08/04/2023

Morning

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Answers & Solutions

Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2023 (Online) Phase-2

(Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry

having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct

answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out

of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks

for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be

rounded off to the nearest integer.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - A  19k = 2
2
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20  k=
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices 19
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.  Ratio = 2 : 19
Choose the correct answer: 19 + 9
=6
2 1 0  21
 
Let A =  1 2 −1 . If adj ( adj ( adj 2 A ) ) = (16 ) ,
n
1.  19 = 117
0 −1 2 
117
then n is equal to  =
19
(1) 8 (2) 10
2 + 190
(3) 9 (4) 12 = 11
21
Answer (2)
41
 =
Sol. |A| = 2(3) – 1(2) = 4 2
 Now |adj(adj(adj(2A)))|  (19 – 6)2 = (117 – 123)2 = 36
( n −1)3 3. Let R be the focus of the parabola y2 = 20x and the
 2A
line y = mx + c intersect the parabola at two points
8 24 8
= 2A =2 4 P and Q. Let the points G(10, 10) be the centroid of
the triangle PQR. If c – m = 6, then (PQ)2 is
= 24 = 1610
(1) 296 (2) 325
 n = 10
(3) 317 (4) 346
2. If the points with position vectors iˆ + 10 ˆj + 13kˆ, Answer (2)
9 Sol.
6iˆ + 11ˆj + 11kˆ, iˆ + ˆj − 8kˆ are collinear, then
2
(19 – 6)2 is equal to
(1) 36 (2) 25
(3) 49 (4) 16
Answer (1)
Sol. • A(, 10, 13)
• B(6, 11, 11)

9 
• C  , , − 8 
 2 
(
5 t12 + t22 + 1 ) = 10
Since, A, B, C are collinear 3

 t12 + t22 = 5 ...(i)

−8k + 13 10 ( t1 + t2 )
11 = = 10
k +1 3

 11k + 11 = –8k + 13  t1 + t 2 = 3 ...(ii)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning
 t1 = 1, t2 = 2 sin x + cos− 2 
6. Let f (x) = , x  0,  −  . Then
 P  (5, 10) Q  (20, 20) sin x − cos x 4
 7   7 
 Equation of PQ = y − 10 =
10
( x − 5) f   f    is equal to
15  12   12 

3y – 30 = 2x – 10 2
(1)
2 20 9
y= x+
3 3 −2
(2)
 PQ2 = 225 + 100 = 325 3
4. The number of arrangements of the letters of the −1
(3)
word “INDEPENDENCE” in which all the vowels 3 3
always occur together is
2
(1) 16800 (2) 33600 (4)
3 3
(3) 18000 (4) 14800
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
Sol. Vowels : I, E, E, E, E sin x + cos x − 2
Sol. f ( x ) =
Consonants : N N N D D P C sin x − cos x

I E E E E 3N, 2D, P, C  
2 sin  x +  − 2
f (x) =  4 
Number of required words =
8!

5!    
2  sin  x −  
3! 2! 4!   4 
= 16800
 
sin  x +  − 1
5. The shortest distance between the lines  4
f (x) =
x −4 y +2 z+3 x −1 y − 3 z − 4  
= = and = = is sin  x − 
4 5 3 3 4 2  4

(1) 6 3 (2) 2 6    cos x − 1

f x +  =
(3) 6 2 (4) 3 6  4 sin x

Answer (4) x
= − tan
2
iˆ jˆ kˆ
Sol. l1  l 2 = 4 5 3  x 
 f ( x ) = − tan  − 
3 4 2 2 8

−1  x 
= −2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ f ( x ) = sec 2  − 
2 2 8

d=
( a − b )  ( l1  l2 ) 1 2 x   x  
f ( x ) =  sec  −  tan  −  
l1  l 2 2 2 8  2 8 

=
( 3iˆ − 5 jˆ − 7kˆ )  ( −2iˆ + jˆ + kˆ )  7 
f 
 12 
 7  
= − tan  − 
 24 8 
6
 4 
= − tan  
−6 − 5 − 7  24 
=
6
 1
= − tan   = −
=3 6 6 3

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

 7  1  2  1
2  3 1  3 −1 
f    = −      
 12  2  3 3 Sol. P  PT  2 2  2 2  1 0
= 
 −1 3 1 3   0 1
−2   
=  2 2  2 2 
3 3
Similarly PT P = I
 7   7  2
f   f    =
 12   12  9 Now, Q2007 = (PAPT) (PAPT) … 2007 times

7. In a bolt factory, machines A, B and C manufacture = PA2007PT

respectively 20%, 30% and 50% of the total bolts.  1 1
A= 
Of their output 3, 4 and 2 percent are respectively 0 1
defective bolts. A bolts is drawn at random from the
 1 2
product. If the bolt drawn is found the defective, A2 =  
then the probability that it is manufactured by the 0 1

machine C is 1 3
A3 =  
5 9 0 1
(1) (2)
14 28 .
.
.
3 2
(3) (4)  1 2007 
7 7 A2007 =  
0 1 
Answer (1)
Sol. Using Bayes’ Theorem  1 2007
PT Q2007P = A2007 =  
0 1 
50  2
Required probability =
20  3 + 30  4 + 50  2  a = 1, b = 2007, c = 0, d = 1

=
10 2a + b – 3c – 4d = 2005
6 + 12 + 10
9. The number of ways, in which 5 girls and 7 boys
10
= can be seated at a round table so that no two girls
28
sit together, is
5
= (1) 720
14
(2) 126(5!)2
 3 1 
   1 1 (3) 7(360)2
2 2 
8. Let P =  ,A =  T
 and Q = PAP . If P
T
 1 3  0 1
−  (4) 7(720)2
 2 2 
Answer (2)
a b 
Q2007 P=  , then 2a + b – 3c – 4d equal to
c d  Sol. 6!  7C5 · 5!

(1) 2004 76

= 720   5!
(2) 2005 2

(3) 2007 766

 ( 5!)2 
(4) 2006 2

Answer (2)  126 × (5!)2

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning


10. The area of the region ( x, y ) : x 2  y  8 − x 2 , y  7 Sol. SK =
K ·(K + 1) K + 1
2K
=
2
is

 4 ( 22 + 32 + 42... ( n + 1) )
n n
 (S j )
2 1 2
(1) 27 =
j =1 j =1
(2) 18
1  ( n + 1)( n + 2 )( 2n + 3 ) 
(3) 20   − 1
4  6 
(4) 21

Answer (3)
= 
 2
( )

1  n + 3n + 2 ( 2n + 3 ) – 6 
4 
6 
Sol.  

1  2n3 + 6n 2 + 4n + 3n 2 + 9n + 6 − 6 
=  
4  6 


1  2n3 + 9n 2 + 13n 
=  
4  6 


=
n
24
(
2n 2 + 9n + 13 )
4 7 
Required area = 2   ydy +  8 − ydy  A = 24, B = 2, C = 9, D = 13
0 4 
A + B 26
= =2
 2 4 3 
7 D 13
 2
y ( 8 − y ) 2 
= 2 − 12. Negation of ( p  q )  (q  p ) is
 3 3 
 2 0 2 
 4
(1) (~ p )  p

=
4
3
( 8 − (1 − 8 ) ) (2) q  (~ p )

= 20 sq. units (3) (~ q )  p

1 + 2 + ... + K (4) p  (~ q )
11. Let SK = and
K
n Answer (2)
n
 S 2j = (Bn 2 + Cn + D ) , where A, B, C, D 
A Sol. ( p → q ) → (q → p )
j =1

and A has least value. Then  ( p  q )  (q   p )

(1) A + C + D is not divisible by B

 ( p  q )  ( q   p )
(2) A + B = 5(D – C)
= p  q
(3) A + B + C + D is divisible by 5
Now ( p  q )
(4) A + B is divisible by D

Answer (4) = p  q

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

  15. Let the number of elements in sets A and B be five

1 − cos2 (3 x )   sin3 (4 x )
13. lim      is equal to and two respectively. Then the number of subsets
x →0   cos3 (4 x )   ( log (2 x + 1) )5 
  e  of A × B each having at least 3 and at most 6
________ elements is
(1) 752 (2) 782
(1) 15 (2) 9
(3) 792 (4) 772
(3) 18 (4) 24
Answer 3)
Answer (3)
Sol. n(A) = 5
 (1 − cos2 3 x )   sin3 (4 x )

 n(B) = 2
Sol. lim  
  (
x → 0  cos3 (4 x )   log (2 x + 1)5
e ) 


n(A × B) = 10
10C
Number of subset having three elements = 3

Number of subset having four elements = 10C4

(1 − cos3 x )(1 + cos3 x ) 9 x 2
( sin 4 x ) ( 64 x ) ( 2 x )
3 3 5
Number of subset having five elements = 10C5
lim
x→0
(cos3 ( 4x )) 9 x 2 ( 64x 3 ) (loge ( 2x + 1))5 ( 2x )5 Number of subset having six elements = 10C6
10C + 10C4 + 10C5 + 10C6
3
1 1
= 9   2  64  = 18 = 120 + 210 + 252 + 210
2 25
= 792
14. Let , ,  be the three roots of the equation x3 + bx
16. Let C(, ) be the circumcentre of the triangle
+ c = 0. If  = 1 = –, then b3 + 2c3 – 33 – 63 –
formed by the lines
83 is equal to
4x + 3y = 69,
155
(1) (2) 21 4y – 3x = 17, and
8
x + 7y = 61.
169
(3) (4) 19 Then ( – )2 +  +  is equal to
8
(1) 18 (2) 17
Answer (4)
(3) 15 (4) 16
Sol. Roots of x3 + bx + c = 0 are , ,  Answer (2)
  = 1 = – Sol.

  = –1 …(i)
and  +  +  = 0 …(ii)
 = –c …(iii)
 c=1 …(iv)
+=1 …(v)
 12 + 5 7 + 8 
  +  +  = b C ,
 2 2 
 ( + ) +  = b  17 15 
C  ,   ( ,  )
 b=0 …(vi)  2 2 

  = –,  = –2 …(vii) ( – )2 +  + 

2
 b3 + 2c3 – 33 – 63 – 83  17 15  17 15
 −  + +
=0+2+3+6+8  2 2  2 2

= 19 1 + 16 = 17

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

( x + 1) Sol. z =  + c
17. Let I ( x ) =  dx, x  0 . If lim I ( x ) = 0,
( )
2 x → |z + 2| = z + 4(1 + i)
x 1+ x ex

then I(1)is equal to (  + 2 ) 2 + 2 = (  + 4 ) + i (  + 4 )

e+2 e +1
(1) − loge ( e + 1) (2) + loge ( e + 1) (  + 2 )2 +  2 =+4 …(i)
e +1 e+2
e +1 e+2 +4=0 …(ii)
(3) − loge ( e + 1) (4) + loge ( e + 1)
e+2 e +1
(i)  (  + 2 )2 + 16 =  + 4
Answer (1)
2 + 4 + 20 = 2 + 8 + 16
( x + 1) e x
Sol. I ( x ) =  dx =1
xe x
(1 + xe ) x 2
 +  = –3,  = –4

Let 1 + xex = t Equation with roots – 3 and – 4 is

ex(x + 1)dx = dt x2 + 7x + 12 = 0
19. If the equation of the plane containing the line
1
I (x) =  dt x + 2y + 3z – 4 = 0 = 2x + y – z + 5 and perpendicular
( t − 1) t 2
( ) ( ) (
to the plane r = i − j +  i + j + k +  i − 2 j + 3k )
(1 − t ) + t2 2
is ax + by + cz = 4, then (a – b + c) is equal to
=  ( t − 1) t 2 dt
(1) 18 (2) 22

− ( t + 1) 1 (3) 20 (4) 24
= + dt
t2 t −1 Answer (2)

1 1 1 Sol. Equation of required plane is

= − − + dt
t t2 t −1 P: (x + 2y + 3z – 4) + (2x + y – z + 5) = 0

1  (2 + 1) + ( + 2) y + (3 – )z = 4 – 5
I ( x ) = − ln t + + ln ( t − 1) + C
t n1 = ( 2 + 1) i + (  + 2 ) j + ( 3 −  ) k
 xe x  1
I ( x ) = ln 
Normal of the given plane is
+ +C
 xe x + 1  xe x + 1
  i j k
lim I ( x ) = 0  C = 0 n2 = 1 1 1 = 5 i − 2 j − 3k
x →
1 −2 3
 e  1 1
I (1) = ln   + = 1+ − ln ( e + 1)
 e + 1 e + 1 e +1 n1  n2 = 0

e+2  5(2 + 1) – 2( + 2) – 3(3 – ) = 0

= − ln ( e + 1)
e +1 11 + (–8) = 0
18. If for z =  +i, |z + 2| = z + 4(1 + i), then  +  and 8
=
 are the roots of the equation 11
(1) x2 + 3x – 4 = 0 27 30 25 4
P: x+ y+ z− =0
(2) x2 + 7x + 12 = 0 11 11 11 11
(3) x2 + x – 12 = 0 27x + 30y + 25z = 4
(4) x2 + 2x – 3 = 0  a = 27, b = 30, c = 25
Answer (2)  a – b + c = 22.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

20. If the coefficients of three consecutive terms in the 5103

Constant term = a = ( −1)2  7C2 35  2−2 =
expansion of (1 + x)n are in the ratio 1 : 5 : 20, then 4
the coefficient of the fourth term is a = 1275.75
(1) 2436
 [a] = 1275
(2) 5481
22. Let the mean and variance of 8 numbers x, y, 10,
(3) 1827
12, 6, 12, 4, 8 be 9 and 9.25 respectively. If
(4) 3654
x > y, then 3x – 2y is equal to ________.
Answer (4)
Answer (25)
n n n
Cr −1 Cr Cr +1
Sol. = = x + y + 10 + 12 + 6 + 12 + 4 + 8
1 5 20 Sol.  =9
8
n
n
Cr n−r r x + y = 72 – 52 = 20  x + y = 20 …(1)
 n
=5  =5
Cr −1 n
(9 − x )2 + (9 − y )2 + (9 − 10)2 + (9 − 12)2
n − r +1 r −1
+(9 − 6)2 + (9 − 12)2 + (9 − 4)2 + (9 − 8)2
 = 9.25
n − r +1 8
 = 5  n = 6r − 1…(i)
r
 x2 + y2 = 218 …(2)
n
Cr +1 n−r
 =4  = 4  n = 5r + 4 …(ii) From (1) & (2)
n
Cr r +1
x = 13, y = 7 or x = 7, y = 13
from (i) and (ii), r = 5, n = 29
 x>y
 Coefficient of fourth term = C 3 = 3654
29

 x = 13, y = 7
SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section  3x – 2y = 39 – 14 = 25
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five 23. If a is the greatest term in the sequence
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the n3
an = , n = 1, 2, 3, …, then  is equal to
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, n 4 + 147
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
_____.
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in Answer (5)
the place designated to enter the answer.
x3
Sol. Let y = = f (x)
21. Let [t] denote the greatest integer  t. If the constant x 4 + 147
7
 1  For increasing function
term in the expansion of  3 x 2 − 5  is , then
 2x 
dy
[] is equal to _______. 0
dx
Answer (1275)
r (
− x 2 x 4 − 441 ) 0  x4 < 441
( )
7−r  1 
Sol. General term (Tr +1 ) = Cr 3 x
(x )
7 2
− 5  4 2
 2x  + 147

Tr +1 = ( −1) 7Cr 37 − r  2−r x14 − 7r

r
 x4 < 441

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

dy 25. Let 1, 2 be the values of  for which the points

For maxima/minima =0
dx
5 
 x4 = 441,  2 , 1,   and (–2, 0, 1) are at equal distance from
 
 x = , 4 <  < 5 the plane 2x + 3y – 6z + 7 = 0. If 1 > 2, then the
 Maximum value of f(x) is at x = 4 or x = 5 distance of the point (1 – 2, 2, 1) from the line
64 125
f ( 4) = , f (5) = , x − 5 y −1 z + 7
403 772 = = is _________.
1 2 2
 f(5) > f(4) Answer (09.00)

 =5 −4 + 0 − 6 + 7 15 − 6
Sol. =
7 7
24. If the solution curve of the differential equation

(y – 2logex)dx + (x logex2)dy = 0, x > 1 passes 3 15 − 6

=
7 7
 4
through the points  e,  and (e4, ), then  is
 3  = 2 or 3
equal to _______. 1 = 3, 2 = 2
Answer (03.00)
(1 – 2, 2, 1) = (1, 2, 3)
Sol.  (y – 2lnx)dx + (2xlnx)dy = 0.

dy
2 x ln x + y = 2ln x
dx

dy y 1
+ =
dx 2 x ln x x

1
 dx
 I.F. = e 2 x ln x = ln x

 Solution of the equation is:

( )
PM  i + 2 j + 2k = 0
ln x
y  ln x =  x
dx ( + 4) + 2(2 – 1) + 2(2 – 10) = 0

2 3  9 = 18 or  = 2
 y  ln x = (ln x ) 2 + C …(i)
3
Distance = 62 + 32 + 62 = 9
 4
 eq. (i) passes through point  e,  . 26. The largest natural number n such that 3n divides
 3
66! is ________.
2
 C= Answer (31.00)
3
3 Sol. Exponent of 3 in 66!
2 2
 y ln x = (ln x ) 2 + …(ii)
3 3
 66   66   66 
=   +  2  +  3  + .......
This equation passes through point (e4, )  3  3  3 

  = 3. = 22 + 7 + 2 = 31
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

27. Let a = 6iˆ + 9 jˆ + 12kˆ, b = iˆ + 11jˆ – 2kˆ and c be Sol. C1: x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y + (5 – ) = 0

vectors such that a  c = a  b. If centre O1 = (2, 1), radius = 

a  c = –12, c  ( iˆ – 2 jˆ + kˆ ) = 5, then c  ( iˆ + jˆ + kˆ ) is
36
equal to ________. C2: x2 + y2 – 2fx – 2gy + =0
5
Answer (11.00)
Sol. a  ( c – b ) = 0 Centre O2 = (f, g,) radius = r = f 2 + g 2 –
36
5
a = c – b
O2 is reflection of O1 in 2x – y + 1 = 0
 c = b + a or a  c = a  b +  a 2
f – 2 g –1  2  2 – 1 + 1  –8
 –12 = (6 + 75) + (261)  = = –2   =
2 –1  22 + 12  5
or 2 + 87 = –29 ...(i)
–6 13
c  ( iˆ – 2 ˆj + kˆ ) = 5  f = and g =
5 5
c = iˆ( + 6 ) + ˆj (11 + 9 ) + kˆ(–2 + 12 )
 r = 1 and  = 1
 ( + 6) – 2 (11 + 9) + (–2 + 12) = 5
30. Let [t] denote the greatest integer  t. Then
or  – 24 = 5 or  = 29
5  /6
2
  = –1
  ( 8[cosec x ] – 5[cot x ] ) dx
 /6
c = iˆ(23) + jˆ(2) + kˆ(–14)
is equal to ________.
c  ( iˆ + jˆ + kˆ ) = 11
Answer (14)
28. Let A = {0, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10} and R be the relation
5 /6
defined on A such that R = {( x, y )  A  A : x – y is
odd positive integer or x – y = 2}. The minimum
Sol. I =
 ( 8  [cosecx ] – 5[cot x ] ) dx
 /6
number of elements that must be added to the
5  /6 5 /6

 
relation R, so that it is a symmetric relation, is equal
= 8 [cosecx ]dx – 5  [cot x ]dx = 8I1 – 5I2
to ________.
 /6  /6
Answer (19)
5  /6 5  /6
2
Sol. A = {10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 4, 3, 0}
R = {(10, 9), (10, 8), (10, 7), (10, 3), (9, 8), (9, 7), (9,
I1 =  [cosecx ]dx =  1 dx =
3
 /6  /6
6), (9, 4), (9, 0), (8, 7), (8, 6), (8, 3), (7, 6), (7, 4), (7,
5  /6  /4  /2

  1 dx +  0  dx
0), (6, 4), (6, 3), (4, 3), (3, 0)}
I2 = [cot x ]dx =
All the elements of R, (a, b) are of type a > b.  /6  /6  /4
Hence we need to add total of 19 more elements
3 /4 5  /6
to R to make in symmetric. +  (–1)dx +  (–2)dx
29. Consider a circle C1 : x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y =  – 5. Let  /2 3  /4

its mirror image in the line y = 2x + 1 be another 

circle C2 : 5x2 + 5y2 – 10fx – 10gy + 36 = 0. Let r be =–
3
the radius of C2. Then  + r is equal to ________.
2 2  2 
Required value = I = 8  + 5   = 14
Answer (2)   3 3

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

PHYSICS
34. A charge particle moving in magnetic field B, has
SECTION - A
the components of velocity along B as well as
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 perpendicular to B. The path of the charge particle
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices will be
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(1) helical path with the axis perpendicular to the
Choose the correct answer: direction of magnetic field B
31. Two projectiles A and B are thrown with initial (2) helical path with the axis along magnetic field B
velocities of 40 m/s and 60 m/s at angles 30° and
60° with the horizontal respectively. The ratio of (3) circular path
their ranges respectively is (g = 10 m/s2) (4) straight along the direction of magnetic field B
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 2 : 3 Answer (2)
(3) 3 :2 (4) 1 : 1 Sol. Perpendicular component results in circular motion.
Answer (1) Parallel component results in linear motion.
2
u sin2θ ⇒ Helical path with axis along magnetic field.
Sol. R =
g
35. In this figure the resistance of the coil of
402 × sin60°
4 4 galvanometer G is 2 Ω. The emf of the cell is 4 V.
⇒ Ratio = = ×1 =
2
60 × sin120° 9 9 The ratio of potential difference across C1 and C2
is:
32. The engine of a train moving with speed 10 ms–1
towards a platform sounds a whistle at frequency
400 Hz. The frequency heard by a passenger inside
the train is: (neglect air speed. Speed of sound in
air = 330 ms–1)
(1) 400 Hz
(2) 200 Hz
(3) 412 Hz
(4) 388 Hz
Answer (1)
v − v0 
Sol. f ′ = f0  
 v − vs 
4
 330 − 10  (1) 1 (2)
= 400  5
 330 − 10 
5 3
= 400 Hz (3) (4)
4 4
33. In a reflecting telescope, a secondary mirror is used
to: Answer (2)
(1) reduce the problem of mechanical support Sol. Capacitors would behave as open circuits
(2) make chromatic aberration zero ⇒ VC= i [6 Ω + RG ]
1
(3) move the eyepiece outside the telescopic tube
(4) remove spherical aberration And VC=
2
i [RG + 8 Ω]
Answer (3)
8 4
Sol. A secondary mirror is used to move the eyepiece ⇒ Ratio
= =
10 5
outside the telescopic tube.
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

36. A cylindrical wire of mass (0.4 ± 0.01) g has length

(8 ± 0.04) cm and radius (6 ± 0.03) mm. The
(4)
maximum error in its density will be
(1) 3.5% (2) 5%
(3) 1% (4) 4% Answer (1)

Answer (4) Sol. y = (A′ · B′)

M =A+B
Sol. Density ρ =
πR 2L ⇒ OR gate

d ρ dM 2dR dL ⇒ Correct waveform is first.

⇒ = + +
ρ M R L 39. An air bubble of volume 1 cm3 rises from the bottom
of a lake 40 m deep to the surface at a temperature
 0.01 2 × 0.03 0.04 
 0.4 + + × 100 of 12°C. The atmospheric pressure is 1 × 105 Pa,
6 8 
the density of water is 1000 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2.
= 2.5 + 1 + 0.5% There is no difference of the temperature of water
at the depth of 40 m and on the surface. The volume
= 4%
of air bubble when it reaches the surface will be
1
37. Dimension of should be equal to (1) 2 cm3 (2) 3 cm3
µ0 ε0
(3) 4 cm3 (4) 5 cm3
(1) L/T (2) T2/L2
Answer (4)
(3) L2/T2 (4) T/L
Sol. Pbottom = P0 + ρgh
Answer (3)
= 105 + 1000 × 10 × 40
1
Sol. We know that c = = 5 × 105
µ0 ε0
Ptop = 105
1 PV = constant
⇒ ≡ [LT −1 ][LT −1 ]
µ0 ε0
⇒ Vtop = 5 ⋅ Vbottom = 5 cm3
= L2/T2 A
40. For a nucleus ZX having mass number A and
38. For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform at
atomic number Z
Y is
A. The surface energy per nucleon (bs) = –a1A2/3.
B. The Coulomb contribution to the binding energy
Z (Z − 1)
bc = −a2
A4/3
C. The volume energy bv = a3A
D. Decrease in the binding energy is proportional
(1) to surface area.
E. While estimating the surface energy, it is
assumed that each nucleon interacts with 12
nucleons. (a1, a2 and a3 are constants)
(2)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) B, C, E only (2) C, D only
(3) (3) A, B, C, D only (4) B, C only
Answer (2)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning
1 43. Given below are two statements:
Sol. R = R0 A 3
2 moving around the earth, then its potential energy
⇒ Surface area ∝ R 2 ∝ A 3
For coulomb contribution, we choose pairs of
protons
⇒ ∝ (Z) (Z – 1)
Volume ∝ R3 ∝ A1
⇒ Option (2) is correct
41. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If heat is added to a system, its
temperature must increase.
Statement II: If positive work is done by a system
in a thermodynamic process, its volume must
increase.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
Statement I: If E be the total energy of a satellite
E
will be .
2
Statement II: The kinetic energy of a satellite
revolving in an orbit is equal to the half the
magnitude of total energy E.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (4)

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false GMm

Sol. U = −
r
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
GMm
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true K=
2r
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
GMm
T=K+U= −
Answer (4) 2r
Sol. Heat capacity can be negative ⇒ Both statements are false
⇒ Statement I is wrong. 44. An aluminium rod with Young’s modulus Y = 7.0 ×
1010 N/m2 undergoes elastic strain of 0.04%. The
W = ∫ PdV
energy per unit volume stored in the rod in SI unit
is:
⇒ If W > 0, volume must increase.
(1) 2800
42. At any instant the velocity of a particle of mass 500
g is (2tiˆ + 3t 2 ˆj )ms –1 . If the force acting on the (2) 11200
(3) 5600
particle at t = 1s is (iˆ + xjˆ)N . Then the value of x
(4) 8400
will be:
Answer (3)
(1) 3 (2) 4
1
(3) 2 (4) 6 Sol. Energy/Volume = × stress × strain
2
Answer (1)
1 2
 = × Y × ( strain )
v 2tiˆ + 3t 2 jˆ
Sol. = 2
 2
a 2iˆ + 6tjˆ
⇒ = =
1  0.04 
× 7 × 1010 ×  
2  100 
  1 ˆ
⇒ F = ma= a= i + 3tjˆ 1
2 = × 7 × 1010 × 16 × 10 −8
 2
At t = 1, F = iˆ + 3 ˆj = 5600

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

45. A TV transmitting antenna is 98 m high and the Sol. Function of magnetic material is to bring the coil to
receiving antenna is at the ground level. If the rest quickly through eddy currents.
radius of the earth is 6400 km, the surface area
covered by the transmitting antenna is 48. Graphical variation of electric field due to a
approximately: uniformly charged insulating solid sphere of radius
R, with distance r from the centre O is represented
(1) 1240 km2 by:
(2) 3942 km2
(3) 4868 km2
(4) 1549 km2
Answer (2)

Sol. d = 2Rh
⇒ Area = πd2 = π × 2 × R × h
= 3940 km2
A
46. Two forces having magnitude A and are
2 (1)
perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of their
resultant is:

5A
(1)
4

5A
(2)
2
5A (2)
(3)
2

5 A2
(4)
2
Answer (2)

Sol. Anet = A12 + A22 + 2 A1A2 cos θ

A2 (3)
⇒ F
=net A2 +
4

5A
=
2
47. Certain galvanometers have a fixed core made of
non magnetic metallic material. The function of this
metallic material is
(1) to oscillate the coil in magnetic field for longer (4)
period of time
(2) to bring the coil to rest quickly
(3) to produce large deflecting torque on the coil
(4) to make the magnetic field radial
Answer (1)
Answer (2)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

ρr 51. The moment of inertia of a semicircular ring about

=
Sol. Einside ∝ r1
3ε 0 an axis, passing through the center and
1
perpendicular to the plane of ring, is MR 2 , where
1 Q 1 x
=
Eoutside 2
∝ 2
4πε0 r r R is the radius and M is the mass of the semicircular
ring. The value of x will be ________.
Answer (1)
Sol. I = MR2
⇒ ⇒x=1
52. An air bubble of diameter 6 mm rises steadily
through a solution of density 1750 kg/m3 at the rate
of 0.35 cm/s. The co-efficient of viscosity of the
49. Proton (P) and electron (e) will have same solution (neglect density of air) is ________ Pas
de-Broglie wavelength when the ratio of their (given, g = 10 ms−2).
momentum is (assume, mp = 1849 Me):
Answer (10)
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 1849
Sol. Buoyancy = 6πηrvT
(3) 1 : 43 (4) 43 : 1 4 3
⇒ πr ρ g = 6πηrvT
Answer (1) 3

h 4 2
Sol. λ = r ρg
mv ⇒ η= 3
6vT
⇒ If λ = λ′ then p = p′.
2 1750 × 10
( )
2
⇒ Option 1. = × 3 × 10−3 ×
9 0.35
50. The weight of a body on the earth is 400 N. Then 100
weight of the body when taken to a depth half of the 175 × 10000
radius of the earth will be: = 2 × 10−6 × = 10
0.35
(1) 200 N (2) Zero 53. Two vertical parallel mirrors A and B are separated
(3) 100 N (4) 300 N by 10 cm. A point object O is placed at a distance
of 2 cm from mirror A. The distance of the second
Answer (1) nearest image behind mirror A from the mirror A is
 d _______ cm.
g ′ g 1 − 
Sol. =
 R

 R
 
⇒ w ′ = w  1 − 2  = 200 N
 R
SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, Answer (18)
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; Sol. Object distance = 8 cm [For image by B]
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using ⇒ Required distance = 8 + 8 + 2 cm
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
= 18 cm
the place designated to enter the answer.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

54. An oscillating LC circuit consists of a 75 mH B

Sol. = ni
inductor and a 1.2 µF capacitor. If the maximum µ0
charge to the capacitor is 2.7 µC. The maximum
8
current in the circuit will be ________ mA. ⇒ 1.6 × 1000 = ×i
1/ 100
Answer (9)
⇒ i=2A
Sol. imax
= qmax ⋅ ω
58. The momentum of a body is increased by 50%. The
−6 1
= 2.7 × 10 × percentage increase in the kinetic energy of the
LC
body is________%.
−6
2.7 × 10 Answer (125)
= A
75 × 10−3 × 1.2 × 10 −6
p2
2.7 × 10 −6 Sol. K =
= A = 9 mA 2m
30 × 10−5
(1.5 p )2
55. An organ pipe 40 cm long is open at both ends. The ⇒ K′
= = 2.25k
2m
speed of sound in air is 360 ms−1. The frequency of
the second harmonic is _________ Hz. K′ − K
⇒ × 100 =
125
K
Answer (900)
59. A nucleus with mass number 242 and binding
v
Sol. f= 2 ⋅ energy per nucleon as 7.6 MeV breaks into two
2L
fragment each with mass number 121. If each
360
=2⋅ Hz = 900 Hz fragment nucleus has binding energy per nucleon
2 × 0.4
as 8.1 MeV, the total gain in binding energy is
56. An electric dipole of dipole moment is 6.0 × 10–6Cm
_______ MeV.
placed in a uniform electric field of 1.5 × 103 NC–1
in such a way that dipole moment is along electric Answer (121)
field. The work done in rotating dipole by 180° in Sol. BE = (8.1 – 7.6) × 242 MeV
this field will be_______mJ.
= 121 MeV
Answer (18)
60. A current of 2 A flows through a wire of cross-
Sol. W =∆U =Uf − U i
sectional area 25.0 mm2. The number of free
 
Also, U =− p ⋅ E electrons in a cubic meter are 2.0 × 1028. The drift
velocity of the electrons is ______ × 10–6 ms–1
⇒ W = 2 × p × E = 2 × 6 × 10–6 × 1.5 × 103 J
(given, charge on electron = 1.6 × 10–19C).
= 18 mJ
Answer (25)
57. The magnetic intensity at the center of a long
current carrying solenoid is found to be Sol. I = nAev d
1.6 × 103 Am–1. If the number of turns is 8 per cm,
⇒ 2 = 2 × 1028 × 25 × 10–6 × 1.6 × 10–19 × vd
then the current flowing through the solenoid is
______A. 1
=⇒ vd m/s = 25 × 10−6 m/s
25 × 1.6 × 1000
Answer (2)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 Sol.
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Choose the correct answer:
61. In chromyl chloride, the number of d-electrons
present on chromium is same as in (Given at no. of
Ti : 22, V : 23, Cr : 24, Mn : 25, Fe : 26)
(1) V (IV) (2) Mn (VII)
(3) Fe (III) (4) Ti (III)
Answer (2)
63. The water gas on reacting with cobalt as a catalyst
Sol. Chromyl chloride  CrO2Cl2 forms
O.S. of Cr = +6 (1) Methanal (2) Methanoic acid
 d0 configuration (3) Ethanol (4) Methanol
Mn (+7) = d0 Answer (4)
62. Match List I with List II : Sol. CO(g) + 2H2 (g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Cobalt
Catalyst
→ CH3OH(l)
Water gas Methanol

is reacted with reagents in List I to form

64. Which of the following complex is octahedral,
diamagnetic and the most stable?
products in List II.
(1) Na3[CoCl6] (2) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
List I (Reagent) List II (Product)
(3) K3[Co(CN)6] (4) [Co(H2O)6]Cl2
A. I. Answer (3)
Sol. (1) Na3[CoCl6] – Paramagnetic
(2) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 – Paramagnetic
B. HBF4,  II.
(3) K3[Co(CN)6] – Diamagnetic
(4) [Co(H2O)6]Cl2 – Paramagnetic
65. Which of the following represents the Freundlich
C. Cu, HCl III.
adsorption isotherms?

D. CuCN/KCN IV.
A.

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
B.
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

(1) A is true but R is false

C. (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(4) A is false but R is true

D. Answer (2)
Sol. Owing to intermolecular hydrogen bonding in
butanol, it has higher boiling point than
ethoxyethane.

Choose the correct answer from the options given 67. Match List I with List II :
below: List I List II
(1) A, C, D only (2) A, B only
A. Saccharin I. High potency
(3) B, C, D only (4) A, B, D only sweetener
Answer (4)
B. Aspartame II. First artificial
Sol. Freundlich adsorption isotherm equation is
sweetening agent
x
= KP1/n …(i) C. Alitame III. Stable at cooking
m
temperature
x 1
 log = logK + logP …(ii)
m n D. Sucralose IV. Unstable at cooking
With the help of the above two equation, following temperature
plots are obtained Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer (4)
Sol. A→II, B→IV, C→I, D→III
Saccharin is the first popular artificial sweetening
agent.
Aspartame use is limited to cold foods and soft
66. Given below are two statements : One is labelled drinks because it is unstable at cooking
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as temperature.
Reason R.
Alitame is high potency sweetener.
Assertion A : Butan–1–ol has higher boiling point
Sucralose is stable at cooking temperature.
than ethoxyethane.
68. The reaction
Reason R : Extensive hydrogen bonding leads
to stronger association of molecules. 1
H2 (g) + AgCl(s) H+ (aq) + Cl− (aq)+Ag(s)
In the light of the above statements, choose the 2
correct answer from the options given below : occurs in which of the given galvanic cell?

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning
(1) Pt|H2(g)|HCl(soln)|AgCl(s)|Ag 70. Match List I with List II :

(2) Ag|AgCl(s)|KCl(soln)|AgNO3|Ag List I (Reagents List II (Compound with

(3) Pt|H2(g)|HCl(soln)|AgNO3(soln)|Ag used) Functional group
detected)
(4) Pt|H2(g)|KCl(soln)|AgCl(s)|Ag
A. Alkaline solution I.
Answer (1)
of copper
1 sulphate and
Sol. At anode : → H+ + e−
H2 (g) ⎯⎯
2 (aq)
sodium citrate
−
At cathode AgCl + e ⎯⎯
→ Ag + Cl
(S) (aq) B. Neutral FeCl3 II.
solution
Overall reaction

1 C. Alkaline III.
→ H+ + Cl− + Ag(s)
H2 (g) + AgCl(s) ⎯⎯
2 chloroform

The cell representation for the above cell will be solution

Pt|H2(g)|HCl(soln)|AgCl(s)|Ag D. Potassium iodide IV.

and sodium
69. Given below are two statements :
hypochloride
Statement I : Lithium and Magnesium do not form
Choose the correct answer from the options given
superoxide
below :
Statement II : The ionic radius of Li+ is larger than
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
ionic radius of Mg2+
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
most appropriate answer from the questions given
below : (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D–I

Answer (2)
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct Sol. (A)
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect (B)
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Answer (4)

Sol. Ionic radius of Li+ = 76 pm (C)

Ionic radius of Mg2+ = 72 pm

Both Li+ and Mg2+ do not form superoxide because

their ionic radius is very small.
(D)
Hence, both the given statements are correct.

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71. Choose the halogen which is most reactive towards
SN1 reaction in the given compounds (A, B, C & D)
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) A – Br(b) ; B – I(a) ; C – Br(a) ; D – Br(a)
(2) A – Br(b) ; B – I(b) ; C – Br(b) ; D – Br(b)
(3) A – Br(a) ; B – I(a) ; C – Br(b) ; D – Br(a)
(4) A – Br(a) ; B – I(a) ; C – Br(a) ; D – Br(a)
Answer (3)
Sol. The leaving group which results in the formation of
more stable carbocation will be more reactive
towards SN1 reaction
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning
72. The correct order of spin only magnetic moments
for the following complex ions is
(1) [Fe(CN)6]3– < [CoF6]3– < [MnBr4]2– <
[Mn(CN)6]3–
(2) [CoF6]3– < [MnBr4]2– < [Fe(CN)6]3– <
[Mn(CN)6]3–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3– < [Mn(CN)6]3– < [CoF6]3– <
[MnBr4]2–
(4) [MnBr4]2– < [CoF6]3– < [Fe(CN)6]3– <
[Mn(CN)6]3–
Answer (3)
Sol. [MnBr4]2– = Mn2+(td) = e2 t 32 = 5 unpaired electrons
  = 5 ( 5 + 2 ) = 35 B. M.
[CoF6]3– = Co3+(Oh)
(High spin)
4
t 2g eg2 = 4 unpaired electrons
  = 4 ( 4 + 2 ) = 24 B.M.
4
[Mn(CN)6]3– = Mn3+ (Oh) = t 2g eg0
(Low spin)
= 2 unpaired electrons
  = 2 ( 2 + 2 ) = 8 B.M
[Fe(CN)6]3– = Fe3+(Oh) = t52geg0 = 1 unpaired electron
(Low spin)
  = 1(1 + 2 ) = 2 3 B.M
Hence the correct answer is option 3
73. What is the purpose of adding gypsum to cement?
(1) To facilitate the hydration of cement
(2) To slow down the process of setting
(3) To give a hard mass
(4) To speed up the process of setting
Answer (2)
Sol. When mixed with water the setting of cement takes
place to give a hard mass. The is due to the
hydration of molecules of the constituents and their
rearrangement. The purpose of adding gypsum is
only to slow down the process of setting of the
cement so that it gets sufficiently hardened.
 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning
74. The major product formed in the following reaction Sol.
is Species Maximum allowed
concentration in
ppm in drinking
water
A. F– 2
(1) B. SO2–
4
500

C. NO3– 50

D. Zn 5
(2) A → III ; B → IV; C → I; D → II
76. Sulphur (S) containing amino acids from the
following are:
(a) isoleucine
(3)
(b) cysteine
(c) lysine
(d) methionine
(4) (e) glutamic acid
(1) b, c, e (2) a, b, c
(3) b, d (4) a, d
Answer (2) Answer (3)
Sol. Selective reduction of ester group.

Sol. (a)

75. Match List I with List II

(b)
List I – (Species) List II – (Maximum
allowed concentration in
ppm in drinking water)

A. F– I. < 50 ppm
(c)
B. SO24− II. < 5 ppm

C. NO3− III. < 2 ppm

D. Zn IV. < 500 ppm

(d)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (e)

(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Answer (Bonus)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

77. Which halogen is known to cause the reaction given 81. The titration curve of weak acid vs. strong base with
below: phenolphthalein as indicator) is shown below. The
2Cu2+ + 4X– → Cu2X2(s) + X2 Kphenolphthalein = 4 × 10–10
(1) All halogens (2) Only Bromine Given: log2 = 0.3
(3) Only Iodine (4) Only Chlorine
Answer (3)
Sol. 2Cu2+ + 4I– → Cu2I2 + I2

78. 2IO3– + xI– + 12H+ → 6I2 + 6H2

What is the value of x?
(1) 2 (2) 12
(3) 10 (4) 6
Answer (3)
– – +
Sol. 2IO3 + xI + 12H → 6I2 + 6H2O
By balancing the charge, we can easily find out that The number of following statement/s which is/are
x is 10. correct about phenolphthalein is _______
79. Which of the following metals can be extracted
(A) It can be used as an indicator for the titration of
through alkali leaching technique?
weak acid with weak base.
(1) Sn (2) Pb
(B) It begins to change colour at pH = 8.4
(3) Au (4) Cu (C) It is a weak organic base
Answer (1) (D) It is colourless in acidic medium
Sol. SnO2 + NaOH → Na2[Sn(OH)6] Answer (02)
80. The correct order of electronegativity for given
Sol. Phenolphthalein is an organic acid and can be
elements is
represented as HPh.
(1) P > Br > C > At (2) Br > P > At > C
HPh H+ + Ph−
(3) Br > C > At > P (4) C > P > At > Br (colourless) (Pink )

Answer (3)
Using Henderson equation for phenolphthalein
Sol. Element Electronegativity
 [Ph− ] 
P 2.1 pH = pK In + log  
 [HPh] 
C 2.5
Br 3.0 At equivalence point [Ph–] = [HPh]
At 2.2  pH2 = pK In = − log[4] + 10 = −0.6 + 10 = 9.4
Hence, the correct order is Br > C > At > P.
Hence at (9.4  1) PH, phenolphthalein starts
SECTION - B
changing colour.
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five Phenolphthalein is colourless in acidic medium and
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a pink in basic medium.
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the Phenolphthalein indicator distinguish the pH
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, change between 8 to 10. Therefore, it is used for
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
strong acid and strong base titration or weak acid
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
and strong base titration.
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
the place designated to enter the answer. Hence, A and C are incorrect statements.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning
82. The number of following statement/s which is/are Sol. We know that the temperature at which vapour
incorrect is ______ pressure of a liquid becomes 1 atm. is called the
(A) Line emission spectra are used to study the boiling point of the liquid.
electronic structure
(B) The emission spectra of atoms in the gas
phase show a continuous spread of
wavelength from red to violet.
(C) An absorption spectrum is like the photographic
negative of an emission spectrum
(D) The element helium was discovered in the sun
by spectroscopic method
Answer (1)
Sol. Except (B) all other statements are correct. From the figure, we can clearly see that Graph I is
83. When a 60 W electric heater is immersed in a gas for pure solvent whereas graph II is for solution.
for 100s in a constant volume container with Hence the boiling point of solvent and solution are
adiabatic walls, the temperature of the gas rises by 82°C and 83°C respectively.
5°C. The heat capacity of the given gas is ______ 85. 0.5 g of an organic compound (X) with 60% carbon
J K–1 (Nearest integer)
will produce ______ ×10–1 g of CO2 on complete
Answer (1200) combustion.
Heat absorbed Answer (11)
Sol. Heat capacity =
change in temperature
12 Wt. of CO2
Sol. C% =   100
60  100 J 44 Wt. of organic compound
=
5
12 Wt. of CO2
60 =   100
= 1200 JK–1 44 0.5
84. The vapour pressure vs. temperature curve for a Wt. of CO2 = 1.1
solution solvent system is shown below.
86. The number of following factors which affect the
percent covalent character of the ionic bond
is______
(A) Polarising power of cation
(B) Extent of distortion of anion
(C) Polarisability of the anion
(D) Polarising power of anion
Answer (3)
Sol. Percentage covalent character of an ionic bond
depends upon

• Polarising power of cation

The boiling point of the solvent is _____°C. • Extent of distortion of anion
Answer (82) • Polarisability of the anion

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87. XeF4 reacts with SbF5 to form [XeFm]n+ [SbFy]z–.
m + n + y + z = ______??
Answer (11)
→ XeF3  SbF6 
+ –
Sol. XeF4 + SbF5 ⎯⎯
 m = 3, n = 1, y = 6, z = 1
88. Molar mass of the hydrocarbon (X) which on
ozonolysis consumes one mole of O3 per mole of
(X) and gives one mole each of ethanal and
propanone is ______ g mol–1 (Molar mass of C : 12
g mol–1, H : 1 g mol–1)
Answer (70)
Sol.
M.wt. = 70
89.
Three bulbs are filled with CH4, CO2 and Ne as
shown in the picture. The bulbs are connected
through pipes of zero volume. When the stopcocks
are opened and the temperature is kept constant
throughout, the pressure of the system is found to
be______ atm. (Nearest integer).
❑ ❑
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning
Answer (3)
Sol. Using the formula
P1V1 + P2 V2 + P3 V3 = Pf Vf
2  2 + 4  3 + 3  4 = Pf  9
28
Pf = 3
9
90. The number of given statement/s which is/are
correct is_____
(A) The stronger the temperature dependence of
the rate constant, the higher is the activation
energy.
(B) If a reaction has zero activation energy, its rate
is independent of temperature.
(C) The stronger the temperature dependence of
the rate constant, the smaller is the activation
energy.
(D) If there is no correlation between the
temperature and the rate constant then it
means that the reaction has negative activation
energy.
Answer (02)
Sol. Rate constant is given by Arrhenius equation
k = Ae–Ea /RT
Using the above equation, we can clearly see that
only option (A) and (B) are correct.
❑