of mandatory presumption. The court shall raise
such statutory presumption.
147. D Section 22(2) - Where a false complaint has been made or false information
has been provided by a child, no punishment shall be imposed on such child.
148. D As per Section 33(5), Special court shall ensure that the child is not called
repeatedly to testify in the court.
149. A Section 17 deals with punishment for abetment.
150. B Refer Section 35(2)
151. D
152. B
153. D
154. A
155. B
156. B
157. A
158. C
159. A
160. C
161. D
162. B
163. A
164. D
165. B
166. B
167. D
168. C
169. D
170. C
171. D
172. D
173. D

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174. A
175. c
176. D
177. B
178. D
179. B
180. D
181. D
182. B
183. B
184. D
185. A
186. D
187. A
188. D
189. B
190. C
191. A
192. B
193. D
194. A
195. A
196. C
197. D
198. B
199. B
200. A

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