Answers &

Explanations
of

TEST ID: 1105

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

Pre Pareekshan–2 (SET-C)

 ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
PRE PAREEKSHAN–2 (SET-C)
GS Paper-I: (1105)
1. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The fact that the Harappan Civilization was
urban does not mean that all or even most
of its settlements had an urban character.
A majority were, in fact, the villages. The
cities depended on the villages for food and
perhaps, also labour, and various kinds of
goods produced in the cities found their
way into the villages. As a result of the
brisk urban–rural interaction, the typical
range of the Harappan artefacts reached
even small village sites.
It is not easy to estimate the exact size of
ancient settlements, as they are often
spread over many mounds and buried
under layers of alluvium. Nevertheless, it is
clear that the Harappan sites varied a great
deal in size and function, from large cities
to small pastoral camps.
The largest settlements include Mohenjo-
Daro, Harappa, Ganweriwala, Rakhigarhi
and Dholavira. Lurewala in Cholistan, with
an estimated population of about 35,000,
seems to have been as large as Mohenjo-
Daro. Other large sites are Nagoor, Tharo
Waro Daro and Lakhueenjo-Daro in
Sindh, and Nondowri in Baluchistan.
Recently, some very large Harappan sites
have been reported in Punjab—Dhalewan
in Mansa district and Gurni Kalan I,
Hasanpur II, Lakhmirwala and Baglian Da
Theh in Bathinda district.
The second rung of the Harappan
settlements are moderate-sized sites,
ranging between 10 and 50 ha, such as
Judeirjodaro and Kalibangan. Then, there
are the even smaller sites of 5–10 ha, such
as Amri, Lothal, Chanhudaro and Rojdi.
The many settlements in the 1–5 ha range
include Allahdino, Kot Diji, Rupar,
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Balakot, Surkotada, Nageshwar, Nausharo
and Ghazi Shah. There are also
settlements even smaller than these.
2. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Vedic people continued to produce
barley, but during the Later Vedic period,
rice and wheat became their chief crops. In
subsequent times, wheat became the
staple food of the people in Punjab and
western Uttar Pradesh (UP). For the first
time, the Vedic people became acquainted
with rice in the doab, called Vrihi in the
Vedic texts, and the remains of it recovered
from Hastinapur relate to the eighth
century BC. Rice was also grown at
Atranjikhera in Etah district at around the
same time.
The Later Vedic people were acquainted
with four types of pottery: Black-and-red
ware; Black-slipped ware; Painted grey
ware; and Red-ware. The last type of
pottery was the most popular and is found
almost all over western UP.
However, the most distinctive pottery of the
period is known as the ‘Painted Grey Ware’.
It consisted of bowls and dishes that were
used either for rituals or for eating or for
both, probably by the emerging upper
orders.
In the Later Vedic times, the Rig Vedic
tribal assemblies lost importance, and
royal power increased at their cost. The
Vidatha completely disappeared; the
Sabha and the Samiti continued to hold
their ground, but their character changed.
They were now controlled by the chiefs and
the rich nobles, and women were no longer
permitted to sit in the Sabha, which was
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 now dominated by the warriors and the
Brahmanas.
The term ‘Rashtra’, which indicates
territory, first arose during this period.
During this period, collection of taxes and
tributes seems to have become common.
These were probably deposited with an
officer, called the Sangrihitri, who worked
as the king’s companion. The epics tell us
that at the time of a grand sacrifice, large-
scale distributions were made by the
princes, and all sections of the people were
sumptuously fed. In the discharge of his
duties, the king was assisted by the priest,
the commander, the chief queen and a few
other high functionaries. At the lower level,
the administration was possibly run by the
village assemblies, which may have been
controlled by the chiefs of the dominant
clans. These assemblies also tried local
cases.
However, even in the Later Vedic times,
the king did not have a standing army.
Tribal units were mustered in times of war
and, according to one ritual, for success in
war; the king had to eat along with his
people (Vis) from the same plate.
3. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Vaisheshika School gives importance
to the discussion of material elements, or
Dravya. They draw a line between
particularities and their aggregate. Earth,
water, fire, air and ether (sky), when
combined, give rise to new objects.
The Vaisheshika School propounded the
‘Atom Theory’, believing that all material
objects are made up of atoms. The
Vaisheshika, thus, marked the
beginning of physics in India, but the
scientific view was diluted by a belief in
God and spiritualism, and this School put
its faith in both heaven and salvation.
Mimamsa literally means the art of
reasoning and interpretation. However,
reasoning was used to provide
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justifications for various Vedic rituals, and
the attainment of salvation was made
dependent on their performance.
In order to attain salvation, the
Mimamsa School strongly recommended
the performance of Vedic sacrifices,
which needed the services of the priests
and legitimized the social distance between
the various Varnas.
Kapila, the exponent of the Samkhya,
teaches that a man’s life is shaped by the
forces of nature, and not by any divine
agency.
4. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Besnagar pillar inscription indicates
that the Shungas continued the
Mauryan tradition of entertaining the
ambassadors from the Greek courts.
Kasiputa Bhagabhadra is identified either
as the fifth Shunga king Bhadraka or the
ninth king Bhagavata. Amtalakita was the
Indo-Greek ruler Antialkidas, known from
the coins.
What is even more interesting is that
Heliodorus, the Greek ambassador,
describes himself as a Bhagavata, i.e., a
worshipper of God Vasudeva Krishna, and
that he set up this pillar in the honour of
this God. The Garuda is a fantastic bird,
the vehicle of Vishnu. The foundations of a
structure near the pillar, no doubt,
represent the remains of the ancient
temple, in front of which the Greek
ambassador left an inscribed record of his
devotion.
The Rabatak inscription (Afghanistan)
throws important light on the Kushana
genealogy. The inscription states that
Kanishka’s empire included Kaundinya,
Ujjayini, Saketa, Kaushambi, Pataliputra
and Champa, and makes the exaggerated
claim that his rule extended over the whole
of India. It suggests that the empire
extended up to Pataliputra and Champa in
the east.
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 The Shungas clashed with the Bactrian
Greeks. Giving an example of an event
belonging to the recent past, the 2nd
century BCE grammarian Patanjali refers
to the Yavanas coming up to Saketa (in or
around Ayodhya in Faizabad district, UP)
and Madhyamika (near Chittor in
Rajasthan).
5. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Vanji, or Kuravur/Karur, was the capital of
the Chera dynasty. As many as 11 Sangam
poets hailed from this place.
Korkai was an important Pandya port,
celebrated for its pearls in the Sangam
poems and Greek accounts. Arthashastra
also refers to the pearl fisheries of the
Pandya country.
Uraiyur, the capital of the early Cholas, is
identified with a site that is today part of
the town of Tiruchirapalli. The Sangam
poems describe it as a great fortified city
with magnificent buildings. It is interesting
to note that the poems also mention burial
grounds full of stones on its outskirts, a
description strongly reminiscent of the
megaliths.
6. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Idol worship in the temples became a
common feature of Hinduism from the
Gupta period onwards, and many festivals
also began to be celebrated.
Agricultural festivals, observed by different
classes of people, were lent a religious garb
and colour, and turned into useful sources
of income for the priests.
During the Gupta period, a life-size copper
image of Buddha, of more than 6 feet, was
made. It was discovered at Sultanganj near
Bhagalpur, and is now displayed in
Birmingham.
During the Gupta period, beautiful images
of Buddha were fashioned at Sarnath and
Mathura, but the finest specimens of
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Buddhist art in the Gupta times are the
Ajanta paintings. Although these paintings
covered the period from the first century
BC to the seventh century AD, most of
them relate to the Gupta times. They depict
various events in the life of Gautama
Buddha and the previous Buddhas, whose
birth stories are related in the Jatakas.
These paintings are life-like and natural,
and the brilliance of their colours has not
faded even after fourteen centuries.
However, there is nothing to show that
the Guptas were the patrons of the
Ajanta paintings.
7. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The Sangha was the religious order of
the Buddhists. It was a well-organized
and powerful institution, which
popularized Buddhism. The
membership was open to all persons,
irrespective of caste, above fifteen years
of age. Criminals, lepers and persons
affected by infectious diseases were not
given admission into the Sangha.
 On admission, the monks had to
ceremonially shave their head and wear
yellow or saffron robes. The monks
were expected to go on a daily round, in
order to preach Buddhism and seek
alms. During the rainy season, they
took up a fixed abode and meditated.
This was called the retreat or 'Vasa'.
 According to the tradition, shortly after
the death of Buddha, the first Buddhist
Council was held in 483 B.C., in the
Saptaparni Cave near Rajagriha.
Mahakassapa presided over the
assembly. All the teachings of Buddha
were divided into two Pitakas, namely:
(a) Vinaya Pitaka; and (b) Sutta Pitaka.
The text of Vinaya Pitaka was
established under the leadership of
Upali and that of Sutta Pitaka was
settled under the leadership of Ananda.
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8. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Iltutmish inscribed upon his coins the
proud legend, “The Mighty Sultan, Sun of
the Empire and the Faith, Conquest laden
Iltutmish and Aid of the Commander of the
faithful”.
He was the first who introduced a purely
Arabic coinage in the Indian sub-continent.
He adopted, as his standard coin, the
Silver Tanka, the ancestor of the Rupee,
weighing 175 grains. Gold Tankas of the
same weight were introduced later on by
Balban.
Minhaj-us-Siraj, the author of Tabaqat-i-
Nasiri, was patronized by Iltutmish. The
same was the case with poets Ruhani and
Malik Taj-ud-Din Rezab. Muhammad Awfi
wrote ‘Jawami-ul-Hikayat’ during his reign.
9. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The main source of income of Vijayanagar
was land revenue and its administration
was under a department, called ‘Athavane’.
Land was divided into three parts for the
purpose of assessment: wet land, dry land,
orchards and woods.
11. Answer: (c)
In addition of land revenue, the peasants
were required to pay other taxes, such as
grazing tax, marriage tax, etc.
In Vijayanagar, a copper coin, with the
third of a tar, was called Dijitel.
10. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Maktab Khana, a bureau of records
and translations, was established by
the Mughal emperor Akbar, in Fatehpur
Sikri, around 1574. Emperor Akbar
commissioned his most talented scribes
and secretaries to translate the major texts
of India from Sanskrit into Persian and
to illustrate the manuscripts in the royal
workshops. Of these texts included
the Mahabharata into the Razmnāma,
the Ramayana and the Rajatarangini. With
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this bureau, Akbar aspired to "form a basis
for a united search for truth" and "enable
the people to understand the true spirit of
their religion”.
All books in Mughal India were
manuscripts, that is, they were
handwritten. The centre of manuscript
production was the imperial Kitabkhana.
Although Kitabkhana can be translated as
library, it was a scriptorium, that is, a
place where the emperor’s collection of
manuscripts was kept and new
manuscripts were produced
Calligraphy, the art of handwriting, was
considered a skill of great importance. It
was practised using different styles.
Akbar’s favourite was the Nastaliq, a fluid
Persian script with long horizontal strokes.
It was written using a piece of trimmed
reed with a tip of five to ten mm, called
Qalam, dipped in carbon ink (Siyahi).
Muhammad Husayn of Kashmir (c.1575-
1605), one of the finest calligraphers at
Akbar’s court, was honoured with the title
“Zarrin Qalam” (golden pen) in recognition
of the perfectly proportioned curvature of
his letters.
Explanation:
Akbar’s quest for religious knowledge led to
interfaith debates in the Ibadat Khana at
Fatehpur Sikri between the learned
Muslims, Hindus, Jainas, Parsis and
Christians. Padre Rudolfo Acquaviva was
the leader of the first Jesuit mission.
In September, 1579, Akbar forwarded a
letter to the authorities in Goa, requesting
them to send two learned priests. The
Church authorities in Goa eagerly accepted
the invitation, seeing in it a chance to
convert the emperor to Christianity and
with him his court and the people. Jesuit
fathers, Rodolfo Aquaviva and Antonio
Monserrate were selected for the purpose.
They reached Fatehpur Sikri in 1580.
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 The second mission was called by Akbar in
1590 and the third mission in 1595 in
Lahore. The third mission continued as a
sort of permanent institution, thereby
extending its influence on secular politics.
Fathers Jerome Xavier and Emanuel
Pinheiro were the leaders of the mission.
12. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Peasant and Tribal Uprisings: When the
elites of the Indian society were busy in
initiating religious and social reforms to
change their society from within to answer
the moralistic critiques of the West, the
rural society was responding to the
imposition of the colonial rule in an
entirely different way.
The peasants themselves, often on their
own initiative, offered resistance to the
British rule. The Rangpur rebellion of
1783, in the northern districts of
Bengal, is an ideal example of such
opposition. In the early days of the
revenue farming system, the peasantry
was oppressed by the revenue
contractors and company officials,
imposing high revenue demands and
often collecting illegal cesses.
Sometimes religion defined their ideology of
protest. The earliest of these was the
Dasnami Sanyasi and Fakir rebellion,
which rocked northern Bengal and
adjacent areas of Bihar between 1763 and
1800. Both these groups of armed
wandering monks were affected by the
Company’s high revenue demands,
resumption of rent-free tenures and
commercial monopoly. And then, their
ranks were inflated by the sufferers from
the famine of 1769–70, a large number of
aggrieved small Zamindars, disbanded
soldiers and the rural poor. Therefore, from
the beginning of the 1760s until the middle
of the 1800s, recurrent confrontations
between the Sanyasi-Fakirs and the armed
forces of the East India Company took
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place in a wide region of Bengal and Bihar,
and the number of participants rose up to
fifty thousand at the height of insurgency,
which, however, began to decline after
1800.
When the British took over Malabar in
1792, they sought to revamp the land
relations by creating individual ownership
right in land. The traditional system
stipulated an equal sharing of the net
produce of the land by the Janmi (The
holder of the Janmam tenure), the
Kanamdar or Kanakkaran (The holder of
the Kanam tenure) and the cultivator. The
British system upset this arrangement
by recognising the Janmi as the
absolute owners of land, with a right to
evict tenants, which did not exist
earlier, and reduced other two
categories to the status of tenants and
leaseholders.
Some of the peasant rebellions in pre-1857
India were participated exclusively by the
tribal population, whose political autonomy
and control over local resources were
threatened by the establishment of the
British rule and the advent of its non-tribal
agents.
The Kol uprising of 1831–32 took place in
Chota Nagpur and the Singbhum region of
Bihar and Orissa. In these areas, they
used to enjoy independent power for
centuries. But, now British penetration
and imposition of the British law posed a
threat to the power of the hereditary tribal
chiefs. This settlement of non-tribals
and constant transfer of land to the
merchants and the money-lenders—
generally referred to as the Sud or
outsiders—led to a popular uprising, as
their plea for justice failed to move the
authorities. This penetration of the
outsiders—called Dikus by the
Santhals—completely destroyed their
familiar world, and forced them into
action to take possession of their lost
territory.
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13. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Women Reform Movements during
British India: In 1882, when the Hunter
Commission was appointed, female
education in India had progressed very
little, as 98% of women in the school-going
age remained uneducated. Hence, the
Commission recommended liberal
grants-in-aid and special scholarships
for women’s education. During the next
two decades, significant improvements
were seen in women’s enrolment in both
universities and secondary schools.
In 1882, Tarabai Shinde, a Marathi
woman from Berar, published a book
titled, ‘A Comparison Between Women
and Men’- Stri Purusha Tulana. In this
she protested against the fact that in a new
colonial society men enjoyed all the rights,
opportunities and benefits of change, while
women were blamed for all the evils and
were still bound by the old strictures of
Pativrata (duty to husband).
Dr. Rukhmabai Bhikaji was a pioneer in
the field of medicine and women's rights in
the 19th century. Her efforts to be granted
the right to choose was instrumental in
raising the age of consent for women in
1891. She went on to study in the London
School of Medicine for Women in 1889.
When she came back to India to work in a
hospital in 1894, she became India's first
practicing lady doctor. (Behramji Malabari
and Pandita Ramabai came to her defence
in the Rukhmabai case (1885) and formed
the Rukhmabai Defence Committee. The
case was instrumental in the drafting of
the Age of Consent Act in 1891.
Subhash Chandra Bose had been
instrumental in raising under the
leadership of “Colonel” Latika Ghosh, a
Congress women’s volunteer corps, that
had marched on the streets of Calcutta in
full uniform. Latika Ghosh, a teacher by
profession, based in Calcutta (Kolkata,
West Bengal), was one of the founding
members of the Mahila Rashtriya Sangha
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(MRS), an organization meant for
mobilizing women for political activism.
14. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In 1850 (during the period of Lord
Dalhousie), despite united protests from
the Hindus of Madras, Nagpur and
Calcutta, the government went ahead
with the Lex Loci Act, which gave the
Christian converts the right to inherit
their ancestral properties. The Act, the
Hindus widely believed, would open
floodgates to Christian conversion.
Behari Lal Gupta was the third Indian to
join the ICS in 1869 and was posted as a
District Commissioner to Cachar, which
was then annexed to Bengal and heavily
populated with the British tea plantation
owners and indigo growers. The locals,
directly or indirectly, employed or
beholden to their white masters, suffered
daily indignities and cruelties. Appalled
by the treatment levied towards the
Indian labourers and citizenry, horrified
by the favouritism of the courts and
realising that, as an Indian, he was not
privy to judge the white population,
Gupta — along with the Lieutenant
Governor of Bengal — approached the
Marquess of Ripon, the then Viceroy of
India, about the atrocities being
committed in the name of the British
Crown.
Sir Courtenay Peregrine Ilbert, legal
adviser to the Viceroy of India’s Council,
was assigned to address and correct this
injustice. A Bill written by him was
passed in 1883 that placed all
magistrates and judges on the same legal
footing regarding their jurisdiction and
powers. Sir Courtenay argued that, in
spite of regular crimes committed by the
Europeans against the natives, the
injured parties were not allowed to seek
justice from the courts on an equal basis.
The native judges were excluded from
trying the cases in which the Europeans
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 were the miscreants and the European
magistrates seldom took complaints from
the injured natives into cognisance.
Behari Lal Gupta became the first Indian
Chief Presidency Magistrate and Coroner of
Calcutta in 1872, an appointment that
sparked-off a serious debate on the
legitimacy of an Indian civilian being
appointed to such a senior position in the
British Indian administration, leading to
the Ilbert Bill controversy of 1883.
15. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Royal Commission on
Decentralization (1908): Pointing out the
lack of financial resources as the great
stumbling block in the effective functioning
of the local bodies, the Commission made
the following recommendations:
(i) It emphasised that the Village
Panchayats should be entrusted with
more powers, like judicial jurisdiction
in petty cases, incurring expenditure on
minor village works, village schools,
small fuel and fodder reserves, etc. The
Panchayats should be given adequate
sources of income.
(ii) It emphasised the importance of the
Sub-District Boards to be established
in every Taluka or Tehsil, with separate
spheres of duties and separate sources
of revenue for the Sub-District Boards
and the District Boards.
(iii) It urged the withdrawal of existing
restrictions on their powers of taxation
and also the stoppage of regular grants-
in-aid from the Provincial Governments,
except for undertaking large projects.
(iv) The Municipalities might undertake the
responsibility for primary education
and vernacular schools; otherwise the
Government should relieve them of any
charges in regard to secondary
education, hospitals, relief, police,
veterinary works, etc.
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Ripon’s Resolution of 1882: For his
contributions, Lord Ripon is called the
‘Father of Local Self-Government in India’.
The resolution consisted of :
The development of the local bodies
advocated to improve the administration,
and as an instrument of political and
popular education. Policy of administrating
the local affairs through the urban and
rural local bodies, charged with definite
duties and entrusted with suitable sources
of revenues. Non-officials to be in
majority in these bodies, who could be
elected if the officials thought that it
was possible to introduce elections. Non-
officials to act as the Chairpersons to these
bodies.
16. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Tilak set up the Home Rule League at the
Bombay Provincial Conference, held at
Belgaum in April, 1916.
Annie Besant’s impatient followers,
unhappy with her decision to wait till
September, secured her permission to start
the Home Rule groups. Jamnadas
Dwarkadas, Shankerlal Banker and
Indulal Yagnik set up a Bombay paper,
‘Young India’, and launched an All-India
Propaganda Fund to publish pamphlets in
regional languages and in English.
In September, 1916, as there were no
signs of any Congress activity, Annie
Besant announced the formation of her
Home Rule League, with George
Arundale, her Theosophical follower, as
the Organizing Secretary.
Tilak’s League was to work in Maharashtra
(excluding Bombay city), Karnataka, the
Central Provinces and Berar, and Annie
Besant’s League was given charge of the
rest of India. The reason the two Leagues
did not merge was because, in Annie
Besant’s words, ‘some of his followers
disliked me and some of mine disliked him.
We, however, had no quarrel with each
other.’
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 Tilak linked up the question of Swaraj with
the demand for the formation of linguistic
states and education in the vernacular.
As soon as the movement for Home Rule
began to gather steam, the Government hit
back, and it chose a particularly
auspicious day for the blow.
The 23rd of July, 1916, was Tilak’s sixtieth
birthday, and, according to custom, it was
the occasion for a big celebration. A purse
of Rs. one lakh was presented to him. The
same day, the Government offered him
their own present: A notice asking him to
show cause why he should not be bound
over for good behaviour for a period of one
year and demanding securities of Rs.
60,000. For Tilak, this was the best gift he
could have wanted for his birthday. ‘The
Lord is with us,’ he said, ‘Home Rule will
now spread like wildfire.’ Repression was
sure to fan the fire of revolt.
Tilak was defended by a team of lawyers,
led by Mohammed Ali Jinnah.
He lost the case in the Magistrate’s Court,
but was exonerated by the High Court in
November. The victory was hailed all over
the country.
The turning point in the movement came
with the decision of the Government of
Madras in June, 1917, to place Mrs.
Besant and her associates, B.P. Wadia and
George Arundale, under arrest. Their
internment became the occasion for
nation-wide protest. In a dramatic gesture,
Sir S. Subramania Aiyar renounced his
knighthood.
Those who had stayed away, including
many Moderate leaders, like Madan
Mohan Malaviya, Surendranath Banerjea
and M.A. Jinnah, now enlisted as the
members of the Home Rule Leagues to
record their solidarity with the internees
and their condemnation of the
Government’s action.
The Secretary of State, Montagu, made a
historic declaration in the House of
Commons, on 20th August, 1917, in which
he stated: ‘The policy of His Majesty’s
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Government . . . is that of the increasing
association of Indians in every branch of
the administration, and the gradual
development of self-governing institutions,
with a view to the progressive realization of
responsible government in India as an
integral part of the British Empire’.
The importance of Montagu’s Declaration
was that after this, the demand for Home
Rule or self-government could no longer be
treated as seditious.
In keeping with the conciliatory stance of
the Montagu Declaration, Annie Besant
was released in September, 1917.
17. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
C. Rajagopalachari, an erstwhile no-
changer, recommended the Swarajist
approach to Gandhiji with the additional
proviso that the Congress should itself,
directly, undertake the Parliamentary
work. A properly organized Parliamentary
party, he said, would enable the Congress
to ‘develop a certain amount of prestige
and confidence among the masses even as
(happened) . . . during the short period
when the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was in force.’
Since the Government was opposed to a
similar Pact, a strong Congress presence in
the legislatures would serve the movement
as ‘its equivalent.’
Accepting the basic analytical framework of
Marxism, Nehru put forward the Left
paradigm in a series of speeches, letters,
articles and books, and his Presidential
addresses to the Lucknow and Faizpur
sessions of the Congress in 1936. The
basic goal before the Indian people, as also
before the people of the world, he said, had
to be the abolition of capitalism and the
establishment of socialism.
To Nehru, the withdrawal of the Civil
Disobedience Movement and Council-
entry, and the recourse to constructive
programmes represented a ‘spiritual
defeat’ and a surrender of ideals, a retreat
from the revolutionary to the reformist
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 mentality, and a going back to the pre- capture or rejection of office is not a matter
1919 moderate phase. of socialism. I would ask them to realize
What was worse, it seemed that the that it is a matter of strategy’.
Congress was giving up all social The Congress decided, at Lucknow in early
radicalism and ‘expressing a tender 1936 and at Faizpur in late 1936, to fight
solicitude for every vested interest.’ the elections and postpone the decision on
Jawaharlal also challenged the basic office acceptance to the post-election
Gandhian strategy of struggle. Under the period.
Gandhian strategy, which may be
described as Struggle — Truce — Struggle 18. Answer: (a)
(S-T-S), phases of a vigorous extra-legal Explanation:
mass movement and confrontation with the
The main drawback of the Swadeshi
colonial authority alternate with phases,
Movement was that it was not able to
during which direct confrontation is
garner the support of the mass of
withdrawn, political concessions or
Muslims and especially of the Muslim
reforms, if any, wrested from the colonial
peasantry.
regime, are willy-nilly worked and silent
The British policy of consciously
political work carried on among the masses
attempting to use communalism to turn
within the existing legal framework, which,
the Muslims against the Swadeshi
in turn, provides scope for such work. Both
Movement was, to a large extent,
phases of the movement are to be utilized,
responsible for this. The Government was
each in its own way, to undermine the twin
helped in its designs by the peculiar
ideological notions on which the colonial
situation obtaining in large parts of Bengal,
regime rested — that the British rule
where the Hindus and the Muslims were
benefits the Indians and that it is too
divided along class lines, with the former
powerful to be challenged and overthrown
being the landlords and the latter
— and to recruit and train the cadres and
constituting the peasantry.
to build up the people’s capacity to
struggle. It was, perhaps, in the cultural sphere that
the impact of the Swadeshi Movement was
Nehru did not subscribe to this strategy
most marked. The songs composed at that
and believed that, whatever might have
time by Rabindranath Tagore, Rajani
been the case in the past, the Indian
Kanta Sen, Dwijendralal Ray, Mukunda
national movement had now reached a
Das, Syed Abu Mohammed and others
stage where there should be a permanent
later became the moving spirit for the
confrontation and conflict with
nationalists of all hues, ‘terrorists,
imperialism, till it was overthrown.
Gandhian or Communists’, and are still
Speaking at the Lucknow session of the
popular.
Congress, J.B. Kriplani said: ‘Even in a
Rabindranath’s ‘Amar Sonar Bangla’,
revolutionary movement there may be a
written at that time, was to later inspire
time of comparative depression and
the liberation struggle of Bangladesh and
inactivity. At such times, whatever
was adopted as the national anthem of the
programmes are devised have necessarily
country in 1971.
an appearance of reformatory activity, but
they are a necessary part of all The Swadeshi influence could be seen in
revolutionary strategy.’ Nor was the issue the Bengali folk music popular among the
of socialism involved in the debate. Hindu and the Muslim villages (Palligeet
and Jari Gan), and it evoked collections of
As T. Vishwanatham of Andhra put it: ‘To
Indian fairy tales, such as, Thakurmar
my socialist comrades, I would say,

RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C) 9

 Jhuli (Grandmother’s tales) written by
Dakshinaranjan Mitra Majumdar, which
delights the Bengali children to this day.
In art, this was the period when
Abanindranath Tagore broke the
domination of Victorian naturalism over
the Indian art and sought inspiration from
the rich indigenous traditions of Mughal,
Rajput and Ajanta paintings. Nandalal
Bose, who left a major imprint on Indian
art, was the first recipient of a scholarship
offered by the Indian Society of Oriental
Art, founded in 1907. In science, Jagdish
Chandra Bose, Prafulla Chandra Ray and
others pioneered original research that was
praised the world over.
The message of Swadeshi and the boycott
of foreign goods soon spread to the rest of
the country. Lokamanya Tilak took the
movement to different parts of India,
especially Poona and Bombay; Ajit Singh
and Lala Lajpat Rai spread the Swadeshi
message in Punjab and other parts of
northern India; Syed Haidar Raza led the
movement in Delhi; Rawalpindi, Kangra,
Jammu, Multan and Hardwar witnessed
active participation in the Swadeshi
Movement; Chidambaram Pillai took the
movement to the Madras presidency, which
was also galvanized by Bipin Chandra Pal’s
extensive lecture tour.
19. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Young and radical nationalists, led by
Jawaharlal Nehru, had their own, very
different objections to the Nehru Report.
They were dissatisfied with its declaration
of Dominion Status on the lines of the self-
governing dominions, as the basis of the
future Constitution of India. Their slogan
was ‘Complete Independence.’
And it was in December, 1928, at the
annual session of the Congress at
Calcutta, that the battle was joined.
Jawaharlal Nehru, Subhash Bose and
Satyamurthi, backed by a large number
of delegates, pressed for the acceptance
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
of ‘Purna Swaraj’ or complete
independence as the goal of the
Congress.
Gandhiji, Motilal Nehru and many other
older leaders felt that the national
consensus achieved with such great
difficulty on Dominion Status should
not be abandoned in such haste and a
period of two years be given to the
Government for accepting this.
Under pressure, the grace of period for the
Government was reduced to a year and,
more important, the Congress decided that
if the Government did not accept a
Constitution based on Dominion Status by
the end of the year, the Congress would
not only adopt complete independence as
its goal, but it would also launch a Civil
Disobedience Movement to attain that goal.
20. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In August, 1935, the British Parliament
passed the Government of India Act of
1935. The Act provided for the
establishment of an All-India Federation to
be based on the union of the British Indian
provinces and the Princely States.
The representatives of the States to the
Federal Legislature were to be appointed
directly by the Princes, who were to be
used to check and counter the nationalists.
The franchise was limited to about one-
sixth of the adults.
Defence and foreign affairs would remain
outside the control of the Federal
Legislature, while the Viceroy would retain
special control over other subjects.
The provinces were to be governed under a
new system, based on provincial
autonomy, under which the elected
ministers controlled all provincial
departments. Once again, the Governors,
appointed by the British Government,
retained special powers. They could veto
legislative and administrative measures,
especially those concerning the minorities,
10
 the rights of the civil servants, law and
order and British business interests. The
Governor also had the power to take over
and indefinitely run the administration of a
province.
21. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Akali Movement made a massive
contribution to the political development of
Punjab. It awakened the Punjab peasantry.
As Mohinder Singh, the historian of the
Akali Movement, has pointed out: ‘It was
only during the Akali Movement that the
pro-British feudal leadership of the
Sikhs was replaced by the educated
middle-class nationalists, and the rural
and urban classes united on a common
platform during the two-pronged Akali
struggle.’
This Movement was also a model of a
movement on a religious issue, which was
utterly non-communal. To further quote
Mohinder Singh: ‘It was this idea of
liberation of the country from a foreign
Government that united all sections of the
Sikh community and brought the Hindus,
the Muslims and the Sikhs of the province
into the fold of the Akali Movement.’
The Akali Movement also awakened the
people of the Princely States of Punjab to
political consciousness and political
activity.
Many Savarna organizations, such as the
Nair Service Society; the Nair Samajam;
and the Kerala Hindu Sabha supported the
Satyagraha. Yogakshema Sabha, the
leading organization of the Namboodiris
(The highest Brahmins by caste), passed
a resolution favouring the opening of
the temples to the Avarnas. The temple
authorities and the Travancore
Government put up barricades on the
roads leading to the temple and the District
Magistrate served prohibitory orders on the
leaders of the Satyagraha.
Immediately after the Kakinada session,
the Kerala Provincial Congress Committee
(KPCC) took up the eradication of
untouchability as an urgent issue. While
carrying on a massive propaganda
campaign against untouchability and for
the educational and social upliftment of
the Harijans, it was decided to launch an
immediate movement to open the Hindu
temples and all public roads to the Avarnas
or the Harijans.

22. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
S.N. Reservoir State
1. Linganamakki Dam Karnataka
2. Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar Uttar Pradesh
3. Krishna Raja Sagar Karnataka

RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C) 11

23. Answer: (b)
Explanation:

RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C) 12

24. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent. A number of valleys lie
between these ranges. The northern-most range is known as the Great or the Inner Himalayas,
or the Himadri. It is the most continuous range, consisting of the loftiest peaks with an average
height of 6,000 metres. It contains all prominent Himalayan peaks.

RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C) 13

 The folds of the Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature. The core of this part of the
Himalayas is composed of granite. It is perennially snow bound and a number of glaciers
descend from this range.
The range lying to the south of the Himadri forms the most rugged mountain system and is
known as the Himachal or the Lesser Himalayas. The ranges are mainly composed of highly
compressed and altered rocks. The altitude varies between 3,700 and 4,500 metres, and the
average width is of 50 km. While the Pir Panjal range forms the longest and the most
important range, the Dhaula Dhar and the Mahabharat ranges are also the prominent
ones. This range consists of the famous valley of Kashmir, the Kangra and the Kullu valley in
Himachal Pradesh. This region is well-known for its hill stations.
Besides the longitudinal divisions, the Himalayas have been divided on the basis of regions from
the west to the east. These divisions have been demarcated by river valleys. For example, the
part of the Himalayas lying between the Indus and the Sutlej has been traditionally known as
the Punjab Himalayas, but it is also known regionally as Kashmir and Himachal Himalayas
from the west to the east, respectively. The part of the Himalayas lying between the Sutlej and
the Kali rivers is known as the Kumaon Himalayas. The Kali and the Teesta rivers demarcate
the Nepal Himalayas, and the part lying between the Teesta and the Dihang rivers is known as
the Assam Himalayas.

RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C) 14

25. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The weather in the retreating monsoon is dry in North India, but it is associated with rain
in the eastern part of the Peninsula. Here, October and November are the rainiest months
of the year.

RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C) 15

 The widespread rain in this season is associated with the passage of the cyclonic depressions,
which originate over the Andaman Sea and manage to cross the eastern coast of the southern
Peninsula. These tropical cyclones are very destructive. The thickly populated deltas of the
Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri are their preferred targets. Every year cyclones bring
disaster here. A few cyclonic storms also strike the coast of West Bengal, Bangladesh and
Myanmar. A bulk of the rainfall of the Coromondal Coast is derived from these depressions and
cyclones. Such cyclonic storms are less frequent in the Arabian Sea.

26. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Bordering the deserts, away from the Mediterranean regions and in the interiors of the
continents are the temperate grasslands. Though they lie in the Westerly wind belt, they are so
remote from the maritime influence that the grasslands are practically treeless.
These grasslands are so distinctive in their natural vegetation that, although those which occur
in the southern hemisphere, have a much more moderate climate, they are often dealt with
together. In the northern hemisphere, the grasslands are far more extensive and are entirely
continental.
In Eurasia, they are called the Steppes, and stretch eastwards from the shores of the Black Sea
across the great Russian plain to the foothills of the Altai Mountains. They are broken in a few
places, being interrupted by the highlands.
There are isolated sections in the Pustaz of Hungary and the plains of Manchuria. In North
America, the grasslands are also quite extensive and are called Prairies. They lie between the
foothills of the Rockies and the Great Lakes, astride the American-Canadian border.

27. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Turkey is situated at the crossroads of the Balkans, Caucasus, Middle East and eastern
Mediterranean.

RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C) 16

 Turkey is bounded by Georgia, Armenia, Azerbaijan, Iran, Iraq Syria, Greece and Bulgaria. The
capital is Ankara, and its largest city and seaport is Istanbul.

RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C) 17

28. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Mica:
 Mica mineral comprises not one mineral, but a group of phyllosilicate minerals, that exhibit
a layered or platy structure. Out of different mica, muscovite (potash or white mica) and
phlogopite (amber mica) are commercially important from an industrial point of view.
 Muscovite mineral is imbibed with elasticity, toughness, flexibility and transparency, with
high heat resistance and dielectric strength.
 Due to its unique properties, mica minerals find applicability in electrical industries as an
insulator, capacitor, etc. Besides, mica is used in paints, rubber and plastics as filler and re-
enforcer. Mica in small quantities is also employed for cosmetic applications.
 India has enormous deposits of low-grade potassium bearing minerals, like mica, glauconite
etc.
 Distribution in India: Andhra Pradesh leads in the country followed by Rajasthan,
Odisha, Maharashtra, Bihar, and a small quantity of resources is also found in
Jharkhand and Telangana.
 Mica waste, generated after cleaning and processing the mica ore that contains potassium
(K). Its potential as an alternative to costly potassic fertilizers is currently being exploited,
especially in India, where the entire demand for K fertilizers is met through imports.

29. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
About “Respiration”: Diverse organisms do this in different ways: Some use oxygen to break-
down glucose completely into carbon dioxide and water, some use other pathways that do not
involve oxygen.
In all cases, the first step is the break-down of glucose, a six-carbon molecule, into a
three-carbon molecule, called pyruvate. This process takes place in the cytoplasm.
Further, the pyruvate may be converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide. This process takes
place in yeast during fermentation.
Since this process takes place in the absence of air (oxygen), it is called “anaerobic respiration”.
Break-down of pyruvate using oxygen takes place in the mitochondria. This process breaks
up the three-carbon pyruvate molecule to give three molecules of carbon dioxide. The other
product is water. Since this process takes place in the presence of air (oxygen), it is called
“aerobic respiration”.

RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C) 18

 The release of energy in this aerobic process is a lot greater than in the anaerobic process.
Sometimes, when there is a lack of oxygen in our muscle cells, another pathway for the
break-down of pyruvate is taken. Here the pyruvate is converted into lactic acid, which is
also a three-carbon molecule. This build-up of lactic acid in our muscles during sudden
activity causes cramps.
The energy released during cellular respiration is immediately used to synthesize a molecule
called ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate), which is used to fuel all other activities in the cell. In
these processes, ATP is broken down, giving rise to a fixed amount of energy, which can drive
the endothermic reactions taking place in the cell.

30. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Innate immunity is the first line of defence
against pathogens that try to enter our
bodies. It is achieved through protective
barriers that prevent or limit the entry of
pathogens.
These barriers include –
Skin: The skin provides a physical barrier
to prevent the entry of pathogens. It also
produces anti-microbial peptides that can
kill the invading microbes.
Mucus: Mucus is produced by the
respiratory and digestive tracts and it acts
as a physical barrier to prevent the entry of
pathogens. It also contains anti-microbial
substances that can kill or neutralize the
invading microbes.
Stomach acid: The stomach produces
hydrochloric acid that can kill many types
of microbes that enter the body through
contaminated food or water.
32. Answer: (b)
Enzymes: Certain enzymes, such as
lysozyme, are produced in tears, saliva and
mucus. These enzymes can break down the
cell walls of many types of bacteria,
limiting their ability to cause infection.
31. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Pisces: These are fish. They are exclusively
aquatic animals. Their skin is covered with
scales/plates. They obtain oxygen
dissolved in water by using gills. The
body is streamlined, and a muscular tail is
used for movement. They are cold-blooded
and their hearts have only two chambers,
unlike the four that the humans have.
They lay eggs.
Reptilia: These animals are cold-blooded,
have scales and breathe through lungs.
While most of them have a three-
chambered heart, crocodiles have four
heart chambers. They lay eggs with
tough coverings and they do not need to
lay their eggs in water, unlike the
amphibians. Snakes, turtles, lizards and
crocodiles fall in this category.
Mammals: These are warm-blooded
animals with four-chambered hearts.
They have mammary glands for the
production of milk to nourish their young.
Their skin has hair, as well as sweat and
oil glands. Most mammals familiar to us
produce live young ones. However, a few of
them, like the platypus and the echidna lay
eggs, and some, like the kangaroos, give
birth to very poorly developed young ones.
Explanation:
The covering or protective tissues in the
animal body are epithelial tissues. They
also form a barrier to keep different body
systems separate. The skin, the lining of
the mouth, the lining of the blood
vessels, lung alveoli and kidney tubules
are all made of epithelial tissues.
Cuboidal epithelium (with cube-shaped
cells) forms the lining of the kidney
tubules and ducts of the salivary glands,
where it provides mechanical support.
Blood is a type of connective tissue. Blood
has a fluid (liquid) matrix, called plasma,

RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C) 19

 in which red blood corpuscles (RBCs),
white blood corpuscles (WBCs) and
platelets are suspended. The plasma
contains proteins, salts and hormones.
Blood flows and transports gases, digested
food, hormones and waste materials to
different parts of the body. Another type
of connective tissue, cartilage, has
widely spaced cells. The solid matrix is
composed of proteins and sugars. Cartilage
smoothens bone surfaces at joints and is
also present in the nose, ear, trachea and
larynx.
Muscular tissues consist of elongated
cells, also called muscle fibres. This tissue
is responsible for the movement in our
body. These muscles are also called
‘skeletal muscles’, as they are mostly
attached to the bones and help in body
movement. They are found in the iris of
the eye, in ureters and in the bronchi of
the lungs.
35. Answer: (d)
33. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) is a large
network of membrane-bound tubes and
sheets. It looks like long tubules or round
or oblong bags (vesicles). There are two
types of ER: Rough Endoplasmic
Reticulum (RER) and Smooth Endoplasmic
Reticulum (SER). RER looks rough under a
microscope, because it has particles, called
ribosomes, attached to its surface. The
ribosomes, which are present in all active
cells, are the sites of protein manufacture.
The SER helps in the manufacture of fat
molecules, or lipids, important for cell
function.
Thus, one function of the ER is to serve
as channels for the transport of
materials (especially proteins) between
various regions of the cytoplasm, or
between the cytoplasm and the nucleus.
The ER also functions as a cytoplasmic
framework providing a surface for some of
the biochemical activities of the cell. In the
liver cells of the group of animals called
vertebrates, SER plays a crucial role in
detoxifying many poisons and drugs.
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
34. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The biologists have introduced a new and
improved CRISPR 3.0 (CRISPR = Clustered
Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic
Repeats) system in the plants, focusing on
gene activation. This third generation
system focuses on multiplexed gene
activation that can boost the function of
multiple genes simultaneously.
According to the researchers, this system
boasts four to six times the activation
capacity of the current state-of-the-art
CRISPR technology, demonstrating high
accuracy and efficiency in upto seven
genes at once. While CRISPR is more often
known for its gene editing capabilities that
can knock out genes that are undesirable,
activating genes to gain functionality is
essential to creating better plants and
crops for the future.
Explanation:
The bases of the MicroLED technology are
sapphires. A sapphire can shine on its own
forever. A MicroLED screen is filled with
such small, but strong light. The picture in
a MicroLED screen is generated by several
individual light-emitting diodes.
MicroLEDs are self-illuminating diodes
that have brighter and better colour
reproduction than the Organic Light
Emitting Diode (OLED) display technology.
MicroLED displays are brighter, have
better colour reproduction and provide
better viewing angles. They make images
appear as if they are painted on the top of
the device’s glass and are quite a
technological feat.
MicroLEDs have limitless scalability, as
they are resolution-free, bezel-free, ratio-
free and even size-free.
The screen can be freely re-sized in any
form for practical usage. In addition to
being self-emissive, the MicroLEDs also
individually produce red, green and blue
colours, without needing the same
backlighting or colour filters as
conventional displays.
20
36. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) is
a 3-stage Launch Vehicle, configured with
three solid propulsion stages and liquid
propulsion based Velocity Trimming
Module (VTM) as a terminal stage. SSLV is
2m in diameter and 34m in length, with
lift-off weight of ~120 tonnes. SSLV is
capable of launching ~500kg satellite in
the 500 km planar orbit from SDSC (The
Satish Dhawan Space Centre)/SHAR
(Sriharikota Range). The key features of
SSLV are low cost, with low turn-around
time, flexibility in accommodating multiple
satellites, launch on demand feasibility,
minimal launch infrastructure
requirements, etc.
Vehicle Configuration:
 2m diameter x 34m long.
 Lift-off mass: ~120 T.
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
 Three solid propulsion stages.
 Liquid module as terminal stage.
Payload Capability:
 Single/Multi Satellites: Nano, Micro
and Mini satellites.
 Single satellite upto 500 kg in the
500km planar orbit.
 Three multiple satellites, ranging from
10kg to 300kg, into the 500 km planar
orbit.
Velocity Trimming Module (VTM):
Velocity Trimming Module based on 50N
Bipropellant Thrusters, with 8 nos. of 50N
thrusters for RCS and 8 nos. of 50N axial
thrusters of velocity addition.
37. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Gravitational lensing occurs when a large
distribution of matter, such as a galaxy
cluster, sits between the Earth and a
distant light source. As space is warped by
massive objects, the light from the distant
object bends as it travels to us and we see
a distorted image of it. This effect was first
predicted by Einstein’s Theory of General
Relativity.
Strong gravitational lenses provide an
opportunity for studying the properties of
the distant galaxies, since the Hubble
Space Telescope can resolve the details
within the multiple arcs that are one of the
main results of gravitational lensing. An
important consequence of lensing
distortion is magnification, allowing us to
observe the objects that would otherwise
be too far away and too faint to be seen.
38. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Explainable Artificial Intelligence (XAI) is a
set of processes and methods that allows
the human users to comprehend and trust
the results and output created by machine
learning algorithms. Explainable AI is used
to describe an AI model, its expected
21
 impact and potential biases. It helps
characterize model accuracy, fairness,
transparency and outcomes in AI-powered
decision making.
Black Boxes take input and provide output
with no way to understand their inner
workings. The goal of XAI is to make the
rationale behind the output of an algorithm
understandable by the humans.
39. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Central Government will roll out a
mission to eliminate Sickle Cell Anaemia
(SCA) by 2047, the Finance Minister,
Nirmala Sitharaman, announced in her
Union Budget 2023-24 speech.
Sickle Cell Anaemia is a common genetic
disorder among the Indians affecting the
red blood cells. It is transmitted by the
parents carrying a defective ‘beta globin’
gene. The disease starts early in life. Those
affected have persistent pain, low amount
of haemoglobin, low energy, reduced
growth along with other abnormalities and
multiple episodes of frequent severe pain.
Like most genetic disorders, SCA has no
cure, but has symptomatic treatments for
pain, anaemia and vaso-occlusive crisis.
The disease is well-known in the tribal
populations, as well as prevalent in general
populations in Maharashtra, Madhya
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
40. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Pineapple Express: These are the
long, narrow regions in the atmosphere
that transport most of the water vapour
outside the Tropics.
The Pineapple Express is an example of a
strong atmospheric river, because
“moisture builds up in the Tropical Pacific
around Hawaii and can wallop the US and
Canada’s West Coasts with heavy rainfall
and snow.”
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
These columns of vapour move with the
weather, carrying an amount of water
vapour roughly equivalent to the average
flow of water at the mouth of the
Mississippi river. When the atmospheric
rivers make landfall, they often release this
water vapour in the form of rain or snow.
Although the atmospheric rivers come in
different shapes and sizes, for one to be a
“true Pineapple Express,” the location
matters. The tail-end, where the moisture
is pulled into the atmosphere, must start
near Hawaii. Then the river must stretch
continuously through the atmosphere to
the US West Coast.
41. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Bombogenesis, a term used by the
meteorologists, occurs when a mid-
latitude (The latitudes between the
Tropics and the Polar regions) cyclone
rapidly intensifies, or strengthens, over
a 24-hour period. This intensification is
represented by a drop in millibars, a
measurement of pressure used in
meteorology. The intensification required to
classify as "bombogenesis" varies by
latitude. At 60 degrees latitude, it is a drop
of at least 24 millibars (24 hectopascals)
over 24 hours. At the latitude of New York
City, the required pressure drop is about
17.8 millibars (17.8 hectopascals) over 24
hours.
Bombogenesis can happen when a cold air
mass collides with a warm air mass, such
as air over the warm ocean waters. It is
popularly referred to as a bomb cyclone.
42. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Mycorrhizae are a group of fungi. These
fungi grow on the roots of the plants.
Seedlings that have mycorrhizal fungi
growing on their roots survive better after
transplantation and grow faster. The
fungal symbiont gets shelter and food
22
 from the plant, which acquires an array
of benefits, such as better uptake of
phosphorus, salinity and drought
tolerance, maintenance of water balance
and overall increase in plant growth and
development. Mycorrhizal fungi can
increase the yield by 30%-40%. It can
absorb phosphorus from the soil and pass
it on the plant. Mycorrhizal plants show
higher tolerance to high soil temperatures,
various soil and root borne pathogens, and
heavy metal toxicity.
45. Answer: (a)
43. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
‘Seeds Without Borders’ is a regional seed
policy agreement that speeds up the
distribution of modern rice varieties across
countries in Asia, particularly in South and
South-east Asia. In 2014, the International
Rice Research Institute (IRRI) facilitated
the agreement signed by India, Bangladesh
and Nepal.
Other Members: The Philippines, Vietnam,
Fiji, Bhutan, Cambodia and Sri Lanka.
44. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The Blue Bonds comprise the funds
raised for sustainable water
management, including clean water
and water recycling, and sustainable
maritime sector, including sustainable
shipping, sustainable fishing, fully
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traceable sustainable seafood, ocean
energy and ocean mapping.
 The Yellow Bonds comprise the funds
raised for solar energy generation,
and the upstream industries and
downstream industries associated
with it.
 The Transition Bonds comprise of
funds raised for transitioning to a more
sustainable form of operations, in line
with India’s Intended Nationally
Determined Contributions.
Explanation:
The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment
Act, 2022:
1. Invasive alien species has been
defined as a species of animal or plant
which is not native to India and whose
introduction or spread may threaten or
adversely impact the wildlife or its
habitat.
2. The zoo has been defined as an
establishment, whether stationary or
mobile, where captive animals are kept
for exhibiting to the public or ex-situ
conservation, and includes a circus
and off-exhibit facilities, such as rescue
centres and conservation breeding
centres, but does not include an
establishment of a licensed dealer in
captive animals.
3. No renewal of any licence under the
Arms Act, 1959, shall be granted to
any person residing within ten
kilometres of a Sanctuary, except
under the intimation to the Chief
Wildlife Warden or the authorized
officer.
4. Invasive Alien Species was earlier not
defined under the Wildlife Protection
Act, 1972. However, the Wildlife
(Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 has
for the first time defined "invasive alien
species" as a species of animal or plant
which is not native to India and whose
23
 introduction or spread may threaten or
adversely impact wild life or its habitat.
46. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Bridgetown Initiative: The
Bridgetown Initiative, proposed by
Barbados Prime Minister, Mia Mottley,
seeks to break the deadlock over climate
finance by using the power of the
international reserve currencies in the form
of the IMF (The International Monetary
Fund)’s Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) to
drive private investment into transition
projects in the LMICs (The Low- and
Middle-Income Countries) at no direct cost
to the rich and the poor country taxpayers.
The Green Grids Initiative - One Sun,
One World, One Grid (GGI-OSOWOG) was
conceived in 2018 to develop global inter-
connected solar energy systems. In May,
2021, India and the United
Kingdom committed to launching the GGI
at COP26.
The Initiative aims to build a framework for
global cooperation on the effective
utilization of renewable resources and to
help ensure that clean and efficient energy
is a reliable option for all nations to meet
their energy requirements by 2030.
This project aspires to harness the Sun’s
energy and build a global inter-connected
electricity grid to accelerate the transition
to renewable energy.
47. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022:
These Rules will apply to every
manufacturer, producer, refurbisher,
dismantler and recycler involved in
manufacture, sale, transfer, purchase,
refurbishing, dismantling, recycling and
processing of e-waste or electrical or
electronic equipment (EEE), listed in
Schedule I, including their components,
consumables, parts and spares.
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
However, these Rules do not apply to:
(a) Waste batteries, as covered under
the Battery Waste Management
Rules, 2022;
(b) Packaging plastics, as covered under
the Plastic Waste Management Rules,
2016;
(c) Micro enterprises, as defined in the
MSME (The Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises) Development Act, 2006;
and
(d) Radioactive wastes as covered under
the Atomic Energy Act, 1962.
The ‘Extended Producer Responsibility’
Framework:
 The entities shall register on the
portal in any of the following: (a)
Manufacturer (b) Producer (c)
Refurbisher (d) Recycler. If an entity
falls in more than one category, then
the entity shall register under those
categories separately.
 No entity shall carry out any business
without registration, and shall not deal
with any unregistered manufacturer,
producer, recycler and refurbisher.
Note: The consumers are not required to
register on the portal.
The Responsibilities of the
Manufacturers, Producers: Register on
the portal, collect e-waste generated during
manufacture of electrical or electronic
equipment, and ensure its recycling or
disposal, file annual and quarterly returns.
The Responsibilities of the Refurbishers:
Register on the portal, collect e-waste
generated during the process of
refurbishing and hand over the waste to
the registered recycler and upload
information on the portal, ensure that the
refurbished equipment shall be as per the
Compulsory Registration Scheme of the
Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology (MeitY) and the standards of
the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), file
annual and quarterly returns.
24
 The Responsibilities of the Bulk
Consumers: The bulk consumers of the
electrical and electronic equipment shall
ensure that the e-waste generated by them
shall be handed over only to the registered
producer, refurbisher or recycler.
Reduction in the Use of the Hazardous
Substances in the Manufacture of EEE
(Electrical or Electronic Equipment):
 Every producer of EEE and their
components etc., shall ensure that new
EEE and its components etc., do not
contain lead, mercury, cadmium,
hexavalent chromium, polybrominated
biphenyls or polybrominated diphenyl
ethers beyond a maximum
concentration value.
Management of Solar Photo-voltaic
Modules or Panels or Cells:
Every manufacturer and producer of the
solar photo-voltaic modules or panels
or cells shall
(i) ensure registration on the portal;
(ii) Store the solar PV modules or panels or
cells waste generated upto year 2034-
35, as per the guidelines of the CPCB;
(iii) ensure that inventory of the solar
photo-voltaic modules or panels or cells
shall be put in place distinctly or
portal; and
(iv) comply with the standard operating
procedure.
The Modalities of the Extended
Producer Responsibility (EPR) Regime:
The extended producer responsibility shall
lie entirely on the producer only.
Transaction of the EPR Certificates:
 A producer may purchase the EPR
certificates limited to its EPR liability of
the current year, plus any leftover
liability of the preceding years, plus 5%
of the current year liability.
 As soon as the producer purchases the
EPR certificate, it shall be automatically
adjusted against its liability, and
priority in adjustment shall be given to
the earlier liability. The EPR certificate,
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so adjusted, shall be automatically
extinguished and cancelled.
48. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Santiago Network was established at
COP 25, in Madrid (Spain), under the
United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change with the objective of
“catalysing technical assistance of relevant
organizations, bodies, networks and
experts, for the implementation of relevant
approaches for averting, minimize and
addressing loss and damage at the local,
national and regional levels, in the
developing countries that are particularly
vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate
change.”
The Santiago Network for Loss and
Damage was established to connect the
developing countries with the providers of
technical assistance, knowledge and
resources.
49. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The United Nations inked the first ‘High
Seas Treaty’ in a bid to protect the ocean
bodies of the world that lie outside the
national boundaries and form almost two-
thirds of the world's oceans.
The High Seas Treaty now places 30% of
the world's international waters into the
Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) by 2030.
The Treaty aims to protect against
potential impacts, like deep sea mining.
This is the process of collecting minerals
from the ocean bed. The Treaty, amongst
other things, will put a restriction on how
much fishing can be done on the high seas.
The Intergovernmental Conference on
Marine Biodiversity of Areas Beyond
National Jurisdiction, better known by its
acronym BBNJ, decision builds on the
legacy of the UN Convention on the Law of
the Sea (UNCLOS).
This Treaty is legally binding.
25
50. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Durung-Drung and Pensilungpa, two
Glaciers in Ladakh, have retreated by 7.8
sq. km., and 1.5 sq. km., respectively, from
1971 to 2019. The scientists hold climate
change and several other factors
responsible for the melting of the Glaciers
that feed the Zanskar River through two
tributaries.
The scientists are also surprised by the
fact that, despite being at an aerial
distance of just 1 km., the Glaciers are
retreating at different paces.
The glaciers are located in Pensi-La pass in
Ladakh.
51. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The International Energy Agency (IEA)’s
latest update of its Global Methane
Tracker found that the global energy
industry was responsible for 135 million
tonnes of methane released into the
atmosphere in 2022, only slightly below
the record highs seen in 2019.
Presently, the energy sector accounts for
around 40% of the total methane
emissions attributable to human activities,
second only to agriculture.
Methane is responsible for around 30% of
the rise in the global temperatures since
the Industrial Revolution. It dissipates
faster than carbon dioxide, but is a much
more powerful greenhouse gas during its
short life-span.
52. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The International Convention for the
Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(MARPOL) is the main international
Convention covering the prevention of
pollution of the marine environment by the
ships from operational or accidental
causes.
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
The Convention includes regulations aimed
at preventing and minimizing pollution
from the ships - both accidental pollution
and that from routine operations.
The "Convention on the Prevention of
Marine Pollution by Dumping of Wastes
and Other Matter, 1972", the "London
Convention" for short, is one of the first
global Conventions to protect the marine
environment from human activities and
has been in force since 1975. Its objective
is to promote the effective control of all
sources of marine pollution and to take all
practicable steps to prevent pollution of the
sea by dumping of wastes and other
matter.
The Vienna Convention was the first
Convention of any kind to be signed by
every country involved, taking effect in
1988 and reaching universal ratification
in 2009. This speaks of the enormity of
ozone depletion at the time and the
willingness of the countries around the
world to work together to solve it.
By 1985, the globe had already seen
advancements in the scientific
understanding of ozone depletion, and its
impacts on the human health and the
environment. It was then that the Vienna
Convention for the Protection of the Ozone
Layer was created in response. This
agreement is a Framework Convention that
lays out the principles agreed upon by
many parties. It does not, however, require
the countries to take control actions to
protect the ozone layer. This would come
later in the form of the Montreal Protocol.
53. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
A few organisms can tolerate and thrive
in a wide range of temperatures (They
are called ‘eurythermal’), but, a vast
majority of them are restricted to a
narrow range of temperatures (Such
organisms are called ‘stenothermal’).
The levels of thermal tolerance of different
26
 species determine, to a large extent, their
geographical distribution.
In animals, the organisms, if unable to
migrate, might avoid the stress by escaping
in time. The familiar case of the bears
going into ‘hibernation’ during winter is an
example of escape in time. Some snails and
fish go into ‘aestivation’ to avoid summer–
related problems, like heat and
dessication. Under unfavourable
conditions, many zooplankton species in
the lakes and the ponds are known to
enter ‘diapause’, a stage of suspended
development.
54. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
In many species of fig trees, there is a tight
one-to-one relationship with the pollinator
species of wasp. It means that a given fig
species can be pollinated only by its
‘partner’ wasp species and no other
species.
The female wasp uses the fruit not only as
an oviposition (egg-laying) site, but uses
the developing seeds within the fruit for
nourishing its larvae. The wasp pollinates
the fig inflorescence while searching for
suitable egg-laying sites. In return for the
favour of pollination, the fig offers the wasp
some of its developing seeds, as food for
the developing wasp larvae.
Orchids show a bewildering diversity of
floral patterns, many of which have evolved
to attract the right pollinator insect (bees
and bumblebees) and ensure guaranteed
pollination by it. Not all orchids offer
rewards.
The Mediterranean Orchid Ophrys employ
‘sexual deceit’ to get pollination done by a
species of bee. One petal of its flower bears
an uncanny resemblance to the female of
the bee in size, colour and markings. The
male bee is attracted to what it perceives
as a female, ‘pseudocopulates’ with the
flower, and during that process is dusted
with pollen from the flower. When this
same bee ‘pseudocopulates’ with another
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flower, it transfers pollen to it and thus,
pollinates the flower.
55. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A constant input of solar energy is the
basic requirement for any ecosystem to
function and sustain. Primary production
is defined as the amount of biomass or
organic matter produced per unit area over
a time period by the plants during
photosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of
weight (gm–2) or energy (kcal m–2). The
rate of biomass production is called
productivity.
It is expressed in terms of gm–2 yr–1 or
(kcal m–2) yr–1 to compare the productivity
of different ecosystems. It can be divided
into Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) and
Net Primary Productivity (NPP). Gross
Primary Productivity of an ecosystem is
the rate of production of organic matter
during photosynthesis. A considerable
amount of GPP is utilized by the plants in
respiration. Gross Primary Productivity
minus respiration losses (R), is the Net
Primary Productivity (NPP).
Net Primary Productivity is the available
biomass for the consumption to the
heterotrophs (herbivores and
decomposers). Secondary productivity is
defined as the rate of formation of new
organic matter by the consumers.
Primary productivity depends on the plant
species inhabiting a particular area. It also
depends on a variety of environmental
factors, availability of nutrients and
photosynthetic capacity of the plants.
Therefore, it varies in different types of
ecosystems.
56. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
SPACES is a coalition that believes in the
central role of spatial intelligence in joint
decision-making for nature, climate and
sustainable development objectives.
27
 SPACES is coordinated by the UN
Environment Programme World
Conservation Monitoring Centre (UNEP-
WCMC) and SYSTEMIQ, working with the
UN Development Programme (UNDP),
International Institute for Applied Systems
Analysis (IIASA) and International Institute
for Sustainability (IIS) amongst other
collaborators.
57. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
SAF is a biofuel used to power aircraft that
has similar properties to conventional jet
fuel but with a smaller carbon footprint.
It has the greatest potential to reduce CO2
emissions from International Aviation.
SAF can be blended at up to 50% with
traditional jet fuel and all quality tests are
completed as per a traditional jet fuel.
SAF is currently costlier than traditional
fossil jet fuel. It has the potential to provide
a lifecycle carbon reduction of up to 80%
compared to the traditional jet fuel it
replaces.
58. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Destination Flyways Project is
channelling the vast potential to harness
bird-related tourism to help conserve
the migratory birds, while at the same time
supporting local communities. It is led by
the World Tourism Organization (UNWTO),
together with partners with sound
experience in the field of conservation and
tourism.
The Destination Flyways Projects will
promote sustainable tourism for the local
communities at eight important migratory
bird sites in Africa, Asia and Europe, that
migratory birds need to survive. The
preliminary phase of the Project is ongoing
with support from Federal Ministry for the
Environment, Nature Conservation,
Nuclear Safety and Consumer Protection.
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59. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
There is no provision under the Ancient
Monuments and Archaeological Sites and
Remains Act, 1958 to declare a site as a
“Water Heritage Site” under Archaeological
Survey of India (ASI). However, the
Ministry of Jal Shakti had constituted a
Committee to identify 75 Water Heritage
Structure (WHS) in reference to 75 years of
India's Independence.
60. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Cryomesh Technology: Scientists in
Australia have successfully used a
Cryomesh technology for freezing and
storing coral larvae. This method is
expected to eventually help rewild coral
reefs threatened by climate change. This is
the first time that scientists have been able
to freeze coral larvae.
The new lightweight cryomesh can be
manufactured cheaply and better preserves
coral. The cryomesh technology will help
store coral larvae at -196oC. The cryomesh
was previously trialled on smaller and
larger varities of Hawaiian corals.
61. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Windsor Framework permits free
trade between the Great Britain and
Northern Ireland, through the use of
‘green’ and ‘red lanes’ for goods flowing
into Northern Ireland. The ‘green lane
goods’ will have fewer checks and controls,
including no customs checks or rules of
origin. The ‘red lane goods’, under the
Framework, will be subject to full checks
and controls to preserve the EU’s single
market. In a bid to ease the impact on the
farmers, agri-food goods, such as meat and
dairy, will have reduced checks and
controls, and food retailers, including
super-markets, wholesalers and caterers,
will be able to move agri-food via the green
lane. The prohibition on certain chilled
28
 meats from the Great Britain being sold in
Northern Ireland will be removed. The UK
and the EU leaders are hoping that this
would lead to greater availability of the
British goods in Northern Ireland markets,
including both foods and medicines.
62. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Burkina Faso: It recently faced Jihadist
insurgency.
Tunisia: Political protest against the
President erupted.
Lebanon: Israel and Lebanon signed a
maritime sector agreement.
65. Answer: (c)
Croatia: Croatia switched to the shared
European currency, the Euro, and removed
dozens of border check-points to join the
world’s largest passport-free travel area.
63. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Sievierodonetsk: Administratively,
Sievierodonetsk falls under Ukraine’s
Luhansk Oblast (province).
Saint-Tropez: France
Reunion Island: France
Transnistria: Moldova
64. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Business Council of the Shanghai
Cooperation Organization was founded in
2006, in Shanghai. It is a non-government
entity that unites the highly authoritative
business community representatives of the
SCO (The Shanghai Cooperation
Organization) member states, with an eye
towards expanding economic co-operation,
establishing direct relations and a dialogue
between the business and financial
communities, and facilitating the practical
promotion of multilateral projects.
The SCO Business Council is an
independent institution, capable of taking
advisory decisions and giving expert
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
assessments regarding the involvement
of the members of the business
communities of the SCO member states
in trade, economic and investment
interaction within the framework of the
Organization.
The SCO Business Council's permanent
secretariat is headquartered at Moscow.
The SCO Interbank Consortium (SCO IBC)
was established by the Council of Heads
of Government in 2005, to provide funding
and bank services for investment projects
sponsored by the governments of the SCO
member states.
Explanation:
The Security Council of the United Nations
can take action to maintain or restore
international peace and security under
Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter.
Sanctions measures, under Article 41,
encompass a broad range of
enforcement options that do not involve
the use of armed force.
The Security Council sanctions have taken
a number of different forms, in pursuit of a
variety of goals. The measures have ranged
from comprehensive economic and trade
sanctions, to more targeted measures,
such as arms embargoes, travel bans and
financial or commodity restrictions. The
Security Council has applied sanctions to
support peaceful transitions, deter non-
constitutional changes, constrain
terrorism, protect human rights and
promote non-proliferation.
Today, there are 14 ongoing sanctions
regimes which focus on supporting political
settlement of conflicts, nuclear non-
proliferation, and counter-terrorism. Each
regime is administered by a Sanctions
Committee, chaired by a Non-Permanent
Member of the Security Council.
As part of its commitment to ensure that
fair and clear procedures exist for placing
individuals and entities on sanctions lists
29
 and for removing them, as well as for
granting humanitarian exemptions, the
Security Council in 2006, adopted
resolution 1730 (2006), by which the
Council requested the Secretary-General to
establish within the Secretariat (Security
Council Subsidiary Organs Branch), a focal
point to receive de-listing requests and
perform the tasks described in the annex
to that resolution.
66. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Wassenaar Arrangement on Export
Controls for Conventional Arms and Dual-
Use Goods and Technologies
 India will assume the Chairmanship of
the Wassenaar Arrangement (WA), a
multilateral technology control
agreement.
 “The Wassenaar Arrangement is a
multilateral export control regime,
which, through regular information
exchange among the members on the
transfers of conventional arms, and
dual-use goods and technologies, seeks
to promote transparency and greater
responsibility in such transfers and
prevent destabilizing accumulations."
 The Wassenaar Arrangement came into
being in 1996 and has 42 members.
The WA operates on a voluntary basis
and the decisions are made by
consensus.
 Every six months, the members
exchange information on the deliveries
of conventional arms to the non-
Wassenaar members, that fall under 8
broad weapon categories: battle tanks,
armoured combat vehicles (ACVs),
large-calibre artillery, military
aircrafts/unmanned aerial vehicles,
military and attack helicopters,
warships, missiles or missile systems,
and small arms and light weapons.
 The WA maintains the lists of
technologies which are of interest.
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
 Prominent non-members include China
and Israel.
 India joined the Wassenaar
Arrangement (WA) in 2017 and became
its 42nd member.
67. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Restrictions on the freedom of the
individuals may come from domination and
external controls. Such restrictions may be
imposed by force or they may be imposed
by a government through laws, which
embody the power of the rulers over the
people and which may have the backing of
force. This was the form of constraint
represented by the colonial rulers over
their subjects, or by the system of
apartheid in South Africa. Some form of
government may be inevitable, but if the
government is a democratic one, the
members of a state could retain some
control over their rulers. That is why
democratic government is considered to be
an important means of protecting the
freedom of the people.
But, constraints on freedom can also result
from social inequality of the kind implicit
in the caste system, or which result from
extreme economic inequality in a society.
The quotation from Subhash Chandra
Bose on freedom draws attention to the
need for the country to work to remove
such constraints.
“We cannot live in a world where there
are no constraints. We need some
constraints or else the society would
descend into chaos. Differences may exist
between the people regarding their ideas
and opinions, they may have conflicting
ambitions, they may compete to control the
scarce resources.”
68. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Preamble secures to all citizens of
India, equality of status and opportunity.
30
 This provision embraces three dimensions
of equality: civic, political and economic.
The following provisions of the Chapter on
Fundamental Rights ensure civic equality:
(a) Equality before the law (Article 14).
(b) Prohibition of discrimination on
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or
place of birth (Article 15).
(c) Equality of opportunity in matters of
public employment (Article 16).
(d) Abolition of untouchability (Article 17).
(e) Abolition of titles (Article 18).
There are two provisions in the
Constitution that seek to achieve
political equality: One, no person is to be
declared ineligible for inclusion in the
electoral rolls on grounds of religion, race,
caste or sex (Article 325).
Two, elections to the Lok Sabha and the
State Assemblies to be on the basis of
adult suffrage (Article 326).
The Directive Principles of State Policy
(Article 39) secure to men and women,
equal right to an adequate means of
livelihood and equal pay for equal work.
The Preamble embodies the basic
philosophy and fundamental values–
political, moral and religious–on which the
Constitution is based.
In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973),
the Supreme Court rejected the earlier
opinion and held that the Preamble is a
part of the Constitution. It observed that
the Preamble is of extreme importance and
the Constitution should be read and
interpreted in the light of the grand and
noble vision expressed in the Preamble.
Two things should be noted:
1. The Preamble is neither a source of
power to the legislature, nor a
prohibition upon the powers of the
legislature.
2. The Court held that the basic elements
or the fundamental features of the
Constitution, as contained in the
Preamble, cannot be altered by an
amendment under Article 368.
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
69. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights-PART-III of the
Indian Constitution –
Right to Freedom of Religion:
 Freedom of conscience and free
profession, practice and propagation of
religion
 Freedom to manage religious affairs
 Freedom to pay taxes for promotion of
any particular religion
 Freedom to attend religious instruction
or worship in certain educational
institutions
Cultural and Educational Rights:
 Protection of language, culture of
minorities
 Right of minorities to establish
educational institutions
70. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
All the above statements have been
provided for in the Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha.
Rule 56: Subject to the provisions of these
Rules, a motion for an adjournment of the
business of the House for the purpose of
discussing a definite matter of urgent
public importance may be made with the
consent of the Speaker.
Rule 8: The election of the Deputy
Speaker shall be held on such date as
the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-
General shall send to every member the
notice of this date.
Rule 43: The Speaker to decide
admissibility: The Speaker shall decide
whether a question, or a part thereof, is or
is not admissible under these Rules and
may disallow any question, or a part
thereof, when in the opinion of the
Speaker, it is an abuse of the right of
questioning or is calculated to obstruct or
prejudicially affect the procedure of the
31
 House or is in contravention of these
Rules.
Rule 44 - Speaker to decide if a question is
to be treated as starred or unstarred.
If in the opinion of the Speaker any
question put down for oral answer is of
such a nature that a written reply would be
more appropriate, the Speaker may direct
that such question be placed on the list of
questions for written answer:
Provided that the Speaker, if thinks fit,
may call upon the member who has given
notice of a question for oral answer to state
in brief the reasons for desiring an oral
answer and, after considering the same,
may direct that the question be included in
the list of questions for written answer.
71. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The general principle is that it is the role
and duty of the Presiding Officer — The
Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha — to
maintain order, so that the House can
function smoothly. In order to ensure that
the proceedings are conducted in a proper
manner, the Speaker/Chairman is
empowered to force a Member to withdraw
from the House.
Rule Number 373 of the Rules of
Procedure and Conduct of Business
says: The Speaker, if he is of the opinion
that the conduct of any Member is grossly
disorderly, may direct such Member to
withdraw immediately from the House, and
any Member so ordered to withdraw shall
do so forthwith and shall remain absent
during the remainder of the day’s sitting.
According to Rule Number 374A: (1)
Notwithstanding anything contained in
Rules 373 and 374, in the event of grave
disorder occasioned by a Member coming
into the well of the House or abusing the
Rules of the House persistently and wilfully
obstructing its business by shouting
slogans or otherwise, such Member shall,
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
on being named by the Speaker, stand
automatically suspended from the service
of the House for five consecutive sittings,
or the remainder of the session, whichever
is less: Provided that the House may, at
any time, on a motion being made,
resolve that such suspension be
terminated.
72. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Constitutional and Legal Principles to
ensure Judicial Independence:
 Article 141: The law declared by the
Supreme Court shall be binding on all
courts within the territory of India.
 Separation of Power: Article 50: The
separation of power between the
Legislature, the Executive and the
Judiciary is now a part of the Basic
Structure of the Indian Constitution.
 Security of the Tenure of the Judges:
The judges of the Supreme Court or the
High Courts cannot be removed
arbitrarily by the executive and their
removal has to undergo rigorous
legislative scrutiny, as provided
under Article 124 (4). Further, Article
124 (5) mentions that the removal of
the judge on the grounds of
“misbehaviour” and “incapacity” can
be prescribed by law made by the
Parliament.
 The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968: It
lays down the process to remove the
judges of the Supreme Court and the
High Courts, including the investigation
necessary to prove misbehaviour or
incapacity.
 The salaries of the judges cannot be
reduced: Article 125 (2): The salaries
of the judges are fixed by the
Parliament and these cannot be
reduced during the tenure of the judge.
Privileges, allowances, leaves and
pension provided to a judge cannot be
32
 varied or reduced to his/her
disadvantage.
 The expenses of the Supreme Court
charged upon the Consolidated Fund
of India: Article 146 (3): This ensures
financial independence of the judiciary
away from the Parliament’s vote on the
matter or executive’s pressure or
influence.
 The jurisdiction of the Courts cannot
be diminished: The Parliament cannot
reduce the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court or the High Courts, by passing
any law on appeals or Supreme Court’s
Original Jurisdiction, under Article
131 with respect to dispute between
the Centre and the States.
 The Constitution insulates the
judges from criticism in the
Parliament and the State
Legislatures: The Parliament or the
State Legislatures cannot discuss the
conduct of the judges in discharge of
their duties.
Protection from Contempt Proceedings:
The Supreme Court, in the Keshav
Singh Case, held that Articles 121 and 211
also protect a judge of court from any
contempt proceedings, which may be taken
against him/her in discharge of his/her
duties.
The Chief Justice of India (CJI) as the
Master of the Roster
Asok Pande vs Supreme Court of India,
2018: Appointments of officers and
servants of the Supreme Court shall be
made by the Chief Justice of India or such
other Judge or officer of the Court as he
may direct: of India as the head of the
institution. From an institutional
perspective the Chief Justice is placed at
the helm of the Supreme Court. In the
allocation of cases and the constitution
of benches the Chief Justice has an
exclusive prerogative. As a repository of
constitutional trust, the Chief Justice is an
institution in himself. The authority which
is conferred upon the Chief Justice, it must
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
be remembered, is vested in a high
constitutional functionary. The authority
is entrusted to the Chief Justice
because such an entrustment of
functions is necessary for the efficient
transaction of the administrative and
judicial work of the Court. The ultimate
purpose behind the entrustment of
authority to the Chief Justice is to
ensure that the Supreme Court is able
to fulfil and discharge the constitutional
obligations which govern and provide
the rationale for its existence. The
entrustment of functions to the Chief
Justice as the head of the institution, is
with the purpose of securing the
position of the Supreme Court as an
independent safeguard for the
preservation of personal liberty. There
cannot be a presumption of mistrust. The
oath of office demands nothing less.
73. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Constitutional and Legal Provisions
against Land Acquisition of the Tribals:
The Scheduled Tribes (STs) have been the
most marginalized, isolated and deprived
population. To protect and safeguard the
land rights of the STs and to address the
issue of land acquisition and displacement
of the tribals, following Constitutional and
legal provisions have been put in place:
The Constitution of India: Under the
Fifth Schedule:
 The Governor of the State, which has
Scheduled Areas, is empowered to
prohibit or restrict the transfer of land
from the tribals and regulate the
allotment of land to the members of the
Scheduled Tribes.
 Land, being a State Subject, various
provisions of rehabilitation and
resettlement, as per the Right to Fair
Compensation and Transparency in
Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and
Resettlement Act, 2013 (The RFCTLARR
33
 Act, 2013), are implemented by the
concerned State Governments.
The Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006:
 The member of the forest dwelling
Scheduled Tribes or Other Traditional
Forest Dweller shall not be evicted or
removed from the forest land under his
occupation, till the recognition and
verification procedure is complete.
 The Gram Sabha is empowered to
regulate access to the community forest
resources and stop any activity which
adversely affects the wild animals,
forests and biodiversity.
The Right to Fair Compensation and
Transparency in Land Acquisition,
Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act,
2013 (The RFCTLARR Act, 2013):
 Section 48: National Level Monitoring
Committee for Rehabilitation and
Resettlement has been constituted to
review and monitor implementation of
rehabilitation and resettlement
schemes and plans related to land
acquisition under the RFCTLARR Act,
2013, and the National Rehabilitation
and Resettlement Policy, 2007.
 Section 41(1): As far as possible, no
acquisition of land shall be made in the
Scheduled Areas.
 Section 41(2): Any land acquisition
shall be done only as a demonstrable
last resort.
 Section 41(3): In case of acquisition or
alternation of any land in the
Scheduled Areas, the prior consent of
the concerned Gram Sabha or the
Panchayat or the Autonomous District
Councils in the Scheduled Areas under
the Fifth Schedule to the Constitution
be obtained, in all cases of land
acquisition in such areas, including
acquisition in case of urgency.
The Panchayats (Extension to the
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996:
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
 The Gram Sabha or the Panchayat at
the appropriate level shall be consulted
before making the acquisition of land in
the Scheduled Areas for development
projects and before re-settling or
rehabilitating the persons affected by
such projects in the Scheduled Areas.
The Scheduled Castes and the
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989:
 It prevents commission of atrocities
against the members of the Scheduled
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, to
provide for the trial of such offences
and for the relief of rehabilitation of the
victims of such offences.
 Wrongfully dispossessing the members
of the Scheduled Castes or the
Scheduled Tribes from their land or
premises or interfering with the
enjoyment of their rights, including
forest rights, over any land or premises
or water or irrigation facilities or
destroying the crops or taking away the
produce therefrom, amount to offence
of atrocities and are subject to
punishment.
The Orissa Mining Corporation v/s the
Ministry of Environment and Forest &
Ors.:
 The Supreme Court (SC) held that
forest approval cannot be granted for a
development project without the
informed consent of the Gram Sabhas,
given after proper consideration in a
duly convened Gram Sabha and passed
by resolution.
 The SC stated that the Gram Sabha is
also free to consider all the community,
individual as well as cultural and
religious claims.
74. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Article 74 of the Indian Constitution:
Council of Ministers to aid and advise
the President:
34
 1. [There shall be a Council of Ministers, members in the Legislative Assembly of
with the Prime Minister at the head to that state.
aid and advise the President, who shall,
in the exercise of his functions, act in 76. Answer: (d)
accordance with such advice:] [Provided
Explanation:
that the President may require the
In the performance of his official duties,
Council of Ministers to reconsider such
the Attorney General for India has the right
advice, either generally or otherwise,
of audience in all courts in the territory of
and the President shall act in
India. Further, he has the right to speak
accordance with the advice tendered
and to take part in the proceedings of both
after such reconsideration.]
the Houses of the Parliament, or their Joint
2. The question whether any, and if so
Sitting(s) and any Committee of the
what, advice was tendered by the
Parliament, of which he may be named a
Ministers to the President shall not be
member, but without a right to vote. He
inquired into in any court.
enjoys all the privileges and immunities
Article 75 of the Indian Constitution: that are available to a Member of the
Other provisions as to the Ministers: Parliament.
1. The Prime Minister shall be appointed Limitations placed on the Attorney
by the President and the other General for India:
Ministers shall be appointed by the  He should not advise or hold a brief
President, on the advice of the Prime against the Government of India.
Minister.
 He should not advise or hold a brief in
(1A) The total number of Ministers, the cases in which he is called upon to
including the Prime Minister, in the advise or appear for the Government of
Council of Ministers shall not exceed
India.
15% of the total number of members of
 He should not defend the accused
the House of the People.
persons in criminal prosecutions,
2. Substituted by the Constitution (Forty-
without the permission of the
Second Amendment) Act, 1976.
Government of India.
3. Inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-
 He should not accept appointment as a
First Amendment) Act, 2003.
director in any company or corporation,
without the permission of the
75. Answer: (d) Government of India.
Explanation:
Article 80(5): The representatives of the 77. Answer: (a)
Union Territories in the Council of States Explanation:
shall be chosen in such manner as the
The main features of the Constitution
Parliament may by law prescribe.
(Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992,
Article 124 (2)(a): The age of a judge of the are:
Supreme Court shall be determined by
(a) A three-tier system of Panchayati Raj
such authority and in such manner as the
at the village, block (intermediate
Parliament may by law provide.
level) and district levels for all states
Article 171: The composition of the having a population of over 20 lakhs;
Legislative Councils: The total number of
(b) To conduct Panchayat elections
members in the Legislative Council of a
regularly in every five years and
state, having such a Council, shall not
elections to be held within six
exceed one-third of the total number of

RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C) 35

 months after the dissolution of the
Panchayat;
(c) Reservation of seats for the Scheduled
Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, OBCs,
women (33%) and general seats;
(d) To appoint the State Finance
Commission to make recommendations
regarding the financial powers of the
Panchayats; and
(e) To constitute the District Planning
Committee to prepare a draft
development plan for the district as a
whole.
78. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
About the Nominated Members of the
Rajya Sabha –
Conditions of Appointment: He should be
a citizen of India, above 30 years of age
and possessing such other qualifications
as may be prescribed by the law of the
Parliament.
The nominated members enjoy all the
powers, privileges and immunities
available to the elected members of the
Parliament.
They can take part in the proceedings of
the House in a normal manner.
While the nominated members of the Rajya
Sabha have a right to vote in the election of
the Vice-President of India, they are not
entitled to vote in the election of the
President of India.
They can participate in the
impeachment process of the President.
A nominated member of a House shall be
disqualified for being a member of the
House, if he joins any political party, after
the expiry of six months from the date on
which he takes his seat, after complying
with the requirements of Article 99.
A nominated member has also been
exempted from filing his assets and
liabilities under Section 75A of the
Representation of the People Act, 1951,
which requires the elected member to do so
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
within 90 days of his making or
subscribing oath/affirmation.
Under Rule 3 of the Members of Rajya
Sabha (Declaration of Assets and
Liabilities) Rules, 2004, only the elected
members of the Council are liable to
furnish the declaration of their assets and
liabilities, and the assets of their spouse
and dependent children.
The American Senate has no nominated
members and all its members are elected.
The first woman nominated member of the
Rajya Sabha was Smt. Rukmini Devi
Arundale.
79. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Important Facts: States Reorganisation
in India:
 The First States Reorganisation
Commission (SRC) was constituted in
1953, appointed by the then Prime
Minister, Jawahar Lal Nehru. The SRC
was headed by S. Fazal Ali and had two
members, namely K. M. Panikkar and
H. N. Kunzru.
 The States Reorganisation Act of 1956
was followed by the Constitution
(Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956, whose
statement of objects and reasons stated
the following:
“In order to implement the scheme of
States reorganisation, it is necessary to
make numerous amendments in the
Constitution with effect from 1st
October, 1956. This Bill seeks to make
these amendments and also some other
amendments to certain provisions of
the Constitution relating to the High
Courts and the High Court Judges, the
executive power of the Union and the
States, and a few entries in the
legislative lists.”
 The Constitution (Seventh Amendment)
Act, 1956, implemented states
reorganisation and added Article 350A,
which facilities for instruction in the
36
 mother-tongue at the primary stage of
education to the children belonging to
the linguistic minority groups.
The States Reorganisation Act, 1956,
also provided for the following:
Amendment to the First and the Fourth
Schedules; Provision of High Courts for the
new States; Zonal Council; Delimitation of
Constituencies; All India Services; Services
under the State Public Service
Commission.
The provision for legislative Assemblies
for the Union Territories: 239AA of the
constitution. Special provisions with
respect to Delhi –
1. As from the date of commencement of
the Constitution (Sixty-ninth
Amendment) Act, 1991, the Union
territory of Delhi shall be called the
National Capital Territory of Delhi and
the administrator thereof appointed
under article 239 shall be designated as
the Lieutenant Governor.
2. (a) There shall be a Legislative
Assembly for the National Capital
Territory and the seats in such
Assembly shall be filled by members
chosen by direct election from
territorial constituencies in the
National Capital Territory.
Note: Above provision was inserted by the
Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act,
1991.
80. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
India’s efforts to curb drug menace –
The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB): The
NCB is the primary agency responsible for
curbing trade in illicit drugs and precursor
chemicals. The NCB shares intelligence
with other agencies, like the Directorate of
Revenue Intelligence (DRI); the Central
Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC); and
the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), for
better co-ordination. The NCB also takes
required actions to control drug trafficking
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
under the Narcotics Drugs and
Psychotropic Substances Act of 1985. India
has entered into many bilateral agreements
to tackle the threat of drug trade. The NCB
is an Indian central law enforcement and
intelligence agency under the Ministry of
Home Affairs, Government of India.
For the prevention of AIDS in the eight
north-eastern states, the Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare launched a
project, called 'Project Sunrise', in 2016.
The Project has been launched with an aim
to create awareness about the disease in
the north-eastern states. Project Sunrise
aims at bringing the people living with
HIV/AIDS into the national mainstream
and create more awareness about the
disease in these north-eastern states. It
will be implemented in the north-east, in
addition to the existing projects of the
National AIDS Control Organization
(NACO).
For digitization of pan-India drug
seizure data, the Ministry of Home
Affairs launched an e-portal, called
‘Seizure Information Management
System (SIMS)’ in 2019, for all the drug
law enforcement agencies under the
mandate of the Narcotic Drugs and
Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985.
81. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The Supreme Court (SC) has the power
to stay not only the sentence, but also
the conviction of a person. In some rare
cases, the conviction has been stayed
to enable the appellant to contest an
election.
 However, the SC has made it clear that
such a stay should be very rare and for
special reasons. The Representation of
the People Act, 1951, itself provides a
remedy through the Election
Commission.
Based on the High Court’s or the
Supreme Court’s Order:
37
 When When Section 9A: Disqualification for the
Disqualification Disqualification Government contracts: A person shall be
Continues Ends disqualified if, and for so long as, there
subsists a contract entered into by him in
If the Higher Court Disqualification
the course of his trade or business with the
on appeal stays will be
appropriate government for the supply of
the operation of suspended where
goods to, or for the execution of any works
only the execution the Higher Court
undertaken by, that government.
of the sentence of stays both the
imprisonment conviction and
passed by the trial the operation of 82. Answer: (a)
court, then such sentence. Explanation:
stay on the The Ministry of Electronics and
execution of Information Technology has introduced the
sentence given by Information Technology (Intermediary
the Higher Courts Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code)
will not have any Amendment Rules, 2022.
effect on the  The new Rules have constituted the
person’s Grievance Appellate Committee, which
disqualification. will allow the social media users to
So, the register their complaints against the
disqualification decisions of the social media platforms,
continues. like Twitter, Facebook and YouTube
 Section 11 of the Representation of etc.
the People Act (RPA), 1951: The  Non-uniform grievance redressal
Election Commission (EC) may record mechanism, offered by the social media
reasons and either remove, or reduce platforms and lakhs of unresolved
the period of, a person’s complaints, have forced the government
disqualification. to come up with the idea of the
Section 11: Removal or reduction of Grievance Appellate Committee to
the period of disqualification: The regulate the social media platforms.
Election Commission may, for reasons  The decisions of the Committee can
to be recorded, remove any be challenged in the regular courts.
disqualification under this Chapter 2 What contents can be flagged by the
[(except under Section 8A)] or reduce users?
the period of any such disqualification.
o “Objectionable” content that promotes
 The EC exercised this power for “enmity between different groups on the
Sikkim’s Chief Minister, P.S. Tamang, grounds of religion or caste with the
who served a one-year sentence for intent to incite violence”.
corruption, and reduced his o Pornography or sexual abuse of the
disqualification so as to contest a by- children.
election and remain in the office. o Trademark, copyright and patent
 When Electoral Disqualification infringements.
Ends: Disqualification will be o Fake information, which can be
suspended where the Higher Court considered as a threat to the
stays both the conviction and the sovereignty of the nation.
operation of sentence.
o Misinformation or impersonation of
another person.

RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C) 38

83. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Balakrishnan Committee was formed
in 1987. It recommended that Delhi
should continue to be a Union
Territory, but should be provided with a
Legislative Assembly and a Council of
Ministers responsible to such Assembly
with appropriate powers to deal with
the matters of concern to the common
man.
 The Committee also recommended that,
with a view to ensuring stability and
permanence, the arrangements should
be incorporated in the Constitution to
give the National Capital a special
status among the Union Territories.
 Hence, as per the Constitution (69th
Amendment) Act, 1991, Article 239AA
and Article 239AB were added to the
Constitution to give constitutional
status to the National Capital Territory
of Delhi.
84. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Governor has the power to appoint the
Advocate-General and the members of the
State Public Service Commission. The
Ministers as well as Advocate-General hold
office during the pleasure of the Governor,
but the Members of the State Public
Service Commission cannot be removed
by him, they can be removed only by
the President on the report of the
Supreme Court on reference made by
the President and in some cases, on the
happening of certain disqualification.
The Governor has no power to appoint
Judges of the State High Court but he is
entitled to be consulted by the President in
the matter.
The Governor can nominate 1/6 part of the
total members of Legislative Council.
The Governor is the part of the State
Legislature just as the President is a part
of parliament.
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
85. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
When a Bill is transmitted to the Council of
States or is presented for the assent of the
President, it shall bear the endorsement of
the Speaker that it is a Money Bill.
A Money bill shall not be introduced in the
Council of States.
According to the Constitution, a money bill
contains the imposition, abolition,
remission, alteration or regulation of any
tax.
But the imposition of local taxes doesn’t
come under the purview of the money bill.
Money Bill Provisions (Article 110) of the
Constitution deals with the definition of
money bills. It states that a bill is deemed
to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’
provisions dealing with all or any of the
following matters:
1. The imposition, abolition, remission,
alteration or regulation of any tax;
2. The regulation of the borrowing of
money by the Union government;
3. The custody of the Consolidated Fund
of India or the contingency fund of
India, the payment of moneys into or
the withdrawal of money from any such
fund;
4. The appropriation of money out of the
Consolidated Fund of India;
5. Declaration of any expenditure charged
on the Consolidated Fund of India or
increasing the amount of any such
expenditure;
6. The receipt of money on account of the
Consolidated Fund of India or the
public account of India or the custody
or issue of such money, or the audit of
the accounts of the Union or of a state;
or
7. Any matter incidental to any of the
matters specified above.
Note: Money Bill is required to change the
custody of both Consolidated Fund of India
and Contingency fund of India, however
for appropriating moneys out of the
later, Money bill is not needed (Article
110(1)(d)).
39
86. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The Forex Reserves of a country consist
of foreign currency assets, gold, the
Special Drawing Rights and the Reserve
Tranche Position (RTP) with the IMF.
 The Forex Reserves are accreted in
the following cases:
o Net FPI (Foreign Portfolio
Investment) inflows.
o Exports more than imports.
o Increased net remittance income.
o Fresh allocations of the Special
Drawing Rights by the International
Monetary Fund (IMF) to the member
countries.
 Net FPI outflows result in the
depletion of the Forex Reserves.
Increased FPI outflows resulted in the
depletion of the Forex Reserves of India
in the year 2022.
87. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 A bilateral currency swap is an open-
ended credit line from one country to
another at a fixed exchange rate. The
country which avails itself of this loan
pays interest to the country which
provides it, at a benchmark interest
rate, such as the Libor (London Inter-
Bank Rate).
 Such agreements provide swap support
as a backstop line of funding for short-
term foreign exchange liquidity
requirements. These swaps are agreed
at an interest rate lower than the
prevailing market rate.
88. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Revenue Neutral Rate is the rate at
which the income to the states and the
Centre is not eroded in the absence of
pre-GST taxes. A Committee, headed by
the then Chief Economic Adviser, Arvind
Subramanian, in 2015, recommended that
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
the Revenue Neutral Rate under the GST
regime should be around 15% to 15.5%.
89. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Additional Tier 1 Bonds (AT1 Bonds):
 AT1 Bonds are a type of perpetual debt
instrument that the banks use to
augment their core equity base and
thus, comply with Basel III norms.
These Bonds are perpetual in nature,
which means that they do not carry any
maturity date and the banks have a call
option that permits them to redeem
these Bonds after a certain period.
 They are ‘Contingent Convertible
Bonds’. In the event of an institutional
failure, the rules allow the issuer to
convert the Bonds into equity
instruments, or stop paying interest or
even write-down these Bonds
altogether.
 Since they are riskier, these Bonds
offer high rate of returns.
90. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 As a prudential measure aimed at
better risk management, the Reserve
Bank of India advises the banks to fix
limits on their exposure to specific
industry or sectors, and prescribes
some regulatory limits on the banks’
exposure to individual and group of
borrowers in India.
 The exposure shall include credit
exposure and investment exposure.
o Credit exposure comprises the
following elements:
 All types of funded (loans) and
non-funded (bank guarantee,
Letters of Credit etc.) credit
limits.
 Facilities extended by way of
equipment leasing, hire
purchase finance and factoring
services.
o Investment exposure comprises
the following elements:
40
  Investments in shares and
debentures of the companies.
 Investments in PSU (Public
Sector Undertaking) Bonds.
 Investments in Commercial
Papers (CPs).
91. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 Treasury Bills or T-Bills are short-
term debt instruments, issued by the
Government of India and are presently
issued in three tenors, namely, 91
days, 182 days and 364 days. These
are zero coupon securities and pay
no interest. Instead, they are issued at
a discount and redeemed at the face
value at maturity.
 Public debt in India is primarily
contracted at fixed interest rates,
with floating internal debt
constituting only 1.7% of the GDP.
92. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 A Vostro Account is an account that
a domestic bank holds for a foreign
bank in the domestic bank’s
currency.
 A Nostro Account is an account that
a foreign bank holds for a domestic
bank in the foreign bank’s currency.
 Vostro and Nostro Accounts are used to
settle cross-border trade between two
countries in their domestic currencies.
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) permitted various Indian banks to
open 12 special Vostro Accounts for
trade in Rupees.
93. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The ‘Remission of Duties and Taxes on
Exported Products (RoDTEP) provides
refund of indirect taxes and duties,
which are levied at the central, state
and local levels, and are not refunded
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
under any other mechanism, including
the GST. They include:
o Central and State Excise Duty on
fuel for transportation of export
goods (petrol, diesel, CNG, PNG,
etc.).
o Coal cess or duty levied by the
states on electricity consumed for
manufacturing of the export goods.
o Mandi tax levied by the Agricultural
Produce Market Committees
(APMCs).
o Toll tax and stamp duties on
import-export documentation.
o Value Added Tax (VAT), wherever
applicable.
 Refunds under the scheme would be
issued in the form of transferrable ‘e-
scrips’, which could be used for paying
the Basic Customs Duty on the import
of goods, or may be transferred
electronically to other party. The
benefit will not be in the form of direct
credit to the bank account.
94. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
SEBI (The Securities and Exchange
Board of India) Guidelines on the
Infrastructure Investment Trusts
(InvITs):
 Minimum 80% of the pooled money of
the InvITs should be invested in
completed revenue generating
infrastructure projects, while the
balance 20% can be invested in under-
construction projects, equity shares of
the infrastructure companies, G-Secs
etc.
 90% of the profits generated by the
InvITs should be distributed among the
investors in the form of dividend.
 The InvITs are regulated by the SEBI.
95. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
IMF (The International Monetary Fund)’s
Reports’ List:
41
  World Economic Outlook
 Global Financial Stability Report
 Fiscal Monitor
 Regional Economic Outlook
‘Commodity Markets Outlook’ is
published by the World Bank.
The World Bank's Commodity Markets
Outlook is published twice a year.
96. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Nature of the Digital Markets:
 The digital markets are driven by
increasing returns to size, while the
traditional markets have diminishing
returns to size, leading to strong
competition among multiple players.
 Returns in the digital markets are not
just from the traditional scale and
scope effects, but also powerful
network and learning effects.
 Increasing returns to scale: Digital
businesses tend to have rapidly
diminishing marginal costs as they
grow, so “scale quickly” is the best
strategy.
 Network effects: As the number of
users on a platform grows, so does the
utility of every user of that platform.
Larger platforms with more users may
provide increased efficiency to all its
users. But this leaves space for only a
small number of platforms in the
market.
 The ‘winner takes all’ markets: These
powerful returns with increasing size
make the digital market to peak quickly
(within 3 to 5 years) to monopolistic
dominant players with limited fair
competition. Leading players in one
digital market can quickly unlock in
adjacent markets and increase their
global dominance.
97. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The National List of Essential
Medicines, 2022:
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
 The National List of Essential
Medicines, 2022, has been notified
by the Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare.
 The medicines included in the National
List of Essential Medicines are included
in Schedule I of the Drugs (Prices
Control) Order, 2013.
 The prices of drugs, included in
Schedule I (i.e., the National List of
Essential Medicines), are fixed by the
government, based on taking the
average of all brands who have a
market share of more than 1%.
 The government shall revise the
ceiling prices of the scheduled
formulations as per the annual
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) for the
preceding calendar year, on or before
1st April of every year and notify the
same on the 1st day of April every year.
98. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
It has been observed that many Indian
companies have been getting
headquartered overseas, especially in
destinations with favourable legal
environments and taxation policies. The
technical jargon for this may be
identified as ‘Flipping’, which is the
process of transferring the entire
ownership of an Indian company to an
overseas entity, accompanied by a
transfer of all IP and all data hitherto
owned by the Indian company. It
effectively transforms an Indian company
into a 100% subsidiary of a foreign entity,
with the founders and investors retaining
the same ownership via the foreign entity,
having swapped all shares.
99. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Framework for International Trade
Settlement in Indian Rupees: The
framework could largely reduce the net
demand for foreign exchange, the US dollar
in particular, for the settlement of the
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 current account related trade flows.
Further, the use of the INR (The Indian
Rupee) in cross-border trade is expected to
mitigate currency risk for the Indian
businesses. Protection from currency
volatility not only reduces the cost of doing
business, but also enables better business
growth, improving the chances for the
Indian businesses to grow globally. It also
reduces the need for holding the Foreign
Exchange Reserves and dependence on
foreign currency, making the Indian
economy less vulnerable to external
shocks. Further, it could assist the Indian
exporters in getting advance payments in
the INR from the overseas clients and, in
the longer term, promote the INR as an
international currency, once the Rupee
settlement mechanism gains traction. One
of the pre-requisites for the emergence of
an international currency is that the said
currency needs to be increasingly used for
trade invoicing.
100. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Districts as Export Hubs Initiative: The
Department of Commerce, through the
Director General of Foreign Trade, is
engaging with the State/UT Governments
to take forward the ‘Districts as Export
Hubs Initiative’, to convert each district
into an export hub.
Objectives of the Districts as Export
Hubs Initiative:
 Enable the MSMEs (The Micro, Small
and Medium Enterprises), farmers and
small industries to get the benefits of
export opportunities in the overseas
markets.
 Shift focus on district-led export growth
for self-sufficiency and self-reliance.
 Attract investment in the district to
boost manufacturing and exports.
 Provide ecosystem for innovation/use of
technology at the district level to make
them export competitive.
RAUSIAS PRE PAREEKSHAN–2(SET-C)
 Reduce transaction cost for the
exporters at various stages of export
cycle.
 Hand-holding and assistance to the
exporters by doorstep delivery of timely
and relevant information.
 Generate employment in the district.
 Providing platforms for wide and global
reach of products and services from the
district through e-commerce and digital
marketing. Promoting the farmers,
handicrafts, handlooms, tourism and
other cottage industries.
Institutional Mechanism: An
institutional mechanism is being set up
in each district in the form of the
District Export Promotion Committees
(DEPCs) with the
Collector/DM/DC/District Development
Officer/CDO as the Chairperson, and the
designated DGFT (The Directorate General
of Foreign Trade) representative as the Co-
Chairperson. The General Manager of the
District Industries Centre (DIC) is the
Convener of the DEPCs, with
representatives from other important
government departments.
Functions of the DEPCs:
 Prepare and act on the District Specific
Export Action Plan to develop as an
export hub.
 Assessment of a district to identify the
current export profile.
 Identifying products and promoting
potential products for exports.
 Entry of all district level data into a
portal being developed by the DGFT.
 Act as a grievance redressal forum for
the exporters and follow up with the
concerned central and state agency.
 Facilitate in organizing buyer-seller
meets, exhibitions, trade fairs etc., in
the district to encourage the industries
to showcase their products to the
world.
 Implementing the District Export Action
Plan in a phased manner to ensure that
the district achieves the targeted export
growth.
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