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1. Which part of the nervous system is affected in Peripheral Nervous System Disorders?
a) Central Nervous System
b) Autonomic Nervous System
c) Somatic Nervous System
d) Sympathetic Nervous System
e) Parasympathetic Nervous System
Answer: c) Somatic Nervous System. Explanation: Peripheral Nervous System Disorders affect the
somatic nervous system, which controls voluntary movements and sensory information.
2. What is the function of the Anterior Root in the nervous system?
a) Afferent sensory fiber
b) Efferent motor fiber
c) Trauma response
d) Neuropathy
e) Myopathy
Answer: b) Efferent motor fiber. Explanation: The Anterior Root is responsible for carrying efferent
motor fibers from the spinal cord to the muscles.
3. What is Motor Neuron Disease?
a) A disease that affects the autonomic nervous system
b) A disease that affects the somatic nervous system
c) A disease that affects the central nervous system
d) A disease that affects the peripheral nervous system
e) A disease that affects the neuromuscular junction
Answer: c) A disease that affects the central nervous system. Explanation: Motor Neuron Disease is a
degenerative disease that affects the motor neurons in the cortex, brainstem, and spinal cord.
4. What is the cause of Familial Motor Neuron Disease?
a) Trauma
b) Neuropathy
c) Myopathy
d) Mutations in the SOD1 gene
e) Excessive glutamate toxicity
Answer: d) Mutations in the SOD1 gene. Explanation: Familial Motor Neuron Disease is caused by
mutations in the SOD1 gene on chromosome 21q22.11, which codes for the enzyme superoxide
dismutase.
5. What is the function of the Neuromuscular Junction?
a) To carry sensory information from the muscles to the spinal cord
b) To carry motor information from the spinal cord to the muscles
c) To regulate the autonomic nervous system
d) To regulate the somatic nervous system
e) To regulate the sympathetic nervous system
Answer: b) To carry motor information from the spinal cord to the muscles. Explanation: The
Neuromuscular Junction is responsible for transmitting motor information from the spinal cord to the
muscles, allowing for voluntary movement.
1. What is the cause of familial motor neuron disease?
a) Excessive glutamate toxicity
b) Oxidative stress
c) Mitochondrial dysfunction
d) Mutation in the SOD1 gene on chromosome 21q22.11
e) Abnormalities in the cytoskeleton
Answer: d) Mutation in the SOD1 gene on chromosome 21q22.11. This mutation leads to the
production of a faulty superoxide dismutase enzyme, which causes motor neuron degeneration.
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of sporadic motor neuron disease?
a) Protein aggregation
b) Mitochondrial dysfunction
c) Activation of the inflammatory cascade
d) Mutation in the SOD1 gene
e) Neuronal apoptosis
Answer: d) Mutation in the SOD1 gene. Sporadic motor neuron disease does not have a genetic cause
and is not associated with mutations in the SOD1 gene.
3. What is the difference between primary lateral sclerosis (PLS) and progressive muscular atrophy
(PMA)?
a) PLS affects upper motor neurons while PMA affects lower motor neurons
b) PLS affects lower motor neurons while PMA affects upper motor neurons
c) PLS is a sporadic disease while PMA is a familial disease
d) PLS is characterized by protein aggregation while PMA is characterized by mitochondrial dysfunction
e) PLS is a bulbar disorder while PMA is a distal limb disorder
Answer: a) PLS affects upper motor neurons while PMA affects lower motor neurons. PLS is a rare
disorder that affects only the upper motor neurons, while PMA affects only the lower motor neurons.
4. What is the difference between bulbar palsy and pseudo-bulbar palsy?
a) Bulbar palsy is a lower motor neuron disorder while pseudo-bulbar palsy is an upper motor neuron
disorder
b) Bulbar palsy is a bilateral disorder while pseudo-bulbar palsy is a unilateral disorder
c) Bulbar palsy is characterized by spastic paralysis while pseudo-bulbar palsy is characterized by

flaccid paralysis
d) Bulbar palsy affects CN VII-XII while pseudo-bulbar palsy affects CN V-VII
e) Bulbar palsy is a distal limb disorder while pseudo-bulbar palsy is a bulbar disorder
Answer: a) Bulbar palsy is a lower motor neuron disorder while pseudo-bulbar palsy is an upper motor
neuron disorder. Bulbar palsy is caused by a lesion affecting the lower motor neurons that control the
muscles of the pharynx and larynx, while pseudo-bulbar palsy is caused by an upper motor neuron
disorder that leads to spastic paralysis of the same muscles.
1. What is the most common symptom of bulbar weakness in patients with ALS?
a) Difficulty in swallowing
b) Weakness in the limbs
c) Hypertonus in the muscles
d) Atrophy in the muscles
e) Sensory dysfunction
Answer: a) Difficulty in swallowing. This symptom is usually followed by speech impairment.

2. Which of the following is a sign of UMN in ALS patients?
a) Flaccid muscle weakness
b) Decreased physiological reflexes
c) Hypertonicity in the muscles
e) Abnormal eye movements
Answer: c) Hypertonicity in the muscles. This is a sign of UMN involvement in ALS patients.
3. Which type of ALS is characterized by pure LMN symptoms?
a) Primary Lateral Sclerosis
b) Pseudo Bulbar Palsy
c) Progresif Muskular Atrophy
d) Progresif Bulbar Palsy
e) None of the above
Answer: c) Progresif Muskular Atrophy. This type of ALS is characterized by LMN symptoms such as
atrophy and weakness in the muscles.
4. What is the most common symptom of Pseudo Bulbar Palsy?
a) Difficulty in swallowing
b) Weakness in the limbs
c) Hypertonus in the muscles
e) Symmetrical forehead wrinkles
Answer: e) Symmetrical forehead wrinkles. This symptom is followed by speech and swallowing
difficulties.
5. What is the main diagnostic criteria for Primary Lateral Sclerosis?
a) Pure UMN symptoms
b) Pure LMN symptoms
c) Flaccid muscle weakness

e) Abnormal eye movements
Answer: a) Pure UMN symptoms. This type of ALS is characterized by spasticity, hypertonicity, and
increased pathological reflexes.
pengaruh adalah usia saat onset, jenis MND, dan keparahan gejala pada saat diagnosis.
1. What is the meaning of "kstremitas distal ke proksimal"?
a) Weakness starting from the proximal muscles and progressing to the distal muscles
b) Weakness starting from the distal muscles and progressing to the proximal muscles
c) Weakness only in the distal muscles
d) Weakness only in the proximal muscles
e) No weakness present
Answer: b) Weakness starting from the distal muscles and progressing to the proximal muscles
Explanation: "Kstremitas distal ke proksimal" means weakness that starts from the distal muscles
(farthest from the center of the body) and progresses to the proximal muscles (closest to the center of
the body).
2. What are the symptoms of Progresif Bulbar Palsy?
a) Weakness in the limbs
b) Tingling sensation in the limbs
c) Disartria progresif
d) Visual disturbances
Answer: c) Disartria progresif
Explanation: Progresif Bulbar Palsy is a type of Motor Neuron Disease (MND) that affects the bulbar
muscles (muscles responsible for speech, swallowing, and facial expressions). The symptoms include
disartria progresif (progressive difficulty in speaking), weakness in the bulbar muscles, and
asymmetrical facial expressions.
3. What is the tatalaksana for MND?
a) Curative treatment
b) Symptomatic treatment
c) Surgery
d) Radiation therapy
e) Chemotherapy
Answer: b) Symptomatic treatment
Explanation: There is no curative treatment for MND, so the tatalaksana is only symptomatic. This
means that the treatment focuses on managing the symptoms and improving the quality of life of the
patient. The treatment options include Riluzole, Edaravone, spastisitas management, pain
management, and sialorea management.
4. What is the average survival time after the diagnosis of MND?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years
e) 5 years
Answer: c) 3 years
Explanation: The average survival time after the diagnosis of MND is around 3 years (24-50 months).
However, some patients may survive up to 5 years (19-25% of cases) or even 10 years (10% of cases).
The prognosis depends on various factors such as age at onset, type of MND, and severity of
symptoms at diagnosis.
5. What is the treatment for sialorea in MND?
a) Baklofen
b) Tizanidin
c) Amitriptilin
d) Toksin botulinum
e) All of the above
Answer: d) Toksin botulinum
Explanation: Sialorea (excessive drooling) is a common symptom in MND. The treatment options
include anti-cholinergic drugs (such as amitriptilin, glikopironium bromid, and oksibutinin) and injection
of tokisin botulinum into the salivary glands.
1. What is the age range for patients with a survival rate of up to 5 years in radiculopathy?
A. 24-50 months
B. 60-80 years
C. 10-15 years
D. 5-10 years
E. None of the above
Answer: A. 24-50 months.
Explanation: The content states that 19-25% of patients have a survival rate of up to 5 years, which
falls within the age range of 24-50 months.
2. Which of the following is NOT a poor prognostic factor for radiculopathy?
A. Onset at an older age (>60 years)
B. First onset involving the bulbar region
C. Female gender
D. Short time interval
E. All of the above are poor prognostic factors
Answer: B. First onset involving the bulbar region.
Explanation: The content states that onset at an older age, female gender, and short time interval are
poor prognostic factors, but there is no mention of first onset involving the bulbar region.
3. Which of the following is NOT a physical examination test for radiculopathy?
A. Lhermitte's test
B. Spruling's test
C. Laseque and Bragard's test
D. Kernig's test
E. All of the above are physical examination tests for radiculopathy
Answer: D. Kernig's test.
Explanation: The content lists Lhermitte's test, Spruling's test, and Laseque and Bragard's test as
physical examination tests for radiculopathy, but there is no mention of Kernig's test.
4. What is the recommended treatment for acute cervical radiculopathy?

A. Physical therapy
B. Epidural steroid injection
C. Selective nerve root block
D. Prednisone 60-80 mg per day for 5-7 days
E. None of the above
Answer: D. Prednisone 60-80 mg per day for 5-7 days.
Explanation: The content states that prednisone is the recommended treatment for acute cervical
radiculopathy.
5. When is surgical management recommended for spinal cervical disorders?
A. Definite neurological deficits
B. Refractory pain
C. Structural lesion corresponding to clinical symptoms
D. Myelopathy
E. All of the above
Answer: E. All of the above.
Explanation: The content states that surgical management is recommended for spinal cervical
disorders when there are definite neurological deficits, refractory pain, a structural lesion corresponding
to clinical symptoms, and myelopathy.
1. What is laminotomi?
a) A surgical procedure to remove a herniated disc in the thoracic region
b) A surgical procedure to decompress the spinal cord
c) A conservative therapy for spinal cord compression
d) A type of nerve damage
Answer: b) A surgical procedure to decompress the spinal cord
Explanation: Laminotomi is a surgical procedure used to remove a portion of the vertebral bone called
the lamina to relieve pressure on the spinal cord.
2. What is pleksopati?
a) A type of nerve damage caused by a direct injury to the nerve tissue
b) A surgical procedure to remove a herniated disc in the lumbar region
d) A type of muscle weakness in the upper extremities
Answer: a) A type of nerve damage caused by a direct injury to the nerve tissue
Explanation: Pleksopati is a condition caused by a direct injury to the nerve tissue, ranging from the
nerve roots to the terminal nerves. It can cause motor, sensory, and autonomic abnormalities in the
affected area.
3. What are the symptoms of pleksopati?
a) Unilateral symptoms
b) Motor abnormalities
c) Sensory abnormalities
d) Autonomic abnormalities
e) All of the above
Answer: e) All of the above
Explanation: Pleksopati can cause a range of symptoms, including unilateral symptoms, motor
abnormalities, sensory abnormalities, and autonomic abnormalities. The specific symptoms depend on
the location and severity of the nerve damage.
4. What is pleksus brakialis?
a) A type of nerve damage caused by a direct injury to the nerve tissue in the upper extremities
b) A surgical procedure to remove a herniated disc in the cervical region
d) A type of muscle weakness in the upper extremities
Answer: a) A type of nerve damage caused by a direct injury to the nerve tissue in the upper extremities
Explanation: Pleksus brakialis is a network of nerves that originates from the spinal cord in the cervical
region and supplies the upper extremities. Damage to this network of nerves can cause a range of
symptoms, including muscle weakness and sensory abnormalities.
5. What is the deformitas waiters associated with pleksus brakialis?
a) Weakness in the rotator cuff muscles
b) Weakness in the flexor muscles of the arm
c) Weakness in the extensor muscles of the arm
d) Weakness in the muscles of the hand
Answer: c) Weakness in the extensor muscles of the arm
Explanation: Deformitas waiters is a specific type of muscle weakness associated with pleksus
brakialis. It causes weakness in the extensor muscles of the arm, including the rotator cuff muscles and
the muscles that extend the arm and wrist.
1. What is the Waiter's Tip position?
a) Abduction of the leg and external rotation of the hip
b) Abduction of the arm, internal rotation of the shoulder, pronation, and wrist flexion
c) Flexion of the leg and external rotation of the hip
d) Flexion of the arm, external rotation of the shoulder, supination, and wrist extension
Answer: b) Abduction of the arm, internal rotation of the shoulder, pronation, and wrist flexion
Explanation: The Waiter's Tip position is a specific position of the arm that occurs due to a lesion in the
brachial plexus. It is characterized by abduction of the arm, internal rotation of the shoulder, pronation,
and wrist flexion.
2. What is the main symptom of the Klumpke paralysis syndrome?
a) Weakness in the lower leg muscles
b) Weakness in the upper arm muscles
c) Weakness in the hand muscles
d) Weakness in the neck muscles
Answer: c) Weakness in the hand muscles

Explanation: The Klumpke paralysis syndrome is a condition that affects the lower brachial plexus. It is
characterized by weakness in the hand muscles, which can lead to a clawhand deformity.
3. What is the main symptom of the Erb-Duchenne syndrome?
Answer: b) Weakness in the upper arm muscles
Explanation: The Erb-Duchenne syndrome is a condition that affects the upper brachial plexus. It is
characterized by weakness in the upper arm muscles, which can lead to difficulty with arm and hand
movements.
4. What is the main symptom of the Pleksopati Infraklavikular?
Answer: b) Weakness in the upper arm muscles
Explanation: The Pleksopati Infraklavikular is a condition that affects the lower brachial plexus. It is
characterized by weakness in the upper arm muscles, which can lead to difficulty with arm and hand
movements.
1. What is the main symptom of Pleksopati Infraklavikular?
a) Weakness in hip flexion, knee extension, and upper limb abduction
b) Sensory disturbance in the lower abdomen, inguinal, medial, lateral, and anterior upper limbs, as
well as the medial lower limb
c) Decreased or absent patellar reflex
d) Weakness in hip extensor, hip abductor, knee flexor, plantar flexor, and ankle dorsiflexor
e) Sensory disturbance in the posterior upper limb, anterolateral and posterior lower limb, as well as
almost the entire foot
Answer: b) Sensory disturbance in the lower abdomen, inguinal, medial, lateral, and anterior upper
limbs, as well as the medial lower limb. Explanation: Pleksopati Infraklavikular is characterized by
sensory disturbance in the lower abdomen, inguinal, medial, lateral, and anterior upper limbs, as well
as the medial lower limb.
2. What is the main symptom of Lesi Fasikulus Lateral?
a) Weakness in hip flexion, knee extension, and upper limb abduction
b) Sensory disturbance in the lower abdomen, inguinal, medial, lateral, and anterior upper limbs, as
well as the medial lower limb
c) Decreased or absent patellar reflex
d) Weakness in hip extensor, hip abductor, knee flexor, plantar flexor, and ankle dorsiflexor
e) Sensory disturbance in the posterior upper limb, anterolateral and posterior lower limb, as well as
almost the entire foot
Answer: a) Weakness in hip flexion, knee extension, and upper limb abduction. Explanation: Lesi
Fasikulus Lateral is characterized by weakness in hip flexion, knee extension, and upper limb
abduction.
3. What is the main treatment for Pleksopati?
a) Surgery to restore anatomy and function of the plexus
b) Antibiotics and abscess drainage for Pleksopati caused by abscess
c) Radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery for neoplastic Pleksopati
d) Medications such as steroids, non-steroids, and neuropathic pain relievers
e) Physiotherapy such as workout, TENS, NMES, ultrasound, or diathermy
Answer: d) Medications such as steroids, non-steroids, and neuropathic pain relievers. Explanation:
The acute phase of Pleksopati is treated with rest, cold compression, compression, elevation of the
extremities, and medication such as steroids, non-steroids, and neuropathic pain relievers. The
subacute or chronic phase is treated with medication and physiotherapy. Surgery is only performed to
restore the anatomy and function of the plexus, and the treatment should be tailored to the etiology of
the Pleksopati.
1. What is the treatment for Pleksopati neoplastik?
a) Drainase abses and antibiotic
b) Radioterapi, kemoterapi, and pembedahan

c) Neuropati toksik
d) Multipleks demielinasi
e) Degenerasi aksonal
Answer: b) Radioterapi, kemoterapi, and pembedahan.
Explanation: Pleksopati neoplastik is treated with a combination of radiation therapy, chemotherapy,

and surgery.
2. Which type of neuropathy affects all three types of nerves?
a) Mononeuropati
b) Polineuropati
c) Neuropati DM
d) GBS
e) Neuropati toksik
Answer: b) Polineuropati.
Explanation: Polineuropati affects all three types of nerves - motor, sensory, and autonomic.
3. What is the treatment for Pleksopati akibat abses?
a) Radioterapi, kemoterapi, and pembedahan
b) Multipleks demielinasi
c) Drainase abses and antibiotic
d) Degenerasi aksonal
e) Neuropati toksik
Answer: c) Drainase abses and antibiotic.
Explanation: Pleksopati akibat abses is treated with drainage of the abscess and antibiotics.
4. Which type of neuropathy affects only one type of nerve?
a) Mononeuropati
b) Polineuropati
c) Neuropati DM
d) GBS
e) Neuropati toksik
Answer: a) Mononeuropati.
Explanation: Mononeuropati affects only one type of nerve - either motor, sensory, or autonomic.
5. What is the difference between Neuropraxia and Axonotmesis?
a) Neuropraxia involves demyelination while Axonotmesis involves axon damage.
b) Neuropraxia involves axon damage while Axonotmesis involves demyelination.
c) Neuropraxia involves complete nerve damage while Axonotmesis involves partial nerve damage.
d) Neuropraxia involves segmental demyelination while Axonotmesis involves focal demyelination.
e) Neuropraxia involves nerve regeneration while Axonotmesis does not.
Answer: a) Neuropraxia involves demyelination while Axonotmesis involves axon damage.
Explanation: Neuropraxia involves temporary demyelination of a nerve while Axonotmesis involves

damage to the axon but the epineurium remains intact.
1. Which type of neuropathy involves damage to only one nerve?
a. Neuropati motorik sensorik
b. Neuropati otonomik
c. Mononeuritis multipleks
d. Polineuropati
e. Neuropati sensorik predominan
Answer: c. Mononeuritis multipleks
Explanation: Mononeuritis multipleks is a type of neuropathy that involves damage to two or more
nerves in a specific area of the body.
2. Which type of neuropathy is characterized by sudden onset and slow recovery?
a. Neuropati motorik predominan
b. Neuropati sensorik predominan
c. Neuropati otonomik
d. Acute neuropathy
e. Subacute neuropathy
Answer: d. Acute neuropathy
Explanation: Acute neuropathy is characterized by sudden onset of symptoms that develop rapidly and
recover slowly. Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) is an example of acute neuropathy.
3. Which type of neuropathy involves weakness in distal muscles?
d. Neuropati medianus
e. Neuropati ulnar
Answer: a. Neuropati motorik predominan
Explanation: Neuropati motorik predominan is a type of neuropathy that involves weakness in distal
muscles. It is characterized by decreased or absent reflexes and fasciculations.
4. Which type of neuropathy involves damage to multiple nerves in all extremities?
d. Polineuropati
e. Neuropati ulnar
Answer: d. Polineuropati
Explanation: Polineuropati is a type of neuropathy that involves damage to multiple nerves in all
extremities. It is characterized by a "glove and stocking" distribution of symptoms.
5. Which type of neuropathy is caused by drug toxicity?
d. Neuropati multifokal
e. Neuropati metabolik & toksik
Answer: e. Neuropati metabolik & toksik

Explanation: Neuropati metabolik & toksik is a type of neuropathy that is caused by metabolic or toxic
factors, such as drug toxicity. Thalidomide is an example of a drug that can cause neuropathy.
1. What is neuropathy?
a) A condition that affects the blood vessels
b) A condition that affects the nerves
c) A condition that affects the muscles
d) A condition that affects the bones
e) A condition that affects the skin
Answer: b) A condition that affects the nerves.
Explanation: Neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves, causing damage or dysfunction. It can
be caused by various factors such as metabolic and toxic factors, trauma, ischemia, and inflammation.
2. What is the most common cause of sensory neuropathy?
a) GBS
b) Trauma
c) Ischemia
d) Toxicity
e) Metabolic factors
Answer: e) Metabolic factors.
Explanation: Sensory neuropathy can be caused by various factors such as GBS, trauma, ischemia,
toxicity, and metabolic factors. However, metabolic factors are the most common cause of sensory
neuropathy.
3. What is Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
a) A condition that affects the blood vessels in the hand
b) A condition that affects the muscles in the hand
c) A condition that affects the bones in the hand
d) A condition that affects the nerves in the hand
e) A condition that affects the skin in the hand

Answer: d) A condition that affects the nerves in the hand.
Explanation: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is a condition that affects the median nerve in the hand, causing
numbness, tingling, and weakness in the hand and wrist. It is caused by compression of the median
nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel in the wrist.
4. What is the most common symptom of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
a) Pain
b) Numbness
c) Weakness
d) Tingling
e) Itching
Answer: b) Numbness.
Explanation: The most common symptom of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is numbness in the hand and
wrist, especially at night. Other symptoms may include tingling, weakness, and pain.
5. What is the Tinel test used for?
a) To diagnose Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
b) To diagnose neuropathy
c) To diagnose vaskulitis
d) To diagnose DM
e) To diagnose multifokal neuropati
Answer: a) To diagnose Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.
Explanation: The Tinel test is a diagnostic test used to diagnose Carpal Tunnel Syndrome. It involves
tapping on the median nerve in the wrist to see if it causes tingling or numbness in the hand and
fingers.
1. What is the main symptom of a radial nerve lesion at the spiral groove?
a) Claw hand
b) Drop hand
c) Weakness in wrist flexion
d) Weakness in finger extension

e) Pain in the medial elbow
Answer: b) Drop hand. A radial nerve lesion at the spiral groove can cause weakness in wrist and finger
extension, leading to a drop hand.
2. What is the main symptom of a posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) lesion?
a) Claw hand
b) Drop hand
e) Weakness in finger abduction
Answer: d) Weakness in finger extension. A PIN lesion can cause weakness in finger extension,
leading to difficulty in performing tasks such as gripping and holding objects.
3. Which nerve is responsible for the claw hand deformity?
a) Radial nerve
b) Median nerve
c) Ulnar nerve
d) Brachial plexus
e) Femoral nerve
Answer: c) Ulnar nerve. A lesion of the ulnar nerve can cause a claw hand deformity, which is
characterized by hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion of the interphalangeal
joints.
4. What is the main symptom of a wrist drop above the spiral groove?
a) Claw hand
b) Drop hand
e) Weakness in finger abduction
Answer: b) Drop hand. A wrist drop above the spiral groove can cause weakness in wrist and finger
extension, leading to a drop hand.
5. Which nerve is responsible for the symptoms of pain and paresthesia in the medial elbow and fourth
and fifth fingers?
a) Radial nerve
b) Median nerve
c) Ulnar nerve
d) Brachial plexus
e) Femoral nerve
Answer: c) Ulnar nerve. A lesion of the ulnar nerve can cause pain and paresthesia in the medial elbow
and fourth and fifth fingers, as well as weakness and atrophy of the muscles of the hand.
1. Which of the following is NOT a sign associated with claw hand?
a) Froment's sign
b) Wartenberg's sign
c) Benediction sign
d) Jeanne's sign
e) All of the above are associated with claw hand
Answer: d) Jeanne's sign is not associated with claw hand.
Explanation: Claw hand is a deformity of the hand where the fingers are flexed at the MCP joint and
extended at the PIP and DIP joints. Froment's sign and Wartenberg's sign are both associated with
claw hand. Benediction sign is also associated with claw hand and is characterized by the inability to
flex the fingers at the MCP joint.
2. What is Wartenberg's sign?
a) Inability to flex the fingers at the MCP joint
b) Inability to extend the fingers at the MCP joint
c) Inability to abduct the fifth finger
d) Inability to adduct the fifth finger
e) Inability to extend the wrist
Answer: c) Inability to abduct the fifth finger
Explanation: Wartenberg's sign is a clinical sign where the fifth finger is abducted and cannot be
adducted due to paralysis of the dorsal interossei muscles. This sign is often seen in patients with ulnar
nerve palsy.
3. What is Froment's sign?
a) Inability to flex the fingers at the MCP joint
b) Inability to extend the fingers at the MCP joint
c) Inability to abduct the fifth finger
d) Inability to adduct the thumb
e) Inability to extend the wrist
Answer: d) Inability to adduct the thumb
Explanation: Froment's sign is a clinical sign where the patient compensates for weakness of the
adductor pollicis muscle by flexing the IP joint of the thumb when asked to hold a piece of paper
between the thumb and index finger. This sign is often seen in patients with ulnar nerve palsy.
1. What is Atrofi Hipotenar?
a) A condition that affects the muscles of the hand
b) A condition that affects the muscles of the foot
c) A condition that affects the muscles of the hip
d) A condition that affects the muscles of the shoulder
Answer: a) A condition that affects the muscles of the hand. Atrofi Hipotenar is a condition that affects
the muscles in the hypothenar eminence of the hand, which is the area of the palm that is located on
the side of the little finger.
2. What is Wartenberg's Sign?
a) A sign of Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome
b) A sign of Atrofi Hipotenar
c) A sign of Radikulopati
d) A sign of Drop Foot
Answer: b) A sign of Atrofi Hipotenar. Wartenberg's Sign is a physical exam finding that is used to
diagnose Atrofi Hipotenar. It is characterized by the inability to adduct the fifth finger, which results in
the finger being abducted and held away from the other fingers.
3. What is Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome?

Answer: b) A condition that affects the muscles of the foot. Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome is a condition that
is caused by compression of the tibial nerve as it passes through the tarsal tunnel, which is located on
the inside of the ankle.
4. What are the clinical manifestations of Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome?
a) Numbness in the heel, arch, and medial malleolus
b) Worsening of symptoms at night and with weight gain
c) Tingling in the sole of the foot
d) Tinel's sign (+)
e) All of the above
Answer: e) All of the above. The clinical manifestations of Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome include numbness
in the heel, arch, and medial malleolus, worsening of symptoms at night and with weight gain, tingling in
the sole of the foot, and a positive Tinel's sign.
5. What is Drop Foot?
Answer: b) A condition that affects the muscles of the foot. Drop Foot is a condition that is
characterized by the inability to dorsiflex or extend the toes, which results in the foot dragging on the
ground when walking. It is caused by a weakness in the muscles that lift the foot.
1. Which nerve is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot?
a) P. Lumbal
b) P. Sakral
c) Ischiadikus
d) Peroneus
e) Adduksi femur
Answer: d) Peroneus. The Peroneus nerve is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot.
2. Which nerve is responsible for plantarflexion of the foot?
a) P. Lumbal
b) P. Sakral
c) Ischiadikus
d) Peroneus
e) Adduksi femur
Answer: e) Adduksi femur. The Adduksi femur nerve is responsible for plantarflexion of the foot.
3. Which nerve is responsible for sensation in the lateral and posterior aspects of the lower leg?
a) P. Lumbal
b) P. Sakral
c) Ischiadikus
d) Peroneus
e) Adduksi femur
Answer: c) Ischiadikus. The Ischiadikus nerve is responsible for sensation in the lateral and posterior
aspects of the lower leg.
4. Which syndrome is characterized by degeneration of axonal sensory and motor nerve fibers with little
demyelination?
a) AMSAN
b) AMAN
c) Miller Fisher Syndrome
d) AIDP
e) Guillain Barre Syndrome

Answer: a) AMSAN. AMSAN is characterized by degeneration of axonal sensory and motor nerve
fibers with little demyelination.
5. Which syndrome is characterized by dysfunction of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous

system resulting in postural hypotension, urinary and bowel retention, anhidrosis, and decreased
reflexes?
a) AMSAN
b) AMAN
c) Miller Fisher Syndrome
d) AIDP
e) Guillain Barre Syndrome
Answer: e) Guillain Barre Syndrome. Guillain Barre Syndrome is characterized by dysfunction of the
sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system resulting in postural hypotension, urinary and bowel
retention, anhidrosis, and decreased reflexes.
1. Which of the following conditions can cause postural hypotension, urinary and gastrointestinal
retention, anhidrosis, decreased salivation and lacrimation, and abnormal pupil?
a) Acute pandys autonomia
b) Neuromuscular junction
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
e) Congenital myasthenic syndromes
Answer: a) Acute pandys autonomia. This condition affects the autonomic nervous system and can
cause a range of symptoms including those listed in the question.
2. Which of the following tests is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis?
a) Tensilon test
b) Ice pack test
c) Wartenberg test
d) Pump handle test
e) Prostigmin test
Answer: a) Tensilon test. This test involves injecting a drug called edrophonium (also known as
Tensilon) and observing the patient's response. If the patient's muscle weakness improves, it is a sign
of myasthenia gravis.
3. Which of the following is NOT a classification of myopathy?
a) Dystrophies
b) Myotonia
c) Congenital myopathies
d) Familial periodic paralysis
e) Inflammatory neuropathies
Answer: e) Inflammatory neuropathies. Myopathy refers to diseases that affect the muscles
themselves, while neuropathies affect the nerves that control the muscles.
4. Which of the following is a hereditary myopathy?
a) Drug-induced myopathy
b) Alcoholic myopathy
c) Dermatomyositis
d) Congenital myopathies
e) Rhabdomyolysis
Answer: d) Congenital myopathies. These are a group of genetic disorders that affect the muscles and
are present from birth.
5. Which of the following factors is NOT used to classify myopathy?
a) Distribution of affected muscles
b) Age of onset
c) Gender
d) Enzyme CK levels
e) Perceived speed of disease progression
Answer: c) Gender. While some myopathies may affect one gender more than the other, it is not
typically used as a classification factor.
1. Which type of muscular dystrophy affects the extraocular muscles and the pharyngeal muscles?
a) Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
b) Myotonic dystrophy 1
c) Oculopharyngeal muscular dystrophy (OPMD)
d) Laminopathy
e) Pompe Disease
Answer: c) Oculopharyngeal muscular dystrophy (OPMD)
Explanation: OPMD is a type of muscular dystrophy that affects the extraocular muscles and the
pharyngeal muscles. It is caused by the accumulation of abnormal proteins in the muscle cells.
2. Which type of muscular dystrophy primarily affects the temporalis muscle?
d) Laminopathy
e) Pompe Disease
Answer: c) Oculopharyngeal muscular dystrophy (OPMD)
Explanation: OPMD primarily affects the temporalis muscle, which is responsible for jaw movement.
3. Which type of muscular dystrophy affects the periscapular muscles and is also known as LGMD 1B?
d) Laminopathy (LGMD 1B), Calpainopathy (LGMD 2A), sarcoglynopathies (LGMD 2C-F)
e) Pompe Disease
Answer: d) Laminopathy (LGMD 1B), Calpainopathy (LGMD 2A), sarcoglynopathies (LGMD 2C-F)
Explanation: LGMD 1B is also known as Laminopathy and affects the periscapular muscles.
Calpainopathy (LGMD 2A) and sarcoglynopathies (LGMD 2C-F) are other types of LGMD that affect
different muscle groups.
4. Which type of muscular dystrophy affects the distal muscles?
a) Myotonic dystrophy 1
b) Inclusion body myositis (IBM)

c) Dysferlinopathies
d) Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
e) Miositis Fokal
Answer: a) Myotonic dystrophy 1
Explanation: Myotonic dystrophy 1 primarily affects the distal muscles, which are the muscles farthest
from the center of the body.
5. Which type of muscular dystrophy has an onset at birth?
a) Central core disease
c) Congenital fiber-type disproportion
d) Distrofi muskular distrofi
e) Distrofi miotonik kongenital
Answer: c) Congenital fiber-type disproportion
Explanation: Congenital fiber-type disproportion is a type of muscular dystrophy that has an onset at
birth. It is characterized by muscle weakness and poor muscle tone.
uskular Duchenne Aktivitas fisik yang berlebihan
1. Which disease is related to glycogen storage?
a) Congenital myopathy
b) Endocrine metabolic disorder
c) Mitochondrial myopathy
d) Lipid storage disease
e) Muscular dystrophy
Answer: d) Lipid storage disease. Explanation: Diseases related to glycogen storage are not mentioned
in the given options.
2. Which myopathies are related to childhood onset?
a) Sentronuclear myopathy
b) Endocrine myopathy
c) Inflammatory myopathy
d) Mitochondrial myopathy
e) Muscular dystrophy
Answer: a) Sentronuclear myopathy, b) Nemaline myopathy, Sentronuclear myopathy, Central core

myopathy. Explanation: These myopathies are related to childhood onset as mentioned in the given
content.
3. Which disease is related to hypokalemia?
b) Endocrine metabolic disorder
c) Inflammatory myopathy
d) Mitochondrial myopathy
e) Lipid storage disease
Answer: b) Endocrine metabolic disorder. Explanation: Hypokalemia is a symptom of endocrine

metabolic disorders as mentioned in the given content.
4. Which myopathies are related to adult onset?
a) Sentronuclear myopathy
b) Distal myopathy
c) Endocrine myopathy
d) Inflammatory myopathy
e) Mitochondrial myopathy
Answer: b) Distal myopathy, c) Endocrine myopathy, d) Inflammatory myopathy, e) Metabolic

myopathy. Explanation: These myopathies are related to adult onset as mentioned in the given content.
5. What is the trigger for myotonia congenita type Becker?
a) Cold temperature
b) Excessive physical activity
c) Stress
d) Injection of local anesthetics

Answer: b) Excessive physical activity. Explanation: The trigger for myotonia congenita type Becker is
excessive physical activity as mentioned in the given content.
1. Which type of myotonia is exacerbated by cold temperatures?
A. Congenital myotonia type Becker
B. Dystrophia myotonica type 1
C. Dystrophia myotonica type 2
D. Paramyotonia
E. Periodic paralysis
Answer: D. Paramyotonia. This type of myotonia is worsened by cold temperatures.
2. Which myopathy is caused by a deficiency in carnitine palmitoyltransferase?
A. Dystrophia myotonica type 1
B. Dystrophia myotonica type 2
C. Paramyotonia
D. Miopathy due to glycolysis pathway defect
E. Miopathy due to mitochondrial dysfunction
Answer: E. Miopathy due to mitochondrial dysfunction. This myopathy is caused by a deficiency in

carnitine palmitoyltransferase.
3. Which myopathy is characterized by frontal balding?
A. Dystrophia myotonica
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Andersen-Tawil syndrome
D. Kearns-Sayre syndrome
E. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy type 1B
Answer: A. Dystrophia myotonica. This myopathy is characterized by frontal balding.
4. Which myopathy is associated with congestive heart failure?
B. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy type 2A

C. Miopathy due to acid maltase deficiency
D. Miopathy due to debrancher deficiency
E. Miopathy due to inflammatory myopathy
Answer: C. Miopathy due to acid maltase deficiency. This myopathy is associated with congestive heart
failure.
5. Which myopathy is characterized by respiratory insufficiency?
B. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy type 2I
C. Miopathy due to acid maltase deficiency
D. Miopathy due to mitochondrial dysfunction
E. Congenital myopathy
Answer: A. Dystrophia myotonica. This myopathy is one of the causes of respiratory insufficiency.
1. Which of the following conditions is NOT a type of myopathy?
a) Acid maltase deficiency
b) Debrancher deficiency
c) Diabetes
d) Nemaline myopathy
e) Polymyositis
Answer: c) Diabetes. Explanation: Myopathy refers to any disease or disorder that affects the muscles.
Acid maltase deficiency, debrancher deficiency, nemaline myopathy, and polymyositis are all types of
myopathy.
2. Which type of myopathy is associated with mitochondrial dysfunction?
b) Inflammatory myopathy
d) Muscular dystrophy
e) Nemaline myopathy
Answer: c) Mitochondrial myopathy. Explanation: Mitochondrial myopathy is a type of myopathy that is
caused by dysfunction in the mitochondria, which are responsible for producing energy in cells.
3. Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormal collagen in the muscles?
a) Bethlem myopathy
b) Dermatomyositis
c) Emery-Dreifuss dystrophy
d) Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy type 1B
e) Myopathy with collagen abnormalities type VI
Answer: e) Myopathy with collagen abnormalities type VI. Explanation: Myopathy with collagen
abnormalities type VI is a rare type of myopathy that is characterized by abnormal collagen in the
muscles.
4. Which type of myopathy is associated with cherry red spot in the retina?
b) Inflammatory myopathy
d) Muscular dystrophy
e) Nemaline myopathy
Answer: c) Mitochondrial myopathy. Explanation: Cherry red spot in the retina is a characteristic feature
of mitochondrial myopathy.
5. Which of the following conditions is NOT a type of muscular dystrophy?
a) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b) Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy type 1B
c) Miotonic dystrophy
d) Nemaline myopathy
e) Bethlem myopathy
Answer: d) Nemaline myopathy. Explanation: Nemaline myopathy is a type of myopathy, not a type of
muscular dystrophy. Duchenne muscular dystrophy, limb-girdle muscular dystrophy type 1B, myotonic
dystrophy, and Bethlem myopathy are all types of muscular dystrophy.
1. Which of the following conditions is associated with contractures at the onset of myopathy?
a) Emery-Dreifuss dystrophy
b) Abnormalities in collagen VI
c) Bethlem myopathy
d) LGMD 1B (laminopathy)
Answer: a) Emery-Dreifuss dystrophy.
Explanation: Contractures are a common feature of Emery-Dreifuss dystrophy, which is a type of

myopathy.
2. Which of the following conditions can cause diffuse systemic myopathy?
a) Amyloidosis
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Endocrine disorders
d) Vascular collagen disorders
e) All of the above
Answer: e) All of the above.
Explanation: Various systemic disorders can cause diffuse myopathy, including amyloidosis,
sarcoidosis, endocrine disorders, vascular collagen disorders, infections, and mitochondrial disorders.
3. Which of the following drugs can cause toxic myopathy?
a) Cimetidine
b) D-Penicillamine
c) Procanamide
d) L-Tryptophan
e) All of the above
Explanation: Various drugs can cause toxic myopathy, including cimetidine, D-penicillamine,
procanamide, L-tryptophan, L-dopa, alcohol, cholesterol-lowering drugs, chloroquine, colchicine,
cyclosporine, tacrolimus, emetine, aminocaproic acid, isotretinoin, labetalol, and vincristine.
4. Which of the following drugs can cause rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria?

a) Alcohol
b) Amphetamines
c) Cholesterol-lowering drugs
d) Cocaine
e) All of the above
Explanation: Various drugs can cause rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria, including alcohol,
amphetamines, cholesterol-lowering drugs, cocaine, heroin, and toluene.
5. Which of the following conditions is associated with loss of myosin?
a) Neuromuscular blocking drugs
b) Steroids
c) Alcohol
d) Cholesterol-lowering drugs
Answer: a) Neuromuscular blocking drugs.
Explanation: Neuromuscular blocking drugs can cause loss of myosin, which is a type of protein found
in muscle fibers.
6. Which of the following myopathies is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern?
a) LGMD type 1
b) Myotonic dystrophy type I and II
c) OPMD
d) FSH
e) Mitochondrial myopathy
Answer: a) LGMD type 1.
Explanation: LGMD type 1 is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, as are myotonic dystrophy
type I and II, OPMD, and FSH.
7. Which of the following myopathies is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern?
a) LGMD type II
b) Metabolic myopathy
d) Both a and b
e) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both a and b.
Explanation: LGMD type II and metabolic myopathy are inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.
8. Which of the following myopathies is associated with X-linked inheritance?
a) Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy
b) Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b.
Explanation: Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy and Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy are
both associated with X-linked inheritance.
9. Which ethnic group is most commonly affected by OPMD?
a) African Americans
b) Asian Americans
c) Hispanic Americans
d) Native Americans
e) Canadian-French and Hispanic ethnic groups
Answer: e) Canadian-French and Hispanic ethnic groups.
Explanation: OPMD is most commonly found in the Canadian-French and Hispanic ethnic groups.
1. Which type of muscular dystrophy is characterized by the Gower's sign and waddling gait?
a) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
b) Becker Muscular Dystrophy
c) Congenital Muscular Dystrophies

d) Fascioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy (FSH)
e) Limb-Girdle Muscular Dystrophy
Answer: a) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy. Explanation: Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is

characterized by the Gower's sign, which is the use of hands to push oneself up from a squatting
position due to weak hip and thigh muscles, and a waddling gait due to weak pelvic muscles.
2. Which type of muscular dystrophy is characterized by pseudo-hypertrophy of the calf muscles?
Answer: b) Becker Muscular Dystrophy. Explanation: Becker Muscular Dystrophy is characterized by

the gradual onset of muscle weakness, with pseudo-hypertrophy of the calf muscles due to the
replacement of muscle tissue with fat and connective tissue.
3. Which type of muscular dystrophy is characterized by weakness in the facial and shoulder muscles?
Answer: d) Fascioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy (FSH). Explanation: FSH is characterized by

weakness in the facial and shoulder muscles, which can lead to difficulty in raising the arms and closing
the eyes.
4. Which type of muscular dystrophy is caused by a defect in the mitochondrial DNA?
e) Transmisi Maternal Miopati Mitokondria

Answer: e) Transmisi Maternal Miopati Mitokondria. Explanation: Transmisi Maternal Miopati
Mitokondria is a type of muscular dystrophy caused by a defect in the mitochondrial DNA, which is
inherited from the mother.
5. Which type of muscular dystrophy is more common in the Canadian-French and Hispanic
populations of the southwestern United States?
e) OPMD pada etnik kanada-perancis dan hispanik dari amerika barat daya
Answer: e) OPMD pada etnik kanada-perancis dan hispanik dari amerika barat daya. Explanation:
OPMD (Oculopharyngeal Muscular Dystrophy) is more common in the Canadian-French and Hispanic
populations of the southwestern United States.
1. Which type of muscular dystrophy is characterized by weakness in the pelvic and shoulder muscles?
a) Pseudohipertrofi
c) Fascioscapulohumeral
d) Muscular Dystrophy (FSH)
Answer: c) Fascioscapulohumeral
Explanation: Fascioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects the muscles
of the face, shoulders, and upper arms. It is characterized by weakness in the pelvic and shoulder
muscles, which can lead to difficulty lifting objects or raising the arms above the head.
2. Which type of muscular dystrophy is characterized by muscle weakness and wasting, particularly in
the legs and pelvis?
a) Pseudohipertrofi

Answer: a) Pseudohipertrofi
Explanation: Pseudohipertrofi muscular dystrophy, also known as Duchenne muscular dystrophy, is a

genetic disorder that primarily affects boys. It is characterized by muscle weakness and wasting,
particularly in the legs and pelvis, which can lead to difficulty walking and standing.
3. Which type of muscular dystrophy is characterized by muscle weakness and wasting, particularly in
the legs and pelvis, but also affects the heart and lungs?
a) Pseudohipertrofi
Answer: b) Becker Muscular Dystrophy
Explanation: Becker muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that primarily affects boys. It is
characterized by muscle weakness and wasting, particularly in the legs and pelvis, but can also affect
the heart and lungs. It is similar to Duchenne muscular dystrophy, but the symptoms are milder and
progress more slowly.
4. Which type of muscular dystrophy is characterized by weakness and wasting of the muscles in the
face, shoulders, and upper arms?
a) Pseudohipertrofi
Answer: d) Muscular Dystrophy (FSH)
Explanation: Muscular dystrophy (FSH), also known as facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy, is a

genetic disorder that affects the muscles of the face, shoulders, and upper arms. It is characterized by
weakness and wasting of these muscles, which can lead to difficulty lifting objects or raising the arms
above the head.
5. Which type of muscular dystrophy is characterized by weakness and wasting of the muscles in the
hips and shoulders?
a) Pseudohipertrofi

Answer: e) Limb-Girdle Muscular Dystrophy
Explanation: Limb-Girdle muscular dystrophy is a group of genetic disorders that affect the muscles in
the hips and shoulders. It is characterized by weakness and wasting of these muscles, which can lead
to difficulty walking, climbing stairs, or lifting objects.

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1. Which part of the nervous system is affected in Peripheral Nervous System Disorders?

a) Central Nervous System

b) Autonomic Nervous System

c) Somatic Nervous System

d) Sympathetic Nervous System

e) Parasympathetic Nervous System

2. What is the function of the Anterior Root in the nervous system?

a) Afferent sensory fiber

b) Efferent motor fiber

3. What is Motor Neuron Disease?

a) A disease that affects the autonomic nervous system

b) A disease that affects the somatic nervous system

c) A disease that affects the central nervous system

d) A disease that affects the peripheral nervous system

e) A disease that affects the neuromuscular junction

4. What is the cause of Familial Motor Neuron Disease?

e) Excessive glutamate toxicity

5. What is the function of the Neuromuscular Junction?

a) To carry sensory information from the muscles to the spinal cord

b) To carry motor information from the spinal cord to the muscles

c) To regulate the autonomic nervous system

d) To regulate the somatic nervous system

e) To regulate the sympathetic nervous system

1. What is the cause of familial motor neuron disease?

a) Excessive glutamate toxicity

d) Mutation in the SOD1 gene on chromosome 21q22.11

e) Abnormalities in the cytoskeleton

2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of sporadic motor neuron disease?

c) Activation of the inflammatory cascade

d) Mutation in the SOD1 gene

c) PLS is a sporadic disease while PMA is a familial disease

d) PLS is characterized by protein aggregation while PMA is characterized by mitochondrial dysfunction

e) PLS is a bulbar disorder while PMA is a distal limb disorder

4. What is the difference between bulbar palsy and pseudo-bulbar palsy?

b) Bulbar palsy is a bilateral disorder while pseudo-bulbar palsy is a unilateral disorder

c) Bulbar palsy is characterized by spastic paralysis while pseudo-bulbar palsy is characterized by

d) Bulbar palsy affects CN VII-XII while pseudo-bulbar palsy affects CN V-VII

b) Weakness in the limbs

c) Hypertonus in the muscles

d) Atrophy in the muscles

Answer: a) Difficulty in swallowing. This symptom is usually followed by speech impairment.

a) Flaccid muscle weakness

b) Decreased physiological reflexes

c) Hypertonicity in the muscles

d) Atrophy in the muscles

e) Abnormal eye movements

3. Which type of ALS is characterized by pure LMN symptoms?

a) Primary Lateral Sclerosis

b) Pseudo Bulbar Palsy

c) Progresif Muskular Atrophy

d) Progresif Bulbar Palsy

e) None of the above

4. What is the most common symptom of Pseudo Bulbar Palsy?

b) Weakness in the limbs

c) Hypertonus in the muscles

d) Atrophy in the muscles

e) Symmetrical forehead wrinkles

5. What is the main diagnostic criteria for Primary Lateral Sclerosis?

a) Pure UMN symptoms

b) Pure LMN symptoms

c) Flaccid muscle weakness

e) Abnormal eye movements

1. What is the meaning of "kstremitas distal ke proksimal"?