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ADVANCED
CU-ATS 108 Full Test 1
Physics

1. If the distance between the earth and the moon is reduced by one-fifth, how will
the gravitational force between two objects change in comparison to the initial one?

(A) decrease by 20 percent


(B) decrease by 25 percent
(C) increase by 20 percent
(D) increase by 25 percent
(E) increase by 56 percent

2. A basketball is released from a height of h, and it lost half of its energy every time
it bounces from the ground. What is the total vertical distance traveled by the ball
before it comes to a complete stop?

(A) 1.5h
(B) 2h
(C) 2.5h
(D) 3h
(E) 3
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 109 Full Test 1
Physics

M kg
a = 4.9 m/s2 1 kg

3. A 1 kg mass and M kg mass are connected by a string. The string is then hung on
a fixed pulley as shown in the figure. After releasing, 1 kg mass moves upward with
acceleration of 4.9 m/s2. Calculate M. (Given g = 9.8 m/s2)

(A) 0.5 kg
(B) 1.0 kg
(C) 1.5 kg
(D) 2.0 kg
(E) 3.0 kg

4. Particles with the same charge-to-mass ratio A, B, and C move through a uniform
magnetic field. The trajectories of those particles are shown in the figure. Assume
that the initial velocity of each particle is perpendicular to the magnetic field.
A

B C
Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Particles A and B have the same charge type.


(B) Particles B and C have different charge types.
(C) Particle C has positive charge.
(D) Particle B moves faster than particle A.
(E) Particle C moves faster than particle B.
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 110 Full Test 1
Physics

5. A tethered ball swings in a horizontal circle by a string with a negligible mass.


If the speed is doubled, which of the following conditions keeps the tension force
in the string unchanged?

(A) Quadrupling the radius


(B) Doubling the radius
(C) Doubling the mass
(D) Halving the radius
(E) Halving the mass

6. Three forces act on a 5 kg mass on a frictionless surface as shown in the figure.


Also, all the forces are directed at the mass’s center.

Find the resultant acceleration in m/s2.

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) 15
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 111 Full Test 1
Physics

Use the circuit shown below to answer questions 7 - 8.


5V
V
3R Ω

3R Ω 3R Ω

RΩ A 100 mA

7. How much is the voltage supplied by the battery?

(A) 10 V
(B) 15 V
(C) 20 V
(D) 25 V
(E) 33 V

8. How much is the current supplied by the battery?

(A) 100 mA
(B) 120 mA
(C) 150 mA
(D) 167 mA
(E) 200 mA
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 112 Full Test 1
Physics

9. An inductor is connected in series to a resistor, a switch, and a DC source. If the


switch is closed at an initial t = 0 s, which of the following diagrams is correct about
the current flows through the resistor?

(A) Current (B) Current

0 time 0 time

(C) Current (D) Current

0 time 0 time

(E) Current

0 time
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 113 Full Test 1
Physics

10. A 60 N ball is dropped from a height of 2 m above the ground. If the ball makes
a 15 mm deep dent in the sand. Estimate the average force from the sand.
(Given g = 9.8 m/s2)

(A) 800 N
(B) 3,000 N
(C) 6,500 N
(D) 8,000 N
(E) 12,000 N

11. An object with mass M is attached to a lightweight spring on a smooth surface


as shown in figure 1. The object oscillates with a frequency of 1 hertz.
2
After an additional 1 kg mass is attached to the object as shown in figure 2.,
the frequency is now changed to 1 hertz. Determine mass M in kg.
3

1 kg

M M

figure 1. figure 2.

(A) 3.0
(B) 2.0
(C) 1.5
(D) 1.2
(E) 1.0
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 114 Full Test 1
Physics

12. A transverse wave is modeled with the wave function


y (x, t) = (0.1 m) sin [( r m–1) x - (r s–1) t ]
2
Find the vertical distance between the highest and the lowest point of this wave.

(A) 0.10 m
(B) 0.15 m
(C) 0.20 m
(D) 0.25 m
(E) rm

13. From the wave function given in question 12., find the speed of the wave.

(A) 1 m/s
2
(B) 2 m/s
(C) r m/s
(D) 2r m/s
(E) 4r m/s

14. A 5 kg mass of an initial speed u collides with a 10 kg mass, initially at rest, and
sticks to each other. How much percentage of the total kinetic energy loss?

(A) 33
(B) 50
(C) 67
(D) 80
(E) 95
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 115 Full Test 1
Physics

15. How long does it take to completely vaporize 1 kg of 0 cC ice by using a 2,000 W
hot plate? Given that the hot plate has 80% efficiency.
(Lice = 330 J/g, Lvapor = 2,264 J/g, cwater = 4.2 J/g·K)

(A) 10 min
(B) 15 min
(C) 19 min
(D) 25 min
(E) 31 min

16. An electron moves along positive x-axis into the area with both electric and magnet-
ic fields. If the electron remains in equilibrium, which following configuration of the
electric and magnetic fields, respectively, is valid? (Gravitational force is negligible)

(A) -y and +y
(B) -y and +z

(C) -y and -z

(D) -x and +y

(E) -x and +x

17. Students with different masses are playing tug-of-war on a frictionless surface.
If the rope is massless, which following statement is true?
I. The magnitude of the resultant force on the student with less mass is bigger.
II. The acceleration on the student with less mass is higher.
III. When they meet, their travel distances are equal.
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) II and III
(E) I and III
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 116 Full Test 1
Physics

18. This nuclear reaction occurs in the core of the Sun.


3
2 He + 32 He " 42 He + 2X + energy

What is X?

(A) positron
(B) electron
(C) neutron
(D) 21 H
(E) 11 H

19. Light wave of a 600 nm tranverses a double slit with a 0.05 mm distance between
the slits. The interference pattern is observed on the screen. Then, the doulble slit
is replaced with a single slit. The first order dark fringe from the single slit is at the
same position as the doudle slit’s. What is the width of the single slit in meter?

(A) 1.0 × 10–4


(B) 5.0 × 10–5
(C) 2.5 × 10–5
(D) 1.4 × 10–8
(E) 7.2 × 10–9
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 117 Full Test 1
Physics

20. A candle is placed 9 cm away from a converging lens of focal length 6 cm, behind
which there is the second converging lens of 10 cm focal length at 8 cm, as shown
in the figure below.

Lens 1 Lens 2
f1 = 6 cm f2 = 10 cm
Candle

9 cm 8 cm

Which of the following correctly describes the position of the image from these lenses?

(A) the image is placed at a distance 5 cm to the right of Lens 1


(B) the image is placed at a distance 5 cm to the right of Lens 2
(C) the image is placed at a distance 10 cm to the right of Lens 1
(D) the image is placed at a distance 10 cm to the right of Lens 2
(E) None of the above
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 118 Full Test 1
Physics

21. A radioactive element A decays into a radioactive nucleus B, which decays into
a stable element C in according to the nuclear reaction A " B " C. Given that
the initial number of nuclei of a radioactive element A, B, and C are N0 , 0,
0, respectivety. Which elements are the element 1, 2, 3 shown in the graph,
respectivety?

N0

3N 2
4 0 1
1N
2 0
1N 3
4 0
t
0 T 2T 3T 4T 5T

(A) A, B, C
(B) A, C, B
(C) B, A, C
(D) B, C, A
(E) C, B, A

22. Which following statements is NOT true?

(A) Gamma rays have the shortest wavelength in the electromagnetic spectrum.
(B) Ultraviolet rays have a higher frequency than microwaves.
(C) Microwaves can pass through glass, paper and plastic.
(D) AM wave travels further than FM wave because it can be reflected by the
earth’s ionosphere.
(E) Diagnostic ultrasound is an imaging method that uses radio waves.
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 119 Full Test 1
Physics

23. Point charge A, B, and C with the same charge +Q are at the position shown in
figure below. Find the electrical force act on point charge C.
+Q +Q +Q

A B C
d d

(A) 5 Q2
4 4rf 0 d 2
Q2
(B) 5
4rf 0 d 2

(C) 1 Q2
4 4rf 0 d 2
Q2
(D) 4rf 0 d 2
Q2
(E) 4
4rf 0 d 2

24. The nuclear fusion reaction which produces helium-4 is given below.
6
3 Li + 21 H " 2 42 He

Given that atomic masses of lithium-6 ( 63 Li ), deuterium ( 21 H ), and helium-4 ( 42 He )


are 6.01512 u, 2.01410 u, and 4.00260 u, respectively. Calculate the energy
released by this fusion reaction. (1 u releases energy of 931.5 MeV per c2.)

(A) 32.7 MeV


(B) 22.4 MeV
(C) 15.2 MeV
(D) 10.1 MeV
(E) 2.2 MeV
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 120 Full Test 1
Physics

25. A cylindrical wire is stretched so that the radius of the cross sectional area is halved.
How does the resistance of the wire change?

(A) Remain the same


(B) Increase 2 times
(C) Increase 4 times
(D) Increase 8 times
(E) Increase 16 times

26. A 100 g iron ball of temperature 800 cC is dropped in an insulated bowl of 2 liters
of water. The resulting temperature is 50 cC. The specific heat capacities of iron
and water are 440 J/kg·K and 4,200 J/kg·K respectively. Calculate the initial
temperature of water. ( t water = 1,000 kg/m3 )

(A) 15 cC
(B) 21 cC
(C) 46 cC
(D) 67 cC
(E) 85 cC

27. A simple pendulum has a period of oscillation T on the earth. What will its period
of oscillation become, if this pendulum is brought to the moon? (The gravitational
acceleration on the moon is one-sixth of that on earth.)

(A) 0.17 T
(B) 0.41 T
(C) 1.00 T
(D) 2.45 T
(E) 6.00 T
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 121 Full Test 1
Physics

28. A spherical insulator of a mass m and a charge q is hung by the lightweight string
in an area with the uniform horizontal electric field. Calculate the tension force
on the string.
+ –
+ g –
+ –
+ –
+ –
+ –
+ –
+ m, q –
+ –
+ –
+ E –
(A) mg
(B) qE
(C) mg + qE
(D) (mg) 2 + (qE) 2
mg tan d n
mg
(E) qE

29. Two capacitors C1 and C2 with capacitance C and 2C, respectively, are connected to
a 3.0 V battery as shown in the figure.
C1

3.0 V C2

The equivalent capacitance of this circuit is 8.0 nF and the respective voltage across
C1 and C2 are 2.0 V and 1.0 V. How much energy is stored in C2?

(A) 6.0 nJ
(B) 9.0 nJ
(C) 12 nJ
(D) 15 nJ
(E) 18 nJ
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 122 Full Test 1
Physics

30. A point charge +Q moves with a speed v perpendicularly to a uniform magnetic field
that has a magnitude of B. The magnetic force causes the point charge to moves
from P to Q with a radius R as shown in the figure. How much work is done by the
magnetic force?

(A) 0
(B) 2QvBR
(C) 2rQvBR
+
2Qv
(D)
BR
2rQv
(E)
BR

+
+
+
-
-

+
+

-
+
-

+
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 124 Full Test 2
Physics

1. A 1,000 - kilogram car moves down a slope at an angle of 37c. If the coefficient
of friction between the tire and the road is 0.5, how much force should the car's
brake system apply in order to maintain constant velocity? Given sin 37c = 53 and
cos 37c = 4 and g = 9.8 m/s2.
5
(A) 1,960 N
(B) 3,920 N
(C) 5,880 N
(D) 7,840 N
(E) 9,800 N

2. A crate of mass m is on a scale in a lift of mass M. The lift is moving down with
a constant acceleration of magnitude a. What is the weight of the crate read by
the scale?

(A) m(g - a)
(B) (m + M)g
(C) mg
(D) m(g + a)
(E) (m + M)(g - a)

3. Jack and Jill, of mass 60 kilogrammes and 40 kilogrammes respectively, are pushing
against each other on an ice rink. If Jack moves with an acceleration of 3 m/s2,
what will be the acceleration of Jill?

(A) 0.75 m/s2


(B) 2.00 m/s2
(C) 3.25 m/s2
(D) 4.50 m/s2
(E) 5.75 m/s2
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 125 Full Test 2
Physics

15 N

53c

4. A 2.5-kg box is being pulled by a force of 15 N at an angle of 53c on a rough


surface with coefficient of friction 0.50 as shown. What is the net work done on the
box if it moves in a straight line at a distance of 10 metres? (Given cos 53c = 53 and
sin 53c = 4 and g = 9.8 m/s2.)
5
(A) 28 J
(B) 30 J
(C) 60 J
(D) 90 J
(E) 120 J

5. Two masses, m and M, are hung together by a cable through a light pulley.
What is the tension in the cable?

(A) mg
(B) Mg
(C) ] M + mg g

(D) 2mM g
m+M
(E) M+mg
2mM
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 126 Full Test 2
Physics

6. Consider an Earth - Moon system orbitting around each other. If they both stop
moving and release from rest, what will happen after a long time?

(A) They will collide at the halfway point.


(B) They will collide close to the original position of the Earth.
(C) They will collide close to the original position of the Moon.
(D) They will collide at the original position of the Earth.
(E) They will collide at the original position of the Moon.

7. What is the work done by a force Fv = 3i + 4j along a displacement sv = 5j?

(A) 5J
(B) 10 J
(C) 15 J
(D) 20 J
(E) 25 J

8. An 80 - kilogram person drops from a height of 99 metres and lands onto a safety
net. The net is compressed by a distance of 1.0 metre. What is the average force
acting on this person by the net? (Assume g = 9.8 m/s2)

(A) 980 N
(B) 7,840 N
(C) 7,761 N
(D) 78,400 N
(E) 77,616 N
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 127 Full Test 2
Physics

9. A toy car moves from a ramp of height h, then moves along the level floor before it
hits a spring, pressing the spring by a distance x. What will be the new compressed
distance of the spring if the ramp is adjusted to a height of 4h?

(A) x
4
(B) x
2
(C) x
(D) 2x
(E) 4x

Questions 10 - 11

An object of mass m is attached to a spring of spring constant k. It undergoes simple


harmonic oscillation with amplitude A. The object then collides and sticks to another
object of mass m at the equilibrium point.

10. What is the amount of energy lost from this system?

(A) 0
(B) kA 2
4
(C) kA 2
2
(D) kA2
(E) 2kA2
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 128 Full Test 2
Physics

11. What is the new amplitude of oscillation?

(A) A
2
(B) A
2
(C) A
(D) 2A
(E) 2A

12. Consider a flow of incompressible fluid in a tube with different sections.

in out
A C
B
Rank the order of the sections from the highest fluid speed to the lowest fluid
speed?

(A) B, C, A
(B) B. A, C
(C) C, A, B
(D) C, B, A
(E) The speed of fluid in each section is the same.
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 129 Full Test 2
Physics

13. A parallel - plate capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a battery of V volts.


After a long time, it is then disconnected from the circuit and is filled with a
substance of dielectric constant K. Which of the following is true?

(A) The charge in the capacitor increases by a factor of K.


(B) The charge in the capacitor decreases by a factor of K.
(C) The voltage in the capacitor increases by a factor of K.
(D) The voltage in the capacitor decreases by a factor of K.
(E) None of the above.

Questions 14 - 15

R
f R R V 10 V
I
A
10 mA

14. What is the voltage of the battery?

(A) 5V
(B) 10 V
(C) 15 V
(D) 20 V
(E) 25 V
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 130 Full Test 2
Physics

15. What is the current I?

(A) 0.003 A
(B) 0.03 A
(C) 0.3 A
(D) 3A
(E) 30 A

16. Two object A and B with mass m and 3m respectively, are placed at a certain
distance apart and exert an attractive influence upon each other. Which of the
following is correct relationship between the gravitational forces exerted between
two charges?

(A) Fy A = 3 Fy B
(B) 3 Fy A = Fy B
(C) Fy A = Fy B
(D) Fy A = - Fy B
(E) None of them is correct

17. A copper wire has a resistance of R and length of L. If the wire is stretched to length
2L with constant volume, what will be the new resistance of this wire?

(A) 0.25R
(B) 0.5R
(C) R
(D) 2R
(E) 4R
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 131 Full Test 2
Physics

18. A van de Graff generator works by charging a spherical metal ball on the top of
the machine. This allows the generator to produce high voltages. What is the ratio
between the magnitude of the electric field at 1 metre from the centre of the
metal ball and 1 kilometre from the centre of the ball.

(A) 1,000,000 : 1
(B) 1,000 : 1
(C) 1:1
(D) 1 : 1,000
(E) 1 : 1,000,000

19. A proton enters a region with magnetic field Bv and electric field Ev with a velocity v .
The charge moves in a semi - parabolic path. What are the directions of Bv , Ev ,
and v ?

(A) Bv = Ev = v
(B) Bv Ev v
(C) Bv = Ev while v Bv
(D) Bv = Ev while v Ev
(E) None of above
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 132 Full Test 2
Physics

20. A proton and an electron are placed near each other. Is the force between them
attractive or repulsive? Moreover, what should be done to quadruple the force
between the charges?

(A) Attractive, increase the distance between the charges by a factor of 2


(B) Repulsive, increase the distance between the charges by a factor of 2
(C) Attractive, decrease the distance between the charges by a factor of 2
(D) Repulsive, decrease the distance between the charges by a factor of 2
(E) Insufficient information

21. Which of the following diagrams could NOT be magnetic field lines?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 133 Full Test 2
Physics

22. A vibrator generates a standing wave of constant frequency. Four nodes (endpoints
included) are observed in this string. If the string's frequency is doubled, how many
antinodes will be observed?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Six
(D) Eight
(E) Sixteen

23. A water wave is travelling on the surface of the ocean. A buoy floating on the surface
oscillates with a period of 2.0 seconds. The crest - to - crest distance of this water
wave is 5.0 cm. What is the speed of this wave?

(A) 0.4 cm/s


(B) 2.0 cm/s
(C) 2.5 cm/s
(D) 5.0 cm/s
(E) 10 cm/s

24. A helium - neon laser emits light of wavelength 630 nm. It is then shone through
a double slit and a bright fringe is formed on the screen. What changes will occur to
the fringe if we switch to an argon laser which emits light of wavelength 510 nm at
the same intensity?

(A) The fringe will be narrower and brighter.


(B) The fringe will be narrower and dimmer.
(C) The fringe will be wider and brighter.
(D) The fringe will be wider and dimmer.
(E) None of the above.
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 134 Full Test 2
Physics

25. A 250 gram ice at 0 cC is added into an insulated glass with 500 gram water
at 33 cC. After a long amount of time, how much ice will remain in the glass?
(Specific heat capacity of ice = 2.1 kJ/kg$cC, Specific heat capacity of
water = 4.2 kJ/kg$cC, Latent heat of fusion of water = 330 kJ/kg.)

(A) 0 gram
(B) 20 grams
(C) 40 grams
(D) 60 grams
(E) 80 grams

26. A furnace has power of 1,000 W. How much time does it take to melt a 1 kg block
of copper at 85 cC? (Melting point of copper is 1,085 cC, Specific heat capacity of
copper is 400 J/kg$cC, Latent heat of fusion of copper is 206 kJ/kg.)

(A) 206 seconds


(B) 400 seconds
(C) 606 seconds
(D) 1,240 seconds
(E) 1,860 seconds

27. An electromagnetic wave is moving in the -x direction. Which of the following gives
the correct directions the electric and the magnetic field are pointing to, respectively?

(A) +y +z

(B) +z, +y

(C) -y, -z

(D) -z, +y

(E) -x, +y
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 135 Full Test 2
Physics

28. Which of the following has approximately the same size as the wavelength of a
3,000 GHz near-infrared wave?

(A) A hydrogen atom (10 m)


-10

(B) A COVID-19 virus (10 m)


-7

(C) Width of a human hair (10 m)


-4

(D) A table (10 m)


0

(E) Depth of the Mariana Trench (10 4


m)

29. If the energy of an electron in the ground state of a lithium atom is 122.4 eV,
how much energy of an electron in the 2nd excited state of the atom? (Assume that
the lithium has only one electron)

(A) 30.60 eV
(B) 13.60 eV
(C) 7.650 eV
(D) 4.896 eV
(E) 3.400 eV
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 136 Full Test 2
Physics

30. Consider a U-235 nucleus undergoing nuclear fission as shown in the diagram below.
What is the energy released by this reaction?

235
U

236
U

141
Ba
92
Kr

n n
+
n

Given that the atomic mass of U-235 is 218,943 MeV/c2, Kr-92 is 85,629.2 MeV/c2,
Ba-141 is 131,262 MeV/c2, and n is 939.571 MeV/c2.

(A) 70 MeV
(B) 173 MeV
(C) 1,112 MeV
(D) 2,051 MeV
(E) None of the above
+
+
+
-
-

+
+

-
+
-

+
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 138 Full Test 3
Physics

1. A long chain with uniform mass is hung by its own weight from the ceiling at one
end. At which position of the chain exerts the highest magnitude of tension?

(A) The hanging point


(B) At its center of mass
(C) At the free end
(D) There exists no tension.
(E) The magnitude of tension is equal throughout the chain.

2. A ball attached by a string is moving in a horizontal circular path. The speed of


the ball increases constantly from u to 5u and in that time, the ball moves for the
distance s along the circular path. What is the value the tangential acceleration?

(A) u2
s
(B) 2u 2
s
(C) 6u 2
s
(D) 10u 2
s
(E) 12u 2
s

3. Two satellites orbit around the Earth with different heights. The satellite with mass
Mo is 2R above the Earth's surface while the satellite with mass 2Mo is 3R above the
Earth's surface where R is the average Earth's radius. What is the ratio of the kinetic
energy between the smaller and the bigger satellites?

(A) 4:3
(B) 3:4
(C) 1:1
(D) 2:3
(E) 3:2
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 139 Full Test 3
Physics

4. A golf ball is launched horizontally from the top of the building of height h.
The target hole is located L m away from the base of the building. What is the initial
speed of the golf ball?
g
(A) L
2h
2g
(B) L
h
2g
(C) h+L
g
(D) h
2L
g
(E) h
L

5. The following scenarios increase the apparent weight EXCEPT:

(A) standing in a lift accelerating upwards.


(B) standing in a lift coming to stop after moving downwards.
(C) free falling
(D) riding a roller coaster at the bottom of the circular path.
(E) All scenarios increase the apparent weight.

Questions 6 - 7

A bullet is fired vertically into a stationary ball. The bullet hits the ball with speed of
400 m/s, penetrates and leaves the ball with speed of 106 m/s. The respective masses of
the bullet and the ball are 200 g and 2 kg.

6. What is the speed of the ball after it is hit?

(A) 40 m/s
(B) 29.4 m/s
(C) 25.2 m/s
(D) 16 m/s
(E) 10.6 m/s
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 140 Full Test 3
Physics

7. When the ball reaches its maximum height, what is the height of the bullet?
(Assume g = 9.8 m/s2)

(A) 44.1 m
(B) 76.6 m
(C) 229.8 m
(D) 273.9 m
(E) 318.0 m

8. The 80-MW engine propels a ship with a constant speed. There exist a drag force
from water and an air resistance acting on the ship. The magnitude of the drag force
is 50,000 times its current speed and the air resistance is 900 kN . What is the
maximum speed of this ship?

(A) 25 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 32 m/s
(D) 36 m/s
(E) 50 m/s

9. A box of mass 20 kg is pushed by 300 N force up an inclined plane of 30c.


There is a constant friction of 42 N. The box starts from rest. How far from its
original point does the box attain the speed of 4 m/s? (Given g = 9.8 m/s2)

(A) 60 cm
(B) 80 cm
(C) 100 cm
(D) 120 cm
(E) 150 cm
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 141 Full Test 3
Physics

10. A mass-spring system oscillates horizontally as a simple harmonic motion.


Consider the following statements.

I. The velocity and acceleration are always maximum at the same point.
II. The magnitude of acceleration varies directly with the magnitude of
displacement.
III. The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy is conserved.
IV. The period of the oscillation depends on the amplitude.

How many correct statements are there?

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4

11. The graph shows the relationship between current and time. What is the value of
average current throughout the first 5 seconds?

(A) 3.0 A I (A)


(B) 4.2 A
(C) 5.4 A
6
(D) 6.0 A
(E) 6.8 A
t (s)
1 2 3 4 5
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 142 Full Test 3
Physics

12. Two capacitors are 1 and 2 nF. What is the ratio between the stored energy when
they are connected in series to when they are connected in parallel? (Given that the
battery is the same in both circuits.)

(A) 2:9
(B) 1:2
(C) 1:1
(D) 2:1
(E) 9:2

13. Three metal spheres A, B and C with the same radius are placed on the
insulator bases. A and B first attract but repel each other after they come in contact.
After then, A is brought to touch C and there is no repulsive force after contact.
Which statements must be true?

(A) Initially, the sphere A must be neutral.


(B) Initially, the sphere B must be neutral.
(C) Initially, the sphere C must be neutral.
(D) Initially, the sphere A must be either positively or negatively charged.
(E) Initially, the sphere C must be either positively or negatively charged.
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 143 Full Test 3
Physics

Questions 14 - 15

A circuit contains a 6-V battery, an ampmeter and three identical resistors. The reading of
the ampmeter is 4 A.

14. What is the resistance of each resistor?

(A) 1.5 X
(B) 2X
(C) 3X
(D) 4.5 X
(E) 6X

15. If those three resistors give off total heat at the rate of 18 J per second. The wire and
the battery have no resistance. What is the efficiency of each resistor?

(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 80%
(E) 90%
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 144 Full Test 3
Physics

16. A generate operates at 110 kW and 220 kV. It gives out current through a wire
of length 5 km. The wire is made of copper and its resistance per unit length is
0.2 X/m. How much heat is lost in the wire for each minute?

(A) 250 J
(B) 1,000 J
(C) 5,000 J
(D) 10,000 J
(E) 15,000 J

17. An alpha particle is moving with constant velocity 2iy + 2yj m/s. Which of the
following alignments of uniform magnetic or electric field makes the particle move
in a helical path?

(A) Only magnetic field to +X direction


(B) Only electric field to + X direction
(C) Only magnetic field to +Z direction
(D) Only electric field to +Z direction
(E) None of the above

18. A plane flies horizontally with speed of 200 m/s above the North Pole of the Earth
where there is a downward magnetic field of 4 # 10 T. The wingspan of the plane
-5

is 50 m. What is the potential difference between the tips of the two wings?

(A) 0.04 V
(B) 0.4 V
(C) 4V
(D) 40 V
(E) 400 V
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 145 Full Test 3
Physics

19. What is the example of a diamagnetic material?

(A) Steel
(B) Cobalt
(C) Titanium
(D) Dysprosium
(E) Water

20. A navy officer wants to determine the depth of a trench. He sends a train of sound
waves vertically into the sea. The distance between two consecutive compression
and rarefaction is 25 cm and its frequency is 4 kHz. If he receives the first sound
wave 5 seconds after he sends it, what is the depth of this trench?

(A) 2.5 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 7.5 km
(E) 10 km

21. A monochromatic light travels in liquids A and B with speed of 2 and 3 of


3 4
its speed in vacuum respectively. The wavelength in the liquid B is 540 nm.
What is the wavelength in the liquid A?

(A) 420 nm
(B) 450 nm
(C) 480 nm
(D) 540 nm
(E) 610 nm
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 146 Full Test 3
Physics

22. A train of wave moves in a swimming pool. It is shone by sunlight such that there
exists a pattern of bright lines at the bottom of pool. Five consecutive bright lines
are 1 m long. The wave travels at the speed of 0.5 m/s. What is the frequency of
the wave?

(A) 2 Hz
(B) 2.5 Hz
(C) 3 Hz
(D) 3.5 Hz
(E) 4 Hz

23. Which statement correctly describes about an electromagnetic wave?

I. Wifi is not an electromagnetic wave.


II. The magnitude of electric field is proportion to the magnitude of magnetic field.
III. Considered as a photon, its energy inversely varies with its frequency.
IV. Some of them are big enough to diffract around a building.

(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and IV
(D) II and IV
(E) III and IV
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 147 Full Test 3
Physics

24. A soda can is 90% filled with soda and the rest is filled with pressurized gas.
The soda density is 970 kg/m3 and the gas pressure is 120 kPa. This can is 15 cm
high and its base area is 30 cm2. What is the force by the soda and the gas acting on
the bottom of the can? (Given g = 9.8 m/s2)

(A) 360 N
(B) 364 N
(C) 380 N
(D) 386 N
(E) 400 N

25. Two substances X and Y are placed in a room temperature. X is now liquid while Y
is now gas. Which statement is true?

(A) The boiling point of X is lower than the boiling point of Y.


(B) The boiling point of X is higher than the melting point of Y.
(C) The melting point of X is lower than the boiling point of Y.
(D) The melting point of X is higher than the melting point of Y.
(E) The melting point of X is lower than the melting point of Y.

26. A wooden block of specific gravity 0.6 floats on cooking oil of specific gravity 0.8.
The block is 20 cm × 20 cm × 5 cm. What is the minimum pushing force required to
completely submerge the block? (Water's density = 1,000 kg/m3 and g = 9.8 m/s2)

(A) 2.94 N
(B) 3.92 N
(C) 11.76 N
(D) 15.68 N
(E) 98.00 N
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 148 Full Test 3
Physics

27. A cooler tower cools a hot water which is the product of a chemical reaction.
The cool water flows at the rate of 50 kg/s . It enters the tower at 5 cC and leaves
at 30 cC. The hot water enters the tower at 90 cC and leaves at 40 cC. What is the
flow rate of the hot water? (Assume that the tower efficiency is 100%)

(A) 20 kg/s
(B) 25 kg/s
(C) 75 kg/s
(D) 100 kg/s
(E) 150 kg/s

The following information is for question 28 and 29.

A study on an ancient plant suggests that the ratio between Carbon-14 and Carbon-12
in this plant is constant while the plant is still alive: The ratio is 800 atoms of Carbon-14
atom for every 1012 Carbon-12 atoms. Carbon-14 atoms are radioactive with the half-life
of 5,000 years

28. A Carbon-14 atom decays such that the number of nucleons remains the same;
however, the daughter atom is not a carbon atom. Which of the following might be
emitted from this decay?

(A) Alpha particle


(B) Gamma Ray
(C) Beta particle
(D) Neutron
(E) Neutrino
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 149 Full Test 3
Physics

29. A fossil of this type of plant is discovered. It is well-preserved such that no carbon-12
atoms are lost. If there are 1014 atoms of carbon-12 but only 2,500 atoms of
carbon-14, how old is this fossil?

(A) 5,000 years old


(B) 10,000 years old
(C) 15,000 years old
(D) 20,000 years old
(E) 25,000 years old.

30. Consider the below table. What is the binding energy of a helium nucleus 4
2 He ?

mass

proton 1.00728u

neutron 1.00866u

helium 4.00153u

where u = 931 MeV/c2

(A) 14.13 MeV


(B) 18.20 MeV
(C) 20.15 MeV
(D) 24.76 MeV
(E) 28.26 MeV
NOTE

+
+
+
-
-

+
+ Answer Key

-
+
-

+
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 152 Answer Key
Physics

Chapter 1: Mechanics Part I Chapter 2: Mechanics Part II

Warm Up Self-training Warm Up Self-training


1. (C) 1. (B) 1. (B) 1. (E)
2. (C) 2. (D) 2. (C) 2. (B)
3. (E) 3. (B) 3. (E) 3. (A)
4. (E) 4. (E) 4. (B) 4. (A)
5. (B) 5. (A) 5. (A) 5. (B)
6. (B) 6. (D) 6. (B) 6. (E)
Speed Test 7. (C) Speed Test 7. (C)
1. (E) 8. (B) 1. (E) 8. (C)
2. (D) 2. (C) 9. (D)
3. (A) 3. (B)
4. (E) 4. (D)
5. (E) 5. (A)
6. (E) 6. (C)
7. (B) 7. (C)
8. (A) 8. (B)
9. (E) 9. (B)
10. (E) 10. (E)
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 153 Answer Key
Physics

Chapter 3: Waves and Optics Chapter 4: Electricity and Magnetism

Warm Up Self-training Warm Up Self-training


1. (D) 1. (B) 1. (B) 1. (A)
2. (C) 2. (B) 2. (A) 2. (E)
3. (D) 3. (A) 3. (E) 3. (D)
4. (A) 4. (E) 4. (B) 4. (C)
5. (E) 5. (B) 5. (A) 5. (B)
6. (D) 6. (B) 6. (B) 6. (B)
Speed Test 7. (C) Speed Test 7. (C)
1. (C) 8. (C) 1. (A) 8. (D)
2. (A) 9. (A) 2. (C) 9. (C)
3. (D) 3. (D) 10. (A)
4. (B) 4. (E) 11. (D)
5. (B) 5. (B) 12. (D)
6. (E) 6. (A)
7. (D) 7. (E)
8. (C) 8. (C)
9. (D) 9. (C)
10. (A) 10. (B)
11. (D)
12. (B)
13. (A)
14. (D)
15. (C)
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 154 Answer Key
Physics

Chapter 5: Heat Transfer Chapter 6: Atom and Nuclear

Warm Up Warm Up
1. (D) 1. (A)
2. (E) 2. (B)
3. (B) 3. (B)
4. (C) 4. (C)
Speed Test 5. (D)
1. (B) Speed Test
2. (D) 1. (E)
3. (D) 2. (E)
4. (D) 3. (A)
5. (C) 4. (A)
Self-training 5. (B)
1. (E) 6. (B)
2. (B) 7. (B)
3. (C) 8. (B)
4. (D) 9. (A)
5. (D) 10. (D)
Self-training
1. (E)
2. (E)
3. (A)
4. (B)
5. (B)
6. (A)
7. (E)
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 155 Answer Key
Physics

Full Tests

Full Tests 1 Full Tests 2

1. (E) 16. (C) 1. (A) 16. (D)


2. (D) 17. (B) 2. (A) 17. (E)
3. (E) 18. (E) 3. (D) 18. (A)
4. (E) 19. (A) 4. (A) 19. (C)
5. (A) 20. (B) 5. (D) 20. (C)
6. (B) 21. (B) 6. (B) 21. (C)
7. (B) 22. (E) 7. (D) 22. (C)
8. (C) 23. (A) 8. (D) 23. (C)
9. (B) 24. (B) 9. (D) 24. (E)
10. (D) 25. (E) 10. (B) 25. (C)
11. (B) 26. (C) 11. (B) 26. (C)
12. (C) 27. (D) 12. (C) 27. (B)
13. (B) 28. (D) 13. (D) 28. (C)
14. (C) 29. (C) 14. (D) 29. (B)
15. (E) 30. (A) 15. (B) 30. (B)
ADVANCED
CU-ATS 156 Answer Key
Physics

Full Tests 3

1. (A) 16. (E)


2. (E) 17. (A)
3. (D) 18. (B)
4. (A) 19. (E)
5. (C) 20. (C)
6. (B) 21. (C)
7. (D) 22. (A)
8. (C) 23. (D)
9. (C) 24. (B)
10. (C) 25. (B)
11. (B) 26. (B)
12. (A) 27. (B)
13. (E) 28. (C)
14. (D) 29. (E)
15. (C) 30. (E)

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