NORCET -17 SEP 2023

MODEL PAPAR
DRISHTI NURSING ACADEMY
( DNA INDORE )

Q 1. A client has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation

(DIC) following a missed abortion. The most critical nursing intervention
for this client is to:
A) Administer ordered medications (heparin)
B) Allay anxiety provide emotional support
C) Administer oxygen at 6 L/min
D) Encourage fluid intake

Q 2. In a client with right- sided congestive heart failure, which of the

following blood chemistry results is expected to be elevated?
A) Ammonia
B) Albumin
C) LDH
D) CK

Q 3.20 Meq, of potassium chloride is to be added to the IV solution of a

client with diabetic ketoacidosis. The primary purpose for administering
this drug is to:
A) Treat hyperpnea
B) Prevent flaccid paralysis
C) Replace potassium deficit
D) Treat cardiac dysrhythmias

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q 4. A client admitted to ER has symptoms of nausea and vomiting. He
states that before he came to the hospital, when he tried to lie down,
his abdominal pain got worse and was not relieved by antacids. When
questioned, he states that he had consumed a large meal and two
glasses of wine. The tentative diagnosis is acute pancreatitis. The
physician orders lab-work. With this complaint picture and diagnosis
,the nurse would expect lab results to include:
A) Decreased WBC
B) Elevated serum amylase and lipase
C) No change in serum bilirubin level
D) Elevated alkaline phosphates

Q 5. A client is brought into the recovery room following spinal

anesthesia. Which of the following assessment data indicates a
complication of anesthesia has developed?
A) Hiccoughs
B) Numbness in legs
C) Headache
D) No urge to void

Q 6. A client is on IV infusion infiltrates, the nurse should first:

A) Elevate the IV site
B) Discontinue the infusion
C) Attempt to flush the tube
D) Apply warm, moist soaks

Q 7. A client is to receive 2000 ml of IV fluid in 12 hours. The drop

factor is 10 gtt/ml. The nurse should regulate the flow so the number of
drops per minute is approximately:
A) 27 to 29
B) 30 to 32
C) 40 to 42
D) 48 to 50
ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY
NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q 8. A client who sustained head trauma in a motor vehicle accident
has been diagnosed and treated for having syndrome of inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion. Which of the following urine
specific gravity values would indicate that the situation is not resolved?
A) 1.005
B) 1.018
C) 1.025
D) 1.035

Q 9. A client with a long-standing history of alcoholic cirrhosis with

ascites is admitted to the hospital. His diagnosis is acute bleeding from
esophageal varices secondary to cirrhosis with portal hypertension.
Which of the following laboratory findings indicates that blood is being
digested and absorbed by the GI tract?
A) Elevated BUN
B) Elevated serum ammonia
C) Decreased hemoglobin
D) Elevated bilirubin

Q 10. A client, who has recently undergone outpatient surgery on his

knee is admitted to the ER with the following symptoms: marked
shortness of breath, tachycardia, chest pain, and severe anxiety. The
nurse will recognize that these symptoms must be reported
immediately to the physician. The next intervention will be to prepare
to administer
A) Oxygen
B) He parin
C) Urokinase
D) Coumadin

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q 11. An accurate blood pressure of a client can be obtained by:
A) A cuff that covers the upper one-third of the client’s arm
B) Positioning the cuff approximately” above the antecubital space
C) Use a cuff that is wide enough to cover the two-third of the client’s
arm
D) Identify the korotkoff sounds, and take systolic reading at 10 mm Hg
after the first sound

Q 12. An intravenous piggyback (1 VPB) of cefazolin sodium (Kefzol) 500

mg in 50 ml of 5% dextrose in water is to be administered over a 20
minute period. The tubing has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter.
The nurse should regulate the infusion to run at:
A) 28 gtt/min
B) 38 gtt/min
C) 58 gtt/min
D) 76 gtt/min

Q 13. During labor, epidural anesthesia can be effectively utilized

because:
A) Both sensory and motor fibers to the uterus arise from the seventh
and eighth thoracic vertebrae
B) Both sensory and motor fibers to the uterus arise from the fast
lumbar vertebrae
C) Pain motor tracts from the cervix and vagina passes through the
pudenda nerve and the motor fibers of the lower motor neurons before
transmitting to the brain for interpretation of pain
D) The pain of uterine contractions is carried by the eleventh and
twelfth thoracic nerves, and motor fibers to the uterus arise from the
seventh and eighth thoracic vertebrae

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q 14. Following surgery for repair of an inguinal hernia,the nurse
establishes a postoperative fluid intake goal for the client. The most
appropriate amount would be:
A) 500-700 Ml/day
B) 1000-1500 Ml/day
C) 2000-3000 Ml/day
D) 3000-3500 Ml/day

Q 15. Hemorrhage is a major complication following oral surgery and

radical neck dissection. The most immediate nursing intervention. if this
condition occurs would be to:
A) Notify the surgery immediately
B) Treat the client for shock
C) Put pressure over the common carotid and jugular vessels in the
neck
D) Immediately put the client in high- Fowler’s positions

Q 16. In a motor vehicle accident (MVA), a client has sustained multiple

injuries and fracture. During which period would the nurse be most
vigilant in assessing for the development of a fat embolism?
A) During the first 24 to 48 hours after the MVA
B) 72 to 96 hours after the MVA
C) During the first week after the MVA
D) During the second week after the MVA

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q 17. A baby girl born at 38 weeks of gestation has been admitted to
the observation nursery. She weighs 7 pounds and had Apgar scores of
9 at 1 minute and 10 at 5 minute. The nurse admitting the infant to the
nursery notes a temperature of 96.8 F (36 C) on admission. The most
appropriate nursing action at this time would be:
A) Bathe the infant.
B) Call the pediatrician to check the infant
C) Place the infant under a radiant warmer
D) Administer oxygen by mask.

Q 18. Kayexalate is ordered for a client, whose serum potassium is 5.5

MEq/l. if this substance is effective, the nurse should expect to see an
ECG with:
A) Return of T wave width and amplitude to normalcy
B) Broad, flat P waves
C) Absence of P waves
D) Return of QRS to upright configuration

Q 19. The client with gastric lavage or prolonged vomiting must be

assessed for:
A) Acidosis
B) Alkalosis
C) Loss of oxygen from the blood
D) Loss of osmotic pressure of the blood

Q 20. The nurse identifies which set of arterial blood gas values as
consistent with a diagnosis of respiratory acidosis in a client?
A) PH 7.0; pCO2 42
B) PH 7.46; pCO2 38
C) PH 7.35; pCO2 44
D) PH 7.32; pCO2 48

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q 21. The nurse is assigned to client who was admitted with flu
symptoms of nausea and vomiting. He is receiving IV therapy. The lab
has sent his early morning blood results, which are: BUN 32, creatinine
1.1, hematocrit 50. The initial nurseing intervention is to:
A) Notify the physician STAT
B) Do nothing because the results are within normal limits
C) Decrease IV rate and notify the physician, as lab results indicate over
hydration
D) Evaluate urine output for amount and specific gravity

Q 22. Which of the following blood gas values, the nurse would expect
to see in a client with acute renal failure?
A) PH 7.49, HCO3 24, PCO2 46
B) PH 7.49, HCO3 14, PCO2 30
C) PH 7.26, HCO3 24, PCO2 46
D) PH 7.26, HCO3 14, PCO2 30

Q 23. While evaluating the effectiveness of preoperative teaching to a

client before colostomy surgery, the nurse expects that the client will
be able to:
A) Describe how the procedure will be done
B) Exhibit acceptance of the surgery
C) Explain the function of the colostomy
D) Apply the colostomy bag correctly

Q 24. Thrombophlebitiis is a common complication following vascular

surgery. The sign that indicates a possible thrombus formation is :
A) Kering’s sign
B) Hegar’s sign
C) Homan’s sign
D) Brudzinski’s sign

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q 25. In children with cardic anomalies the most common finding is:
A) Mental retardation
B) Delayed physical growth
C) Cyanosis and clubbing of fingertips
D) A family history of cardiac anomalies

Q 26. A client with right ventricular heart failure is expected to

complain of:
A) Dyspnea, edema and fatigue
B) Fatigue, vertigo and headache
C) Weakness, palpitations and nausea
D) A feeling of distress when breathing

Q 27. The client returns to the clinic , a week after discharge following a
leg fracture. The fracture was complicated by a clot in the right leg, for
which the client was on Coumadin therapy. The client now has a
prothrombin time of 24 seconds. The follow-up care plan for the client
is based on the knowledge that these results are:
A) Above normal and in the therapeutic range
B) Below normal and in the therapeutic range
C) Normal within acceptable limits
D) Abnormal and test should be repeated

Q 28. The cardiac defects associated with tetra logy of Fallot include:
A) Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects and
mitral valve stenosis
B) Origin of the aorta from the right ventricular and of the pulmonary
artery from the left ventricle
C) Right ventricular hypertrophy ventricular septal defect stenosis of
pulmonary artery and overriding aorta
D) Abnormal connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta,
right ventricular hypertrophy and atrial septal defects

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q 29. The nurse knows that the correct order for physical assessment of
the abdomen is:
A) Inspect, auscultate, percuss and palpate
B) Inspect, palpate, auscultate, and percuss
C) Inspect, percuss, palpate and auscultate
D) Inspect, palpate, percuss and auscultate

Q 30. When ventricular fibrillation occurs in a client in a coronary care

unit, the person reaching the client should first:
A) Administer oxygen
B) Defibrillate the client
C) Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
D) Administer sodium bicarbonate intravenously

Q 31. Following a bilateral lumbar sympathectomy a client has a sudden

drop in blood pressure but no evidence of bleeding. This is most likely
caused by:
A) An inadequate fluid intake
B) The after effects of anesthesia
C) A reallocation of the blood supply
D) An increased level of epinephrine

Q 32. Following a bilateral lumbar sympathectomy a client has a sudden

drop in blood pressure but no evidence of bleeding. This is most likely
caused by:
A) An inadequate fluid intake
B) The after effects of anesthesia
C) A reallocation of the blood supply
D) An increased level of epinephrine

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q 33. A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and is ordered to continue
taking the drug after discharge. The nurse is primarily concerned with:
A) Monitoring vital signs and encouraging gradual increase in
activities of daily living
B) Taking the apical pulse before drug administration and teaching the
client how to count the pulse rate
C) Observing the client for return of normal cardiac conduction
patterns and for adverse effects of the drug
D) Assessing the client for changes in cardiac rhythm and planning
activities at home based on tolerance

Q 34. A male aged 30-years who was knifed in a street fight is now in
the ICU. An assessment of his condition reveals the following
symptoms: respirations shallow and rapid, paradoxical pulse, CVP 15
cm H2O, BP 90 mm Hg systolic, skin cold and pale, urinary output 60-
100 mL/hr for the last 2 hours. Analyzing these symptoms, the nurse
will make a nursing diagnosis on the conclusion that the client has
which one of the following conditions?
A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Cardiac tamponade
C) Wound dehiscence
D) Atelectasis

Q 35. One of the most common complications of myocardial infarction

is:
A) Hypokalemia
B) Anaphylactic shock
C) Cardiac dysrhythmia
D) Cardiac enlargement

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q 36. A client is receiving anticoagulants. The nursing care should
include observations for:
A) Nausea
B) Epistaxis
C) Headache
D) Chest pain

Q 37. The P-R interval in an ECG represents the time it takes for the:
A) Impulse to begin atrial contraction
B) Impulse to traverse the atria to the AV nodo
C) SA node to discharge the impulse to begin atrial depolarization
D) Impulse to travel to the ventricles

Q 38. A client is diagnosis to have left ventricular failure and a high

pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP). The physician orders
dopamine to improve ventricular function. Which of the following
indicates that the drug is effective?
A) Blood pressure rises
B) Blood pressure decreases
C) Cardiac index falls
D) PCWP rises

Q 39. Among the last signs of heart failure in infants and children is:
A) Orthopnea
B) Tachypnea
C) Tachycardia
D) Peripheral edema

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q 40. Doing a newborn assessment the nurse counts the infant's cord
vessels. In a normal infant there are:
A) Two vessels: one vein and one artery
B) Three vessels: two veins and one artery
C) Three vessels: one vein and two arteries
D) Four vessels: two veins and two arteries

Q41. Nitroglycerin SL. is prescribed for relief from anginal pain. When
teaching how to use nitroglycerin the nurse tells the client to place 1
tablet under the tongue when pain occurs and to repeat the dose
within 5 minutes if pain persists. The nurse should also advise the client
to:
A) Place 2 tablets under the tongue when intense pain occurs
B) Swallow 1 tablet and place 1 tablet under the tongue when pain is
intense
C) Place 1 tablet under the tongue 3 minutes before activity and
repeat the dose in 5 minutes if pain occurs
D) Place 1 tablet under the tongue, when pain occurs and use an
additional tablet after the attack to prevent recurrence

Q42. Cardioversion is a procedure used to convert certain dysrhythmias

to normal rhythm. In addition to atrial fibrillation, cardioversion is most
effective when the client demonstrates:
A) Ventricular standstill
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Ventricular tachycardia
D) Premature ventricular beats

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q43. In which of the following condition that a pulmonary embolism is
a most unlikely complication during the postoperative period?
A. Hysterectomy
B. Prostatectomy
C. Appendectomy
D. Saphenous vein ligation

Q44. A client is receiving Dicumarol (a coumarin derivative). The most

specific test for calculating the daily dosage of this anticoagulant would
be the:
A. Clotting time
B. Bleeding time
C. Prothrombin time
D. Sedimentation rate

Q45. In a client on bedrest, the pulmonary embolus can be prevented

by:
A. Limiting the client's fluid intake
B. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing
C. Using the knee cap when the client is in bed
D. Teaching the client to move the legs when in bed

Q46. The central venous pressure (CVP) readings should be recorded

every 2 hours. The nurse is aware that:
A. The normal reading is 60 to 120 mm of water
B. A high reading may be indicative of dehydration
C. The zero point of the manometer is level with the midaxilla
D. The client must be kept flat in bed while the catheter is in place

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q47 A simple test for diagnosing varicose veins is:
A. Arteriography
B. Babinski reflex
C. Romberg's sign
D. Trendelenburg test

Q48. A child undergoes heart surgery to repair the defects, associated

with tetralogy of Fallot. Postoperatively it is essential to prevent:
A. Crying
B. Coughing
C. Constipation
D. Unnecessary, movement

Q49. Following a streptococcal infection, a disorder characterized by

swollen joints, fever, and the possibility of endocarditis and death is:
A. Tetanus
B. Measles
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Whooping cough

Q50. A client with hepatic cirrhosis begins to develop slurred speech,

confusion, drowsiness, and a flapping tremor. With this evidence of
impending hepatic coma, the diet would probably be changed to:
A. 20g protein, 2000 calories
B. 70g protein, 1200 calories
C. 80g protein, 2500 calories
D. 100g protein, 1500 calories

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q51. After a partial gastrectomy is peformed, a client is returned to the
unit with an IV solution infusing and a nasogastric tube in place. The
nurse notes that there has been no drainage from nasogastric tube for
an hour. There is an order to irrigate the nasogastric tube prn. 'The
nurse shouldinsert:
A. 30 ml of normal saline and withdraw slowly
B. 20 ml of air and clamp off suction for 1 hour
C. 50 ml of saline and increase pressure of suction
D. 15 ml of distilled water and disconnect suction for 30 minutes

Q52. A client is to have an enema to reduce flatus. The rectal catheter

should be inserted upto mark:
A. 5 cm (2 inches
B. 10 cm (4 inches)
C. 15 cm (6 inches)
D. 20 cm (8 inches)

Q53. A client has peptic ulcer in the duodenum. He would probably

describe the associated pain
A. An ache radiating to the left side
B. An intermittent colicky flank pain
C. A gnawing sensation relieved by food
D. A generalized abdominal pain intensified by moving

Q54.A pancreatic pseudocyst is:

A. Generally a malignant growth
B. Filled with pancreatic enzymes
C. Cyst containing necrotic tissue and blood
D. A pouch of undigested food particles

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q55. A client with a hiatus hernia complains about having difficulty
sleeping at night. The appropriate nursing intervention would be:
A. Make the client sleep on two or three pillows
B. Eliminate carbohydrates from client's diet
C. Suggest drinking a large glass of milk before retiring
D. Administer antacids such as sodium bicarbonate

Q56.The earliest indication of parenchymal damage to the liver in

clients with hepatitis B is usually:
A. A rise in bilirubin
B. An alteration in proteins
C. A rise in alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
D. An elevation of alkaline phosphatase

Q57. A client who has had a colostomy should follow a diet that is:
A. Rich in protein
B. Low in fiber content
C. High in carbohydrate
D. As close to normal as possible

Q58. A client with ascites has been ordered paracentesis. Before the
procedure the nurse should instruct the client to:
A. Empty the bladder
B. Eat foods low in fat
C. Remain npo for 24 hour
D. Assume the supine position

Q59. The chief complaint in clients with Vincent's angina is:

A. Chest pain
B. Shortness of breath
C. Shoulder discomfort
D. Bleeding oral ulceration

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q60. Fractured mandible is usually immobilized with wires. The life
threatening postoperative problem thet can develop with this
precedure is:
A. Infection
B. Vomiting
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Bronchospasm

Q61. In clients with cholecystitis, the utilization of bile is interfered. The

ejection of bile into the alimentary tract is controlled by the hormone:
A. Gastrin
B. Secretin
C. Enterocrinin
D. Cholecystokinin

Q62. A client is admitted three days back for a cerebral vascular

accident, he is receiving intermittent feedings through nasogastric tube.
The nurse evaluates if a prior feeding has been absorbed by:
A. Evaluating the intake in relation to the output
B.Aspirating the residual volume and reinstilling it
C. Instilling air into the stomach while auscultating
D. Comparing the client's body weight to the base line data

Q63. The nurse should assess the client with cirrhosis for signs of
hepatic coma. The classic sign of hepatic coma is:
A. Bile-colored stools
B.Elevated cholesterol
C. Flapping hand tremors
D. D epressed Muscle reflexes

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q64. The symptoms associated with colitis are:
A. Leukocytusis, anorexia, weigh loss
B. Anemia, hemoptysis, weight loss, abdominal cramps
C. Fever, anemia, nausea and vomiting, leukopenia, diarrhea
D. Diarrhea, anorexia, weight loss, abdominal cramps anemia

Q65. A client has a transverse loop colostomy. When inserting a

catheter for irrigation, the nurse should:
A. Use an oll-base lubricant
B. Instruct the client to bear down
C. Apply gentle but continuous force
D. Direct it toward the client's right side

Q66. For a client, after surgery for a perforated appendix with localized
peritonitis, the position that is indicated is:
A.Sims’ position
B. Sims’-Fowler’s position
C. Trendelenburg position
D.Dorsal recumbent position

Q67. Nursing measures for A client is admited with bacterial meningitis.

The nursing measure forth his client should exclude:
A. Turning frequently
B. Applying a thin coating of lotion to the client's skin, followed by
talcum powder, which is washed off and reapplied q8h
C. Encouraging passive range-of-motion exercises
D. Ask the client to coughing every 1 to 2 hours

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q68. A client who weight 60kg is to be given a drug at 2mg/kg. Stock
strength is 40mg/2ml. What volume of the drug should they be given?
A. 3ml
B.4ml
C.6ml
D.12ml

Q69. The most critical clinical manifestation to assess the degree of

dehydration, for an infant aged6-months is:
A. Sunken fontanel
B. Weight loss D. Dry skin
C. Decreased urine output
D. Dry skin

Q70. The diagnostic findings that would be least likely to be in acute

pyelonephritis is:
A. Cloudy foul smelling urine
B. Bacteria and pus in the urine
C. Low WBC count in the blood
D. Hematuria

Q71. A woman in her 9th week of pregnancy visits prenatal clinic. Her
blood work demonstrates the following result: blood type A, Rh
negative, rubella titer 1: 64, hemoglobin 14 g. hematocrit 37%, serology
for syphilis is nonreactive. How would the nurse interpret these data?
A. Rubella vaccine should be given.
B. Iron supplements are needed.
C. The father of the baby should be checked for the Rh factor.
D. Her fetus could acquire congenital syphilis.

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q72. Impending insulin shock is indicated by:
A. Increased urination
B. Acetone breath
C. Tremors
D. Increased thirst

Q73. Cranial nerves can be affected by Guillain-Barre syndrome. The

most commonly involved is facial nerve. If the motor nucleus of the
facial nerve becomes dysfunctional. the nurse would mostlikely
observe:
A Decreased ability to distinguish testes in the anterior two thirds of
the tongue
B. Pain in the dierbution anes of the affected nerve
C. Inability to wrinkle the forehead and smile
D. Inequality of pupils and blateral sluggish response to light

Q74.A pregnant woman at 38 weeks of gestation has active gential

herpes simples type 2. What kind of a delivery would the muse advise
hes to expect, if she still has active lesions when she goes into labor?
A. Low-segment cesarean birth
B. Vaginal delivery with low forceps
C.Vacuum extraction –assisted . Vaginal birth
D.Method selected by client

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q75. A 29-year-old woman is in the 34th week of her pregnancy. At her
antepartal visit, the nurse notes that the woman has gained 3 pounds
since her last visit at 32-weeks and is complaining that her wedding ring
is tight. Her urine shows 1+ proteinuria, and her blood pressure is
increased from a baseline of 100/70 to 130/85. The nurse suspects:
A. Normal fluid retention of pregnancy
B. Early cardiac decompensation
C. Asymptomatic pyelonephritis
D. Mild pregnancy-induced hypertension

Q76, An infant is born with myelomeningocele. The mother asks the

nurse whether her child willever walk. The nurse bases her response on
the statement:
A. The location of the myclomeningocele along the spinal cord indicates
the likelihood of ability to ambulate.
B. No children born with myelomeningocele are able to ambulate.
C. After surgical repair of the myelomeningocele, development will
proceed normally.
D. Neurologic deficits can only be assessed after surgical correction of
the myelomeningocele

Q77. A client is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Which finding would

the nurse immediately reportto the physician?
A. Unequal pupils
B. Lack of lateralization
C. Suspicion of meningitis
D. Nuchal rigidity

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q78. A child aged 6-years
years is hospitalized with leukemia. A nursing
measure that is contraindicated is:
A. Administeration of intramuscular narcotics to allevi
alleviate
ate pa
B. Handle his extremities with care while turning him
C. Use stool softeners pr
D. Provide frequent oral hygiene

Q79.. A software engineer complains of chest pains, shortness of breath,

hyperventilation, and tingling sensations in his fingers. Afte
Afterr a complete
physical examination and lab work, the physician refers him to the
psychiatric clinical specialist for evaluation. His history reveals recent
stressors arising from an impending divorce recently sought by his wife
and fears of losing his job bbecause
ecause of a recent company buyout. He also
admits worrying all the time even when he had few stressors. The most
likely explanation of the client's symptoms is which of the following?
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Agoraphobia
C. Post-traumatic
traumatic stress disorder
D. Social phobia

Q80. Identify the following

A. Smith traction
B. Dunlop traction
C. Gallows traction
D. Bucks traction
ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G
G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX
MPLEX VIJAY
NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q81 .If in a code language, PRAMOD is written as SODJRA, then how KESHAV will
be written in the same language?
(A) NBVFDS (B) MCVEDS
(C) NBWFDS (D) NBVEDS

Q82. If in a code language, DANCER is written as DGEPSF, then how PUBLIC will be
written in the same language?
(A) YSMQZJ (B) XSMQDJ
(C) YSNQDJ (D) XSNDDJ

Q83.What is the theme of the G20 summit happening in India?

(a) Shaping an Interconnected World
(b) Fighting poverty with rigidity
(c) "One Earth-One Family-One Future".
(d) Making the world together

Q84 Rakesh is on 9th position from upwards and on 38th position from
downwards in a class. How many students are in the class?
A. 47
B 45
C. 46
D 48

Q85. Abiram is Byomkesh's brother and Vimal is Jackie's father. Ella is

Byomkesh's mother. Abiram and Jackie are brothers. How is Ella related
to Vimal?
A.Mother
B.Wife
C.Daughter
D.Sister

ADDRESS:- 101,102 FIRST FLOOR G- SHACHCHANAND COMPLEX VIJAY

NAGAR SQUARE INDORE 7000921956
Q86.Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of
Z, then in which direction of Y, is P?
A.North
B.South
C.South-East
D.None of these

Q87.In a class total number of students is 42. From below, Meera’s rank
is 16. What is her rank from the top?
A - 27
B - 28
C - 29
D - 30

Q88.A 220 m long train is running at a speed of 60 km/hr. At what time

will it pass a man who is running at 6 km/hr in the direction opposite to
that in which the train is going?
(a) 12 seconds
(b) 14 seconds
(c) 16 seconds
(d) 18 seconds

Q89.A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days

respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B
and C on every third day?
A.12 days
B.15 days
C.16 days
D.18 days

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Q90. The tax on an article is increased by 20 %. As a result of which the
consumption decreases by 25 %. What is the % change in the tax
revenue received by the government from this article?
A. 10 % decrease
B. 15 % increase
C. 10 % increase
D. None of these

Q91.A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the
speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68
km downstream.
2 hours
3 hours
4 hours
5 hours

Q92.The average of 50 numbers is 38. If two numbers 45 and 55 are

discarded, the average of the remaining set of numbers is
(A) 36.5
(B) 37.0
(C) 37.5
(D) 38.5

Q93. In a cricket team of 11 boys, one player weighing 42 Kg, is injured

and replaced by another player. If the average weight of the team is
increased by 100 gm as a result of this, then what is the weight of the
new player?
(A) 42.1 Kg
(B) 43.1 Kg
(C) 44.1 Kg
(D) 45.1 Kg

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Q94: A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed
is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 metres ahead of the policeman, then the
time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be
(A) 1 minutes
(B) 2 minutes
(C) 3 minutes
(D) 4 minutes

Q95: In the following question number of triangle are

(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 25
(D) 27

Q96.Find the number of triangle in the given figure.

(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 22
(D) 26

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Q97How many points will be on the face opposite to in face which
contains 2 points?

A.1
B.5
C.4
D.6

Q98 Which state launched the ‘Satya Nishtha’ application for the state
police?
[A] Himachal Pradesh
[B] Assam
[C] Karnataka
[D] Tamil Nadu

Q99.Which space agency in the world has launched Chandrayaan 3?

a. NASA
b. Roskosmos
c. ISRO
d. JAXA

Q100: How many days did Chandrayaan 3 take to reach the moon's
surface?
a. 39 days
b. 40 days
c. 25 days
d. 42 days

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 NORCET -17 SEP 2023
MODEL PAPAR
DRISHTI NURSING ACADEMY
( DNA INDORE )
ANSWER KEY
1 A 21 D 41 C 61 D 81 D
2 C 22 D 42 C 62 B 82 D
3 C 23 C 43 C 63 C 83 C
4 B 24 C 44 C 64 D 84 C
5 C 25 B 45 D 65 D 85 B
6 B 26 A 46 C 66 B 86 D
7 A 27 A 47 D 67 D 87 A
8 D 28 C 48 C 68 C 88 A
9 A 29 A 49 C 69 B 89 B
10 C 30 B 50 A 70 C 90 A
11 C 31 C 51 A 71 C 91 C
12 C 32 C 52 C 72 C 92 C
13 D 33 B 53 C 73 C 93 B
14 C 34 B 54 C 74 A 94 C
15 C 35 C 55 A 75 D 95 D
16 A 36 B 56 C 76 A 96 B
17 C 37 A 57 D 77 A 97 D
18 A 38 A 58 A 78 A 98 A
19 B 39 D 59 D 79 A 99 C
20 D 40 C 60 B 80 B 100 B

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