I.

Consistency ofa lurp is examined be:

a. Inspection
b. Palpation
c. Percussion
d. Auscultation
e. None of that mentioned

2. The stethoscope may be used for examinations of:

a. Neck.
b. Tempro-mandibular joint.
c. Salivary Glands.
d. Perioral Tissues.
e.All ofthe above.

3. Removal of tissue from living individual for diagnostic purpose is

called:

A.Autopsy
b. Cytology
c. Aspiration
d. Hematology
e.Biopsy

4. Laboratory test: mol include:

a Bactenological examination
b. Hematological examination.
c.Urine analysis (GUE).
d.Capillary refill test
c. All of the above

5. Bleeding Disorder disease is like:

a. Uncontrolled diabetes
b. End stage renal diseas
c.Hemopilia
d. Cleft lip and palate
e. Hypertension By Dentist:-Ramla Hussein
6. In inspection during extra-oral examination, the dentist would
usually examine:

a.TMJ
b. Lymph Nodes
c. Tongue
d. Facial symmetry
c. Missing teeth

7. In the (H.P.I) part of patient history:

a.You ask the patient about smoking

b. You ask patient about previous visit to dentist
c. You ask patient about his systemic disease
d.You ask patient to describe his complaint
e. You ask patient about his dental disease

8. The questionnaires of medical history may include:

a. Hospitalization, illness, Allergy. Medications and operation

b. Hospitalization. illness .Allergy. Medications
c. Hospitalization, illness, Allergy. Medications and Social History
d. Hospitalization. Allergy, Medications
e. Hospitalization, illness, Allergy. Medications and Family History

9. To minimize the risk of osteoradionecrosis in patient will undergo

radiation therapy in the head and neck area, dental extraction should be
made:

a After the radiotherapy,

b. In the time frame of radiation therapy.
C-Before the radiotherapy.
d. Radiotherapy has no effect on the jaw health.
e. None of the above.

10. If there is no space in periodontal ligament between tooth and bone,

it i termed:

a. Germination.
b.Hypercementosis.
c. Ankylosis .
d Supemumerary
.
e.Periodontitis.
11. The best radiograph that utilized to examine the relation between the
mandibular third molar and inferior dental nerve is:

a. Periapical radiograph.
b. Panoramic image.
c. Occlusal radiograph.
d.Cone-beam computed tomography.
e.Bitewing image

12. 'The term " Intra-alveolar estraction " means:

a.Flap technique
b.Closed method of extraction
c.Surgical technique
d. Open method of extraction
e. A and C

13. A panoramic radiograph will show, except:

a.Mental foramen
b.Oro-antal fistula
c. Intra-bony pathology
d.Fracture of maxillary tuberosity
e. Mandibular foramen

14. Which one of the following structures does not cause difficulty
of
extraction:

a. Gingival enlargement
b. Muscular checks
c. Large mesially drifted tooth
d. Large tongue
e. Large restoration in neighboring tooth

15. The best time of extraction in pregnancy is:

a. First trimester
b.Second trimester
c.Third trimester
d Second month
By Dentist:-Ramla Hussein
.
e None of the above
.
16. Which of the following is a local contraindication for tooth
extraction?

a.Severe uncontrolled hypertension.

b. Pregnancy
c. Bleeding disorder
d. Sever uncontrolled diabetics
e. None of the above

17. The first step in forceps estraction is:

a. Handling the forceps
b.Soft tissue retraction
c.Displacement of the tooth
d.Support patient head
e. None of the above

18. The upper Molar Forceps characterized by:

a.It is a universal forceps (one type), used for right or left

b. It has a single bend, same as premolar forceps
c. Palatal tip has projection that can fit on palatal root
d. All the above
e. None of the above

19. About rotational pressure during dental extraction:

a.Primary rotatory movement used for conical single rooted teeth

b.Secondary rotatory movement used for multi rooted teeth
c.Doesn’t result in internal socket expansion
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above.

20. After extraction, place a properly shaped and size (2X2 Cm) gauze
piece:

a. Inside the extraction socket.

b. Over the extraction socket.
c. Over the occlusal table of adjacent teeth.
d. When the patient closes his mouth, it is visible.
e.None of the above
21. A Factor that may predispose to alveolar bone fracture during extraction is

a.Extraction of teeth with chronic periodontitis

b.Using forceps for extraction
e.Presence of thin buccal bone.
d.Root sectioning prior to removal.
e.Extraction of Conical single roots.

22. Acute localized alveolar Osteitis, characterized by:

a.Continuous moderate to severe pain immediately after extraction. a b.

b.The blood clot fill the socket cavity.
c. Food debris within the socket with intense bad odor.
d. Both a and c.
e.All ofthe above

23. As a complications of dental extraction, upper first molar root may be

displaced into:

a.Infratemporal fossa.
b. Maxillary sinus.
c. Nasal cavity.
d. Submandibular space.
e.All of the above.

24. During extraction of masillary third molar, and when the maillary
tuberosity is fractured and remains attached to periosteum with an intact
blood supply. The treatment of choice is to:

a.Refer the case to an oral surgeon

b.Remove the fractured tuberosity
c.Reposition and Stabilize fracture of the tuberosity.
d. Should be retained be primary suturing of soft tissues.
e.Should he allowed to heal by secondary intention

25. The mast serious complication of an abscess of the maxillary anterior

teeth is:

a.pain
B. paresthesia
c.Cavernous sinus thrombosis
d. Orbital cellulitis
e. Cellulitis By Dentist:-Ramla Hussein
26. During extraction: the presence of cystic lesion in the mandible may
lead to:

a.Fracture of the roots

b. Oro-antral communication
c. Fracture of the mandible
d. Laceration in the sublingual floor of the mouth
e. Fracture of the crown.

27. Trismus means :

a.The inability of the patient to open his mouth

b. The inability of the patient to swallow
c.The inability of the patient to breath.
d. The inability of the patient to follow instniction.
e.The inability of the patient to chew

28.All of the following are plausible causes to fail to establish profound

local anesthesia except:-

A.poor oral hygiene

b. Faulty technique
c. Insufficient dose of anesthesia
d. Expired anesthesia
e. Presence of acute infection

29. The instrument that is used in pull action is :

a. Molt no. 9.
b. Osteotome.
b. Bone file.
d. Needle holder.
e. Surgical curette.

30. Suture materials that can't be absorbed by body fluids and

enzymes
are termed:

a. Multi filliment .
b.The none dissolved .
c. Absorbable
a. synthetic
e.Natural.
31. When draining an abscess, the best scalpel blade used is:

a. Blade no 13
b.blade no. 10
c.Blade no. 15.
d.Blade no. 22
e.None as the above

32. The best needle sat is used to cut through highly Keratinized tissue
wits good safety during suturing is:

a.Taper cut needle.

b. Reverse cutting needle.
c. conventional cutting needle.
d. Round needle.
e. All at the above.

33. The most commonly used size of future in oral surgery is:

A-1/0
B-2/0
C-3/0
D-4/0
E-5/0

34. Instrument used for separation of periodontal ligament before tooth

a.Dental tweezers
b.Dental probe.
c.Straight elevator.
d.Scalpel handle
e.Curette

35. " Allis forceps" is commonly used for:

a. Extraction of lower incisor.

b. Extraction of upper canines
c. Holding tissues prior to biopsy
d. Holding vascular areas during surgery.
e Bone removal
By Dentist:-Ramla Hussein
36. Instrument used for elevating mucoperiosteal tap is

a.Coupland's elevator
b.War-wick James elevator.
c.Howarth elevator
d. Winter's elevator
e.Cryer elevator

37. In limited mouth opening, the best technique to anesthetize the

mandibular

a.Intiltration technique
b.akinosi technique
c.Gow-Gates technique
d. Inferior alveolar nerve block
e.mental nerve block

38. In Inferior alveolar nerve block of the left side, the right handed
operator should stand:

a Infront of the patient.

.
b.Behind of the patient.
c Beside of the patient.
.
d.All of the above.
e.a and c.

39. All of the followings are supplementary injections, except:

A- Intra-ligamentary injection
B- Intrapulpal anesthesi
C- Long buccal nerve block
D- Intraosscous injection
E- All of the above

40. Topieal anesthesia will anesthetize:

A- Upto the depth of about 1 mm

B- Up te the depth of about 2 mm
C- Upto the depth of about 3 mm
D- Upto the depth of about 4 mm
E-Up to the depth of about 5 mm
41. Anesthesia of the posterior portion of the hard palate is achieved by:

A- Block of the Posterior superior alveolar nerve

B- Block of the Nasopalatine nerve
C- Infiltration of middle superior alveolar nerve
D- Infiltration lesser palatipe nerve
E- None of the above

42. Topical anaesthesia is enough for the following procedures, except:

-
A- Obtam anesthesia of mucosa prior to itjection
B- Prior to incision and drainage of abscesses
C- Filling of upper first molar tooth
D- Prior to suture removal
E-prior to simple scaling

43. All the followings are methods for administration of L.A to che lower Ist
premolar, except:

A Mental Nerve Block

B- Inferior Alveolar Block
C- Infra-Orbital Block
D- Infiltration
E- Mandibular block

44. To give a regional nerve block, the LA should be deposited near:

A- main trunk
B- large branch of peripheral nerve
C- amall nerve endings
D- periodontatia
E.Intraosseous

45. All true for periodontal ligament injection, except:

A- Its success denendson absence of resistance

B- Prevent self -mutilation in children.
C- Contraindicated in periodontal diseases
D- Increase dry socket.
E- Contraindicated in Primary teeth. By Dentist:-Ramla Hussein
46. A positive aspiration is identified by :

A- FasT OnSet Of L.A

B- Burning sensation.
C- Blood within the cartridge
D- Patient Dizziness and start slurred specch
E- All of the above

47. Few minutes following the administration of inferior dental nerve

block to the right side, patient reported that some of her contralateral
(left side) mandibular anterior teeth feel numb. What is the reason of
anterior anesthesia in the contralateral side?

A- Diffusion of the anesthetic into the incisive nerve

B- Cross innervation in the anterior part of the mandible
C- Constriction of the incisive nerve in the area.
D- Constriction of the mental nerve in the area
E- None of the mentioned information

48. Infiltration anesthesia for the maxillary arch is MORE suecessful

than mandibular arch because the maxillary bone overlying the teeth is
denser.

A- Both the statement and the reason are correctand related

B- Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
C- The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
D- The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
E.NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

49. Pain on local anesthetic injection may be caused by ......... That can
irritate the tissue.

A- Careful injection technique

B- Slow deposition of the solution
C- Low PH of the sulution
D- Warm solution
E- Delicate insertion of the

50. The most likely cause of unsatisfactory local anesthesia in oral

surgery is

A- In adequate vasoconstrictor.
B- Anatomical variation
C- Psychological problems
D- Incorrect placement of the needle
E- Inadequate solution
51. Management of trismus, all are true except:

A- Analgesie
B- Muscle relaxant
C- Physiotherapy
D- Cold therapy
E- Soft diet.

52. The most common systemic complication of local anesthesia is:

A- Fainting (vasovagal attack)

B- Hypersensitivity
C- Toxicity
D- Durg interaction
E- Burning sensation

53. In CPR (Cardiopulmonary resuscitation), the universal compression

to ventilation ratio is :

A- 30.2
B- 15:2
C- 30.8
D- 15:8
E- 15:4

54. Clinical manifestations of allergy to local anesthesia, all true except:

A- Hematoma
B- Fever
C- Angioedema
D- Anuphylaxis
E- Etching

55. The best method to avoid toxic reactions to local anesthesia, except;

A- Use smallest possible volume .

B- Use highest effective concentration.
C- Slowly injection
D- Avoid intravascular admin
e. Use lowest effective concentration
By Dentist:-Ramla Hussein
56. Most paresthesia resolves without treatment within approximately:

A- 8 weeks
B- 8 months
C- 4 weeks
D- 4 months
E- 4 days

57. Over dosage and toxicity of local anesthesia, which one is incorrect?

A- It is relatively uncommon
B- Influenced by rapidity of injection
C- Influenced by rout of administration
D- Influenced by adding vasoconstrictor
E- It is a non-dose related

58. Management of anaphylasis, which one is incorrect

A- Epinephrine is given as intramuscular injection

B- Administer Oxygen
C- Antihistamine should be given
D- Adjust the chair in upright position
E- Stop the work immediately

59. Predisposing factors for fainting, all are true except:

A- Emotional stress
B- The sight of blood
C- Starvation
D- Use of sedation to relief anxicty
E- Fear

60. After administration of the inferior nerve block, patient develops

difficulty in mouth opening the mouth, this may be due to :

A- Injury to medial pterygoid muscle

B- Injury to lingual nerve
C- Injury to buccinators
D- Injury to lateral pterygoid muscle
E- Injury to facial nerve
 .
61. The supporting hand of the surgeon plays an important role during
.
extraction, all the following are representations of such role except:

a.Helps reflects the surrounding tissue and improve visualization

b. It helps to stabilize the patient's head during extraction process.
c.Provide tactile feed back to the operator
d Provide good test of local anesthesia
e. Reduce possibility of injury due to instrument slippage.

62. During the extraction of lower 2^nd right molar, the dental chair height
should be adjusted so that the operation site is leveled

a.At the operator's elbow.

b 6 inches below the operator's shoulder.
c 6 inches above the operator's elbow.
d At the operator's shoulder.
e 6 inches below the operator's elbow.

63. All of the following is correct purposes of extraction movements except:

a.Cutting the tooth attachment.

b. Reduce bleeding during extraction
c.Dilatation of the bony wall of the socket utilizing the resiliency of
the living bone.
d. The removal of the tooth from the socket
e.Separating the tooth from the wall of the socket.

64. Regarding the beaks of the dental forceps (all statements are true except :

a.Beaks are shorter as compared to the handle

b.Beaks of mandibular forceps are at a right angle to the handle
c.Designed specifically for ditferent teeth
d.The outer surface of beaks is serrated
e. Beaks of the molar forceps on buccal has pointed tip or projection.

65. Patient in oral surgical operation on dental unit

a. Correct position of the patient is very important to avoid any ethical

problems
b. hend rest adjusted to fit the back of the head
c. The back rest of the chair is nearly vertical when lower teeth are removed
d. The back rest of the chair is slightly inclined about (15-20 degrees) for upper
teeth removal
e.All of the above By Dentist:-Ramla Hussein
66. "Line of withdrasal" of a tooth is mainly determined by:

A- The size of the crown

B- The root pattren
C- Shape of the crown.
D- Size of the roots.
E- the bone pattern

67. When maillary lateral incisor has to be extracted the first movement
forceps should be:

A- Labialiy then apically.

B- Palatally then apeclly
C- Labutty or palatally
D- Apically then palatally
E- Apically then Distally

68. The Control of forceps is done by :

A- The forceps is grasped so that the thump as just above the jout.
B- The forceps is grasped so that the thump is just below the ioint
C- The convesits of the handles faces the palm of the dentist's hand
D- The concavity of blades faces towards occlusal plane of teeth to be
extracted
E- The little finger used to control closing of the forceps blades

69. Coupland's chisel differs from straight elevator by

A- Sizes , function
B- Sizes , shape
C- Mechanical principle used , shape
D- Function , shape
E- Functions & mechanical principles used

70. The best instrument used to extract a fractured remaining apes of a

root is:

A- Winters elevator.
B- Apexo elevator
C- Cryer's elevator.
D- Coupland's chisel.
E- War-wick James elevator
71. Wheel and axle is the main mechanical principle used by:

A Straight elevator.
B- Apexo elevator.
C- Coupland's chisel.
D- War-wick James elevator.
E- Cryer's elevator.

72. ............ is a light duty elevator:

A- Apexo elevators.
B Winter's elevator.
-
C- Cryer's elevators.
D- War-wick James elevators.
E- Straight elevator.

73. The electrical potential of nerve in the resting state is

approximately:

A - 70 mV.
B -30 mV
C- Zero,
D- +30 mV
E- +70 mV

74. The action potential of an impuße is terminated when the membrane

(repolarizes and this is achieved by:

A- efflux of K ions.
B- efflux of Na ions.
C- influx of Kions.
D- influx of Na ions:
E- None of the mentioned information

75. This local anesthesia agent has both amide and ester linkage:

A- Benzocaine
B- Procaine
C- Etidocaine
D- Articaine
E- Xylocaine By Dentist:-Ramla Hussein
76. The reducing agent added to the local anesthetic solution is:

a. Sodium bisulfite
b.Methyl paraben
c Thymel
d.Ringers Solution
e.Sodium bicarbonate
.
77. Felypressin, all are true, except:

a.Is a direct stimulant of vascular smooth muscle

b.Is contraindicated in pregnancy
c.Is good hemostatic agent
d.It may produce facial pallor
e Is a good choice for ischemic heart disease patient.

78. Eninephrine when compared with norepinephrine is:

a.One half as potent

b. One fourth as potent
c.Two times more potent
d. Three times more potent
e. Four times more potent

79. Which of the following is used as topical L.A.

a.Procaine.
b. Bupivacaine
c. Rapivacaine
d. Dibucaine.
e. Benzocaine

80. Properties of local anesthetic, all are true except:

a.It should not cause any permanent alteration of nerve structure

b Its systemic toxicity should be low
.
c The time of onset of anesthesia should be long
.
d It should readily undergo biotransformation in the body
.
e. It should be sterile
81. All the following are relative contraindications of local anesthesia,
except:

A- Uncooperative patient
B- Presence of acute inflammation
-
C- History of allergy to local anesthesia.
D- Patient with a significant medical disease
E- None of the above

82. Inferior alveolar nerve block is absolutely contraindicated in patients

suffering from one of the following:

A- Rheumatoid heart diseases,

B- Asthma
C- Hyperthyroidism.
D- Haemophilia.
E- Thrombocytopenia

83. The mental foramen USUALLY located between the apices of the
mandibular:

A First and second premolars

B- First and second molars
C- First premolar and canine
D- Central and luteral incisors.
E- None of the mentioned information

84- Greater palatine foramen is usually located about

A- 1cm toward the palatal midline, just distal to the first molar
B- 1cm toward the palatal midline, just distal to the second molar
C- 1cm toward the palatal midline, just distal to the third molar
D- 1 cm toward the palatal midline, just distal to the IS premolar
E- None of the above

85. Motor innervation of the muscle of facial expression is via:

A- Abducent nerve
B- Facial nerves
C- 1st division of the trigeminal nerve.
D- 2nd division of the trigeminal nerve.
E- 3rd division of the trigeminal nerve
86. The mandibular division of trigeminal nerve exits the skull through the:

A- Foramen ratundum
B- Mandibular foramen
C- Foramen ovale
D- Superior orbital fissure
E- inferior orbital fissure

87. The anterior division of V3 provides motor innervation to the following

muscles, except:

A Masseter
B- Temporalis
C- Medial Pierygoid
D- Lateral Pierygold
E- None of the above

88. Anesthesia of the anterior portion of the hard palate is achieved by

anesthesia of the:

A- Posterior superior alveolar nerve

B- Nasopalatine nerve
C- Antenor superior alveolar nerve
D- Greater palatine nerve
E- None of the above

89. All are advantages of the pressure syringe. EXCEPT?

A- Delivers a measured dose of local anesthetic

B- Facilitates rapid injection of anesthetic solution
C- Simplifies the administration of a penodontal ligament (PDL)
injection
D- Protects the patient from an unexpected cartridge break
E- None of above

90. It is safe to insert the needle in the tissue to the hub, because the.
hub of the needle is the strongest part of the needle.

A- Both statements are true

B- Both statements are false
C- First statement is true, but the reasoning is false
D- First statement is false, but the reasoning is true
E- None of the mentioned information
91. An off-centered puncture in diaphragm of an anesthesia cartridge
leads to:

a Bent harpoon
b. Broken cartridge.
c.Leakage during injection.
d. Harpoon disengages
e. Painful injection

92. Shortness of breath in supine position is termed:

a.Diaphoresis:
b.Orthopnea.
c Lethargy
.
d.Paroxysmal noctural dysprea
e.Exophthalmos.

93. Patient with renal transplantation may have gingival hyperplasia

which can be induced by:

a.NSADS
b Nitrous oxide
.
c.Corticosteroids
d. Cyclosporine A
e.Heparin.

94. If supplementary steroids are not used in patients at possible risk

from an adrenal crisis, it is wise to monitor the

a.blood pressure
b.body temperature
c pulse rate
.
d.respiratory rate
e.all that mentioned

95. .............. are substances applied to living tissues that can prevent
the multiplication of organisms capable of causing infection.

a . Antiseptics
b Disinfectants.
.
c Medical asepsis.
.
d Surgical asepsis
.
e.Decontaminants
96. The paper hoses and suture materials, are disinfecled by:

a. Ultraviolet higlit
b.Gamma rays.
c.Ultrasonic vibration.
d.Ethylene dioxide gus.
e.chemoclave

97. Autoclave consider the most effective method of sterilizing because:

A it acts at 121 C' for 15 minutes.

B.It acts at 131 (* for 3-7 mumutes.
C.used steam under pressure.
D. Simple. safe. Inexpensive.
c. Shost procedure time

98. The operation treatres are disinfected by:

a.Alcohal.
b. Heat sterilization.
c.Fungimation
d. Tantalization
e. None ot she above

99. Administration of phentolamine mesylate

a. indicated as a treatment option whenever prolonged soft tissue

anesthesia presents
b.not recommended for use in children sounger than 6 years of age or
weighing less than 15 kg
c done at the same loeationts) and by Lie same lechnique used earlier for
.
LA administration
d associated with potential complications include irismus and paresthesia
.
due to the drug it self
e. All that mentioned are applicable

100. Conscious sedation, all are true except

a.It is a type of lecal anesthesia.

b.The patient is in set conscious state
c. Benzodiazepine 15 a drug usco in d1s lechnique
d. It is useful for manor surgical procedure
e.It has a benefit in treating a hardly controlled patient