National NORCET Prelims Test-1

MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING

1. The unconscious client is to be placed in a right side-lying position. The nurse
should intervene when observing a client in which of the following positions?
a. The head is placed on a small pillow
b. The right leg is extended without pillow support
c. The left arm is rested on the mattress with the elbow flexed
d. The left leg is supported on a pillow with the knee flexed

Ans. c. The left arm is rested on the mattress with the elbow flexed

Rationale:
• The client is not in proper body alignment if, in the right side-lying position, the client’s
left arm rests on the mattress with the elbow flexed. This positioning of the arm pulls
the left shoulder out of good alignment, restricting respiratory movements. The arm
should be supported on a pillow. The client’s head also should be placed on a small
pillow to keep it in alignment with the body. The right leg should be extended on the
mattress without a pillow to avoid hyperrotation of the hip. A pillow should be placed
between the left and right legs with the left knee flexed so that on no parts of the legs
is skin touching skin.

2. When administering continuous enteral feeding to an unconscious client, the

nurse should:
a. Heat the formula in a microwave
b. Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position
c. Obtain a sterile gavage bag and tubing
d. Weigh the client before administering the feeding

Ans. b. Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position

Rationale:
• The client should be placed in a semi-Fowler’s position to reduce the risk of aspiration.
• The formula should be at room temperature, not heated.
• Administering enteral tube feedings is a clean procedure, not a sterile one; therefore,
sterile supplies are not required.
2 National NORCET Prelims Test-1
• Clients receiving enteral feedings should be weighed regularly, but not necessarily
before each feeding.

3. Which of the following surgeries is not a bariatric surgery?

a. Duodenojejunostomy b. Banding gastroplasty
c. Sleeve gastrectomy d. RouxEn-Y gastric bypass

Ans. a. Duodenojejunostomy

Rationale:
Table: Types of Bariatric Surgery
Restrictive
• Vertical banded gastroplasty
• Adjustable silicone gastric
banding
• Sleeve gastrectomy
Mostly restrictive (and Mostly malabsorptive
partly malabsorption)
• SHORT-Limb (50 - 100 • Biliopancreatic diversion with
cm) Roux-EN-Y gastric or without duodenal switch
bypass
• Long Limb (150 cm)
Roux-En-gastric bypass

4. Fracture of the base of the first metacarpal bone which extends into the
carpometacarpal (CMC) joint is known is:
a. Hangman’s fracture b. Jone’s fracture
c. Bennet fracture d. Boxer’s fracture

Ans. c. Bennet fracture

Rationale:
• Bennet fracture, an intra-articular fracture is the most common type of fracture of the
thumb.

Figure: Bennet fracture

• Boxer’s fracture refers to fracture of 5th Metacarpal bones.
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 3

• Hangman’s fracture is a fracture of the axis in the cervical region. It is often seen with
people who tries to hang themselves.
• Jones fracture is a fracture between the base and middle part of the fifth metatarsal of
the foot.

5. Why is plasmapheresis is indicated in the treatment of autoimmune disorders?

a. Obtain plasma for analysis and evaluation of specific autoantibodies
b. Decrease high lymphocyte levels in the blood to prevent immune responses
c. Remove autoantibodies, antigen-antibody complexes and inflammatory mediators of
immune reactions
d. Add monocytes to the blood to promote removal of immune complexes by the
mononuclear phagocyte system

Ans. c. Remove autoantibodies, antigen-antibody complexes and inflammatory mediators of

immune reactions

Rationale:
• Plasmapheresis is the removal of plasma from the blood and in autoimmune disorders
is used to remove pathogenic substances found in plasma, such as autoantibodies,
antigen-antibody complexes and inflammatory mediators.
• Circulating blood cells are not affected by plasmapheresis, nor are blood cells added.

6. Before the patient receives a kidney transplant, a cross match test is ordered.
What does a positive cross match indicate?
a. Matches tissue types for a successful transplantation
b. Determines paternity and predicts risk for certain diseases
c. Establishes racial background and predicts risk for certain diseases
d. Cytotoxic antibodies to the donor contraindicate transplanting this donor’s organ

Ans. d. Cytotoxic antibodies to the donor contraindicate transplanting this donor’s organ

Rationale:
• A cross match mixes recipient serum with donor lymphocytes.
• A positive cross match shows that the recipient has cytotoxic antibodies to the donor
and this organ cannot be transplanted without hyperacute rejection occurring.
• A negative cross match indicates that it is safe to do the transplant.

7. Trendelenburg test is positive due to injury to the nerve:

a. Superior gluteal
b. Inferior gluteal
c. Obturator
d. Tibial

Ans. a. Superior gluteal

Rationale:
• Superior gluteal nerve, if injured, paralyses the 3 muscles: gluteus medius, gluteus
minimus and tensor fascia latae and hence lead to positive Trendelenburg test.
4 National NORCET Prelims Test-1
• These 3 muscles, especially the gluteus medius raises the unsupported hip during
walking, which otherwise will be pulled down by the gravity.
• In Trendelenburg test, this action of gluteus medius (superior pelvic tilt of contralateral
hip) is absent and we actually observe that there is a downward drop of the unsupported
hip due to unopposed action of gravity.

8. The nurse reviews, the forms of traction and the purpose for each before
gathering equipment prior to the child’s arrival. Match the type of traction on
column-A with the type of injury or indication on the column-B.
Column-A Column-B
1. Buck’s traction a. Temporarily immobilize a fractured leg
2. Bryant’s traction b. Stabilized a spinal fracture or muscle spasm
3. 90° traction c. Used in children younger than age 2 to reduce femur fracture or
4. Cervical traction stabilize hip
5. Russell’s traction d. Used on the femur if skin traction is not suitable
e. May reduce fracture of the hip or femur
a. 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d, 5 - e
b. 1 - e, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - b, 5 - a
c. 1 - e, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c, 5 - a
d. 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b, 5 - e

Ans. d. 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b, 5 - e

Rationale:
• Buck’s traction is used to temporarily immobilize a fractured leg.
• Bryant’s traction is used in children younger than age 2 to reduce femur fracture and
stabilize hips.
• 90° traction used on the femur if skin traction is not suitable.
• Cervical traction is used to stabilize a spinal fracture or muscle spasm.
• Russell’s traction may reduce fracture of the hip or femur.

9. Earliest sign of Compartment Syndrome of leg is:

a. Skin color changes
b. Loss of pulse
c. Tingling numbness
d. Pain on Passive Stretching of toes

Ans. d. Pain on Passive Stretching of toes

Rationale:
• Compartment syndrome is a painful condition that occurs when pressure within
the muscles builds to dangerous levels. This pressure can decrease blood flow, which
prevents nourishment and oxygen from reaching nerve and muscle cells.
• Compartment syndrome can be either acute or chronic.
• This is most frequent in the lower leg.
• Pain out of proportion to clinical situation is usually first symptom in Compartment
Syndrome of leg while Pain on passive stretching is most sensitive sign prior to onset
of ischemia.
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 5

History
• Prolonged ischemia is followed by reperfusion, crushing injuries or other types of
trauma.
Mnemonics:
Ĕ Pain with passive motion of the fingers and toes
Ĕ Pulselessness
Ĕ Pallor
Ĕ Paresthesias
Ĕ Poikilothermia
Ĕ Paralysis

Mnemonics- 6P
• Late signs of compartment syndrome: Paralysis and pulselessness.
Diagnosis
• Stretch test: This is the earliest sign of impending compartment syndrome.
• Elevated compartment pressures (although not necessary).
• If delta pressure ≤ 30 mmHg is indicative of compartment syndrome.
• Delta pressures = Diastolic pressure – Compartment pressure

10. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary

hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient’s lab results would expect
which of the following changes in laboratory findings?
a. Low urine calcium
b. Elevated serum calcium
c. Elevated serum vitamin D
d. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Ans. b. Elevated serum calcium

Rationale:
• The parathyroid glands regulate the calcium level in the blood. In hyperparathyroidism,
the serum calcium level will be elevated.
• A normal PTH in the presence of hypercalcemia is considered inappropriate and still
consistent with PTH-dependent hypercalcemia. PTH levels should be very low in
those patients with PTH-independent hypercalcemia.
• A comprehensive clinical evaluation complemented by routine laboratory and radiologic
studies should be sufficient to establish a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism in
a patient with persistent hypercalcemia and an elevated serum level of parathyroid
hormone.
• Urine calcium may be elevated, with calcium spilling over from elevated serum levels.
This may cause renal stones.
• Parathyroid hormone levels may be high or normal but not low. The body will lower
the level of vitamin D in an attempt to lower calcium.
6 National NORCET Prelims Test-1
• Parathyroid hormone levels may be high or normal but not low. Patients with primary
hyperparathyroidism and other causes of PTH-dependent hypercalcemia often have
frankly elevated levels of PTH, while some will have values that fall within the reference
range for the general population.

11. The patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is in the clinic to check his long-term
glycemic control. Which test should be used?
a. Water deprivation test
b. Fasting blood glucose test
c. Oral glucose tolerance test
d. Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C)

Ans. d. Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C)

Rationale:
• Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) is used to assess blood glucose control during the
previous 3 months. Water deprivation (ADH stimulation) is used to differentiate
causes of diabetes insipidus.
• Fasting blood glucose will measure only the current blood glucose result.
• The oral glucose tolerance test is used to diagnose diabetes when abnormal fasting
blood glucose levels do not clearly indicate diabetes.

12. All of the following are true about Cushing’s syndrome, Except:
a. Red striae
b. Increased adrenaline
c. Proximal muscle weakness
d. Edema

Ans. b. Increased adrenaline

Rationale:
• Increased adrenaline is not a feature of Cushing syndrome.
• Cushing Syndrome results from an excessive amount of corticosteroids secreted from
the adrenal cortex (outer part) of adrenal gland. Adrenaline is secreted from the
adrenal medulla (inner part) of the gland and is not raised in Cushing Syndrome.
• Increased adrenaline is a feature of adrenal medullary disorders like pheochromocytoma.
• Red striae may be seen in Cushing Syndrome: Red or purplish violaceous striae are
typical of Cushing’s syndrome.
• Proximal muscle weakness may be seen in Cushing’s syndrome: The myopathy of
Cushing’s syndrome typically involves the proximal muscles of lower limbs or shoulder
girdle.
• Edema may be seen in Cushing’s syndrome: Edema is seen in about 60% of patients
with Cushing’s syndrome. This is believed to result from mineralocorticoid action,
because glucocorticoids in high concentrations have mineralocorticoid action.
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 7

13. In late irreversible shock in a patient with massive thermal burns, what should
the nurse expect the patient’s laboratory results to reveal?
a. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Decreased potassium
c. Increased blood glucose
d. Increased ammonia (NH3) levels

Ans. d. Increased ammonia (NH3) levels

Rationale:
• In late irreversible shock, progressive cellular destruction causes changes in laboratory
findings that indicate organ damage. Increasing ammonia levels indicate impaired liver
function.
• Metabolic acidosis is usually severe as cells continue anaerobic metabolism and the
respiratory alkalosis that may occur in the compensatory stage has failed to compensate
for the acidosis.
• Potassium levels increase and blood glucose decreases.
• Patient “d” will need mechanical ventilation and diuretics.

14. Which nutrients aid in capillary synthesis and collagen production by the
fibroblasts in wound healing?
a. Fats
b. Proteins
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin A

Ans. c. Vitamin C

Rationale:
• Vitamin C aids healing with capillary synthesis and collagen production by fibroblasts.
• Fats provide synthesis of fatty acids and triglycerides used for cellular membranes.
• Protein corrects negative nitrogen balance from increased metabolism and contributes
synthesis of immune factors, blood cells, fibroblasts and collagen.
• Vitamin A aids in epithelialization, increasing collagen synthesis and tensile strength
of the healing wound.

15. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a preoperative patient. Which
test result should be brought to the attention of the surgeon immediately?
a. Serum K+ of 3.8 mEq/L
b. Hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
c. Blood glucose of 100 mg/dL
d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 18,500/mL

Ans. d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 18,500/mL

Rationale:
• This finding may indicate an infection. The surgeon will probably postpone the surgery
until the cause of the elevated WBC count has been found.
8 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

PHARMACOLOGY
16. A nursing officer Reena is posted in the gastroenterology dept. Reena
recommend the use of a histamine H2-blocker for a patient who has a history
of atrial fibrillation, for which he takes warfarin. Reena’s department receives
a call from his primary physician, who has admitted the patient for warfarin
toxicity. Which of the following H2-blockers has the patient likely been taking?
a. Famotidine
b. Cimetidine
c. Scopolamine
d. Ranitidine

Ans. b. Cimetidine

Rationale:
• Cimetidine is a competitive inhibitor of the P-450 system, which thereby increases the
half-life of warfarin. This can lead to supratherapeutic levels of the drug and bleeding
problems.
• The other H2-blockers, including ranitidine, famotidine are not metabolized by the
P-450 system.

17. Which drug consumption by pregnant lady can lead to baby developing
hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
a. Vancomycin
b. Nifedipine
c. Erythromycin
d. Phenyl propalamine

Ans. c. Erythromycin

Rationale:
• Exposure to erythromycin between 3 and 13 days of life is associated with an eightfold
risk of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (IHPS) developing shortly thereafter,
according to the results of a retrospective cohort study published in the July, 2015 issue
of the Archives of Pediatric and Adolescent Medicine.
Table: Teratogenic effects of some medication
Perinatal drug exposure Teratogenic effect
Lithium Ebstein anomaly
Vitamin D3 William syndrome (Supravalvular aortic stenosis)
Thalidomide Phocomelia
Erythromycin Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Carbimazole/ methimazole Aplastic cutis congenital
Warfarin Nasal hypoplasia and phalangeal defects
Steroids Cleft lip and palate
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 9

18. A male patient with severe arthritis will be placed on long-term therapy with
indomethacin. We recognize the risk of NSAID-induced gastrointestinal
ulceration and want to prescribe another drug for ulcer prophylaxis. Which of
the following drugs should we choose?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Cimetidine
c. Diclofenac
d. Misoprostol

Ans. d. Misoprostol

Rationale:
• Misoprostol is a long-acting synthetic analog of PGE1 and its only use (outside of
reproductive medicine) is prophylaxis of NSAID induced gastric ulcers. Its main effects
are suppression of gastric acid secretion and enhanced gastric mucus production (a so-
called mucotropic or cytoprotective effect).
• Cimetidine might help reduce gastric acid secretion (via H2 blockade) and
diphenhydramine may too (via Antimuscarinic effects), their anti-secretory effects
are weak and nonspecific in this situation and they don’t increase formation of the
stomach’s protective mucus nor adequately suppress gastric acid secretion.
• Diclofenac is an NSAID that when used for long-term may cause ulcers just as
indomethacin may. In fact, a fixed-dose combination. product containing diclofenac
and misoprostol is available.

19. Ethambutol causes:

a. Retrobulbar neurites
b. Deafness
c. Red urine
d. Peripheral neuritis

Ans. a. Retrobulbar neurites

Rationale:

Ethambutol Side Effects:

• Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis and red-green color blindness (green >
red). That is why it is avoided in children.
• Other side effect like hyperuricemia (lesser than pyrazinamide).
• As ethambutol is excreted by kidney, its dose should decrease in renal failure.

20. Most common drug used in leprosy is:

a. Dapsone
b. Clofazimine
c. Ethionamide
d. Ofloxacin

Ans. a. Dapsone
10 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

Rationale:
• Dapsone is an antibacterial medication used in the treatment of dermatitis
herpetiformis (a skin condition) and leprosy (Hansen’s disease).
• Dapsone is used in both Pauci and multibacillary leprosy.
• Clofazimine is used only in multibacillary leprosy.

21. Drug of choice for prophylaxis of TB is:

a. Rifampicin
b. Isoniazid
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Streptomycin

Ans. b. Isoniazid

Rationale:
• The standard regimen for treatment of latent TB infection is nine months isoniazid,
also known as isoniazid prophylaxis therapy (IPT). Pyridoxine should be given with
isoniazid.
• IPT (or isoniazid prophylaxis) is most often the treatment for primary infection in
order to sterilize lesions and prevent the development of active tuberculosis (TB). It is
more a treatment than a prophylaxis.

22. Which antiviral drug is used in both HIV and hepatitis B?

a. Acyclovir
b. Abacavir
c. Emtricitabine
d. Enfuvirtide

Ans. c. Emtricitabine

Rationale:
• Drugs active against both HIV and Hepatitis B are:
Ĕ Lamivudine
Ĕ Emtricitabine
Ĕ Tenofovir
Ĕ Clevudine
Ĕ Telbivudine

23. Which of the following drug is used to prevent HIV transmission from an HIV
positive pregnant mother to child?
a. Lamivudine
b. Stavudine
c. Nevirapine
d. Didanosine

Ans. c. Nevirapine
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 11

Rationale:
• Zidovudine and nevirapine can be used to prevent perinatal HIV transmission.
• In India, nevirapine is preferred because of single dosing, which decrease toxicity and
improves compliance.

24. A 47-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the urgent care
clinic complaining of lightheadedness and dyspnea on exertion. His laboratory
studies indicate a low hemoglobin level. Peripheral smear shows increased
number of spherocytes. What agent could be used to treat this patient’s anemia?
a. Vitamin B6 b. Folic acid
c. Iron supplements d. Vitamin B12

Ans. a. Vitamin B6

Rationale:
• Sideroblastic anemia may develop in alcoholics and patients undergoing anti-tuberculin
therapy. This condition is treated with vitamin B6 supplements (Pyridoxine).
• Iron supplements are used in iron deficiency anemia. Erythropoietin is used in anemia
caused by acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chemotherapy and renal
failure.
• Vitamin B12 and folic acid are used for megaloblastic anemias caused by depletion of
the vitamin.

25. Antidote for overdose of fibrinolytic therapy:

a. Heparin
b. Epsilon aminocarproic acid
c. Protamine
d. Warfarin

Ans. b. Epsilon aminocarproic acid

Rationale:
• Epsilon aminocarproic acid and tranexamic acid are lysine analogs that competitively
bind and inactivate both plasminogen and plasmin.
• Epsilon aminocaproic acid is the antifibrinolytic of choice for hemorrhagic states in
fibrinolytic overdose, hemophilia, surgery etc.
• Tranexamic acid is also approved for treatment of metrorrhagia.

PATHOLOGY & GENETICS

26. Sodium content of ORS is:
a. 75 mOsm/L
b. 90 mOsm/L
c. 110 mOsm/L
d. 135 mOsm/L

Ans. a. 75 mOsm/L
12 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

Rationale:
Table: Composition of WHO-ORS
Reduced osmolarity ORS Gram/liter Reduced osmolarity ORS Mmol/liter
Sodium chloride 2.6 Sodium 75
Glucose, anhydrous 13.5 Chloride 65
Potassium chloride 1.5 Glucose, anhydrous 75
Trisodium citrate, dihydrate 2.9 Potassium 20
Citrate 10
Total Osmolarity 245

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING
27. A client has a wound suction device for blood salvage following a left total knee
replacement so that the blood can be reinfused into the client within the first 6
hours postoperatively. Which intervention should a nurse plan to implement to
care for this wound suction device?
a. Discard the first 500 mL in the suction container and wait until the container is full
again before beginning a reinfusion
b. As soon as the prescribed amount is noted in the container, obtain the blood and
prepare it for reinfusion into the client intravenously
c. Separate the blood from the drainage, and reinfuse the blood back through the drainage
system into the wound
d. Remove the blood from the drainage system and send it to the blood bank to be
prepared for an infusion

Ans. b. As soon as the prescribed amount is noted in the container, obtain the blood and prepare
it for reinfusion into the client intravenously

Rationale:
• The blood salvage wound suction device drains blood from the surgical wound for
reinfusion intravenously within 6 hours. The special device collects and filters the
blood so it can be drained into a transfusion bag for infusion.
• The first 500 mL would be mostly blood and should not be discarded but reinfused.
Usually all but 50 mL of the drainage in the collection device would be drained for
infusion.
• There is no mechanism to separate the blood from other drainage. The blood is not
reinfused into the wound but intravenously.
• There is no need to send the drainage to the blood bank. It will delay infusion, increase
the risk of contamination and increase the risk of administering mismatched blood.
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 13

28. Nurse Reena is ICU 1 head nurse and during her morning shift she received a
handover report from the emergency nurse who will be transferring a patient to
ICU. The patient has a Sengstaken-Blackmore Tube. While taking the handover
about the Sengstaken-Blackmore tube which among the following is incorrect?
a. It is a three-lumen gastric tube
b. One lumen to inflate gastric balloon
c. Second lumen to inflate esophageal balloon
d. Third lumen is for esophageal suction port

Ans. d. Third lumen is for esophageal suction port

Rationale:
• Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is a 3 lumen tube, one lumen to inflate gastric balloon,
a second lumen to inflate esophageal balloon and a third lumen to aspirate gastric
contents. There is no esophageal suction port. This causes saliva to pool in the
esophagus and thus put patients at risk of aspiration.

Figure: Sengstaken-Blakemore tube

29. A nurse is assessing a client who was just admitted to a surgical unit following
abdominal surgery. Which assessment finding would require an immediate
intervention by the nurse?
a. A nasogastric tube (NG) to low intermittent suction with small amounts of dark bloody
returns
b. A compressed Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain with 30 mL bright red blood
c. A NG tube to low intermittent suction with pale green returns
d. A round JP drain with 20 mL serosanguineous drainage

Ans. d. A round JP drain with 20 mL serosanguineous drainage

14 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

Rationale:
• A round JP drain requires immediate intervention because the drain needs to be
compressed to create suction and collect fluid. Suction is lost when there is a leak in
the system or if there is too much drainage.
• A compressed JP drain with bright red blood is considered a normal finding
immediately after surgery.
• A NG tube to low intermittent suction with pale green returns is also a normal finding
due to drainage of the stomach contents. A NG tube to low intermittent suction with
small amounts of dark bloody returns would be normal immediately after surgery if
there were any trauma associated with insertion of tube; thus no intervention would
be required.

30. A patient in the emergency department states, “I have always taken a morning
walk, but lately my leg cramps hurts after just a few minutes of walking. The
pain goes away after I stop walking, though.” Based on this statement, which
priority assessment should the nurse complete?
a. Attempt to palpate the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses
b. Assess for unilateral swelling and tenderness of either leg
c. Ask about any skin color changes that occur in response to cold
d. Check for the presence of tortuous veins bilaterally on the legs

Ans. a. Attempt to palpate the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses

Rationale:
• Intermittent claudication is a sign of peripheral arterial insufficiency. The nurse should
assess for other clinical manifestations of peripheral arterial disease in a patient who
describes intermittent claudication.
• A thorough assessment of the patient’s skin color and temperature and the character of
the peripheral pulses is important in the diagnosis of arterial disorders.

31. A client states that the physician said the tidal volume is slightly diminished
and asks the nurse what this means. The nurse explains that the tidal volume is
the amount of air:
a. Exhaled forcibly after a normal expiration
b. Exhaled after there is a normal inspiration
c. Trapped in the alveoli that cannot be exhaled
d. Forcibly inspired over and above a normal respiration

Ans. b. Exhaled after there is a normal inspiration

Rationale:
• Tidal volume (TV) is defined as the amount of air exhaled after a normal inspiration.
Tidal volume is the amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs with each respiratory
cycle. It measures around 500 mL in an average healthy adult male and approximately
400 mL in a healthy female. It is a vital clinical parameter that allows for proper
ventilation to take place.
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 15

• Option a: The expiratory reserve volume (ERV) about 1,200 mL is the additional air
that can be forcibly exhaled after the expiration of a normal tidal volume. When a
person breathes in, oxygen from the surrounding atmosphere enters the lungs. It then
diffuses across the alveolar-capillary interface to reach arterial blood. At the same
time, carbon dioxide continuously forms as long as metabolism takes place. Expiration
occurs to expel carbon dioxide and prevent it from accumulating in the body.
• Option c: Residual volume (RV) about 1,200 mL is the volume of air still remaining in
the lungs after the expiratory reserve volume is exhaled. When emphysema develops,
the alveoli and lung tissue are destroyed. With this damage, the alveoli cannot support
the bronchial tubes. The tubes collapse and cause an “obstruction” (a blockage), which
traps air inside the lungs.
• Option d: The inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) about 3,100 mL is the additional air
that can be forcibly inhaled after the inspiration of a normal tidal volume. The volume
of air occupying the lungs at different phases of the respiratory cycle subdivides into
four volumes and four capacities. The four lung volumes are inspiratory reserve volume
(IRV), expiratory reserve volume (ERV), tidal volume (V) and residual volume (RV),
while the four lung capacities include total lung capacity (TLC), vital capacity (VC),
inspiratory capacity (IC) and functional residual capacity (FRC).

32. A 45-year-old man with asthma is brought to the emergency department by

automobile. He is short of breath and appears frightened. During the initial
nursing assessment, which clinical manifestation might be present as an early
manifestation during an exacerbation of asthma?
a. Anxiety
b. Cyanosis
c. Bradycardia
d. Hypercapnia

Ans. a. Anxiety

Rationale:
• An early manifestation during an asthma attack is anxiety because the patient is acutely
aware of the inability to get sufficient air to breathe. He will be hypoxic early on with
decreased PaCO2 and increased pH as he is hyperventilating. If cyanosis occurs, it is a
later sign. The pulse and blood pressure will be increased.

33. The nurse teaches pursed lip breathing to a patient who is newly diagnosed
with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse reinforces that
this technique will assist respiration by which mechanism?
a. Loosening secretions so that they may be coughed up more easily
b. Promoting maximal inhalation for better oxygenation of the lungs
c. Preventing bronchial collapse and air trapping in the lungs during exhalation
d. Increasing the respiratory rate and giving the patient control of respiratory patterns

Ans. c. Preventing bronchial collapse and air trapping in the lungs during exhalation
16 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

Rationale:
• The purpose of pursed lip breathing is to slow down the exhalation phase of respiration,
which decreases bronchial collapse and subsequent air trapping in the lungs during
exhalation. It does not affect secretions, inhalation or increase the rate of breathing.

34. The patient had abdominal surgery yesterday. Today, the lung sounds in the
lower lobes have decreased. The nurse knows this could be due to?
a. Pain b. Atelectasis
c. Pneumonia d. Pleural effusion

Ans. b. Atelectasis

Rationale:
• Postoperatively there is an increased risk for atelectasis from anesthesia as well as
restricted breathing from pain. Without deep breathing to stretch the alveoli, surfactant
secretion to hold the alveoli open is not promoted.
• Pneumonia will occur later after surgery.
• Pleural effusion occurs because of blockage of lymphatic drainage or an imbalance
between intravascular and oncotic fluid pressures, which is not expected in this case.

35. The patient’s arterial blood gas results show the PaO2 at 65 mmHg and the SaO2
at 80%. What early manifestations should the nurse expect to observe in this
patient?
a. Restlessness, tachypnea, tachycardia and diaphoresis
b. Unexplained confusion, dyspnea at rest, hypotension and diaphoresis
c. Combativeness, retractions with breathing, cyanosis and decreased output
d. Coma, accessory muscle use, cool and clammy skin and unexplained fatigue

Ans. a. Restlessness, tachypnea, tachycardia and diaphoresis

Rationale:
• With inadequate oxygenation, early manifestations include restlessness, tachypnea,
tachycardia and diaphoresis, decreased urinary output, and unexplained fatigue. The
unexplained confusion, dyspnea at rest, hypotension, and diaphoresis; combativeness,
retractions with breathing, cyanosis, and decreased urinary output; coma, accessory
muscle use, cool and clammy skin, and unexplained fatigue occur as later manifestations
of inadequate oxygenation.

36. The nurse is scheduled to administer seasonal influenza vaccinations to the

residents of a long-term care facility. What would be a contraindication to the
administration of the vaccine to a resident?
a. Hypersensitivity to eggs
b. Age greater than 80 years
c. History of upper respiratory infections
d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Ans. a. Hypersensitivity to eggs

 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 17

Rationale:
• Although current vaccines are highly purified and reactions are extremely uncommon,
a hypersensitivity to eggs precludes vaccination because the vaccine is produced in
eggs.
• Advanced age and a history of respiratory illness are not contraindications for influenza
vaccination.

MENTAL HEALTH NURSING

37. Stimulation of which of the following nerve cause elevation of mood?
a. Olfactory nerve b. Optic nerve
c. Trigeminal nerve d. Vagus nerve

Ans. d. Vagus nerve

Rationale:
• Vagal nerve stimulation can be used for treatment of depression.
• Vagus nerve stimulation (VNS) is a surgical procedure that can be used to treat those
with treatment-resistant depression. A pacemaker-like device, implanted in the body
is attached to a stimulating wire that is threaded along a nerve called the vagus nerve.

38. Which of the following is not a common feature of anorexia nervosa?

a. Binge eating b. Amenorrhea
c. Self-perception of being fat d. Under weight

Ans. a. Binge eating

Rationale:
• All of the four options are features of anorexia nervosa.
• However, if one has to choose, the best answer would be binge eating, though binge
eating is seen in almost 50% of patients with anorexia nervosa, however it’s not a core
symptom of anorexia nervosa.
• Most common signs and symptoms of anorexia nervosa are:
Ĕ Disturbance of body image (Patient perceives that she is fat despite being quite
thin in reality).
Ĕ Excessive fear of fatness and excessive emphasis on thinness.
Ĕ Restriction of energy intake resulting in a significantly less weight than normal.
Ĕ Medical symptoms secondary to starvation such as Amenorrhea, lanugo,
(appearance of neonatal hairs), hypothermia, dependent edema and bradycardia.

39. Drug of choice for “Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder” is:

a. Benzodiazepines b. TCAs
c. Progesterone d. SSRIs

Ans. d. SSSRIs
18 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

Rationale:
• SSRIs are considered as DOC for premenstrual Dysphoric disorder.
• Premenstrual Dysphoric disorder (PMDD): Symptoms of mood lability, dysthymia
and anxiety occurring in the week preceding menses and minimal or absent in the
week post menses.

40. The most commonly used pharmacotherapy for delirium is ____.

a. Risperidone
b. Lorazepam
c. Clozapine
d. Haloperidol

Ans. d. Haloperidol

Rationale:
• Haloperidol is commonly used for the pharmacotherapy of Delirium.
• The two major symptoms of delirium that may require pharmacological treatment are
psychosis and insomnia.
• Commonly used drug for psychosis is haloperidol-a butyrophenone antipsychotic
drug.

Other Options
• Use of second-generation antipsychotics (such as risperidone, clozapine, olanzapine)
may be considered for delirium management, but clinical trial experience with these
agents for delirium is limited.
• Benzodiazepines should be used judiciously for insomnia as their sedative property
can worsen confusion.

41. Intense depression and misery without any cause is?

a. Mania
b. Melancholia
c. Major depressive disorder
d. Schizophrenia

Ans. b. Melancholia

Rationale:
• Melancholia is a kind of depression with the most common symptoms of evident
mental disorder, slimness, lack of enjoyment, feeling guilty and having no appetite.
• Melancholia is severe depressive state with psychomotor retardation.

42. The period of normalcy is seen between two psychosis. The diagnosis is:
a. Schizophrenia
b. Manic depressive psychosis
c. Alcoholism
d. Depression

Ans. b. Manic depressive psychosis

 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 19

Rationale:
• Manic depressive psychosis was the older name for bipolar disorder.
• In bipolar disorder, in between the episodes, patient is usually normal.
• Bipolar disorder: Episodes of both mania (continuing or at least 1 week) and Depression
(bipolar 1 disorder).
• Both hypomania (continuing or at least 4 days) and depression (bipolar Lii disorder)

43. Schneider’s first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following

except:
a. Ambivalence
b. Somatic passivity
c. Hallucination
d. Thought insertion

Ans. a. Ambivalence

Rationale:
• Ambivalence is not a first-rank symptom of schizophrenia. It is one of the 4A’s of
schizophrenia as described by Bleuler.
• The first rank symptoms of schizophrenia described by Kurt Schneider include:
Ĕ Hallucination:
ƒ Audible thoughts - Auditory hallucinations of a person’s voice being spoken
aloud.
ƒ Voices arguing or discussing - Auditory hallucinations of two or more voices
arguing or discussing, usually about the person experiencing the hallucination.
ƒ Voices commenting on the patient’s actions - aAditory hallucinations
commenting on a person’s behavior or actions.
Ĕ Thought Phenomenon:
ƒ Thought withdrawal - Thoughts being actively removed from a person’s mind.
ƒ Thought insertion - Thoughts inserted into a person’s mind by some external
agent.
ƒ Thought broadcasting - The sense that a person’s thoughts are experienced
by others. The thoughts are made audible or may be experienced by others
through telepathy.
Ĕ Made Phenomenon:
ƒ Made affect - Feelings are imposed on that person by an external agent.
ƒ Made impulses or drives - An impulse for action is imposed on a person by
some external agent.
ƒ Made volitional acts - A person’s actions are controlled by an external agent;
the person is a passive participant in the action.
Ĕ Delusional perception - The person attaches an abnormal significance/meaning
to a normal perception, which leads to delusional interpretation.
Ĕ Somatic passivity - Tactile or visceral hallucinations that are thought to be
imposed on a person’s body by some external agent.
20 National NORCET Prelims Test-1
• These symptoms are not specific for schizophrenia and may also be present in other
psychiatric disorders.

MICROBIOLOGY
44. After splenectomy, most common infections are:
a. Pneumococcal
b. E. coli
c. Klebsiella
d. Streptococcus

Ans. a. Pneumococcal

Rationale:
• Splenectomy is an important predisposing condition for pneumococcal infection and
it is most common infection in splenectomised patients.
• Polyvalent polysaccharide vaccine (capsular vaccine) for pneumococci is recommended
for use in splenectomised patients.

45. Which of the following transport media is used to transport streptococci from
throat specimens?
a. Stuart’s
b. Cary blair
c. Sach’s buffered glycerol saline
d. Pike’s media

Ans. d. Pike’s media

Rationale:
• Pike’s medium is used to transport streptococci from throat specimens (S. pyogenes).
• Cary Blair medium is semisolid media, useful for transporting stool specimens in
diarrhea cases (V. cholera).
• Sach’s buffered glycerol saline is used to transport feces from patients suspected to be
suffering from bacillary dysentery (Shigella).
• Stuart’s is used to transport Gonococci.
• Venkatraman Ramakrishnan medium is used to transport feces from suspected
cholera patients.

46. All of the following are spore producing bacteria; except:

a. Hemophilus ducreyi
b. B. anthrax
c. Sporosarcina
d. Clostridia

Ans. a. Hemophilus ducreyi

 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 21

Rationale:
Spore producing bacteria are:
• B. anthrax
• Sporosarcina
• Clostridia
• Coxiella burnettii
Mnemonics: BSC Chemistry

47. Sequentially arrange the decreasing order of resistance to sterilization:

1. Bacterial Spores
2. Prions
3. Bacteria
a. 1→2→3 b. 3→2→1
c. 2→1→3 d. 2→3→1

Ans. c. 2→1→3

Rationale:
Resistance of Living Form to Antiseptic
• Prions (most resistant) > Coccidian > Spores > Mycobacterium > Cysts > Virus (Non-
enveloped) > Gram negative bacteria > Fungi > Gram positive bacteria > Enveloped
virus (Most sensitive).

48. Drug resistance transfer by bacteriophage involves:

a. Transduction b. Conjugation
c. Transformation d. Convocation

Ans. a. Transduction

Rationale:
• Transduction: Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to other bacterium via demons,
i.e. bacteriophage. Most widespread method of gene transfer.
• Transformation: First example of genetic exchange to have been discovered. Involve
transfer of information via Free DNA.
• Conjugation: Involves contact of two bacteria with one another. It is the most
important method of drug resistance. Occurs by plasmid called R factor.

NURSING RESEARCH & STATISTICS

49. Which of the following statement represent Data in continuous form?
a. Blood pressured reading of patient is 120/80
b. Number of nursing being absent today
c. How many syringes a nurse has used to administer an antibiotic
d. Number of patients admitted with bacterial meningitis in ICU 2.

Ans. a. Blood pressured reading of patient is 120/80

22 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

Rationale:
• From the following options: Blood pressure reading of the patient should be represented
as continuous data. As the Blood pressure reading is documented in fraction form
120/80 which cannot be counted can only be measured.
• Whereas the statement is representing discrete form of data
• We can have a specific number of nurses being absent today which could be 2 or 4 so
this represent a discrete form of data which can be counted.
• Similarly, in option c number of syringes used by the nurse to administer the antibiotics
will also give a specific number which can be counted. It can’t be 1.5 syringes or 2.4
syringes used by the nurse.
• Likewise, option d also represent the discrete data where we can count the number of
patients who are diagnosed with bacterial meningitis and admitted in ICU 2.

50. Which type of statistics uses graph, chart and tables?

a. Descriptive b. Inferential statistics
c. Continuous d. Discrete

Ans. a. Descriptive

Rationale:

Basis for comparison Descriptive statistics Inferential statistics

Meaning Descriptive statistics is that
branch of statistics which is
concerned with describing the
population under study.
What it does? Organize, analyze and present
data in a meaningful way.
Form of final Result Charts, Graphs and Tables
Usage To describe a situation.
Function It explains the data, which is
already known, to summarize
sample.
Inferential statistics is a type of
statistics, that focuses on drawing
conclusions about the population,
on the basis of sample analysis and
observation.
Compares, test and predicts data.
Probability
To explain the chances of
occurrence of an event.
It attempts to reach the conclusion
to learn about the population, that
extends beyond the data available.
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 23

51. The symbol β represents.

a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Number of cases
d. Degree of freedom

Ans. b. Type I error

Rationale:
Symbol Meaning
α Type I error
β Type II error
N Number of cases
df Degree of freedom

MIDWIFERY & OBSTETRICAL NURSING

52. A nurse is teaching clients to determine the time of ovulation by taking the
basal temperature. What change is expected to occur in the basal temperature
during ovulation?
a. Slight drop and then rises
b. Sudden rise and then drops
c. Marked rise and remains high
d. Marked drop and remains lower

Ans. a. Slight drop and then rises

Rationale:
• As ovulation approaches there may be a drop in the basal temperature because of an
increased production of estrogen; when ovulation occurs there will be a rise in the
basal temperature because of an increased production of progesterone.
• Option-b: At ovulation, the temperature rises after a slight drop.
• Option-c: At ovulation, the temperature drop is slight, not marked.
• Option-d: At ovulation, the temperature drops slightly and then rises.

53. A 22-year-old client, who is experiencing vaginal bleeding in the first trimester
of pregnancy, fears that she has lost her baby at 8 weeks. Which definitive test
result should indicate to a nurse that the client’s fetus has been lost?
a. Falling beta human chorionic gonadotropin (BHCG) measurement
b. Low progesterone measurement
c. Ultrasound demonstrating lack of fetal cardiac activity
d. Ultrasound determining crown–rump length

Ans. c. Ultrasound demonstrating lack of fetal cardiac activity

24 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

Rationale:
• Ultrasound is used to determine if the fetus has died. The lack of fetal heart activity in
a pregnancy over 6 weeks determines a fetal loss.
• Crown–rump length determines only the fetal gestational age.
• Falling BHCG levels and low progesterone levels do not conclusively diagnose fetal
demise.

54. A new pregnant client (G1P0) presents at a clinic and states that she is anxious
regarding her pregnancy, her prenatal care and her labor and birth. Which
teaching need is priority during the first trimester?
a. Sexual relations with her spouse b. Fetal growth and development
c. Labor and delivery options d. Completion of preparations for the baby

Ans. b. Fetal growth and development

Rationale:
• Information about fetal growth and development is important to cover during the first
trimester. There is no indication that sexual relations are a concern for the woman.
• Labor, delivery options and completion of preparations for the baby are priorities in
the third trimester.
• Birth control methods are priorities in the postpartum period.

55. A nurse explains that the efficiency of the basal body temperature method of
contraception depends on fluctuation of the basal body temperature. What
factor will alter its effectiveness?
a. Presence of stress b. Length of abstinence
c. Age of those involved d. Frequency of intercourse

Ans. a. Presence of stress

Rationale:
• Stress or infection can alter the body’s metabolism, causing an elevation in temperature;
a rise in temperature from these causes may be misinterpreted as ovulation.
• Option-b: This may increase sperm volume but does not affect the female’s basal
temperature.
• Option-c: Age is not a factor concerning efficiency of the basal body temperature
method of contraception in premenopausal woman.
• Option-d: Frequency of intercourse may affect the volume of sperm but does not alter
the female’s basal temperature.

56. A nurse should recommend which preconceptual supplement as a preventative

measure to decrease the incidence of neural tube defects?
a. Folic acid supplementation b. Iron supplements
c. Vitamin C supplementation d. Vitamin B6 supplementation

Ans. a. Folic acid supplementation

 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 25

Rationale:
• Folic acid supplementation when taken at the time of conception has been found to
decrease the incidence of neural tube defects.
• Iron supplements are used to treat anemia that is associated with pregnancy.
Neural Tube Defect
• Spina bifida is a neural tube defect that occurs within the first four weeks of pregnancy
due to the incomplete closure of neural tube. The posterior neuropore closes during
week 4 (day 27). Failure of the posterior neuropore to close results in lower neural tube
defects, such as spina bifida.
• Pathology: Folic acid deficiency or MTHFR gene defect → Incomplete closure of
posterior neuropore → Incomplete formation of vertebrae → Bifida spines of vertebrae
(Spina bifida).
• Prevention: Supplementation of 0.4 mg/day folic acid from three months prior to
conception up to the first 12 weeks of the pregnancy can prevent neural tube defects.
• Screening: Neural tube defects can be detected by:
Ĕ Ultrasonography
Ĕ Increased maternal serum α-fetoprotein (AFP)
Treatment: Spina bifida can be treated by surgery after delivery.

57. A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who had an aspiration

abortion by suction curettage. What should the client be told?
a. Avoid showering for 2 days
b. Tampons may be used after 1 day
c. Sexual intercourse should be delayed for 3 weeks
d. Report bleeding that requires a pad change every 2 hours

Ans. d. Report bleeding that requires a pad change every 2 hours

Rationale:
• Excessive bleeding should be reported because it is an indication that all of the products
of conception have not been evacuated.
• Option-a: The client may shower daily.
• Option-b: Tampons should be avoided for at least 3 days, although some protocols
stress avoidance of tampons for 3 weeks.
• Option-c: Depending on the protocol, sexual intercourse should be avoided for at least
1 week and up to 2 weeks.

58. One of the responsibilities of a nurse in a fertility specialist’s office is to

provide health teaching to the client in relation to timing of intercourse. Which
instruction addresses the best time to achieve a pregnancy?
a. Midway between periods
b. Immediately after menses end
c. 14 days before the next period is expected
d. 14 days after the beginning of the last period

Ans. c. 14 days before the next period is expected

26 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

Rationale:
• Ovulation occurs 14 days before the onset of menses.
• Option-a: Midway between cycles is appropriate only if the client has a 28-day cycle.
• Option-b: This means that ovulation occurs on approximately day 5 of the menstrual
cycle, which is not factual.
• Option-d: Variations in the cycle occur in the preovulation period; it is not as accurate
as counting 14 days before the next expected menses.

59. A histogram (hysterosalpingography [HSG]) is performed to determine

whether there is a tubal obstruction. The nurse concludes that infertility caused
by a defect in the tube is most often related to a:
a. Tubal injury b. Past infection
c. Fibroid tumor d. Congenital anomaly

Ans. b. Past infection

Rationale:
• Past pelvic infections may result in tubal occlusions, most of which are caused by post-
infection adhesions.
• Option-a: Although a tubal injury is possible, tubal infections are more common.
• Option-c: This is a benign tumor of the uterus and does not affect the tube.
• Option-d: Tubal congenital anomalies are rare; uterine anomalies are more common.

60. A woman who is actively bleeding due to a spontaneous abortion asks a nurse
why this is happening. The nurse advises the woman that the majority of first-
trimester losses are related to which of the following?
a. Cervical incompetence b. Chronic maternal disease
c. Poor implantation d. Chromosomal abnormalities

Ans. d. Chromosomal abnormalities

Rationale:
• Chromosomal abnormalities account for the majority of first- trimester spontaneous
abortions.
• The other options also can result in spontaneous abortion, but do not account for the
majority.

61. A nurse is caring for a client who is Rh negative at 13 weeks’ gestation. The
client is having cramping and has moderate vaginal bleeding. Which physician
order should the nurse question?
a. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
b. Obtain a beta human chorionic gonadotropin level (BHCG)
c. Schedule an ultrasound
d. Assess for fetal heart tones

Ans. b. Obtain a beta human chorionic gonadotropin level (BHCG)

 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 27

Rationale:
• Obtaining the BHCG level is not indicated at this late stage in pregnancy. BHCG levels
are followed in early pregnancy before a fetal heart can be confirmed.
• RhoGAM is indicated for any pregnant woman with bleeding who is Rh negative. An
ultrasound can identify the cause of bleeding and confirm viability. A Doppler can be
used to confirm a fetal heartbeat.

PEDIATRIC NURSING
62. A nurse is admitting an infant with a tentative diagnosis of intussusception.
Which question to the mother would be most helpful in obtaining additional
information to confirm the diagnosis?
a. “Does your baby vomit after each feeding?”
b. “What does the infant do when experiencing pain?”
c. “Is your infant passing ribbonlike stools?”
d. “Have you felt a mass in your infant’s abdomen?”

Ans. b. “What does the infant do when experiencing pain?”

Rationale:
• The diagnosis is suggested by the infant’s history. In intussusception, infants suddenly
draw up their legs and cry as if in severe pain due to a peristaltic wave that occurs from
the invagination of one portion of the intestine into another.
• When the peristaltic wave passes, the infant is symptom free. Vomiting can occur with
the pain from the peristaltic wave; this is unrelated to the time of feeding.
• Ribbon like stools occur in Hirschsprung’s disease because stool passes through areas
of impacted feces and narrowed aganglionic distal segments of the bowel.
• The stools of intussusception are red, currant jelly–like in appearance from the mix of
blood and mucous.
• A mass may be present and the baby’s abdomen distended, but this is common to other
gastrointestinal conditions and too general to confirm the diagnosis.

63. A mother brings her 5-month-old to the clinic for a well-child appointment. A
nurse is doing an assessment when the mother asks when she can give her baby
solid foods. What response is most appropriate?
a. Inquire if the baby can sit well with support and if the baby’s tongue thrust has decreased
b. Ask the mother is she feels the baby is ready for solids
c. Ask the mother if the baby seems hungry after bottle feeding
d. Tell the mother to ask the pediatrician

Ans. a. Inquire if the baby can sit well with support and if the baby’s tongue thrust has decreased

Rationale:
• The baby needs to be physically and developmentally ready for solid foods. The baby
should be able to sit up well and should have less tongue thrust so the food can stay in
the mouth.
28 National NORCET Prelims Test-1
• The mother depends on information from the health-care providers (HCP) to help her
with the decision. The criterion of a baby being hungry after bottle feeding may just
mean the baby needs to take more formula or breast milk.
• The HCP can help with the decision, but the nurse has responsibility to conduct
teaching within the registered nurse’s scope of practice.

64. A parent is describing the stool number, consistency, appearance and size for
a child diagnosed with celiac disease to a nurse. Which changes in the child’s
stools should prompt the nurse to conclude that the child’s ability to absorb
nutrients is improving?
a. Disappearance of currant jelly–like stools
b. Reduction of ribbonlike stools
c. Absence of large, bulky, greasy stools
d. Absence of liquid green stools

Ans. c. Absence of large, bulky, greasy stools

Rationale:
• Large, bulky, greasy stools describe steatorrhea. When gluten is ingested in celiac
disease, changes occur in the intestinal mucosa or villi that prevent the absorption
of foods across the intestinal villi into the bloodstream and the inability to absorb fat.
• Currant jelly–like stools are characteristic of intussusception from the mixing of blood
and mucous.
• Ribbon like stools occur in Hirschsprung’s disease because stool passes through areas
of impacted feces and narrowed aganglionic distal segments of the bowel. Liquid green
stools appear in diarrhea.

65. A 4-year-old child is being seen in a clinic. A parent explains that the child has
been bumping into objects not directly in front of the child and complaining
of seeing halos around objects and sometimes seeing two objects when there is
only one. A referral is made for a tonometry test. A nurse explains to the parent
that tonometry of the child’s eyes will be testing for:
a. Cataracts
b. Strabismus
c. Glaucoma
d. Lazy eye

Ans. c. Glaucoma

Rationale:
• The child’s symptoms suggest glaucoma. Tonometry is a method for measuring
intraocular pressure (IOP) and detecting glaucoma. Other symptoms of glaucoma
include excessive tearing, light sensitivity (photophobia), closure of one or both eyes in
the light, one eye may be larger than the other, vision loss, irritability, fussiness, poor
appetite, blurred vision and a cloudy, enlarged cornea.
• Although some symptoms exhibited are similar to those of cataracts, strabismus and
lazy eye, tonometry is not used to detect these.
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 29

• A characteristic of cataracts is lens opacity, which is not present. While symptoms of

bumping into objects and diplopia can occur with strabismus (cross-eyes), it is not
evaluated by tonometry.
• Lazy eye results when one eye does not receive sufficient stimulation and poor vision
results in the affected eye; a child may bump into objects because of the poor vision or
exhibited diplopia.

66. 3-year-old child is on mechanical ventilation, which has been effective in

treating oxygenation problems secondary to hypovolemic shock. When
developing the plan of care for this child, which nursing diagnosis should the
nurse consider a priority at this time?
a. Impaired gas exchange b. Fear
c. Risk for infection d. Risk for impaired skin integrity

Ans. c. Risk for infection

Rationale:
• Critical illness and mechanical ventilation increase the risk for infection. This child
is already compromised from the inadequate tissue perfusion that occurred with
hypovolemic shock, so the priority at this time is to prevent an infection that would
further compromise the child’s physical condition.
• Impaired gas exchange would be an appropriate diagnosis if the child’s blood gases
were not within normal limits while on mechanical ventilation.
• Otherwise, the mechanical ventilation is effective in treating the impaired gas exchange
as noted in the situation.
• A child of 3 years of age would be afraid. The standard of practice is to sedate a child
who requires ventilator support. This should have been initiated when the child was
placed on mechanical ventilation.
• Typically children, unless there are other risk factors are not at high risk for impaired
skin integrity. However, the nurse should be extremely mindful of assessing for areas
of pressure.

67. While completing an assessment on a 4-hours-old newborn, a nurse notes the

following documentation in the newborn’s chart: “clamping of the umbilical
cord was delayed until cord pulsations ceased.” The nurse anticipates that this
delayed cord clamping will result in:
a. More rapid expulsion of meconium from the new born intestinal tract
b. Increased new born alertness after birth
c. An increase in initial new born temperature
d. An increase in the new born’s hemoglobin and hematocrit

Ans. d. An increase in the newborn’s hemoglobin and hematocrit

Rationale:
• Newborn hemoglobin and hematocrit values will be higher when placental transfusion,
accomplished through delayed cord clamping, occurs at birth. Blood volume increases
by up to 50% with delayed cord clamping. Full-term newborns normally pass
meconium naturally within 8 to 24 hours after birth.
30 National NORCET Prelims Test-1
• In the later weeks of pregnancy, the intestinal peristalsis becomes active in preparation
for meconium passage after birth.
• Delayed clamping of the umbilical cord will not affect this process.
• At birth, the newborn’s temperature may fall due to evaporative heat loss. Delayed
cord clamping will not affect this evaporation process. The healthy newborn is born
awake and active. This period of alertness typically lasts for 30 minutes after birth
and is known as the first period of reactivity. This will not be affected by delayed cord
clamping.

68. A newborn who is 33-weeks’ gestation and 48 hours old has been diagnosed
with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). A health-care provider orders the
administration of surfactant via endotracheal tube. The father asks a nurse
to explain how this treatment will help his baby. The nurse explains that the
preterm infant is unable to produce adequate amounts of surfactant and giving
it to his baby will:
a. Increase PaCO2 levels in the bloodstream
b. Prevent alveoli collapse
c. Decrease PaO2 levels in the bloodstream
d. Prevent pleural effusion

Ans. b. Prevent alveolicollapse

Rationale:
• RDS is the result of a primary absence, deficiency or alteration in the production of
pulmonary surfactant. Lack of surfactant in the preterm infant causes decreased lung
compliance, resulting in increased inspiratory pressure needed to expand the lungs
with air.
• Surfactant replacement therapy decreases alveolar collapse and thus decreases the
severity of RDS. Early surfactant replacement therapy is associated with a decreased
need for mechanical ventilation and fewer complications.
• Preventing alveolar collapse allows the exchange of gases and thus will cause an
increase in PaO2 and a decrease in PaCO2.
• Pleural effusion does not occur in this disease.

69. A child diagnosed with hemophilia is brought to a clinic due to pain and
restricted movement of the left knee after tripping going upstairs. A nurse
assesses that the knee is hot, swollen and tender to touch. The nurse should
initially conclude that the child is likely experiencing:
a. A Baker’s cyst
b. Hemarthrosis
c. A patella fracture
d. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Ans. b. Hemarthrosis
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 31

Rationale:
• Hemarthrosis is bleeding into the joint. Signs include restricted movement, pain,
tenderness and a hot, swollen joint.
• A Baker’s cyst is a bulge occurring in the popliteal bursa behind the knee from excess
synovial fluid.
• A patella fracture is a broken kneecap. Signs include intense pain and swelling. Based
on the child’s history of hemophilia, patella fracture would be an unlikely initial
conclusion for the nurse, although this could be the eventual diagnosis.
• DIC is widespread clotting throughout the body. Symptoms include diffuse bleeding
from multiple sites.

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

70. A patient with sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis is on ATT for the last 5
months, but the patient is still positive for AFB in the sputum. This case refers
to:
a. New case b. Failure case
c. Relapse case d. Drug defaulter

Ans. b. Failure case

Rationale:
• Treatment failed: Sputum smear or culture is positive at month 5 or later during
treatment (no longer includes systematically any case with confirmed MDR-TB).
• Relapse: Previously treated for TB, was declared cured or treatment completed at the
end of their most recent course of treatment and is now diagnosed with a recurrent
episode of TB (either a true relapse or a new episode of TB caused by reinfection).
• New: Never been treated for TB or have taken anti-TB drugs for less than 1 month.

71. The doctor has removed the plaster cast of patient and examined the extremity
and adviced the patient to follow prescribed instructions. The nurse will
instruct the housekeeping personnel to discard the plaster cast in which of the
following biomedical waste bin?
a. Yellow bin b. Red bin
c. Black bin d. Blue bin

Ans. a. Yellow bin

Rationale:
• According to the revised guidelines for Common Bio-medical Waste Treatment and
Disposal Facilities Central Pollution Control Board, 2016 the soiled waste items
contaminated with blood, body fluids like dressings, plaster casts, cotton swabs
and bags containing residual or discarded blood and blood components should be
discarded in yellow bin with biohazard symbol.
32 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

72. Occupational nurse, Andy undertakes screening in a bakery in which a case of

occupational asthma has been diagnosed. She saw that the patient has wheezes
that only occurs at work. Which of the following statements is true in relation
to this?
a. A respiratory mask will help alleviate his condition
b. Legally his employer should relocate him
c. This case falls under The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (the ‘new Act’)
d. Employers must make sure that the workplace exposure limit (WEL) for flour is
adhered to strictly

Ans. b. Legally his employer should relocate him

Rationale:
• In this case relocating the employee legally by the employer should be done because
the employee here has initial symptoms of occupational asthma which is common is
this type of occupation.
• Providing respiratory mask is a preventive strategy and will not be of any help now.
• This does not fall under The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (the ‘new
Act’) of India because occupational Asthma is not considered in the list of disabilities
enlisted under this Act.
• Option d is also as preventive measure and won’t be of help in this case.

73. In a population of 5000, with birth rate of 30/1000 population, 15 children died
during first year life in a year. Of these, 9 died during first month of life. What
is the infant mortality rate in this population?
a. 100
b. 60
c. 150
d. 45

Ans. a. 100

Rationale:
• Birth rate = 30/1000
• In 5000 population, no. of live birth = (30/1000) × 5000 = 150 No. of death before 1
year of age = 15
• IMR = (No. of death of children less than one year of age/No. of live birth in the same
year) × 1000
• IMR = (15/150) × 1000 = 100

74. A clinical instructor is giving presentation on breast milk to the nursing intern
students. One of the students asked, what is present in the breast milk which
provide a protective effect to the infants?
a. IgG Antibodies b. Lysozyme
c. IgA antibodies d. IgM

Ans. c. IgA antibodies

 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 33

Rationale:
• The initial phase of neonatal life is considered as a critical period because soon after
birth the babies are immediately exposed to a large number of microorganisms. The
high morbidity and mortality rates observed during the first months of life due to
infectious diseases such as otitis media, upper and lower respiratory tract infections,
gastroenteritis, sepsis and meningitis. During the first few months of life, the babies are
provided with the protection mechanisms transferred by the mother, represented by:
Ĕ The transplacental transfer of antibodies,
Ĕ Anti-infective resistance factors in the amniotic fluid, and
Ĕ In extrauterine life, colostrum and milk.
• Colostrum (milk produced during the first days after birth), in addition to being a rich
source of nutrients, contains high concentrations of various protective factors with
anti-infective action, such as enzymes (lysozyme, lactoferrin etc.), immunoglobulins,
cytokines, complement system components, leukocytes, oligosaccharides, nucleotides,
lipids and hormones that interact with each other and with the mucous membranes
of the digestive and upper respiratory tracts of infants, providing passive immunity as
well as stimulation for the development and maturation of the infant’s immune system.
• The most abundant immunoglobulin in human colostrum is IgA. These antibodies can
bind to potential pathogens and prevent their attachment to the infant’s cells. Secretory
IgA is adapted to survive in the respiratory and gastrointestinal mucosal membranes
and resist proteolytic digestion. Secretory IgA neutralizes infectious agents while at the
same time limiting the damaging effects of tissue inflammation that can occur with
other antibody types.
• IgM antibodies are the second most abundant immunoglobulin in human colostrum,
at concentrations of up to 2.5 mg/mL. IgG is found at low concentrations in human
milk, around 0.1 mg/mL (10% of serum values).

75. From 1970-1995, 500 people were monitored. The count of people exposed
to smoking is 400 and non-exposed is 100. Out of 400 people exposed, 50
developed lung cancer and out of 100 non-exposed, 5 developed the lung
cancer. Calculate relative risk:
a. 1.2 b. 2.5
c. 12.5 d. 1.5

Ans. b. 2.5

Rationale:
• Relative risk is the ratio of the probability of an event occurring in the exposed group
versus the probability of the event occurring in the non-exposed group.
• In the given case,
Lung cancer Developed lung Did not developed Total Cumulativeindices
cancer lung cancer
Exposed 50 350 400 50/400 = 0.125
Non-exposed 05 95 100 05/100 = 0.05
RR = 0.125/0.05 = 2.5
Hence, option b is correct.
34 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY

76. A 43-year-old man develops a brain tumor that impinges on the supraoptic
nucleus in the hypothalamus. As a result, the secretion of which of the following
hormones is affected?
a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
b. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Growth hormone

Ans. b. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Rationale:
• ADH, also called arginine vasopressin is secreted from the posterior lobe of the
pituitary gland (neurohypophysis) into the general circulation from the endings of
supra-optic neurons in the hypothalamus.
• ACTH, FSH and growth hormone are all secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
(adenohypophysis) into the portal hypophyseal circulation from the endings of arcuate
and other hypothalamic neurons.

77. An 82-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital with ascites, peripheral
edema and shortness of breath. Cardiac catheterization was conducted and
the following values were obtained:
Pulmonary vein O2 content = 20 mL O2/100 mL blood
Pulmonary artery O2 content = 12 mL O2/100 mL blood
Oxygen consumption (VO2) = 280 mL/min
Stroke volume = 40 mL
What is the woman’s cardiac output?
a. 2.86 L/min b. 3.5 L/min
c. 7.0 L/min d. 8.0 L/min

Ans. b. 3.5 L/min

Rationale:
• Cardiac output (CO) can be calculated using the Fick equation, where VO2 is the
steady-state oxygen consumption by the body and a-v O2 is the difference in arterial
O2 content and mixed venous O2 content. Blood in the pulmonary veins is oxygenated
“arterial” blood and blood in the pulmonary artery is fully mixed venous blood.
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 35

78. A patient presented with weakness of the right side of the face with the loss of
pain and temperature. Pain and temperature sensation of the left leg is lost.
The lesion is most likely located at?
a. Medial medulla
b. Lateral pons
c. Medial pons
d. Lateral medulla

Ans. b. Lateral pons

Rationale:

Remember Rule of 4:
• Weakness of face → Palsy of facial muscles → 7th nerve
• Affected → Same Side → CN VII ((7TH Cranial nerve) from pons.
• Loss of pain and temperature from face àTrigeminal nerve affected → Lesion in lateral
side and ipsilateral.
• Loss of pain and temperature in body (UL, LL) àSpinothalamic tract affected → Lesion
in contralateral side and also lateral side (4s)
• So, answer is right lateral pons.
Entrance Corner
• Lesion of the brain stem:
Ĕ Midbrain: Usually the fibers of the third (oculomotor) nerve are affected —
alternating oculomotor hemiplegia, this means;
Ĕ Hemiplegia on opposite half of the body (UMNL)
Ĕ Signs of oculomotor nerve paralysis on the same side (LMNL)
• Pons: Usually the fibers of the sixth (abducent) nerve are affected — alternating
abducent hemiplegia, this means.
Ĕ Hemiplegia on opposite half of the body (UMNL)
Ĕ Signs of abducent nerve paralysis on the same side (LMN)
• Medulla: Usually the fibers of the hypoglossal nerve are affected — alternating
hypoglossal hemiplegia, this means
Ĕ Hemiplegia on opposite half of the body (UMNL)
Ĕ Signs of hypoglossal nerve paralysis on the same side (LMNL)

BIOCHEMISTRY & NUTRITION

79. What is the cut off value of mild arm circumference below which severe
malnutrition is diagnosed in children up to 5 years of age?
a. 11 cm
b. 11.5 cm
c. 12 cm
d. 12.5 cm

Ans. b. 11.5 cm
36 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

Rationale:
• Mid arm circumference less than 13.5 cm is abnormal and is suggestive of malnutrition.
A value less than 11.5 cm is suggestive of severe malnutrition.
• MUAC is between 16-17 cm in age group of 1-5 years.
• The cut off level in Shakir’s tape for wasted child is less than 12.5 cm and is the reason
for errors in answering this question.
• Definition of severe acute malnutrition:
Ĕ Weight for height less than 3 standard deviation
Ĕ Visible severe wasting
Ĕ Presence of bipedal edema
Ĕ Mid upper arm circumference below 11.5 cm

80. A patient seen in the ER has ingested antifreeze in a suicide attempt. Other
than bicarbonate, which one of the following is the major buffer of acids to help
maintain the pH in the blood within the range compatible with life?
a. Hemoglobin
b. Acetoacetate
c. Phosphate
d. Collagen

Ans. a. Hemoglobin

Rationale:
• Antifreeze contains ethylene glycol (HO–CH2–CH2–OH) and ingestion of ethylene
glycol (which has a sweet taste) will lead to a metabolic acidosis due to the metabolism
of ethylene glycol to glycolic and oxalic acids.
• As the acids form, protons are released and bicarbonate and hemoglobin are the
major buffers in the blood that will bind these protons to blunt the drop in blood pH.
Acetoacetate and β-hydroxybutyrate are ketone bodies produced by the liver and since
they are both acids, their accumulation is often a cause of metabolic acidosis. Increasing
their synthesis under acidotic conditions would only exacerbate the acidosis.
• Phosphate is an intracellular buffer, but its role is not as significant as that of either
hemoglobin or bicarbonate.

GENERAL ENGLISH
81. Choose the correct passive form of given sentence in active voice:
Swami Vivekananda wrote the book ‘Karma yoga’.
a. The ‘Karma yoga’ was written by Swami Vivekananda.
b. The ‘Karma yoga’ is written by Swami Vivekananda.
c. The ‘Karma yoga’ is being written by Swami Vivekananda.
d. The ‘Karma yoga’ has been written by Swami Vivekananda.

Ans. a. The ‘Karma yoga’ was written by Swami Vivekananda.

 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 37

Rationale:
Given sentence is written in active voice is simple past tense and we need to convert it in
passive form.
Rule is:
Object + was/were + V3 + Subject

82. Choose the word used for Paying back injury with injury:
a. Congregation
b. Reprisal
c. Nepotism
d. Vendetta

Ans. b. Reprisal

Rationale:
• Reprisal: It is an act of retaliation.
• Congregation: It is a group of people assembled for religious worship.
• Nepotism: Power of favouring relatives or friends.
• Vendetta: A blood feud in which the family of a murdered person seeks vengeance on
the murderer or the murderer›s family.

83. Mr. Nitish is a useful …. to the company.

a. Gift
b. Milestone
c. Asset
d. Offer

Ans. c. Asset

Rationale:
• Asset is something useful and valuable. That’s why this is the correct choice.

84. Select the pair with same relationship as of LIQUID: LITRE:

a. Current: Volt
b. Distance: Mile
c. Length: Kilometre
d. Glamour: Model

Ans. b. Distance: Mile

Rationale:
• SI unit for measurement of Liquid is litre, the same way Mile is the SI unit of Distance.
38 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

85. Find out the section of sentence with grammatical error:

After the sinful act / he hanged his head / in shame.
a. After the sinful act
b. he hanged his head
c. in shame
d. No error

Ans. b. he hanged his head

Rationale:
• Correct sentence will be:
• After the sinful act he hung his head in shame.

COMPUTER & NURSING INFORMATICS

86. Who is the father of computer?
a. Charles Babbage
b. Blaise Pascal
c. Garden Moore
d. Elon Musk

Ans. a. Charles Babbage

Rationale:
• Charles Babbage is the father of computer.
• Rest of the options are incorrect.

87. RAM is also known as:

a. Permanent memory
b. Temporary memory
c. Volatile memory
d. Both b & c

Ans. d. Both b & c

Rationale:
• RAM is also known as Temporary memory & Volatile memory as it stores information
till the time we are working on running program as it will lose integrity in case of a
power loss.

88. Select the smallest unit of memory:

a. Bit
b. Megabyte
c. Nibble
d. Byte

Ans. b. Megabyte
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 39

Rationale:
• Bit refers to Binary digit.
• Nibble <Byte < Megabyte

89. Select the output device from the following:

a. Microphone
b. Mouse
c. Keyboard
d. Speakers

Ans. d. Speakers

Rationale:
• Output devices gives the result of the instructions given after processing by the
computer system.
• Some of the output devices are Monitor, Printers, Headphone, and Speakers etc.
• Rest of the options are input devices which are used to give instructions to the system.

90. There are total ….. Generations of computer.

a. 7
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

Ans. c. 5

Rationale:
• Till now there are total five generation of computers divided as per the features like
size and electrical current flow (through Vacuums tubes/ transistors or ICs) introduced
with time starting from 1940 till now.

ARITHMETIC
91. If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percent?
a. 150%
b. 100%
c. 200%
d. 400%

Ans. b. 100%

Rationale:
Let the CP be Rs.100 and SP be Rs. x,
Then,
The profit is (x-100)
40 National NORCET Prelims Test-1
Now when the SP is doubled, then the new SP is 2x
New profit is (2x-100)
Now as per the given condition;
= > 3(x-100) = 2x-100
By solving, we get
x = 200
Then, the Profit percent = (200-100)/100 = 100
Hence, the profit percentage is 100%.

92. A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back, he was four times
as old as his son. What is the age of son is:
a. 12
b. 15
c. 18
d. 20

Ans. b. 15

Rationale:
Let son’s age be x years
Then, father’s age = (3x) years (as per given condition)
Five years ago,
Father’s age = (3x – 5) years
Son’s age = (x – 5) years
So, 3x – 5 = 4 (x – 5)
3x – 5 = 4x – 20
x = 15

93. Find the missing number from the series.

2,3, 8, 63, ?
a. 3900
b. 3636
c. 3968
d. 3988

Ans. c. 3968

Rationale:
The pattern is,
22 = 4 - 1 = 3
32 = 9 - 1 = 8
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 41

8 = 64 - 1 = 63
2

632 = 3969 - 1 = 3968

1 1
94. A man can row 3 of a km against the stream in 11 4 minutes and returns in 7
2
4
minutes, find the speed of the man in still water.
a. 3 km/hr
b. 4 km/hr
c. 5 km/hr
d. 6 km/hr

Ans. c. 5 km/hr

Rationale:
 750  10
Rate
= upstream =  m / sec m / sec;
 675  9
 750  5
Rate
= upstream =  m / sec m / sec.
 450  3
∴ Rate in still water

1  10 5  25  25 18 
=  +  m/sec = m/sec =  ×  km/hr
2  9 3 18  18 5 
= 5km

95. If 35% of a number is 175, then what percent of 175 is that number?
a. 35% b. 65%
c. 280% d. None of these

Ans. d None of these

Rationale:
Let the number be x
Then, 35% of x = 175

 35   175 × 100 
⇔ × x = 175 ⇔ x=  = 500
 100   35 
Now, let y% of 175 = 500

 y   500 × 100  2000 5

Then,  ×175 = 500 ⇔ y=  = = 285
 100   175  7 7
42 National NORCET Prelims Test-1

G.K. & CURRENT AFFAIRS

96. Which of the following are/is the part/parts of Ramcharitmanas?
a. Bal Kanda b. Aranya Kanda
c. Kiskindha Kanda d. All are correct

Ans. d. All are correct

Rationale:
• The Seven parts of Ramcharitmanas are Bal Kanda, Ayodhya Kanda, Aranya Kanda,
Kiskindha Kanda, Sundar Kanda, Lanka Kanda, and Uttar Kanda.

97. According to the Global Firepower Study, where does India rank among the
world’s most powerful armies?
a. 27th b. 4th
c. 2nd d. 1st

Ans. b. 4th

Rationale:
• According to the most recent rating of 2023 by Global Firepower, a data source offering
information about the world’s defence, India is the fourth most powerful army country
in the world.
• The United States is at the top of this list. Following the United States, Russia and China
are ranked second and third, respectively.

98. The Great Bath of Indus Valley Civilization is found at?

a. Harappa b. Lothal
c. Mohenjo-daro d. Ropar

Ans. c. Mohenjo-daro

Rationale:
• The Great Bath of Indus Valley Civilization was found at Mohenjo-daro which was
built in the 3rd millennium BCE, soon after the raising of the “citadel” mound on
which it is located.
• All other options are distractors.

99. Which one of the following is the most peaceful country in the world according
to the Global Peace Index 2023?
a. Iceland
b. Finland
c. Denmark
d. Singapore

Ans. a. Iceland
 National NORCET Prelims Test-1 43

Rationale:
• Recently Global Peace Index (GPI) 2023 has been released by the Institute for
Economics and Peace (IEP). According to this ranking, Iceland is the most peaceful
country in the world.
• Finland ranks 13th in the report.
• Denmark is on 2nd position.
• Singapore is ranked at 6th position.

100. Which is the largest parliament building in the world?

a. India
b. Russia
c. Britain
d. China

Ans. d. China

Rationale:
• China has the largest parliament building in the world.
• Our new parliament was inaugurated on 28 May, 2023 and is 4th largest in the world.