Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Ethics Law
• Unenforceable norms and values guide behavior • Values written into enforceable standards of behavior
• There are no specific laws • Laws are enforced by the justice system.
❖ Principles of professionalism:
1- Accountability • Activities, responsibilities and results
2- Altruism • Do the best for the best interest of the patient. (Not self-interest)
3- Duty • Commitment to the service
4- Honor • Highest standard of behavior and good conduct.
5- Integrity • Adherence to ethical principles and refusal to violate personal codes.
Veracity • Pharmacists should be honest in their dealings with patients. (Telling the truth)
• violation of veracity may be ethically justifiable (as with the use of placebos)
• patients have a right to expect that pharmacist will be frank in dealings with them.
Fidelity ❖ it means that the pharmacists demonstrate loyalty to their patients, regardless of
the length of the professional relationship
❖ Trust and keep promises.
1- Covenantal fidelity:
• is often described as an intimate and spiritual commitment between individuals.
• Examples would include the fidelity of marriage and the fidelity between a member
of the clergy and his or her congregation.
2- Contractual fidelity
• It does not involve a level of commitment beyond that owed another as the result
of a binding agreement.
• An example of this form of fidelity would be the relationship one might have with a
contractor such as a plumber or electrician.
Informed Consent • What and how much information about a medication should be given to a patient
• patients must be fully informed about the benefits and risks of their
participation in a clinical trial, taking a medication, or electing to have surgery,
and this disclosure must be followed by their autonomous consent.
• Informed consent is obtained:
Formally Informally
For legal and ethical reasons Whenever a pharmacist counsels a
Ex: clinical trials, research, surgery patient and dispenses a medication to a
patient, a type of informal occurs. The
patient is informed about the benefits
and any risks of the drug, and then
decides whether to take it or not.
Confidentiality • Revealing information about a patient's medications to members of the family
• Medical confidentiality need not be requested by patients; all medical information,
is considered confidential, unless the patient grants approval for its release.
Refuse or give Ethical situations:
privileged information – Members of the health care team may have access to confidential medical records
without the consent of the patient.
– A patient who expresses a desire not to have information reveal to a member of the
health care team.
– Exceptions: Weak paternalism, Harm principle
Full disclosure • Inform the patients about Benefit and risk then decide what to do.
Patient centered care • Pre-vision information about the patient:
• Culture competition – Confidentiality – Full disclosure
Patient adherence • Help the patient to stick to the drug dose and time (Help not to force)
Respect for persons • Duty to the welfare of the individual, particularly described in religion.
Excellence • Efforts and commitment of life-long learning and ongoing professional development
Humanism • Respect and compassion for others
Distributive justice • Equal distribution of the benefits and burdens of among all members of society.
• Pharmacists do not always provide care with equal dedication to all patients.
• Patient's socioeconomic status often impact the level and intensity of care provided
by health care professionals.
• Medicaid patients are sometimes provided a much lower quality of care than a patient
who is a cash-paying customer or who has a full coverage drug benefits plan.
• Justice demands that the focus be on patients and their medical needs, not on the
financial impact on the health care professional.
❖ Macro ethical issues vs Micro ethical situations
Sometimes, macro issues are manifested in micro situations. This is especially true with socially controversial issues.
For example, a pharmacist may receive a prescription for a drug and know that it is intended for use in an assisted
suicide. Not only must the pharmacist deal with the legal issues involved, but also with the ethical responsibility as a
health care professional. A further complication in such situations is the influence of the pharmacist's personal beliefs
in choosing the course of action.
Assisted Suicide • Medical euthanasia (mercy killing) has long been an ethical issue
• Legally it is not set yet whether to support or to prohibit.
• From an ethical perspective, the key issue remains whether assisted suicide violates the
Hippocratic responsibilities of health care practitioners to do no harm.
– Those who advocate its availability to patients suggest that allowing a patient to continue
to experience unrelenting pain is doing harm.
– They suggest that patients have the right to make an autonomous decision to end their
life; their opponents worry that legal assisted suicide would be abused.
Human Drug • Two important ethical aspects of human drug experimentation are
Experimentation 1- The role of the institutional review board ORB
• Review protocol for ethical purposes, clinical experiments or before animal studies
• Making sure that the rights and welfare of the patient-subject are protected
• evaluate and approve informed consent forms used in conjunction with the research
2- The use of placebos.
• placebos are agents devoid of pharmacologic activity and have served as a point of
comparison for determining therapeutic efficacy
• Patients do not receive any benefits (beneficence)
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Eslam Fahmy
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Questions
1) The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) regulations require pharmacies to keep controlled
substances records, including prescriptions for at least ……….
a) two years
b) three years
c) four years
d) five years.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2)………… are issues that are not specific to a given pharmacist, but rather are those that must be
addressed by all pharmacists and by society in general.
a) Macro ethical issues
b) Micro ethical issues
c) Micro situations
d) Macro situation
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3) revealing information about a patient's medications to members of the family is example of:
a) patient confidentiality
b) informed consent
c) informed refusal
d) express consent
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4) Pharmacist must possess the knowledge base that's at least minimally allows them to carry out their
Functions as reliable therapeutic experts. This is called:
A) Competency.
b) Caring
c) Trustworthiness.
d) Knowledge.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5) …………………………… is the right of individuals to make decisions about what will happen to their
bodies, what choices will be made among competing options, and what they choose to take, or not take,
into their bodies, choice among health care providers, and the choice of refusing medical treatment.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) justice
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6) …………………….. indicates that you act in a manner to do good.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) justice
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7) ……………………. is sometimes used more broadly to include the prevention of harm and the removal of
harmful conditions.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) justice
8) ……………………….. means that the pharmacists demonstrate loyalty to their patients. Pharmacists have
an obligation of fidelity to all their patients, regardless of the length of the professional relationship.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) Fidelity
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9) ……………………. is the ethical principle that instructs pharmacists to be honest in their dealings with
patients?
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) veracity
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10) ……………………refers to the equal distribution of the benefits and burdens of society among all
members of this society.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) distributive justice
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11) euthanasia means:
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) mercy killing
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12) if one lacks the ability to make an autonomous decision, then it is up to health care provider, this is
called:
a) weak paternalism
b) strong paternalism
c) the harm principle
d) autonomy.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13) making the wrong decision or a decision that will cause harm to themselves is called:
a) weak paternalism
b) strong paternalism
c) the harm principle
d) autonomy.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
14)………………. are unenforceable norms and values guide behavior
a) ethics.
b) morals.
c) laws.
d) rules.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
15) ………………………. values are written into enforceable standards of behavior
a) ethics.
b) morals.
c) laws.
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Pharmacogenomics
Precision medicine • An approach to disease treatment and prevention that takes in consideration
genes, environment and life style.
Pharmacogenomics • Component of precision medicine
(PGX) • Study relation // variation in multiple genes and variability of drug response
Pharmacogenetics • Study relation // variation in single gene…… and variability of drug response
Phenotype • Observable trait of genotype (gene responsible for blue eye color)
polymorphism (SNP)
Homozygous → 2 alleles are identical.
Heterozygous → 2 alleles are different.
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• HER2 → use if positive avoid if negative • HLA-B → Avoid the drug if positive
• TPMT → ↓ TPMT → ↑ risk of myelosuppression • KRAS → Avoid the drug if positive
• DPD → ↓ DPD → Severe toxicity (DNN)
• G6PD → ↓ G6PD → Hemolytic anemia
Pharmacogenomics questions
2- Pharmacogenomic testing shows a female patient with breast cancer is HER2 positive. She is
likely to benefit from which of the following?
a. Ivacaftor
b. Leuprorelin
c. Trastuzumab
d. Rituximab
5- A patient is found to have been lacking in functional CYP2C19 enzyme activity. What would be
your recommendation?
a. He should not receive Clopidogrel
b. He should not receive any CYPC19 enzyme inhibitors such as omeprazole or fluoxetine
c. If clopidogrel is administered, he will have increases INR
d. He is an ideal candidate to receive Clopidogrel
❖ Pharmacoeconomic definition:
• Description and analysis of the cost of drug therapy to healthcare systems and society.
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Economic outcome assessment
Cost • The value of the resources consumed by a program or drug therapy of interest.
Total • All expenses directly and indirectly.
Average • The average cost per unit of output.
Marginal • Extra cost of producing one extra unit of output.
Incremental • Additional cost.
Operating • Supports the operation to provide the output.
❖ Types of Healthcare Cost Categories: direct, indirect, intangible, incremental, opportunity
Consequence • The effects, outputs, and outcomes of the program or treatment alternative.
• Types of outcomes (ECHO model)
Economic • The direct, indirect, and intangible costs compared with the consequences of medical treatment alternatives.
Clinical • The medical events that occur as a result of disease or treatment (e.g., safety and efficacy end points)?
Humanistic • The consequences of disease or treatment on patient functional status or quality of life along several
dimensions (e.g., physical function, social function, general health and well-being, and life satisfaction)
Positive • Is a desired effect of a drug (efficacy or effectiveness measure), possibly manifested as cases cured, life-years
gained, or improved health-related quality of life (HRQOL).
Negative • Is an undesired or adverse effect of a drug, possibly manifested as a treatment failure, an adverse drug reaction
(ADR), a drug toxicity, or even death.
Intermediate • Can serve as a proxy for more relevant final outcomes.
• Example: achieving a decrease in low density lipoprotein cholesterol levels with a lipid-lowering agent is an
intermediate consequence that can serve as a proxy for a more final outcome such as a decrease in MI rate
1 Cost types
Know the difference between direct medical, non-medical, indirect and intangible costs
Dis Adv ● Misleading conclusions based on only one trial without the context of other researches,
● The need to have good skills in medical literature evaluation,
● The time needed to evaluate the large volume of literature available.
Secondary resources
Defination Secondary resources include indexing and abstracting systems that organize and provide easy retrieval of
primary resources.
Examples ● MEDLINE (through PubMed, EBSCO, Ovid),
● Academic Search Premier,
● Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews,
● Iowa Drug Information Service (IDIS),
● International Pharmaceutical Abstracts (IPA),
● Embase/Excerpta Medica,
● Biosis Previews/Biological Abstracts,
● CancerLit, SedBase, Reactions,
● Clin-Alert, Current Contents, and Toxline. Proper training
Tertiary Resources
Defination Tertiary sources consist of primary and secondary source information which has been collected
and distilled. They present summaries of or an introduction to the current state of research on a
topic, summarize or condense information from primary and secondary sources
Examples ● electronic databases (e.g., Micromedex, Lexicomp)
● review articles.
● Facts and Comparisons
Dis Adv 1- The lag time associated with publication, resulting in less current information
2- The information in a tertiary text may be incomplete due either to :
a- Space limitations of the book or
b- Incomplete literature searches by the author
3- errors in transcription, human bias, incorrect interpretation of information, or a lack of expertise by
authors.
CONSUMER HEALTH INFORMATION
National Library of Medicine: http://www.medlineplus.gov FDA: http://www.fda.gov/cder
Thomson Health Care: http://www.gettingwell.com Merck: http://www.merckhomeedition.com
National Women’s Health Information Center: http://www.4women.gov
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Drug information resources
Definition Examples Advantages Disadvantages
1 ry • First hand information, • Study designs 1- Access to detailed 1- Misleading conclusion based on the results of only
meaning that you are • Journal article of original research information about a topic. one trial without the context of other researches.
reading author's own • Conference papers 2- Ability to personally 2- Need good skills in medical literature
account on specific topic. • Dissertations assess the validity and 3- Time needed to evaluate large volume of data
• Technical reports utility of study results. available.
3- More recent than 2ry or
• Patents
3ry resources
2ry • Indexing and abstracting • Medline (PubMed, EBSCO, Ovid)
systems that organize • Iowa drug information service (IDIS) ❌❌❌ ❌❌❌
• provide easy retrieval of 1 ry
• International pharmaceutical
resources. abstracts (IPA)
• LexisNexis Review articles
• Google scholar
ry • 1ry and 2ry resources • Textbooks/Books 1- Lag time between publication and tertiary resource
3
information which has been • ATLAS ❌❌❌ 2- Information in 3ry resource may be incomplete
collected and distilled. • Treatment guidelines 3- Errors in transcription and interpretations
• They present summaries. • Dictionary 4- Human bias
• Encyclopedia 5- Lack of experience
• Electronic data bases
a- Micromedex
b- Lexicomp
• Facts and comparisons
• Review articles in journals
Review articles and editorials are not 1ry resources.
medicine • Altmedex
International • Martindale the complete drug reference
drugs
Identification of ❌❌❌ • Identidex
unknown pills • Lexi-drug ID
Clinical trials ❌❌❌ • Pubmed
• ClinicalTrials.gov
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Color drug refrences
Orange book FDA • Provides a list of approved drug products and indicates which drugs can be
interchanged (e.g. Zocor can be substituted with simvastatin)
Purple book FDA • Provides list of biological drug products and indicates which biological
products are biosimilar
Green book FDA • Provides information about approved animal drug products
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Questions
1- Which of the following statements is TRUE about tertiary resources?
a) Tertiary resources should not include a bibliography.
b) Textbooks usually include the most recent literature and/or information.
c) Tertiary resources include computer databases and textbooks
d) The credentials and expertise of the authors of a tertiary resource are not important
===========================================
2- Which of the following resources would be appropriate for identifying a drug manufactured in a foreign
country?
a) Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference
b) Clinical Pharmacology
c) Trissel's stability of compounded formulations
d) AHFS
===========================================
3- Which of the following resources could be appropriate for identifying the tablets with the imprint code of
APO-K 600?
a) Identidex
b) Lexi-Drugs ID (Lexicomp Online)
c) Brigg's drugs in pregnancy and lactation
d) A and B
===========================================
4- Which of the following resources could be appropriate for determining the adverse effects of ginkgo
biloba?
a) Altmedex
b) Natural medicines database
c) Trissel's stability of compounded formulations
d) A and B
===========================================
5- Which of the following resources would be appropriate in evaluating the drug interaction between
Clopidogrel and escitalopram?
a) Lexi-Interact
b) Trissel's stability of compounded formulations
c) Stockley's drug interactions
d) A and C
============================================
6- Which of the following resources would be appropriate for determining whether Amlodipine causes
edema?
a) Brigg's drugs in pregnancy and lactation
b) Trissel's stability of compounded formulations
c) Meyler's side effects of drugs
d) Stockley's drug interactions
=============================================
7- What resource should be used when searching for the most current clinical trials on the use of novel
anticoagulants for pulmonary embolism?
a) Pharmacotherapy, the pathophysiologic approach
b) PubMed
c) Uptodate
d) Micromedex
1- Drug information or Adverse drug reactions or International Drugs
- Le xi-Drugs multinational,
- AHFS
- Micromedex Drug Points
- Drug Points (summarized)
- DRUGDEX (detailed)
- Wolters Kluwer Clinical Drug Information,
- Gold Standard Drug information
- BNF
- Martindale
- Dailymed – EMC - Drugs@FDA – EMA – Medscape - Drugs.com – Rxlist
2- Pharmaceutical Compounding
- Comoundingtoday.com
5- Drug interactions
- stockeys
- Lexi-Interact
6- Pharmacotherapy
- DISEASEDEX
- Clinical Overviews
- Ferri’s Clinical Advisor
- Harrison Internal Medicine ,
7- Toxicology
- Goldfrank's Toxicology - Poisoning and Drug overdose Lexi-Tox
- Myler
8- Natural Products
- Natural Products Databas
- Altmedex
- Naturalmedicines
9- Unknown Pills
- Identidex
- Lexi-Drug ID
Drug information
2 Review article is
secondary resource
4 USP 797
Sterile
7 You are having a study that you want to represent the number data on it what
Is the best way
Quantitive
8 Type of error when you discovered mistake drug before reaching to patient
category B
9 Name of system that help doctors in make decisions for choice the drug
health theoretical model
25 If the doctor ask the patients about side effects , these considered which type of pharmacovigilance
?
Active pharmacovigilance
Definition:
Study design is an organized process used to evaluate a hypothesis to test wither
its accepted to rejected or not.
How is it conducted ?
1st : Select 2 group of people : A case group and A control group
The case group is the study group which has the outcome
The control group is the group without the outcome
Note : control group must be equivalent in most aspect of case group
(like age and other factor) but they don’t have the disease of course !
Note : the case group must have the best confirmative test to say that
they have the outcome
nd
2 : Collect data :
The data can be collected by using a standardized question used in both
groups , you have to ask both groups whether they exposed to the
desired exposure in the past or no , You should ask the same questions in
both with no bias to one group , you can use also other method then
equations like detecting the exposure level in blood (biomarker) .
rd
3 : Measure the association between exposure and outcome and interpret the
result.
The used measure in Case-Control study is Odds ratio
( )
- Then we divide the case group ratio by control group ratio to calculate odds ratio :
Advantage Disadvantage
Easy and quick Cannot generate incident data
Cheap and has good rank Bias (specially recall) is common
Good for rare disease Control selection can be difficult
Two designs:
1. Prospective cohort design.
2. Retrospective cohort design.
How is it conducted ?
1st : Select 2 group of people completely free of outcomes :
(A) Exposed group.
(B) Control group without exposure.
nd
2 :Follow the two groups in the future then collect data about the outcome.
3rd : Measure the association between exposure and outcome and interpret the result:
The used measure in Cohort study is Relative Risk (RR).
How is it conducted ?
1st : Select 2 large groups of exposed and not exposed from a point in the past.
2nd : See the records and determine the incidence of outcome among both.
3th: Measure the association between exposure and outcome and interpret the
result:
The used measure in Cohort study is Relative Risk (RR).
Example:
The effect of caffeine(E) on insomnia(O):
o Exposed group(b+d): Group drinking caffeine .
o Non-exposed (Control) group(a+c) : Group not drinking caffeine.
Then follow them in the future to see insomnia development in both groups
If result were as follow :
-
( )
- RR=
( )
( )
- RR= , so there is a positive relation between caffeine
( )
consumption and insomnia , caffeine is a risk factor for insomnia.
Interpret : The people who consume caffeine are 4.66 times more likely to
develop insomnia than non-caffeine consumer.
Advantage Disadvantage
Easy to understand Cannot determine the causal conclusion
Can estimate both incidence rate & Costly
incidence rate ratio
Suitable for addressing risk factors Require long time
Two types:
1. Randomized Controlled Trials
2. Quasi-experimental
How is it conducted ?
1st : From a pool of study, subjects/participants randomly select into two groups:
(A) Group exposed to intervention.
(B) Control group without intervention, or with placebo, or standard
treatment.
nd
2 : Give the first group the intervention (as drug) , and leave the control group
without intervention or with placebo, or standard treatment.
3rd : Follow them in the future to see the outcome.
Example:
The effect of caffeine(E) on insomnia(O):
o Exposed group(b+d): Group drinking caffeine (Intervention) .
o Control group(a+c) : Group not drinking caffeine (Non intervention).
o (Both group are selected randomly).
Then follow them in the future to see insomnia development in both groups
2) Quasi-Experimental Study:
o One characteristic of a true experiment is missing, either randomization
or the use of separate control group.
One-group Pre-test/Post-test :
Advantage Disadvantage
Perfect design Unethical if exposure
is harmful
Unbiased if blinded Unethical if sure that treatment works
Can study all aspects of the relation risk- Expensive
exposure
Shows causality Difficult if outcome is rare
4 Case series?
Case series depend on more than one patient with a similar experience or many case
reports combined into a descriptive review
5 Case report?
Case report depent on one patient
9 Person want to study the effectiveness of vancomycin in reducing C.diff which types of
studies he will be using?
Case report if single patient
Case series if a few patient
10 what is the type of study design were the author collects the results of high quality articles
and analyzed it to have one summary statistic?
meta-analysis
11 disadvantage of RCTs
Expensive
15 What is the type of Study design for smoker and non smoker at the same period of time ?
Cross sectional
4- Researchers compare a group of people who have diabetes with of people who have no diabetes, and looks
back in time to see characteristics of the two groups differ.Which of the following is the described study design
A. Prospective cohort
B. Case-Control
C. Experimental
D. Randomized clinical
6- Which of the following is the type of studies considers data from multiple studies of different designs to draw
conclusions
A. Case Series
B. Double-blind study
C. Systematic Review
D. Consensus statement
7- The authors report two isolated gastro-intestinal tuberculosis in renal transplant recipients that illustrates the
difficulty of making this diagnosis and a brief review of the literature on its clinical presentation, diagnosis and
therapeutic approach.
What is the type of study in the above-mentioned abstract
A. Case-series
B. Cohort studies
C. Case-control studies
D. Cross-sectional studies
8- Scenario: A study located a group of subjects with lymphoma and went to identify which subjects are smokers
and which are not.
Which of the following study designs is used to conduct the study in the scenario
A. Case-series
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Prospective cohort study
D. Retrospective cohort study
9- Which of the following terms measures the association between the exposure and the outcome
A. P Value
B. Risk ratio
C. Standard deviate
10- Which of the following study design is the best to use to assess the awareness on the usage of vitamin D
supplements among people of Jeddah
A. Cohort study
B. Case report study
C. Case control study
D. Cross sectional stud
11- A researcher gathered all vitamin E studies from the past ten years. Vitamin E was used for a variety of condition.
The populations studied as well as the vitamin E formulations and doses were all different. The researcher
compared the incidences of cardiovascular-related mortality in those taking vitamin E supplements versus those
that did not.
Which of the following best describe this type of study
A. Meta-analysis
B. Cohort study
C. Observational study
D. Controlled clinical trial
12- A group of patients with diabetes were interviewed to determine they are currently eating fast food or
not.Which epidemiological study design is this
A. Cohort
B. Case-control
C. Cross-sectional
D. Randomized control trial
13- Which of the following is the dis advantage of conducting randomized Controlled trial
A. Expensive
B. High possibility of bias
C. Difficult to control confounders
D. Cannot be used for hypothesis testing
14- Study that investigate if drinking coffee lead to coronary hear found that there is a correlation between two
variables. Study that investigate if drinking coffee lead to coronary hear found that there is a correlation
between two variables. However drinkers are more often smokers than the average and, correlation between
drinking coffee and nicotine consumption, strong causal correlation between smoking and the incidence of
heart disease. Which of the flowing type of bias affect this study results
A. Measurement errors
B. Hawthorne effect
C. Information bias
D. Confounding
LEARNING RESOURCES
SAIF ALGHAMDI
توكلت على اهلل
2. In which type of study do participants receive more than 1 of the treatments under
investigation, usually in a randomly determined sequence and with a prespecified
amount of time (a “washout period”) between sequential treatments?
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LEARNING RESOURCES
3. In which type of study does the investigator use information already collected to look
for associations?
retrospective study
prospective study
historical study
survey study
4. In which type of study does the investigator identify a group of individuals and then
observe them for a specified period after study initiation?
retrospective study
prospective study
meta analysis
diagnostic test study
5. Which type of study assesses whether 1 or more treatments are superior to the
others?
6. Which type of study follows up a similar group of individuals who are initially free of
the outcome of interest but for whom the outcomes have been defined before the
events occur?
prospective
retrospective
overmatched
multivariate
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LEARNING RESOURCES
meta analysis
case control study
noninferiority trial
randomized controlled trial
9. Which type of study compares those who have had an outcome or event with those
who have not?
10. Which type of study can be used to describe the experience of an individual or
institution in treating a disease?
11. Which type of study is a systematic pooling of the results of 2 or more studies to
address a question of interest or hypothesis?
12. Which type of study generally yields estimates of likelihood ratios, sensitivity,
specificity, positive predictive values, and negative predictive values?
crossover study
cost effectiveness study
meta analysis
diagnostic test study
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LEARNING RESOURCES
14. Which type of study converts clinical measures of outcomes into monetary units,
allowing both expenses and advantages to be expressed on a single scale?
15. Which type of study benefits from the publication of a flow diagram showing the
flow of participants in the study, including when and why participants dropped out or
were lost to follow up and how many participants were evaluated for the study end
points?
case series
randomized controlled trial
meta analysis
survey study
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Pharmacoepidemiology equations
Point prevalence:
Number of persons who have the disease at a specified time
Number of persons in the population at that specified time
Period prevalence:
Number of persons who have the disease at any time during a specified period
Number of persons in the population during that specified period
Cumulative incidence:
Number of new cases of a disease during a specified period
Number of persons at risk for developing the disease during that period
Incidence rate:
Number of new cases of a disease during a specified period
Total person − time of observation in population at risk during that period
Case fatality:
Number of deaths from a disease during a specified period
Number of persons with the specified disease during that period
Proportionate mortality:
Number of deaths from a disease during a specified period
Total number of deaths during that period
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04 6
Cole
f
Edt H
Hp
p ETH
t C C H ti H GH
triplebond doublebond H
single
8 atom DJ six
C347F
d's
مهم نعرف ان مافي ابمير بني جاالكتا و مانوز
rrn
Cefn Ceelo
cefta
d d
Iniperen aretronam
Which antidepressants cause photosensitivity
TCA
مو شرط لكن التفرع شرطNال
TCA agents
I lg
If
night
O
g
t
C THIlNo2
2,5-Pyrrolidinedione, 3-ethyl-3-methyl
db
407 methyl
. مابينوا مكتوب تحته اسم او
a
ركب بس تحسبًا للي يبغىEكان كاتب اسم ا
2nd antihistamine
Patient need to take histamine and he will drive
2nd doesn’t induce sleeping
R 25 of
pro Ing
R
R R
Iotafidine
Ri Rr r
Rr p Rl
Rr Dz
R Hep R
Rr Rr
AmphotricinB
ركبات افهمو الفكرة فقطEماهي ا
I 0
alcohol
zaH
ped
I alcohol
acid
1
Ester
6CR S
be only
Ine
cook
acid
Position 7
4 I
nine O cold
0 hes fo 0
مش قاعدة و .لها صحة بس ممكن نفتكرها كدا
O وفي دي اEركبات بس
one c
u
Major metabolite of Diclofenac
Choose 4
If it’s not an option
Choose 5
4 is most common
:
Least dominant tautomer of histamine at
physiological pH
—
bioisosteres are chemical
substituents or groups with similar
physical or chemical properties
which produce broadly similar
biological properties to another
chemical compound.
Which is 5th cephalo? No اغلب الصفحة دي لزيادة معلوماتكم ،بس املهم
names تعرفوا مركب خامس جنريشن و مني ينعطى بالفم
Which can be given orally ( with
)names
Vitamin D story
in human 7-Dehydrocholesterol
implant
Not active
Nsf active
as a
zs
as
d ive
forms
a
Calcitriol
Duras
D 3 US D2
doubleBond
analogue d vit D
H
active vs inactive Io
s
active
3OH active
metabolism
Triple double f effecton phosphocakenic .. دعواتكم
RubaMah
كاتبني سؤال انو في اي مجموعة يصير gluocoronidation of metoprolol
وهو مايصير له فحطيتلكم ايش يصير له وفني يصير عموما وانه يصير الصحاب ميتو
اللي حاب زيادة وهيزعل لو ماحل هذي ممكن توصلك lجابة
ما اقدر اضمن انو بس دي االسئلة جات لكن دي اللي عرفت كيف تجي بالضبط
دعواتكم ..
RubaMah
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Prescribing • Inappropriate drug selection, dose, dosage form or route of administration الدكتور غلط في اختيار الدوا – جرعته – طريقة أخذه ▪
Wrong time • Drug not administered in accordance to the interval ن يف األخطاء1 رقم ▪
• 1st common error in the medication use process.
Wrong dose • The dose administered is different from that prescribed الل ن يف الروشتة
خد جرعة غلط غي ي ▪
Wrong dosage form • Dosage form different from that prescribed مكتوبلة نيورتون حقن و انت اديتله نيوروتون أقراص ▪
Compliance • Patients use medications in an inappropriate way المريض مش عارف يستخدم الدوا ▪
• Patient use metered dose inhaler in wrong way المريض مش عارف ستخدم بخاخة الصدر: مثال ▪
Duplication error • 2 drugs from the same class are prescribed. مكتوبي ن يف نفس الروشتة
ن دوا ن
يي من نفس العيلة الدوائية ▪
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NCC MERP index for categorizing
00201011922837
Classification of medication errors medication errors
G Permanent harm
❖ Medication reconciliation
• the process of comparing a patient's medication orders to all of the medications that the patient has been taking.
• This reconciliation is done to avoid medication errors such as omissions, duplications, dosing errors, or drug interactions.
• It should be done at every transition of care in which new medications are ordered or existing orders are rewritten
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Immunology definitions
Immunology • Branch of biomedical science that covers the study of all aspects of immune system.
Hapten • Small molecule which could never induce an immune response when administered alone but can induce immune response when coupled to a
carrier protein
Antigen • Foreign material causing an immune response
Antibody • Specific substance formed in the body in response to antigenic stimulation and react specifically with antigen
Innate &
adaptive
immunity
T cell maturation occurs in the bone marrow, stored in thymus gland then circulate to various destinations.
T-lymph found intracellularly
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Types of hypersensitivity reactions
A B Type 2 C D
Type 1 Type 3 Type 4
Name Immediate Cytotoxic Immune complex Delayed
Allergic Complement activation
Antigen form Soluble Cell bound Soluble Cell bound & Soluble
Humoral component IgE IgG - IgM IgG - IgM None
Cellular component Mast cells Macrophages Neutrophils T cells - Macrophages
Examples 1. Anaphylaxis 1. Blood transfusion reactions 1. Serum siCkness 1. Tubercular lesion
2. Allergies → e.g. peanut 2. ErythroBlastosis fetalis 2. Lupus 2. Contact Dermatitis
3. Hemolytic anemia 3. Graft rejection
Types of Immunoglobulins
IgG IgA IgM IgD IgE
Other name Secretory Ig Macroglobulin
❖ Types of Vaccines:
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Live vaccine + Inactivated vaccine • Can be given at the same time (on the same day)
• Can be given separated without regard to the spacing
Inactivated vaccine + Inactivated vaccine • Can be given at the same time (on the same day)
• Can be given separated without regard
Live vaccine + Live vaccine • Must be given at the same time (On the same day)
• If separated the spacing must be 28 days
Live vaccine + Antibodies • Must be separated
❖ Vaccine storage
• Most vaccines require refrigeration (2O – 8O C)
• ZOSTRAVAX required to be frozen (≤ –15O C)
• MMR can be stored in refrigerator or freezer → Bottom self of refrigerator
Vaccine Stability Temperature Comment
Tetanus (T) 1 hour. 2–8
MCV 3 hours 2–8 Protect from light
OPV 3 hours -20
BCG 4 hours 2–8 Protect from light
• Protect from light → MCV, BCG, Measles
• OPV after opening can be kept (2-8) for 6 months
❖ Vaccines administration routes
Majority are IM only except
IM or SC SC only Oral only
• IPV → Inactivated polio vaccine • MMR • OPV → Oral polio vaccine
• PPSV → Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine • Varicella • RV → Rota virus vaccine
• ZOSTRAVAX
Tetanus
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Hepatitis
Hep. A • Hep A vaccine is recommended for travel to most parts of the world.
• Total doses = 2
Hep. B • Hepatitis B vaccine is given in a 3-doses series at 0, 1, 6 months.
• Minimum duration 4 weeks between two vaccines.
• If a 2nd dose vaccine was given too soon (before minimal interval) → don't count this incorrect
dose and repeat it after the minimal time has passed since the incorrect dose.
• Total doses = 3
• Pregnant woman with Hepatitis B when she delivers the baby must be given → (HBV) + HBIG
• Nurse infected with Hepatis B patient blood must be given → (HBV) + HBIG
• HBV + HBIG → administered at different body sites.
• Preterm birth → Delay Hep. B vaccine until the baby is:
1- More than 2 kg body weight or
2- More than 30 days old
Hep. C • There is no vaccine available to provide protection against hepatitis C
Varicella zoster
• Zoster vaccine must not be given to the patient currently treated for shingles or post-herpetic neuralgia. It can
be administrated once the symptoms are resolved. (Disease symptoms are cleared)
• Varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) → Given to patients (Leukemia or ↓ immunity) exposed to varicella zoster
Others
HPV ❖ Human Papilloma virus vaccine
1- ↓ incidence of infertility
2- ↓ incidence of cervical cancer
3- can cause syncope → patients remain seated for at least 15 minutes after receiving the vaccine.
֍ Brand name → Cervarix (bivalent), Gardasil (quadrivalent)
RV 1- The 1st dose of RV → before 14 weeks
2- The last dose of RV → before 8 months
Hib Haemophilus influenza vaccine should not be given over 5 years child.
Hg Thimerosal (Mercury) containing vaccine → Autism
BCG ✓ BCG vaccine has the maximum age → Life-long immunity
PCV - PPSV ✓ Pneumococcal vaccine given to patients older than 65 years
MCV ✓ Emergency staff at hospital should receive meningitis vaccine.
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Notes
Taking antibiotics shouldn't prevent vaccination.
Antibiotics will not affect how your child's body responds to vaccine.
Cyclosporin is an immunosuppressant given after organ transplant.
Eslam Fahmy
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Eslam Fahmy
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00201011922837
Questions
Which of the following vaccines can be a. Influenza vaccine
administered either intramuscularly or b. PPSV23
subcutaneously? c. PCV13
d. MCV
Which of the following vaccines is a. Hepatitis A vaccine
recommended at birth in KSA? b. Hepatitis B vaccine
c. Meningococcal vaccine
d. Polio vaccine
Which of the following is the most a. Fever
common adverse reaction to an b. Injection-site reaction
inactivated vaccine? c. Headache
d. Myalgias
How long does it take before a flu vaccine a. Immediately
provides you with maximum protection b. 5 days
against the flu? c. 2 weeks
d. 30 days
Healthy children over what age should not a. 2 years
receive the Hib vaccine? b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 9 years
A 60-year-old patient is currently a. Yes, she should receive the vaccine at this time
undergoing chemotherapy for treatment b. Yes, she needs to receive a dose of the vaccine now, and an
of acute myeloid leukemi She has had 3 additional dose after completion of chemotherapy to
outbreaks of shingles over the past 7 ensure a full immunogenic response
c. No, she should not receive the vaccine due to her diagnosis of
years. Can she receive zoster vaccine
cancer and because she is currently receiving chemotherapy
(ZOSTAVAX) now? d. No, she does not need to receive the vaccine because it will
not help since she has experienced past outbreaks
Which of the following patient is at the a. A 70-year-old female with COPD, HTN and dyslipidemia
highest risk of developing complications b. A 74-year-old male who lives in old care nursing facility
from infection with the influenza virus? c. A 67-year-old otherwise healthy female
d. A 72-year-old-male recently diagnosed with hypertension
A 24-year-old patient is receiving a. No, because he is currently receiving antiviral therapy
oseltamivir 75mg PO once daily. Can he b. Yes, because he is only receiving the prophylaxis dose of
receive influenza vaccine now? oseltamivir
c. Yes, he can receive inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV) now
d. Yes, he can receive live-attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)
24 hours after completion of antiviral drug therapy
Children under the age of 9 years require 2 a. It is their first time to receive the vaccine
doses of influenza vaccine in the same b. They have not had an influenza vaccine for the past 3 years
season if: c. They have a weakened immune system
d. They had 2 influenza vaccines the previous year
What is the minimum interval between the a. There is no minimum interval; they can be given at any time
administration of two inactive vaccines? b. They must be spaced 28 days apart if not given
simultaneously
c. They must be spaced 14 days apart if not given
simultaneously
d. They must be spaced 7 days apart if not given
simultaneously
Vaccination is available against which of a. Hepatitis A
the following hepatitis types? b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis A & B
For which case, would it be best to a. MMR for a 6-year-old boy with HIV and a CD4 count of 650
withhold vaccination until a later date (i.e. cells/mm3
delay the vaccine)? b. MMR for a 6-year-old girl receiving etanercept for juvenile
arthritis
c. Inactivated flu vaccine for a 1-year-old with otitis media
d. Tdap for a pregnant 27-year-old female with gestational
diabetes
Which of the following vaccines is usually a. Influenza vaccine
not given until after the child's first b. MMR vaccine
birthday? c. DTap vaccine
d. Hib vaccine
Which of the following is a a. Pregnancy
contraindication to inactivated influenza b. Breastfeeding
vaccine? c. Anaphylaxis to a previous dose of influenza vaccine
d. Egg allergy
Which of the following vaccines is strongly a. Haemophilus influenza vaccine
recommended for people going for Hajj? b. Pneumococcal vaccine
c. Meningococcal vaccine
d. Tuberculosis vaccine
A 28-year-old female comes to the a. She should not receive the vaccine because she had the flu
pharmacy during influenza season asking and has now protective antibodies
for advice on whether she needs to receive b. She should not receive the vaccine because she is not in a
the influenza vaccine. She recently high-risk group
c. She should only receive the vaccine if she wants to boost
recovered from a documented case of
her titers
influenza virus. What is your
d. She should receive the vaccine
recommendation?
At which of the following age, it is a. 2 years
recommended to switch from DTaP to b. 5 years
Tdap? c. 7 years
d. 10 years
The immunity of which of the following a. MMR vaccine
vaccines generally wears off after 10 b. Varicella vaccine
years? c. Pneumococcal vaccine
d. Td vaccine
If a 2nd dose of a vaccine was given too a. Restart the entire series
soon (before the minimal interval time has b. Do not count this incorrect dose and repeat it after the
passed), the correct course of action would minimal time has passed since the incorrect dose
be: c. Do not worry about it and continue with the next dose as
scheduled
d. Double the next dose
An 18-year-old received MMR vaccine at a. They were given correctly, and her daughter is now
her first clinic visit and the varicella vaccine protected
2 weeks later. Her mother wants to know b. They were given too close together, and her daughter
if this method was acceptable. Which of should have both vaccines repeated in 1 month
c. They were given too close together, and her daughter
the following is the correct response?
should receive the varicella vaccine 1 month from the date
of the previous varicella vaccine
d. They were given too close together, and her daughter
should receive another MMR vaccine 1 month from the
date of her previous varicella vaccination
A patient received an MMR vaccine 2 days a. Hep B vaccine
ago. The patient returns because his school b. Meningococcal vaccine
informed him he needs more vaccines. c. LAIV
Which of the following vaccines can he not d. He can receive any vaccine today
receive today?
Herpes zoster vaccine (for shingles) can be a. He should receive it right away, without regard to previous
given even if the patient had a case of illness
shingles. If the patient come into the b. He should wait 1 month after the disease symptoms have
pharmacy and state they had a recent case cleared
c. He should wait 1 year after the disease symptoms have
of shingles, how long should they wait
cleared
before vaccination?
d. He should wait at least until all disease symptoms have
cleared
A child should not get a vaccine if he/she: a. has a mild cold
b. is taking antibiotics
c. has had a severe allergic reaction to a previous dose of the
same vaccine
d. developed a fever following a previous dose
Meningococcal vaccination was given to a a. 4 years
child at 12 months (second dose). A b. 6 years
booster dose can be given at what age? c. 8 years
d. 10 years
Which of the following is an example of a. Antibody transfer from mother to fetus
active immunity? b. Antibody transfer to the child through breastfeeding
c. Injection with tetanus toxoid
d. Injection with tetanus immunoglobulin
A 2-year-old has egg allergy (reaction was a. Advise against administering either the MMR or the flu
noted to include angioedema and hives, vaccine
however, the patient can tolerate eggs in b. Recommend that a physician with expertise in allergy
baked goods). He is about to receive MMR management administer both vaccines
c. Recommend administering both the MMR and the influenza
and influenza vaccines first time. What
vaccine as usual
would be the best recommendation?
d. Recommend administering the MMR vaccine but not the
influenza vaccine
An acute moderate-to-severe illness is a. Precaution
considered a(n) …………. to vaccination. b. Indication
c. Contraindication
d. Recommendation
Which of the following is an example of a. Fever
local reaction to vaccine at the injection b. Malaise
site? c. Redness
d. Myalgias
A live vaccine is created by reducing the a. Radiation
virulence of a pathogen by the process of: b. Inactivation
c. Mutation
d. Attenuation
A person received LAIV. Five days later, he a. He does not need to repeat LAIV dose
was diagnosed with flu and oseltamivir b. He needs to repeat LAIV dose 24 hours after completion of
was prescribed for 5 days. Which of the therapy with oseltamivir
following is best regarding his LAIV c. He needs to repeat LAIV dose 48 hours after completion of
therapy with oseltamivir
vaccine?
d. He needs to repeat LAIV dose 2 weeks after completion of
therapy with oseltamivir
Quick Reference Guide #702 - Vaccine Age Limits by Licensure in the United States
Updated 1-29-2016
Note: These are the age limits by FDA licensure, not necessarily the ages recommended by the ACIP.
Vaccines and Trade Names Minimum Age* Maximum Age**
DTaP (Daptacel, Infanrix & Tripedia) 6 weeks 6 years
DTaP-HepB-IPV (Pediarix) 6 weeks 6 years
DTaP-IPV/Hib (Pentacel) 6 weeks 4 years
DTaP-IPV (Kinrix) 4 years 6 years
DT (Pediatric) 6 weeks 6 years
Td (Adult) (Decavac & Generic) 7 years No upper limit
Tdap (Boostrix) 10 years No upper limit
(Adacel) 10 years 64 years
ACIP recommends Tdap for children 7-10 yrs. who did not complete DTaP series and adults 65 years and older
HepA Pediatric (Vaqta & Havrix) 1 year 18 years
Adult (Vaqta & Havrix) 19 years No upper limit
HepA & HepB (Twinrix) 18 years No upper limit
HepB
Pediatric (Engerix-B & Recombivax HB) Birth 19 years
Merck Adult (2 doses) (Recombivax HB) 11 years 15 years
Adult (Engerix-B & Recombivax HB) 20 years No upper limit
HepB & Hib (Comvax) 6 weeks 4 years
Hib (ActHIB & PedvaxHIB) 6 weeks 4 years
(Hiberix) 6 weeks 4 years
HPV4 (Gardasil) 9 years 26 years
HPV9 (Gardasil 9) 9 years 26 years
HPV2 (Cervarix) 10 years 25 years
Trivalent Inactivated Influenza (TIV) 6 months No upper limit
(Fluzone)
0.25-mL prefilled syringe 6 months 35 months
0.5-mL prefilled syringe 36 months No upper limit
0.5-ml vial 36 months No upper limit
5.0-mL multi-dose vial 6 months No upper limit
(Fluzone High Dose) 65 years No upper limit
(Fluzone Intradermal) 18 years 64 years
(Fluvirin) 4 years No upper limit
(Agriflu) 18 years No upper limit
(Afluria) 6 months*** No upper limit
(FluLaval) 18 years No upper limit
(Fluarix) 3 years No upper limit
Live Attenuated Influenza (LAIV) (Flumist) 2 years 49 years
IPV (Ipol) 6 weeks No upper limit
Meningococcal MCV4 (Menactra) 9 months
55 years
MCV4 (Menveo) 2 years
MPSV (Menomune) 2 years No upper limit
MenB (Trumenba & Bexsero) 10 years 25 years
Meningococcal & Hib Hib-MenCY (MenHibrix) 6 weeks 18 months
MMR (M-M-R-II) 1 year No upper limit
MMRV (ProQuad) 1 year 12 years
Pneumococcal PCV13 (Prevnar 13) 6 weeks 5 years & 50 years and older
PPV23 (Pneumovax23) 2 years No upper limit
Rotavirus RV5 (RotaTeq) & RV1 (Rotarix)
Dose #1 6 weeks 20 weeks****
Last dose 32 wks. RotaTeq, 24 wks. Rotarix
Varicella (Varivax) 1 year No upper limit
Zoster - Shingles (Zostavax) 50 years No upper limit
* Minimum Age is the earliest age at which the vaccine can be administered according to the vaccine’s licensure.
** Maximum Age is the age through which the vaccine can be administered according to the vaccine’s licensure.
Individuals older or younger than the listed ages should not receive the vaccine unless the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices
recommends administration of the vaccine, or if a physician orders the vaccine outside the licensed ages.
Hepatitis B vaccine is the only vaccine that should be administered prior to 6 weeks of age.
*** ACIP recommends Afluria for persons 9 years of age and older and not for children 6 months through 8 years of age.
**** ACIP recommends first dose no later than 14 weeks, 6 days, however, Rotarix licensure allows first dose as late as 20 weeks of age.
IMM 702
ﺟﺪول اﻟﺘﻄﻌﻴﻤﺎت اﻟﻮﻃﻨﻲ
Vaccine اﻟﺘﻄﻌﻴﻢ اﻟﺰﻳﺎرة Visit
Q- Cranberry:
- To treat Recurrent UTI
Q- Saw palmetto:
- To treat urinary symptoms of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia BPH
Echinacea: Immunostimulants
- Supportive therapy for Respiratory tract infection
- To treat Common cold and flu
- To treat Ulcer
- In case of hard to treat superficial wounds
Feverfew:
- To treat Migraine headache
Ginkgo biloba:
- Increase cerebral blood flow
- SE: Bleeding in overdose
- Monitor: INR – PT
Kava Kava:
- To treat Anxiety and Depressant
Garlic:
Chondroitin + Glucosamine:
- To treat Osteoarthritis
Co-enzyme Q10:
- Antioxidant
- SE: Bleeding in overdose
- Monitor: INR – PT
Melatonin:
- Antioxidant
- You have to decrease concentration of warfarin
- Antioxidant
- Protect from free radical
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Protein
Lipid
Carbohydrates
Monosaccharides • Glucose
• Galactose
• Fructose
Disaccharides • Sucrose
• Maltose
• Lactose
Polysaccharides • Starch
• Glycogen
• Cellulose
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Abbreviations
AC • Before meal
PC • After meal
PRN • As needed (Dangerous abbreviation)
HS - BT • At bedtime
PO • By oral
PR • By rectum
OD • Once a day
BID • Twice a day
TID • Thrice a day
QID • Four times a day
Tw • Twice a week
QD • Every day
QOD • Every other day
QH • Every hour
QAM • Every morning
QPM • Every night
Q4H • Every 4 hours
BD • Before dinner
BBF • Before breakfast
Per diem • Daily – Per day
C • With
CC • Cubic centimeter
S • Without
Rx • Treatment
Hx • History
Dx • Diagnosis
Fx • Fracture
G - Gm • Gram
Gr • Grain
Oz • Ounce
Mg • Milligram
Mcg • Microgram
Meq • Milliequivalent
TSF • Teaspoonful = 5 ml
IM • Intramuscular
IV • Intravenous
ID • Intradermal
SC - SQ • Subcutaneous
SOS • If needed
Cap • Capsule
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Antidotes
Poison/Drug Antidote
Anticholinergics (Atropine, Benztropine • Physostigmine
Xss CNS depression from Diazepam
Isoniazid (INH) • Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
Valproic acid • L-carnitine
Methotrexate (MTX) • Leucovorin
Methemoglobinemia inducing agents: • Methylene blue
Nitrites, Nitrates
Digoxin • Digibind, Digifab
Beta blockers • Glucagon
Calcium channel blockers • Calcium - Glucagon
Opioids (Morphine, Heroin, Codeine, Fentanyl • Naloxone – Naltrexone - Nalmefene
Benzodiazepine (Diazepam, Zolpidem • Flumazenil
TCA (Imipramine, Amitriptyline) • Sodium bicarbonate
Warfarin • Vitamin K1 (Phyto-menadione)
Heparin • Protamine sulfate
Dabigatran • Idarucizumab
Thrombolytics • Aminocaproic acid
(Streptokinase, urokinase, alteplase, Reteplase) • Tranexamic acid
Nerve gases • Atropine followed by Pralidoxime (2-PAM)
Organophosphorus insecticides
Carbamate insecticides • Atropine
Cyanide gas • Sodium thiosulfate – Amyl nitrite – Na nitrite
Chlorine gas • Sodium bicarbonate
Carbon monoxide • 100% O2
Hydrogen sulfide • Sodium nitrite
Methanol • Ethanol – Fomepizole – Folic acid - Leucovorin
Ethylene glycol • Ethanol – Fomepizole - Pyridoxine
Iron (Fe) • Deferoxamine
Lead (Pb) • D-Penicillamine – CaEDTA – Dimercaprol – DMSA - BAL
Arsenic • BAL
Thallium • Prussian blue
Mercury • BAL – DMSA
Cupper • D-penicillamine
Lithium (Li) • Sodium bicarbonate - Polystyrene sulfonate
Paracetamol/Acetaminophen • N-Acetyl cysteine (NAC)
Aspirin (Salicylic acid) • Alkalinization (NaHCO3)
Sulfonylurea • Octreotide
Insulin • Dextrose 50%
Crotaline snake bites (e.g. Rattle snakes) • Crotalidae anti-venom (CroFab)
Black widow spider venom • Latrodectus anti-venom
Brown recluse spider bite • Loxosceles anti-venom
Scorpion sting • Scorpion anti-venom
Clostridium botulinum • Botulinum anti-toxin
Sevelamer controls high blood levels of phosphorus in people with chronic kidney disease who are on dialysis.
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Drugs used in pregnancy
Hypertension Methyldopa
Labetalol
Hydralazine
HTN + Hypoproteinemia + Seizures MgSO4
Asthma Cromolyn (Category B)
Gestational diabetes Insulin
Metformin
Headache Paracetamol
DVT Heparin not Warfarin (Category X)
Tonic clonic seizures Valproic acid + Folic acid
Epilepsy Lamotrigine or levetiracetam
Depression (Mild) Fluoxetine
Hypothyroidism Levothyroxine
Hyperthyroidism Propylthiouracil (PTU)
Methimazole
Nausea and vomiting Cyclizine
UTI Nitrofurantoin
UTI + G6PD deficiency Cefuroxime
Otitis media Azithromycin
Chlamydia
Syphilis Benzathine penicillin - Penicillin (Ampicillin)
Vaginal discharge + Candida albicans Clotrimazole
Herpes (Genital infection) Acyclovir 400 bid for 7 days
Hepatitis B Tenofovir
HIV Abacavir and Lamivudine
Malaria Chloroquine, Hydroxychloroquine
Trichomoniasis Metronidazole
Contraindications
• Misoprostol category X cause abortion
• Vitamin A is contraindicated in high doses
• Castor oil is contraindicated as laxative
• ACEi cause renal dysfunction in fetus
• Naproxen cause uncontrolled bleeding to baby
• Finasteride cause genital malformation to infant
• Warfarin (category X) cause cranial facial abnormalities → nasal bone hypoplasia
❖ Notes
• Inactivated influenza vaccine can be given in pregnancy
• Glargine (long acting) is category B
• Paracetamol oral and rectal is category B – when taken IV is category C
• Sensitive to ampicillin give Erythromycin
❖ Doses
Dose of Thyroid Hormone in Pregnancy? 1.0 - 2.0 microgram/kg/day
Eslam Fahmy
https://t.me/splenotes
00201011922837
Vitamins & Minerals
Medication adherence can be assessed through both direct and indirect measures. Indirect measures
include both subjective (self-report measures such as questionnaire and interview) and objective (pill
count and secondary database analysis) measures and constitute the mainstay of assessing medication
adherence.
Patient interviews: It is used to calculate a numerical proportional value between 0 and 100
which is known as the drug adherence rates (DAR). It is calculated as the proportion of
prescribed medication pills taken by the patient over a specified time interval. However, the
results are subject to recall bias, particularly when the specified duration for the recall is long.
The cutoff value for patient adherence is based on the expected DAR required to induce
treatment outcomes. The DAR should be ≥95% or preferably 100% for antiretroviral therapy in
HIV-AIDS [26], ≥90% in tuberculosis, and ≥80% for most of the other chronic diseases [7].
When querying patients regarding their medication use, an important validated question is “have
you missed any pills in the past week?” The question has high specificity but low sensitivity due
to the patient tendency to please the physician by denying any missed doses [27,28]. Prefixing
the question with an empathetic statement like “patients often have difficulties in remembering
to take all their medications” can help reassure patients and make them more amenable to telling
the truth [13]. When quantifying the extent of medication nonadherence, a similar question can
be used, “how often you forget taking your medications” or “how often you miss taking your
medications in the previous (time interval).”
ii.
Medication diaries: Patients or participants of a trial keep a record of the date and time of
consumption of each dose of medication and whether it was consumed with or without
food. This permits the investigator to assess and track patient execution of adherence.
Like self-report measures, medication diaries are susceptible to overreporting due to the
self-desirability bias of the patient. Underreporting may also occur if the patient out of
carelessness omits to record some of the medication doses taken into the diary. In patients
who are functioning illiterate, the method is not feasible unless assisted by a literate
caregiver or family member.
1-Typeofe
rror
Pr
esc
ribi
nge
rror
:Er
ror
sint
hisc
ate
gor
yar
efa
irl
ybr
oad,butge
ner
all
yf usoni
oc nappr
opr
iat
edr
ug
s
ele
cti
on,dos
e,dos
agef
orm,orr
out
eofa
dmi
nis
tra
tion.
Wr
ongt
imee
rror
:Inge
ner
al,t
hist
ypeofe
rroroc
cur
swhe
nados
eisnota
dmi
nis
ter
edi
nac
cor
danc
ewi
th
apr
ede
ter
mine
dadmi
nis
tra
tioni
nte
rva
l.
Omi
ssi
one
rror
:Anomi
ssi
one
rroroc
cur
swhe
napa
tie
ntdoe
snotr
ece
iveas
che
dul
eddos
eofme
dic
ati
on.
Thi
sisc
ons
ide
redt
obet
hes
econdmos
tcommone
rrori
ntheme
dic
ati
onus
epr
oce
ss,be
hindwr
ongt
ime
e
rror
s.
.
Una
uthor
ize
ddr
uge
rror
:Thi
stypeofe
rroroc
cur
swhe
npa
ti
ent
sre
ceveadr
i ugt
hatwa
snota
uthor
ize
dby
a
nappr
opr
iat
epr
esc
ribe
r.Thi
smi
ghti
ncl
udegi
vingt
hewr
ongpa
ti
entame
dic
ati
on
I
mpr
ope
rdos
eer
ror
:Thi
ser
roroc
cur nt
swhe hedos
eadmi
nis
ter
edi
sdi
ff
ere
ntt
hanwha
twa
spr
esc
ribe
d,
a
ssumi
ngt
hatt
hepr
esc
ribe
ddos
ewa
sappr
opr
iat
e
Wr
ongdos
agef
orme
rror
:Thi
ser
roroc
cur
swhe
napa
ti
entr
ece
i sados
ve agef
ormdi
ff
ere
ntf
romt
hat
pr
esc
ribe
d,a
ssumi
ngt
hea
ppr
opr
iat
edo
sagef
ormwa
sor
igi
nal
lyor
der
ed.
Wr
ongdr
ugpr
epa
rat
ione
rror
:Whe
nme
dic
ati
onsr
equi
res
omet
ypeofpr
epa
rat
ion,s
ucha
sre
cons
ti
tut
ion,
t
hist
ypeofe
rrorma
yoc
cur
.The
seki
ndsofe
rror
sma
yal
sooc
curi
nthec
ompoundi
ngofva
rious
i
ntr
ave
nousa
dmi
xtur
esa
ndot
herpr
oduc
ts
Wr
onga
dmi
nis
tra
tiont
echni
que
:The
see
rror
soc
curwhe
nadr
ugi
sgi
vent
oapa
tie
nti
nappr
opr
iat
ely.
Exa
mpl
e:whe
nana
gentme
antf
ori
ntr
amus
cul
ara
dmi
nis
tra
ti
oni
sgi
veni
ntr
ave
nous
ly
De
ter
ior
ate
ddr
uge
rror
:Thi
ser
roroc
cur
swhe
ndr
ugsa
rea
dmi
nis
ter
edt
ha vee
tha xpi
redorha
ve
de
ter
ior
ate
dpr
ema
tur
elyduet
oimpr
ope
rst
ora
gec
ondi
ti
ons
.
Moni
tor
inge
rror
:The
see
rror
soc
curwhe
npa
ti
e sa
nt r
enotmoni
tor
eda
ppr
opr
iat
elye
it
hera
fte
rthe
yha
ve
r
ece
ive
dadr
ugorbe
for
ethe
yre
cei
vedadr
ug.
Compl
ianc
eer
ror
:Thi
stypeofe
rroroc
cur npa
swhe tie
ntsus
eme
dic
ati
onsi
nappr
opr
iat
ely.Pr
ope
rpa
ti
ent
e
duc
ati
ona
ndf
oll
ow-
upma
ypl
ayas
igni
fi
cantr
olei
nmi
nimi
zi
ngt
hist
ypeofe
rror
.
CLASSI
FICATI
ONOFMEDI
CATI
ONERRORS
2
-se
ver
it
yorout
come
1.NOERROR:
Ca
tegor
yA:Ci
rcums
tanc
esore
vent
stha
tha
vet
hec
apa
cit
ytoc
aus
eer
ror
2.ERROR,NOHARM
Ca
tegor
yB:Ane
rroroc
cur
red,butt
heme
dic
ati
ondi
dnotr
eac
hthepa
ti
ent
.
Ca
tegor
yC:Ane
rroroc
cur
redt
hatr
eac
hedt
hepa
ti
ent
,butdi
dnotc
aus
ethepa
ti
entha
rm.
Ca
tegor
yD:Ane
rroroc
cur
redt
hatr
esul
te
dint
hene
edf
ori
ncr
eas
edpa
ti
entmoni
tor
ing,butc
aus
edno
pa
ti
entha
rm
3.ERROR,HARM
Ca
tegor
yE:Ane
rroroc
cur
redt
hatr
esul
te
dint
hene
edf
ort
rea
tme
ntori
nte
rve
nti
ona
ndc
aus
edt
empor
ary
pa
ti
entha
rm.
Ca
tegor
yF:Ane
rroroc
cur
redt
hatr
esul
te
dini
nit
ia
lorpr
olonge
dhos
pit
al
iz
ati
ona
ndc
aus
edt
empor
ary
pa
ti
entha
rm.
Ca
tegor
yG:Ane
rroroc
cur
redt
hatr
esul
te
dinpe
rma
nentpa
ti
entha
rm.
Ca
tegor
yH:Ane
rroroc
cur
redt
hatr
esul
te
dinane
ar-
dea
the
vent(
e.g.
,ana
phyl
axi
sandc
ardi
aca
rre
st)
.
4
.ERROR,DEATH
Ca
tegor
yI:Ane
rroroc
cur
redr
esul
ti
ngi
npa
ti
entde
ath.
For diseases by Asma alsadeg
Sofa score = septic shock ▪
Curbs65 score = pneumonia CAP ▪
Cha2ds2vasc =atrial fibrillation ▪
Glascoma score = Central nerve system ▪
ACS ischemic heart disease has led score ▪
Child pugh score =liver disease ▪