FIRST QUARTER EXAMINATION

MAPEH 8
SY 2022-2023

NAME: _________________________________________ Score: M ___ A___ PE ___ H ___

GRADE AND SECTION: ___________________________ Total Score: _________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Direction: Read and analyze the statements carefully. Write you answer on the space
before each number.

1. What do you call the countries that comprises Vietnam, Cambodia, Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia,
Philippines, Laos, Myanmar, Timor-Leste and Singapore?
A. Central Asia C. South Asia
B. East Asian Countries D. Southeast Asia
2. Which instrument is used in Javanese or Balinese Gamelan?
A. Metallophones C. Bamboo flutes
B. Saung Gauk D. Bowed and plucked strings
3. How would you produce sound using “Khene” of Laos?
A. Blowing B. Plucking C. Bowing D. Hitting
4. Which alternative instrument will you use as “Oneat”?
A. xylophone B. bells C. bass drum D. flute
5. If you will perform a Southeast Asian music, which of the alternative instrument will you use?
A. Violin B. Electric Guitar C. Bamboo Flute D. Piano
6. How do you compare the Southeast Asian Folk songs with each other?
A. In Southeast Asia, the scale is based off of the first note
B. Southeast Asian music only makes use of five types of instruments
C. Southeast Asian scales are based on mathematical formulas, in which the distance
between notes is decided by ratios of pitches
D. In general, Southeast Asian music is based on a pentatonic scale
7. Cambodia is to Pinpeat ensemble while Indonesia has
A. Gamelan B. Kertok C. Piphat D. Pinpeat
8. Which of the following is the characteristic of Javanese Gamelan?
A. Used for sacred music
B. Consist of metallophone and mostly gongs
C. Used for court music
D. Sounds are very bright and brilliant
9. Which ensemble is referred to in the given description?
i. Used for court
ii. Percussion dominated
iii. Style of playing gives solemn character
A. Indonesian gamelan C. Javanese gamelan
B. Balinese gamelan D. gerong
10. Which of the following is the characteristic of folk song?
A. The category is extremely diverse
B. It is performed in honor of the gods and scholars
C. It is performed in religious rituals or at funerals
D. It was performed as chamber music for the king
11. Which of the following instrument is a CHORDOPHONE?
A. Hsaing Waing B. Skorthom C. Ching D. Khene
12. Which song has the lyrics “tredung, tredung, tredung lalala”?
A. Rasa Sayang B. Burung Kakatua C. Arirang D. Sakura
13. The following are the Imperial court music of Vietnam EXCEPT
A. Nha nhac B. Kinh C. Dai Nhac D. Tieu Nhac
14. The following are the musical instruments used in the Pinpeat ensemble EXCEPT
A. Samphor B. Oneat C. Saung Gauk D. Ching
15. How does Khene produces sound?
A. by air C. by vibration of strings
B. by striking its body D. by striking its membrane
16. Which country do Hsaing Waing comes from?
A. Cambodia B. Thailand C. Myanmar D. Vietnam
17. Nha Nhac: Vietnam; Piphat: _________________
A. Cambodia B. Thailand C. Myanmar D. Vietnam
18. Cambodia: Pinpeat; Malaysia: _______________
A. Hsaing Waing B. Nha Nhac C. Piphat D. Agung and Kulintang
19. Which of the following ensemble DOES NOT belong to Thailand ensemble?
A. Piphat B. Khrueng Sai C. Sep Nyai D. Mahori
20. Which country has diverse population and has grew having western-influenced performances?
A. Singapore B. Laos C. Malaysia D. Thailand
21. Which of the following instrument is produces sounds through air?
A. Hsaing Waing B. Ching C. Skorthom D. Khene
22. What classification of instrument does Oneat belongs to?
A. Chordophone B. Idiophone C. Membranophone D. Aerophone
23. Which of the following instruments DOES NOT belong to?
A. Skorthom B. Oneat C. Kongvong D. Ching
24. Which of the following is NOT an idiophone?
A. Oneat B. Ching C. Samphor D. Kongvong
25. Which of the following ensemble is made by idiophone?
A. Javanese Gamelan B. Mahori C. Pinpeat D. Piphat
26. Cambodian textile has employed natural dyes coming from the environmental resources. What is
their resource of yellow and green dye?
A. Insect Nests B. Indigo C. Prohut bark D. Ebony bark
27. What type of batik production in Malaysia that artist uses the canting way?
A. Blockprinted B. Screen printing C. Digital printing D. Handpainted
28. Which of the following is made up of rice paper with a bamboo frame which contains a fuel cell
or small candle?
A. Flying carpet B. Flying lantern C. Wayang kulit D. Wau kite
29. Which is one of the reasons why Thai traditionally launch hot balloon lanterns into the sky?
A. for entertainment C. cast away evils
B. for personal purpose D. sends away misfortune and bad lucks
30. Wau kite in Malay is a uniquely designed Malaysian kite. Farmers used kites as a scarecrow in
the fields and as a means to___________.
A. Keep their children awake C. Lull their children to sleep
B. Scare their children D. Encourage children to work.
31. This is the center of weaving and sericulture of the many Vietnamese fabrics.
A. Takeo B. Khorat C. Kampot D. Ha Dong
32. Which was conceived because the Singapore Tourism board felt the country lacked a distinct
image representing the nation?
A. Ukiran Kasar B. Buddha C. Merlion D. Dong Son
33. What country produces silk from the cocoons of silkworms?
A. Thailand B. Cambodia C. Vietnam D. Laos
34. Silk weaving: Cambodia; Golden thread silk: _____________
A. Indonesia B. Malaysia C. Vietnam D. Thailand
35. Which is a type of puppet shadow play performed around the Indo – Malayan Archipelago?
A. Flying carpet B. flying lantern C. Wayang kulit D. Wau kite
36. Which is mostly worn by Muslim males in formal gatherings like wedding feasts, funerals or
festive occasions?
A. Songkok B. Wood carving C. Stone carving D. Ice carving
37. Which technique in fabric designing is done through covering areas of cloth with a dye –resistant
substance?
A. Resist Technique C. Uneven twill
B. Ikat technique D. Tie and Dye technique
38. Which type of sculpture has been both passion and livelihood for many Cambodian.
A. Bronze carving B. Wood carving C. Stone carving D. Ice carving
39. The following are the famous Vietnamese fabric ranges, EXCEPT one.
A. Shantung Taffeta B. Ebony Satin C. Bengaline weave D. Ikat
40. All are characteristics of silk EXCEPT ONE.
A. It is the strongest natural fiber for its durability.
B. Silk mixes well with other animal and vegetable fiber.
C. Silk has rough surface to resist soil and odor well.
D. Silk takes color well, washes easily, and is easy to work with in spinning, weaving,
knitting, and sewing.
41. Handicraft: Cambodia; Silk painting: _______________.
A. Brunei B. Vietnam C. Indonesia D. Thailand
42. Which is the center of weaving and sericulture of the many Vietnamese fabrics?
A. Takeo B. Khorat C. Kampot D. Ha Dong
43. Which is a kind of silk produced from the cocoons of Silkworm mainly fabricated in Khorat?
A. Cambodia Silk B. Philippine Silk C. Thai Silk D. Vietnam Silk
44. Which is also commonly called as wish lanterns.
A. Sky lantern B. Silk painting C. Merlion D. Wau kite
45. Which refers to a puppet shadow play performed around the Indo-Malayan archipelago, tracing
its origin into India.
A. Wayang Kulit B. Gamelan C. Kertok D. Pinpeat
46. If you are going to make batik designs, what motifs or theme will you use?
A. Flowers and leaves C. Human figures
B. Palaces and temples D. Bamboos and stones
47. If you are going to make a shadow puppet of Indonesia, What material will you use?
A. flowers B. leader skin C. silk D. paper
48. Which is one of the Malaysia's national symbols, some others being the kris and hibiscus?
A. Wau kite B. Silk painting C. Sky lantern D. Wayang kulit
49. Which festival in Thailand is held on the night of the 12th full moon, usually in November?
A. Nyepi Festival C. Loy Krathong Festival
B. Thaipusam Festival D. Boun Bang Fai Festival
50. Which refers to an enormous Buddhist temple located in Cambodia?
A. Angkor Wat B. Dong Noi Cave C. Luneta D. Wat Ph
51. Which refers to the ability of the body to function effectively and efficiently without excessive
fatigue?
A. Exercise B. Health-Related C. Physical Fitness D. Skill-Related
52. What Skill-related physical fitness assessment measures your acceleration and speed?
A. Push- up B. Juggling C. Stick Drop Test D. 40-Meter Sprint
53. Which of the following physical fitness tests assess the endurance of the abdominal muscles?
A. Curl-up B. Juggling C. Sit and Reach D. Zipper Test
54. What component of physical fitness test has developed if Dennis has the ability to move his body
parts through a full range of motion?
A. Agility B. Flexibility C. Sit and reach D. Zipper test
55. Which health-related physical fitness assessment measures the lower back and hamstring?
A. Sit and reach B. Push- up C. Zipper Test D. 40- Meter Sprint.
56. Body mass index determines the total body mass through height and ___________.
A. Arm span B. Fitness C. Sitting height D. Weight
57. Below are the health-related physical fitness assessments EXCEPT one.
 A. Curl- up B. Push- up C. Hexagon test D. Sit and Reach
58. Which is NOT a health-related physical fitness component?
A. Endurance B. Flexibility C. Strength D. Reaction time
59. Which of the following is NOT a skill-related physical fitness component?
A. Agility B. Balance C. Body Composition D. Coordination
60. Below are the skill-related physical fitness component EXCEPT one.
A. Zipper test C. Standing long jump
B. Strick drop test D. Stork balance stand test
61. Identify the FITT Principle that refers to how often you exercise and usually measured by the
number of days each week.
A. Intensity B. Frequency C. Time D. Schedule
62. Which of the principles of training states that the training must be raised to a higher level than
normal?
A. Progression B. Overload C. Specificity D. Variation
63. In developing the cardio-respiratory endurance, which parts of the body are involved to attain
desirable outcome?
A. Heart, hand, feet C. Nose, mouth, digestive organ
B. Heart, lungs, vascular system D. Fingers, intestines, excretory system
64. Muscular endurance is a health-related fitness component. Which of the following can be used as
fitness testing of muscular endurance?
A. Performing cycling in 10 minutes C. Performing sit and reach for 1 min.
B. Performing sit-ups for 1-minute D. Performing one-time bench press
65. Which activity is NOT suited to improve or increase cardiovascular endurance?
A. Aerobic exercise C. Jogging
B. Biking D. Stretching exercise
66. The following are pressure point of the body EXCEPT.
A. Radial B. Temporal C. Femural D. Palm
67. Speed refers to the ability to perform a movement in a short period of time, while, balance is the
ability to ___________.
A. Maintain equilibrium C. Maintain arm strength
B. Maintain healthy diet D. Maintain flexibility
68. Hexagon agility test is a component of skill-related component which measures the ability to
_______.
A. Use the senses and body parts C. Move and change direction quickly
B. Measure running speed D. Measure reaction time
69. What is the skill-related component with the purpose to measure coordination of the senses and
body parts of the body?
A. Stick drop test B. Zipper test C. Juggling D. Stork balance test
70. What is the purpose of performing 90 degrees push up?
A. To measure strength of the upper extremities
B. To measure flexibility of the shoulder girdle
C. To measure explosive strength of leg muscle
D. To measure strength of the abdomen
71. What is the normal beat per minute of a person at rest?
A. 60-90 bpm B. 40-80 bpm C. 90-110 bpm D. 50-70 bpm
72. If weight refers to the lightness or heaviness of a person, height is the _________.
A. Horizontal measurement of the body
B. Sum of height and weight measurement
C. Difference of the visceral fat of the body
D. Vertical distance from the floor to the top of the head
73. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of exercise?
A. It improves body posture C. Reduce the risk osteoporosis
B. It improves blood pressure D. Increases risk of cardio vascular disease and stroke
74. What is the standard height of the step in 3-minute step test for Junior High School?
A. 8 inches B. 10 inches C. 9 inches D. 12 inches
75. What is the test to assess the strength of abdominal muscle?
A. Basic plank B. Pull up C. 90 degrees push up D. Zipper test
76. It is centered on the biological basis of being a male or female.
A. Gender B. Sexuality C. Sex D. Equality
77. Which of the following refers to a set of roles, characteristics, and expectations of how a man or
woman should feel, think and act.
A. Gender B. Gender role C. Gender equality D. Sexuality
78. Which of the following refers to a social-concept on how men and women should think, feel and
act?
A. Gender B. Gender role C. Gender equality D. Sexuality
79. It is your high regard for yourself as a worthwhile person.
A. Self-love B. Self-knowledge C. Self-confidence D. Self-respect
80. Which factor influences your sexual behavior through performing your duties and responsibilities
at home?
A. Self B. Others C. Peers D. Family
81. The following statements are considered in making a good decision EXCEPT one.
A. Accept how your decisions affect you and other
B. Accept personal responsibility of your decision
C. Consider the outcome of each choices
D. Well, everyone commits mistake
82. Rizza realized that she is attracted romantically and physically to her best friend Rhea but at the
same time deeply in love with her boyfriend Greg. What sexual orientation is practiced by Rhea?
A. Bisexual B. Heterosexual C. Homosexual D. Transgender
83. Why it is important to maintain good relationships with others?
A. Because they will support you C. Because they give you confidence
B. Because they provide companionship D. All of these
84. Why is it important to understand human sexuality?
A. We will be all mature adults
B. We have similar sexuality issues
C. There is a specific age for developing one’s sexuality
D. It will help us build a better relationship with ourselves and others.
85. Why is it important to understand human sexuality in dealing with peers?
A. To gain more friends and be popular
B. To find the most beautiful mate
C. To maintain harmony by understanding other’s attitude
D. To show people that you are a good person
86. Which of the following is NOT a healthy attitude that can influence sexual behavior?
A. Communicates effectively with family
B. Provides more food for the family
C. Performs duties and responsibilities at home
D. Able to express love to family members
87. Which of the following situations shows healthy attitudes towards family?
A. A boy keeps on playing computer games while his mother cleans the house.
B. A mother chit-chatting outside with the neighborhood while her children are starving.
C. A girl volunteers to wash the dishes while her father fixes the broken things.
D. A father orders his children to sleep so that he can play cards.
88. Which of the following obeys the rule of respecting both genders in all aspects?
A. A boy questioning a gay for his sexuality.
B. A rich boy treating the girls right but bullies his guy classmates.
C. A child who obeys the order of his mother but not his father’s.
D. A student who mingles with both girls and boys including his gay classmates.
89. Which healthy attitude rule is broken when a young couple commits to a premarital sex?
A. Interact with both genders in respectful ways.
B. Express love and intimacy in appropriate ways.
C. Appreciates own body.
 D. Both B and C
90. Which of the following shows a healthy attitude towards self?
A. A student who admits his mistakes and apologize for his deeds.
B. A woman who undergoes a surgery to improve her nose.
C. A girl who keeps on hiding herself because she is ashamed of what she looks like.
D. A boy who is ashamed of his gay brother.
91. What will you do to minimize its negative effects to your sexual attitudes?
A. Always be responsible with your actions and bear in mind with possible consequences of
every actions you make
B. Ask advice from your friends
C. Just keep yourself
D. Cry out loud.
92. How can we possibly eliminate the double standard of morality?
A. When we realize the value of everyone
B. When we do not learn to respect each other’s worth
C. When we abuse ourselves to sex
D. When we disobey our parents
93. You regard yourself as a worthwhile person.
A. Self confidence B. Self knowledge C. Self respect D. Selfish love
94. Which of the life skills can be accomplished through information about good sexuality?
A. Assessing your health C. Refusal skill
B. Evaluating media messages D. Practicing wellness
95. What factors that influence the behavior and interests of an individual especially the teens?
A. Culture B. Family C. Peers D. Media
96. Which of the following statement about sexuality is not true?
A. Make an intelligent decision concerning sexual behavior
B. Build healthy relationship with members of both man and woman
C. It’s not necessarily to have a positive image of myself
D. Culture can affect your value regarding sexuality
97. What do you call the best decision that you can make in safeguarding sexual health?
A. Abstinence B. Decision making C. Goal Setting D. Value
98. Which of the life skills should be used when you have to aim for something that will give you a
sense of accomplishment.
A. Setting goals B. refusal skill C. making good decision D. communicate
99. Which of the following choices is NOT included in the steps of decision making?
A. Determine the problem
B. Explore the alternatives
C. Escape the problem by committing suicide
D. Decide
100. Which of the following situations shows an effective evaluation of media messages?
A. A girl who read an article about Justin Beiber being a gay and spreads the news to her
classmates.
B. A teacher who received a text message coming from anonymous person telling that her
student stole her wallet and punish the student immediately
C. A lawyer who read an article about a rape victim accusing her neighbor as a suspect but
then researched more evidences to prove the accusation.
D. A person who received a text message about super typhoon coming towards Gensan and
immediately evacuate to a safer place
 FIRST QUARTER EXAMINATION
MAPEH 8
SY 2022-2023

ANSWER KEY

1. D 26. C 51. C 76. C

2. A 27. D 52. D 77. B
3. A 28. B 53. A 78. A
4. B 29. D 54. B 79. A
5. C 30. C 55. A 80. D
6. D 31. D 56. D 81. D
7. A 32. C 57. C 82. A
8. C 33. A 58. D 83. D
9. C 34. C 59. C 84. D
10. A 35. C 60. C 85. C
11. bonus 36. A 61. B 86. B
12. B 37. A 62. A 87. C
13. B 38. C 63. B 88. D
14. C 39. D 64. A 89. B
15. A 40. C 65. D 90. A
16. C 41. B 66. D 91. A
17. B 42. D 67. A 92. A
18. D 43. C 68. C 93. C
19. C 44. A 69. C 94. C
20. A 45. A 70. A 95. D
21. D 46. A 71. B 96. C
22. B 47. B 72. D 97. A
23. A 48. A 73. B 98. A
24. C 49. C 74. D 99. C
25. A 50. A 75. A 100. C