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Test Bank For Concepts of Genetics 12th Edition William S Klug Michael R Cummings Charlotte A Spencer Michael A Palladino Darrell Killian
Test Bank For Concepts of Genetics 12th Edition William S Klug Michael R Cummings Charlotte A Spencer Michael A Palladino Darrell Killian
Cummings, Char
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.
1) Max Delbrück presented the first evidence that bacteria are capable of spontaneous mutation. 1) _______
What is the name of the test that Delbrück used to demonstrate this phenomenon?
A) logarithmic test
B) fluctuation test
C) prototrophic test
D) auxotrophic test
E) lag test
2) ________ are bacteria that can grow on minimal medium and are assumed to be wild type. 2) _______
A) Prototrophs
B) Mutants
C) F+ cells
D) Hfr
E) Auxotrophs
3) ________ have lost, through ________, the ability to grow on minimal medium. 3) _______
A) prototrophs; mutation
B) mutants; adaptation
C) auxotrophs; mutation
D) prototrophs; adaptation
E) auxotrophs; adaptation
5) In which phase of the bacterial cell cycle do the cells grow most quickly? 5) _______
A) lag
B) fluctuation
C) stationary
D) log
E) adaptation
7) Which of the following is true about the interrupted mating technique? 7) _______
A) Time of contact is not applicable to this protocol.
B) Donor will pass only beneficial genes to the recipient.
C) The recipient bacterium will choose the best genes.
D) Genes are transferred from the donor to recipient in a linear fashion based upon time of
contact.
E) Genes will be passed from the centromere.
8) Jacob, Wollman, and others developed a linkage map of E. coli that is based on time. What form 8) _______
of recombination is involved in generating a linkage map based on time?
A) adaptation
B) time of transfer
C) conjugation
D) transformation
E) transduction
9) Assume that the gene trpA in an auxotrophic strain of E. coli is located at 27 minutes, whereas 9) _______
the gene pyrE is located at 81 minutes.
Present an experimental scheme that would allow you to convert one of the auxotrophic strains
to a prototrophic strain.
A) Hfr (auxotroph) × F− (auxotroph)
B) F+ (wild type) × F− (auxotroph)
C) Hfr (wild type) × F− (auxotroph)
D) Hfr (auxotroph) × F− (wild type)
E) F+ (auxotroph) × F− (wild type)
10) ________ bacteria contain an F factor or plasmid that is capable of initiating conjugation. 10) ______
________ bacteria contain an F plasmid that possesses a portion of the bacterial chromosome.
A) F−; F+
B) Merozygotes; F−
C) F+; Merozygotes
D) F−; Hfr
E) F+; Hfr
11) Describing bacterial conjugation, which of the following matings is most likely to result in a 11) ______
change from F- to F+?
A) donor Hfr recipient F-
B) donor F− recipient Hfr
C) donor Hfr recipient F+
D) donor F− recipient F+
E) donor F+ recipient F−
12) What is a form of recombination in bacteria that involves the F plasmid? 12) ______
A) transformation
B) conjugation
C) transduction
D) fluctuation
E) adaptation
13) How do different strains of E. coli can reveal different linkage arrangements of genes in Hfr 13) ______
crosses?
A) Different strains may have different F factors and therefore different initiation points for
chromosome transfer.
B) They do not. All Hfr strains are identical.
C) In different Hfr strains, different genes will be transferred based on where the centromere
resides.
D) In different Hfr strains, genes can be in different order on the chromosome.
E) Hfr strains will demonstrate different areas of recombination, due to dominance and
recessiveness of genes.
15) In a bacterial cross in which the donor (Hfr) is a+b+ and the recipient strain (F−) is a−b−, it is 15) ______
expected that recombinant bacteria ________.
A) will be a mixture of a+b+, a−b−, and a−b+
B) will be a mixture of a+b+ and a−b−
C) will be a mixture of a+b+, a−b−, a+b−, and a−b+
D) will all remain a−b−
E) will all be a+b+
16) ________ can initiate chromosome transfer from one E. coli to another. 16) ______
A) A temperate phage
B) An Hfr cell
C) A plasmid
D) An F− cell
E) An F+ cell
17) The interrupted mating technique was used with a series of Hfr strains and the following 17) ______
results were obtained.
1) LQRYX
2) QLPZ
3) BTZP
4) LPZTB
5) PLQRY
18) Once an exogenous (foreign) piece of DNA is in the bacterial cell, it is incorporated into the 18) ______
bacterial genome through ________.
A) transformation
B) crossing-over (recombination)
C) transduction
D) DNA replication
E) conjugation
19) Name the general category into which double-stranded circular extrachromosomal DNA 19) ______
elements such as F factors, ColE1, and R would fall.
A) r-determinant
B) plasmid
C) capsid
D) partial diploid
E) plaque
21) ________ can exist integrated into the bacterial chromosome or as an autonomous plasmid unit 21) ______
in the cytosol.
A) R factor
B) F′ plasmid
C) Episomes
D) Col plasmid
E) Temperate phages
22) What are the general structural features of a prokaryotic plasmid? 22) ______
A) circular double-stranded DNA in the cytosol
B) made of protein and existing in the cytosol
C) circular double-stranded DNA in the nucleus
D) linear double-stranded DNA integrated into the chromosome
E) proteins on the bacterial chromosome
23) Bacteria that are in a particular physiological state to become transformed are called ________. 23) ______
A) competent
B) resistant
C) episomal
D) temperate
E) transformable
24) After transformation, heteroduplex formation, and resolution, the resulting daughter cells are 24) ______
________.
A) both transformed
B) one transformed and one nontransformed
C) both have plasmids
D) both wild type
E) both mutant
26) Bacteriophages engage in two interactive cycles with bacteria. What are these cycles? 26) ______
A) lytic and lysogenic
B) heteroduplex and homoduplex
C) insertion and replication
D) negative and positive
E) auxotrophic and prototrophic
27) A bacteriophage that is capable of entering either a lytic or a lysogenic cycle is called a(n) 27) ______
________.
A) temperate bacteriophage
B) virulent bacteriophage
C) plaque-forming unit
D) episome
E) plasmid
28) The clearing made by bacteriophages in a "lawn" of bacteria on an agar plate is called a 28) ______
________.
A) lysogenic zone
B) clear zone
C) prophage
D) host range
E) plaque
29) Temperate phages are those that can enter either the ________ or the ________ cycle. 29) ______
A) functional; nonfunctional
B) lytic; lysogenic
C) former; nonformer
D) virulent; avirulent
E) complementing; competing
30) What is the process by which a temperate bacteriophage infects a bacterial cell and 30) ______
subsequently integrates its chromosome into the bacterial chromosome?
A) lysis
B) transduction
C) transformation
D) lysogeny
E) temperate
31) Which of the following is a possible outcome of the lysogenic cycle? 31) ______
A) bacterial cell lysis, prophage formation and propagation, and bacterial fission are all
possible outcomes of the lysogenic cycle
B) prophage formation and propagation
C) bacterial fission
D) prophage formation
E) bacterial cell lysis
32) Which of the following occurs during cell lysis? 32) ______
A) lysogeny
B) episome propagation
C) prophage formation
D) binary fission
E) plaque formation
34) What is the first step in phage formation inside the bacterial cell? 34) ______
A) tail fibers are added
B) tail formation
C) adherence to the pilus
D) lysis
E) DNA packaging as the viral heads assemble
35) When a bacteriophage genome incorporates itself into the chromosome of the host, that phage 35) ______
genome is referred to as a(n) ________.
A) T4 phage
B) temperate phage
C) prophage
D) episome
E) lytic phage
36) Assume that one counted 67 plaques on a bacterial plate where 0.1 ml of a 10 −5 dilution of 36) ______
phage was added to bacterial culture. What is the initial concentration of the undiluted phage?
A) 6.7 × 107 pfu/ml (pfu = plaque-forming units)
B) 0.1 × 105 pfu/ml
C) 67 pfu/ml
D) 6.7 × 105 pfu/ml
E) 6.7 × 10−5 pfu/ml
40) Transduction is a form of recombination in bacteria that involves ________. 40) ______
A) physical contact between the bacteria involved
B) bacteriophages
C) 5-bromouracil
D) plasmids
E) fertility factors
42) If two different auxotrophic strains are placed in a liquid medium culture tube, prototrophic 42) ______
strains can sometimes be subsequently recovered. Choose the mechanism below that would not
allow this genetic change.
A) reverse mutation
B) transformation
C) genetic suppression
D) conjugation
E) transduction
43) A form of bacterial recombination that involves a viral intermediate is called ________. 43) ______
A) transformation
B) plaque assay
C) transduction
D) conjugation
E) competency
45) ________ of genes is an indication that the genes are linked. 45) ______
A) Cotransduction
B) Conjugation
C) Reversion
D) Recombination
E) Transformation
46) Viral mutations and variants are often categorized by changes in ________. 46) ______
A) host range and/or plaque morphology
B) plaque morphology
C) host range
D) viral size
E) capsid shape
47) In a mixed infection experiment, you study two plaque phenotypes of large (l+) versus small 47) ______
(l−) and bumpy (b+) versus smooth (b−). You mix small (l− b+) with smooth (l+ b−) and identify
50 small, smooth and 47 large, bumpy. How far apart are the genes?
A) 490
B) 1000
C) 99
D) 49
E) There is not enough information to calculate the distance.
48) In a mixed infection experiment, the results of an h+r and hr+ cross are as follows. 48) ______
50) In Seymour Benzer's studies, if he mixed two RII phage together (co-infection studies in K12) 50) ______
and the resulting phage always failed to lyse K12 ________.
A) the two mutants were in different cistrons
B) the two mutants complemented each other
C) the two mutants were in the same cistron
D) the two mutants failed to infect bacteria
E) the two mutants represented mutations in both A and B
Test Bank for Concepts of Genetics, 12th Edition, William S. Klug, Michael R. Cummings, Char
1) B
2) A
3) C
4) E
5) D
6) D
7) D
8) C
9) C
10) C
11) E
12) B
13) A
14) E
15) A
16) B
17) D
18) B
19) B
20) E
21) C
22) A
23) A
24) A
25) E
26) A
27) A
28) E
29) B
30) D
31) A
32) E
33) C
34) E
35) C
36) A
37) E
38) C
39) C
40) B
41) A
42) E
43) C
44) B
45) A
46) A
47) D
48) E
49) E
50) C