PSG COLLEGE OF TECHNOLOGY, COIMBATORE – 641 004

DEPARTMENT OF HUMANITIES
19O412 - INDIAN CONSTITUTION
ASSESSMENT – II
1. The Governor cannot return a _______ bill to the state legislature for reconsideration.
a. Constitutional Amendment
b. Private
c. Ordinary
d. Money
2. The Governor has the power to promulgate or withdraw an ordinance at any period, only if
the state legislature is during the __________.
a. Session
b. Adjournment
c. Recess
d. Dissolution
3. According to __________ of the Constitution, ‘All the executive powers of the state are
vested in the Governor’.
a. Article 154
b. Article 153
c. Article 155
d. Article 152
4. __________ is the current Speaker of the Tamil Nadu Legislative assembly.
a. M. Appavu
b. M. K. Stalin
c. Durai Murugan
d. K. Palaniswami
5. In India currently __________ number of states follow unicameral legislature.
a. 25
b. 29
c. 22
d. 20
6. In India currently __________ number of states follow bicameral legislature
a. 5
b. 9
c. 6
d. 2
7. The independent judiciary of India is a part of the _________ structure and is accountable to
the __________.
a. Democratic Political, Constitution
b. Democratic Administrative, Government
c. Political, President
 d. Executive, Constitution
8. The __________ and __________ of the judges are immune from personal criticisms.
a. Powers, Functions
b. Powers, Loyalty
c. Functions, Powers
d. Actions, Decisions
9. The __________ has the power to create or abolish Vidhan Parishad in any state by simple
majority as per the resolution passed in the concerned state legislature by a special majority.
a. Parliament
b. Governor
c. Chief Minister
d. President
10. To become a member of Vidhan Sabha or Vidhan Parishad, the person should have
completed __________ years of age, respectively.
a. 25 & 35
b. 35 & 25
c. 25 & 30
d. 30 & 25
11. The __________ has the power to decide about the disqualifications of a MLA/MLC.
a. Parliament
b. Governor
c. Chief Minister
d. President
12. The MLA/MLC seat is considered to be vacant if he/she does not attend the meeting of the
house for __________ days without the permission of the house.
a. 50
b. 60
c. 90
d. 70
13. The __________ has the power to decide whether a bill is a money bill or not.
a. Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
b. Governor
c. Chief Minister
d. Chairman of Vidhan Parishad
14. What makes the judiciary the guardian of the constitution?
a. Independence
b. Service conditions
c. Salary
d. Power of Judicial Review
15. Who is the current Chief Justice of the Madras High Court?
a. Justice M. Duraiswamy
 b. Justice T. Raja
c. Justice Munishwar Nath Bhandari
d. Justice P. N. Prakash
16. The power of judicial review ensures the __________.
a. Justice by the subordinate courts
b. Supremacy of the supreme courts
c. Super court can review its our judgments
d. Constitutionality of laws
17. What are the three main grands of judicial review?
a. Illegality, procedural unfairness and irrationality
b. Mismanagement, unfairness and impropriety
c. Wrong decision, unlawfulness and criminality
d. Extremism, radicalism and unfairness
18. Why we need judicial review?
1. To uphold the principle of the supremacy of the constitution
2. To maintain federal equilibrium
3. To protect the fundamental rights of the citizens
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
19. The leader of the Vidhan Parishad is nominated by __________.
a. Speaker
b. Governor
c. Chief Minister
d. President
20. The legislature means __________.
a. Body of Judges
b. Body of Law Making
c. Body of Ministers
d. Body of Administrators
21. Who appoints the Chief Minister?
a. Prime Minister
b. Governor
c. President
d. Chief justice
22. Who is the executive head of the state in India?
a. Advocate General
b. Governor
c. Chief Minister
d. President
23. The state emergency is declared by the __________.
a. Parliament
b. Governor
c. Chief Minister
d. President
24. The Tamil Nadu legislative council was abolished in the year __________.
a. 1980
b. 1985
c. 1982
d. 1986
25. __________ is a part of state executive.
a. President
b. Attorney General of India
c. Prime Minister
d. Governor
26. Articles ________ of Part VI cover various aspects of the state executive.
a. 147 – 150
b. 153 – 167
c. 93 – 100
d. 141 – 150
27. To become a Governor of a state one should be a minimum of __________ years of age.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 45
28. The Governor is appointed by the __________.
a. President
b. Prime Minister
c. Chief Minister
d. Chief Justice
29. A Governor is eligible for reappointment __________.
a. Once
b. Any number of times
c. Thrice
d. Twice
30. __________ acts as the Chancellor of state universities.
a. Governor
b. Chief Minister
c. President
d. Prime Minister
31. Without the approval of the state legislature, the maximum life of an ordinance is
__________.
a. 4 months and 4 weeks
b. 6 months and 6 weeks
c. 6 weeks and 6 days
d. 4 weeks and 4 days
32. The ______ of the Governor means that the Governor can act on a matter without any aid
and advice from the Council of Ministers.
a. Veto Power
b. Discretionary Power
c. Executive Power
d. Judicial power
33. Governor’s prior recommendation is needed to introduce _____ in the state legislature.
a. Ordinance
b. Act
c. Amendment Bill
d. Money Bill
34. While appointing the Chief Justice and other judges of the concerned High Courts, the
President consults the __________.
a. Prime Minister
b. Governor
c. Chief Justice of India
d. Chief Minister
35. __________ is the first female Governor from Tamil Nadu.
a. TamilisaiSoundararajan
b. Pratibha Patil
c. Fathima Beevi
d. Sheila Dikshit
36. Who can remove a Supreme Court Judge on proved misbehavior or incapacity
when parliament approves with a majority of the total membership of each house in favor of
impeachment and not less than two-thirds of the members of each house present?
a. Prime Minister
b. Chief justice of India
c. President
d. Minister of Law
37. The present strength of Supreme Court judges is __________.
a. 23
b. 27
c. 33
d. 34
38. Article 125 of the Indian constitution states that the __________ determines the salary, other
allowances, leave of absence, pension, etc. of the Supreme Court judges.
a. Prime Minister
b. Chief justice of India
c. Parliament
d. President
39. The term of the Governor is __________ years.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 4
40. The Governor does not have __________ power.
a. Emergency
b. Legislative
c. Executive
d. Financial
41. _____ appoints the presiding officer in a house of the state legislature when both the offices
of presiding officers in a house of the state legislature fall vacant.
a. Governor
b. Chief Minister
c. President
d. Prime Minister
42. There are __________ number states and union territories in India.
a. 28 & 8
b. 29& 7
c. 28& 7
d. 29& 8
43. Article __________ of the Indian Constitution defines the duties of the Chief Minister.
a. 169
b. 164
c. 167
d. 165
44. The first woman Chief Minister of Independent India is __________.
a. Sucheta Kriplani
b. Janaki Ramachandran
c. Padmaja Naidu
d. Sheila Dikshit
45. A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as the Chief Minister
for __________ months.
a. 3
b. 4
 c. 5
d. 6
46. Which article of the Indian Constitution states that the Chief Minister is appointed by the
Governor of a state?
a. 162
b. 163
c. 164
d. 165
47. The __________ administers the oath of office and secrecy to the Chief Minister.
a. President
b. Governor
c. Chief Justice of India
d. Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
48. The swearing-in of the Chief Minister is stated in Article __________ of the Indian
Constitution.
a. 150
b. 149
c. 164
d. 177
49. Who stands above all the ministers in a state and heads the State Council of Ministers?
a. Chief Minister
b. Prime Minister
c. Governor
d. President
50. Who is the current Deputy Speaker of the Tamil Nadu legislative assembly?
a. M. Appavu
b. K. Pitchandi
c. DuraiMurugan
d. K. Palaniswami
51. Part VI of Constitution of India is about __________.
a. Preamble
b. Fundamental Rights
c. State Legislature
d. DPSPs
52. The current leader of the opposition party in Tamil Nadu legislative assembly is __________.
a. M. Appavu
b. M. K. Stalin
c. DuraiMurugan
d. K. Palaniswami
53. The State legislative assembly is otherwise called as __________.
a. Vidhan Parishad
 b. Vidhan Sabha
c. State Legislative Council
d. Lok Sabha
54. The maximum and minimum strength of Vidhan Sabha as fixed by the constitution is
__________, respectively.
a. 500 & 50
b. 500 & 60
c. 250 & 50
d. 250 & 60
55. The Chief Minister is the __________ head of the state government.
a. Titular
b. Nominal
c. Real
d. Ceremonial
56. Which one of the following is not considered as the powers of the Chief Minister?
a. He allocates and shuffles various departments among ministers
b. He is the principle line of communication between the Governor and the State Council of
Ministers
c. He advises the Governor to summon, prorogue and dissolve the house from time to time
d. He nominates the speaker of Vidhan Sabha
57. According to the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, the minimum strength of the Council
of Ministers including the Chief Minister in a state is __________.
a. 12
b. 11
c. 10
d. 14
58. Which article of the Indian Constitution states that the Chief Minister is appointed by
the Governor of a state?
a) 162
b) 163
c) 164
d) 165
59. Assertion (A): There shall be a State Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister as the
head.
Reasoning (R): The State Council of Ministers is a part of the shadow cabinet.
a. A and R are individually true and R is the explanation for A
b. A and R are individually true but R is not the explanation for A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
60. Match the following: States and their Chief Ministers
 1. Karnataka - a. Yogi Aditya Nath
2. Maharashtra - b. K Chandrasekhar Rao
3. Telangana - c. Basavaraj Bommai
4. Uttar Pradesh - d. Eknath Shinde
a. i(c), ii(b), iii(d), iv(a)
b. i(c), ii(d), iii(b), iv(a)
c. i(b), ii(d), iii(c), iv(a)
d. i(c), ii(a), iii(b), iv(d)
61. A system of government in which power is divided between a central authority and various
constituent units of the country is called __________.
a. Federalism
b. Communalism
c. Socialism
d. Democracy
62. Which country is an example of a coming-together federation?
a. Belgium
b. USA
c. Sri Lanka
d. India
63. Which country is an example of a holding-together federation?
a. Australia
b. Switzerland
c. USA
d. India
64. In unitary form of government, __________.
a. All the powers are divided between the center/union and the state provincial government
b. Power is concentrated with the central government
c. All the powers are with the citizens
d. State government has all the powers
65. The __________ plays a key role in managing the emergency of the state.
a. State Cabinet
b. Union Cabinet
c. Kitchen Cabinet
d. Shadow Cabinet
66. The collective responsibility of the State Council of Ministers implies that __________.
1. All ministers work as a team or as one unit
2. Each minister takes the responsibility for other ministers’ acts
3. The ministers are individually responsible to the Governor
b. i, ii and iii
c. i and ii
d. ii and iii
 e. ii
67. The __________ advises the Governor about the summoning and proroguing of the sessions
of the state legislature.
a. President
b. Prime Minister
c. Chief Minister
d. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
68. Who decides the salary and allowances of the Chief Minister?
a. President
b. Prime Minister
c. Governor
d. State Legislature
69. Which of the following subjects is not included in the union list?
a. Defence
b. Foreign affairs
c. Police
d. Banking
70. The union list includes subjects such as __________.
a. Education, forests, trade unions, marriages, adoption and succession
b. Police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation
c. Residuary subjects like computer software
d. Defence, foreign affairs, banking, currency, communications
71. Indian Constitution presents three lists for the distribution of power between the Centre and
States. Which two Articles regulate the distribution?
a. Article 245 and 246
b. Article 142 and 143
c. Article 56 and 57
d. Article 4 and 5
72. The subjects on which both central and state governments can make law are mentioned in
which of the following Lists?
a. Union List
b. State List
c. Concurrent List
d. Residual List
73. The distribution of legislative powers between the center and the states in the Constitution of
India is given in the __________.
a. Sixth Schedule
b. Seventh Schedule
c. Eighth Schedule
d. Ninth Schedule
74. An inter-state council was set up in 1990 under the Article 263 of the constitution by the
__________.
a. Parliament
b. Government
c. Planning commission
d. President
75. What is the source of inter-state councils?
a. Constitution
b. Parliamentary Laws
c. Recommendation of Planning Commission
d. Approved Resolution by CM
76. In which Part of the Indian constitution, central-state relations are mentioned?
a. Part XI
b. Part X
c. Part IV
d. Part XII
77. Which of the following is not a principal source of non-tax revenue for the union
government?
a. India Post and Telegraphs
b. Broadcasting
c. Forests
d. Liquor and Opium
78. Which of the following constitutional provisions facilitate union control over states?
1. All India Services
2. Grants-in-aid
3. Inter-state Councils
a. Options 1 and 2
b. Options 2 and 3
c. Options 1, 2 and 3
d. Options 1 and 3
79. Which of the following subject comes under the Central Government?
a. Banking Sector
b. Agriculture Sector
c. Prison
d. Public Health Sector
80. The distribution of powers between the central government and state government in the
Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the __________.
a. Government of India Act, 1935
b. Indian Independence Act, 1947
c. Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
d. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
81. The central government can give directions to the state governments about subjects in the
__________.
a. Union List
b. State List
c. Concurrent List
d. Union, State and Concurrent list
82. Which of the following is not the advice given by the Chief Minister to the Governor?
a. Appointment of the Advocate General
b. Appointment of the Chairman of the state public service commission
c. Appointment of State Election Commissioner
d. Appointment of Judge to the Supreme Court of India
83. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's rule promulgated on any state in
India?
a. Article 326
b. Article 370
c. Article 380
d. Article 356
84. “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States”.
The above mandate has been enshrined in the Constitution of India, in which among the
following?
a. Preamble
b. Article 1
c. Article 2
d. Schedule I
85. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?
a. Bill bringing a State under the President's rule
b. Money Bill
c. Bill pertaining to the removal of the President by impeachment
d. Bill proclaiming all the state of emergency arising out of war or external aggression
86. The procedure of amendment in the Constitution is laid down in __________ of the
Constitution of India.
a. Article 366
b. Article 367
c. Article 368
d. Article 369
87. Who can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the union list?
a. Local Government
b. State Government
c. Union Government
d. Both State and Union Government
88. Subjects like computer software come in the __________.
 a. Union List
b. State List
c. Concurrent List
d. Residuary List
89. In case of a dispute between the laws made by the central and state on a subject in the
concurrent list, __________ prevails.
a. State Law
b. Central Law
c. Both the laws within their respective jurisdictions
d. Supreme court has to intervene to decide
90. What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal system?
a. States have no financial powers or independent sources of revenue
b. States are dependent on revenue or funds from the central government
c. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its
financial autonomy
d. States have no financial autonomy
91. Which of the following type of amendment is not under the scope of Article 368?
a. Amendment by Special Majority of the Parliament
b. Amendment by Simple Majority of the Parliament
c. Amendment by Special Majority of the Parliament and the Ratification of at least half of
the State Legislatures
d. Options a and b
92. The provision “distribution of legislative powers between the union and the states” is made
by which of the following types of amendments to the Constitution.
a. Amendment by Special Majority of the Parliament
b. Amendment by Simple Majority of the Parliament
c. Amendment by Special Majority of the Parliament and the Ratification of at least
half of the State Legislatures
d. Either option b or c
93. By the __________, the life of Lok Sabha is reduced to five years.
a. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
b. 45th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1980
c. 46th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1982
d. 47th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1984
94. The power of the President to return the bill to the Parliament for reconsideration is known as
__________ veto.
a. Absolute Veto
b. Suspensive Veto
c. Pocket Veto
d. Assent Veto
95. Assertion (A): The President of India decides whether a bill is money bill or not.
 Reasoning (R): A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
96. Bills dealing with financial matters like taxation and public expenditure are known as
__________.
a. Finance Bills
b. Money Bills
c. Ordinary Bills
d. Amendment Bills
97. In __________ stage, a bill undergoes detailed scrutiny including discussion of various
clauses.
a. First Reading
b. Second Reading
c. Third Reading
d. Final Reading
98. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced in the Parliament without the
recommendation of the President?
a. Ordinary Bills
b. Finance Bills
c. Money Bills
d. Both Ordinary Bills and Money Bills
99. By which amendment the inclusion of the terms "Socialism and Secular" to the preamble was
made?
a. 41st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
b. 42ndConstitutional Amendment Act, 1976
c. 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1977
d. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
100. __________ is the current strength of the Tamil Nadu legislative assembly.
a. 250
b. 500
c. 234
d. 545
101. The maximum strength of the Vidhan Parishad as fixed by the constitution is
__________.
a. One-third of the total strength of Vidhan Sabha
b. One-fourth of the total strength of Vidhan Sabha
c. Two-thirds of the total strength of Vidhan Sabha
d. Half of the total strength of Vidhan Sabha
102. The minimum strength of Vidhan Parishad as fixed by the constitution is __________.
 a. 45
b. 50
c. 60
d. 40
103. The term of the Member of the Vidhan Parishad is __________ years.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 3
d. 4
104. The abolishment of the Anglo-Indian reservations in the Parliament and state legislatures
of India was enacted by the __________.
a. 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014
b. 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015
c. 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016
d. 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
105. When was the first amendment made to the Constitution after India became an
independent and republican country?
a. 1950
b. 1951
c. 1952
d. 1953
106. __________ means cases that can be directly considered by the Supreme Court without
going to the lower courts before that.
a. Original Jurisdiction
b. Appellate Jurisdiction
c. Special Powers
d. Writ Jurisdiction
107. Statement 1: The Supreme Court is primarily a court of appeal and hears appeals against
the judgments of the lower courts.
Statement 2: This power is technically the appellate jurisdiction power of the
Supreme Court.
a. Statement I and II are true
b. Statement I and II are false
c. Statement I is true and II is false
d. Statement I is false and II is true
108. __________ is the place of record that records the judgments, proceedings and acts for
memory and testimony and references.
a. Parliament
b. Supreme Court
c. Office of President
d. State Legislature
109. Statement I: Supreme Court does not have the power of judicial review.
Statement I: Judicial review is the power to examine the constitutionality of
legislative and executive orders of both the Central governments
a. Statement I and II are true
b. Statement I and II are false
c. Statement I is true and II is false
d. Statement I is false and II is true
110. All the Judges for the Supreme Court and the High Court are appointed by the
__________ after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
a. Prime Minister
b. Committee formed for the purpose
c. President
d. Minister of Law
111. Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office by __________.
a. Executive Order
b. Judicial Order
c. Impeachment Procedure
d. Bureaucracy
112. __________ of Supreme Court denotes the power to settle disputes between the union
and states and also amongst the states.
a. Writ Jurisdiction
b. Appellate Jurisdiction
c. Special Powers
d. Original Jurisdiction
113. Which is the final judicial tribunal of India?
a. President
b. High courts
c. Supreme Court of India
d. Panchayat Raj System
114. Which of the following is not the desired qualification to become a Judge of the Supreme
Court of India?
a. It is compulsory to be a citizen of India
b. He/she should be a respected jurist in the eyes of the Parliament
c. He/she must have served as a judge in the High Court for at least 5 years
d. He/she should have been an advocate in the high court for at least 10 years
115. The Supreme Court can grant special leave to an appeal from any judgment or matter
passed by any court in the territory of India through __________.
a. Writ Jurisdiction
b. Appellate Jurisdiction
c. Special Powers
d. Original jurisdiction
116. The three-tier model of governance (inclusion of Panchayati Raj) was enacted by the
__________.
a. 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
b. 72nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
c. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
d. 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
117. TheGoods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced as an amendment by the __________.
a. 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014
b. 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015
c. 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016
d. 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
118. __________ is the head of the judiciary system in India.
a. President
b. Prime Minister
c. Chief Justice of India
d. Attorney General of India
119. How many Chief Justices were appointed since the establishment of the Supreme Court
in 1950?
a. 48
b. 47
c. 50
d. 49
120. The right to free and compulsory education was enacted by the Parliament during the
__________.
a. 86thConstitutional Amendment Act, 2002
b. 87th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
c. 88th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
d. 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
121. Supreme Court judges retire at the age of __________ years.
a. 60
b. 62
c. 65
d. 68
122. Who can extend the jurisdiction of a High Court?
a. Parliament of India
b. President of India
c. Supreme Court of India
d. Governor of the State
123. In which year was the Madras High Court established?
a. 1862
b. 1871
 c. 1881
d. 1891
124. The fundamental duties defined as the moral obligations of all citizens were added by the
__________.
a. 41st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
b. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
c. 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1977
d. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
125. The right to property from the list of fundamental rights was removed by the
__________.
a. 41st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
b. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
c. 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1977
d. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
126. Who is authorized to transfer the Judges of one High Court to another High Court?
a. President
b. Chief Justice of India
c. Law Minister
d. Governor
127. Which was the following is not the main jurisdiction of the High Court of a state?
a. Advisory Jurisdiction
b. Original Jurisdiction
c. Supervisory Jurisdiction
d. Appellate Jurisdiction
128. How many High Courts are constituted in India?
a. 22
b. 25
c. 27
d. 29
129. What is the maximum age for holding the office of a judge of a High Court?
a. 62
b. 60
c. 58
d. Fixed by the President depending upon the workload
130. Under which Article(s) of the Constitution of India, is the power to issue writs for the
enforcement of the Fundamental Rights vested in the Supreme Court and the High Courts?
a. Article 32 only
b. Article 226 only
c. Both Article 32 and Article 226
d. Neither Article 32 nor Article 226
131. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, who is entitled to be consulted by the
President of India in the matter of the appointments of the Judges of the High Courts?
a. Union Minister of Law and Justice
b. Advocate General of the State
c. Attorney-General of India
d. Governor
132. Which of the following are the main jurisdictions of the High Court of a State?
1. Original Jurisdiction
2. Appellate Jurisdiction
3. Supervisory Jurisdiction
4. Advisory Jurisdiction
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
133. Who is the current Chief Justice of the Supreme Court?
a. Justice Dipak Misra
b. Justice Chandrachud
c. Justice Ranjan Gogoi
d. Justice Sharad Arvind Bodbe
134. In which year was the Supreme Court established?
a. 1949
b. 1950
c. 1951
d. 1952
135. How can the High Court Judge be removed?
a. A resolution passed by the general majority of the Parliament
b. By the Supreme Court on the advice of the President
c. A resolution passed by the special majority of the respective state
d. A resolution passed by the Parliament with a special majority
136. The institution of High courts started in India in 1862 with setting up of courts at
a. Delhi, Bombay and Madras
b. Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
c. Delhi, Calcutta and Bombay
d. Calcutta, Delhi and Madras
137. The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed by the __________.
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Governor
d. President
138. Which of the following is covered under the original jurisdiction of the supreme court ?
 a. Dispute relating to civil matters
b. Dispute between two citizens from two different states
c. Dispute relating to criminal cases involving murder
d. Disputes between two states of the Indian Union
139. In a democratic setup __________ is an integral part of a country.
a. Fundamental Rights
b. Central Government
c. Principle of Supremacy
d. Judiciary
140. The judges of subordinate courts are appointed by __________.
a. Governor
b. Chief Justice of High Court
c. Chief Minister
d. Governor
141. Which system is considered as the basic unit of legal administration?
a. District Court
b. Gram Panchayat
c. Taluk Courts
d. Gram Sabha
142. According to the __________, the same person can be the Governor of two or more
states.
a. 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956
b. 8th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1959
c. 9th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1960
d. 10th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1961
143. __________ is considered the foundation of India’s democracy.
a. Judiciary
b. Government
c. Constitution
d. Rule of Law
144. As an organ of government, the __________ plays a crucial role in the functioning of
__________.
a. Judges, Judiciary
b. Judiciary, India’s Democracy
c. Constitution, Political Structure
d. Constitution, Democracy
145. __________ must be able to perform their functions without fear or favour.
a. President
b. Governor
c. Chief Minister
d. Judges