TSPSC : Group-2
RRT – 9 (Answers) (24-09-2023)
1. Match the following regarding the Jagirdari
System in the Telangana
Various names of Jagirdari system
- description
i) Surfekhas
- Subsidiaries of the Mughal emperors
ii) Paigah Jagirs
-These lands were given by the Nizams
iii) Jaath Jagirs
- These are not personal jagirs
How many pairs given above are matched
properly?
A) Only one pair
B) Only two pairs
C) All three pairs are given above
D) None of the above
Ans: B
 Surfekhas: Before 1724 AD, under the rule of
Mughal kings, the rulers had total
administrative rights on Surfekhas Jagirs. The
Surfekhas area was the one that was ruled by
the subsidiaries of the Mughal emperors with
complete authority. So, all the income on the
Jagir went to the treasury from which he paid
various expenses on the administration and for
his own family.
 Paigah Jagirs: Paigah means Permanent. Nizam
used to give Paigah Jagirs to the people who
maintained his Military regiments.
 Jaath Jagirs: These Jagirs had very wide areas;
the Balki Jaath Jagir of Bidar district is a good
example. The income obtained from these
Jagirs was used for the expenditure of Jagirdars
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and miscellaneous expenditures. These are
personal Jagirs.
2. Assertion (A): The Bathukamma festival is
celebrated for ten days starting from
Bhadrapada Amavasya (Ashwayuja Masam
Shudda Padyami).
Reason (R): The first day of the Bathukamma
festival is known as Engili pula bathukamma
and the last day is Saddula Bathukamma.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: D
 The Bathukamma festival is specific to the
Telangana region. This festival is the symbol of
Telangana culture & and traditions. This festival
is celebrated for 9 days starting from
Bhadrapada Amavasya (Ashwayuja Masam
Shudda Padyami). The first day of the festival is
known as Engili pula bathukamma and 9th day
is Saddula Bathukamma. Bathukamma is not
played on the 6th day. It is known as Aligina
Bathukamma (Arrem).
3. Consider the following statements regarding
the Bonalu festival
i) The process of the Bonalu festival is
termed “Uradi”.
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 ii) Telangana people celebrate bonalu in the demonstration Markandeya Puranam under the
month of Ashadam. name of "Kunapuli Patam Katha." Similarly, the
iii) During bonalu “Garaga” dance is washermen would narrate "Masayya Patam
performed. Katha" to the rich of their caste to narrate
How many statements given above are correct? Madel Puranam. Thus, there were groups of
A) Only one statement artists, in every caste. These artistic pursuits
B) Only two statements vanished in the past 58 years as there were no
C) All three statements are given above patrons in the United States of Andhra Pradesh.
D) None of the above All these art forms might have been influenced
Ans: C by different tribes as the practice of narrating
 The word “Bonam” means “Bhojanam” which stories could be found in their culture from
means a meal or a feast. This festival is the ancient times.
offering of bhojanam to the mother goddess of
villages. The process of the Bonalu festival is 5. Assertion (A): The Cheriyal Scroll Painting is a
termed “Uradi”. Telangana people celebrate stylized version of Nakashi art.
bonalu in the month of Ashadam. During Reason (R): The Cheriyal scrolls are painted in a
bonalu “Garaga” dance is performed. Women narrative format depicting stories from Indian
prepare rice cooked with milk and jaggery in an mythology, and intimately tied to the shorter
earthen pot and lit a lamp on it. The earthen stories from the Puranas and Epics.
pot is adorned with neem leaves, turmeric and Select the answer using the codes given below
vermilion. A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
4. Match the following regarding the narrations B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
of the various castes in the Markandeya proper explanation of A
Puranam C) Only A is true
Name of the Puranam D) Only R is true
- Narrated by which caste in Telangana Ans: A
i) Kunapuli Patam Katha  The Cheriyal Scroll Painting is a stylized version
- Toddy Tappers of Nakashi art, rich in the local motifs peculiar
ii) Masayya Patam Katha to the Telangana. The scrolls are painted in a
- Poor Washerman’s narrative format, much like a film roll or a
iii) Madel Puranam comic strip, depicting stories from Indian
- Rich Washerman’s mythology, and intimately tied to the shorter
Which of the pairs given above is matched stories from the Puranas and Epics.
properly?
A) Only ii and iii 6. Consider the following statements regarding
B) Only iii the culture of the Telangana
C) Only I and ii i) The famous Urdu poet of Hyderabad,
D) All the above Bismilla Latif Khan introduced a variety of
Ans: A bangles using mirrors, pearls and
 The caste system was so strong, that the poor diamonds which shine even in darkness.
people of a caste, under any circumstances, ii) The ‘Gotes’ is the name of the bangles
would not seek help from the rich people of the which are generally thick and are used on
other castes. For example, the poor in the either side of numerous bangles worn on
Padmashali caste used to narrate through the hand.

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 Which of the statements given above is
correct?
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None
Ans: B
 Hyderabad has been famous for making
numerous varieties of attractive bangles. This
art took a definite shape during the times of
Quli Qutub Shah which was concentrated in
Laad Bazar near Charminar. The famous Urdu
poet, Chandabai Mahallaka introduced a
variety of bangles using mirrors, pearls and
diamonds which shine even in darkness. These
bangles which are generally thick are called
"Gotes" which are used on either side of
numerous bangles worn on the hand.
7. The word ‘Farni’ was very famous during the
reign of the Nizam, it is associated with?
A) The Colourful bangles which were
infused with pearls.
B) The woollen carpets which were
imported from Turkey.
C) The sweet dishes are made from the thin
sheet of gold or silver.
D) It is another name for the Haleem eaten
during the Ramzan month.
Ans: C
 Farni: It has been believed that consuming gold
and silver in low doses increases the health,
vigour and strength of a person. The Hyderabad
State ruled by the Nizams had this facility of
using a thin sheet of gold or silver on the sweet
dishes made which was believed to help
digestion. It is called Farni which is thinner than
a millimetre and, in Hyderabad, it is made near
Charminar.
8. Consider the following statements regarding
the Telia Rumals
i) The "Telia Rumals" were exported to
many foreign countries during the time
of Nizams.
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ii) The "Telia Rumals" were manufactured in
the Gadwal region of Telangana.
iii) Pochampalli Sarees are popular for their
traditional geometric patterns in "Ikat"
and "tie and die" styles of dyeing.
Which of the statements given above is
incorrect?
A) Only I and ii
B) Only ii
C) Only I and iii
D) None of the above
Ans: B
 Pochampalli: Sarees made in Bhudaan,
Pochampalli village of Nalgonda district,
Telangana State are popular for their traditional
geometric patterns in "Ikat" and "tie and die"
style of dyeing. The intricate geometric designs
find their way through the hands of skilled
weavers and make it to the market as beautiful
sarees and dress materials. The kerchiefs made
of silk thread have earned international fame as
"Teli Rumals" which were exported to many
foreign countries during the time of Nizams.
9. Consider the following statements regarding
the fairs in Telangana
i) The Edupayala Jathara is celebrated at
the place where river Manjira breaks into
seven streams;
ii) The Edupayala Jathara is celebrated at
Nagasanpalli village in the erstwhile
Warangal district.
Which of the statements given above is
correct?
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None
Ans: A
 Edupayala Jathara: This fair is celebrated at the
place where river Manjira breaks into seven
streams; this is at Nagasanpalli village in Medak
district. A temple was constructed at the place
in the 12th Century. The fair is celebrated on
Shiva Rathri Day; it is preceded by a 3-day fair
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 in the temple of Durga. The convention is to Ans: D
take the holy dip in the river, sleep for the night  The married Lambadi females will wear bangles
and participate in the Cart festival to their elbows, big earrings, nose pins, and
(Rathothsavam). heavy anklets (kada). Married Lambadi females
wear bangles made up of elephant trunks from
10. Consider the following statements regarding wrist to elbow. This is known as Balia. Lambadis
the culture of Telangana worship nature and different Gods & and
i) Dandari festival is an important festival of Goddess. They treat “Sevalal” as their guru. The
Gonds in Telangana. traditional festivals are Teej, Sithla Bhavani and
ii) The Gonds tribes are hereditary Tulja Bhavani.
storytellers of Pradhans.
iii) In religious processions the Pradhans 12. Consider the following festivals
play Fidel and Trumpet instruments. i) Teej Festival
Which of the statements given above is ii) Sheetla (Sithla) Bhavani Festival
correct? iii) Sri Sri Sri Sevalal Maharaj Jayanthi
A) Only I and ii The festival is celebrated by Banjaras are?
B) Only ii A) Only I and ii
C) Only I and iii B) Only I and iii
D) All the above C) Only ii and iii
Ans: C D) All the above
 The name Gond came from Gondwana. South Ans: D
India is an integral part of Gondwana. The Gond  Teej Festival: This festival is celebrated by
tribes are spread over the Gondwana land. The Banjaras (Lambadas) every year in the month of
majority of Gonds live in Telangana, Shravanam before planting the saplings.
Maharashtra, and Chhattisgarh states. In Celebrated in Shravana masam.
Telangana, the majority are in Komaram Bheem  Sheetla (Sithla) Bhavani Festival: This festival is
Asifabad and Adilabad districts. An important celebrated by Lambadas Every year at the
festival is the Dandari festival. Gond's beginning of the rainy season, 7 stones are
hereditary storytellers are Pradhans. Pradhans installed under the neem tree which are
beg before Gonds. On religious occasions, they treated as the 7 forms of Bhavani goddess and
play Fidel and Trumpet instruments. Bonam is offered to the goddess with green
grams & Bengal gram.
11. Consider the following statements regarding  Sri Sevalal Jayanthi is celebrated by Banjaras on
the Lambada tribal lives 15th February. Sri Sevalal was born during the
i) Balia is a bangle made up of an elephant Bhakti movement. He made many efforts to
trunk from wrist to elbow that Married eradicate the superstitions and for the abolition
Lambadi females wear. of Sara (alcohol).
ii) The tribal Lambadis treat “Sevalal” as
their guru. 13. Consider the following statements regarding
Which of the statements given above is the
incorrect? i) The headship of the Military was given to
A) Only i the hereditary "Serishtadar."
B) Only ii ii) The Salarjung encouraged the modem
C) Both measures that supported the traditional,
D) None

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 royal, and administrative system and the abolished the Cabinet Council and appointed
traditions of the land. an Executive Council (Babe Hukumath) which
Which of the statements given above is had the responsibility of both taking and
incorrect? implementing the decisions. Report of Roy
A) Only i Balamukund on the Reforms: Roy Balamukund,
B) Only ii the former High Court Justice was appointed to
C) Both prepare a report on the Firmaan. He submitted
D) None the Report, after working on it for 18 months.
Ans: B He suggested increasing the number of
 The headship of the Military was given to the members to 104, out of which 50% should be
hereditary "Serishtadar." Salarjung needed a nominated by the Government and 50% should
person to act as his representative to the British be elected by the people.
residents he needed proficiency in English and
had to be an Advocate. In this post, Salarjung 15. Assertion (A): The Association for Hyderabad
appointed a Tamilian boom in Hyderabad, State Reforms organization was established in
much against the wishes of the North Indian 1925.
Muslim officers. Salarjung Refuses to make Reason (R): The main aim of the Association for
Urdu the Official Language. Salarjung opposed Hyderabad State Reforms organization was to
any modern measure that was against the get the political reforms implemented in the
traditional, royal, administrative system and the Hyderabad state.
traditions of the land. Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
14. Consider the following statements regarding proper explanation of A
the Report of Roy Balamukund on the Reforms B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
i) Roy Balamukund was the Diwan of the proper explanation of A
sixth Nizam. C) Only A is true
ii) Roy Balamukund was appointed to D) Only R is true
prepare a report on the Political Reforms Ans: D
by Mir Osman Ali Khan, Nizam VII -  Formation of the Association of Hyderabad
Firmaan of 1919. State Reforms: Some educated people of
iii) Roy Balamukund suggested increasing Hyderabad formed an Association for
the number of members to 104 out of Hyderabad State Reforms in 1921. It aimed to
which all the seats should be elected by get the political reforms implemented. It tried
the people. to hold a meeting in Hyderabad, but the
Which of the statements given above is Government did not grant permission.
incorrect? Moreover, they passed a Firmaan that no
A) Only I and iii association can conduct political meetings.
B) Only ii and iii 16. The Nizam Government appointed a
C) Only iii committee in 1922 to look into the Report of
D) None of the above Roy Balamukund. Consider the following
Ans: A members
 Political Reforms by Mir Osman Ali Khan, Nizam i) Nawab Nizamat Jung Bahadur,
VII - Firmaan of 1919: In November 1990, ii) Nawab Tilawath Jung Bahadur,
Nizam VII implemented some political reforms. iii) Nawab Hyder Jung (Akbar Hyderi)
The most important measure was that he iv) Nawab Salahuddin Owaisi

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 v) Raj Bahadur Krishnamachary Hyderabad from rural areas and neighbouring
The members of the committee are? areas to carry on different vocations and jobs;
A) Only I, ii, iii, and iv The children of the non-Mulki employees who
B) Only ii, iii, and iv came to Hyderabad State in the 19th century
C) Only I, ii, iii, and v and served in the Government; and, the
D) All the above entrants who came to Hyderabad and were
Ans: C certified as Mulkis. Many English medium
 The Hyderabad State Reforms Association Schools were started in Hyderabad City
agitated for the implementation of the between 1900 and 191; Schools by different
suggestions given in the Report of Roy communities and different religions also came
Balamukund. The Nizam Government into existence.
appointed a committee in 1922 to look into the
Report of Roy Balamukund. The members of 18. Assertion (A): The Gussadi dance is performed
the Committee were Nawab Nizamat Jung by men of the “Gond” tribe in the Adilabad
Bahadur, Nawab Tilawath Jung Bahadur, Nawab district.
Hyder Jung (Akbar Hyderi) and Raj Bahadur Reason (R): The Gussadi dance is performed
Krishnamachary. The Report submitted by this before Deepavali from Ashwayuja Shuddha
Committee also was thrown into the dark by Pournami till Ashwayuja Bahula Chaturdashi.
the Government. Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
17. Consider the following statements regarding proper explanation of A
the Mulki definition of the Diwan B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
i) The people living in the Old City for proper explanation of A
generations. C) Only A is true
ii) The people who migrated to Hyderabad D) Only R is true
from rural areas and neighbouring areas Ans: A
to carry on different vocations and jobs.  Gussadi dance is performed by men of the
iii) The children of the non-Mulki employees “Gond” tribe in Adilabad district. This dance is
who came to Hyderabad State in the performed before Deepavali from Ashwayuja
19th century and served in the Shuddha Pournami till Ashwayuja Bahula
Government. Chaturdashi. Gonds dress in colourful costumes
iv) The entrants who came to Hyderabad and decorate with ornaments to go to
and were certified as Mulkis. neighbouring villages in troupes by singing and
The Definition of Mulki according to Kishan dancing. These troupes will have 15 to 20
Prasad is? members. Such troupes are known as Dandari
A) Only I, ii, and iii troupes. From this big troupe, 5 members each
B) Only ii, iii, and iv from other troupes. These troupes are known
C) Only iii and iv as “Gussadi”.
D) All the above
Ans: D 19. Match the following regarding the folk dances
 Definition of Mulki by Kishan Prasad: Diwan of Telangana
Kishan Prasad defined "Mulki" officials even Name of the dance - Performed by
before Nizam VII assumed his throne. It was as i) Dhemsa Dance - Koya tribes
follows: The people living in the Old City for ii) Bison-horn Dance - Gond tribes
generations; The people who migrated to iii) Kurru Dance - Koya tribes

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 How many pairs given above are matched 21. Consider the following statements regarding
properly? the Jangam Stories
A) Only one pair i) Jangam stories are narrated by using a
B) Only two pairs musical instrument “Budige.
C) All three pairs are given above ii) According to the Kridabhiramam book
D) None of the above written by Vinukonda Vallabha Charya
Ans: A Jangam Stories were popular during the
 Dhemsa Dance is performed by males & and Kakatiyas period.
females of the “Raj Gond” clan. This dance is iii) Budige Jangam communities belong to
performed during festivals and marriages, the Vaishnava religion.
according to Music. The Musical instruments Which of the statements given above is
used are Pepre, Dhol, Kalikom, and Tamak. incorrect?
 Koya Dance (Bison-Horn Dance or Permakoki A) Only I and ii
Play): Koya tribe people perform this Bison- B) Only ii and iii
horn dance during festivals and marriages. C) Only iii
 Kurru dance: This is performed by males of the D) None of the above
Koya tribe in Warangal district. Mainly this is Ans: C
performed during Sammakka-Sarakka Jatara.  In Telangana, the people of the Budige Jangam
community will be telling Jangam stories.
20. Consider the following statements regarding Jangam stories are narrated by using a musical
the Oggu katha instrument “Budige”, hence they are named
i) The story narrated by using the Budige Jangams. Other names for Budige are
instrument Oggu (Damarukam) is known Dakki, Dikki and Gammeta. Budige Jangams
as Oggu katha. belong to Veera Shaivam, hence they narrate
ii) The Oggu katha is mainly narrated by the the stories with “Veera Avesham” / Great
Gond tribe community. enthusiasm. According to the Kridabhiramam
Which of the statements given above is book written by Vinukonda Vallabha Charya,
incorrect? this art was popular during the Kakatiyas
A) Only i period.
B) Only ii
C) Both 22. Consider the following statements regarding
D) None the Adi Hindu Social Service League
Ans: B i) The Adi Hindu Social Service League was
 The story narrated by using the instrument established in 1911
Oggu (Damarukam) is known as Oggu katha. ii) The main objective of the Adi Hindu
Oggu is similar to the Damarukam held in Lord Social Service League is to carry on
Shiva’s hand. This art form brought national voluntary services to the Harijans.
recognition to Telangana state. Oggu katha is iii) The members of the Adi Hindu Social
mainly narrated by the Kuruma community, but Service League were only from all the
other communities such as Golla, Yadavas and sections of Harijans.
other BC communities also tell Oggu katha. How many statements given above are correct?
Oggu katha artists are mainly seen in Nalgonda A) Only one statement
and Warangal districts of Telangana. B) Only two statements
C) All three statements are given above
D) None of the above

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Ans: A  Adi Hindu Maha Sabha: From 1921 -24, Varma
 Adi Hindu Social Service League: It was formed conducted meetings of Adi Hindu Maha Sabha;
in 1911 to cany on voluntary services to the the first meeting (1921) was chaired by
society. The members of the League were from Papanna, a native of Belgaum; the second
all the sections of the society along with meeting (1922) by Keshava Rao Koratkar, the
Harijans. third meeting (1923) by Vaman Nayak and the
fourth meeting (1924) by Raja Dhanraj Giri.
23. Consider the following languages
i) English, 25. Assertion (A): The first meeting of Andhra Jana
ii) Gujarati Kendra Sangham was held at Osmania
iii) Urdu University in Hyderabad.
iv) Hindi Reason (R): Rao Bahadur Venkat Reddy was
Gandhiji published Harijan throughout his life in elected as the President of Andhra Jana Kendra
which of the languages given above? Sangham in the first meeting.
A) Only I and ii Select the answer using the codes given below
B) Only I, ii and iv A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
C) Only I, ii, and iii proper explanation of A
D) All the above B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
Ans: B proper explanation of A
 Gandhiji named his weekly, which he started on C) Only A is true
11th February 1932 as "Harijan." As Gandhiji D) Only R is true
repeatedly used that word, it gained popularity Ans: D
throughout the Country as a term for  The newly formed Andhra Jana Kendra
untouchables. Gandhiji published Harijan Sangham had its first meeting on 17th July,
throughout his life in 3 languages, English, 1923 at the house of Madapati Hanumantha
Gujarati and Hindi. Between 1919 and 32, Rao in Hyderabad. Rao Bahadur Venkat Reddy
Gandhiji published another weekly named was elected as president and Madapati
Young India which also extensively published Hanumantha Rao was elected as Secretary
articles on the welfare of Harijans. respectively. The second meeting took place in
Nalgonda on 23rd March 1924 at the office of
24. Match the following regarding the meetings of Shabnavisu Venkatarama Narasimha Rao, Editor
the Adi Hindu Maha Sabha of Nila Giri. It was decided in the meet, that the
Name of the meeting - Chaired by bright students of Osmania University should
i) First meeting - Bhagya Reddy Varma be awarded Gold and Silver medals on behalf of
ii) Second meeting - Keshav Rao Koratkar the society.
iii) Third meeting - Papanna
iv) Fourth meeting - Raja Dhanraj Giri 26. Consider the following members regarding the
How many pairs given above are matched Eleventh Meeting of Andhra Maha Sabha
properly? i) Ravi Narayana Reddy,
A) Only one pair ii) Arutla Ramachandra Reddy,
B) Only two pairs iii) Devulapally Venkateshwar Rao
C) Only three pairs iv) Sarvadevabhatla Ramanandam
D) All four pairs are given above Who among the above took an active part in
Ans: B the Eleventh meeting of Andhra Maha Sabha?
A) Only I, ii, and iv

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 B) Only I, ii, and iii Select the answer using the codes given below
C) Only I and iii A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
D) All the above proper explanation of A
Ans: D B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
 Eleventh Meeting at Bhongir: The Eleventh proper explanation of A
Meeting of Andhra Maha Sabha was conducted C) Only A is true
totally under the leadership of the Communists D) Only R is true
in May 1944 at Bhongir. Ravi Narayana Reddy, Ans: C
Arutla Ramachandra Reddy, Devulapally  The Jagirdari (regulation) abolition act was
Venkateshwar Rao & and Sarvadevabhatla enacted on 15th August 1949 by the military
Ramanandam took an active part in the government in the Hyderabad state. Under this
meeting. The Sabha elected Ravi Narayana jagirdari, some of the areas in the state were
Reddy as the President, Baddam Yella Reddy as divided into Jagirs. This arrangement was made
Chief Secretary and Vattikota Alwarswamy as to collect the land revenue and maintain law
Organizing Secretary. and order in the village. The Jagirdari system
was not only prevalent in the erstwhile princely
27. Match the following regarding the Burgula state of Hyderabad under the Nizam but was
Ramakrishna Rao Cabinet Ministers also prevalent in many places in central India.
Name of the Minister’s Office
i) Marri Chennareddy - Home minister 29. Consider the following statements regarding
ii) Konda Venkata Rangareddy the economic reforms in Hyderabad State.
- Civil supplies, Agriculture Minister
i) Then the state government under the
iii) G.S. Melkote - Finance minister
direction of the union appointed a
How many pairs given above are not matched
committee headed by A.D. Gorwala in
properly?
1950.
A) Only one pair
ii) The A.D. Gorwala committee
B) Only two pair
recommended the state government
C) All three pairs are given above
introduce necessary administrative and
D) None of the above
economic reforms to modernize
Ans: B
administration.
 Burgula Ramakrishna Rao Cabinet Ministers:
iv) The A.D. Gorwala committee
Burgula Ramakrishna Rao – Chief Minister, G.S.
recommendations were sincerely
Melkote – Finance Minister, Bindu Digambara
implemented by the then revenue
Rao – Home Minister, Marri Chennareddy –
minister Marri Chenna Reddy.
Civil Supplies, Agriculture Minister and Konda
How many statements given above are
Venkara Rangareddy – Excise, Customs, Forest
incorrect?
Minister
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
28. Assertion (A): The Jagirdari (regulation)
C) All the three statements
abolition act was enacted on 15th August 1949
D) None of the above
by the military government in the Hyderabad
Ans: A
state.
 Based on the direction of the Union
Reason (R): The Jagirdari system was only
government, to rejuvenate the economic
prevalent in the erstwhile princely state of
condition of the Hyderabad state the state
Hyderabad under the Nizam.

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 government appointed a committee headed by
A.D. Gorwala in 1950. The committee
recommended the state government introduce
necessary administrative and economic reforms
to modernize the administration. Gorwala
committee recommendations were sincerely
implemented by the then revenue minister
Burgula Ramakrishna Rao.
30. Consider the following statements regarding
the Telangana Armed Struggle
I. The death of Doddi Komuraiah changed
the psyche of both common people
and Communist Party leaders.
II. The death of the Doddi Komuraiah
incident made people of Telangana
subjugate themselves to live like
cowards or flee away to save their lives.
III. The Communist Party of Telangana
prepared the ground for the Armed
Struggle only after the Doddi
Komuraiah incident.
Which of the statements given above is
incorrect?
A) Only I and ii
B) Only ii
C) Only ii and iii
D) All the above
Ans: D
 Changed Scenario - Agenda of the Revolution:
The death of Doddi Komuraiah changed the
psyche of both common people and Part)
leaders. Instead of subjugating themselves to
live like cowards or fleeing away to save their
lives, people decided to fight back. Watching
their mood, the Party prepared the ground for
the Armed Struggle. They had given up the
legal fight and started occupying the lands that
they could cultivate.
31. Assertion (A): Vinobha Bhave began his Bhudan
Movement at Pochampally Nalgonda District.
Reason (R): Bhave along with the Bhudan
Movement propagated the ideas of Non-
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violence, humanitarian values, strong social
commitment and a ban on cow slaughter.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: A
 Vinobha Bhave began his Bhudan Movement
on 18th April 1951 at Pochampally Nalgonda
District with the intention that the landlords
should distribute the uncultivated land to the
poor people and help them. Along with the
land distribution, Bhave $ propagated the ideas
of Non-violence, humanitarian values, strong
social commitment 11 and a ban on cow
slaughter. For about 13 years, he travelled
throughout India on foot. passed away on 15th
November 1982 in Wardha. He was awarded
the International Raman Magsaysay Award in
1958 and was conferred Bharatha Rama
posthumously in 1983.
32. Consider the following statements regarding
the Burgula Ramakrishna Rao
i) The Government of Burgula Ramakrishna
Rao was formed on 6th March 1952.
ii) Burgula Ramakrishna Rao had previously
worked as Revenue Minister in the
Government of Vellodi.
iii) Burgula Ramakrishna Rao was elected
then from Shadnagar Assembly
Constituency in Mahbubnagar District.
How many statements given above are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) All three statements are given above
D) None of the above
Ans: C
 The Government of Burgula Ramakrishna Rao
was formed on 6th March 1952. Ramakrishna
Rao had previously worked as Revenue Minister
in the Government of Vellodi. He was elected
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 10 )
 then from Shadnagar Assembly Constituency in
Mahbubnagar District. Along with Burgula as
Chief Minister, 12 members were sworn in as
Ministers in the Jubilee Hall. All of them were
given the oath of secrecy by Rajpramukh Mir
Osman Ali Khan.
33. Consider the following statements regarding
the Shanti Yatra
i) Vinobha Bhave started a Shanti Yatra
from Shivarampalli village.
ii) Vinobha Bhave started a Shanti Yatra
from the village of Pochampally in
Bhuvanagiri taluk of Nalgonda district.
Which of the statements given above is
incorrect?
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None
Ans: B
 Vinobha Bhave, an important follower of
Gandhi took the responsibility to take forward
the programs of Sarvodaya. The Sarvodaya
Samiti third Meeting was held at Shivarampalli
village near Hyderabad, from 8th-11th April
1951. Vinobha Bhave attended this meeting.
On 15 April 1951, he started a Shanti Yatra in
Shivarampalli village. He was accompanied by
Dr. Melcote, Marri Chenna Reddy, and others
on 18th April 1951 the Vinobha Bhave & team
reached the village of Pochampally in
Bhuvanagiri taluk of Nalgonda district (present
Yadadri Bhongir district).
34. Consider the following statements regarding
Mulki Agitation
i) The slogans "Non-Mulki Go Back"
ii) The slogan "Idly Sambar Go Back".
iii) The slogan Andhra Go Back
Which of the above were the slogans of the
Mulki agitation?
A) Only I and ii
B) Only iii
C) Only ii and iii
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D) All the above
Ans: A
 Dr Shendarkar, Deputy Director of the
Education Department, conducted an enquiry
on 26th July 1952; this was the consequence of
the continuous complaints against the
atrocities of Parthasaradhi between 28th June
and 15th July given by 9 teachers of the school
and Hayagreeva Chary. Learning about the
enquiry, about 4,000 students had taken a huge
protest march from Hanamakonda crossroads
to Subedari where the enquiry was conducted
raising the slogans "Non-Mulki Go Back" and
"Idly Sambar Go Back". After marching; there,
they conducted a meeting in the public park.
35. Assertion (A): The Mulki agitation was first
started in Warangal.
Reason (R): The first meeting on the Mulki
agitation was held at Bollaram in Hyderabad on
24th August 1952.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: A
 Spread of Mulki Agitation to Hyderabad: There
was a meeting of the students at Bollaram in
Hyderabad on 24th August 1952. The meeting
was attended by the students in huge numbers
and all the speakers stressed the appointments
and pointed out that the non-Mulkis were
grabbing the jobs belonging to the Mulkis. Mulk
agitation which began in 1952. On the 27th 28th
and 29th of July, the students boycotted their
classes and went on strike.
36. Match the following regarding the Tri language
principle under the Burgula Ramakrishna Rao
government
Language. From Class
i) Mother tongue. - First Class
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 11 )
 ii) Hindi. - Fifth Class
iii) English. - Seventh Class
How many pairs given above are not matched
properly?
A) Only one pair
B) Only two pairs
C) All the three pairs
D) None of the above
Ans: B
 The Tri-language principle was introduced in
the education system. Tri language principle:
Instruction in the mother’s tongue starts from
class – I. Hindi enters as the second language
from 3rd class. English will be introduced as the
third language in the 5th class.
37. Assertion (A): The Government of India
appointed the Dhar Commission to study the
viability of the formation of linguistic States.
Reason (R): The Dhar Commission mentioned
that the formation of Linguistic States was
desirable in the existing circumstances.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: C
 India gained Independence on 15th August
1947 and the Government appointed Dhar
Commission on 17th June 1948 to study the
viability of the formation of linguistic States.
The members of the Committee are NK Dhar, a
retired Judge of Allahabad High Court, Dr.
Pannalal and Jagath Narayana. The Commission
submitted its Report on 13th December 1948.
The Commission mentioned that the formation
of Linguistic States was not desirable in the
existing circumstances. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
met Dhar along with 20 leaders of Rayalaseema
and gave a request to postpone the formation
of Andhra State.
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38. Consider the following statements regarding
the JVP committee report
i)The Madras Cabinet met under the
Presidentship of the Chief Minister;
Pusapati Swami Kumar Raja did not agree
to the Report of the JVP Committee.
ii)Pattabhi Seetha Ramayya explained the term,
"Andhra State without Madras"
mentioned in the JVP Report.
Which of the statements given above is
incorrect?
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None
Ans; A
 Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy laid a condition to
make the Sribagh Agreement Constitutionally
valid. Some leaders from the Coastal Andhra
opposed the Agreement stating that it was
written by a few leaders who met at the house
of a friend. The Madras Cabinet met under the
Presidentship of the Chief Minister, Pusapati
Swami Kumar Raja and agreed to the Report of
the JVP Committee and requested the Congress
Working Committee to initiate the action in the
direction of the formation of Andhra State.
Pattabhi Seetha Ramayya explained the term,
"Andhra State without Madras" mentioned in
the JVP Report.
39. Assertion (A): The famous book Thoughts on
the Linguistic States was written by Dr. B. R.
Ambedkar.
Reason(R): Dr. B. R. Ambedkar welcomed the
one language and one state formula.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: C
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 12 )
 Under this situation, it was very much
necessary to refer to Ambedkar's 1955 book,
Thoughts on the Linguistic States. It is proved
that Ambedkar’s ideas about smaller states in
the Indian Union after independence were after
all right. Dr. Ambedkar, the Father of the Indian
Constitution, had very distinct and constructive
opinions on the formation of smaller States.
Ambedkar welcomed the suggestions of the
State Reorganisation Committee, which
suggested the formation of Hyderabad State
including Telangana and a separate Vidarbha
State.
40. Consider the following statements
i)Hyderabad state was under Part A of the Indian
Union after India got independence.
ii)Eight former princely states or groups of
smaller princely states were made Part B
states.
Which of the statements given above is
incorrect?
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None
Ans: C
 Hyderabad state was under Part B of the Indian
Union after India gained independence. Nine
former princely states or groups of smaller
princely states were made Part B states. These
states were governed by a president-appointed
rajpramukh and an elected legislature. The
Nine Part B states were: Hyderabad, Jammu
and Kashmir, Madhya Bharat, Mysore, Patiala
and East Punjab, Rajasthan, Saurashtra,
Travancore-Cochin and Vindhya Pradesh.
41. Consider the following statements regarding
the Jaiprakash Narayan bhoodhan movement
i) Jayaprakash Narayan along with his wife
Smt. Prabhavati Devi made a bhoodhan
yatra in Khammam district.
ii) Kethireddi Kodandarami Reddy was in
charge of his tour too.
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iii) Communists encouraged the Bhoodhan
Yatra.
How many statements given above are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) All three statements are given above
D) None of the above
Ans: B
 Communists opposed Bhoodan yatra because
government ministers and congress party
leaders participated in the Bhoodan movement
which was started by Vinobha Bhave in
Telangana. They criticized Vinobha Bhave that
he is a government agent. The Bhoodan Yajna
mandala Vice-President G. Manikya Rao along
with Bhoodan workers organized a silver jubilee
padayatra on the occasion of the 25th
Anniversary of the launch of the Bhoodan
movement in Telangana. In 1952, Jayaprakash
Narayan along with his wife Smt. Prabhavati
Devi made a blood yatra in the Mahbubnagar
district. Jayaprakash Narayan’s speeches on this
occasion inspired many to donate their lands.
Kethireddi Kodandarami Reddy was in charge of
his tour too.
42. Assertion (A): The Government of India
appointed a Committee under the
Chairmanship of Kailasnath Wanchu.
Reason (R): The Wanchu Committee was to
study the problems of the Capital and Economic
condition of the Andhra State given the
division.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: A
 The Government of India appointed a
Committee under the Chairmanship of
Kailasnath Wanchu, Chief Justice of the
Rajasthan High Court. The Committee was to
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 13 )
 study the problems of the Capital and Economic
condition of the Andhra State given the
division. It toured extensively in Andhra and
Madras between the 9th and 27th of January
1953, met the leaders and the people,
examined their requests and observations and
submitted its Report to the Home Minister on
the 7th of February.
43. A Cabinet sub-committee was formally
announced on the city college incident during
the Mulki agitation, consider the following
members
i) K.V. Ranga Reddy,
ii) Marri Chenna Reddy
iii) Dr. Melkote,
iv) Phulchand Gandhi
Which of the above were the members of the
Cabinet sub-committee?
A) Only I, iii, and iv
B) Only ii, iii, and iv
C) Only I, ii, and iii
D) All the above
Ans: A
 A Cabinet sub-committee was formally
announced on 7 September 1952. Members
were K.V. Ranga Reddy, Dr. Melkote, Phulchand
Gandhi and Nawaz Jung Bahadur. Purpose of
the committee: To study the Mulki rules and
suggest changes and means of effective
implementation of the Mulki rules in
consultation with the students and other
stakeholders.
44. Consider the following statements regarding
the SRC Commission
i)When the commission visited Hyderabad in
June and July of 1954, K.V. Ranga Reddy
and Marri Chennareddy appealed in
favour of separate Telangana.
ii)When the commission reached Warangal, on
behalf of the Telangana Writers
Association Kaloji Narayana Rao gave a
representation wishing for a separate
Telangana.
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Which of the statements given above is
incorrect?
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None
Ans: B
 The SRC Commission has toured many parts of
the country and has come to know the opinions
of various groups and organizations. SRC visited
Hyderabad in 1954. When the commission
visited Hyderabad in June and July of 1954, K.V.
Ranga Reddy and Marri Chennareddy appealed
in favour of separate Telangana. Students of
Karimnagar demanded a Telangana state when
SRC visited Karimnagar district in July 1954.
When the commission reached Warangal, on
behalf of the Telangana Writers Association
Kaloji Narayana Rao gave a representation
wishing for Vishalandhra.
45. Assertion (A): In the State Reorganization
Commission report Andhra state was
mentioned in the Sixth Chapter.
Reason (R): The state of Hyderabad was
mentioned in the sixth chapter of the State
Reorganization Commission report.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: C
 On 30th September 1955 Fazal Ali submitted
his report to the central government. On 10
October 1955, the central government
presented the SRC report before the
parliament, People. On 31st August 1956, the
President approved the SRC bill. In the SRC
report, Hyderabad state was mentioned in the
5th Chapter and Andhra state in the 6th
chapter.
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 14 )
46. Consider the following statements regarding from Telangana must be reserved for the
the Dr B. R. Ambedkar’s opinion on the development of Telangana itself. The
smaller states arrangement must be reviewed after every five
i) population years if the legislators of Telangana demand it.
ii) geographical area The liquor ban must be implemented in
iii) financial self-reliance Telangana as per the suggestions of the area’s
In the formation of small states, Dr. B. R. legislators.
Ambedkar proposed which of the above-
mentioned metrics? 48. Consider the following statements regarding
A) Only ii and iii the Telangana Regional Committee
B) Only I and ii i) Telangana regional committee consisted
C) Only iii of fifteen members.
D) All the above ii) All the members of the Telangana
Ans: D regional committee were elected by the
 Ambedkar opined that the formation of small members of the legislative assembly
states should balance the morphological from the Telangana region.
characteristics of the states. For this, he iii) The regional committee members can be
proposed three metrics – removed by a special majority.
1. population How many statements given above are
2. geographical area incorrect?
3. Financial self-reliance A) Only one statement
He also suggested that some factors be considered for B) Only two statements
how many states can be divided with one C) All the three statements
language-speaking population. D) None of the above
Ans: A
47. Consider the following statements regarding Telangana regional committee consisted of 20
the Gentlemen’s agreement members and their election procedure was as follows:
i) Liquor consumption must be allowed in  Nine members represent the then-nine
the Telangana region because it is part of districts, they are elected by the Telangana
its culture. Assembly members, district-wise. The Six
ii) The surplus income from Telangana must members are Telangana MLAs or MPs and they
be reserved for the development of should be elected by Telangana Assembly
Telangana itself. Members. Five members will be those who are
iii) The arrangement must be reviewed not members of the Legislative Assembly but
every ten years if the legislators of are elected by Telangana MLAs. Along with
Telangana demand it. them, ministers belonging the to Telangana
How many statements given above are correct? region were also ex-officio members. The
A) Only one statement regional committee members can be removed
B) Only two statements by a special majority.
C) All three statements are given above
D) None of the above 49. Assertion (A): The Andhra Pradesh Bill was
Ans: A approved by the President of India on 31st
 The Telangana and Andhra areas' centralized August 1956.
and general administration expenditure must Reason (R): The ceremony was conducted on
be born on a pro-rata basis. The surplus income the occasion of the newly formed Andhra

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 Pradesh state at Vijayawada on 1st November
1956 by Pt. Nehru.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: C
 “A note on the safeguards proposed for
Telangana area” providing, inter-alia, for the
constitution and functions of a regional
committee of the Legislative Assembly of the
Andhra Pradesh state was laid before the
Parliament, in the Lok Sabha, on 10th August,
1956. This agreement was introduced by the
Central government in the parliament with the
name of “Note on safeguards” (it is an answer
to the question of Raj Bahadhur Gaur). But
there is a lot of changes were made to the
gentlemen’s agreement to prepare Notes on
safeguards (about 10 to 12 changes).
Thereafter, the Andhra Pradesh Bill was
approved by the President of India on 31st
August 1956. The ceremony was conducted on
the occasion of the newly formed Andhra
Pradesh state at Hyderabad on 1st November
1956 by Pt. Nehru.
50. Consider the following statements regarding
the Gentlemen’s Agreement
i) The Regional Committee should be
appointed to look after the welfare
measures of Telangana and its overall
development.
ii) The Regional Committee will consist of
20 members.
iii) All the Ministers from Telangana will be
members of the Regional Committee.
How many statements given above are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) All three statements are given above
D) None of the above
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Ans: C
 To look after the welfare measures of Telangana
and its overall development, a Regional
Committee should be appointed. There will be
20 members in the Regional Committee; 9
MLAs from 9 districts and 6 members from
State Council or Parliament. In addition, there
will be 5 members from outside who will be
elected by the representatives of Telangana
Assembly. All the Ministers from Telangana will
be members of the Regional Committee.
51. Consider the following issues
i) planning,
ii) Mulki rules
iii) developmental activities,
iv) irrigation and other agricultural plans,
v) industrialization and employment
The Regional Committee will look after and
take decisions on the issues of which of the
above?
A) Only I, ii, iv, and v
B) Only I, iii, iv, and v
C) Only ii, iii, iv, and v
D) All the above
Ans: B
 The Regional Committee will look after and
take decisions on the issues of the planning,
developmental activities, irrigation, other
agricultural plans, industrialization and
employment. It has legal recognition. A Review
would be conducted after 10 years. Among the
Ministers, 60% should be from Andhra and 40%
from Telangana.
52. Consider the following statements regarding
the gentleman’s agreement
i) The existing educational facilities in
Telangana would be reserved for the
students from the region only.
ii) It was agreed to continue the Mulki rules
under which only those with a minimum
of 6 years of residence in Telangana were
eligible for jobs and admission to
educational institutions in Telangana.
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 16 )
 Which of the statements given above are
correct?
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None
Ans: A
 On the initiative of the Union Government, the
leaders of both sides met in Delhi and reached
what was called the "Gentlemen's Agreement"
on 20th February 1956. Expenditure on
Administration was to be borne proportionately
by the two regions and surplus revenue from
the Telangana region would be spent only for
the development of Telangana. The existing
educational facilities in Telangana would be
reserved for students from the region only. It
was agreed to continue the Mulki rules under
which only those with a minimum of 12 years
of residence in Telangana were eligible for jobs
and admission to educational institutions in
Telangana.
53. Assertion (A): The central government
appointed a high-power committee to calculate
Telangana’s surplus funds headed by the Justice
Vashista Bhargava committee.
Reason (R): The Lalith committee and Justice
Bhargava committee identified surplus funds
belonging to Telangana.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: A
 The central government appointed a high-
power committee to calculate Telangana’s
surplus funds headed by the Justice Vashista
Bhargava committee. The Lalith committee and
Justice Bhargava committee identified surplus
funds belonging to Telangana. According to the
Lalith committee between 1956-1968,
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Telangana was eligible to get Rs. 34.09 crore,
Justice Vasishta’s committee decided the same
as Rs. 28.34 crore. The Telangana regional
committee chairman prof Ch. Hanumanth Rao
did not accept the Laith committee and Justice
Bhargava committee.
54. Consider the following statements regarding
the safeguard’s agreement and violations
i) The government of the united Andhra
Pradesh appointed the P. S. Sharma
committee on the issue of surplus funds
of Telangana.
ii) The first chief minister of the united
Andhra Pradesh state was Neelam
Sanjeev Reddy and he gave the position
of deputy chief minister to K. V. Ranga
Reddy.
Which of the statements given above is
incorrect?
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None
Ans: C
 The surplus funds from Telangana were not
spent there and were diverted to Andhra. The
Bhargava Committee was appointed to go over
the matter of surplus funds of Telangana. The
committee mentioned that the surplus fund of
Telangana was diverted to Andhra. The first
chief minister of the united Andhra Pradesh
state was Neelam Sanjeev Reddy, once he took
over as chief minister, he ruled out the position
of deputy chief minister and ridiculed it as a
sixth finger and no one was appointed.
55. Assertion (A): According to the tenth point of
the gentlemen’s agreement, the sale and
purchase of agricultural lands in Telangana shall
be subject to the Telangana regional
committee.
Reason (R): According to the gentleman’s
agreement, Without the permission of the
Telangana regional committee non-Telangana
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 17 )
 people cannot purchase agricultural lands in conducted by Telangana Mahasabha on 8th
Telangana. March 1969.
Select the answer using the codes given below Reason (R): The Telangana Mahasabha on
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the violations of Telangana Safeguards meeting was
proper explanation of A chaired by veteran lawyer S. Venkataswamy.
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a Select the answer using the codes given below
proper explanation of A A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
C) Only A is true proper explanation of A
D) Only R is true B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
Ans: D proper explanation of A
 The sale and purchase of agricultural lands in C) Only A is true
Telangana shall be subject to the Telangana D) Only R is true
regional committee according to the eighth Ans: D
point of the 1956 gentlemen’s agreement.  Meeting of Telangana Mahasabha on violations
Without the permission of this committee, non- of Telangana Safeguards: Telangana meeting
Telangana people cannot purchase agricultural was conducted by Telangana Mahasabha on 8th
lands in Telangana. March 1958, which was chaired by veteran
lawyer S. Venkataswamy in Pratap girls Kothi,
56. The united Andhra Pradesh conducted an all- Hyderabad. The meeting was attended by
party meeting to solve surplus funds on the about 500 delegates and about two thousand
19th of January 1969. Match the following spectators.
Office Name
i) Then the chief minister 58. Consider the following prominent leaders of
- Neelam Sanjeev Reddy the Telangana region in the early days of
ii) Regional committee chairman Andhra Pradesh formation
- Justice Bhargava Vashista i) Varakantha Gopal Reddy,
iii) Regional committee vice chairman ii) Bojjam Narsimhulu
- J. Chokka Rao iii) Madapati Hanumanth Rao
How many pairs given above are not matched Prominent Leaders of Telangana Mahasabha,
properly? informing the central and state administrators
A) Only one pair about the injustices happening to the
B) Only two pairs Telangana region between 1956-68 were?
C) All the pairs are given above A) Only I and ii
D) None of the above B) Only I and iii
Ans: C C) Only ii and iii
 To solve the surplus fund issue, the state D) All the above
government conducted an all-party meeting on Ans: A
19th January 1969. Before 19th January 1969, on  Prominent Leaders of Telangana Mahasabha,
8th February 1968 the then chief minister Kasu informing the central and state administrators
Brahmadanda Reddy met with regional about the injustices happening to the
committee chairman J. Chokka Rao, and Vice- Telangana region between 1956-68 were –
chairman Kodati Rajamallu. Varakantha Gopal Reddy, and Bojjam
Narsimhulu. Varakantha Gopal Reddy makes his
57. Assertion (A): The Telangana Mahasabha on residence available for Telangana Mahasabha
violations of Telangana Safeguards meeting was Meetings.

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 Income of Hyderabad (Head Quarters) should
59. Consider the following statements regarding be shown in the income and expenditure of
the Violations of Telangana Safeguards Telangana. The income on the irrigation should
i) The Telangana Regional Committee has be shown separately for the two regions. The
been proposed instead of the Telangana income in the Electricity Department should be
Regional Council mentioned in the shown separately for the two regions based on
gentlemen’s agreement. the use of power in the two regions.
ii) The Telangana Regional Committee’s
powers were limited to issues of 61. Consider the following statements regarding
Agriculture and cooperatives only. the Transfer of Telangana surplus funds
Which of the statements given above is i) According to the gentlemen’s agreement,
correct? the Andhra and Telangana regions have
A) Only i to bear the cost of establishing the
B) Only ii Central and General Governance of the
C) Both State as per the ratio.
D) None ii) The ratio of expenditure was mentioned
Ans: A in the agreement as 1:1
 Telangana should have a regional council with iii) Funds and grants given by the Centre are
extensive powers under the gentlemen’s allocated between Andhra & Telangana
agreement. the Telangana Regional Committee in 2: 1 ratio.
has been proposed instead of the Telangana How many statements given above are
Regional Council mentioned in the gentlemen’s incorrect?
agreement. The committee was weaker than A) Only one statement
the council in its structure and authority. The B) Only two statements
committee’s powers were limited to issues C) All the statements are given above
which were not financially related. D) None of the above
Ans: B
60. Consider the following statements regarding  According to the gentlemen’s agreement the
the System of calculating the income of surplus funds of Telangana i.e., that is the
Telangana region in 1956 remaining amount after expenditure from its
i) Income on the Land Tax and Excise revenue have to be spent in Telangana only. But
should be shown separately for the two the Andhra rulers have diverted Telangana
regions. surplus funds to Andhra. According to the
ii) Income of Hyderabad should be shown in gentlemen’s agreement, Andhra and Telangana
the income and expenditures of Andhra have to bear the cost of establishing the Central
and Telangana. and General Governance of the State as per the
Which of the statements given above is ratio. But the ratio of expenditure was not
incorrect? mentioned in the agreement. Joint expenses
A) Only i and expenses in Hyderabad the Andhra
B) Only ii &Telangana regions have to bear an in 2:1 ratio.
C) Both Funds and grants given by the Centre are
D) None allocated between Andhra & Telangana in 2: a 1
Ans: B ratio.
 The Income on the Land Tax and Excise should
be shown separately for the two regions.

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62. Consider the following statements regarding
the violations of the Mulki rules
i) The local candidates were not available.
ii) To implement spouse case condition.
iii) Compassionate ground appointments.
The non-locals were recruited in context of
which of the above grounds?
A) Only I and ii
B) Only i
C) Only I and iii
D) All the above
Ans: D
 The government records have shown that up to
May 1963, 1730 exemptions were given and
appointed non-locals. The government had
shown the following reasons for the
exemptions
 The non-locals were recruited on the pretext
that the local candidates were not available, To
implement spouse case conditions
compassionate ground appointments were also
given a posting to non-locals in Telangana.
63. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court gave
judgement on the Public Employment Act that
the rules relating to the requirements as to
residents were valid.
Reason (R): The summary of the court’s ruling
on the Public Employment Act is that residency
status should apply to the entire state.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: D
 In 1957 parliament assented the public
employment act 1957. The act repealed
residency status in the states and union
territories of the country and continued to
provide residency as eligibility in Telangana
region of Andhra Pradesh,Himachal Pradesh,
Manipur and Tripura. Under the act,the Center
Call: 93929 57733
issued the Andhra Pradesh Public Employment
regulations in 1959.
 When the Andhra people appealed to the court
that these provisions were not lawful, the
Supreme Court gave judgement on 28th March
1969 that the rules relating to requirements as
to residents were invalid. The court’s ruling
summarises that residency status should apply
to the entire state but not to one area of the
state. Telangana youths were disappointed with
this verdict, which ignited a separate Telangana
movement.
64. Consider the following statements regarding
the violations of the gentlemen’s agreement
i) Telangana meeting was conducted by
Telangana Mahasabha and was chaired
by Ravi Narayana Reddy in Pratap Girji
Kothi, Hyderabad.
ii) Telangana Mahasabha sent a
memorandum to external affairs Minister
Govind Vallabh Pant about the
development committed by the rulers
after the formation of Andhra Pradesh.
iii) Prominent Leaders of Telangana
Mahasabha, informing the central and
state administrators about the injustices
happening to the Telangana region were
– Ravi Narayana Reddy and Marri Chenna
Reddy.
How many statements given above are
incorrect?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All the three
D) None of the above
Ans: C
 The Prominent Leaders of Telangana
Mahasabha, informing the central and state
administrators about the injustices happening
to the Telangana region between 1956-68 were
– Varakantha Gopal Reddy and Bojjam
Narsimhulu. Varakantha Gopal Reddy makes his
residence available for Telangana Mahasabha
Meetings. Telangana Mahasabha sent a
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 20 )
 memorandum to external affairs Minister D) All the above
Govind Vallabh Pant about the injustices Ans: D
committed by the rulers after 17 months of the  Telangana Regional Committee into a big
formation of Andhra Pradesh. Telangana dustbin; the Central Government played the
meeting was conducted by Telangana role of passive audience and never tried to look
Mahasabha on 8th March 1958, which was into the affairs of the State. Hence, the
chaired by veteran lawyer S. Venkataswamy in Telangana Non-Gazetted Officers (TNGO) Union
Pratap girls Kothi, Hyderabad. began its efforts for implementation of
Telangana Safeguards in July, 1968. Day of
65. Consider the following statements regarding Promises for Telangana (Telangana Haameela
the Telangana Safeguards Movement Dhinam): TNGO Union observed the Day of
i) The Telangana movement was first Promises for Telangana on 10th July, 1968
started in Warangal. under the leadership of K R Amos.
ii) The power station named Kothagudem
Thermal Power Station was established 67. Consider the following prominent leaders of
in Palwancha of Khammam District in the Telangana
1961. i) VL Narasimha Rao
Which of the statements given above are ii) Kolishetty Ramadasu
correct? iii) K. Rama Sudhakar Raju
A) Only i Which among the above were the Pioneers of
B) Only ii the 1969 Telangana movement?
C) Both A) Only I and iii
D) None B) Only I and ii
Ans: B C) Only ii
 Telangana Safeguards Movement: The D) All the above
Telangana movement was first started in Ans:D
Palvancha. In 1961, a power station named  The credit for initiating and spreading the
Kothagudem Thermal Power Station was movement in Telangana is given to the below
established in Palwancha of Khammam District. members. VL Narasimha Rao (President of
Palvancha TNGO), Kolishetty Ramadasu
66. Consider the following statements (Resident of Illandu) and K. Rama Sudhakar
i) Telangana Non-Gazetted Officers (TNGO) Raju (Teacher’s union leader).
Union began its efforts for
implementation of Telangana Safeguards 68. Assertion (A): The Hyderabad NGO Union was
in July, 1968. merged into Telangana Non-Gazetted Officers
ii) TNGO Union observed the Day of Union in 1964-65.
Promises for Telangana on 10th July 1968 Reason (R): Annabathula Rama Rao was the
iii) TNGO Union observed the Day of founder President of the Telangana Non-
Promises for Telangana under the Gazetted Officers Union and continued up to
leadership of K R Amos. 1969.
Which of the statements given above is Select the answer using the codes given below
correct? A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
A) Only I and ii proper explanation of A
B) Only iii B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
C) Only ii and iiii proper explanation of A

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 C) Only A is true ii) Telangana surplus funds, including Rs 13
D) Only R is true crore of Nizam’s securities, will be spent
Ans: C in Telangana during the third plan.
 After experiencing the non-responsive, and iii) The government has promised to spend
rather unsympathetic, attitude of the Rs 12 crore on special development
Government, K R Amos decided to fight for projects in Telangana.
their rights and changed Hyderabad NGO Union How many statements given above are
into Telangana Non-Gazetted Officers Union in incorrect?
1964-65. He was the founder President of the A) Only one statement
Union and continued up to 1969. SLN Chary, a B) Only two statements
Deputy Tahsildar, was the Associate President C) All the three statements
of the Union. D) None of the above
Ans: A
69. Consider the following statements regarding  In 1960, regional committee president K.
the Telangana movement in 1969 Achutha Reddy criticized the government by
i) Annabathula Rabindranath began an announcing the injustices done to Telangana by
indefinite fast demanding for holding a press meeting. Damodaram
implementation of Telangana safeguards Sanjeevayya understood the injustices that
and separate Telangana on 8th January happened to Telangana and was ready to
1969. correct them. As a result, the government of
ii) Annabathula Rabindranath began an Andhra Pradesh issued a white paper in 1961.
indefinite fast at King Koti Palace in In addition, the government has promised to
Hyderabad. spend Rs 12 crore on special development
Which of the statements given above are projects in Telangana. But after the 1962
correct? elections, the Sanjeevya government was gone
A) Only i and Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy’s government
B) Only ii came back and no promise was fulfilled.
C) Both
D) None 71. Consider the following statements regarding
Ans: A bonded labour in Telangana
 On 8th January 1969, Annabathula i) The Nizam government passed a Farman
Rabindranath, a student leader of the National prohibiting bonded labour on 20th March
Student Union, who was studying BA, began an 1923.
indefinite fast demanding for implementation ii) The system of bonded labour continued
of Telangana safeguards and separate in districts of Karimnagar and Nalgonda
Telangana, at Gandhi Chowk in Khammam even after the Naxalite movement
town. eradicated it during 1978-81.
Which of the statements given above is
70. Consider the following statements incorrect?
i) The government of Andhra Pradesh A) Only i
under Neelam Sanjeev Reddy issued a B) Only ii
white paper on the accusations of the C) Both
regional committee chairman. D) None
Ans: B

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 The Nizam passed a Farman on 20th March
1923 prohibiting bonded labour. However,
landlords didn't implement it immediately. It
was only after the People's Movement during
1944-46 that it was practically abolished in
some villages. In districts of Karimnagar and
Adilabad, it continued even thereafter the
Naxalite movement eradicated it during 1978-
81.
72. Assertion (A): The system of Jogini was
prevalent during the time of Rashtrakutas and
Chalukyas under the name of Yogini.
Reason (R): The historians believe that the
practice continued under the Vira Shaiva name
of Jogini during the time of Kakatiyas and
Hoyasalas in Telangana.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not an
explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: A
 The historians believe that even during the 7,8
and 9th Centuries - during the time of
Rashtrakutas and Chalukyas - it was prevalent
under the name of Yogini. They also believe
that the practice continued under the Vira
Shaiva name of Jogini during the time of
Kakatiyas and Hoyasalas in Telangana and
Karnataka from the 9th to 13th Centuries.
73. Consider the following statements regarding
the Jogini system
i) The Andhra Pradesh Government Passed
an Act for the protection of Joginis on
31st March 1988.
ii) The government of Andhra Pradesh
established a single-member commission
to study the conditions of Jogini which
was headed by P Raghunatha Rao.
Which of the statements given above is
correct?
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A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None
Ans: C
 The Andhra Pradesh Government Passed an Act
on 31st March 1988 for the protection of
Joginis. A Commission headed by P Raghunatha
Rao was appointed by the Government during
1991-92. However due to the superstitions still
prevalent in the rural areas, the Jogini system
continues in disguise, and many girls are
becoming victims of this age-old system.
Stringent laws and social enlightenment alone
can eradicate this system.
 Raghunath Rao Commission is a single member
commission
74. Match the following regarding the crafts of
Telangana
Name of the art region
i) Nirmal Art - Originated in Nirmal village.
ii) Cheriyal Scroll Painting
- This is a stylized version of Nakashi art.
iii) Pembarthi Metal Craft
- Metal handicraft made in Pembarthi of
Nizamabad district.
How many pairs given above are matched
properly?
A) Only one pair
B) Only two pairs
C) All three pairs are given above
D) None of the above
Ans: B
 Nirmal Art: This art originated in Nirmal village,
and has been known worldwide from the time
of Kakatiyas; wooden dolls, colourful seats,
beds, and swings with beautifully carved
wooden work are famous throughout the
world.
 Cheriyal Scroll Painting: This is a stylized version
of Nakashi art, rich in the local motifs peculiar
to the Telangana. The scrolls are painted in a
narrative format, much like a film roll or a
comic strip, depicting stories from Indian
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 23 )
 mythology, and intimately tied to the shorter
stories from the Puranas and Epics.
 Pembarthi Metal Craft is a metal handicraft
made in Pembarthi of Warangal district. They
are popular for their exquisite sheet metal
artworks which are used in making the brass
pillars erected outside the temples and for
brass idols.
75. Consider the following statements regarding
the Jagirdari System
i) Al-Tanga is the type of Jagirdari System.
ii) Al-Tanga implied a stamp of the king or a
gift from the king.
iii) The gift was always land and was not
permanent and inherited by the
successor of the person who received the
gift.
Which of the statements given above is
incorrect?
A) Only I and ii
B) Only ii and iii
C) Only iii
D) None of the above
Ans: C
 The Jagirdari system was in vogue in India even
before the advent of Islamic Rule. Jagir is a
Persian word, which was of 2 types. Al-Tanga,
which implied the stamp of the king or a gift
from the king; the gift was always a land, it was
permanent and it was inherited by the
successor of the person who received the gift.
76. During the medieval period, in Telangana
different sub-castes emerged, consider the
following statements
i) The Village servants in Telangana during
the Nizam period were known as
Balothadars.
ii) The landlords used to give crop produce
known as “Balotha” to balothadars.
iii) Balotha is the share of produce given by
Balothadars to the landlords.
How many statements given above are correct?
A) Only one statement
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B) Only two statements
C) All three statements are given above
D) None of the above
Ans: B
 During the medieval period, in Telangana,
different sub-castes emerged. These sub-castes
earned their livelihood by praising the castes
and the genealogy of the castes and used to
beg from the castes present in Telangana.
These sub-castes were known as dependent
castes. They were given names based on which
castes they were begging. Village servants were
known as Balothadars. They were in all the
villages. The landlords used to give crop
produce known as “Balotha” to balothadars
based on the quantity of the produce from the
given Inam lands.
77. Consider the following provisions of Mulki
Rules 1919
i) Should born in Hyderabad state.
ii) Should be a resident of Hyderabad.
iii) By the time of birth of a child, his/her
father must have completed 12 years of
tenure as a government employee.
iv) For a woman, she must be a wife of
Mulki.
According to the Firmaan 1919, the Definition
of Mulki is?
A) Only I, ii, and iv
B) Only I, ii, and iii
C) Only I, iii, and iv
D) All the above
Ans: A
 1919 Firmaan – Definition of Mulki: To protect
Mulki rules, Mir Osman Ali Khan issued a
Firmaan in 1919. These are called Mulki Rules.
A person who satisfies any one of the following
conditions is considered a Mulki:
a) Should born in Hyderabad state
b) Should be a resident of Hyderabad
c) By the time of birth of a child, his/her
father must have completed 15 years of
tenure as a government employee.
d) For a woman, she must be a wife of
Mulki.
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 24 )
 Burgula Ramakrishna Rao Cabinet Ministers:
78. Assertion (A): The Nizam government 1. Burgula Ramakrishna Rao – Chief Minister
appointed the Aaravamudam Iyyangar 2. G.S. Melkote – Finance Minister
committee to look into the issue of Mulki rules 3. Bindu Digambara Rao – Home Minister
in 1937. 4. Marri Chennareddy – Civil supplies, Agriculture
Reason (R): By following the recommendations Minister
of the Aaravamudam Iyyangar committee, the 5. Konda Venkata Rangareddy – Excise, Customs,
definition of Mulki was made stringent in Forest Minister
Article 39 in the year 1945. 6. V.B. Raju – Labour and Planning Minister,
Select the answer using the codes given below Information & broadcasting (additional
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the Minister)
proper explanation of A 7. Navaz Jung Bahadur –Public Works Minister
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a 8. Anna Rao – Local Administration Minister
proper explanation of A Industries & Commerce Minister
C) Only A is true 10. Devisingh Chouhan – Rural Development
D) Ony R is true Minister.
Ans: D
 Bahadur Aaravamudam Iyyangar Committee: 80. Consider the following statements regarding
For political reforms in Nizam state, the Nizam the Progress in the Education Field under
government appointed the Aaravamudam Nizam VII
Iyyangar Committee in 1937. This committee i) The budget for the Education field was
submitted its report in 1938. The following increased from 1920-21 to 1934-35 as
suggestions were made by the committee the amount spent between 14 Lakhs to
regarding employment. Job appointments 75 lakhs of rupees.
should be done by following Mulki Rules ii) The medium of instruction in the primary
strictly. By following the recommendations of and secondary levels of schooling under
the committee, the definition of Mulki has Nizam-VII was changed from Urdu to
been made stringent in article 39 in the year English.
1945. iii) The percentage of literates was very high
in Hyderabad State during the Nizam-VII
79. Match the following regarding the Burgula when compared to the other princely
Ramakrishna Rao Cabinet Ministers states in India.
Name of the Candidate Portfolio Which of the statements given above is
i) Bindu Digambara Rao - Home minister incorrect?
ii) Konda Venkata Rangareddy A) Only I and ii
- Finance minister B) Only ii and iii
iii) Devisingh Chouhan C) Only i
- Rural Development Minister D) All the above
How many pairs given above are matched Ans: D
properly?  Progress in the Education Field under Nizam VII:
A) Only one pair Mir Osman Ali Khan funded many educational
B) Only two pairs institutions along with the Osmania University.
C) All three pairs are given above The number of students increased substantially
D) None of the above in 1920. The budget for the Education field was
Ans: B staggering: from 1920-21 to 1934-35 the

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 amount spent was between 14 Lakhs to 1 Crore
of rupees. Since education was offered through
the medium of Urdu, most of the Government
jobs were filled by Muslims; this continued till
1948. The number of gazetted officers in the
Government during 1947-48 was 999 out of
which 754 were Muslims. As the medium of
instruction in the primary and secondary levels
of schooling was Urdu, Muslims had an
advantage in education, and subsequently, in
employment. The percentage of literates was
very low in Hyderabad State compared to the
other Estates in India. Only 9% of men were
educated (1938) here, while in Mysore, Cochin,
Travancore, and Baroda Estates, it was more
than 17 per cent.
81. Consider the following personalities
i) Ravichettu Ranga Rao
ii) Adipudi Somanatha Rao,
iii) Komarraju Venkata Laxmana Rao
The founding fathers of the Telangana Library
Movement are?
A) Only I and ii
B) Only ii and iii
C) Only iii
D) All the above
Ans: D
 Along with Ravichettu Ranga Rao, Adipudi
Somanatha Rao, Komarraju Venkata Laxmana
Rao founded a library in Koti are' which was
named Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha
Nilayam. Soon, it became a Cent: for Cultural
and Literary Activities. The trio are considered
the founding fathers of the Telangana Library
Movement.
82. Assertion (A): The Jagan Mithra Mandali was
established by Madiri Bhagya Reddy Varma in
1906.
Reason (R): The name of Jagan Mithra Mandali
was changed to Manya Sangham on 1st January
1915.
Select the answer using the codes given below
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A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: C
 Madiri Bhagya Reddy Varma declared that
untouchables were the original Indians and
named them Adi Hindus. The basis for his
activities was the slogans of equity justice and
cooperation. He established a Non-
Governmental Organization named "Jagan
Mithra Mandali" in 1906. People who had the
habits of drinking and smoking were refused
membership in His association. In 1910, he
started "Dharma Pracharini Sabha," in
affiliation with Jagan Mithra Mandali; it was a
publishing house. He used to publish booklets
and brochures to enlighten the Adi Hindus and
other sections of society. On 1st January 1911,
the name of Jagan Mithra Mandali was changed
to "Manya Sangham."
83. Consider the following statements regarding
the Adi Hindu Volunteer Core
i) Bhagya Reddy Varma established a group
of volunteers numbering 35.
ii) The Adi Hindu Volunteer Core was used
to help poor people when they were
affected by fevers like Influenza and
contagious diseases like cholera.
iii) The Adi Hindu Volunteer Core is used to
conduct funerals for orphan corpses.
iv) The Humanitarian League started under
the Presidentship of Bhagya Reddy
Varma in 1913.
How many statements given above are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) Only three statements
D) All four statements are given above
Ans: C
 Adi Hindu Volunteer Core: Bhagya Reddy Varma
formed a group of volunteers numbering 35.
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 26 )
 This core group used to help poor people when
they were affected by fevers like Influenza and
contagious diseases like cholera; they used to
conduct funerals for orphan corpses.
Humanitarian League started under the
Presidentship of Roy Balamukundh in 1913.
That association was called "Raksha Jeeva Gnan
Prachara Mandali.
84. Consider the following statements regarding
the Adi Hindu
i) The British Royal Commission went on
touring the Country in 1922.
ii) the All-India Adi Hindu meeting took
place in Hyderabad in 1922.
iii) The welfare of the untouchables was
passed in an All-India Adi Hindu meeting
that took place at Allahabad.
iv) A Committee was formed in the meeting
to prepare a comprehensive report on
the untouchables to submit it to the
Royal Commissiot Bhagya Reddy Varma
was one of the seven members.
Which of the statements given above is
incorrect?
A) Only I and ii
B) Only I, ii and iv
C) Only ii, iii, and iv
D) All the above
Ans: B
 When the British Royal Commission went,
touring in the Country in 1921, the All-India Adi
Hindu meeting took place in Allahabad. In that
meeting, some important resolutions relating
to the welfare of the untouchables were
passed. A Committee was formed in the
meeting to prepare a comprehensive report on
the untouchables to submit it to the Royal
Commission Dr. B R Ambedkar was one of the
seven members.
85. Assertion (A): The Andhra Movement started in
Telangana at the beginning of the 20th century
as a Reform Movement.
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Reason (R): The humiliation of the Hyderabad
well-known advocate Allampally Venkata Rama
Rao triggered the Andhra Movement in the
second half of the 19th century.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: B
(Both A and R are false)
 The Andhra Movement started in Telangana at
the beginning of the 20th century as a Cultural
Movement and evolved into a Reform
Movement, and later, a Political Movement On
12th November, -1921, a meeting was
conducted in Viveka Vardhini School of
Hyderabad to discuss the issue of social reforms
in the Nizam State. The elite of the society who
participated in the meeting spoke Urdu,
Marathi and English. Allampally Venkata Rama
Rao, a well-known Advocate of Hyderabad
began his speech in Telugu; some of the
members, particularly from the Marathwada
region disliked it and made him stop his speech
by clapping loudly. All the Telugu members felt
bad; they were in majority, but, were not
allowed to use their language. They walked out
of the meeting.
86. Match the following regarding the meetings of
Andhra Mahasabha meetings
Name of the meeting - Venue
i) First meeting - Hyderabad
ii) Second meeting - Jogi pet
iii) Third meeting - Warangal
How many pairs given above are not matched
properly?
A) Only one pair
B) Only two pairs
C) All three pairs are given above
D) None of the above
Ans: C
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 27 )
 Andhra Maha Sabhas in the Nizam State: After
the formation of Trade and Fan associations
and the commencement of libraries in 1920,
there was a thought to unite all Andhra
associations into a centralized body; the effort
began with the first Nizam St. Andhra Maha
Sabha in 1930 at Jogi pet. Second Meeting at
Devarakonda: Exactly a year later, the second
Nizam State Maha Sabha was conducted on the
3rd, 4th and 5th March 1931 at Devarakonda in
Nalgonda District.
 Third Meeting at Khammam: The third meeting
of Andhra Maha Sabha was conducted in
Khammam, which was a part of Warangal
District, at that time on 13th, 14th and 15th
December 1934. As the resolution was
submitted to the Nizam Government to abolish
the Gasthi Nishan 53, it took almost 2 years for
the Maha Sabha to get permission to conduct
the meeting.
87. Consider the following statements regarding
the Bhoodan Movement
i) The Bhoodan movement began in the
village of Pochampally on 18th April 1951.
ii) Vediri Ramachandra Reddy became the
first person to donate land in the
Bhoodan movement.
iii) The book titled ‘Unto the Last’ inspired
Mahatma Gandhi a lot and he translated
it into Hindi as Sarvodaya.
Which of the statements given above is
correct?
A) Only I and ii
B) Only iii
C) Only ii and iii
D) All the above
Ans: A
 ‘Unto the Last’ was a book written by English
philosopher, Sir John Ruskin and it inspired
Mahatma Gandhi a lot he translated it into
Gujarati as Sarvodaya. Later Sarvodaya Samiti
was formed. The word Sarvodaya means social
reconstruction or everyone’s welfare. Vediri
Ramachandra Reddy gave a copy of the
document to Vinobha Bhave that he is donating
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his 100 acres of land. With this Vediri
Ramachandra Reddy became the first person to
donate land to the Bhoodan movement. Thus,
the Bhoodan movement began on 18 April
1951 in the village of Pochampally.
88. Assertion (A): During the government of
Burgula Ramakrishna Rao, hundreds of non-
locals were appointed to government jobs from
the combined Madras state and Andhra region.
Reason (R): The Gair Mulki movement was first
started in Warangal district in 1952.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
Ans: D
 During military rule (J.N. Choudary) and civil
government rule (M.K. Vellodi) from 1948-52,
hundreds of non-mulkis were appointed in
government jobs from combined madras state
and Andhra region showing the reason that
there were no trained employees in Hyderabad
region. These appointments were done against
Mulki orders issued by Nizam’s government in
1919. In 1952, the Gair Mulki movement was
first started in Warangal district. Parthasarathi
who was appointed as ‘Divisional inspector of
schools’ in Warangal subjected the teachers to
many difficulties and transferred them to other
places in the name of discipline and also
appointed non-locals in government jobs.
89. Consider the following statements regarding
the
i) The Home Department has set up a
judicial inquiry committee under Justice
Pingali Jaganmohan Reddy to investigate
the police firing in Hyderabad city.
ii) Justice Pingali Jaganmohan Reddy’s
autobiography The Judiciary I Served.
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 28 )
 iii) In the autobiography Justice Pingali Bahadur Yar Jung, Mir Akbar Ali Khan (Editor of
Jaganmohan Reddy’s book, he wrote that a newspaper) and some others. Padmaja Naidu,
the Mulki riots were aroused because of the daughter of Sarojini Naidu, also took an
the failure of the government towards active part in the activities of the Mulki League.
the people of Telangana.
How many statements given above are correct? 91. Assertion (A): S.K. Dhar Commission was
A) Only one statement appointed by the Indian Constitutional Council
B) Only two statements to look into the formation of linguistic states in
C) All three statements are given above June 1948.
D) None of the above Reason (R): The S.K. Dhar Commission in its
Ans: B report stated that new states should be formed
 The Home Department set up a judicial inquiry based on language only.
committee under Justice Pingali Jaganmohan Select the answer using the codes given below
Reddy to investigate the police firing in A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
Hyderabad city on 3rd & 4th September 1952. proper explanation of A
Justice Pingali Jaganmohan Reddy’s B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
autobiography – The Judiciary I Served In this proper explanation of A
book, he wrote that Mulki riots were aroused C) Only A is true
because of Andhra officials’ misconduct D) Only R is true
towards the Telangana people. The committee Ans: C
inquired about 100 witnesses and presented its  In June 1948, the S.K. Dhar Commission was
comprehensive report to the government on 28 appointed by the Indian Constitutional Council
December 1952. to look into the formation of linguistic states in
response to a nationwide argument over the
90. Consider the following famous personalities reorganization of states based on language.
i) Nawab Ali Nawaz Jung, Committee members were: Jagat Narain Lal and
ii) Sir Nizamat Jung, Panna Lal. This commission submitted its report
iii) Abul Hassan Syed Ali, in December 1948. The S.K. Dhar Commission
iv) Mandumula Narsinga Rao in its report stated that new states should be
The prominent members of the Mulki League formed based on mere governance. The S.K.
Association were? Dhar Commission rejected the formation of
A) Only I, ii, and iii states based on language.
B) Only I and iv
C) Only ii, iii, and iv 92. Consider the following statements regarding
D) All the above the J.V.P Committee.
Ans: D i) The Indian National Congress convened
 The prominent members in Mulki League J.V.P committee for the formation of
Association were Nawab Ali Nawaz Jung (a linguistic states in December 1952.
famous Engineer in the Nizam Government), Sir ii) The main objective of the J.V.P
Nizamat Jung (Minister Political Affairs), Abul Committee is to review the report of the
Hassan Syed Ali (a famous Advocate), Burgula Dhar Committee..
Ramakrishna Rao, Madapati Hanumanth Rao, iii) The J.V.P. committee suggested
Mandumula Narsinga Rao, Jagirdar Vaman postponing the formation of all linguistic
Nayak, Kasinath Vaidya who were prominent states.
leaders of the Hindu Community, Jagirdar

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 Which of the statements given above is
correct?
A) Only ii
B) Only ii and iii
C) Only I and ii
D) All the above
Ans: A
 After the Dhar Commission report, those who
wanted a separate state based on language
became disgruntled. In December 1948, the
Indian National Congress convened a J.V.P.
committee for the formation of linguistic states.
J.V.P - Jawar Lal Nehru, Vallabhai Patel, Pattabhi
Sitaramayya. The main objective of this
committee is to review the report of the Dhar
Committee. The J.V.P committee suggested
postponing the formation of linguistic states
but it said that Andhra state could be formed.
93. Consider the following personalities
i) Swami Sitaram
ii) Potti Sriramulu
iii) Bulusu Sambamurti
Who among them started his hunger strike
demanding a separate Andhra state?
A) Only I and iii
B) Only I and ii
C) Only ii and iii
D) All the above
Ans: B
 On 15th August 1951, Swami Sitaram began his
fast unto death with a demand for a separate
Andhra state and relented after 35 days on the
advice of Acharya Vinobha Bhave. After that, on
19th October 1952, Potti Sriramulu started a
fast unto death at the Bulusu Sambamurti
house in Madras City for the formation of a
separate Andhra state. Potti Sriramulu died on
15th December 1952 after 58 days of fasting.
His death made to erupt violence in Andhra and
on 19th, December 1952 PM Nehru announced
the formation of Andhra state in parliament.
94. Consider the following statements regarding
the wanchoo committee
i) Justice Kailashnath Wanchoo Committee
was set up to solve the problems caused
by forming a new Andhra state from the
partition of Madras state in 1953.
ii) The Wanchoo Committee suggested that
Madras be kept as a joint capital for ten
years.
Which of the statements given above is
correct?
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None
Ans: A
 Wanchoo Committee: Justice Kailashnath the
Wanchoo Committee was set up in 1953 to
solve the problems caused by forming a new
Andhra state from the partition of Madras
state. The committee suggested that Madras be
kept as a joint capital for four years. But the
then CM of Madras state C. Raja Gopala Chari
did not agree to this. Subsequently, according
to the Sribhag Agreement capital was
established at Kurnool.
95. Consider the following statements regarding
the recommendations of the Iyyangar
Committee on Reforms
i) There should be a special constitutional
body that must be constituted for the
appointment of Government employees.
ii) They should be appointed from all the
common people so that the government
would grasp the pulse of the people.
iii) There should not be favouritism in the
appointments and no recommendation
should be entertained.
How many statements given above are
incorrect?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) All three statements are given above
D) None of the above
Ans: B

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 Suggestions of the Iyyangar Committee on
Reforms: A Firmaan was passed on 22nd
September 1937 regarding the political reforms
of the Nizam. Following the Firmaan, the
Iyyengar Committee was formed to prepare a
report on the political reforms of the Nizam.
The Committee submitted its Report to Babe
Hukumat on 31st August 1938. The report was
printed in a special gazette on 29th July 1939.
The Suggestions of the Committee: A special
system must be evolved for the appointment of
Government employees. They should be
appointed by the common local people so that
the Government would grasp the pulse of the
people. There should not be favouritism in the
appointments and no recommendation should
be entertained. Only the character and
capability of the aspirants should be
considered.
96. Consider the following statements regarding
the state’s reorganization commission
i) Burgula Ramakrishna Rao, Ramananda
Tirtha and others appealed in favour of
separate Telangana.
ii) Swami Ramananda Tirtha gave the slogan
to the state’s reorganization commission
“Dismantle the Hyderabad Empire and
clean up the traces of royalty.
Which of the statements given above is
incorrect?
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None
Ans: A
 The State Reorganisation Commission visited
Hyderabad in 1954. When the commission
visited Hyderabad in June and July of 1954, K.V.
Ranga Reddy and Marri Chennareddy appealed
in favour of separate Telangana. Burgula
Ramakrishna Rao, Ramananda Tirtha and
others appealed in favour of Vishalandra. On
this occasion, Swami Ramananda Tirtha gave
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the slogan “Dismantle the Hyderabad Empire
and clean up the traces of royalty”.
97. Consider the following statements regarding
the gentleman agreement
i) According to the gentleman’s agreement,
it was agreed to set up a Regional
Council.
ii) The Regional Council is a statutory body
consisting of 50 members from the
Legislative Assembly to oversee the
needs and development of Telangana.
Which of the statements given above is
incorrect?
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None
Ans: B
 The existing educational facilities in Telangana
would be reserved for the students from the
region only. It was agreed to continue the Mulki
rules under which only those with a minimum
of 12 years of residence in Telangana were
eligible for jobs and admission to educational
institutions in Telangana. It was agreed to set
up a Regional Council, a statutory body
consisting of 20 members from the Legislative
Assembly to oversee the needs and
development of Telangana. The sale of
agricultural land in Telangana would be
controlled by the Regional Council.
98. Consider the following statements regarding
the Telangana Regional Committee
i) Telangana Regional Committee approval
is a must for the sale of agricultural lands
in the Telangana region.
ii) The Telangana Regional Committee
examines the development of only
primary education in the Telangana
region and formulates the required
development plan.
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 31 )
 iii) The Telangana Regional Committee town. Rabindranath was the first person to go
regulates admissions in educational on a fast unto death in the 1969 Telangana
institutions of the Telangana region. movement. He was accompanied by Shri Kavi
How many statements given above are correct? Rajamurthy, who was Vice-President of
A) Only one statement Khammam Municipality and was also a poet.
B) Only two statements
C) All three statements are given above 100. Match the following regarding the Telangana
D) None of the above Praja Samithi
Ans: B Post in the Praja Samithi - Post held by
st
 The Telangana Regional Commission looks into i) 1 President - Madan Mohan
the following matters: The Telangana Regional ii) Chief Secretary - Venkatrami Reddy
Committee’s approval is a must for the sale of iii) Treasurer - Nagari Krishna
agricultural lands in the Telangana region. All How many pairs given above are matched
land sales are under the control of this properly?
Committee. Examines the development of A) Only one pair
primary and secondary education in the B) Only two pairs
Telangana region and formulates the required C) All three pairs are given above
development plan. Regulates admissions in D) None of the above
educational institutions of the Telangana Ans: C
region. The Telangana People’s Convention, which was
99. Consider the following statements formed in February 1969, was converted to Telangana
i) Annabathula Rabindranath a student Praja Samithi on 25th March 1969. Telangana Praja
leader of the National Student Union Samithi.
began an indefinite fast demanding for  1st President - Madan Mohan (Siddipet Lawyer)
implementation of Telangana safeguards  Chief Secretary - Venkatrami Reddy
and separate Telangana at Osmania  Treasurer - Nagari Krishna
University.  Ad Hoc committee was formed with 17
ii) Annabathula Ravindranath was the first members.
person to go on a fast unto death in the
1969 Telangana movement. 101. Consider the following statements with
iii) Annabathula Ravindranath was reference to Registration of Births and Deaths
accompanied by Shri Kaloji Narayana. (Amendment) Bill, 2023?
Which of the statements given above is 1. It proposes to create digital birth
correct? certificates that will serve as
A) Only I and ii comprehensive documents for various
B) Only ii and iii purposes.
C) Only ii 2. It provides for the appointment of a
D) All the above Registrar General of India for issuing
Ans: C general directions for registration of
 On 8th January 1969, Annabathula births and deaths.
Rabindranath, a student leader of the National 3. It allows the sharing of data with other
Student Union, who was studying BA, began an authorities dealing with databases such
indefinite fast demanding for implementation as population register, electoral rolls,
of Telangana safeguards and separate ration cards, and property registration
Telangana, at Gandhi Chowk in Khammam records.

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 How many of the statements given above
is/are correct
a) Only One
b) Only Two
c) All Three
d) None
Answer : c
Explanation :
 The bill aims to eliminate the need for multiple
documents to prove the date and place of birth
by creating digital birth certificates that will be
used for admission to educational institutions,
driving licenses, government jobs, passports,
Aadhaar, voter enrollment, and marriage
registration.
 The bill introduces the term “Registrar General
of India” to replace the existing term
“Registrar-General” in the Registration of Births
and Deaths Act, 1969. The Registrar General of
India will be responsible for issuing general
directions for registration of births and deaths,
maintaining the national database of registered
births and deaths, and sharing the data with
other authorities as per the conditions
specified in the bill.
 The bill allows the Registrar General of India to
share the data of registered births and deaths
with other authorities dealing with databases
such as population register, electoral rolls,
ration cards, and property registration records,
subject to the prior approval of the Central
Government and the proviso to sub-section (1)
of section 17 of the Registration of Births and
Deaths Act, 1969.
 The proviso states that no person shall be
compelled to give any information relating to
his religion or caste. The bill also requires the
authorities receiving the data to inform the
action taken to the Central Government within
a notified period.
102. Consider the following statements with
reference to Offshore Areas Mineral
(Development and Regulation) Amendment
Bill 2023
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1. It allows auction of minerals mined
offshore, except for atomic minerals,
which will be reserved for government
companies or corporations.
2. It exempts registered AYUSH
practitioners from intimating biodiversity
boards before accessing biological
resources for their practice.
3 . It provides for benefit sharing based on
terms agreed between the user and the
National Authority under the Biological
Diversity Act 2002.
4. It criminalises all offences under the Act
and provides for imprisonment and fine
as penalties.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct
a) Only One
b) Only Two
c) Only Three
d) All four
Answer : c
Explanation :
 Bill proposes to introduce a transparent,
auction-based regime for allocation of mineral
resources in offshore areas, except for atomic
minerals, which are strategic and sensitive in
nature and will be exclusively mined by
government entities.
 Bill proposes to exempt practitioners of
traditional systems of medicine such as
Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha
and Homeopathy from the requirement of
informing the state or national biodiversity
boards before using any biological resources
for their practice. This is intended to facilitate
access to biological resources and traditional
knowledge by the Indian traditional medicine
sector.
 Bill proposes to change the mechanism of
benefit sharing arising from the utilisation of
biological resources and associated traditional
knowledge. Instead of following the guidelines
issued by the central government, the benefit
sharing will be based on terms mutually agreed
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 33 )
 between the user and the local management dentistry, provide quality and affordable
committee represented by the National dental education.
Biodiversity Authority under the Biological 2. While clearing the National (Exit) Test
Diversity Act 2002. would be sufficient in granting a license
to practice dentistry, the practice would
103. Consider the following statements with have to be registered in the
reference to Biological Diversity (Amendment) state/national register before
Bill, 2021 commencement.
1. The Bill seeks to amend the Biological Which among the statements mentioned above
Diversity Act, 2002 is/are correct?
2. It aims to encourage the Indian system of A. 1 only
medicine and cultivation of wild B. 2 only
medicinal plants, C. Both 1 and 2
3. It facilitate fast-tracking of processes for D. Neither 1 nor 2
research, patent application, and Correct answer: B
transfer of research results, Explanation:
4. The Bill also amends the Act to include  The National Dental Commission Bill, 2023
references to the Nagoya Protocol. seeks to repeal the Dentists Act, 1948 to
How many of the statements given above regulate the profession of dentistry, provide
is/are correct quality and affordable dental education, and
a) Only One make accessible high-quality oral healthcare.
b) Only Two While clearing the National (Exit) Test would be
c) Only Three sufficient in granting a license to practice
d) All four dentistry, the practice would have to be
Answer : d registered in the state/national register before
Explanation : commencement.
 In December 2021, the Biological Diversity
(Amendment) Bill, 2021 was introduced in Lok 105. Consider the following statements about the
Sabha, and was subsequently referred to a Mission Amrit Sarovar:
Joint Parliamentary Committee. 1. The Bhaskaracharya National Institute
 The Bill seeks to amend the Biological Diversity for Space Application and Geo-
Act, 2002 to: (i) encourage the Indian system of informatics (BISAG-N) has been
medicine and cultivation of wild medicinal appointed as the technical partner for
plants, (ii) facilitate fast-tracking of processes this mission.
for research, patent application, and transfer of 2. Under the Mission Amrit Sarovar, more
research results, (iii) decriminalise offences, than 63,000 waterbodies were
and (iv) encourage foreign investment in the developed in just about a year.
sector. The Bill also amends the Act to include Which among the statements mentioned above
references to the Nagoya Protocol. is/are correct?
A. 1 only
104. Consider the following statements about the B. 2 only
National Dental Commission Bill, 2023: C. Both 1 and 2
1. The Bill seeks to repeal the Dentists Act, D. Neither 1 nor 2
1973 to regulate the profession of Correct answer: C
Explanation:

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 Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space (Development and Regulation) Amendment
Application and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) has Bill, 2023?
been appointed as the technical partner for the 1. The exploration licence will be issued for
Mission Amrit Sarovar. Underlining that India’s five years.
initiatives were powered by people’s 2. The exploration licence will be issued for
participation, Mr. Modi recently said that under 29 minerals specified in the Seventh
Mission Amrit Sarovar, more than 63,000 Schedule. These include gold, silver,
waterbodies were developed in just about a copper, cobalt, nickel, lead, potash, and
year. rock phosphate
3. The Bill allows activities under a single
106. Consider the following statements about the exploration licence in an area up to 1,000
passes in the Western Ghats: square kilometres
1. Thal Ghat Pass: connects Mumbai to How many of the statements given above is
Nashik. /are correct
2. Amba Ghat Pass: connects Sawantwadi a) Only One
of Maharashtra to Belgaum of Karnataka. b) Only Two
3. Naneghat Pass: connects Pune district c) All three
with Junnar city. d) None
4. Amboli Ghat Pass: connects Ratnagiri Answer : c
district to Kolhapur. Explanation :
How many among the pairs mentioned above  The exploration licence will be issued for five
is/are correct? years. A licencee may request for extension of
A. Only 1 pair up to two years by making an application to the
B. Only 2 pairs state government. The application may be
C. Only 3 pairs made after three years of issuance of licence
D. None of the above but before its expiry.
Correct answer: B  The exploration licence will be issued for 29
Explanation: minerals specified in the Seventh Schedule.
The following are the passes in the Western Ghats: These include gold, silver, copper, cobalt,
 Thal Ghat Pass (Kasara Ghat): connects Mumbai nickel, lead, potash, and rock phosphate.
to Nashik These also include six minerals classified as
 Bhor Ghat Pass: connects Mumbai to Pune via atomic minerals under the Act: (i) beryl and
Khopoli beryllium, (ii) lithium, (iii) niobium, (iv)
 Palakkad Gap (Pal Ghat): connects Coimbatore, titanium, (v) tantallium, and (vi) zirconium. The
Tamil Nadu to Palakkad, Kerala Bill declassifies them as atomic minerals. Unlike
 Amba Ghat Pass: connects Ratnagiri district to other minerals, the prospecting and mining of
Kolhapur. atomic minerals is reserved for government
 Naneghat Pass: connects Pune district with entities under the Act.
Junnar city.  Under the Act, a prospecting licence allows
Amboli Ghat Pass: connects Sawantwadi of activities in an area up to 25 square kilometres,
Maharashtra to Belgaum of Karnataka. and a single reconnaissance permit allows
activities in an area up to 5,000 square
107. Consider the following statements with kilometres. The Bill allows activities under a
reference to Mines and Minerals single exploration licence in an area up to 1,000
square kilometres. After the first three years,

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 the licencee will be allowed to retain up to 25%
of the originally authorised area. The licencee
must also submit a report to the state
government stating reasons for retention of
the area.
108. Consider the following statements with
reference to PSLV-C56 rocket launched by
ISRO recently
1. PSLV-C56 / DS-SAR, is the Dedicated
Commercial Mission of NewSpace India
Limited (NSIL) for ST Engineering,
Singapore
2. DS-SAR, a Radar Imaging Earth
Observation satellite, is the primary
satellite for the mission
3. It carried an iodine-based solid
propellant propulsion module, based on
Hall effect thruster for orbit
maintenance.
How many of the statements given above is
/are correct
a) Only One
b) Only Two
c) All three
d) None
Answer : c
Explanation :
 PSLV-C56 / DS-SAR, is the Dedicated
Commercial Mission of NewSpace India Limited
(NSIL) for ST Engineering, Singapore. DS-SAR, a
Radar Imaging Earth Observation satellite, is
the primary satellite for the mission. In addition
to this, there are six co-passenger customer
satellites also belonging to Singapore. PSLV-C56
is configured in its core-alone mode, similar to
the previous C55 mission. All satellites are
injected into a 535 km circular with 5 orbital
inclination. SAR carries a Synthetic Aperture
Radar (SAR) payload Hoped by Israel Aerospace
Industries (IAI)
 ARCADE is a 27U microsatellite designed and
built by Nanyang Technological University
(NTU), Singapore, in collaboration with the
INSPIRE (International Satellite Program in
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Research and Technology) consortium ARCADE
carries an iodine-based solid propellant
propulsion module, based on Hall effect
thruster for orbit maintenance during the low
altitude mission.
109. Arrange the following Indian tiger reserves in
chronological order based on their tiger
abundance, from highest to lowest
a) Corbett, Bandipur, Nagarhole,
Bandhavgarh, Dudhwa
b) Bandipur, Corbett, Nagarhole,
Bandhavgarh, Dudhwa
c) Nagarhole, Bandipur, Corbett,
Bandhavgarh, Dudhwa
d) Dudhva, Corbett, Bandipur, Nagarhole,
Bandhavgarh,
Answer : a
Explanation :
The largest tiger population of 785 is in Madhya
Pradesh, followed by Karnataka (563) &
Uttarakhand (560), and Maharashtra (444).
 The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve
is highest in Corbett (260), followed by
Bandipur (150), Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh
(135), Dudhwa (135), Mudumalai(114), Kanha
(105), Kaziranga (104), Sundarbans (100),
Tadoba (97), Sathyamangalam (85), and Pench-
MP (77).
110. Consider the following statements with
reference to Resource Efficiency Circular
Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC)
1. It is an industry-driven initiative that
aims to promote resource efficiency and
circular economy practices globally.
2. It involves 39 multinational corporations
from various sectors, such as steel,
FMCG, and electronics.
3. It has three guiding principles:
Partnerships for impact, Technology
Cooperation and Finance for scale.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 36 )
 a) Only One The engine is fired up when the Chandrayaan is
b) Only Two at a distance of 236 km from the Earth. Perigee
c) All three is the point in Moon’s orbit closest to the Earth,
d) None whereas Apogee is the point in orbit farthest
Answer : c from the Earth.
Explanation :
 The Resource Efficiency Circular Economy 112. Consider the following statements about the
Industry Coalition (RECEIC) is an industry-driven Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI):
initiative that aims to promote resource 1. Coal, Refinery Products, Crude Oil,
efficiency and circular economy practices Cement are among the eight core
globally industries.
 . It was launched by the Union Minister of 2. The compilation and releasing of the
Environment, Forest and Climate Change of index are done by the Office of the
India on July 27, 2023, as part of India’s G20 Economic Adviser, Ministry of Finance.
Presidency. Which among the statements mentioned above
 The coalition involves 39 multinational is/are incorrect?
corporations from various sectors, such as A. 1 only
steel, FMCG, and electronics. B. 2 only
 The coalition has three guiding principles: C. Both 1 and 2
Partnerships for impact, Technology D. Neither 1 nor 2
Cooperation and Finance for scale. The Correct answer: B
coalition is envisioned to be a self-sustaining Explanation:
entity that will continue to operate beyond  Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) refers to a
India’s G20 Presidency, making a lasting impact production volume index that measures the
on environmental sustainability. collective and individual production
performances of eight selected core industries.
111. Consider the following statements: These industries are Natural Gas, Coal, Refinery
1. For translunar injection, Chandrayaan's Products, Crude Oil, Cement, Electricity, Steel,
speed should be more than Earth's and Fertilizers. The compilation and releasing
escape velocity. of the index are done by the Office of the
2. Perigee is the point in Moon’s orbit Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of
farthest from the Earth. Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), Ministry
Which among the statements mentioned above of Commerce and Industry. The eight core
is/are correct? sectors constitute 40.3% of the Index of
A. 1 only Industrial Production.
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 113. Consider the following statements about Indo-
D. Neither 1 nor 2 Sri Lanka relations:
Correct answer: A 1. India is Sri Lanka’s third largest export
Explanation: destination.
 For translunar injection, Chandrayaan's speed 2. India and Sri Lanka conduct joint Military
should be more than Earth's escape velocity. exercise bearing the name SLINEX.
Earth's escape velocity is 40 thousand 270 Which among the statements mentioned above
kilometers per hour meaning that the is/are correct?
Chandrayaan's speed should be more than this. A. 1 only

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 B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
 India is Sri Lanka’s third largest export
destination, after the US and UK. More than
60% of Sri Lanka’s exports enjoy the benefits of
the India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement. India
is also a major investor in Sri Lanka. India and
Sri Lanka conduct joint Military exercise
bearing the name Mitra Shakti and Naval
exercise known as SLINEX.
114. Consider the following statements about Deep
Tech:
1. It refers to a class of startup businesses
that develop new offerings based on
tangible engineering innovation or
scientific discoveries and advances.
2. In the last decade India’s deep tech
ecosystem has grown 53%.
Which among the statements mentioned above
is/are incorrect?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
 Deep tech or deep technology refers to a class
of startup businesses that develop new
offerings based on tangible engineering
innovation or scientific discoveries and
advances. The Draft National Deep Tech
Startup Policy (NDTSP) is strategically
formulated to stimulate innovation, spur
economic growth, and promote societal
development through the effective utilization
of deep tech research-driven innovations. In
the last decade India’s deep tech ecosystem
has grown 53% and is at par with that in
developed markets like the US, China, Israel,
and Europe.
115. Consider the following statements:
The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO (2016)
1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
2. made India the second country to have a
spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
3. made India the only country to be
successful in making its spacecraft orbit
the Mars in its very first attempt
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
 Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), India's first
interplanetary mission to planet Mars was
launchedonboard PSLV-C25 on November 05,
2013. ISRO has become the fourth after NASA,
Roscosmos and European Space agency,to
successfully send a spacecraft to Mars orbit.
 The objectives of this mission are primarily
technological and include design, realisation
and launch of a Mars Orbiter spacecraft
capable of operating with sufficient autonomy
during the journey phase; Mars orbit insertion /
capture and in-orbit phase around Mars.
 India has become the first nation to send a
satellite into orbit around Mars on its first
attempt, and the first Asian nation to do so.
116. Consider the following statements with
reference to GOBARdhan initiative
1. It is implemented under the Swachh
Bharat Mission Gramin-Phase 2 by the
Department of Drinking Water and
Sanitation under Jal Shakti Ministry
2. It aims to augment the income of
farmers by converting biodegradable
waste into compressed biogas and
organic fertiliser.
3. It provides incentives ranging from Rs. 5
lakh to Rs. 15 lakh for different models
and household sizes.

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 4. It has a unified portal for registration,
monitoring and grievance redressal of
biogas projects.
How many of the statements given above is
/are correct
a) Only One
b) Only Two
c) Only Three
d) All three
Answer : c
Explanation :
 The Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin-Phase 2 is a
programme launched by the Government of
India in 2020 to achieve universal sanitation
coverage, improve solid and liquid waste
management, and promote rural hygiene and
cleanliness. The Department of Drinking Water
and Sanitation under the Jal Shakti Ministry is
the nodal agency for implementing this
programme. The GOBARdhan scheme is one of
the key initiatives under this programme.
 he GOBARdhan scheme supports villages to
convert their cattle waste, agricultural waste
and other organic waste into compressed
biogas (CBG) and organic fertiliser using
decentralised systems. CBG is a renewable and
clean fuel that can be used for cooking,
lighting, heating and transportation. Organic
fertiliser is a natural and eco-friendly product
that can enhance soil health and crop
productivity. By producing and selling these
products, farmers can increase their income
and reduce their dependence on fossil fuels
and chemical fertilisers.
 The scheme provides incentives ranging from
Rs. 7 lakh to Rs. 20 lakh for different models
and household sizes.
 In June 2023, the Ministry of Jal Shakti
launched a unified portal for GOBARdhan to
ensure smooth implementation of biogas
schemes/initiatives and their real-time
tracking. The portal allows users to register
their projects, access information on various
schemes, apply for loans, subsidies and grants,
monitor their progress and report any issues or
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grievances. The portal also provides a
dashboard for displaying key indicators such as
number of projects registered, completed,
operational, etc.
117. Consider the following statements with
reference to ULLAS mobile app
1. The ULLAS app can be used for
registration of learners and volunteers
either through self-registration or by
surveyors
2. It imparts basic education, digital and
financial literacy and critical life skills to
citizens aged 15 and above who lost on
the opportunity to go to school
Which of the above statements is/are correct
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Explanation :
 ULLAS mobile application marks a significant
milestone in harnessing the potential of
technology to facilitate widespread access to
basic literacy. This user-friendly and interactive
app available both on android and ios and will
serve as a digital gateway for learners to
engage in diverse learning resources through
the DIKSHA portal of NCERT.
 The ULLAS app can be used for registration of
learners and volunteers either through self-
registration or by surveyors,
 ULLAS will focus on promoting functional
literacy, vocational skills, and many important
life skills like financial literacy, legal literacy,
digital literacy, and empowerment of citizens to
involve in nation-building of the country. It also
fosters a culture of continuous learning and
knowledge-sharing in communities across
India,
118. The key objectives of the National Tourism
Policy are to
1. To enhance the contribution of tourism
in Indian economy by increasing the
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 visitation, stay and spend and making
India a year-round tourist destination,
2. To create jobs and entrepreneurial
opportunities in tourism sector and
ensure supply of skilled work force,
3. To enhance the competitiveness of
tourism sector and attract private sector
investment,
4. To preserve and enhance the cultural
and natural resources of the country,
5. To ensure sustainable, responsible and
inclusive development of tourism in the
country
How many of the above statements is/are
correct
a) Only One
b) Only Two
c) Only Four
d) All Five
Answer : d
Explanation :
The Ministry of Tourism has drafted a National
Tourism Policy incorporating suggestions
received from Central Ministries, State
Governments/UT Administrations and Industry
Stakeholders. The key strategic objectives of the
Policy are:
i. To enhance the contribution of tourism in
Indian economy by increasing the
visitation, stay and spend and making India
a year-round tourist destination,
ii. To create jobs and entrepreneurial
opportunities in tourism sector and ensure
supply of skilled work force,
iii. To enhance the competitiveness of tourism
sector and attract private sector
investment,
iv. To preserve and enhance the cultural and
natural resources of the country,
v. To ensure sustainable, responsible and
inclusive development of tourism in the
country.
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 Ministry of Tourism, Government of India
has launched the “Adopt a Heritage: Apni
Dharohar, Apni Pehchaan” project for
developing tourism amenities at
heritage/natural/tourist sites spread across
India for making them tourist friendly, in a
planned and phased manner. The project
aims to encourage companies from public
sector, private sector, trusts, NGOs,
individuals, and other stakeholders to
become ‘Monument Mitras’ and take up
the responsibility of developing and
upgrading the basic and advanced tourist
amenities at these sites as per their interest
and viability in terms of a sustainable
investment model under CSR and other
funds.
119. Consider the following statements about
Justice G. Rohini Commission:
1. The Commission was set up in 2015
under Article 340 of the Constitution.
2. It was tasked with sub-categorization of
the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) and
equitable distribution of benefits
reserved for them.
Which among the statements mentioned above
is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
 Justice G. Rohini Commission was set up on 2nd
October, 2017 under Article 340 of the
Constitution. It was tasked with sub-
categorisation of the Other Backward Classes
(OBCs) and equitable distribution of benefits
reserved for them.
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120. Consider the following statements about the  The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2021
Multi-State Cooperative Societies also proposes to decriminalise offences under
(Amendment) Bill, 2023: the Act and substitute them with penalties
1. The Multi-State Cooperative Societies (between ₹1 lakh and ₹50 lakh and continuing
(Amendment) Bill, 2023 amends the violations can attract an additional penalty of
Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, up to ₹1 crore) with no imprisonment. Users of
2014. codified traditional knowledge and AYUSH
2. The Bill seeks to establish a ‘Cooperative practitioners will be exempted from sharing
Election Authority’ with a view to benefits with local communities.
introducing electoral reforms in the
cooperative sector. 122. Consider the following statements about
Which among the statements mentioned above online games:
is/are incorrect? 1. Real money online games are where the
A. 1 only user deposits cash or kind with the
B. 2 only expectation of earning winnings on that
C. Both 1 and 2 deposit.
D. Neither 1 nor 2 2. Fantasy sports involves choosing real-life
Correct answer: A sports players and winning points based
Explanation: on players’ performance.
 The Multi-State Cooperative Societies Which among the statements mentioned above
(Amendment) Bill, 2023 amends the Multi- is/are incorrect?
State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002. The Bill a) 1 only
seeks to establish a ‘Cooperative Election b) 2 only
Authority’ with a view to introducing electoral c) Both 1 and 2
reforms in the cooperative sector. d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: D
121. Consider the following statements about the Explanation:
Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2021:  Real money online games are where the user
1. The Bill proposes to decriminalise deposits cash or kind with the expectation of
offences under the Act and substitute earning winnings on that deposit. The types of
them with penalties between ₹1 lakh and online gaming include:
₹50 lakh. i.E-sports (well-organized electronic sports
2. Users of codified traditional knowledge which include professional players) ex.
and AYUSH practitioners will be Chess
exempted from sharing benefits with ii.Fantasy sports (choosing real-life sports players
local communities. and winning points based on players’
Which among the statements mentioned above performance) ex. MPL cricket
is/are correct? iii.Skill-based (mental skill) ex. Archery Gamble
A. 1 only (based on random activity) ex. Playing
B. 2 only Cards, Rummy
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 123. Consider the following statements about the
Correct answer: C Vivad se Vishwas II (Contractual Disputes)
Explanation: scheme:

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 1. The Union Finance Ministry has come up equipment. It is a soft, ductile transition metal
with this scheme. which is resistant to corrosion due to the
2. The scheme will apply presence of an oxide layer on its surface.
to all domestic contractual
disputes where one of the 125. What is/are the most likely advantages of
parties is either the Government of India implementing Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
or an organisation working under 2017
its control. 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by
Which among the statements mentioned above multiple authorities and will thus create
is/are correct? a single market in India.
A. 1 only 2. It will drastically reduce the Current
B. 2 only Account Deficit of India and will enable it
C. Both 1 and 2 to increase its foreign exchange reserves
D. Neither 1 nor 2 3. It will enormously increase the growth
Correct answer: C and size of economy of India and will
Explanation: enable it to overtake China in the near
 The Union Finance Ministry has come up with a future.
draft scheme known as Vivad se Vishwas II Select the correct answer using the code given
(Contractual Disputes) scheme, with the aim of below
resolving pending disputes related to (a) 1 only
government contracts. The scheme will apply (b) 2 and 3 only
to all domestic contractual (c) 1 and 3 only
disputes where one of the (d) 1, 2 and 3
parties is either the Government of India or an Correct answer: A
organisation working under its control.
126. Which number will replace the question mark
124. Consider the following statements about (?) in the following number series
minerals: 25, 45, 73, 111, 161 ?
1. Niobium is used in the manufacturing of a) 246
MRI scanners and NMR equipment. b) 225
2. Lithium (Li) is sometimes also referred c) 232
as ‘Green gold’. d) 292
Which among the statements mentioned above Answer: b
is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: A
127. "Crime" is related to "punishment,". In the
Explanation:
same way, what is "Hard work" related to?
 Lithium (Li) is sometimes also referred
a) Rest
as ‘White gold’ due to its high demand for
b) Reward
rechargeable batteries, is a soft and silvery-
c) Challenge
white metal. Niobium is used in the
d) Procrastination
manufacturing of MRI scanners and NMR

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Answer: b
Explanation:
 First leads to second. Crime ensures
punishment .Similarly hard work leads to
Reward.]

130. In a code language AGENDA is coded as

128. In a family with the following relationships: C
2672214231 then how will DOMAIN be coded
is the father of L, L is the brother of G, G is the
in the same language?
daughter of D, M is the granddaughter of D.
a) 23151411817
and N is the father of M. What is the
b) 23151421818
relationship between N and L?
c) 23151418116
a) N is Uncle of L
d) 23151411814
b) N is Brother of L
Answer: d
c) N is Brother in Law of L
d) N is Grandfather of L
Answer: c

129. Anitha walks 40 m towards the north and 131. If 22nd January 2011 was a Saturday, then
then turns right and walks 60 m. Then she what was the day of the week on 23rd January
turns left and walks 50 m. After that she turns 2015?
right and walks 60 m. From there, she turns a) Friday
right and walks 130 m. Then she again turns b) Sunday
left and walks 80 m. She finally turns left and c) Thursday
walks 40 m. How far is she from her home d) Monday
now and in which direction with reference to Answer: a
her home?

a) 140 m, South
b) 200 m, East
c) 80 m, East
d) 100 m, West
Answer: b

132. Two statements are given a statement

followed by Three conclusions numbered I,II
and III. Assuming statements to be true then

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 consider the three conclusions together and 134. Who lives on the 5th floor?
decide which of them logically follows beyond a) Bhavya
a reasonable doubt from the information b) Swapna
given in the statement. c) Madhu
Statements: d) Anitha
All vegetables are plants Answer: c
All fruits are plants
Conclusions:
I.Some plants are vegetables
II.Some vegetables are fruits
III.No vegetable is fruit
a) All the conclusions follow
b) Conclusion I and either conclusion II or III
follow
c) Only conclusions I and II follow
d) Only conclusions I and III follow
Answer: b

135. In the following question, some part of the

sentence may have errors. Find out which part
Direction (133-134) : Seven people i.e. Anitha, of the sentence has an error and select the
Bhavya, Chandini, Divi, Hima, Madhu, and Swapna appropriate option. If a sentence is free from
live in a seven-floor building. The lowermost floor is error, select 'No error'.
numbered as 1, floor above it numbered as 2 so up to He was angry (1)/ on me for being late (2)/ to
the topmost floor is numbered as 7. All the the meeting. (3)/No Error (4)
information is not necessarily in the same order. a) 1
Hima lives on an odd numbered floor. Anitha lives b) 2
four floors below Swapna. Number of people living c) 3
above Anitha is the same as the number of people d) 4
living below Swapna. Bhavya lives just below Madhu. Answer: b
Chandini lives two floors above Madhu. Three people Explanation:
live between Madhu and Divi. He was angry with me for being late to the
meeting.
133. How many people are living between Chandini The preposition on is used to indicate the
and Hima? position of something or someone above and
a) Three touching another thing or person.
b) Two For example:
c) Four The book is on the table.
d) None of the above He put a hat on his head.
Answer: a She leaned on him for support.

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 The preposition with is used to indicate the
accompaniment, association, or connection of
something or someone. For example:
He went to the park with his friends.
She works with a multinational company.
He was angry with me for being late.
136. In the following question, some part of the
sentence may have errors. Find out which part
of the sentence has an error and select the
appropriate option. If a sentence is free from
error, select ‘No error’.
She is very good (1)/ in singing and dancing
(2)/ as well as painting. (3)/No Error (4)
Options:
a) 1 [Explanation:
b) 2 
c) 3 or customary character, practice, etc.; irregular;
d) 4 erratic; peculiar; odd. Odd means differing in
Answer: d
Explanation:
 The sentence is free from error and does not
need any correction. The sentence is
grammatically and semantically correct. The
preposition in is used to indicate the skill or
ability of someone or something.
For example:
She is very good in mathematics.
He excels in playing chess.
They are proficient in speaking English.
137. In the following question, the sentence given
with blank to be filled in with an appropriate
word. Select the correct alternative out of the
four and indicate it by selecting the
appropriate option.
The teacher was very impressed by the
student’s __________ essay on environmental
issues.
a) verbose
b) concise
c) obscure
d) redundant
Answer: b
Explanation:
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 To be concise means to express much in few
words, or to be brief and clear. This word fits
the context of the sentence, as the teacher was
very impressed by the student’s short and clear
essay on environmental issues
138. In the following question, out of the four
alternatives, select the word similar in
meaning to the word given.
Eccentric
a) Normal
b) Odd
c) Rational
d) Conventional
Answer : b
Eccentric means deviating from the recognized
nature from what is ordinary, usual, or
expected. Both words imply a sense of being
unusual or strange. The other options are not
similar in meaning to eccentric.
139. In the following question, out of the four
alternatives, select the word similar in
meaning to the word given.
Frugal
a) Wasteful
b) Extravagant
c) Thrifty
d) Lavish
Answer: c
Explanation:
 The word similar in meaning to the word frugal
is thrifty. Frugal means sparing or economical
with regard to money or food. Thrifty means
using money and other resources carefully and
not wastefully. Both words imply a sense of
being careful or prudent with one’s resources
140. In the following question, out of the four
alternatives, select the word opposite in
meaning to the word given.
Candid
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 45 )
 a) Frank says “Stop beating around the bush and tell me
b) Honest what you want”, it means that they are
c) Deceitful impatient with the other person’s indirect or
d) Sincere vague speech and want them to get to the
Answer : c point.
Explanation:
 The word candid means truthful and 143. In the following question, out of the four
straightforward, or frank. The word opposite in alternatives, select the alternative which best
meaning to candid is deceitful, which means expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
dishonest or misleading. To have a chip on one’s shoulder
a) To have a grudge or resentment against
141. In the following question, out of the four someone or something
alternatives, select the word opposite in b) To have a piece of wood or metal on
meaning to the word given. one’s clothing or body
Placid c) To have a lot of confidence or pride in
a) Calm oneself
b) Turbulent d) To have a small amount of money or
c) Peaceful resources
d) Serene Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation:
Explanation:  The correct answer is option a) To have a
 The word placid means not easily upset or grudge or resentment against someone or
excited, or calm and peaceful . The word something. The idiom “to have a chip on one’s
opposite in meaning to placid is turbulent, shoulder” means to have an angry or
which means characterized by conflict, unpleasant attitude or way of behaving caused
disorder, or confusion by a belief that one has been treated unfairly in
the past. It comes from the literal sense of
142. In the following question, out of the four placing a chip of wood on one’s shoulder,
alternatives, select the alternative which best challenging others to knock it off, as a sign of
expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. readiness for a fight. For example, if someone
To beat around the bush says “He has a chip on his shoulder about being
a) To avoid talking about the main point or passed over for promotion”, it means that he is
issue bitter and resentful about not getting the job
b) To hit someone or something repeatedly he wanted]
c) To wander aimlessly in a forest or jungle 144. In the following question, out of the four
d) To make a lot of noise or fuss alternatives, select the alternative which is the
Answer: a best substitute for the words/sentence.
Explanation: A feeling of intense happiness and excitement
 The idiom “to beat around the bush” means to a) Ecstasy
talk about irrelevant or trivial matters instead b) Melancholy
of addressing the main problem or question. It c) Apathy
comes from the literal sense of hitting the d) Desolation
bushes with a stick to scare out the birds or Answer: a
animals that are hiding inside, instead of going Explanation:
straight to the hunt. For example, if someone

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 The best substitute for the words “a feeling of
intense happiness and excitement” is ecstasy.
This word is derived from Greek and means
“standing outside oneself” or “literally”. It is
often used to describe a state of emotion so
intense that one is carried beyond rational
thought and self-control.
For example:
He felt a surge of ecstasy as he crossed the
finish line.
She was in ecstasy when she saw her favorite
band perform live.
They experienced a moment of ecstasy during
their meditation.
145. In the following question, out of the four
alternatives, select the alternative which is the
best substitute for the words/sentence.
Having or showing a strong or unreasoning
desire for revenge
a) Vindictive
b) Vengeful
c) Malicious
d) Spiteful
Answer: b
[Explanation:
 The best substitute for the words/sentence is
vengeful. Vengeful means seeking to harm
someone in return for a perceived injury.
Vindictive means having or showing a strong or
unreasoning desire for revenge, but it also
implies a tendency to bear a grudge or a desire
to punish someone. Malicious means intending
or intended to do harm , but it does not
necessarily imply a motive of revenge. Spiteful
means showing or caused by malice , but it also
suggests pettiness or meanness. Therefore,
vengeful is the most suitable word to describe
having or showing a strong or unreasoning
desire for revenge.
146. In the following question, four words are given
out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select
the correctly spelt word.
a) Acommodate
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b) Accommodate
c) Acomodate
d) Accomodate
Answer: b
[Explanation:
 The correctly spelt word is accommodate. It
means to provide with something desired,
needed, or suited; to make room for; to bring
into agreement or concord; or to adapt to
147. In the following question, a sentence has been
given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which
best expresses the same sentence in
Passive/Active voice.
The teacher praised him for his honesty.
a) He was praised by the teacher for his
honesty.
b) He praised the teacher for his honesty.
c) His honesty was praised by the teacher.
d) His honesty praised the teacher.
Answer: a
Explanation:
 He was praised by the teacher for his honesty.
This is because the sentence given in the
question is in the active voice, where the
subject (the teacher) performs the action
(praised) on the object (him). To convert it to
the passive voice, we need to make the object
(him) the subject of the sentence, and use the
past participle form of the verb (praised) with a
suitable form of the verb to be (was). The
original subject (the teacher) becomes the
agent of the action and is introduced by the
preposition by. The phrase for his honesty
remains unchanged as it modifies the subject.
Therefore, the passive voice of the sentence is
He was praised by the teacher for his honesty
148. In the following question, a sentence has been
given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which
best expresses the same sentence in
Indirect/Direct speech.
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 47 )
 She said to her friend, “I am going to the
library.”
a) She told her friend that she was going to
the library.
b) She told her friend that she is going to
the library.
c) She told her friend that I am going to the
library.
d) She told her friend that she had gone to
the library.
Answer: a
Explanation:
She told her friend that she was going to the library.
 This is because we have to change the tense of
the verb from present continuous to past
continuous, if the reporting verb is in past
tense. In this case, the reporting verb is “said”,
which is in past tense, so we have to change
“am” to “was”. We also have to keep the
pronoun as “she”, because it is the same
person who is speaking and being reported
149. In the following questions, the 1st and the last
sentences of the passage are numbered 1. and
6. The rest of the passage split into four parts
and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are
not giver in their proper order. Read the
sentence and find out which of the four
combinations is correct. Then find the correct
answer
1. The company is planning to launch a new
product next month.
P. Marketing teams are working on
strategies to promote it effectively.
Q. Customers' feedback has been taken into
consideration during the product
development phase.
R. A significant budget has been allocated
for the product launch campaign.
S. The competitors are closely watching the
company's moves in the market.
6. It is crucial for the company to stay
ahead of its rivals in this competitive
industry.
a) QSRP
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b) PQR
c) QRSP
d) PSRQ
Answer: d
Explanation:
The correct combination of parts to form a coherent
passage is option d) PSRQ
1. The company is planning to launch a new
product next month.
P. Marketing teams are working on
strategies to promote it effectively.
S. The competitors are closely watching the
company’s moves in the market.
R. A significant budget has been allocated
for the product launch campaign.
Q. Customers’ feedback has been taken into
consideration during the product
development phase.
6. It is crucial for the company to stay
ahead of its rivals in this competitive
industry.]
150. Given below are four jumbled sentences.
Select the option that gives their correct order.
A. The researchers found that the
participants who ate more than 50 grams
of chili per day had a 26% relative
reduction in cardiovascular mortality
compared to those who ate less than 6
grams per day.
B. Chili peppers are a common ingredient in
many cuisines, and they may also have
health benefits, according to a new
study.
C. “An interesting fact is that protection
from mortality risk was independent of
the type of diet people followed,” said
study co-author Licia Iacoviello, head of
the Laboratory of Molecular and
Nutritional Epidemiology at Neuromed.
D. The study, published in the Journal of the
American College of Cardiology, analyzed
data from more than 22,000 people in
Italy over an average of eight years.
a) BDAC
b) BADC
KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 48 )
 c) DABC who ate less than 6 grams per day. “An
d) DBAC interesting fact is that protection from
Answer: A mortality risk was independent of the type of
[Explanation: diet people followed,” said study co-author
The correct order of the sentences is BADC. Licia Iacoviello, head of the Laboratory of
 Chili peppers are a common ingredient in many Molecular and Nutritional Epidemiology at
cuisines, and they may also have health Neuromed]
benefits, according to a new study. The study,
published in the Journal of the American
College of Cardiology, analyzed data from more
than 22,000 people in Italy over an average of
eight years. The researchers found that the
participants who ate more than 50 grams of
chili per day had a 26% relative reduction in
cardiovascular mortality compared to those

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