Professional Documents
Culture Documents
6
Alternatives
Evaluation of Engineering
6.1 INTRODUCTION
important question, i.e. which project to select
engineersencounter one There are several
In all engineering problems, methods have been evolved.
different alternatives, various
To select among the worthiness of projects which as
follows:
bases for comparing the
1. Present worth method
2. Future worth method
3. Annual equivalent method
4. Rate of return method
5. Cost-benefit analysis.
R R, R,
0 1 2 3
0 2 3 5
P C C C, C C,
Figure 6.2 Cost-based cash flow diagram.
Here P is the initial investment, C, is the net cost of operation and maintenance at the end of
year, S is the salvage value at the end of nth year, and C is the discounted rate of interest.
Thus, the present worth expression is
S
PW() = P+ +
(1+i)' (1+i)' (1+i" (1+iy"
or
162,500
If the firm's rate of interest is 15 per cent, compute the NPW of this project. Moreover, this
project acceptable?
Solutio
The cash flow diagram for the given project is shown in Figure E6.1.1
Present Worth Method 99
A= Rs. 162,500
3 4
0
Year
Rs. 650,000
Figure E6.1.1
flow stream. Since the project requires an initial
investment of
a uniform cash
This is followedI by eight equal annual receipts of Rs. 162,500, we can casily
present(n =0)
Rs. 650,000 at follows:
determine the NPW as
NPW= -P+ R(P/A, i, n)
8)
=-Rs. 650,000 + Rs. 162,500(P/A, 15%,
=-Rs. 650,000 + Rs. 162,500(4.4873)
=-Rs. 650,000 + Rs. 729,186
= Rs. 79,186
accepted.
Since PW(15%) > 0, the project can be
EXAMPLE 6.2
given here
The project cash flows of an investment proposal is
End of year Net cash flow
(n) (Rs.)
- 50,000
1 20,400
2 25,200
3 45,750
2 3
Flgure E6.2.1
100 Evaluation of Engineering Alternatives
0 2 3 14 15
R$. 1,500,000
Year
Figure E6.3.1
The present worth for this cash
flow is
PW(20%o)A =-Rs. 1,500,000 + Rs. 800,000 (P/A,
20%, 15)
=-Rs. 1,500,000 + Rs. 800,000(4.6755)
= Rs. 2,240,400
The cash flow diagram for
alternative B is given in Figure E6.3.2.
Rs. 600,000
2 3
14 15
Rs. 2,000,000
Year
Figure E6.3.2
Present Worth Method 101
PW(20%)B =-Rs. 2,000,000 + Rs.
=-Rs. 2,000,000 + Rs.
600,000(P/A, 20%, 15)
600,000(4.6755)
= Rs. 805,300
The cash
flow diagram for alternative Cis given in Figure E6.3.3.
Rs. 400,000
1 2 3 14 15
Figure E6.3.3
PW(20%)c =-Rs. l,600,000 + Rs. 400,000(P/A, 20%, 15)
=-Rs. 1,600,000 + Rs. 400,000(4.6755)
= Rs. 270,200
Since the present worth of alternative A isthe highest among all the alternatives,so it is recommended
for implementation.
EXAMPLE 6.4
Given the following information, suggest which technology should be selected based on the present
worth method, assuming 15 per cent interest rate compounded annually.
Initial cost Annual operational
Technology (Rs.) Service life and management cost
A 400,000 15 years 25,000
B 500,000 15 years 29,000
Solution
The cash flow diagram for Ais given in Figure E6.4. 1.
technology
2 3 14 15
Rs. 25,000 +
Rs. 400,000
Figure E6.4.1
The present Worth amount of this cash flow stream is
Rs. 29,000
Rs. 500,000
Figure E6.4.2
PW(15%)g - Rs. 500,000 + Rs. 29,000(P!A, 15%, 15)
= Rs. 500,000 + Rs. 29,000(5.8474)
= Rs. 500,000 + Rs. 169,574.6
= Rs. 669,574.6
Since PW amount of technologyA is lower, it should be selected.
EXAMPLE 6.5
A finance company advertises two investment plans. In plan 1,
the company pays Rs. 22,000 after
15 years for every Rs. 1000 invested now. In plan 2, for
Rs. 4000 at the end of the tenth year and Rs, 4000 at every Rs. 1000 invested the company pays
the end of the fifteenth year. Select the best
investment plan at i= 10 per cent compounded annually.
Solution
The cash flow diagram for plan 1 is
given in Figure E6.5.1.
S= Rs. 22,000
0 1 2 3
15
/=10%
Year
Rs. 1000
Flgure E6.5.1
The present worth of the cash flow
diagram is calculated as
PW(10%), =-Rs. 1000 + Rs. 22,000(PIF, 10%, 15)
=-Rs. 1000 + Rs. 22,000
= Rs. 4266.8 (0.2394)
The cash flow diagram for plan 2 is given in Figure E6.5.2,
Future Worth Method
Rs. 4000 103
Rs. 4000
0 1 2 3
10 15
i= 10%
Rs. 1000 Year
Figure E6.5.2
The present worth of the above cash flow diagram is computed as
PW10%), =-Rs. 1000+ Rs. 4000 (PIF, 10%, 10) + Rs. 4000(PIE, 10%, 15)
=-Rs. 1000 + Rs. 4000(0.3855) + Rs. 4000(0.2394)
=-Rs. 1000 + Rs. 11,118
= Rs. 10,118
The present worth of plan 1is more than that of plan 2. So, plan 1isthe best plan from the investors
point of view.
EXAMPLE 6.6
The project cash flow of an investment proposal is given in the
following tabular form
Year Net cash flow
(n) (Rs.)
0
50,000
20,400
2
25,200
3
52,740
Compute the NFW at the end of year3 at i= 15 per cent. Is this project
Solution acceptable?
The cash flow diagram for the
project is given in Figure E6.6.1.
Rs. 52,700
Rs. 25,200
Rs. 20,400
1
2
3
Rs. 50,000
Year
Figure E6.6.1
Future Worth Method
The future
worth of the project is 105
FW(15%) =.-P(FIP, i, n) + R:(F/P, i, n- 1)+
R(FIP, i, n- 2)+
=-Rs. 50,000(F/P, 15%, 3) + Rs. 20,400(FIP, 15%, 2) Rs(F/P, i, n- 3)
+ Rs. 25,200 F/P, 15%, 1) + Rs. 52,740
E-RS. 50,000(1.521) + Rs. 20,400(1.323) + Rs.
- Rs. 32,659.2
25,200(1.150) + Rs. 52,740
Since FW(15%) >0, the project is acceptable.
EXAMPLE 6.7
Civen the following two mutually exclusive alternatives, select the best one based on future worth
method of comparison assuming i = 12 per cent.
The cash flow diagram for alternative Ais given in Figure E6.7.1.
Rs. 1,000,000
2 3 4
Figure E6.7.1
Fw(12%)A=-Rs. 4,000,000(F/P, 12%, 4) + Rs. 1,000,000(FIA, 12%, 4)
=-Rs. 4,000,000(1.574) + Rs. 1,000,000(4.779)
=-Rs. 15,17,000
The cash flow diagram for
alternative B is given in Figure E6.7.2.
Rs. 800,000
3 4
Rs.4,500,000 Year
Figure E6.7.2
106 Bvaluatlon of Engineering Alternutives
2 3
|12
12
Flgure E6.8.2
Future Worth Method 107
future worth
machine Bis computed as
amount of
The
FW(20%)B = Rs. 7.000,000(FIP, 20%, 12) + Rs. 900,000(FIA, 20%, 12) Rs. 400,000
= Rs. 97,634,900
Thefuture worth cost ofmachine Bis less than that of machine A. So, machine B should be selected.
EXAMPLE6.9
from the following should be selected based on the future worth method of
Which alternative
comparison assuming 12 per cent interest rate, compounded annually.
Particulars Alternative A Alternative B
Solution
shown in Figure E6.9.1.
The cash flow diagram of alternative A is
S= Rs. 200,000
i= 12%
3 4
2
Rs. 40,000
Rs. 400,000
Figure E6.9.1
The future worth amount of alternative A is computed as
200,000
FW(12%)A = Rs. 400,000 (F/P. 12%. 4) + Rs. 40,000(FLA, 12%, 4) - Rs.
=Rs, 620,760
Ine cash flow diagram for alternative B is given in Figure Eó.9.2.
S= Rs. 550,000
i=12%
2 3
Year
Rs. 800,000
Figure E6.9.2
108 Evaluation of Engineering Alternatives
R R Rn
Rg
0
Years
C C
C,
Figure 6.3 Equivalent annual
We willuse the term EAC to worth diagram.
designate comparison involving only costs. See
Figure 6.4.
2 3 4
Years
C
C4
EXAMPLE 6.10
Consider a machine that costs Rs. 40.000 and a 10 year useful life. At the end
of tenth year, it can
SOd TOr Rs. 5,000 after tax adjustment. If the firm could earn an after tax
Per year with this machine, should it be purchased at an interest rate revenue of Rs. 10,000
of 15 per cent, compounded
annually.
Solution
Initial cost (P) =Rs. 40,000
Useful life (n) = 10 years
Salvage value (S) = Rs. 5,000
Revenue
i=15
= Rs. 10,000
per cent, compounded annually
The cash flow
diagram for the given project is shown in Figure E6.10.1.
S= 5000
4
+ 10,000
1 3 10
2
40,000
Figure E6.10.1
Equivalent Annual Worth Comparison 111
NPW(20%) =-P + R(PIA, i, n) + S(PIF, , n)
=-100,000 + 70,000 (4.6755) + 10,000 (0.0649)
=Rs. 227,934
EAW(20%) 1= NPW(AIP, i, n)
= Rs. 227,934 (A/P, 20%, 15)
=Rs. 227,934 (0.2139)
= Rs. 48,755,082
Alternative 2
First cost (P) = Rs. 110,000
Annual equal return = Rs. 80,000
Salvage value (S) = Rs. 20,000
Interest rate (i) =20%
The cash flow diagram for alternative 2 is given in Figure E6.11.2.
S=20,000
+ 80,000
2 15
110,000
Figure E6.11.2
NPW(20%), =-P+ R(PIA, i, n) + S(PIF, i, n)
= Rs. 110,000 + Rs. 80,000 (4.6755) + Rs. 20,000(0.0649)
= Rs. 485,338
EAW(20%), = NPW(AIP, i, n)
= Rs. 485,338(A/P, 20%, 15)
= Rs. 485,338(0.2139)
= Rs. 103,813.79
Since EAW of alternative 2is higher than that of alternative 1, the former should be accepted.
EXAMPLE 6.12
Particulars Machine A Machine B
/
Equivalent Annual Worth
NPWa(15%) =Pt CPIA, i, n) - S(PIF, i, n) Comparison 113
=240,000 +
4500 (5.4206) 6000
= Rs. 263,271.3 (0.1869)
- EACB(15%)
=NPW(AIP, i, n)
- NPW(AIP, 15%, 12)
= Rs. 263,271.3 (0.1845)
=Rs. 48,573.55
onnnal equivalent cost of machne A is less than that of
cOst-effective machine. machine B. So machine A is a more
EXAMPLE 6.13
Suggest which machine should be purchased at 15 per cent interest rate based on annual equivalent
worth method.
Solution
Machine A
First cost (P) = Rs. 300,000
Life period () = 4 years
Salvage value (S) - Rs. 200,000
Operational and
management cost (À) = Rs. 30,000
Interest rate (i) = 15 per cent, compounded annually.
The cash flow
diagram for machine Ais shown in Figure E6.13.1.
S= 200,000
2 3 4
30,000 +
300,000
Figure E6.13.1
114 Evaluation of Engineering Alternatives
S= 300,000
2 3 4
600,000
Figure E6.13.2
NPW(15%)B =P- S(PIF, i, n)
= 600,000 300,000 (0.5718)
= Rs. 600,000 171,540
= Rs. 428,460.
EAW(159%)B NPW× AIP, i, n
= Rs. 428,460 x 0.3503
= Rs. 150,089.53
Since the annual equivalent cost of machine Ais less than that of machine B, it is advisabletu
purchase machine A.