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WIN CUET Language 01

Question No. : 1
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

TRIPs agreement provides a comprehensive set of global trade rules for the protection of copyright patents, trademarks, industrial designs,
trade secrets, semiconductor lay out designs, and geographical indications, that apply to all the member-countries irrespective of their
levels of development, natural and human endowments and history. Every member-country has been asked by the WTO to amend its
national patent law to conform to that universal, globalised format. Under Article 65, the developed countries have been asked to change
their laws and the less developed countries within another five years, and an additional five years for legislation relating to pharmaceutical,
agrochemical, food, alloys, etc. The least developed countries have been asked to make those changes by 2005 AD.

This attempt at global standardisation and uniformity by way of TRIPs agreement is in conflict with the main thrust of the Rio Earth Summit
of 1992 that set out the conditions for sustainable development. These two revel two contrasting types of international approaches and
norms

While the 1992 Earth Summit and the 1993 convention on bio-diversity focused on 'diversity as being fundamental to sustain life and
development', TRlPs and WTO are pushing for 'conformity' to international standardized norms on patents, services, labour, investment and
what not irrespective of their history, ecology, level of economic development, etc. But despite their diametrically opposed viewpoints, 170
countries signed CBD upholding the need for diversity, and 50 countries signed the TRIPs agreement in 1994 claiming the urgency of
uniformity, with a very large element of common names (130) in both. The convention on bio-diversity in its Article 16.5 specifically asserts
that intellectual property right must not be in conflict with conservation on and sustainable use of bio-diversity, a provision that has been
totally ignored by those who compose the TRlPs agreement. While in case of agriculture the higher yield of patented products induces the
farmers to switch from a more varied production pattern, the resulting narrowing of genetic base makes the economy and society more
vulnerable to plant diseases and epidemics. It is true that the move towards cultivation of a smaller number of higher yielding varieties and
the uniform spread of the same variety over a large space predates the present debate on patent, particularly since the introduction of the
green revolution technology in the mid-sixties, but there can be no doubt that the latter has brought about a qualitative change in the
scenario and has created possibility of a vast quantitative change too in that direction. So far no attempt has been made to reconcile the
two conflicting approaches of CBD and TRIPs. If diversity is so important for sustaining life, how can WTO demand conformity to
standardised global formats?

The author points out that intellectual property rights and their administration mechanism

A) is throttling the interest of global bio-diversity B) is working to help sustain global bio-diversity
C) is being sustained by global bio-diversity D) is what the global bio-diversity needs

Question No. : 2

“As per the TRIPs agreement not much differentiation is made between a developed country such as the USA and an undeveloped country
such as Sudan."In the light of the passage, this is

A) definitely true B) probably true C) probably false D) definitely false

Question No. : 3

According to the author, a higher-yield seed variety is not always welcome as it also ultimately leads to

A) diseases among the consumers B) diseases among the plants C) monopoly of developed countries
D) monopoly of developing countries

Question No. : 4

Out of the countries that signed CBD, the percentage of those that signed the TRIPs also, is about

A) 76.5 B) 74.5 C) 78.5 D) 80.2


WIN CUET Language 01
Question No. : 5

Which of the following has not been said by the author in the passage?

A) A high number of countries have signed both CBD and TRIPs, two conflicting treaties
B) A narrow genetic base, if stuck to for long, is fraught with danger
C) Although a nondiscriminatory approach has been followed in the applicability of TRIPs, there has been a confessional
attitude in prescribing a timeframe for Transition, as per the needs of the respective countries
D) The author is supportive of international conventions and treaties such as TRIPs, CBD etc

Question No. : 6
DIRECTION for the question: Refer the passage and answer the question based on it.

Milankovitch proposed in the early twentieth century that the ice ages were caused by variations in the Earth’s orbit around the
Sun. For some time this theory was considered untestable, largely because there was no sufficiently precise chronology of the
ice ages with which the orbital variations could be matched.

To establish such a chronology it is necessary to determine the relative amounts of land ice that existed at various times in the
Earth’s past. A recent discovery makes such a determination possible: relative land-ice volume for a given period can be
deduced from the ratio of two oxygen isotopes, 16 and 18, found in ocean sediments. Almost all the oxygen in water is oxygen
16, but a few molecules out of every thousand incorporate the heavier isotope 18. When an ice age begins the continental ice
sheets grow, steadily reducing the amount of water evaporated from the ocean that will eventually return to it. Because heavier
isotopes tend to be left behind when water evaporates from the ocean surfaces, the remaining ocean water becomes
progressively enriched in oxygen 18. The degree of enrichment can be determined by analyzing ocean sediments of the period,
because these sediments are composed of calcium carbonate shells of marine organisms, shells that were constructed with
oxygen atoms drawn from the surrounding ocean. The higher the ratio of oxygen 18 to oxygen 16 in a sedimentary specimen,
the more land ice there was when the sediment was laid down.

As an indicator of shifts in the Earth’s climate, the isotope record has two advantages. First, it is a global record: there is
remarkably little variation in isotope ratios in sedimentary specimens taken from different continental locations. Second, it is a
more continuous record than that taken from rocks on land. Because of these advantages, sedimentary evidence can be dated
with sufficient accuracy by radiometric methods to establish a precise chronology of the ice ages. The dated isotope record
shows that the fluctuations in global ice volume over the past several hundred thousand years have a pattern : an ice age
occurs roughly every 100,000 years. These data have established a strong connection between variations in the Earth’s orbit and
the periodicity of the ice ages.

However, it is important to note that other factors, such as volcanic matters or variations in the amount of sunlight received by
the Earth, could potentially have affected the climate. The advantage of the Milankovitch theory is that it is testable : changes in
the Earth’s orbit can be calculated and dated by applying Newton’s laws of gravity to progressively earlier configurations of the
bodies in the solar system. Yet the lack of information about other possible factors affecting global climate does not make them
unimportant.

In the passage, the author is primarily interested in –

A) Initiating a debate about a widely accepted theory


B) Presenting a theory and describing a new method to test that theory
C) Suggesting an alternative to an outdated research method
D) Emphasizing the instability of data gathered from the application of a new scientific method

Question No. : 7

It can be inferred from the passage that the isotope record taken from ocean sediments would be less useful to researchers if
which of the following were true?

A) It stretched back for only a million years B) It indicated that lighter isotopes of oxygen predominated at certain times
C) It indicated that the ratios of oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 in ocean water were not consistent with those found in fresh water
D) It had far more gaps in its sequence than the record taken from rocks on land
WIN CUET Language 01
Question No. : 8

It can be inferred from the passage that calcium carbonate shells –

A) Reflect the isotopic composition of the water at the time the shells were formed
B) Reflect a strong connection between variations in Earth’s orbit and the periodicity of the ice ages.
C) Reflect variations in amount of sunlight received by the Earth
D) Determine the availability of calcium carbonate in the ocean sediments in different periods of geological time

Question No. : 9

The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the Milankovitch theory?

A) It cannot be tested and confirmed until further research on volcanic activity is done
B) It is the only possible explanation for the ice ages
C) It is too limited to provide a plausible explanation for the ice ages, despite recent research findings
D) It is one plausible explanation, though not the only one, for the ice ages

Question No. : 10

It can be inferred from the passage that precipitation formed from evaporated ocean water has –

A) More oxygen 16 than has precipitation formed from fresh water B) Less oxygen 18 than does ocean water
C) The same isotope ratio as ocean water D) Less oxygen 18 than has the ice contained in continental ice sheets
WIN CUET Language 01
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 11

We are well into the 21st century yet half the world's population live in squatter settlements and work in shadow economies,
which generate more than one-third of the developing world's GDP. Slums are not caused by the poor but by governments
denying people the right to own and exchange property. When people own their own property they have incentives to invest
time, money and energy to improve it because they know that they will be able to benefit from any such improvements, i.e. the
ability to obtain mortgages etc. In short, property rights beget capital, which begets innovation, which begets wealth. Sadly, the
poor typically don't have secure title to their land as there are bureaucratic restrictions on transferring title or there is no clear
system for titling. Without legal deeds they live in constant fear of being evicted by landlords or municipal officials. Illiteracy is a
major reason. Poor people often choose not to seek the protection of local courts since in so many countries laws established
under colonial rule have never been translated into local languages. When entrepreneurs do set out to legally register business
they are discouraged by red tape and costly fees. In Egypt, starting a bakery takes 500 days, compliance with 315 laws and 27
times the monthly minimum wage. The proprietors of such businesses cannot get loans, enforce contracts or expand a personal
network of familiar customers and partners. As a result the poor have no choice but to accept insecurity and instability as a way
of life.

In India severe restrictions on free transfer of property in most rural areas inhibit investment and encourage urban flight.
Planning policies however discourage building homes for these migrants as numerous homes are destroyed if they do not
comply with planning rules, essentially forcing people to live in slums and perversely blaming it on population growth. UN
Habitat, the UN agency for housing the poor, has implemented more plans to stabilise the unplanned aspects of urban growth
but grandiose plans like UN Schemes and government housing projects simply ignore or worsen the underlying problems. It is
when governments grant people legal means to control their assets that they empower them to invest and plan ahead. In
Buenos Aires, economists studied the experience of two Argentine communities. One had received legal title to its land in the
1980s and surpassed the other group which had not, in a range of social indicators including quality of house construction and
education levels. The Commission on Legal Empowerment of the Poor - a UN-affiliated initiative made up of two dozen leaders
- is exploring ideas to extend enforceable legal rights to impoverished members of society and is seeking to bring about a
consensus on incentives for national and local leaders. As the growth of illegal settlements amply demonstrates, the poor are
not helpless, all they need is governments to grant them fundamental human rights of freedom and responsibility.

What did the Argentine study indicate?

A. Argentina's economy is booming and the percentage of poor has fallen.


B. When the government gives people the legal means to control their assets they plan for the future.
C. The Government succeeded in widening the gap between the rich and the poor.

A) Only (A) B) Both (A) & (B) C) Only (B) D) None of these

Question No. : 12

According to the author, which of the following factors is responsible for the creation of a slum?

A) Migration of landless labourers to cities B) Municipal authorities building low-cost housing for the poor
C) Unchecked population growth D) Government failure to secure property rights for citizens

Question No. : 13

The author's main objective in writing the passage is to

A) Exhort the UN to play a greater role in rehabilitating slum-dwellers


B) Praise government initiatives for migrant slum-dwellers C) Convince governments to empower the poor
D) Enlist the aid of developed countries to tackle the issue of slums

Question No. : 14

What benefit does the author see in providing land ownership rights to the poor?

A) Steady increase in GDP B) Gaining independence from colonial rulers


C) Municipal services afforded to the poor will improve D) None of these
WIN CUET Language 01
Question No. : 15

Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A) Additional UN projects will exacerbate the plight of slum-dwellers.


B) Although the government allocates land for them, the poor choose not to invest in building houses.
C) With the spread of slums, populations are drifting back to rural areas.
D) In order to reduce costs, slum-dwellers avoid legally registering their business.

Question No. : 16

What impact do planning policies have on the development of slums?

A) They encourage the poor to invest in land thereby perpetuating slums.


B) They focus on developing rural rather than urban areas so people have to live in slums.
C) They offer alternative practical suggestions for construction of low-cost housing.
D) They advocate demolishing homes which violate planning rules, encouraging slums.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 17
Genes are often described as the blue print for life. In reality they are more like a cake recipe, as Richard Dawkins of Oxford
University once put it. Change one bit of a blueprint and only the corresponding bit of the machine changes. Alter one of a
cake’s ingredients and the whole thing may turn out different.

Genes are pieces of DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid); they are found, organised into chromosomes, in the nuclei of living cells. DNA
molecules look rather like twisted ladders with millions of rungs. The two uprights of each ladder form the famous “double
helix” but, to understand the genome project, the parts to focus on are the rungs.

Each rung is made of a pair of molecules (called nitrogenous bases), out of a set of four known by the initial letters of their
chemical names: A, C, G and T. A and G are larger molecules; C and T are smaller. Each rung contains one large and one small
base. The shape of each base means that a pairing of A and T produces a rung of the same size as a pairing of G and C. The
rungs fit into the ladder either way round, so reading the bases attached to a single upright yields a message written in four
chemical letters, e.g. ATGTCC. Genes are sequences of several hundred, or several thousand of these letters.

For a gene to do its job, it is not enough for the message simply to be present in the rungs of DNA; it has to get into the rest of
the cell. For this to happen, it must first be copied into a second sort of nucleic acid known as RNA. This is chemically similar to
DNA but has only one strand. RNA is made by an enzyme called transcriptase. This unzips the two strands of a DNA molecule
and builds up an RNA molecule out of bases that match those on one of the DNA strands.

These RNA molecules are messengers armed with a copy of the gene. They drift around the cell until captured by pieces of
molecular machinery called ribosomes that read the molecules and turn their messages into proteins.

Proteins are the real work-horses of cells. Like DNA and RNA, they are chains of smaller molecules linked together. (The
component molecules of protein are called amino acids). Some proteins, such as keratin and collagen, hold tissues and bodies
in shape. Others, such as insulin, act as messengers between cells or, like haemoglobin, transport useful materials (in this case
oxygen) to places they would not otherwise reach in sufficient quantities. Others still, such as transcriptase, are enzymes
regulating almost all of the chemical reactions that go on in a body.

Genetic messages are read and turned into proteins as follows: when an RNA molecule is attached to a ribosome, its genetic
letters are read off three at a time. Each triplet is like a genetic word. The word represents an amino acid (there are 20 amino
acids to choose from, and 64 possible triplets, so most amino acids are actually represented by more than one triplet). As each
triplet is read, the ribosome adds the appropriate amino acid to the growing protein chain until it comes to a triplet that says
“Stop”. Changing the order of the bases in the original DNA can, therefore, change a protein’s amino-acid sequence and can
thus change what it does. Such changes are known as mutations. Some mutations are devastating - faulty insulin, for instance,
produces diabetes; faulty haemoglobin, anaemia. Some make little difference. And a very few improve things - thus providing
the raw material for evolution.

All the following about genetic molecules are true, except

A) T & C are smaller than G & A type of molecules B) Any two molecules can form the rung
C) A pairing of T & A has the same size as a pairing of G & C D) Each rung is made of a pair of molecules
WIN CUET Language 01
Question No. : 18

How is a RNA molecule formed?

A) By the enzyme known as transcriptase B) By the unzipping of DNA strands C) By matching bases on DNA strands
D) Options A & B only

Question No. : 19

Genes are different from blueprints because

A) They are more akin to a cake recipe B) Blueprints are for machines; genes determine life patterns
C) Alteration is possible is latter, not former D) It is an unfair comparison

Question No. : 20

The RNA differs from DNA in the fact that

A) The chemical composition is dissimilar B) RNA is a nucleic acid C) RNA alone has transcriptase
D) One is an acid, other is not

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 21
Civilization is basically a vital kind of grouping. Without civilizations, the world as we know it would not be. Civilizations have
different qualities than regular groups of people such as nomads. For example, a civilization develops surpluses of things which
helps the people be a stable community. These surpluses also create the construction and growth of cities and helps develop
secure, formal states. Government is also present in civilizations. One very important part of a civilization is an advanced writing
method. A civilization can only be complete with all of these factors, or it will just fall apart. Nomads are nowhere close to being
a civilization even though sometimes groups of nomads have good technology. The words 'culture' and 'civilization' have been
often used synonymously, though they have clearly defined meanings differentiating them. 'Civilization' means the betterment
of ways of living, making Nature bend to fulfil the needs of humankind. It includes also organizing societies into politically well-
defined groups working collectively for improved conditions of life in matters of food, dress, communication, and so on. Thus a
group considers itself as civilized, while others were looked down upon as barbarians. This has led to wars and holocausts,
resulting in mass destruction of human beings. What are the good parts of our civilization ? First and foremost there are order
and safety. If today I have a quarrel with another man, I do not get beaten merely because I am physically weaker and he can
kick me down. I go to law, and the law will decide as fairly as it can between the two of us. Thus in disputes between man and
man right has taken the place of might. Moreover, the law protects me from robbery and violence. Nobody may come and
break into my house, steal my goods or run off with my children. Of course, there are burglars, but they are very rare, and the
law punishes them whenever it catches them. It is difficult for us to realize how much this safety means. Without safety these
higher activities of mankind which make up civilization could not go on. The inventor could not invent, the scientist find out or
the artist make beautiful things. Hence, order and safety, although they are not themselves civilization are things without which
civilization would be impossible. They are as necessary to our civilization as the air we breathe is to us; and we have grown so
used to them that we do not notice them any more than we notice the air.Another great achievement of our civilization is that
today civilized men are largely free from the fear of pain. They still fall ill, but illness is no longer the terrible thing it used to
be.... Not only do men and women enjoy better health; they live longer than they ever did before, and they have a much better
chance of growing up.... Thirdly, our civilization is more secure than any that have gone before it. This is because it is much
more widely spread.... Previous civilizations were specialized and limited, they were like oases in a desert.

What is the first merit of our civilization ?

A) Material advancement B) Cultural advancement C) Development of science D) Order and safety

Question No. : 22

The essential condition for the promotion of higher activities of life is:

A) Dedication on the part of those who practice them B) Economic freedom C) Safety D) State support
WIN CUET Language 01
Question No. : 23

What according to the author, is the second merit of the present civilization?

A) Development of means of transport and communication B) Space research C) Freedom from drudgery
D) Freedom from the fear of pain

Question No. : 24

What according to the author has the freedom from the fear of pain led to?

A) Better health B) Devotion towards Duty C) Abundant comfort D) Increased cultural activities

Question No. : 25

The third merit of the present civilization, according to the author, is:

A) The present civilization is based on justice B) The present civilization has open outlook about life
C) The present civilization has provided more comfort
D) The present civilization is more secure than any that has gone earlier

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 26

Like most teenagers, I dreamed of one day having my name in lights. And perhaps an interview in National Geographic for my
work with Rwanda's apes. Maybe an Oscar for my portrayal as a feisty heroine in an epic drama, preferably set in India. Or a
Nobel Prize for poetry, which I'd collect in Stockholm wearing a black turtleneck. Suffice to say, none of these has come true. I
prefer dogs to gorillas. My poetry is used to line the bottom of my drawer. And I've never been to India. Sure, as a writer, I get
my name in the occasional glow of a nine-point byline, but the difference between Oscars and Nobels and Helvetica type face
is that the former are all about me; the latter is by me. With the advent of the internet, all that has changed. Like most users, I
am a gratuitous googler, squandering valuable work time looking up invaluable topics such as how to clean my dog's teeth,
how to cook Risotto, and myriad medical ailments, including tough heels (definitely cancer), lumps on elbows (certainly cancer)
and easy bruising (absolutely cancer). But among these endless searches will be a valuable constant: my own name, Helen
Walne. In the great scheme of things I am not very important. I have never been medically paroled from jailed, I haven't gone to
rehab and I am not about to marry a famous celebrity. My husband has gently suggested that I seek psychological help for my
addiction. I google myself everyday. And yes, there are times when, like a bulimic digging into a second bucket of Kentuky Fried
Chicken, I feel out of control, gorging on blogs, images and news and glimpses of myself.
In cyber space, there is no such thing as big fish in little ponds, or little fish in big ponds. Instead, it's one swirling, bubbling
swamp of amoeba all gasping for their own gulp of air. And for ego surfers, it's important we float on the surface. Research has
found that 47% of internet users have performed self googling more than double the number from 5 years ago. I have realized
that like wine, watching soap operas and eating pizza, moderation is the key to virtual vanity - and keeping it to yourself
paramount. When you start dabbling in the competitive realms of rival surfing you are sure to start sinking under the flotsam of
self doubt. There is always someone out there with a higher ranking, a better picture, a bigger job.

According to the passage, the author

I. received an Oscar for her portrayal as a feisty heroine in an epic drama.


II. feels that moderation is the key to well being in cyber space.
III. feels that she is the centre of all she checks in the net.

A) I, II and III are correct B) I and II are correct C) II and III are correct D) I and III are correct

Question No. : 27

It can be inferred from the passage that

A) you have gone too far when you start googling your name multiple times daily
B) competitive rival surfing is the best way to increase your self esteem
C) being addicted to self googling is the way forward in the 21st century
D) the advent of the internet has helped in creating 'a somebody' out of 'a nobody'
WIN CUET Language 01
Question No. : 28

According to the passage,

A) Helen Walne is a patient of cancer B) Helen Walne is a megabyte megalomaniac


C) Helen Walne thinks that constant rival surfing is the best way to improve self worth
D) Helen Walne is a conscientious worker

Question No. : 29

According to the passage, all of the following are not true, except

A) Helen Walne received a prize wearing a turtle neck


B) Helen Walne's husband feels she needs help to get out of her addiction
C) In reality there is very little difference in the number of internet users today and five years ago
D) Rival surfing gives a better job

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 30

Until a hundred years ago as humans we had a simple, uncomplicated biological connect. It was a straightforward equation: we
drew roughly 3,000 calories each of energy out of the Earth for our food and life's sustenance. Today that number per capita
has grown to 1,00,000 calories. We still need only 3,000 calories each to nourish life itself. All the rest of this energy is what we
extract from the Earth for everything else besides keeping ourselves alive. In some countries, like the US; this per capita number
runs at over 2,00,000 calories. Some of us are concerned about this. We fret over what we could - and should - really be doing
to soften this abuse of resources. Little things fox us in the welter of things that we get to read. What is sustainable
development? How can it be started at our homes? Beyond the ceremonial planting of green and getting people to run
marathons of various lengths in support of the environment, is there more that we can add to the abstract value of
'sustainability'? What are the little things we can do in our day-to-day lives, to reduce demand for things that people make and
market? Of course, we know that it helps to avoid a plastic bag when you can use a newspaper bag, or a brown bag, or even a
jute bag which you can use for many more years unlike a plastic bag which you throw away in less than a week or after a few
uses. However, there's actually quite a bit more that you and I can do, without compromise on comfort, with very little as cost
incurred, with financial savings that you can gain on energy and water use, and with solutions that are very feasible and within
your reach. It is possible to understand our ecological footprint and its disastrous consequences, not merely in terms of our
own behaviour as consumers, but really in terms of the impact on the environment we make.

What is the primary concern of the passage?

A) There is a need to save energy, especially for our future


B) All of us should not only plant trees but also run the marathon C) Use of plastic bags should be completely banned
D) We need to respect the Earth and consume less of its calories

Question No. : 31

Why does the author ask his audience to use a jute bag?

A) Jute bags look more trendy and stylish B) It is the need of the hour, to save energy, to save our ecosystem
C) Using jute bags helps in consuming only 3,000 calories from the Earth D) They are more easily available

Question No. : 32

Which one of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?

A) There are many little things we can do to save our Earth B) Only running marathons of various lengths does not help
C) We do not depend on the Earth for our food and life sustenance
D) A lot many years before, our association with the Nature was quite simple
WIN CUET Language 01
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 33

More than a century later, the Earth seems to be literally falling to pieces - recent environmental setbacks include billions of
tonnes of ice shelves breaking off in the Antarctic and unusually warm temperatures in different parts of the world, Panic
reactions range from predictions of sinking islands to lamenting the ill-effects of global warming induced by release of
greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. The trouble is that we are too obsessed with the climate change problem to even
acknowledge the fact that the state of the planet hinges on much more. Climate change is at best a symptom of a far more
complex malaise, just as a fever is most often only an indicator of something that's gone awry in our body. It's time for a
complete and comprehensive planetary health check, that will examine the impacts of change in land use, loss of biodiversity,
use of fertilizers and pesticides and consistent pollution of water bodies. This would overcome the limitations of evaluating how
ecosystems work by reacting to just one major environmental concern as is happening in the case of global warming. These
considerations have been responsible for the setting up of an international panel, the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment.
Financed by four major international bodies, including the UN and the World Bank, the eco-panel was set up without much fuss
last June, and is expected to determine, over a period of four years and at a cost of $21 million, the state of the Earth's
ecosystems. The eco-panel will source inputs from more than 2,000 natural and social scientists the world over. Put simply, the
Earth will go through the equivalent of a thorough physical, so that biological, economic and social information can be collated
to help scientists arrive at a final diagnosis. The newly-constituted eco-panel will have to ensure that data collection is more
representative of the regions of the world. Today, we have the advantage of sourcing data from remote sensing satellites as
well. The information thus gathered would have to be sorted out and analyzed by specialists and also by generalists.

What is the comparison made between fever in our body and climate changes?

A) Like fever increases the body temperature, climate changes are making the Earth hot
B) The comparison is made just to intensify the problems being discussed about our planet
C) Like fever is a symptom showing the body has some problems, climate changes show that the Earth has some problems
D) The fever comparison shows how ecosystems work

Question No. : 34

What will be the task of the newly constituted eco-panel?

A) To collect appropriate data for different regions of the world B) To manage the finances of the whole collection activity
C) To sort out the information gathered D) To stop making panic reactions regarding climatic change

Question No. : 35

What is the primary concern of the passage?

A) The passage aims to convince the government to provide adequate funds to the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment
B) It shows the harmful effects of fertilizers and pesticides
C) It mentions the environmental challenges being faced by our planet and the need to face them
D) The passage shows concern towards the lack of proper social information to save the Earth

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the word from the options which is Opposite in meaning to the given word.

Question No. : 36

Frugal

A) fresh B) explosive C) calm D) lavished


WIN CUET Language 01

DIRECTIONS for the question: Out of the four options given choose the word or phrase that is most nearly similar in meaning to
the word in capital letters.

Question No. : 37

ASKANCE

A) side glance B) quizzical expression C) request D) curious look

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the word from the options which is most Similar in meaning to the given word.

Question No. : 38

Aficionado

A) illegal B) heir C) devotee D) forbidden

DIRECTIONS for the question: In each of the following question, out of the given group of wordings, choose one inappropriately
spelled.

Question No. : 39

A) Accidentally B) Asseverate C) Assassination D) Ammelioration

DIRECTIONS for the question: In each of the following question, out of the given group of wordings, choose one appropriately
spelled.

Question No. : 40

A) Reprimand B) Reprimend C) Repremand D) Riprimand

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the
capitalized pair.

Question No. : 41

Agency : Organization

A) Father : Mother B) Mother : Parent C) Sister : Brother D) Night : Sleep

DIRECTIONS for the question: Replace the italicised portions by choosing the phrase from the given alternatives that best keeps
the meaning of the original sentence.
Question No. : 42

The researcher had to mull over his idea for several days

A) to organize his idea for a number of days B) to remember his ideas for several days
C) to scrutinize his ideas for many days D) to ponder over his idea for several days

DIRECTIONS for the question: Identify the meaning of the idiom/ phrase as used in the sentence.

Question No. : 43

The final report revealed that the Manager and his secretary were hand in glove in syphoning off funds from the company.

A) very good friends B) constantly fighting C) associated in an act, complicit D) suspicious of each other
WIN CUET Language 01
DIRECTIONS for the question: Identify the meaning of the idiom/ phrase as used in the sentence.

Question No. : 44

The news of his friend’s death came to him like a bolt from the blue.

A) become abnormal B) appear arrogant C) indulge in dreams D) a complete surprise

DIRECTIONS for the question: The sentence given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each
sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent
paragraph.

Question No. : 45

A. Who can trace to its first beginnings the love of Damon for Pythias, of David for Jonathan, of Swan for Edgar?
B. Similarly with men.
C. There is about great friendships between man and man a certain inevitability that can only be compared with the age-old
association of ham and eggs.
D. One simply feels that it is one of the things that must be so.
E. No one can say what was the mutual magnetism that brought the deathless partnership of these wholesome and palatable
foodstuffs about.

A) ACBED B) CEDBA C) ACEBD D) CEABD

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. if there is 'No Error" the answer is (D).
(Ignore errors of punctuation if any.)

Question No. : 46

The construction/ of these buildings/ have taken four years. / No error.

A) The construction B) of these buildings C) have taken four years. D) No error

DIRECTIONS for the question: Sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is
labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from amongst the five choices given to construct a coherent paragraph.

Question No. : 47

A. But it must be kept in mind that a moral crisis precipitated by floundering ethical norms cannot be fully averted through
regulatory measures alone.
B. If the companies want to remain committed to long-term value creation for their stakeholders, then the executives must
first ask themselves whether they are revealing enough information which can provide meaningful insights to investors and
how well their major initiatives are aligned to the basic values and beliefs expressed in the mission statements of the
company.
C. This is particularly so when there is a high possibility of frequent recurrence of devastating events of this decade like the
terror strikes in New York and Mumbai, Lehman-type corporate catastrophes and a large number of disruptive innovations
capable of making many industries obsolete at a breakneck speed.
D. At the same time it will also provide morally flexible executives ample opportunities to disguise their wheeling and dealing
as strategy implementation under highly uncertain conditions.
E. The situation is qualitatively shifting the levels of uncertainty surrounding the long-term initiatives of many companies.

A) BDEAC B) CEABD C) BDCEA D) ACEDB


WIN CUET Language 01
DIRECTIONS for the question: In this question a part of the sentence that requires an improvement is underlined. Choose the
best option. Choose "No improvement" if no improvement is needed.

Question No. : 48

A) Both the actors has decided B) that they will not C) complete the shoot D) until a script is given to them.

DIRECTIONS for the question: The question has four/five sentences. One of them is acceptable in formal english as it is
grammatically correct. Spot that sentence.

Question No. : 49

A) Its never too late to do a right thing B) The Architect laid out beautiful gardens with lawns and flower beds.
C) Don't look down upon the poor and the needy. D) We all look up to him as our leader.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Find the ODD one out from the group of words which are related in some way or the other

Question No. : 50

A) esoteric B) exigent C) occult D) Mystical


WIN CUET Language 02
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 1
Eight years ago, I went to a coastal area in one of the Eastern republics. One day, during the stay, I slipped a pair of flippers onto my feet, put on a face mask and
gingerly went beneath the placid surface of the Red Sea. I am not sure, now, exactly what I saw in that first glimpse; shafts of sunlight, probably, slanting off through clear
blue water; a coral reef of fantastic beauty and, no doubt, many fish. But I do recall that by the time I surfaced I had already developed a need to return to that incredibly
lovely world below. So I did. Indeed, it would not be much of an exaggeration to say that except for such periods as were necessary to earn a living, I have rarely been
anywhere else. Diving became a passion and then a way of life"one, as you will gather, I totally endorse. For the first year after that initial experience I enjoyed hunting
fish with a spear gun. It was not at all difficult. Fish are so abundant there those divers do not need to use tanks to get down to where the fish are; they find them near the
surface. Furthermore, the water of the Red Sea, like the Caribbean, the South Seas and parts of the Indian Ocean, is so transparent that you can see upto 150 feet away.
Thus, all you really need are a mask, a snorkel tube to breathe through, flippers and a spear gun. Hunting, however, began to pall on me. I began to wonder if it wouldn't
be more interesting"and more sporting"to photograph some of these magnificent creatures rather than kill them. It was certainly an ideal place for underwater
photography. In addition to hundreds of species of fish the Red Sea coast offers thousands of miles of what they call "fringing reefs" great barriers of coral 10 to 200 miles
wide that wind along the African shore from Egypt to Djibouti and down the Asian shore from Aqaba to the Babal-Mandab at the gate of the Indian Ocean. Although no
more than the accumulation of billions of coral polyps"minute creatures that produce a calcareous deposit"the reefs have grown to fantastic sizes, the largest being the
1,200 mile-long Great Barrier Reef in Australia.

According to the passage the similarity between red sea and other seas is?

(A) Variety of Fish


(B) Fantastic Reefs
(C) Clear and transparent water

A) A only B) B only C) C only D) All the three

Question No. : 2
Eight years ago, I went to a coastal area in one of the Eastern republics. One day, during the stay, I slipped a pair of flippers onto my feet, put on a face mask and
gingerly went beneath the placid surface of the Red Sea. I am not sure, now, exactly what I saw in that first glimpse; shafts of sunlight, probably, slanting off through clear
blue water; a coral reef of fantastic beauty and, no doubt, many fish. But I do recall that by the time I surfaced I had already developed a need to return to that incredibly
lovely world below. So I did. Indeed, it would not be much of an exaggeration to say that except for such periods as were necessary to earn a living, I have rarely been
anywhere else. Diving became a passion and then a way of life"one, as you will gather, I totally endorse. For the first year after that initial experience I enjoyed hunting
fish with a spear gun. It was not at all difficult. Fish are so abundant there those divers do not need to use tanks to get down to where the fish are; they find them near the
surface. Furthermore, the water of the Red Sea, like the Caribbean, the South Seas and parts of the Indian Ocean, is so transparent that you can see upto 150 feet away.
Thus, all you really need are a mask, a snorkel tube to breathe through, flippers and a spear gun. Hunting, however, began to pall on me. I began to wonder if it wouldn't
be more interesting"and more sporting"to photograph some of these magnificent creatures rather than kill them. It was certainly an ideal place for underwater
photography. In addition to hundreds of species of fish the Red Sea coast offers thousands of miles of what they call "fringing reefs" great barriers of coral 10 to 200 miles
wide that wind along the African shore from Egypt to Djibouti and down the Asian shore from Aqaba to the Babal-Mandab at the gate of the Indian Ocean. Although no
more than the accumulation of billions of coral polyps"minute creatures that produce a calcareous deposit"the reefs have grown to fantastic sizes, the largest being the
1,200 mile-long Great Barrier Reef in Australia.

What change occurred in the author's perception after the initial period of a year or so?

(A) He got fed up with hunting.


(B) He struck with the idea of shooting the fish with a camera rather than by spear gun.
(C) Hunting became more interesting and sporting.

A) A only B) B only C) A and C only D) A and B only


WIN CUET Language 02
Question No. : 3
Eight years ago, I went to a coastal area in one of the Eastern republics. One day, during the stay, I slipped a pair of flippers onto my feet, put on a face mask and
gingerly went beneath the placid surface of the Red Sea. I am not sure, now, exactly what I saw in that first glimpse; shafts of sunlight, probably, slanting off through clear
blue water; a coral reef of fantastic beauty and, no doubt, many fish. But I do recall that by the time I surfaced I had already developed a need to return to that incredibly
lovely world below. So I did. Indeed, it would not be much of an exaggeration to say that except for such periods as were necessary to earn a living, I have rarely been
anywhere else. Diving became a passion and then a way of life"one, as you will gather, I totally endorse. For the first year after that initial experience I enjoyed hunting
fish with a spear gun. It was not at all difficult. Fish are so abundant there those divers do not need to use tanks to get down to where the fish are; they find them near the
surface. Furthermore, the water of the Red Sea, like the Caribbean, the South Seas and parts of the Indian Ocean, is so transparent that you can see upto 150 feet away.
Thus, all you really need are a mask, a snorkel tube to breathe through, flippers and a spear gun. Hunting, however, began to pall on me. I began to wonder if it wouldn't
be more interesting"and more sporting"to photograph some of these magnificent creatures rather than kill them. It was certainly an ideal place for underwater
photography. In addition to hundreds of species of fish the Red Sea coast offers thousands of miles of what they call "fringing reefs" great barriers of coral 10 to 200 miles
wide that wind along the African shore from Egypt to Djibouti and down the Asian shore from Aqaba to the Babal-Mandab at the gate of the Indian Ocean. Although no
more than the accumulation of billions of coral polyps"minute creatures that produce a calcareous deposit"the reefs have grown to fantastic sizes, the largest being the
1,200 mile-long Great Barrier Reef in Australia.

According to the author Fishing in the Red Sea off the coast was"

A) Difficult because the water was transparent B) Risky because tanks are needed to spot the fish
C) Easy because the fish are clearly visible near the surface itself
D) Cumbersome because of the tools like mask, snorkel tube, flippers, etc

Question No. : 4

As per the passage what are 'fringing reefs'

A) Calcareous deposit formation B) Collection of fish C) Sea-food accumulation D) None of these

Question No. : 5

The primary purpose of the author in writing this passage is?

A) his underwater journey by a submarine B) how he was fascinated by the underwater world C) his hobby of fishing
D) his expertise in the art of photography

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 6
As well as understanding the various cognitive processes that users engage in when interacting with systems, it is also useful to
understand the way people cope with the demands of everyday life. A well known approach to applying knowledge about
everyday psychology to interaction design is to emulate, in the digital world, the strategies people commonly use in the
physical world. In some situations, however, the simple emulation approach can turn out to be counter-productive. This can
happen when the activity being emulated is more complex than is assumed, resulting in much of it being oversimplified and
not being supported effectively. Designers may notice something salient that people do in the physical world and then fall into
the trap of copying it without thinking whether it will work in the new context.

Tom Malone carried out a study of the “natural history” of physical offices. One of his findings was that whether people have
messy or tidy offices may be more significant than people realize. Messy offices were seen as being chaotic with piles of papers
everywhere and little organization. Tidy offices, on the other hand, were seen as being well organized with good use of a filing
system. In analyzing these two types of offices, Malone suggested what they reveal in terms of the underlying cognitive
behavior of the occupants. The observations suggested that using piles is a fundamental strategy. Such observations bring to
mind an immediate design implication about how to support file management: to capitalize on the “pile” phenomenon by
trying to emulate it in the electronic world. Why not let people arrange their electronic files as they do with paper files? The
danger of doing this is that it could heavily constrain the way people would manage their files, when in fact there may be far
more effective and flexible ways of filing in the electronic world.

A group of designers tackled this problem by building an application that went beyond physical world capabilities. They
examined how people use the default hierarchical file-management systems that operating systems provide. The new
conceptual model provided various interactive organizational elements based on the notion of using piles. These included
providing the user with the means of creating, ordering and visualizing piles of files.

In the electronic context, the emulation strategy would work best for –

A) Personal assistants B) Greeting cards C) Post-It notes D) Games like scrabble


WIN CUET Language 02
Question No. : 7

Which of the following electronic filing practices would one associate with the person in the messy office?

A) A cluttered desk-top B) Unscientific file naming systems C) Copies of the same file lying in many directories
D) All files stored in the ‘My Documents’ folder

Question No. : 8

In an electronic interface when a cursor freezes on the screen, most people bash away at all manners of keys in the vain hope
that this will make it work again. All of the below are ‘emulations’ in the real world, except –

A) Pressing the button twice in an elevator. B) Running down the battery of a car that is refusing to start
C) Setting the Air Conditioner temperature controller to the minimum, on entering the home on a hot summer afternoon.
D) Hitting the top of a TV which is acting up.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 9
Validity refers to the appropriateness of the interpretations made from the test scores with regard to a particular use. For
example, if a test is used to describe pupil achievement, we should like to be able to interpret the scores as relevant and
representative sample of the achievement domain to be measured. If the results are to be used to predict pupils’ success in
some future activity, we should like our interactions to be based on as accurate an estimate of future success as possible.
Validity is always concerned with the specific use of the results and soundness of our proposed interpretations.

Reliability refers to the consistency of evaluation results. If we obtain quite similar results when the same test is administered to
the same group on two different occasions, we can conclude that our results have a high degree of reliability from one
occasion to another. Similarly, if different teachers independently rate the same pupils on the same instrument and obtain
similar ratings, we can conclude that the results have a high degree of reliability from one rater to another. As with validity,
reliability is intimately related to the type of interpretation to be made. For some uses, we may be interested in asking how
reliable our evaluation results are over a given period of time and, for others, how reliable they are over different samples of the
same behavior. In all instances in which reliability is being determined, however, we are concerned with the consistency of the
results, rather than with the appropriateness of the interpretations made from the results.

The relation between reliability and validity is sometimes confusing. Reliability of measurement is needed to obtain valid results,
but we can have reliability without validity.

In addition to providing results that possess a satisfactory degree of validity and reliability, an evaluation procedure must meet
certain practical requirements. It should be economical from the viewpoint of both time and money; it should be easily
administered and scored; and it should produce results that can be accurately interpreted and applied by the school personnel
available. These practical aspects of an evaluation procedure all can be included under the heading of usability.

Excerpted from “Measurement and Evaluation in Teaching” by Norman Gronlund.

Which of the following is true?

A) Reliability is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for validity.


B) Validity is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for reliability. C) Reliability and usability are pre requisites for validity
D) Usability is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for validity.

Question No. : 10

All of the following about validity are true, except –

A) It refers to the appropriateness of the interpretation of the results.


B) It is a matter of degree; it does not exist on an all-or-none basis.
C) It is specific to some particular use; no test is valid for all purposes.
D) The validity of an interpretation depends primarily on having a representative sample.
WIN CUET Language 02
Question No. : 11

Which of the following about reliability is true?

A) Reliability refers to the evaluation instrument and not the results obtained with it.
B) Reliability implies similar scores for different periods, different samples and different raters.
C) The logical analysis of a test provides evidence concerning the reliability of the scores.
D) The more consistent our test results are from one measurement to another, the greater the reliability.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 12
An example of research in the Piagetian tradition is the work of Lawrence Kohlberg. Piaget studied many aspects of moral
judgment, but most of his findings fit into a two-stage theory. At approximately 10 or 11 years – children's moral thinking
undergoes other shifts. Intellectual development, however, does not stop at this point. Kohlberg therefore interviewed both
children and adolescents about moral dilemmas; Kohlberg’s core sample was comprised of 72 boys from Chicago. They were
aged 10, 13 and 16. He gave them a case pertaining to moral dilemma, in which, a woman was near death from a special kind
of cancer. There was one drug that the doctors thought might save her. It was a form of radium. The druggist was charging ten
times what the drug cost him to make. Inability to buy the drug made the woman’s husband desperate and he broke into the
man's store to steal the drug – for his wife. Should the husband have done that?

Kohlberg is not really interested in whether children says ‘yes’ or ‘no’ to this dilemma but the reasoning behind the answer. At
stage 1, children think of what is right as that which authority says is right. At stage 2, children are no longer so impressed by
any single authority; they see that there are different sides to any issue. At stage 3, they emphasize being a good person and
by doing well. At stage 4 the concern shifts towards obeying laws to maintain society as a whole. At stage 5 they emphasize
basic rights and the democratic processes that give everyone a say, and at stage 6 they define the principles by which
agreement will be most just.

Kohlberg says that his stages are not the product of maturation. That is, the stage structures and sequences do not simply
unfold according to a genetic blueprint. Neither, Kohlberg maintains, are his stages the product of socialization. That is,
socializing agents (e.g., parents and teachers) do not directly teach new forms of thinking. Kohlberg found that the stages are
not just isolated responses but are general patterns of thought that will consistently show up across many different kinds of
issues. Kohlberg believes that his stages unfold in an invariant sequence i.e. children always go from stage 1 to stage 2 to stage
3 and so forth. So he wants to show how each new stage provides a broader framework for dealing with moral issues.

Kohlberg's scale has to do with moral thinking, not moral action. Consequently, we would not expect perfect correlations
between moral judgment and moral action. Still, Kohlberg thinks that there should be some relationship. He has first analyzed
his stages in terms of their underlying cognitive structures and has then looked for parallels in purely logical and social thought.
For this purpose, he has analyzed his own stages in terms of implicit role-taking capacities for the change in thinking to occur.
How, then, can one promote moral development? Turiel found that when children listened to adults' moral judgments, the
resulting change was slight. Kohlberg's theory has provoked a good deal of criticism. Not everyone is enthusiastic about the
concept of stages in the development of morality.

Which of the following is likely to be the major criticism of Kohlberg’s method?

A) This method is culturally and socially biased


B) Survey pertaining to moral thinking is likely to be judgmental and subjective
C) No one can be sure of the seriousness of the responses given by the children
D) Role of abstraction in creating difficulty for children to understand issues related to morality cannot be ignored

Question No. : 13

Which of following is likely to support that stages in the development of moral thinking are not the product of socializing
agents?

A) When we find our views questioned and challenged, we are motivated to come up with new idea
B) A large part of a child’s life is spent in institutions like school and home
C) It is difficult to imagine cognitive development in an individual without mentors
D) In human relations, trade-offs certainly play a great role
WIN CUET Language 02
Question No. : 14

All of the following are true, except

A) At stage 2 a person would overcome egocentrism and think about the perspectives in terms of relativity
B) At stage 6, a person defines the criteria by which he decides what is apt
C) Stage 3 reasoning works best in two person relationship with family members but at stage 4 respondent becomes more
broadly concerned with society as a whole
D) Role-taking capacities would do little in solving moral dilemmas.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 15
Over the past few decades, many Asian nations transformed from poverty into global competitors. From 2003 to 2007, Asian
economies expanded at an average annual rate of 8.1%, triple that of advanced economies. Over the same period, inflation in
Asia averaged only about 3.5%. But Asia could be facing turbulent economic times. In May, the average inflation rate
throughout the region reached nearly 7%, led by spikes in oil and food prices. In India, inflation jumped to an 11.6% annual rate
in June, according to the latest government figures, the highest in 13 years.

Policymakers and central bankers are forced to raise interest rates and limit credit to get inflation under control. But these same
measures suppress the investment and consumption that generates growth. The combination of slowing growth and soaring
inflation makes economic policymaking tricky. Inflation stirs up the middle classes because it can quickly erase years of hard-
won personal gains. Inflation is cruel to the poor, because families have to spend a larger share of their meager incomes on
necessities. In the Philippines, farmers, unable to afford fuel for tractors use water buffalos to plow their fields.

But to avoid unrest, leaders cannot blindly adopt rigid anti-inflation measures. Voters won't hesitate to remove from office any
politician who doesn't deliver the goods. So they cannot overreact to the inflation threat and scale down economic growth in
the process. Developing nations need to grow quickly to create jobs and increase incomes for their large populations. With
prices soaring, doing nothing is not an option. Most central banks in Asia have started raising interest rates. The Reserve Bank
of India increased its benchmark rate twice last month to a six year high of 8.5%.

The challenge is especially difficult because currently, inflation is not of domestic origin. Prices are being driven higher by a
global surge in oil and food prices, which individual governments can do little to control. Of course, inflation is not just a
problem in Asia. World Bank President Robert Zoellick called rising food and oil prices a man-made "catastrophe" that could
quickly reverse the gains made in overcoming poverty over the past seven years. For now, though, there is more talk than
action on the international front, so Asian governments are on their own.

Even though inflation throughout the region is likely to continue to rise in coming months, no one is expecting an economic
calamity. According to the Asian Development Bank Asian countries have large hard currency reserves and relatively healthy
banks, and so are far better prepared to absorb external shocks than they were during the region's last recession ten years ago.
Asian policymakers have learned their lessons and are more alert.

Which of the following can be said about Asian economies during the period from 2003-2007?

A. Though inflation was rising at the time politicians did not pay much attention.
B. Many of the poor countries were able to compete internationally.
C. The growth rate of Asian countries was facilitated by growth in advanced countries.

A) All (A), (B) & (C) B) Only (A) C) Only (B) D) Both (A) & (B)

Question No. : 16

Which of the following is not an anti-inflation measure being used by Asian countries?

A. Increase in benchmark interest rate by a central bank.


B. Checks on lending.
C. Subsidising fuel for farmers.

A) Only C B) Both A & B C) Both B & C D) Only B


WIN CUET Language 02
Question No. : 17

What makes it difficult for Asian countries to control inflation?

A) Restrictions by organizations like the Asian Development Bank


B) Governments are indecisive and adopt counterproductive measures
C) The problem is global in nature not restricted to their individual countries
D) It is generally difficult to control inflation for any government.

Question No. : 18

Why are experts not very concerned about the impact of inflation on Asian economies?

A. Asian countries have not maintained substantial hard currency reserves.


B. The condition of Asian banks is currently both stable and strong.
C. The Asian Development Bank will bail them out of any trouble.

A) Only (A) B) Both (A) & (C) C) Both (A) & (B) D) Only (B)

Question No. : 19

What is the author's advice to politicians regarding the handling of inflation?

A) They should focus on preventing agitations among their citizens for not implementing anti-inflation measures.
B) They ought to implement anti-inflation measures even at the cost of losing office.
C) They must focus on maintaining high economic growth rate as inflation will taper off on its own.
D) Countries should handle the problem independently and not collectively.

Question No. : 20

What does the 'STIRS' mean in the above mentioned passage?

A) Trembles B) Moves C) Mixes D) Inspires

Question No. : 21

What does the 'SCALE' mean in the above mentioned passage?

A) Descent B) Climb C) Hindrance D) Measure

Question No. : 22

Among the given options, which one will be the synonym for 'Origin'?

A) Ancestry B) Source C) Inauguration D) Down


WIN CUET Language 02
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 23
Malnutrition is a broad term which refers to both under nutrition (sub nutrition) and over nutrition. Individuals are
malnourished, or suffer from under nutrition if their diet does not provide them with adequate calories and protein for
maintenance and growth, or they cannot fully utilize the food they eat due to illness. People are also malnourished, or suffer
from over nutrition if they consume too many calories. Malnutrition can also be defined as the insufficient, excessive or
imbalanced consumption of nutrients. Several different nutrition disorders may develop, depending on which nutrients are
lacking or consumed in excess. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), malnutrition is the gravest single threat to
global public health. Sub nutrition occurs when an individual does not consume enough food. It may exist if the person has a
poor diet that gives them the wrong balance of basic food groups. Obese people, who consume more calories than they need,
may suffer from the sub nutrition aspect of malnutrition if their diet lacks the nutrients their body needs for good health. Poor
diet may lead to a vitamin or mineral deficiency, among other essential substances, sometimes resulting in scurvy - a condition
where an individual has a vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency. Though scurvy is a very rare disease, it still occurs in some
patients - usually elderly people, alcoholics, or those that live on a diet devoid of fresh fruits and vegetables. Similarly, infants or
children who are on special or poor diets for any number of economic or social reasons may be prone to scurvy.

The prime cause of scurvy is:

A) Malnutrition B) Sub Nutrition C) Over Nutrition D) Less Intake of Vitamin C

Question No. : 24

Malnutrition refers to:

A) Sub Nutrition B) Over Nutrition C) Both of the Above D) None of the Above

Question No. : 25

Whish of the following statement is correct

A) Fat people don’t suffer from malnutrition B) Only Poor People Suffer from Malnutrition
C) Heavy diet devoid of essential nutrients can cause Malnutrition D) Real cause for malnutrition are yet to be found

Question No. : 26

Why people who consume adequate calories and protein are still prone to malnutrition?

A) Because they don’t exercise regularly B) Because they cannot fully utilize the food they eat due to illness
C) Because it’s a genetic problem D) Because they sleep a lot

DIRECTIONS for the question: Complete the sentence by filling in the appropriate blank/blanks from the options provided.

Question No. : 27

The British retailer, M&S, today formally__________ defeat in its attempt to_______ King's, its US subsidiary, since no potential
purchasers were ready to cough up the necessary cash.

A) admitted, acquire B) conceded, offload C) announced, dispose D) ratified, auction E) claimed, criticise

DIRECTIONS for the question: Complete the sentence by filling in the appropriate blank/blanks from the options provided.

Question No. : 28

Early_________ of maladjustment to college culture is______________ by the tendency to develop friendship networks outside
college which mask signals of maladjustment.

A) treatment, compounded B) detection, facilitated C) identification, complicated D) prevention, helped


E) signs,indicated
WIN CUET Language 02

DIRECTIONS for the question: Complete the sentence by filling in the appropriate blank/blanks from the options provided.

Question No. : 29

The ____________regions of Spain all have unique cultures, but the ___________views within each region make the issue of an
acceptable common language of instruction an even more contentious one.

A) different, discrete B) distinct, disparate C) divergent, distinct D) different, competing E) homogeneous, same

DIRECTIONS for the question: Complete the sentence by filling in the appropriate blank/blanks from the options provided..

Question No. : 30

A growing number of these expert professionals_____________ having to train foreigners as the students end up_______________
the teachers who have to then unhappily contend with no job at all or new jobs with drastically reduced pay packets.

A) resent, replacing B) resist, challenging C) welcome, assisting D) are, supplanting E) retain, fighting

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the word from the options which is most Similar in meaning to the given word.

Question No. : 31

INVIDIOUS

A) unacceptable B) enticing C) breathtaking D) inverted

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose an option, which can be substituted for a given word/sentence/phrase out of given
options.

Question No. : 32

Study of the problems of legal punishment and prison management

A) Neurology B) Astrology C) Penology D) Criminology

DIRECTIONS for the question: Among the four choices given below, pick the one which spells the word correctly:

Question No. : 33

A) discomobulate B) discombobbulate C) discombobulate D) descombobulate

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the option which is most Similar in meaning of the underlined word as used in the
context of the sentence.

Question No. : 34

Veneer: He was able to fool people with his veneer of sophistication.

A) Veiled B) Obviate C) Querulous D) A superficial appearance

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the word from the options which is most Similar in meaning to the given word.

Question No. : 35

REALIA

A) theoretical constructs B) fabricated examples C) objects from real life D) Based on reality
WIN CUET Language 02
DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose an option, which can be substituted for a given word/sentence/phrase out of given
options.

Question No. : 36

One who hates makes mankind.

A) Hedonist B) Fatalist C) Misanthrope D) Misogynist

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the word from the options which is most Similar in meaning to the given word.

Question No. : 37

decimate

A) destroy B) delay C) desire D) construct

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the option which is most Similar in meaning of the underlined word as used in the
context of the sentence.

Question No. : 38

Indoctrinate: The Monks indoctrinate their disciples.

A) Irascibility B) Instruct C) Designation D) Constrain

DIRECTIONS for the question: Identify the meaning of the idiom/ phrase as used in the sentence.

Question No. : 39

My ten-year-old son is an incredible live wire.

A) naughty B) Energetic C) Lazy D) Dangerous

DIRECTIONS for the question: Identify the meaning of the idiom/ phrase as used in the sentence.

Question No. : 40

The die is cast and nothing can be done now.

A) The game has been played B) There has been a failure C) The effect has worn out D) The decision has been taken

DIRECTIONS for the question: Identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase.

Question No. : 41

Elbow room

A) opportunity for freedom of action B) special room for the guest C) space for movement
D) to add a new room to the house
WIN CUET Language 02
DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent
paragraph.

Question No. : 42

A. For them, the picnic was based around communal sharing.


B. You could be forgiven for not realising it, but we are in the middle of National Picnic Week.
C. Every member of the party would contribute food and entertainment towards an elegant meal, eventually one that would be
taken outside.
D. It's one of those daft marketing campaigns that are run to raise awareness of something that we are already perfectly well
aware and perhaps even fond of, while simultaneously reflecting the pilfered glory onto a campaign sponsor; a lacklustre
margarine brand, for example, a range of lunch boxes, a wine losing market share or a failing pie manufacturer.
E. All of which would have surprised the original picnickers of the 18th and 19th centuries.
F. The elegance of the meal set it apart from farm labourers taking their dinner in the fields, but the picnic has had a democratic
streak in it from the start.

A) BDEACF B) BDAECF C) DEACFB D) BDAEFC

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the option which is grammatically correct and expresses the meaning of sentence
correctly.

Question No. : 43

A) Salaries in state owned enterprises today have to be in line on prevailing market rates in order to improve turnover.
B) Salaries in state owned enterprises today have to be aligned on prevailing market rates in order to improve turnover.
C) Salaries in state owned enterprises today have to be in line with prevailing market rates in order to improve turnover.
D) Salaries in state owned enterprises today have been on line with prevailing market rates inorder to improve turnover.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Select the best option which completes the sentence (s) in the most meaningful manner

Question No. : 44

The cabinet may ____________administrative regulations to implement the provisions of this chapter.

A) Promulgate B) Monotonous C) Extraneous D) Philanthropy

DIRECTIONS for the question: A set of four words is given. Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is
not related to the rest. Pick the word which does not fit in the relation.

Question No. : 45

A) Seminar B) Semicolon C) Semifinal D) Semicircle

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the option which is grammatically correct and expresses the meaning of sentence
correctly.

Question No. : 46

A) There are great stables, where a dozen grooms and boys held forth, rows of vine-clad servants' cottages, an endless and
order array of outhouses, long grape arbors, green pastures, orchards, and berry patches.
B) There were great stable, where a dozen grooms and boys held forth, rows of vine-clad servant cottages, an endless and
orderly array of outhouses, long grape arbors, green pastures, orchards, and berry patches.
C) There were great stables, where a dozen grooms and boys held forth, rows of vine-clad servants' cottages, an endless and
orderly array of outhouses, long grape arbors, green pastures, orchards, and berry patches.
D) There were great stables, where a dozen grooms and boys held forth, rows of vine-clad servant's cottages, an endless and
orderly array of outhouse, long grape arbor, green pasture, orchard, and berry patch.
WIN CUET Language 02
DIRECTIONS for the question: Pick the best option which completes the sentence in the most meaningful manner.

Question No. : 47

It's a suitable day trip for those looking to escape the -------- of the city.

A) Frenzy B) Anticipation C) Presumption D) Constrain

DIRECTIONS for the question: A set of four words is given. Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is
not related to the rest. Pick the word which does not fit in the relation.

Question No. : 48

Which word describes something different from the others?

A) INCESSANT B) TRANSITORY C) RELENTLESS D) INTERMINABLE

DIRECTIONS for the question: A sentence has been given in Direct Speech. Out of the four altenatives suggested select the one
which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect Speech.

Question No. : 49

I said to my brother, "Why were you absent yesterday?"

A) I asked my brother why he had been absent yesterday B) I asked my brother why had he been absent the previous day
C) I asked my. brother if why he had been absent the previous day
D) I asked my brother that why he had been absent the previous day

DIRECTIONS for the question: A sentence has been given in Direct Speech. Out of the four altenatives suggested select the one
which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect Speech.

Question No. : 50

I said to him, “Why are you working so hard”?

A) I asked him why he was working so hard. B) I asked him why was he working so hard.
C) I asked him why he had been working so hard. D) I asked him why had he been working so hard.
WIN CUET Language 03
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 1
The wakeup call that China represents to India is not limited to its showpiece urban centers or that New Delhi hopes India will
experience the benefits that the Olympic Games have brought to Beijing. More pertinent is the comparison of the agricultural
sectors of the two countries. Why and how has China managed to outstrip India in agriculture when 25 years ago the two
countries were on par on most parameters? Both have traditionally been agrarian economies and over half their populations
continue to depend on the land for their livelihood. With large populations and histories of famine, India and China share
concern on issues such as food security. However, while India's agricultural sector is projected to grow by about 2.5 per cent
this year-a slide from the previous year's growth-, China's has been steadily growing at between 4 per cent and 5 per cent over
the last fifteen years. The widest divergence between India and China is in the profitable horticultural sector with the
production of fruits and vegetables in China leaping from 60 million tonnes in 1980 compared to India's 55 million tonnes at
the same time, to 450 million tonnes in 2003 ahead of India's corresponding 135 million tonnes. China's added advantage lies
in the more diversified composition of its agricultural sector with animal husbandry and fisheries which account for close to 45
per cent of growth compared to 30 per cent for India.

According to the latest report by the Economic Advisory Council, the traditional excuses for India's substandard performance in
the farm sector are inadequate since India is placed favorably when compared to China in terms of quantity of arable land,
average farm size, farm mechanization etc. The reasons for China having outperformed India are threefold: technological
improvements accruing from research and development (China has over 1,000 R&D centre devoted to agriculture), investment
in rural infrastructure and an increasingly liberalized agricultural policy moving away from self-sufficiency to leveraging the
competitive advantage with a focus on "efficiency as much as equity". Investment in rural infrastructure, roads, storage facilities,
marketing facilities are also crucial but government support in India has mainly been through subsidies, not investment. There
has been much debate about subsidies and their utility; the opposing view being that subsidies are against the market reforms
and distort the market as well as reduce resource efficiency. In contrast to the 2,046 applications for the registration of new
plant varieties in China over the past few years, data reveals that despite India having the largest number of agricultural
scientists in the world India's current research track record is abysmal, equivalent to what China achieved in the 1980s. Far from
developing new strains, the number of field crop varieties fell by 50 per cent between 1997 and 2001 despite the fact that there
was sharp and sustained increase in funding. One reason is that majority of the budget is eaten up by staff salaries with only 3
per cent being allotted for research. In contrast, most agricultural research centres in China must use Central government
funding purely for research. Funds relating to salaries and other administrative incidentals must be generated by the centres
themselves. The centres and scientists are thus encouraged to engage in joint ventures with private sector companies to form
commercial signoffs from their research. In fact, research staff is now being hired on a contract basis with pay based on
performance and salaries rose proportionately for those who perform well. India needs to learn from China's example and
adopt a pragmatic approach if it has to meet its targets of the Eleventh Five Year Plan.

What has been the major area of difference in the development of the agricultural sectors of India and China?

A) Quantity of arable land in China is far greater than in India.


B) Food security is not a concern for China as the country is basically self-sufficient.
C) China has experienced substantial growth in production in allied agricultural activities like horticulture.
D) India's agricultural sector is too diversified so it is difficult to channel funds for development.

Question No. : 2

Which of the following is/are area/s in which China has not outdone India?

A. Development of urban infrastructure


B. Activities allied to agriculture like animal husbandry
C. Successful bids for international sporting events

A) None B) Only (B) C) Only (A) D) Both (A) & (C)

Question No. : 3

Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?

A) Agricultural status of China and India was equivalent a quarter of a century ago.
B) India's current economic growth rate is half that of China. C) China is traditionally an agrarian economy.
D) Agricultural research in India is inadequate.
WIN CUET Language 03
Question No. : 4

How are Chinese agricultural research facilities governed?

A) Salaries of staff are linked to performance and this hampers productive research.
B) Their funding comes from the government alone to prevent private companies from manipulating the di­rection of their
research.
C) A fixed proportion of government grants is allotted to be utilized for administrative incidentals which can­not be
exceeded.
D) None of these

Question No. : 5

According to the author, which of the following is a legitimate explanation for India's stagnating agricultural sector?

A. India diverts funds that should be spent on agricultural research to urban development.
B. Reforms are hampered because adequate subsidies are not provided by the government.
C. The procedure for registering new plant varieties is very tedious so research is limited.

A) Both (A) & (C) B) Only (B) C) Only (C) D) None of these

Question No. : 6

Which of the following is an advantage that India holds over China with respect to the agricultural sector?

A) Lack of diversification of the agricultural sector B) Superior technology and farming practices
C) Greater prevalence of farm mechanization D) Provision of fertilizer and power subsidies
WIN CUET Language 03
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 7
The steadily rising rate of economic growth in India has recently been around 8 percent per year (it is expected to be 9 percent
this year), and there is much speculation about whether and when India may catch up with and surpass China’s over 10 percent
growth rate. Despite the evident excitement that this subject seems to cause in India and abroad, it is surely rather silly to be
obsessed about India’s overtaking China in the rate of growth of GNP, while not comparing India with China in other respects,
like education, basic health, or life expectancy. Economic growth can, of course, be enormously helpful in advancing living
standards and in battling poverty. But there is little cause for taking the growth of GNP to be an end in itself, rather than seeing
it as an important means for achieving things we value.

It could, however, be asked why this distinction should make much difference, since economic growth does enhance our ability
to improve living standards. The central point to appreciate here is that while economic growth is important for enhancing
living conditions, its reach and impact depend greatly on what we do with the increased income. The relation between
economic growth and the advancement of living standards depends on many factors, including economic and social inequality
and, no less importantly, on what the government does with the public revenue that is generated by economic growth.

Higher GNP has certainly helped China to reduce various indicators of poverty and deprivation, and to expand different
features of the quality of life. There is every reason to want to encourage sustainable economic growth in India in order to
improve living standards today and in the future (including taking care of the environment in which we live). Sustainable
economic growth is a very good thing in a way that “growth mania” is not.

One of the positive things about economic growth is that it generates public resources that the government can devote to its
priorities. In fact, public resources very often grow faster than the GNP. The gross tax revenue, for example, of the government
of India (corrected for price rise) is now more than four times what it was just twenty years ago, in 1990–1991. This is a
substantially bigger jump than the price-corrected GNP. Expenditure on what is somewhat misleadingly called the “social
sector”—health, education, nutrition, etc.—has certainly gone up in India. And yet India is still well behind China in many of
these fields. For example, government expenditure on health care in China is nearly five times that in India. China does, of
course, have a larger population and a higher per capita income than India, but even in relative terms, while the Chinese
government spends nearly 2 percent of GDP (1.9 percent) on health care, the proportion is only a little above one percent (1.1
percent) in India.

One result of the relatively low allocation of funds to public health care in India is that large numbers of poor people across the
country rely on private doctors, many of whom have little medical training. Since health is also a typical example of “asymmetric
information,” in which the patients may know very little about what the doctors (or “supposed doctors”) are giving them, even
the possibility of fraud and deceit is very large. In a study conducted by the Pratichi Trust—a public interest trust set up in 1999
—we found cases in which the ignorance of poor patients about their condition was exploited so as to make them pay for
treatment they didn’t get. This is the result not only of shameful exploitation, but ultimately of the sheer unavailability of public
health care in many parts of India. The benefit that we can expect to get from economic growth depends very much on how the
public revenue generated by economic growth is expended

According to the passage, the relation between economic growth and improvement in standard of living depends on

A. system of governance in a country


B. what the government does with the public revenue that is generated by economic growth.
C. economic and social inequality
D. the amount of national income generated in an economy.

A) A and C B) B and C C) B only D) A and D

Question No. : 8

What does the author mean when he uses the term ‘ growth mania’?

A) Obsession for high economic growth rate without adequate attention being paid to improve the living standards of
people
B) Focus on sustainable economic growth
C) Conflict between democracy and the use of the fruits of economic growth for social advancement
D) madness to surpass China’s growth rate
WIN CUET Language 03
Question No. : 9

Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?

A) China has higher per capita income than India B) India's current economic growth rate is half that of China
C) Economic growth generates public resources that can be utilized for social advancement
D) Sustainable development is the solution for imbalance between economic growth and social development

Question No. : 10

According to the passage, the low allocation of funds to public health care in India has resulted in all of the following EXCEPT

A) heavy dependence on private healthcare B) increased cases of fraud and abuse in health care sector
C) asymmetric information D) exploitation of poor patients

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 11
In the past, there was a small leisure class and a larger working class. The leisure class enjoyed advantages for which there was
no basis in social justice; this necessarily made it oppressive, limited its sympathies, and caused it to invent theories by which to
justify its privileges. These facts greatly diminished its excellence, but in spite of this drawback it contributed nearly the whole of
what we call civilization. It cultivated the arts and discovered the sciences; it wrote the books, invented the philosophies, and
refined social relations. Without the leisure class, mankind would never have emerged from barbarism.

The method of a leisure class without duties was, however, extraordinarily wasteful. None of the members of the class had to be
taught to be industrious, and the class as a whole was not exceptionally intelligent.

At present, the universities are supposed to provide, in a more systematic way, what the leisure class provided accidentally and
as a by-product. This is a great improvement, but it has certain drawbacks. University life is so different from life in the world at
large that men who live in academic milieu tend to be unaware of the preoccupations and problems of ordinary men and
women; moreover their ways of expressing themselves are usually such as to rob their opinions of the influence that they ought
to have upon the general public. Another disadvantage is that in universities studies are organized, and the man who thinks of
some original line of research is likely to be discouraged. Academic institutions, therefore, useful as they are, are not adequate
guardians of the interests of civilization in a world where everyone outside their walls is too busy for unutilitarian pursuits.

In a world where no one is compelled to work more than four hours a day, every person possessed of scientific curiosity will be
able to indulge it, and every painter will be able to paint without starving, however excellent his pictures may be.

Above all, there will be happiness and joy of life, instead of frayed nerves, weariness, and dyspepsia. The work exacted will be
enough to make leisure delightful, but not enough to produce exhaustion. Since men will not be tired in their spare time, they
will not demand only such amusements as are passive and vapid. At least one per cent will probably devote the time not spent
in professional work to pursuits of some public importance, and, since they will not depend upon these pursuits for their
livelihood, their originality will be unhampered, and there will be no need to conform to the standards set by elderly pundits.
But it is not only in these exceptional cases that the advantages of leisure will appear.

Ordinary men and women, having the opportunity of a happy life, will become more kindly and less persecuting and less
inclined to view others with suspicion. The taste for war will die out, partly for this reason, and partly because it will involve long
and severe work for all. Good nature is, of all moral qualities, the one that the world needs most, and good nature is the result
of ease and security, not of a life of arduous struggle. Modern methods of production have given us the possibility of ease and
security for all; we have chosen, instead, to have overwork for some and starvation for others. Hitherto we have continued to be
as energetic as we were before there were machines; in this we have been foolish, but there is no reason to go on being foolish
forever.

Excerpted from In search of Idleness by Bertrand Russell.

What is the paradox mentioned in the passage?

A) Leisure was available to the elite as it was related their status in society
B) The leisure class were the ones who liberated the oppressed
C) One cannot find justice in what happens in life; destiny favours the rich
D) With nothing to do the leisure class focussed on the arts and philosophies
WIN CUET Language 03
Question No. : 12

According to the author if people are to work for fewer number of hours then all of the following would be true, except

A) Young writers will not be obliged to draw attention to themselves by sensational pot-boilers and instead will strive for
monumental works
B) Men who, in their professional work, have become interested in some phase of economics or government, will be able to
develop their ideas without the academic detachment that makes the work of university economists often seem lacking in
reality
C) Medical men will have the time to learn about the progress of medicine
D) Teachers will be meticulously teaching by routine methods things which they learnt in their youth even though they may
have been proved to be untrue

Question No. : 13

According to the passage all of the following are true, except,

A) When given an opportunity to live a happy life people are less sceptical and less hostile
B) If one has to live a life of content then one needs to feel safe
C) Modern production has created disparate lives, some with too much work and some with too little
D) People will devote time to pursue work useful to the society no matter whether they are tired or not

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 14

We are well into the 21st century yet half the world’s population live in squatter settlements and work in shadow economies,
which generate more than one-third of the developing world’s GDP. Slums are not caused by the poor but by governments
denying people the right to own and exchange property. When people own their own property they have incentives to invest
time, money and energy to improve it because they know that they will be able to benefit from any such improvements, i.e. the
ability to obtain mortgages etc. In short, property rights beget capital, which begets innovation, which begets wealth. Sadly, the
poor typically don’t have secure title to their lands as there are bureaucratic restrictions on transferring title or there is no clear
system for titling. Without legal deeds they live in constant fear of being evicted by landlords or municipal officials. Illiteracy is a
major reason poor people often choose not to seek the protection of local courts since in so many countries laws established
under colonial rule have never been translated into local languages. When entrepreneurs do set out to legally register business
they are discouraged by red tape and costly fees. In Egypt, starting a bakery takes 500 days, compliance with 315 laws and 27
times the monthly minimum wage. The proprietors of such businesses cannot get loans, enforce contracts or expand a personal
network of familiar customers and partners. As a result the poor have no choice but to accept insecurity and instability as a way
of life.

In India severe restrictions on free transfer of property in most rural areas inhibit investment and encourage urban flight.
Planning policies however discourage building homes for these migrants as numerous homes are destroyed if they do not
comply with planning rules, essentially forcing people to live in slums and perversely blaming it on population growth. UN
Habitat, the UN agency for housing the poor, has implemented more plans to stabilize the unplanned aspects of urban growth
but grandiose plans like UN Schemes and government housing projects simply ignore or worsen the underlying problems. It is
when governments grant people legal means to control their assets that they empower them to invest and plan ahead. In
Buenos Aires, economists studied the experience of two Argentine communities. One had received legal title to its land in the
1980s and surpassed i.e. other group which had not, in a range of social indicators including quality of house construction and
education levels. The Commission on Legal Empowerment of the Poor – a UN affiliated initiative made up of two dozen leaders
– is exploring ideas to extend enforceable legal rights to impoverished members of society and is seeking to bring about a
consensus on incentives for national and local leaders. As the growth of illegal settlements amply demonstrates, the poor are
not helpless; all they need is governments to grant them fundamental human rights of freedom and responsibility.

The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to

A) exhort the UN to play a greater role in rehabilitating slum-dwellers


B) Praise government initiatives for migrant slum-dwellers C) convince governments to empower the poor
D) enlist the aid of developed countries to tackle the issue of slums
WIN CUET Language 03
Question No. : 15

What benefit does the author see in providing land ownership rights to the poor?

A) Steady increase in GDP B) Gaining independence from colonial rulers


C) Municipal services afforded to the poor will improve D) None of these

Question No. : 16

Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A) Additional UN projects will exacerbate the plight of slum – dwellers


B) Although the government allocates land for them, the poor choose not to invest in building houses
C) With the spread of slums populations are drifting back to rural areas
D) In order to accumulate profit slum – dwellers avoid legally registering their business

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 17
No very satisfactory account of the mechanism that caused the formation of the ocean basins has yet been given. The
traditional view supposes that the upper mantle of the earth behaves as a liquid when it is subjected to small forces for long
periods and that differences in temperature under oceans and continents are sufficient to produce convection in the mantle of
the earth with rising convection currents under the mid-ocean ridges and sinking currents under the continents.

Theoretically, this convection would carry the continental plates along as though they were on a conveyor belt and would
provide the forces needed to produce the split that occurs along the ridge. This view may be correct: it has the advantage that
the currents are driven by temperature differences that themselves depend on the position of the continents.

Such a back-coupling, in which the position of the moving plate has an impact on the forces that move it, could produce
complicated and varying motions. On the other hand, the theory is implausible because convection does not normally
occur along lines. And it certainly does not occur along lines broken by frequent offsets or changes in direction, as the
ridge is. Also it is difficult to see how the theory applies to the plate between the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the ridge in the
Indian Ocean.

This plate is growing on both sides, and since there is no intermediate trench, the two ridges must be moving apart. It would be
odd if the rising convection currents kept exact pace with them. An alternative theory is that the sinking part of the plate, which
is denser than the hotter surrounding mantle, pulls the rest of the plate after it. Again it is difficult to see how this applies to the
ridge in the South Atlantic, where neither the African nor the American plate has a sinking part. Another possibility is that the
sinking plate cools the neighboring mantle and produces convection currents that move the plates.

This last theory is attractive because it gives some hope of explaining the enclosed seas, such as the Sea of Japan. These seas
have a typical oceanic floor, except that the floor is overlaid by several kilometers of sediment. Their floors have probably been
sinking for long periods. It seems possible that a sinking current of cooled mantle material on the upper side of the plate might
be the cause of such deep basins.

The enclosed seas are an important feature of the earth's surface, and seriously require explanation in because, addition
to the enclosed seas that are developing at present behind island arcs, there are a number of older ones of possibly
similar origin, such as the Gulf of Mexico, the Black Sea, and perhaps the North Sea.

According to the traditional view of the origin of the ocean basins, which of the following is sufficient to move the continental
plates?

A) Increases in sedimentation on ocean floors B) Spreading of ocean trenches C) Movement of mid-ocean ridges
D) Differences in temperature under oceans and continents
WIN CUET Language 03
Question No. : 18

The author refers to a "conveyor belt " in line 13 in order to

A) illustrate the effects of convection in the mantle


B) show how temperature differences depend on the positions of the continents
C) demonstrate the linear nature of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge
D) describe the complicated motions made possible by back-coupling

Question No. : 19

According to the passage, which of the following are separated by a plate that is growing on both sides?

A) The Pacific Ocean and the Sea of Japan B) The South Atlantic Ridge and the North Sea Ridge
C) The Gulf of Mexico and the South Atlantic Ridge D) The Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the Indian Ocean Ridge

Question No. : 20

Which of the following, if it could be demonstrated, would most support the traditional view of ocean formation?

A) Convection usually occurs along lines. B) The upper mantle behaves as a dense solid.
C) Sedimentation occurs at a constant rate. D) Sinking plates cool the mantle.
WIN CUET Language 03
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 21
I suppose there is no man in his sober senses who seriously believes that no other mind than his own exists. There is, to be
sure, an imaginary being more or less discussed by those interested in philosophy, a creature called the Solipsist, who is
credited with this doctrine. But men do not become solipsists, though they certainly say things now and then that other men
think logically lead to some such unnatural view of things; and more rarely they say things that sound as if the speaker, in some
moods, at least, might actually harbor such a view.

Thus, the philosopher Fichte (1762-1814) talks in certain of his writings as though he believed himself to be the universe, and
his words cause Jean Paul Richter, the inimitable, to break out in his characteristic way: "The very worst of it all is the lazy,
aimless, aristocratic, insular life that a god must lead; he has no one to go with. If I am not to sit still for all time and eternity, if I
let myself down as well as I can and make myself finite, that I may have something in the way of society, still I have, like petty
princes, only my own creatures to echo my words. . . . Every being, even the highest Being, wishes something to love and to
honor. But the Fichtean doctrine that I am my own body-maker leaves me with nothing whatever--with not so much as the
beggar's dog or the prisoner's spider. . . . Truly I wish that there were men, and that I were one of them. . . . If there exists, as I
very much fear, no one but myself, unlucky dog that I am, then there is no one at such a pass as I."

Just how much Fichte's words meant to the man who wrote them may be a matter for dispute. Certainly no one has shown a
greater moral earnestness or a greater regard for his fellowmen than this philosopher, and we must not hastily accuse any one
of being a solipsist. But that to certain men, and, indeed, to many men, there have come thoughts that have seemed to point
in this direction"that not a few have had doubts as to their ability to prove the existence of other minds--this we must admit. It
appears somewhat easier for a man to have doubts upon this subject when he has fallen into the idealistic error of regarding
the material world, which seems to be revealed to him, as nothing else than his "ideas" or "sensations" or "impressions." If we
will draw the whole "telephone exchange" into the clerk, there seems little reason for not including all the subscribers as well. If
other men's bodies are my sensations, may not other men's minds be my imaginings? But doubts may be felt also by those
who are willing to admit a real external world. How do we know that our inference to the existence of other minds is a
justifiable inference? Can there be such a thing as verification in this field?

For we must remember that no man is directly conscious of any mind except his own. Men cannot exhibit their minds to their
neighbors as they exhibit their wigs. However close may seem to us to be our intercourse with those about us, do we ever
attain to anything more than our ideas of the contents of their minds? We do not experience these contents; we picture them,
we represent them by certain proxies. To be sure, we believe that the originals exist, but can we be quite sure of it? Can there
be a proof of this right to make the leap from one consciousness to another? We seem to assume that we can make it, and
then we make it again and again; but suppose, after all, that there were nothing there. Could we ever find out our error? And
in a field where it is impossible to prove error, must it not be equally impossible to prove truth?

The main idea of the passage is:

A) to use reasoning to prove that Fichte was right in this views with respect to the unitary nature of self
B) to highlight the logical blunders committed by Fichte in discussing the self
C) to raise concerns on the thesis that the self is all that exists
D) to raise doubts and highlight contrary viewpoints of the topic of the existence of the self alone

Question No. : 22

In the passage, the word 'inimitable' means

A) rustic B) unrivaled C) choleric D) irate

Question No. : 23

According to the information provided in the passage, a 'Solipsist' is someone who believes:

A) that it is not possible for the rational mind to prove the existence of self B) in the limited precepts of life
C) that the self is all that you know to exist D) that multiple minds actually unify to become one

Question No. : 24

The author of the passage exhibits which of the following in the last paragraph of the passage?

A) a hint of malice B) an element of opacity C) a suggestion of perplexity D) a modicum of frustration


WIN CUET Language 03
Question No. : 25

According to the information given in the passage, Jean Paul Richter's would agree with the statements:

I. Fichtean doctrine does not account for the social existence of man.
II. Human beings crave for emotions born out of social interactions.
III. Men exist only relative to one another.

A) I & II B) II & III C) I & III D) All of the above

Question No. : 26

According to the author of the passage:

A) Fichte was a rigid believer in the existence of a society driven by self-motivated individuals
B) Fichte was a fierce advocate of the thought that no other mind than his own exists
C) Fichte may or may not have been a strong believer of the thought that no other mind than his own exists
D) None of the above

DIRECTIONS for the question: The question consists of a word in CAPITAL LETTERS, followed by four words or phrases. Choose
the word or phrase that is nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word in capital letters.

Question No. : 27

AVER:

A) condemn unjustly B) resign indignantly C) deny D) resent

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the word from the options which is most Similar in meaning to the given word.

Question No. : 28

Foible

A) false B) frail C) gentle D) frugal

DIRECTIONS for the question: In each of the following question, out of the given group of wordings, choose one appropriately
spelled.

Question No. : 29

A) severety B) sovereignity C) superiorty D) serenity

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the option which is most Similar in meaning of the underlined word as used in the
context of the sentence.

Question No. : 30

Sordid : His dress was of a piece with his countenance, neither affectedly sordid nor pompous.

A) Prosaic B) Tingle C) Rhetoric D) Sleazy

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the option which is most Similar in meaning of the underlined word as used in the
context of the sentence.

Question No. : 31

Asperity: His asperity is well endured by his family.

A) Harshness B) Baroque C) Rift D) Courageous


WIN CUET Language 03
DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the option which is most Similar in meaning of the underlined word as used in the
context of the sentence.

Question No. : 32

Fraught: She is depressed, fraught and exhausted.

A) Distress B) Revoke C) Guilty D) Undermine

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the option which is most Similar in meaning of the underlined word as used in the
context of the sentence.

Question No. : 33

Gullible: He is so gullible that he believes everything you tell him.

A) Regain B) Easily deceived C) Affirmed D) Cancel

DIRECTIONS for the question: For the word a contextual sentence is given. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most
inappropriate in the given context.

Question No. : 34

Repose: Little trust can be reposed in such promises.

A) Innocuous B) Confusion C) Recoup D) to place

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the option which is most Similar in meaning of the underlined word as used in the
context of the sentence.

Question No. : 35

The weather was sultry preceding the storm.

A) Scuttle B) Perorate C) Hamper D) Hot and humid

DIRECTIONS for the question: Fill in the blanks with the correct alternative.

Question No. : 36

Caw is to crows as _____________ is to cows

A) bleat B) snort C) low D) bellow

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the
capitalized pair.

Question No. : 37

MERCENARY : MONEY : :

A) immaculate : cleanliness B) belligerent : invasion C) vindictive : revenge D) hungry : water

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the
capitalized pair.

Question No. : 38

ANGER : RAGE

A) Speed : Distance B) Air : Fan C) Sound : Music D) Drizzle :Downpour


WIN CUET Language 03
DIRECTIONS for the question: Identify the meaning of the idiom/ phrase as used in the sentence.

Question No. : 39

It is of no use splitting hairs on this issue since the act has been passed and the Muslim women will have to lump it with their
religion.

A) taking down fine details B) making hairs finer C) arguing on the minor points D) hotly debating major issues

DIRECTIONS for the question: Identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase.

Question No. : 40

To flog a dead horse.

A) To act in a foolish way B) To waste one's efforts C) To revive interest in an old effort D) To beat a dead horse

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent
paragraph.

Question No. : 41

A. Facebook takes transparency to the limit, since it virtually reproduces and extends one’s real social life and persona e.g. here,
one can describe one’s “interests”—women, men, friendship, dating, relationship — and “relationship status”, from “married” to
“complicated” to “in open relationship.”
B. Most serious sites will be based on a “profile” form, since the user must provide basic information about herself; otherwise,
there would be no selection criteria.
C. Here, one woman may call herself “Fallen Angel,” and then deliver as much or as little information as she wishes.
D. Websites that specialize in dating expand the concept to include “just penpals,” “activity partners,” “friends,” “let’s see what
happens,” “a short-term relationship,” “a long-term relationship,” “marriage,” “a fling,” and so on.
E. Beyond messenger services, social-networking tools like Facebook have created a new vocabulary of virtual seduction, a new
convergence between the dating industry and the simplified but transparent truths of one’s social self.

A) EBACD B) EABCD C) ECDBA D) BCDEA

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. if there is 'No Error" the answer is (D).
(Ignore errors of punctuation if any.)

Question No. : 42

This candidate lacks an experience otherwise he is well qualified, No error

A) This candidate lacks B) an experience C) otherwise he is well qualified, D) No error

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. if there is 'No Error" the answer is (D).
(Ignore errors of punctuation if any.)

Question No. : 43

The doctor attended to the patient very quietly. No error

A) The doctor B) attended to the patient C) very quietly, D) No error


WIN CUET Language 03
DIRECTIONS for the question: Select the best option which completes the sentence (s) in the most meaningful manner

Question No. : 44

He is usually......., but today he appears rather………….

A) strict, unwell B) tense, restless C) quiet, calm D) calm, disturbed

DIRECTIONS for the question: Select the best option which completes the sentence (s) in the most meaningful manner

Question No. : 45

The _____ displayed by the warriors, in holding off the enemy was a sight to ____.

A) fortitude, behold B) regale,enjoy C) escapade, relish D) strength, rejoice

DIRECTIONS for the question: A set of four words is given. Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is
not related to the rest. Pick the word which does not fit in the relation.

Question No. : 46

A) Distress B) Anguish C) Agony D) Ecstasy

DIRECTIONS for the question: Fill in the blank with the right options provided.

Question No. : 47

A good judge never gropes ________________ the conclusion.

A) to B) at C) on D) for

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the correct form of the verb that agrees with the subject.

Question No. : 48

The show, including all the previews, ______ about three hours to watch.

A) take B) takes C) taking D) None of these

DIRECTIONS for the question: Fill in the blank with the right options provided.

Question No. : 49

The members of team management, as well as the team, ______ to win.

A) want B) wants C) has wanted D) None of these


WIN CUET Language 03
DIRECTIONS for the question: The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E which when logically ordered
form a coherent passage. Choose the option that represents the most logical order.

Question No. : 50

A. There is thus a major difference between the “Facebooked” search for sexual entertainment and the multimillion-dollar
business of programmed “dating” whose stated aim is to assist clients in finding a mate via online tools or computerized
marriage agencies.
B. The former is not necessarily intimate—in fact, its purpose can be precisely to keep intimacy and emotional entanglement at
bay—and partakes of no order other than the human need to engage in erotic play.
C. And as one ages and couples are formed, a single life becomes increasingly lonely, available partners are fewer, and the
pressure to live in a couple escalates.
D. The latter participates in the old need to channel sexuality into the ordered family unit.
E. Older married women fear the single young girls who might seduce their aging husbands and while libertine men have to
fight to affirm their theories, libertine women have to live with their “reputation,” or be thought of as unresolved.

A) ECABD B) EACBD C) CEBDA D) ECADB


WIN CUET Language 04
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 1
The world dismisses curiosity by calling it idle, or mere idle curiosity – even though curious persons are seldom idle. Parents do
their best to extinguish curiosity in their children because it makes life difficult to be faced every day with a string of
unanswerable questions about what makes fire hot or why grass grows. Children whose curiosity survives parental discipline are
invited to join our university. Within the university, they go on asking their questions and trying to find the answers. In the eyes
of a scholar, that is mainly what a university is for. Some of the questions that scholars ask seem to the world to be scarcely
worth asking, let alone answering. They ask questions too minute and specialized for you and me to understand without years
of explanation. If the world inquires one of them why he wants to know the answer to a particular question, he may say,
especially if he is a scientist, that the answer will, in some obscure way, make possible a new machine or weapon or gadget. He
talks that way because he knows that the world understands and respects utility. But to you who are now part of the university,
he will say that he wants to know the answer, simply because he does not know it. The way a mountain climber wants to climb
a mountain simply because it is there. Similarly a historian when asked by outsiders why he studies history, may come out with
argument that he has learnt to repeat on such occasions, something about knowledge of the past, making it possible to
understand the present and mould the future. But if you really want to know why a historian studies the past, the answer is
much simpler: something happened, and he would like to know what. All this does not mean that the answers which scholars
find to their questions have no consequences. They may have enormous consequences, but these seldom form the reason for
asking the question or pursuing the answers. It is true that scholars can be put to work answering questions for the sake of the
consequences, as thousands are working now, for example, in search of a cure for cancer. But this is not the primary function of
the scholar, for the consequences are usually subordinate to the satisfaction of curiosity.

Common people consider some of the questions asked by scholars as unimportant

A) since they are not worth asking or answering B) because the question is related to new machines and gadgets
C) because the common man doesn't understand questions without years of explanations
D) scholars ask very minute, specialized questions beyond the comprehension of the common man

Question No. : 2

In the statement 'that is mainly what a university is for', 'that' refers to

A) parent's refusal to answer questions B) children's curiosity that survives parental strictures
C) questions not worth answering
D) the aim and scope of the university to provide an opportunity to curious minds to find out the answers to their questions

Question No. : 3

According to the passage the general public respects

A) new inventions B) any useful invention C) any invention that makes life easier for them
D) a scientist who invents gadgets and machines for them

Question No. : 4

The writer compares the scientist to

A) a historian and mountain climber B) a historian C) a mountain climber D) a scholar

Question No. : 5

The primary function of a scholar is different from the search for a cure for cancer because

A) the answers to the scholar's question have no consequence unlike the results of the research involving a cure for cancer
B) the answer sought by the scholar is selfish unlike the consequences of cancer research which are for the common wealth
C) the primary function of a scholar is satisfaction of his mental curiosity, while research involving a cure for cancer demands
a constant, systematic and planned pursuit by several scholars
D) several scholars work for a cancer cure while a single scholar works with a selfish motive
WIN CUET Language 04
Question No. : 6

Idle curiosity means

A) curiosity is lazy B) idle people are curious C) curiosity is apt D) casual curiosity

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 7
Europe’s monetary union is screeching toward the abyss, unintentionally, but apparently inexorably. Greece will most likely not
meet the criteria to receive further financial assistance from its eurozone partners and the International Monetary Fund.
Europeans will then need to decide whether to let Greece go. The exit option would not improve Greece’s chances of successful
adjustment, and it would come at a steep price for the eurozone: it would be “in the money” – and priced accordingly.

A Greek exit could, one hopes, be managed. The European Central Bank would contain the collateral damage by flooding
Europe’s banking system with liquidity (against subpar collateral). Or it will reluctantly re-launch its purchases of public-sector
debt in secondary markets, capping the other peripheral eurozone economies’ interest-rate spreads relative to the core. Thus,
dire circumstances would once again force the ECB’s hand. As the strongest European institution, it is systematically vulnerable
to being taken hostage, compelled to underwrite a further lease on life for the euro. In this light, ECB President Mario Draghi’s
recent vow to do “whatever it takes” to save the euro came as no surprise.

Back in 1999, it seemed that Jacques Rueff, an adviser to Charles de Gaulle, had been vindicated: L’Europe se ferapar la
monnaie (Europe will be by currency). Eleven European countries chose to give up their national currencies (or, more
technically, the nominal exchange rate). These countries understood “one money” as a quasi-physical corollary of “one market.”
Independent national monetary policies in a common market were rightly seen as infeasible, given Europeans’ preference for
stable exchange rates and open financial markets. This called for a single currency – and thus shared responsibility for monetary
policy. Today, however, we may need to re-phrase Rueff’s axiom: Etl’Europe se défait par les marchés financiers (And europe
undone by the financial markets), unless, that is, Europe comes up with a viable institutional design.

Given the euro’s current travails, it is instructive to recall arguments stressed in the run-up to monetary union. As the Nobel
laureate economist Robert Mundell and others spelled out in the 1960’s, relinquishing nominal exchange rates emphasizes
three alternative mechanisms to cushion regional adjustment: inter-regional fiscal transfers, intra-union migration, and, most
importantly, labor markets capable of adapting to shocks.

Unfortunately, these mechanisms were anathema at the time. Conveying the message that nothing would have to change
appeared to be far more attractive.Thus, Mundellian arguments were not heeded when the euro’s institutional blueprint was
conceived. Indeed, the Stability and Growth Pact, like Europe’s no-bail out clause, ignored the pertinent economic theory (some
say any economic theory). Regional current-account balances were interpreted as the upshot of infallible optimizing behavior
by market participants, rather than, for example, the result of a real-estate bubble in Spain and elsewhere.

Only after the fact, since the fall of 2009, has it become conventional wisdom that those intra-union current-account deficits,
accumulating over a decade, were untenable. Now, given monetary union, the adjustment must be carried out by changing
domestic prices relative to tradable goods – that is, by engineering a depreciation of the real exchange rate. In view of the quite
substantial overvaluation in some periphery countries, this will be a time-consuming process. (Germany needed almost a
decade to adapt to a smaller property bubble in its new eastern Länder in the early 1990’s.) But it is difficult to imagine that
market participants will have the required patience. That is why supporting the euro requires forceful and credible crisis
containment – whatever it takes.

In the given context of the passage, the word ‘inexorably’ means:

A) boorishly B) relentlessly C) mulishly D) incalculably

Question No. : 8

According to the author of the passage,

A) Countries, blind-sighted by short term gains, forgot to implement long term measures that will help their currencies
sustain.
B) Countries were not able to foresee the multiple political scenarios that eventually developed in the Euro-zone.
C) The European policy makers were prudent in general in their approach and made the occasional error only.
D) The countries did not pay heed to the kind of mechanisms that were required to be in place when nominal exchange rate
was given up.
WIN CUET Language 04
Question No. : 9

The author of the passage:

A) is critical of the way the Euro-zone was formed. B) does not see the need for Euro-zone.
C) is supportive of the way the Euro-zone was formed. D) is neutral to the formation of the Euro-zone.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 10
The primary conception of force is associated with the muscular sensation felt when we make an effort to cause or prevent the
motion of matter. Similar effects on the motion of matter can be caused by non-living agency, and these also are regarded as
due to forces. As is well known, the scientific measure of a force is the momentum that it communicates to a body in given
time. There is nothing very abstract about a force transmitted by material contact; modern physics shows that the momentum
is communicated by a process of molecular bombardment. We can visualise the mechanism, and see the molecules carrying the
motion in small parcels across the boundary into the body that is being acted on. Force is no mysterious agency; it is merely a
convenient summary of this flow of motion, which we can trace continuously if we take the trouble. It is true that the difficulties
are only set back a stage, and the exact mode by which the momentum is redistributed during a molecular collision is not yet
understood; but, so far as it goes, this analysis gives a clear idea of the transmission of motion by ordinary forces.

But even in elementary mechanics an important natural force appears, which does not seem to operate in this manner.
Gravitation is not resolvable into a succession of molecular blows. A massive body, such as the earth, seems to be surrounded
by a field of latent force, ready, if another body enters the field, to become active, and transmit motion. One usually thinks of
this influence as existing in the space round the earth even when there is no test-body to be affected, and in a rather vague way
it is suspected to be some state of strain or other condition of an unperceived medium.

Although gravitation has been recognised for thousands of years, and its laws were formulated with sufficient accuracy for
almost all purposes more than 200 years ago, it cannot be said that much progress has been made in explaining the nature or
mechanism of this influence. It is said that more than 200 theories of gravitation have been put forward; but the most plausible
of these have all had the defect that they lead nowhere and admit of no experimental test. Many of them would nowadays be
dismissed as too materialistic for our taste---filling space with the hum of machinery---a procedure curiously popular in the
nineteenth century. Few would survive the recent discovery that gravitation acts not only on the molecules of matter, but on
the undulations of light.

The nature of gravitation has seemed very mysterious, yet it is a remarkable fact that in a limited region it is possible to create
an artificial field of force which imitates a natural gravitational field so exactly that, so far as experiments have yet gone, no one
can tell the difference. Those who seek for an explanation of gravitation naturally aim to find a model which will reproduce its
effects; but no one before Einstein seems to have thought of finding the clue in these artificial fields, familiar as they are. When
a lift starts to move upwards the occupants feel a characteristic sensation, which is actually identical with a sensation of
increased weight.....

All of the following strengthen author’s views of gravitation, except:

A) An astrophysicist found the earliest theories of gravitation insignificant from the view point of practical applicability
B) An analysis of most of the theories of gravitation found them to be imperfect
C) A scientist lamented the lack of experimental evidence in initial theories of gravitation and reiterated that gravitation
operates in a way different from other forces
D) The mysterious nature of gravitation baffled Einstein entirely

Question No. : 11

According to the author of the passage:

A) many old theories of gravitation depended upon too much machinery


B) many old theories of gravitation can be proven by experimentation
C) many old theories of gravitation have no real consequence
D) many theories of gravitation that failed in the 19th century were too obscure
WIN CUET Language 04
Question No. : 12

It can be inferred from the passage:

A) that gravitation is an open and shut concept B) that gravitation is too abstruse to be ever fathomed
C) that gravitation still demands extensive thought D) that gravitation has not been accorded the status it deserves

Question No. : 13

The tone of the author of the passage can be said to be:

A) Descriptive and Partisan B) Nitpicking and Scathing C) Conjectural and Cynical D) Explanatory

Question No. : 14

According to the information given in the passage which of the following is correct:

I. Gravitation was discovered about 200 years ago.


II. Laws of gravitation were known for thousands of years.
III. Significant progress has not been made in explaining gravitation.

A) only II B) only III C) only II and III D) I, II and III

Question No. : 15

In the given passage, the author is trying to:

A) identify different forces and how they operate B) discern and discuss the nature of gravitation
C) delineate how gravitation operates on bodies D) identify the core components of gravitation

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 16
After evidence was obtained in the 1920s that the universe is expanding, it became reasonable to ask : will the universe
continue to expand indefinitely, or is there enough mass in it for the mutual attraction of its constituents to bring this
expansion to a halt ? It can be calculated that the critical density of matter needed, to break the expansion and "close" the
universe, is equivalent to three hydrogen atoms per cubic metre. But the density of the observable universe - luminous matter
in the form of galaxies -comes to only a fraction of this. If the expansion of the universe is to stop, there must be enough
invisible matter in the universe to exceed the luminous matter in density by a factor of roughly 70.

Our contribution to the search for this "missing matter" has been to study the rotational velocity of galaxies at various distances
from their centre of rotation. It has been known for some time that outside the bright nucleus of typical spiral galaxy luminosity
falls off rapidly with distance from the centre. If luminosity is a true indicator of mass, most of the mass would be concentrated
toward the centre. Outside the nucleus the rotational velocity would decrease geometrically with the distance from the centre,
in conformity with Kepler's law. Instead we have found that the rotational velocity in spiral galaxies either remains constant with
increasing distance from the centre or increases slightly. This unexpected result indicates that the falloff in luminous mass with
distance from the centre is balanced by an increase in non-luminous mass.

Our findings suggest that as much as 90 per cent of the mass of the universe is not radiating at any wavelength with enough
intensity to be detected on the Earth. Such dark matter could be in the form of extremely dim stars of low mass of large planets
like Jupiter, or of black holes, either small or massive. While it has not yet been determined whether this mass is sufficient to
"close" the universe, some physicists consider it significant that estimates are converging on the critical value.

The authors' suggestion that "as much as 90 per cent of the mass of the universe is not radiating at any wavelength with
enough intensity to be detected on the Earth" (last Para) would be most weakened if which of the following were discovered to
be true?

A) The density of the observable universe is greater than most previous estimates have suggested
B) The bright nucleus of a typical spiral galaxy also contains some non-luminous matter
C) Some galaxies do not rotate or rotate too slowly for their rotational velocity to be measured
D) Spiral galaxies are less common than types of galaxies that contain little non-luminous matter.
WIN CUET Language 04
Question No. : 17

The passage is primarily concerned with ______________.

A) Summarizing research findings B) Criticizing an accepted view C) Defending a controversial approach


D) Contrasting competing theories

Question No. : 18

The author’s study indicates that, in comparison with the outermost regions of a typical spiral galaxy, the region just outside the
nucleus can be characterized as having _____________.

A) Similar rotational velocity and similar luminosity B) Lower rotational velocity and lower luminosity
C) Lower rotational velocity and higher luminosity D) Similar rotational velocity and higher luminosity

Question No. : 19

It can be inferred from information presented in the passage that if the density of the universe were equivalent to significantly
less than three hydrogen atoms per cubic metre, which of the following would be true as a consequence?

A) The density of the invisible matter in the universe would have to be more than 70 times the density of the luminous
matter
B) Different regions in spiral galaxies would rotate at the same velocity
C) The universe would continue to expand indefinitely D) Luminosity would be a true indicator of mass

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 20
The conviction of former Guatemalan dictator Efrain Rios Montt on charges of genocide against Mayan villagers in the 1980s
has a special meaning for Americans who idolize Ronald Reagan. It means that their hero was an accessory to one of the most
grievous crimes that can be committed against humanity. The courage of the Guatemalan people and the integrity of their legal
system to exact some accountability on a still-influential political figure also put U.S. democracy to shame. For decades now,
Americans have tolerated human rights crimes by U.S. presidents who face little or no accountability. Usually, the history isn’t
even compiled honestly.
By contrast, a Guatemalan court on Friday found Rios Montt guilty of genocide and crimes against humanity and sentenced the
86-year-old ex-dictator to 80 years in prison. After the ruling, when Rios Montt rose and tried to walk out of the courtroom,
Judge Yasmin Barrios shouted at him to stay put and then had security officers take him into custody. Yet, while Guatemalans
demonstrate the strength to face a dark chapter of their history, the American people remain mostly oblivious to Reagan’s
central role in tens of thousands of political murders across Central America in the 1980s, including some 100,000 dead in
Guatemala slaughtered by Rios Montt and other military dictators.
Despite that history, more honors have been bestowed on Reagan than any recent president. Americans have allowed the
naming of scores of government facilities in Reagan’s honor, including Washington National Airport where Reagan’s name
elbowed aside that of George Washington, who led the War of Independence, oversaw the drafting of the U.S. Constitution and
served as the nation’s first president. So, as America’s former reputation as a beacon for human rights becomes a bad joke to
the rest of the world, it is unthinkable within the U.S. political/media structure that Reagan would get posthumously criticized
for the barbarity that he promoted. No one of importance would dare suggest that his name be stripped from National Airport
and his statue removed from near the airport entrance.

What should be the appropriate title of the passage?

A) Ronald Reagan: Accessory to Genocide B) U.S presidents with no accountability.


C) Regan role as a harbinger to the tragedy. D) Ronald-a beacon for Human Rights.

Question No. : 21

What should be the appropriate tone of the passage?

A) Criticism B) Pedantic C) Didactic D) Laudatory


WIN CUET Language 04
Question No. : 22

What do we understand by the term” accessory to one of the most grievous crimes”

A) To have criminal tendencies.


B) The person will not have criminal behavior, until the underlying offence is proven and the person has indirectly supported
the criminal.
C) To be the main executor of the crime
D) To acknowledge the gravity and seriousness of the crime and still do nothing to stop it.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 23
Authors William Strauss and Neil Howe are known for their theories about cycles of generations in American history. They refer
to each cycle of four generations as a constellation, and they posit that each constellational era corresponds to “recurring types
of historical events” and moods. They state that adjacent generations do not live similar lives, and that each generation ages as
a singular cohort as time moves forward. According to Stratus and Howe, each generation is comprised of people who possess
(1) common age (2) common beliefs and (3) perceived membership in the same generation. A generation is approximately 22
years in length. Since a lifetime may reach 80-90 years, members of 4 generations are alive at one time. The four generational
archetypes identified by Strauss are Idealist, Reactive, Civic and Adaptive. Idealist are “increasingly indulged youth after a
secular crisis,” who cultivate principle rather than pragmatism in midlife, and emerge as “visionary elders.” Reactives grow up
“Under protected and criticized youths during a spiritual awakening,” mature into risk taking adults, mellow into “pragmatic
midlife leaders during a secular crisis,” and become reclusive elders. Civics grow up “increasingly protected youths after a
spiritual awakening,” become “a heroic and achieving cadre of young adults,” build institutions as midlifers, and “emerges as
busy midlifers, attacked by the next spiritual awakening.” Adaptive grow up as “overprotected and suffocated youths during a
secular crisis,” become “risk-average, conformist rising adults,” mature into “indecisive arbitrator leaders during a spiritual
awakening,” and become sensitive elders.

What is the assumption made by Strauss and Howe?

A) Alternate generations live similar lives B) Four generation co-exist at one and the same time
C) The cycles of generations share some common features and moods.
D) Each constellational era corresponds to recurring types of historical events and moods.

Question No. : 24

What is the dissimilarity between adjacent generations?

A) Adjacent generations do not live similar lives. B) Each generation focuses on its specific traits.
C) Adjacent generations are not influenced by each other. D) Adjacent generations are not in touch with each other.

Question No. : 25

According to the passage which of the following statements can be inferred?

A) Idealist are one generation younger than the Reactives B) Adaptives are elders when Civics are midlifers.
C) When Reactives are adults, Civics are youths. D) Reactives are one generation younger than the Civics.

Question No. : 26

According to the passage, what happens to the Civic generation as its members enter midlife?

A) It is attacked by Idealists who are coming of age B) It is a attacked by Idealists who are visionary elders
C) It is attacked by Adaptives who are rising adults D) It is attacked by Adaptives who are youths

Question No. : 27

‘Pragmatic’ most closely means

A) behaving in a reckless way B) acting in a practical way C) acting on the basis of principle
D) behaving in a reclusive way
WIN CUET Language 04

Question No. : 28

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following passage and answer the question based on it.

There were two aspects of the economy; production and finance. It cannot be said which aspect is primary, since G.D. himself
was given to changing their priority. They are, in a way, interdependent, since the success of the one depends on the other. His
main emphasis was on production. The control of finance and solid results were the tone constantly decked by musical sounds,
measures, beats and rhythmic cycles. There were minor alterations and adjustments but the basic objective was always the
same. The common man is often charmed by the sound of an incantation or hymn and is later attracted by its meaning. In
order to make the right sound resonant no effort can be spared, or the tone itself has to be changed. Setting production
targets, controlling finance, and having it checked are not easy tasks. However, they were made easy and smooth by G.D. with
the help of his own system known as parata. This is how he made gold out of sand.

A parata is prepared under heads of income and expenditure. The money obtained from production is credited to the income
account. A fixed rate of kind of production is determined. If not the optimum of the produce, its expected income is calculated.
To produce so much daily becomes essential. If the production is less than the fixed target, it indicates positive loss; should it
exceed the target, it may mean definite profit. When the production involves different items, they are grouped separately and
an average rate is noted. The money to be obtained daily from production is thus the total income of a mill or factory under
scrutiny.

The expenditure account has two parts. One comprises the determined sum of the consumption of raw or semi-raw materials
and its standard cost. Its consumption changes according to daily production. The other part consists of stable expenses like
daily wages, salary, interest, electricity charges and traveling expenses. About twenty years ago in many paratas the sum of
daily wages had of necessity to be altered, but now since most labourers are in permanent service, practically no change is
required.

The balance of daily income and expenditure is called the daily parata. The margin may vary everyday from rupees one
thousand to five lakhs or more. The parata means that the manager must give at least the determined amount to the
proprietor. He is expected to bridge the gap between what should be and what it actually is. When there is a difference
between what should have been and what actually is, the poor manager and such officers are held responsible. Against each
item, a fixed or determined figure taken from the parata is shown and, in the parallel column, the actual figure is stated. In
between these two, the target is indicated on the board. Thus the parata is a base; the target is the objective; and the actual is
the result, good or bad. All these relevant figures are always before the manager. It is for him to change his tactics when
necessary, in order to achieve the targets.

Under the parata system the manager himself is authorised to distribute or decentralise work as he deems fit. He has every
right to watch, test, transfer or remove his staff. He is exclusively responsible for all results, good or bad. The blame and credit
are both his. To consider this system merely conventional is inappropriate. Like the flame of a lamp, it exhibits the results
clearly, whereas other systems are trackways to measure their distances from one another.

G. D. often said "The capacity of the machine and equipment is written on their name-plates, but a man's capacity for increased
production has no name-plate hanging around his neck nor is it printed on his forehead. He can increase production by his
intelligence and skills. He can change the speed of lifting, handling, transporting, hoisting, conveyorising, relaying and the like.
He can also create new demands of balancing equipment with new methods and plans and at the same time fulfil them. All this
requires the active cooperation of all workers and supervisors. Their morale has to be boosted. Increase production will improve
quality. There is no question of its deterioration, or there could be no demand or justification for increased production. The
effect of greater production should be better economy and efficiency. Even with lower prices the percentage of profit can very
well be maintained."

Excerpted from 'G D Birla, A Biography' by Ram Niwas Jaju

With reference to the passage, what is NOT implied about G D Birla's managerial style?

A) He found it difficult to delegate and usually ended up being involved in almost all key decision making
B) Delayed action was something that he found very difficult to tolerate
C) He believed that parata system provided the manager with a clarity of the minimum targets he needed to achieve.
D) He believed that systems should be designed to aid ever increasing production
WIN CUET Language 04
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 29
The environment comprises all the physical, social and cultural factors and conditions influencing the existence or the
development of an organism. Due to indiscriminate industrialization, man has created a state of decadence. He has
continuously tampered “with nature which has resulted in the threat to the sustenance of mankind. Although, attempts have
been made to restore nature to its previous state of purity and serenity, the efforts have not been whole-hearted.

Earth is the home we all share and would pass on to our future generations as their legacy. But if they inherit the present state
of the world, they would be unable to sustain themselves. Man has steadily improved the technologies and other means
necessary for higher production of wealth and for the availability of devices that could give more physical and mental
pleasures. The industrial revolution led to a drastic escalation of earth’s surface temperature. Man exploited nature for his
benefits, without any foresight as to what the implications of his actions would be. Indiscriminate industrialization resulted in
urban migration as the rural poor settled in cities in search of opportunities. Cities, already facing a population crisis could not
accommodate the migrants and this led to the development of slums. This had resulted in increased pressure on the available
resources and further degradation of the environment.

Why would the future generations find it difficult to live on the earth?

A) Due to global warming B) Because they are likely to inherit an overexploited environment
C) Because they rely only on technology D) Due to adundance of resources.

Question No. : 30

Implication means

A) foretelling B) Consequences C) Wrong doing D) Causes

Question No. : 31

The theme of the passage is

A) Environmental degradation B) Environmental pollution C) Crisis faced by the modern world D) All of the above

Question No. : 32

Industrialization has resulted in

A) Overpopulation B) Crowding of cities C) Migration of people to the cities D) both (B) and (C)
WIN CUET Language 04
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 33
A hybrid vehicle is a vehicle which uses two or more kinds of propulsion. Most hybrid vehicles use a conventional gasoline
engine as well as an electric motor to provide power to the electric motor to provide power to the vehicle. These are usually
called hybrid-electric-vehicles, of HEVs. Hybrids use two types of propulsion in order to use gasoline more efficiently than
conventional vehicles do. Most hybrid vehicles use the gasoline engine as a generator which sends power to the electric motor.
The electric motor then power the car. In conventional vehicles, the gasoline engine powers the vehicle directly. Since the main
purpose of using a hybrid system is to efficiently use resources, most hybrid vehicles also use other efficient systems. Most
hybrid vehicles have regenerative braking systems. In conventional vehicles, the gasoline engine powers the brake, and the
energy used in braking is lot. In regenerative braking system, the energy lost in braking is sent back into the electrical battery
for use in powering the vehicle. Some hybrid vehicles use periodic engine shutoff as a gas-saving feature. When the vehicle is in
idle, the engine temporarily turns off. When the vehicle is put back in gear, the engine comes back on. Some hybrids use tires
made of a stiff material which rolls easily and prevents drag on the vehicle. Since hybrid vehicles use less gasoline than
conventional vehicles, they put fewer emissions into the atmosphere than conventional vehicles do. As hybrids become more
popular, conventional vehicles are being used less, and he level of emissions being put into the air is decreasing. Hybrid
vehicles are an example of an energy-efficient technology that is good for both consumers and the environment.

Two kinds of propelling forces used by hybrid vehicles are

A) elective motor and power B) electric engine and generator C) gasoline engine and electric motor
D) electrical battery and gasoline

Question No. : 34

The difference between hybrid and conventional vehicle is that

A) Hybrids are heavier as compared to conventional ones


B) Hybrids do not used electric motors while conventional ones do
C) Hybrids use gas while conventional vehicles use petrol
D) Hybrids use two types of propulsions while conventional rely on one

Question No. : 35

Why do HEVs use two types of propulsions?

A) To go faster B) To use gasoline efficiently C) To provide a comfortable ride D) To become environmental friendly

Question No. : 36

‘Regenerative’ most closely means;

A) Restorative B) Electric C) Gasoline D) Powerful

Question No. : 37

In the context of the passage which of the following best articulates how the author regards the topic?

A) Conventional vehicles may be more powerful than hybrid vehicles but hybrid vehicles ae more socially responsible
B) Since hybrid vehicles use less gasoline and put fewer emissions into the atmosphere, they are better for the environment
C) Hybrid vehicles are less expensive, so they are a smarter buy than conventional vehicles
D) Conventional vehicles are faster but hybrid vehicles are better for the environment
WIN CUET Language 04
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 38
As soon as the news reached South Africa that I along with other Indians had offered my services in the war, I received a cable
from Mr. Polak who questioned the consistency of my action with my profession of ahimsa.

All of us recognized the immorality of war. If I was not prepared to prosecute my assailant, much less should I be willing to
participate in a war, especially when I knew nothing of the justice or otherwise of the cause of the combatants. The very same
line of argument that persuaded me to take part in the Boer War had weighed with me on this occasion. It was quite clear to
me that participation in war could never be consistent with ahimsa. A votary of truth is often obliged to grope in the dark.

Ahimsa is a comprehensive principle. We are helpless mortals caught in the conflagration of himsa. The saying that life lives on
life has a deep meaning in it. A votary of ahimsa therefore remains true to his faith if the spring of all his actions is compassion,
if he shuns to the best of his ability the destruction of the tiniest creature, tries to save it, and thus incessantly strives to be free
from the deadly coil of himsa.

So long as he continues to be a social being, he cannot but participate in the himsa that the very existence of society involves.
When two nations are fighting, the duty of a votary of ahimsa is to stop the war. He who is not equal to that duty, he who has
no power of resisting war, he who is not qualified to resist war, may take part in war, and yet whole-heartedly try to free
himself, his nation and the world from war.

I had hoped to improve my status and that of my people through the British Empire. If I desired to retain my connection with
the Empire and to live under its banner, one of three courses was open to me: I could declare open resistance to the war and
boycott the Empire until it changed its military policy; or I could seek imprisonment by civil disobedience of such of its laws as
were fit to be disobeyed; or I could participate in the war on the side of the Empire and thereby acquire the capacity and fitness
for resisting the violence of war. I lacked this capacity and fitness, as I thought there was nothing for it but to serve in the war.

Excerpted from Pages 261-263 from ‘The Story of My Experiments with Truth’ by MK Gandhi

According to Gandhiji, a believer of truth …

A) knows that one can be completely liberated of himsa, if he so wants


B) may not always be able to have a clear view of what his obligations are
C) can participate in violence if it improves his status in society D) takes the side of the mightier combatant

Question No. : 39

Which of the following reasons does Gandhiji use to justify his stand of taking part in the war?

A) If you are a follower of ahimsa, in a war supporting the stronger combatant is customary
B) If you participate in wars when none of the combatants are ruling over you, it improves the status of the people in your
nation
C) If your objective is to emancipate your country, but you cannot stop the war or are unfit to resist the war, participation in
war is acceptable
D) If you are practicing ahimsa, you cannot fight against those who are ruling you and supporting them is the best approach

Question No. : 40

From the point of Ahimsa, all of the following are as guilty of dacoity as the dacoits themselves, except

A) He who volunteers to serve a band of dacoits, by working as their carrier


B) He who works for the dacoits, as the watchman while they are about their business
C) He who nurses the dacoits when the dacoits are wounded in battle
D) He who is compelled into dacoity because of injustice done by society to him
WIN CUET Language 04
DIRECTIONS for the question: In each sentence, the highlighted word is used in different ways. Choose the option/ options in
which the usage of the word is incorrect.

Question No. : 41

MARK

A) She was marked down because of poor grammar.


B) Each of Maharashtra’s districts has a distinct character that marked it from its neighbours.
C) The playing area was marked off with a white line. D) The agreement marks a new phase in international relations.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent
paragraph.

Question No. : 42

A. The following represents a condensed statement of what we think we now know about the relationship between education
and employment
B. Although the linkages between education and employment are complex, and in the past, often analysed with simplistic
notions of causalty, recent research results have yielded new insights about the nature of these linkages.
C. In the interests of brevity, the argument is put forward as a series of major propositions and derivatives strategies relating to
the education employment nexus.
D. Intensive research efforts are currently being supported through the developing world both by national governments and
international donor agencies in the hope of improving, understanding of the nature and causes of rising unemployment.
E. The massive problems of widespread and chronic unemployment and underemployment in less developed nations will
remain among the most serious challenges to the development policy during the next several decades.

A) ACBDE B) BACDE C) CABDE D) DBEAC

DIRECTIONS for the question: A set of four words is given. Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is
not related to the rest. Pick the word which does not fit in the relation.

Question No. : 43

Find the odd one out-

A) Shaman B) Sibyl C) Oracle D) Simian

DIRECTIONS for the question: A set of four words is given. Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is
not related to the rest. Pick the word which does not fit in the relation.

Question No. : 44

A) Eulogy B) Panegyric C) Ignominy D) Glorification

DIRECTIONS for the question: A set of four words is given. Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is
not related to the rest. Pick the word which does not fit in the relation.

Question No. : 45

A) Detest B) Abhor C) Ardour D) Loathe


WIN CUET Language 04
DIRECTIONS for the questions: A sentence has been given in Passive Voice. Out of the five/four alternatives suggested select the
one which best expresses the same sentence in Active Voice.

Question No. : 46

Our task had been completed before sunset.

A) We completed our task before sunset. B) We have completed our task before sunset.
C) We complete our task before sunset. D) We had completed our task before sunset.

DIRECTIONS for the question: A sentence has been given in Direct Speech. Out of the four altenatives suggested select the one
which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect Speech.

Question No. : 47

He said,” I am a rugby player.”

A) He said that he was a rugby player. B) He said that he is a rugby player. C) He told that he was a rugby player.
D) He told that he is a rugby player.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the correct form of the verb that agrees with the subject.

Question No. : 48

The woman with all the fancy cars ______ on my street.

A) live B) lives C) have lived D) None of these

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the correct form of the verb that agrees with the subject.

Question No. : 49

One hundred rupees ______ the price of a movie these days.

A) is B) are C) were D) None of these

DIRECTIONS for the questions: Fill in the blank(s) with the word(s) that best fits/fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Question No. : 50

He ________ his father.

A) takes back B) takes after C) takes off D) takes out


Answer Key

CUET Sample Paper - Answer Key

Language 01 Language 02 Language 03 Language 04


1. A 1. C 1. C 1. D
2. A 2. D 2. A 2. D
3. B 3. C 3. B 3. B
4. A 4. D 4. D 4. A
5. D 5. B 5. D 5. C
6. B 6. C 6. C 6. D
7. D 7. A 7. B 7. B
8. A 8. C 8. A 8. D
9. D 9. A 9. B 9. A
10. B 10. D 10. C 10. D
11. D 11. D 11. B 11. C
12. D 12. A 12. D 12. C
13. C 13. A 13. D 13. D
14. D 14. D 14. C 14. B
15. D 15. C 15. A 15. B
16. D 16. A 16. B 16. A
17. B 17. C 17. D 17. A
18. D 18. D 18. D 18. D
19. A 19. C 19. A 19. C
20. C 20. B 20. D 20. A
21. D 21. D 21. D 21. A
22. C 22. A 22. B 22. B
23. D 23. D 23. C 23. D
24. A 24. C 24. C 24. A
25. D 25. C 25. A 25. C
26. C 26. B 26. C 26. C
27. D 27. B 27. C 27. B
28. B 28. C 28. B 28. A
29. B 29. D 29. D 29. B
30. A 30. A 30. D 30. B
31. B 31. A 31. A 31. D
32. C 32. C 32. A 32. D
33. C 33. C 33. B 33. C
34. A 34. D 34. D 34. D
35. C 35. C 35. D 35. B
36. D 36. C 36. D 36. A
37. A 37. A 37. C 37. B
38. C 38. B 38. D 38. B
39. D 39. B 39. C 39. C
40. A 40. D 40. B 40. C
41. B 41. C 41. B 41. B
42. D 42. A 42. B 42. D
43. C 43. C 43. D 43. D
44. D 44. A 44. D 44. C
45. B 45. A 45. A 45. C
46. C 46. C 46. D 46. A
47. D 47. A 47. D 47. A
48. A 48. A 48. B 48. B
49. A 49. D 49. A 49. A
50. B 50. A 50. A 50. B

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