Test Bank for Diseases of the Human Body 6th Edition by Tamparo

Test Bank for Diseases of the Human Body 6th

Edition by Tamparo

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Chapter 6. Congenital Diseases and Disorders

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Parents are discussing their child’s diagnosis of cerebral palsy with their pediatrician. When they ask
what causes this defect, what will the pediatrician most likely explain about the etiology of cerebral
palsy?
A. It is the result of autosomal genetic factors.
B. It is caused by CNS damage occurring before, during, or after birth.
C. It is the result of exposure to a teratogen during pregnancy.
D. It is caused by maternal influenza.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: 6.10
MSC: Applying

2. If an infant begins projectile vomiting in the 2nd to 4th week after birth, what might a PCP suspect is
the cause?
A. Pyloric stenosis
B. Cardiac stenosis
C. Hirschsprung disease
D. Cystic fibrosis
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.13
MSC: Understanding

3. Which of the following is an acyanotic heart defect where there is no mixing of poorly oxygenated
blood with blood reentering the systemic circulation?
A. Coarctation of the aorta
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Transposition of the great vessels
D. Dextroposition of the aorta
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.4
MSC: Remembering

4. To confirm the presence of testes, the test will look for which hormone?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
B. Serum gonadotropin
C. Luteinizing hormone
D. Serum testosterone
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.17
MSC: Remembering

5. What are the serious, often fatal respiratory complications of cystic fibrosis?
A. Emphysema
B. Pneumonia
C. Atelectasis
D. Malnutrition
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.22D
MSC: Remembering
 6. Mark is explaining to his brother why his son, who has cerebral palsy, walks on his toes and crosses
one foot in front of the other. This is known as what type of cerebral palsy?
A. Bilateral, symmetrical, nonprogressive paralysis
B. Athetoid cerebral palsy that affects about 20% of children with CP
C. Spastic cerebral palsy that is characterized by hyperactive reflexes
D. Ataxic cerebral palsy that exhibits difficulty with balance and depth perception
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: 6.10A
MSC: Applying

7. The gynecologist has given Karla the good news—she is pregnant with her first baby. A discussion of
how to have a healthy baby free of any congenital heart defects likely includes which of the following?
A. Get an x-ray at 3 months to see if the infant is healthy
B. Keep use of recreational drugs to a minimum
C. Confirm immunity to chicken pox and whooping cough
D. Take a daily multivitamin that contains folic acid
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: 6.6
MSC: Applying

8. Tetralogy of Fallot has four congenital heart defects. What is the classic symptom of this defect either
at birth or within the first several months?
A. Tachypnea and cardiomegaly
B. Low oxygen levels and poor feeding
C. Bluish discoloration of the skin or cyanosis
D. Tachycardia
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.5
MSC: Understanding

9. Wilson has Tourette syndrome. Since childhood, his classic symptoms have been the uncontrollable
tics and shoulder shrugging. He has a family, a good job, and is able to function well. What
complementary therapy does he find most helpful?
A. Going into a private and darkened room for meditation
B. Taking his antipsychotic medications when the symptoms are bothersome
C. Playing quiet-mind computer games and working crossword puzzles
D. Taking a daily dose of St. John’s wort
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: 6.26
MSC: Applying

10. What are the symptoms of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder?

A. Hyperactive behavior, speech delays, flat nose, microcephaly
B. High birth weight
C. High-pitched cry that often lasts for more than an hour
D. Lethargy and sleepiness
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.25
MSC: Remembering

11. How does Laurene describe the symptoms she experiences during a sickle cell crisis?
A. Mild but throbbing pain
B. Intense pain felt in arms, legs, or abdomen
C. Fast breathing and feeling of heat in her face
D. Depression
 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: 6.7
MSC: Applying

12. When hydrocephalus is suspected, what diagnostic procedures are likely performed?
A. Measuring head circumference, CT scan, MRI
B. X-ray and blood tests
C. Spinal tap to check for high levels of cerebrospinal fluid
D. Observing the cleft lip and cleft palate
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.9
MSC: Understanding

13. Ross had a “sensitive” digestive tract as an infant but seemed to develop fairly normally. In early
adolescence, he began to have serious constipation and abdominal distention. After numerous tries at
diet changes and home remedies, he saw a physician. What might the physician suspect?
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Hirschsprung disease
D. Phenylketonuria
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: 6.15
MSC: Applying

14. Which of the following best describes cleft lip and cleft palate?
A. Cleft lip is more common than cleft palate.
B. Cleft lip exhibits clefts in the upper lip; a hole in the roof of the mouth is cleft palate.
C. The combination of the two occurs in approximately 1 in 5,000 births.
D. One surgery is generally all that is needed to correct cleft lip and cleft palate.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.11
MSC: Understanding

15. Important client communication for cleft lip and cleft palate will include what information?
A. The ESSR feeding method for feeding
B. Bottle feeding, because breastfeeding is quite difficult for the infant
C. No burping, because it is not effective for neonates with cleft lip and cleft palate
D. Have corrective surgery as soon as possible
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.11
MSC: Understanding

16. Laticia brings her infant home from the birthing center in less than 12 hours. The birth was
uncomplicated, but soon Laticia knows something is wrong. Her infant is unable to suck without
coughing, choking, and turning blue. What might be the problem?
A. Malrotation with volvulus
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Patent ductus arteriosus
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: 6.12
MSC: Applying

17. Keith and Audrey are stunned and frightened when their son is born with omphalocele. They feel
much better after the pediatrician assures them of what information?
A. Surgery will correct the problem and they can expect complete recovery.
 B. Stimulation with testosterone injections will quickly move the intestines into place.
C. Daily manual massage will encourage the umbilical ring to close properly.
D. This defect is not life threatening and accommodations can be made for a full life.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: 6.16
MSC: Applying

18. The nurses notice a characteristic musty odor to the newborn’s perspiration and urine due to a
metabolite in which of the following diseases?
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Cerebral palsy
D. Hirschsprung disease
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: 6.23
MSC: Applying

19. When the intestine does not turn properly prior to birth, becomes twisted, and blocks the duodenum,
what is the condition called?
A. Abdominal atresia
B. Intestinal malrotation
C. Malrotation and volvulus
D. Abdominal atresia with volvulus
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.14
MSC: Understanding

20. What is the most likely etiology of hip dysplasia?

A. Maternal age of 40 or more
B. Prenatal infection
C. Birth weight of more than 9 pounds
D. Incorrect position of fetus in uterus; otherwise unknown
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.20
MSC: Remembering

SHORT ANSWER

1. What are the two main causes of congenital birth defects?

ANS:
Genetic causes, teratogens

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.2 MSC: Remembering

2. Can you recall the four types of talipes?

ANS:
In any order: talipes varus, talipes valgus, talipes equines, talipes calcaneus

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.19 MSC: Understanding

3. What are the most common teratogens?

 ANS:
In any order: infectious diseases; physical agents such as radiation, drugs, and chemicals; and maternal
issues such as diabetes

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.3 MSC: Remembering

4. What is the confirming diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

ANS:
Muscle biopsy showing connective tissue and fat deposits

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.21 MSC: Understanding

5. What is the term used when each kidney has two ureters instead of one?

ANS:
Duplicated ureter

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.18 MSC: Remembering

NARRBEGIN: Define
DEFINE THE FOLLOWING TERMS:
NARREND

6. Atelectasis: _______________________________________________________

ANS:
Collapse of all or part of a lung

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.1 MSC: Remembering

NAR: Define

7. Chyme: __________________________________________________________

ANS:
Mixture of partially digested food and gastric juices; nearly liquid

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.1 MSC: Remembering

NAR: Define

8. Lumen: ___________________________________________

ANS:
Open space in a tubular structure

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.1 MSC: Remembering

NAR: Define

9. Meconium: ___________________________________

ANS:
First feces of newborn
 PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.1 MSC: Remembering
NAR: Define

10. Toxemia: __________________________

ANS:
Poisonous substances in the blood

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.1 MSC: Remembering

NAR: Define

MATCHING

Match the terms with their definitions.

A. Roughened skin or an abrasion
B. Increase in size or volume
C. Involuntary wavelike contractions
D. Rounded cavity on the outer surface of the hip bone that receives the femur
E. Fast breathing
F. First feces of a newborn infant
G. Absence of oxygen
H. Excision or removal of a kidney
I. Ureter swollen with urine
J. Nosebleed
K. Wall between the ventricles
L. Involuntary movement of the eyeball
M. Listening for sounds produced by internal organs
N. Swelling of the renal pelvis of the kidney with urine
O. Lameness
P. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders
Q. Bluish discoloration of the skin
R. Impaired muscle tone
S. Smaller-than-normal head
T. Nearly liquid mixture composed of partially digested food and gastric secretions
1. Acetabulum
2. Anoxia
3. Hydroureter
4. Auscultation
5. Chyme
6. Claudication
7. Cyanosis
8. Dystonia
9. Epistaxis
10. Excoriated
11. Hydronephrosis
12. Hypertrophy
13. FASD
14. Microcephaly
15. Meconium
16. Nephrectomy
17. Nystagmus
Test Bank for Diseases of the Human Body 6th Edition by Tamparo

18. Peristalsis
19. Septum
20. Tachypnea

1. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.20

MSC: Remembering
2. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.1
MSC: Remembering
3. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.18
MSC: Remembering
4. ANS: M PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.4
MSC: Remembering
5. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.18
MSC: Remembering
6. ANS: O PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.4
MSC: Remembering
7. ANS: Q PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.5
MSC: Remembering
8. ANS: R PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.10
MSC: Remembering
9. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.4
MSC: Remembering
10. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.18
MSC: Remembering
11. ANS: N PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.18
MSC: Remembering
12. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.4
MSC: Remembering
13. ANS: P PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.4
MSC: Remembering
14. ANS: S PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.23
MSC: Remembering
15. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.4
MSC: Remembering
16. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.18
MSC: Remembering
17. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.10
MSC: Remembering
18. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.15
MSC: Remembering
19. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.4
MSC: Remembering
20. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.14
MSC: Remembering

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