Gs Test-1 Answer Key & Explanation

GS TEST-1
Answer Key & Explanation
Q1. Answer: (c)

Explanation: The use of burnt bricks in the Harappan cities is remarkable because in the
contemporary buildings of Egypt dried bricks were mainly used. Even though the use of
baked bricks in contemporary Mesopotamia was found, but in Harappan cities, they were
used to a much larger extent. So statement 3 is not correct.
The drainage system in almost all cities, every big or small house had its courtyard and
bathroom. Drains were covered with bricks and sometimes with stone slabs. The street
drains were equipped with manholes. The drainage system of Harappa is almost unique,
and perhaps no other civilisation gave so much attention to health and cleanliness as the
Harappans. So statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Therefore the right option is c.
Q2. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Harappans did not use metallic money neither they possessed necessary
raw materials for commodities they produced. They carried on their exchanges through
barter. They procured metals from neighbouring areas by boats and bullock-carts, in
return for finished goods and foodgrains. So statement 1 is incorrect.
They had commercial links with Rajasthan, Afghanistan and Iran. Harappans knew the
use of wheel and carts with solid wheels were in use in Harappa. It also appears that
Harappans used some type of modern ekkas. So statement 2 is also incorrect.
Hence, the right option is c.
Q3. Answer: (b)

Explanation: In Harappa, number of terracotta figurines of women have been found. In a
terracotta figurine discovered at Harappa, a plant is shown growing out of the embryo of a
woman. Probably the image represented goddess of earth and was intimately connected
with the origin and growth of plants. The Harappans looked upon earth as a fertility
goddess and worshipped her in the same manner as the Egyptians worshipped the Nile
Goddess Isis. So statement 1 is incorrect.
The inhabitants of Indus Valley Civilization worshipped gods in the form of trees, animals
and human beings. Most important animal worshipped was the humped bull, represented
on seals. But Harappans did not keep gods in temple, a practice which was common in
ancient Egypt and Mesopotamia. So statement 2 is correct. No massive work of art in
stone has been found as compared to the sculpture of ancient Egypt and Mesopotamia.
So the statement is true.
Therefore the right answer option is (b).
Q4. Answer: (b)

Explanation: On their way to India, Aryans first appeared in Iran, here the Indo-Iranians
lived for a long time. The swiftness of horses enabled Aryans to make successful inroads
into Western Asia from 2000 BC onwards. Although the Aryans used several animals, the
horse played the most significant role in their life. Moreover, since they did not lead a
Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 1

NCERTs - Indian Polity and History
settled life, horses played a vital role in moving swiftly to new areas for pasturelands.
Therefore statement 1 is not correct.
Rigveda is the earliest specimen of the Indo-European language. Mitanni inscriptions of
the fourteenth century BC gives evidence that a branch of Aryans moves east from Iran.
So statement 2 is correct. Avesta and Rigveda use same names for several gods and
even for social classes. Thus statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the right option is b.
Q5. Answer: (b)

Explanation: In the later Vedic period, collection of taxes and tributes was deposited with
an officer named sangrihitri. So statement (a) is not correct.
In Rigveda, Indra is called Purandhara, which means breaker of the fort. According to
Rigveda, Indra defeated many adversaries. The success of Aryans came because the
Aryans possessed chariots driven by horses and introduced them for the first time into
West Asia and India. Their soldiers were equipped with better arms. So statement b is
correct.
Aryan people possessed a better knowledge of agriculture. Ploughshare is mentioned in
the earliest part of Rigveda. Possibly this ploughshare was made of wood. They were
acquainted with sowing, harvesting and thrashing. So statement c is not correct.
There are many references to the cow in the Rigveda which proves that Aryans were
pastoral people. Most of their wars were fought for the sake of cows. The term for war in
Rigveda is Gavisthi or search of cows. Cows and women slaves were given as gifts to
priests and never in terms of measurement of land. So statement d is not correct.
Therefore right option is b
Q6. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Mahavira attained perfect knowledge of Kaivalya, at the age of 42. Through
Kaivalya, he conquered misery and happiness. Because of this conquest, he is called
Mahavira or jaina, i.e. the conqueror and his followers are called Jainas. So statement (a)
is not correct. Jainas recognized the existence of the gods but placed them lower than the
jina. So statement c is not correct.
Jainas did not condemn the varna system as Buddhism did. According to Mahavira, a
person is born in a high or in lower varna in consequence of the sins of the virtues
acquired by him in the previous birth. In his opinion, through pure and meritorious life
members of the lower castes can attain liberation. So statement d is not correct.
Buddhism and Jainism were against Brahmanic domination and therefore disputed the
authority of Brahmanas. So statement b is correct.
Q7. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Buddhism does not recognise the existence of god and soul, which was a
revolution in the history of Indian religions. It won the support of the lower orders as it
attacked the varna system. Women were also admitted to the sangha and thus brought on
par with men. So statement 1 is correct.
Embracing of Buddhism by Mauryan ruler Ashoka was an epoch-making event as he sent
missions to Central Asia, West Asia and Sri Lanka and thus transformed it into a world
religion. But it has to be noticed that not all rulers of Mauryan dynasty were Buddhists.

Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Mauryan empire, embraced Jainism. So
statement 2 is not correct.
Hence, the right option is a.
Q8. Answer: (d)

Explanation: The formation of the Magadhan state was work of several ambitious rulers
such as Bimbisara, Ajatashtru and Mahapadma Nanda, who employed all means, fair and
foul at their disposal to enlarge their kingdoms and to strengthen their states. So
statement 4 is not correct.
Magadha was located on the upper and lower parts of the Gangetic valley. It was located
on the mainland route between west and east India. Both Rajgir and Pataliputra were
located in strategic positions. So statement 2 is correct.
The area had fertile soil. It also received enough rainfall. Magadha was encircled by rivers
on three sides, the Ganga, Son and Champa making the region impregnable to enemies.
So statement 3 is correct.
Magadha had huge copper and iron deposits. Because of its location, it could easily
control trade. Availability of iron enabled them to develop advanced weaponry. They were
also the first kings to use elephants in the army. So statement 1 is correct.
Therefore the right answer option is d.
Q9. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Within the Mauryan empire, it was not Chandragupta Maurya, but Ashoka
who appointed a class of officers known as the Rajukas. These officers were vested with
the authority of not only rewarding people but also punishing them, wherever necessary.
Therefore statement 2 is incorrect.
Ashoka’s inscriptions were engraved on rocks, polished stone pillars mounted by capitals
and in the caves. They are found in Indian subcontinent and Kandahar in Afghanistan.
These inscriptions are in the form of 44 royal orders and each royal order has several
copies. So statement 1 is correct.
Therefore the right answer option is b.
Q10. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Ancient Indian society was not a slave society. What slaves did in Greece
and Rome was done by Shudras in India. Shudras were compelled to serve the three
higher varnas as slaves, artisans, agricultural labourers and domestic servants. Therefore
statement b is incorrect.
The Mauryan state maintained farms on which numerous slaves and hired labourers were
employed. So statement (a) is correct. Domestic slaves were found in India from Vedic
times onwards, even though Megasthenes states that he did not notice any slaves in
India. So statement c is correct.
Q11. Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect as Samaharta in the Mauryan administration was the highest
officer-in-charge of assessment, and sannidhata was chief custodian of the state treasury
and store-house. Mauryas attached greater important to assessment than to storage and
depositing.

Statement 2 was one of the financial causes of the downfall of the Mauryan Empire.
Despite all kinds of taxes imposed on the people, it was difficult to maintain the large army
and large regiment of the officer. So statement 2 is correct.
Ashoka also made large grants to the Buddhist monks which left the royal treasury empty.
Brahmanical reaction, oppressive rule at provinces, neglect of North-West Frontier were
some of the other reasons of downfall of the empire.
Q12. Answer: (a)

Explanation: As per Megasthenes, the Pandya kingdom was ruled by a woman, which
suggests that the Pandya society was matriarchal and not patriarchal. Therefore
statement 2 is incorrect.
The Pandya kingdom had its capital at Madurai and was wealthy and prosperous. The
Pandya kings profited from trade with the Roman empire and sent embassies to the
Roman emperor Augustus. The chief centre of the political power of Cholas lay at Uraiyur
which was famous for cotton trade and for the Pandya it was Madurai. Therefore,
Therefore option a is the only correct option.
Q13. Answer: (a)

Explanation: In north India, Indo-Greek rulers issued a few gold coins. But the Kushans
issued gold coins in large numbers. However, it is wrong to think that all Kushan gold
coins were minted out of Roman gold. As early as fifth century BC, India had paid a tribute
of 320 talents of gold to the Iranian empire. This gold may have been extracted from gold
mines in Sindh. The Kushans probably obtained gold from Central Asia. They may also
have procured it either from Karnataka or from gold mines of Dhalbhum in South Bihar
which later came under their rule. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as cloth-making, silk weaving made great progress during Post
Maurya period. Therefore option a is the right option.
Q14. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Samudragupta was called as Napolean of India by historians. However, it
was in Chandragupta II’s time that Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien (399-414) visited India and
wrote an elaborate account of the life of its people. Therefore statement 2 is incorrect.
The growing practice of land grants to priests, for religious and other purposes, reduced
revenues of Gupta empire in the long run. Attacks of Hunas and dwindling foreign trade
with the Roman empire further hastened the decline of the Gupta empire. Both
statements 1 and 3 are correct.
So option (a) is the correct option.
Q15. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Kalidasa and Amarsimha were luminaries in the court of Chandragupta II.
So statement d is correct. In the Gupta period, land taxes increased in number and those
on trade and commerce decreased. Kings collected taxes varying from one-fourth to one-
sixth of the produce. Apart from that, peasants had to supply foodgrains, animals when
the royal army passed. In some parts of the country, forced labour was also practised. So
statement (a) is incorrect.

Gupta empire was divided into bhuktis (divisions), vishayas (districts), vithis and villages.
Each bhukti was under the charge of an uparika. The bhuktis were divided into districts
(vishayas) which were placed under charge of vishayapati. Vishayas were divided into
vithis and which were again divided into villages. Therefore statement b is incorrect.
Buddhism no longer received royal patronage in the Gupta period, although Fa-Hien gives
the impression that this religion was very flourishing. Especially it suffered in Magadha.
Brahmanism had gained prominence, Vishnu and Siva commanded large followership. So
statement c is not correct.
Hence, the correct option is d.
Q16. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Most famous centre of Buddhism during Harsha's age was Nalanda, which
taught Buddhist philosophy of Mahayana. Therefore, statement d is incorrect.
The early history of Harsha’s rule is reconstructed from a study of Banabhatta, who was
his court poet and who wrote a book called Harshacharita. This can be supplemented by
the account of the Chinese pilgrim Hsuan Tsang who visited India in the seventh century
AD and stayed in the country for about 15 years. So statement a and c are correct.
Harsha continued land grants to priests and gave land grants to officers also, which
further made his empire more feudal and decentralised. So statement b is correct.
Q17. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Epigraphs between 2nd century BC and third century AD were mostly
written in Prakrit. The Brahmi inscriptions found in Tamil Nadu also contain Prakrit words.
From about 400 AD, Sanskrit became the official language in the peninsula and most
charters were composed in it. So statement 1 is incorrect.
Aihole inscription is an example of poetic excellence reached in Sanskrit language, it was
issued by Ravikirti, the court poet of Pulakesin II. So statement 2 is correct.
Therefore option b is the right option.
Q18. Answer: (d)

Explanation: The Indian culture spread to South-east Asia, but not through the medium
of Buddhism. Except in the case of Burma, it was mostly diffused through the Brahmanical
cults. Pallavas founded their colonies in Sumatra, which later flourished into the kingdom
of Sri Vijaya. So statement 2 is not correct.
In Indo-China, Indians set up two powerful kingdoms in Kamboja (Cambodia) and
Champa (Vietnam). Ruler of Kamboja was a devotee of Siva and developed kingdom as a
centre of Sanskrit learning. The King of Champa was a Saiva and Sanksit was its official
language. So statement 3 is not correct.
Statement 1 is correct, so the right option is d.
Q19. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Hoards of jewellery found at Mohenjodaro and Lothal include necklaces of
gold and semi-precious stones, copper bracelets and beads, gold earrings and head
ornaments, faience pendants and buttons, and beads of steatite and gemstones. All
ornaments are well crafted.
Beads were made of cornelian, amethyst, jasper, crystal, quartz, steatite, turquoise,
lapis lazuli, etc. Metals like copper, bronze and gold, and shell, faience and terracotta or

burnt clay were also used for manufacturing beads. The beads are found in varying
shapes and sizes. Hence, statement 1 is correct
The bead industry seems to have been well developed as evident from the factories
discovered at Chanhudaro and Lothal. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Q20. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Some of the essential findings of the Indus Valley Civilisation is as follows:
 The Bronze Bull: Kalibangan
 The copper dog and bird: Lothal
 The Dancing Girl and the Bearded Priest: Mohenjo-Daro.
 The Pashupati Seal: Mohenjo-Daro
 The Mother Goddess and Bull Statues: Kot Diji
Extra Information: The art of bronze-casting was practised on a wide scale by the
Harappans. Their bronze statues were made using the ‘lost wax’ technique in which the
wax figures were first covered with a coating of clay and allowed to dry. Then the wax was
heated, and the molten wax was drained out through a tiny hole made in the clay cover.
The hollow mould thus created was filled with molten metal which took the original shape
of the object. Once the metal cooled, the clay cover was completely removed.
Q21. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
A stupa consists of the following parts:
 The stupa consists of a hemispherical dome (anda)
 A harmika and chhatra on the top.
 The circumambulatory path (pradakshinapatha), with railings and sculptural decoration
 Torans were ceremonial gateways around the stupas.
The events from the life of the Buddha, the Jataka stories, were depicted on the
railings and torans of the stupas. Mainly synoptic narrative, continuous narrative and
episodic narrative are used in the pictorial tradition. The main events associated with the
Buddha’s life which were frequently depicted were events related to the birth,
renunciation, enlightenment, Dhammachakrapravartana, and Mahaparinibbana (death).
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Some Important stupas in India are found in Sanchi, Sarnath, Amravati and Bharhut.
The Sanchi Stupa was built by Emperor Ashoka (Maurya Dynasty) in the 3rd Century BCE
and was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1989. (Not during Gupta period). So,
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Q22. Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Ajanta Caves is located in Aurangabad District of Maharashtra State
and has twenty-nine caves and four Chaitya caves. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.
It has large chaitya viharas and is decorated with sculptures and paintings. Ajanta is the
only surviving example of painting of the first century BCE and the fifth century CE. The
caves at Ajanta as well as in western Deccan, in general, have no precise chronology
because of the lack of known dated inscriptions. Their facade is decorated with Buddha
and, Bodhisattva images, the biggest one being the Mahaparinibbana image. So,
Statement 2 is correct.

Q23. Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram was built during the reign of
Narshimhavarman II.
In the eleventh century, when the Cholas reached their zenith of power, the masterpieces
of Chola art and architecture began to appear. The temples of Brihadeswara at Thanjavur,
Gangaikonda Cholapuram and Darasuram were built during the reigns of Rajaraja Chola
and his son, Rajendra Chola. Hence Option 1 and 2 are correct.
Kulothunga Chola III commissioned the Sarabeswara or Kampahareswara temple at
Tribhuvanam near Kumbakonam which is considered a great specimen of Dravidian
Architecture. So, option 3 is incorrect.
Some of the key features of the Chola temples:
 Dravidian Style of architecture
 Principal deity: Lord Shiva and was placed in the garbagriha.
 Use of miniature Gods and goddesses and dvarapalas.
Q24. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Nagara style of temple architecture is popular in northern India. So,
Unlike Dravida Style (in South India) it does not usually have elaborate boundary walls or
gateways. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
There are many subdivisions of Nagara temples depending on the shape of the Shikhara.
 The simple shikhara which is square at the base and whose walls curve or slope
inward to a point on top is called the 'latina' or the rekha-prasada type of shikhara.
 The second major type of architectural form in the nagara order is the phamsana.
Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than latina ones.
 The third main sub-type of the nagara building is what is generally called the valabhi
type. These are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber.
Therefore, statement 3 is correct.
Q25. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Most of the information about Nalanda is based on the records of Xuan
Zang—previously spelt as ‘Hsuan-tsang’— which states that the foundation of a
monastery was laid by Kumargupta I in the fifth century CE. So, Statement 1 Is
Incorrect.
There is evidence that all three Buddhist doctrines— Theravada, Mahayana and
Vajrayana were taught here and monks made their way to Nalanda and its neighbouring
sites of Bodh Gaya and Kurkihar from China, Tibet and Central Asia in the north. The
Nalanda sculptures initially depict Buddhist deities of the Mahayana sect. So, Statement
2 is incorrect.
The sculptural art of Nalanda, in stucco, stone and bronze, developed out of heavy
dependence on the Buddhist Gupta art of Sarnath. By the ninth century, a synthesis
occurred between the Sarnath Gupta idiom, the local Bihar tradition, and that of
central India, leading to the formation of the Nalanda School of sculpture
characterised by distinctive facial features, body forms and treatment of clothing and
jewellery. Thus, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q26. Answer: (a)
Explanation: Kerala Murals - Kerala painters (during the period from the sixteenth to the
eighteenth century) evolved a pictorial language and technique of their own while
discriminately adopting certain stylistic elements from Nayaka and Vijayanagara schools.
The painters evolved a language taking cues from contemporary traditions like
Kathakali and kalam ezhuthu using vibrant and luminous colours, representing
human figures in three-dimensionality. Most of the paintings are seen on the walls of
shrines and cloister walls of temples and some inside palaces. Thematically too, paintings
from Kerala stand apart. Most of the narrations are based on those episodes from Hindu
mythology which were popular in Kerala. The artist seems to have derived sources from
oral traditions and local versions of the Ramayana and the Mahabharata for painted
narration.
More than sixty sites have been found with mural paintings which include three palaces—
Dutch palace in Kochi, Krishnapuram palace in Kayamkulam and Padmanabhapuram
Palace. Among the sites where one can see the mature phase of Kerala’s mural painting
tradition are Pundareekapuram Krishna temple, Panayanarkavu, Thirukodithanam,
Triprayar Sri Rama temple and Trissur Vadakkunathan temple.
Q27. Answer: (d)

Explanation: The rock-cut cave tradition also existed in Odisha. The earliest examples
are the Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves in the vicinity of Bhubaneswar. These caves are
scattered and have inscriptions of Kharavela kings. According to the inscriptions, the
caves were meant for Jain monks. There are numerous single-cell excavations. Some
have been carved in huge independent boulders and given the shape of animals. Hence,
Both Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Q28. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Initially the Chaitya and Vihara architecture was concerned with the
wooden architecture, but over time, the rock-cut caves came into prominence. So,
Chaityas are the prayer halls while Viharas are the dwelling place for the monks. So,
Extra Information:
A square mandapa was constructed inside the cave, which was surrounded by the
dwelling places for the monks. The Chaityas belonging to 200 BC-200 AD are mainly
related to Hinayana Buddhism. Bhaja, Kondane, Pitalkhora, Ajanta (9th – 10th caves),
Beda, Nasik and Karle caves are the examples such architecture. There is a lack of image
sculpture and these caves mostly contain the simple stupas.
Q29. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Shramana was an ancient Indian religious movement with origins in the
Vedic religion. However, it took a divergent path, rejecting Vedic Hindu ritualism and the
authority of the Brahmins—the traditional priests of the Hindu religion. The Sramana
movement gave rise to Jainism and Buddhism. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The worship of Yakshas and mother goddesses were prevalent before and after the
advent of Buddhism, it was assimilated in Buddhism and Jainism. So, multiple forms

of worship existed. Nevertheless, Buddhism became the most popular social and religious
movement. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Q30. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Archaeologists have discovered thousands of seals usually made of
steatite, faience and terracotta with beautiful figures of animals like the unicorn, tiger,
goat, buffalo, elephant etc. Every seal is engraved in a pictographic script which is yet to
be deciphered. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The most remarkable seal is the one depicted with a figure in the centre and animals
around. This seal is generally identified as the Pashupati Seal by some scholars. This seal
depicts a human figure seated cross-legged. An elephant and a tiger are depicted to the
right side of the seated figure, while on the left a rhinoceros and a buffalo are seen
(Figure of the cow was not there). In addition to these animals, two antelopes are
shown below the seat. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Q31. Answer: (b)

Explanation: An important cave site located in Aurangabad District is Ellora. It is located
a hundred kilometres from Ajanta. It is a unique art-historical site in the country as it has
monasteries associated with the three religions (Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism) dating
from the fifth century CE onwards to the eleventh century CE. So, Statement 1 is
incorrect.
The Elephanta Caves located near Mumbai were originally a Buddhist site which was later
dominated by the Shaivite faith. It is contemporary with Ellora, and its sculptures show
slenderness in the body, with stark light and dark effects. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Q32. Answer: (d)

Explanation: The first century CE onwards, Gandhara ( Pakistan), Mathura (North
India) and Vengi in Andhra Pradesh emerged as important centres of art production.
Buddha in the symbolic form got a human form in Mathura and Gandhara. The sculptural
tradition in Gandhara had the confluence of Bactria, Parthia and the local Gandhara
tradition. The local sculptural tradition at Mathura became so strong that the tradition
spread to other parts of northern India. The best example in this regard is the Stupa
sculptures found at Sanghol in Punjab.
Vengi is a town in present-day Andhra Pradesh, and one of the places where Amravati
School of Art flourished. It is characterised by intense emotions as the figures are slim,
have a lot of movement, and bodies are shown with three bents (i.e. Tribhanga).
Therefore, all options are correct.
Q33. Answer: (a)

Explanation: According to this Act, India would become a federation if 50% of Indian
states decided to join it. They would then have a large number of representatives in the
two houses of the central legislature. However, the provisions with regards to the
federation were not implemented. The act made no reference even to granting dominion
status, much less independence, to India. The act provided for the establishment of a
“Federation of India” to be made up of both British India and some or all of the princely
states. So statement (a) is incorrect.

Concept of provincial autonomy was given in place of dyarchy, as given in GOI act, 1919.
So statement b is correct.
But still elected representatives could be checked by the Governor, who can use veto
power in legislation and administration for safeguarding British business interests. So
statement c is correct. Dyarchy was introduced at the central level, where defence and
foreign affairs remained outside the control of the legislature. So statement d is correct.
Q34. Answer: (a)

Explanation: With the launching of the Quit India Movement and not the Civil
Disobedience Movement, the Congress made no distinction between British India and the
Indian States and call for the struggle was extended to the people of the states. So
statement 3 is incorrect. The first conference of All India States’ People’s Conference was
held in 1927 to coordinate political activities in the different states. So statement 1 is
correct.
British used princes to prevent the growth of national unity. In the Government of India
Act, 1935, the federal structure was so planned as to check forces of nationalism. Princes
were given two-fifth of seats in Upper house and one-third of the seats in the Lower
House, in the proposed federal structure of Government of India Act, 1935. So statement
2 is correct.
Hence the correct answer is option a.
Q35. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Nagpur was annexed in 1854, Satara in 1848, Sambalpur in 1849, Balaghat
in 1850, and Jhansi in 1853 under the doctrine of lapse. The Doctrine of Lapse was an
annexation policy followed widely by Lord Dalhousie when he was India’s Governor-
General from 1848 to 1856. According to this, any princely state under the direct or
indirect (as a vassal) control of the East India Company where the ruler did not have a
legal male heir would be annexed by the company. Nana Sahib and the Rani of Jhansi
had grievances against the British because the former’s pension was stopped by the
British after his foster father died, and the Rani’s adopted son was denied the throne
under the doctrine of lapse.
Q36. Answer: (a)

Explanation: The British Parliament renewed the charter of the East India Company in
1813, it had required the Company to spend 100,000 rupees per year for the introduction
and promotion of knowledge of the modern sciences. However, it was only under the
English Education Act of 1835 that put into effect the decision to reallocate the funds to
the East India Company to spend on education and literature in India. So statement a is
incorrect and statement b is correct.
Charles Wood, the President of the Board of Control of the English East India Company,
had a great impact on disseminating education in India when in 1854 he sent a despatch
to Lord Dalhousie, the then Governor-General of India and suggested that Primary
Schools must adopt vernacular languages. He also suggested that high schools use
Anglo-Vernacular Medium and that English should be the medium for college-level
education. So statement c is correct.

The Government of India devoted only about one crore of rupees to education out of its
total net revenue of nearly 47 crores till 1886. The government was never willing to spend
more than a scanty sum on education. So statement d is correct
Q37. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Sayyid Ahmad Khan, towards the end of his life, discouraged his followers
to join the rising national movement. He only wanted the backwardness of the Muslim
middle and upper class to go. So statement 2 is incorrect. He was basically not a
communalist. He supported Dadabhai Naoroji and Surendranath Banerjee in obtaining
representation for Indians in the government and the civil services. So statement 3 is
correct. He believed that Muslim society could move ahead only if rigid orthodoxy was
abandoned and pragmatism was adopted. So statement 1 is correct.
Q38. Answer: (c)

Explanation: For the first time, Warren Hastings tried to introduce the land settlement in
1772 but in 1776, he adopted annual settlement. Lord Cornwallis started permanent
settlement system of land revenue in 1790. In this sense, Lord Cornwallis is said to have
completed the work of Warren Hastings. Sir John Shore assisted Lord Cornwallis in
adopting this land settlement. Under this settlement, Zamindars were recognized as the
owners of the land. They could remain as such so long they were paying rent prescribed.
Lord Cornwallis did not intend to teach a lesson to the peasants with this system but
wanted to realize the rent. Therefore statement 4 is incorrect, rest of the statements
are correct.
So right option is c
Q39. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Surendranath Banerjea and many other leaders of Bengal had not attended
the first session of the National Congress as they were busy with the Second National
Conference at Calcutta.
INC met in Calcutta in December 1886 under the president-ship of Dadabhai Naoroji.
Surendranath Banerjee founded the Indian National Association. He was elected the
Congress President in 1895 at Poona and in 1902 at Ahmedabad. So statement b is not
correct.
The first session of the Indian National Congress was held at Gokul Singh Tejpal Sanskrit
School, Bombay in December 1885. It was presided over by W.C. Banerjee and attended
by 72 delegates. So statement (a) is correct.
Dada Bhai Naoroji, who is known as Grand Old Man of India, organised the East India
association in 1866 in London to discuss the Indian matters and to influence British people
to promote Indian Welfare. So statement c is correct.
The first Muslim president of the Indian National Congress party was Badruddin Tyabji,
who along with Pherozeshah Mehta, K.T. Telang, and others formed the Bombay
presidency association in 1885. So statement d is correct.
Q40. Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Indian National Congress had the following aims and objectives when it
was established:

• Inculcate a feeling of national unity and try to eradicate the notion of race, creed and
provincial prejudices.
• Seek the co-operation of all the Indians in its efforts and allow them to take part in the
administrative affairs of the country.
• Find a solution to the social problems of the country.
• Real Aim of Congress was to train the Indian youth in political agitation and to
organise or to create public opinion in the country. For this, they used the method of
an annual session where they discussed the problem and passed the resolution.
Q41. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Olcott was its first president, and remained president until his demise in
1907. After a few years, Olcott and Blavatsky moved to India and established the
International Headquarters at Adyar, in Madras (now Chennai). Secret Doctrine, is a book
written by Helena Blavatsky. So statement 1 is correct.
The Theosophical Society movement in India tended to give the Indians a sense of false
pride in their past greatness though this movement was not very success within India or
outside of India. So statement 3 is incorrect.
So the right option is a.
Q42. Answer: (d)

Explanation: The Al-Hilal newspaper by Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad and The Comrade
newspaper by Maulana Mohammad Ali were shut down by the British Government under
the Press Act of 1914. So statement 2 is incorrect. Tilak was released from jail in 1914
and set out to unify two-stream of members of Congress. Jinnah and Tilak believed at that
time that India could win self- government only through Hindu-Muslim unity. So statement
3 is correct. So the right option is d.
Q43. Answer: (b)

Explanation: It was more commonly called the Morley-Minto Reforms after the Secretary
of State for India John Morley and the Viceroy of India, the 4th Earl of Minto. What the
people of India demanded was that there should be set up a responsible government in
the country. But the sacred heart of the reforms of 1909 was “benevolent despotism” and
it was basically a subtle attempt to create a “constitutional autocracy”. Reforms were
never designed to democratize Indian administration. So statement b is incorrect.
Q44. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Most of the plans of the Gadarites either failed or were foiled by the British
agents and by the end of February 1915, most of the Ghadar activists were taken
captives. The Special Tribunal prosecuted the Ghadarites. As many as 46 including Kartar
Singh Sarabha and Vishnu Ganesh Pingle were given death sentences, 69 were
imprisoned for life and 125 were given varying terms of imprisonment. Thus it can be said
that The Ghadar Movement failed to generate an effective and sustained leadership which
was capable of integrating the various aspects of the movements. So statement 1 is
correct.
The Ghadrites consciously set out to create a secular consciousness among the Punjabis.
No discussion or debate was to take place on religion within the organisation. Religion

was considered a personal matter and that it had no place in the organisation. So
Q45. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Separate electorates for Muslims which were started under Morley-Minto
Reforms, 1909 were continued. So statement 2 is correct. The governor was the
executive head of the provincial government. The subjects were classified into two lists –
reserved and transferred. The reserved list was under the governor and the councillors
and the transferred list was under the ministers. Ministers could not overrule Governor in
provinces, So statement 4 is correct, therefore the correct option is d
Q46. Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Chamber of Princes was an institution established by a Royal
Proclamation of the King-Emperor to provide a forum in which the rulers of the Indian
princely states could voice their needs and aspirations to the government of British India.
According to the recommendations of Montford Reforms (1921), a Chamber of Princes
(Narendra Mandal) was set up as a consultative and advisory body having no say in the
internal affairs of individual states and having no powers to discuss matters concerning
existing rights and freedoms. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Q47. Answer: (c)

Explanation: The movement gave the slogans ‘Quit India’ or ‘Bharat Chodo’. Gandhi
gave the slogan to the people – ‘Do or die’. The failure of the Cripps Mission to guarantee
any kind of a constitutional remedy to India’s problems also led to the INC calling for a
mass civil disobedience movement. The chief areas of the movement were UP, Bihar,
Maharashtra, Midnapore and Karnataka. The movement lasted till 1944. During the Quit
India Movement, Parallel governments were formed in various parts of the country in
Balia, Satara and Tamluk, but not in Mirzapur, so correct answer is option c
Q48. Answer: (c)

Explanation: The outbreak of the First World War in 1914 gave a new lease of life to the
nationalist movement since Britain's difficulty was seen as India's opportunity by the
revolutionaries. This opportunity was seized, in different ways and with varying success,
by the Ghadar revolutionaries based in North America. After the outbreak of World War-I,
Ghadar Party members returned to Punjab and in 1915, they conducted revolutionary
activities in central Punjab and organised uprisings. So statement 3 is incorrect.
Q49. Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Swaraj Party won 42 out of 104 seats to the Central Legislature in
1923. Swarajist Vithalbhai Patel became speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly in
1925. They outvoted the government many times even in matters related to budgetary
grants. The Swarajists stated that to participate in the legislative councils under the British
rule, was necessary to fill the concurrent temporary political gap after the Non-cooperation
Movement and to keep up the morale of the politicized Indian. So statement c is not
correct. Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru resigned from their offices in the All India
National Congress to constitute Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party so statement (a) is
correct.

Q50. Answer: (d)
Explanation: The commission submitted its report in 1930. So statement 1 is incorrect.
Noting that the educated Indians opposed the Simon Commission Report, the British
government decided that before the publication of the report, the Indian opinion would be
taken into account. So statement 2 is also not true.
The correct answer is option (d).
Q51. Answer: (a)

Explanation: The 24-day march lasted from 12 March 1930 to 6 April 1930 as a direct
action campaign of tax resistance and nonviolent protest against the British salt monopoly.
Instead of choosing the direct route from Ahmedabad to Dandi, Gandhiji chose to pass
through areas which were under British India to avoid discomfort to the princely rulers of
that area. So statement 3 is incorrect.
Lord Irwin was the British Viceroy during Salt Satyagraha or Civil Disobedience
Movement, so statement 4 is incorrect. So the right answer is (a) as both statements
1 and 2 are correct.
Q52. Answer: (d)

Explanation:
The first function of a Constitution is to provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal
coordination amongst members of society. It specifies the necessary allocation of power
in a society. It decides who gets to determine what the laws will be. In principle, this

question, who gets to decide, can be answered in many ways: in a monarchical
constitution, a monarch decides; Statements a, b and c are correct, whereas statement
d is incorrect as in some Constitutions like the old Soviet Union, one single party was
given the power to decide. However, generally, in democratic constitutions, the people get
to decide.
Q53. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Options 1 and 3 are correct.
 US Constitution - Power of Judicial Review and independence of the judiciary.
 British Constitution - Institution of the Speaker and his role in Lawmaking
procedure
Option 2 is incorrect.
Provisions related to Lawmaking procedure is not borrowed from the Australian
Constitution.
Q54. Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Indian Constitution does not make ethnic identity a criterion for
citizenship. Most importantly, a Constitution expresses the fundamental identity of a
people. This means the people as a collective entity comes into being only through the
fundamental Constitution. It is by agreeing to a basic set of norms about how one should
be governed, and who should be governed that one forms a collective identity.
In most countries, ‘Constitution’ is a compact document that comprises several articles,
specifying how the state is to be constituted and what norms it should follow. However,
some countries, like the United Kingdom, do not have one single document that can be
called the Constitution. Instead, they have a series of documents and decisions that,
taken collectively, are referred to as the Constitution, so the Constitution of UK is
considered as an unwritten Constitution.
Q55. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly along the lines suggested by the Plan
proposed by the Committee of the British Cabinet, known as the Cabinet Mission.
According to this plan:
 Each Province and each Princely State or group of States were allotted seats
proportional to their respective population roughly in the ratio of 1:10,00,000. As a
result, the Provinces (that were under direct British rule) were to elect 292 members
while the Princely States were allotted a minimum of 93 seats.
 The seats in each Province were distributed among the three central communities,
Muslims, Sikhs and general, in proportion to their respective populations.
 Members of each community in the Provisional Legislative Assembly elected their
representatives by the method of proportional representation with a single transferable
vote.
 The method of selection in the case of representatives of Princely States was to be
determined by consultation.

In the Constituent Assembly only one provision of the Constitution was passed
without virtually any debate: the introduction of universal suffrage (meaning that all
citizens reaching a certain age would be entitled to become voters irrespective of religion,
caste, education, gender or income). So, while the members felt no need at all to discuss
the issue of who should have the right to vote, every other matter was seriously discussed
and debated.
The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by indirect election by the
members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. The members to the Provincial
Legislative Assemblies had been elected in early January 1946.
Q56. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Indian Constitution has borrowed following features from the Canadian
Constitution - A quasi-federal form of government (a federal system with a strong central
government) and the idea of Residual Powers. First Past the Post, Parliamentary Form of
Government, The idea of the rule of law, Institution of the Speaker and his role and
Lawmaking procedure has been borrowed from the British Constitution. So only 4 and 5
are taken from the Canadian Constitution. So the correct option is (c).
Q57. Answer: (c)

Explanation: As a consequence of the Partition under the plan of 03 June 1947, those
members who were elected from territories which fell under Pakistan ceased to be
members of the Constituent Assembly. The numbers in the Assembly were reduced to
299 of which 284 were present on 26 November 1949 and appended their signature to the
Constitution as finally passed. So statement a is not correct.
Even though the Indian Constitution was framed against the backdrop of the horrendous
violence that the Partition unleashed on the sub-continent, the Constitution was committed
to a new conception of citizenship, where not only would minorities be secure, but
religious identity would have no bearing on citizenship rights. So statement b is
incorrect.
In terms of political parties, the Congress dominated the Assembly occupying as many as
eighty-two per cent of the seats in the Assembly after the Partition. So statement d is
incorrect.
The Assembly had twenty-six members from what was then known as the Scheduled
Classes. So the only correct statement is c.
Q58. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Two principles dominate the various procedures of amending the
Constitutions in most modern countries. One is the principle of a special majority. For
instance, the Constitutions of the U.S., South Africa, Russia, India etc. have employed this
principle. In the case of the Constitution of India and the US, it is a two-thirds majority,
while in South Africa and Russia, for some amendments, a three-fourths majority is
required. The other principle that is popular is that of people’s participation in the process
of amending the Constitution, especially in modern countries. In Switzerland, people can
even initiate an amendment to the Constitution. Other examples of countries where
people initiate or approve an amendment to the Constitution are Russia and Italy, among
others.

Q59. Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Objectives Resolution encapsulated the aspirations and values behind
the Constitution. Based on this resolution, our Constitution gave institutional expression to
these fundamental commitments: equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty and
cosmopolitan identity.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Main points of the Objectives Resolution
 India is an independent, sovereign republic. Hence statement 2 is incorrect as
the word secular was not used at that time. (It was introduced by 42nd constitutional
amendment)
 India shall be a Union of erstwhile British Indian territories, Indian States, and other
parts outside British India and the such Indian States as are willing to be a part of the
Union
 Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and
functions of the Government and administration, except those assigned to or vested in
the Union
 All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its
Constitution shall flow from the people
 All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and
political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before the law; and
fundamental freedoms - of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation,
association and action - subject to the law and public morality.
 The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes
shall be provided adequate safeguards.
 The territorial integrity of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air
shall be maintained according to justice and law of civilised nations.
 The land would make a full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace
and welfare of humanity.
Q60. Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives
Resolution’, drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent
Assembly. It has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which
added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity
Preamble mentions two things about equality:
 Equality of status
 Equality of opportunity- here equality of opportunity means that all sections of the
society enjoy equal opportunities
Q61. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Liberalism broadly encompasses three dimensions- (a) economic liberalism,
which emphasises free competition and the self-regulating market, i.e., minimal state
intervention in the economy. (b) political liberalism, which is founded on the belief in
progress, the autonomy of the individual, and their political and civil liberties (c) social

liberalism, which is linked to the protection of minority groups, and such issues as LGBTQ
rights and same-sex marriage.
The liberalism of the Indian Constitution differs from classical western liberalism in the
sense that western-style liberalism prioritises individual rights over those of society; while
for Indians, demands of social justice and community values are more important. The
makers of the Constitution believed that the mere granting of individual rights such as the
right to equality were not enough to overcome age-old injustices suffered by these groups
or to give real meaning to their right to vote. Special constitutional measures were
required to advance their interests. Therefore, the Constitution-makers provided several
special measures to protect the interests of SC/STs, such as the reservation of seats in
legislatures.
Indian liberalism has two streams. The first stream began with Rammohan Roy. He
emphasised on individual rights, particularly the rights of women. The second stream
included thinkers like K.C. Sen, Justice Ranade and Swami Vivekananda. They
introduced the spirit of social justice within orthodox Hinduism. So statement 2 is
correct.
Q62. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
According to our Constitution, everyone enjoys the right to follow the religion of his or her
choice. This freedom is considered as a hallmark of democracy.
Freedom of religion also includes freedom of conscience. This means that a person may
choose any religion or may choose not to follow any religion. Freedom of Religion
includes the freedom to profess, follow and propagate any religion
Freedom of Religion is subject to certain limitations. The government can impose
restrictions on the practice of freedom of religion in order to protect public order, morality
and health. This means that the freedom of religion is not an unlimited right. The
government can interfere in religious matters for rooting out certain social evils.
India does not have any official religion. We do not have to belong to any particular
religion in order to be the prime minister or president or judge or any other public official.
Also, under the right to equality, there is a guarantee that the government will not
discriminate based on religion in giving employment.
Q63. Answer: (d)

Explanation:
All options are correct.
Our Constitution believes that diversity is our strength. Therefore, one of the fundamental
rights is the right of minorities to maintain their culture. This minority status is not
dependent only upon religion. Linguistic and cultural minorities are also included in
this provision. Minorities are groups that have common language or religion, and in a
particular part of the country or the country as a whole, they are outnumbered by some
other social section. Such communities have a culture, language and a script of their own,
and have the right to conserve and develop these.

Q64. Answer: (b)
Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar considered the right to constitutional remedies as ‘heart
and soul of the constitution’. It is so because this right gives a citizen the right to
approach a High Court or the Supreme Court to get any of the fundamental rights restored
in case of their violation. The Supreme Court and the High Courts can issue orders and
give directives to the government for the enforcement of rights.
Q65. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Fundamental Rights prohibit the government from acting against the rights
of the individuals and in case there is a violation of these rights, Article 32 mentioned in
the Indian Constitution gives rights to individuals to approach the Supreme and the High
Courts. The Courts can issue writs to hold upright the basic fundamental rights. So
The Constitution clarifies that the government can implement special schemes and
measures for improving the conditions of individual sections of society: children, women,
and the socially and educationally backward classes. Article 16(4) of the Constitution
explicitly clarifies that a policy like reservation will not be seen as a violation of the right to
equality. So statement 2 is incorrect.
Q66. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 21 advocates protection of life and personal liberty i.e. No person
shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure
established by law. So statement (a) is correct.
Article 22 envisages protection against arrest and detention in some instances. So
statement b is not correct.
The SC has held that the right to life as enshrined in Article 21 means something more
than survival or animal existence and would include the right to live with human dignity.
Thus, the Supreme Court has time and again expanded the scope of Article 21. So
Statement c is also correct.
The Court, in Olga Tellis vs BMC case 1985, has held that right to shelter and livelihood is
also included in the right to life because no person can live without the means of living,
that is, the means of livelihood. So statement d is correct.
Q67. Answer: (b)

Explanation: In the Constitution, initially, there was a fundamental right to ‘acquire,
possess and maintain’ property under Article 19 (1)(f). So statement (a) is incorrect.
However, the Constitution made it clear that property could be taken away by the
government for public welfare. Since 1950, the government has made many laws that
have limited this right to property. Therefore statement b is correct.
In 1973, the Supreme Court gave a decision that the right to property was not part of the
basic structure of the Constitution, and therefore, the Parliament had the power to abridge
this right by an amendment. So statement c is incorrect.
In 1978, the 44th amendment to the Constitution removed the right to property from the
list of Fundamental Rights and converted it into a simple legal right under Article 300A.
Statement d is incorrect.
Q68. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 32 gives a citizen the right to approach a High Court or the Supreme
Court to get any of the fundamental rights restored in case of their violation. The courts
can issue various special orders known as writs - Habeas corpus, Mandamus,
Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Certiorari. Prohibition writ is issued by a higher court (High
Court or Supreme Court) when a lower court has considered a case going beyond its
jurisdiction. So statement 1 is incorrect.
If the court finds that a person is holding office but is not entitled to hold that office, it
issues the writ of quo warranto and restricts that person from acting as an officeholder. So
statement 2 is correct.
The writ of certiorari can be issued by the Supreme Court or any High Court for quashing
the order already passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial authority. Therefore
statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 4 is attributed to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, so statement
4 is also incorrect.
Q69. Answer: (a)

Explanation: In 1976, the 42nd amendment to the Constitution was passed. Among other
things, this amendment inserted a list of Fundamental Duties for citizens. Thus,
statements 1 and 2 are correct.
In all, eleven duties were enumerated. However, the Constitution does not say anything
about enforcing these duties. So, statement 3 is incorrect.
However, it must be noted that our Constitution does not make the enjoyment of rights
dependent or conditional upon fulfilment of duties. In this sense, the inclusion of
Fundamental Duties has not changed the status of our Fundamental Rights. So
Q70. Answer: (c)

Explanation: If a government did not implement a particular Directive Principle of State
Policy, we could not go to the court asking the court to instruct the government to
implement that policy. Thus, these guidelines are ‘non-justiciable,’ i.e., parts of the
Constitution that cannot be enforced by the judiciary. So statement 1 is correct.
The governments from time to time tried to give effect to some Directive Principles of
State Policy. They passed several zamindari abolition bills, nationalised banks, enacted
numerous factory laws, fixed minimum wages, cottage and small industries were
promoted and provisions for reservation for the upliftment of the scheduled castes and
scheduled tribes were made. Such efforts to give effect to the Directive Principles include
the right to education, the formation of Panchayati raj institutions all over the country,
partial right to work under employment guarantee programme and the mid-day meal
scheme etc. So statement 2 is correct.
Q71. Answer: (d)

Explanation: One thing that has had a long-lasting effect on the evolution of the Indian
Constitution is the Theory Of The Basic Structure of the Constitution. The Supreme Court
of India advanced this theory in the famous case of Kesavananda Bharati vs State of
Kerala, 1973. So statement 1 is incorrect.
This ruling has contributed to the evolution of the Constitution in the following ways: It has
set specific limits to the Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution. It says that no
amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution. It also places the Judiciary

as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what
constitutes the basic structure. So statement 2 is also incorrect as the State legislative
Assemblies are not mentioned.
The Supreme Court is yet to define what constitutes the basic structure of the
Constitution. However, in general, these are those core structure of Indian constitution on
which the whole superstructure of the Constitution is built. Without being exhaustive,
these basic features are- Parliamentary System, Democratic Republic, Supremacy of
Constitution, Rule of Law, Separation of Power, Federalism, Free and Fair Election,
Dignity of Individual, Socio-economic Justice etc.
Q72. Answer: (c)

Explanation: If the Parliament has the authority to enact laws, there must be a law that
bestows this authority on the Parliament in the first place. This is the function of the
Constitution. It is an authority that constitutes the government in the first place. So
A vital function of a Constitution is to set some limits on what a government can impose
on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that the government may never
trespass them, i.e. fundamental rights. The exact content and interpretation of these rights
vary from the constitution to constitution. However, most constitutions will protect a
primary cluster of rights. So statement 2 is correct.
Q73. Answer: (d)

Explanation:
All statements are correct.
The Legislature in the parliamentary system ensures Executive accountability at various
stages: policymaking, implementation of law or policy, and during and post-
implementation stage. The Legislature does this through the use of a variety of devices:
 Deliberation and discussion. During the law-making process, members of the
legislature get an opportunity to deliberate on the policy direction of the executive and
how policies are implemented. The Question Hour, which is held every day during
the sessions of Parliament, where Ministers have to respond to searching questions
raised by the members; Zero Hour where members are free to raise any matter that
they think is important (though the ministers are not bound to reply), half-an-hour
discussion on matters of public importance, adjournment motion etc. are some
instruments of exercising control
 Approval or Refusal of laws. Parliamentary control is also exercised through its
power of ratification. A bill can become a law only with the approval of the
Parliament.
 Financial control. Since the financial resources to implement the programmes of the
government are granted through the budget. Preparation and presentation of the
budget for the approval of the legislature is the constitutional obligation of the
government.
 No-Confidence Motion. The most potent weapon that enables the Parliament to
ensure executive accountability is the no-confidence motion. As long as the
government has the support of its party or coalition of parties that have a majority in
the Lok Sabha, the power of the House to dismiss the government is fictional rather
than real.
Q74. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Powers of Rajya Sabha
 It approves constitutional amendments.
 Exercises control over executive by asking questions, introducing motions and
resolutions.
 Participates in the election and removal of the President, Vice President, Judges of
Supreme Court and High Court.
 It can alone initiate the procedure for removal of Vice President.
 It can also give, Parliament the power to make laws on matters included in the State
list
 It considers and approves non money bills and suggests amendments to money
bills. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Rajya Sabha cannot initiate, reject or amend money bills. The Council of Ministers is
responsible to the Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha. Therefore, Rajya Sabha can
criticise the government but cannot remove it.
Q75. Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Option 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
Apart from the elected members, Rajya Sabha also has twelve nominated members. The
President nominates these members. These nominations are made from among those
persons who have made their mark in the fields of literature, arts, social service,
science etc
Option 2 is incorrect.

The members of the Legislative Council to be nominated by the Governor shall consist
of persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, arts, social
service and the cooperative movement.
Q76. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
The President also has veto power by which s/he can withhold or refuse to give assent to
Bills (other than Money Bill) passed by the Parliament. Every bill passed by the Parliament
goes to the President for his assent before it becomes a law. The President can send the
bill back to the Parliament asking it to reconsider the bill. This ‘veto’ power is limited
because, if the Parliament passes the same bill again and sends it back to the President,
then, the President has to give assent to that bill.
The President can be removed from office only by Parliament by following the procedure
for impeachment. This procedure requires a special majority. The only ground for
impeachment is a violation of the Constitution.
Q77. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
The Constitution of India vests the executive power of the Union formally in the President.
In reality, the President exercises these powers through the Council of Ministers headed
by the Prime Minister. The President is elected for five years.
The 91st Constitutional Amendment in 2003 made that the Council of Ministers shall not
exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members of the House of People (or Assembly,
in the case of the States).
The Vice President is elected for five years. His election method is similar to that of the
President; the only difference is that members of State legislatures are not part of the
Electoral College. The Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of
the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority of all the then members and agreed to by the Lok
Sabha.
Q78. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
There are certain social groups which may be spread across the country. In a particular
constituency, their numbers may not be sufficient to be able to influence the victory of a
candidate. However, taken across the country they are a significantly sizeable group. To
ensure their proper representation, a system of reservation becomes necessary. The
Constitution provides for reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State
Legislative Assemblies for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
In order to stand/contest for the Lok Sabha or Assembly election, a candidate must be at
least 25 years old.

Q79. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Election Commission has the power to take decisions to ensure a free and fair poll.
It can postpone or cancel the election in the entire country or a specific State or
constituency because the atmosphere is vitiated and therefore, a free and fair election
may not be possible. The Commission also implements a model code of conduct for
parties and candidates.
The Election Commission accords recognition to political parties and allots symbols
to each of them.
Other than that, the commission is also responsible for preparing of electoral rolls, and
issue electors photo identity cards (EPIC), has advisory jurisdiction in post-election
disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Assemblies.
Q80. Answer: (b)

Explanation: The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the
electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and to the Legislature
of every State and of elections to the offices of President and Vice President (Chairman
of Rajya Sabha) held under this Constitution shall be vested in an Election Commission .
Option b is incorrect.
The Election Commission is not responsible for the conduct of local body elections. State
Election Commissions are responsible for local body election.
Q81. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The appointments in the higher judiciary are
carried out by the executive based on recommendations by the collegiums consisting of 4
senior-most judges of the Supreme Court. According to the Memorandum of Procedure,
the centre can return the names recommended by the collegiums with due justification. If
collegiums send it back, the executive has to appoint. Thus, the appointment is made by
the Executive in concurrence with the Judiciary.
Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution makes a rigorous procedure for the removal of
the judges of the High Court and the Supreme Court. Each House of Parliament needs to
pass a resolution requiring 2/3rd of the members present and voting as well as more than
the majority of the total membership of the House. The Resolution so passed goes to the
President who orders the removal of the judge. Thus the power of removal is accorded to
the Legislature.
Q82. Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Constitution of India provides for a single integrated judicial system.
This means that unlike some other federal countries of the world, India does not have
separate State courts. The structure of the judiciary in India is pyramidal with the Supreme
Court at the top, High Courts below them and district and subordinate courts at the lowest
level. So statement 1 is correct.
The lower courts function under the direct superintendence of the higher courts, not the
Supreme Court. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

Q83. Answer: (d)
Explanation: There are primarily 4 types of Jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India as per
the Indian Constitution - original, appellate, advisory and writ.
 Under Original Jurisdiction, Supreme Court of India settles disputes between Union
and States and amongst States. So statement 1 is incorrect.
 Under Appellate Jurisdiction, Supreme Court tries appeals from lower courts in Civil,
Criminal and Constitutional cases. So statement 2 is incorrect.
 Under Advisory Jurisdiction, Supreme Court advises the President on matters of
public importance and law. So statement 3 is also incorrect. Supreme Court, under
article 143, advises only the President of India.
 Under Writ jurisdiction, Supreme Court can issue writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus,
Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto to protect the Fundamental Rights of the
individual.
Q84. Answer: (d)

Explanation:
Under Article 249, Rajya Sabha gives the Union parliament power to make laws on
matters included in the State list. So statement 1 is not the power of Lok Sabha.
Similarly, Statement 4 is the power of the Rajya Sabha. As Vice President is Chairman
of Rajya Sabha, it is prerogative of Rajya Sabha to initiate the procedure for removal of
Vice President.
Statement 2 is the power of Lok Sabha as no-confidence motion is the exclusive
concern of Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha does not participate in it. Statement 3 is again a
power of Lok Sabha, whereby money bill can be introduced in Lok Sabha only as the
people directly elect its members. So answer option is (d).
Q85. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Statement 2 is correct - Division of Power is an essential feature of Federalism.
There has to be a written constitution to demarcate the division of powers through
allocating boundaries of jurisdiction. In India, the Seventh Schedule categorises the
subjects under Union List, State List and the Concurrent List. The Union and State
have exclusive jurisdiction on the Union and State List respectively whereas they both
have legislative power on subjects of concurrent list subject to centre having dominant
powers in case of a conflict. This is possible when there is a written documented
constitution; hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct. There has to be an independent judiciary to settle on disputes
between the centre and the states or among states whenever and wherever they arise. It
can be USA type where federal court enforces federal law and state courts implement
state laws or Indian type where it is integrated and judiciary enforces both. Thus, an
independent judiciary is an essential feature of federalism.
Q86. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution does not explicitly mention the word
‘federalism’ anywhere. It instead states in Article 1 that India is a union of states.
However, there is an explicit federal tone in the Constitution. The Seventh Schedule
contains the legislative subjects of Union, States and also subjects where both have
jurisdiction. There is proper constitutional status given to states under Part VI so that they
trace their power directly from the constitution. The federal character is present so much
so that the Supreme Court in Bommai case held federalism to be the part of Basic
Structure.
Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution, however, shows a unitary bias which is
prominently reflected in financial powers. The states cannot appropriate direct taxes which
is the major source of taxes. The states can borrow from the centre but external
borrowings are not allowed for states. The GST regime has taken away the state's power
to tax sales exclusively at their rates. States, thus, have to depend on proceeds of tax
sharing through finance commission as well as grant-in-aid from the centre.
Statement 3 is correct. Agriculture is a state list subject, though there is a Union Ministry
just to have uniform policy guidance on the sector where most are employed throughout
the country.
Q87. Answer: (c)

Explanation: The central government established the National Human Rights
Commission in 1993, to work as watchdogs against the violations of human rights. So
statement 1 is correct. NHRC is composed of a former chief justice of the Supreme
Court of India, a former judge of the Supreme Court, a former chief justice of a High Court
and three other members who have the knowledge and practical experience in matters
relating to human rights. So statement 2 is incorrect.
The Commission’s functions include inquiry at its initiative or on a petition presented to it
by a victim into a complaint of a violation of human rights; visit jails to study the condition
of the inmates; undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights, etc. So
statement 3 is correct.
The Commission does not have the power of prosecution. It can merely make
recommendations to the government or recommend to the courts to initiate proceedings
based on the inquiry that it conducts. So statement 4 is incorrect. So right option is c
Q88. Answer: (d)

Explanation: All statements are correct. The Panchayati Raj system is a three-tier
structure consisting of Gram Panchayat at the village level, Anchalik Panchayat at the
block level and Zilla Parishad at the district level. As per the 73rd Amendment Act, there
has to be at least one-third of the total seats at each level reserved for women. Even
among the total seats reserved for the SCs and STs, at least one-third of the seats should
be reserved for women from the community. SCs and STs were given reservation
according to their population levels in the area. There is nothing fixed like that in
government employment or admissions to educational institutions.
OBC reservation in Panchayats have been a policy step from states and not provided in
the constitution as such. This is a step taken by each state based on their requirement
on the upliftment of the backward class.
Q89. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

The 101st Constitutional Amendment that led to the introduction of GST in India essentially
meant changing the federal distribution of taxation powers between centre and states. It is
an essential component of fiscal federalism. Thus, under Article 368 of the
Constitution, it was required to get the bill passed by a majority of at least two-third
members present and voting whose number should be the majority of the total
membership of house (hence statement 1 is incorrect). This should be carried out
in both the houses followed by ratification of at least half of the state legislatures.
These procedures show the rigid character of the Indian Constitution.
Q90. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The 'basic structure' doctrine was declared by the Supreme
Court in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973.
Statement 2 is correct. It allows the Parliament to amend any provision of the
Constitution to the limit that it does not change the basic structure of the
Constitution. The basic structure doctrine has balanced the rigidity as well as the flexible
nature of the Constitution. By saying that certain parts cannot be amended, it has
underlined the rigid nature while by allowing amendments to all others it has underlined
the flexible nature of the amending process.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Supreme Court - the final interpreter of the Constitution -
has been declaring as to what constitutes the basic structure from time to time. In
various judgements, it has stated secularism, federalism, parliamentary democracy, the
rule of law etc. to be part of the basic structure.
Q91. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution Amendment Bills can be introduced in
both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. However, it cannot be introduced in the state
legislatures.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It can be introduced by a government minister or by a
private member of parliament as well.
Statement 3 and 4 are correct. There is no prior recommendation of President
required in the introduction of such bills. The amendment procedure is described in Article
368 and is decided upon depending upon the content of the bill. After the passage, the
only option left with the President is of giving assent to the bill. He can neither withhold
his assent nor return the Bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. This shows that
the elected legislature is given more powers than the executive and that the President of
India can never achieve dictatorial designs by blocking constitutional amendments as
happened in many third world Presidential systems.
Q92. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The word ‘secular’ was added to the preamble
through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment of 1976. It was the only time the Preamble
was amended. Along with it, the words ‘socialist’ as well as ‘integrity’ was added to the
preamble through the same amendment. Statement 2 is incorrect. Indian secularism is
different from western secularism. The latter talks about strict separation between religion

and state whereas in India secularism meant the state would take a principled distance
from religion.
Statement 3 and 4 are correct. India would not have a state religion and that all the
religions shall be treated equally by the state. The state can intervene in religious issues
when it fails to reform itself with time and ensure dignity to all individuals. We can take the
example of state intervention in Triple Talaq and the Sabrimala issue to justify. The right
to freedom of religion has been granted as a fundamental right in the Indian
constitution and thus also made it justiciable so that fear of majority religious domination
too is thwarted away.
Q93. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Election Commission does not have the authority to adjudicate on election
disputes about the Lok Sabha. The initial jurisdiction to deal with all doubts and disputes
relating to the elections to Parliament and State Legislatures vests in the High Court of the
State concerned, with a right of appeal to the Supreme Court (Article 329).
So statement 1 is incorrect.
The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) presides over the Election Commission but does
not have more powers than the other Election Commissioners. The CEC and the two
Election Commissioners have equal powers to take all decisions relating to elections as a
collective body. So statement 2 is correct.
Q94. Answer: (c)

Explanation: Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are
appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Council of Ministers. It is,
therefore, possible for a ruling party to appoint a partisan person to the Commission who
might favour them in the elections. Many persons have suggested that a different method
should be followed that makes a consultation with the leader of the opposition and the
Chief Justice of India necessary for the appointment of CEC and Election Commissioners.
So statement 1 is incorrect.
CEC and Election Commissioners are appointed for a six-year term or continue till the age
of 65, whichever is earlier. So statement 2 is also incorrect.
Article 324(6) states that the CEC can be removed from his office in like manner and on
the like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. The Constitution provides that a judge
can be removed only by an order of the President, based on a motion passed by both
Houses of Parliament. So, statement 3 is correct.
The procedure for removal of judges is

elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act,
1968. The Act sets out the following
steps for removal from office:
 Under the Act, an impeachment
motion may originate in either
House of Parliament. To initiate
proceedings: (i) at least 100
members of Lok Sabha may give a
signed notice to the Speaker, or (ii)
at least 50 members of Rajya Sabha

may give a signed notice to the
Chairman.
 If the motion is admitted, the
Speaker or Chairman (who receives
it) will constitute a three-member
committee to investigate the
complaint. It will comprise: (i) a
Supreme Court judge; (ii) Chief
Justice of a High Court; and (iii) a
distinguished jurist.
 After concluding its investigation,
the Committee will submit its report
to the Speaker or Chairman, who
will then lay the report before the
relevant House of Parliament. If the
report records a finding of
misbehaviour or incapacity, the
motion for removal will be taken up
for consideration and debated.
 The motion for removal is required
to be adopted by each House of
Parliament by: (i) a majority of the
total membership of that House; and
(ii) a majority of at least two-thirds of
the members of that House present
and voting. If the motion is adopted
by this majority, the motion will be
sent to the other House for
adoption.
 Once the motion is adopted in both
Houses, it is sent to the President,
who will issue an order for the
removal of the judge.
Q95. Answer: (b)

Explanation: In 1992, the 73rd and 74th constitutional amendments were passed by the
Parliament. The 73rd Amendment is about rural local governments (which are also known
as Panchayati Raj Institutions or PRIs) and the 74th amendment made the provisions
relating to urban local government (Nagarpalikas). The 73rd and 74th Amendments came
into force in 1993.
As per 73rd amendment, all States will now have a uniform three-tier Panchayati Raj
structure. At the base is the ‘Gram Panchayat‘. A Gram Panchayat covers a village or
group of villages. The intermediary level is the Mandal (also referred to as Block or
Taluka). These bodies are called Mandal or Taluka Panchayats. The intermediary level
body need not be constituted in smaller States (with a population less than 20 lakhs). At
the apex is the Zila Panchayat covering the entire rural area of the District.

The Gram Sabha would comprise of all the adult members registered as voters in the
Panchayat area. Its role and functions are decided by State legislation. Therefore
Q96. Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Vice President is elected for five years. His election method is similar to
that of the President, the only difference is that members of State legislatures are not part
of the electoral college. Therefore statement 1 is incorrect.
The Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha
passed by a majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. So statement 3 is incorrect.
The Vice President acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and takes over the
office of the President when there is a vacancy by reasons of death, resignation, removal
by impeachment or otherwise. The Vice President acts as the President only until a new
President is elected. Statement 2 is correct.
B. D. Jatti acted as President on the death of Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed until a new President
was elected. Statement 4 is correct.
Q97. Answer: (c)

Explanation: There are at least three situations where the President can exercise the
powers using his or her discretion. In the first place, the President can send back the
advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision. In
doing this, the President acts on his (or her) own discretion. So statement (a) is correct.
Secondly, the President also has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give
assent to Bills (other than Money Bill) passed by the Parliament. Every bill passed by the
Parliament goes to the President for his assent before it becomes a law. The President
cannot send the Money bills back to the Parliament asking it to reconsider the bill. Thus
Statement c is incorrect.
Formally, the President appoints the Prime Minister. Normally, in the parliamentary
system, a leader who has the support of the majority in the Lok Sabha would be appointed
as Prime Minister and the question of discretion would not arise. Statement b is correct.
But imagine a situation when after an election, no leader has a clear majority in the Lok
Sabha. In such a situation, the President has to use his own discretion in judging who
really may have the support of the majority or who can actually form and run the
government. Statement d is correct.
Q98. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Countries with large size and much diversity usually prefer to have two
houses of the national legislature to give representation to all sections in the society and
to give representation to all geographical regions or parts of the country. So statement 1
is an advantage, not disadvantage so incorrect.
In a bicameral legislature, every decision taken by one house goes to the other house for
its decision. This means that every bill and policy would be discussed twice. This ensures
a double check on every matter. Even if one house takes a decision in haste, that decision
will come for discussion in the other house and reconsideration will be possible. So
statement 2 is also an advantage and not disadvantage, therefore incorrect.
Q99. Answer: (a)

Explanation: In a presidential system, the president is the head of state as well as head
of government. In this system, the office of president is very powerful, both in theory and
practice. Countries with such a system include the United States, Brazil and most nations
in Latin America. So, statement 1 is correct.
Canada has a parliamentary democracy with a constitutional monarchy where Queen
Elizabeth II is the formal chief of state and the prime minister is the head of government.
So, statement 2 is incorrect.
Q100. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Objectives resolution was moved by Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1946 and
adopted by the assembly in January 1947. So statement b is incorrect.
Perhaps the best summary of the principles that the nationalist movement brought to the
Constituent Assembly is the Objectives Resolution (the resolution that defined the aims of
the Assembly). This resolution encapsulated the aspirations and values behind the
Constitution. Based on this resolution, our Constitution gave institutional expression to
these fundamental commitments: equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty and a
cosmopolitan identity
According to the Objectives Resolution, India is an independent, sovereign, and a
republic. All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution
shall flow from the people. The land would make a full and willing contribution to the
promotion of world peace and welfare of humanity. So, the rest of the statements a, c and
d are correct.


Gs Test-1 Answer Key & Explanation

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GS TEST-1

Answer Key & Explanation

Q1. Answer: (c)

Q2. Answer: (c)

Q3. Answer: (b)

Q4. Answer: (b)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 1

Q5. Answer: (b)

Q6. Answer: (b)

Q7. Answer: (a)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 2

Q8. Answer: (d)

Q9. Answer: (b)

Q10. Answer: (b)

Q11. Answer: (c)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 3

Q12. Answer: (a)

Q13. Answer: (a)

Q14. Answer: (a)

Q15. Answer: (d)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 4

Q16. Answer: (d)

Q17. Answer: (b)

Q18. Answer: (d)

Q19. Answer: (a)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 5

Q20. Answer: (a)

Q21. Answer: (a)

Q22. Answer: (b)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 6

Q24. Answer: (c)

Q25. Answer: (d)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 7

Q27. Answer: (d)

Q28. Answer: (b)

Q29. Answer: (a)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 8

Q30. Answer: (a)

Q31. Answer: (b)

Q32. Answer: (d)

Q33. Answer: (a)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 9

Q34. Answer: (a)

Q35. Answer: (a)

Q36. Answer: (a)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 10

Q37. Answer: (c)

Q38. Answer: (c)

Q39. Answer: (b)

Q40. Answer: (b)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 11

Q41. Answer: (a)

Q42. Answer: (d)

Q43. Answer: (b)

Q44. Answer: (a)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 12

Q45. Answer: (d)

Q46. Answer: (a)

Q47. Answer: (c)

Q48. Answer: (c)

Q49. Answer: (c)

Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 1 (29.09.2019) 13