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JARS 50 Met Questions
JARS 50 Met Questions
THE ATMOSPHERE
Composition, extent, vertical division
1. The troposphere is the:
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Tropopause
B – Ionosphere
C – Stratosphere
D – Atmosphere
Ref: all
Ans: A
3. The amount of water vapour which air can hold largely depends on:
A – relative humidity
B – air temperature
C – stability of air
D – dew point
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
1
5. The tropopause is lower;
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Troposphere
B – Tropopause
C – Stratosphere
D – Stratopause
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – latitude
B – longitude
C – rotation of the earth
D – the wind
Ref: all
Ans: A
2
9. Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause:
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
11. Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water
vapour?
A – Troposphere
B – Lower stratosphere
C – Upper stratosphere
D – Ionosphere
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
3
13. The average height of the tropopause at 50oN is about:
A – 14 km
B – 8 km
C – 11 km
D – 16 km
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles
B – contains all oxygen of the stratosphere
C – is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere
D – reaches the same height at all latitudes
Ref: all
Ans: A
15. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the
northern hemisphere?
Ref: all
Ans: D
16. What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator?
A – 40 km
B – 8 km
C – 11km
D – 16 km
Ref: all
Ans: D
4
17. Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight
documentation in the tropics?
A – The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown
B – The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart
C – The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and
therefore not important
D – Tropopause information are of no value
Ref: all
Ans: A
A - -25oC
B - -75oC
C - -55oC
D - -35oC
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 5 km
B – 3 km
C – 8 km
D – 11 km
Ref: all
Ans: A
20. What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere
from a weather stand point?
A – Hydrogen
B – Water vapour
C – Nitrogen
D – Oxygen
Ref: all
Ans: B
5
21. The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order
of:
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
23. In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere
between mean sea level and a height of 5500m is:
A – 25%
B – 1%
C – 50%
D – 99%
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – The temperature of the tropopause at the equator and at the poles is equal
B – The temperature remains constant above and below the tropopause
C – The temperature of the tropopause at the equator is higher than at the
poles
D – The temperature lapse rate changes abruptly at the tropopause
Ref: all
Ans: D
6
25. Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct?
Ref: all
Ans: D
7
050-01-02 Temperature
1. Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
8
5. At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48oC; according
to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL 350?
A - -56.5oC
B - -50oC
C - -54oC
D - -58oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – absolutely unstable
B – absolutely stable
C – conditionally unstable
D – conditionally stable
Ref: all
Ans: B
9
9. An inversion is:
Ref: all
Ans: A
10. When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
10
13. In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature:
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears
B – the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with height
C – the pressure in a given area is constant
D – the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air
currents
Ref: all
Ans: A
11
17. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
A – Subsidence
B – Inversion
C – Adiabatic
D – Advection
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 0.5oC/100m
B – 2oC/1000 ft
C – 0.65oC/100m
D – 1oC/100m
Ref: all
Ans: D
19. How would you characterise an air temperature of 15oC at the 700 hPa level
over western Europe?
Ref: all
Ans: C
20. In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15 oC and the
temperature at 1000m/AGL is 13oC. This layer of air is:
A – unstable
B – stable
C – a layer of heavy turbulence
D – conditionally unstable
Ref: all
Ans: B
12
21. The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100m in the International
Standard Atmosphere is:
A – 0.65oC
B – 1oC
C – 0.5oC
D – variable
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
23. From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the
atmosphere be derived?
A – Surface temperature
B – Environmental lapse rate
C – Dry adiabatic lapse rate
D – Pressure at the surface
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Stability
B – Instability
C – Clear ice
D – Area of active storms
Ref: all
Ans: A
13
25. Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: A
A - -4oC
B - -8oC
C – 0oC
D - +4oC
Ref: all
Ans: B
28. The temperature at FL 140 is -12oC. What will the temperature be at FL 110
if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied:
A - -9oC
B - -18oC
C - -6oC
D - -15oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
14
29. The temperature at FL 80 is +6oC. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if
the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?
A - +2oC
B - -6oC
C – 0oC
D - -4oC
Ref: all
Ans: D
30. The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is:
Ref: all
Ans: B
31. On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum
temperature is reached approximately:
Ref: all
Ans: C
A - -3oC
B - +3oC
C – 0oC
D - +7oC
Ref: all
Ans: D
15
33. The 0o isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a
temperature of -6oC?
A – FL 110
B – FL 20
C – FL 100
D – FL 80
Ref: all
Ans: D
34. A temperature of 15oC is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level.
If the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will
the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level?
A - +4oC
B - +2oC
C – 0oC
D - -2oC
Ref: all
Ans: B
35. The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry
adiabatic lapse rate in:
A – cumulus
B – freezing fog
C – stratus
D – cirrus
Ref: all
Ans: D
36. Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature under
shelter is 3oC. The sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If
the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of January
3rd to January 4th should be:
Ref: all
Ans: C
16
37. Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature
inversion?
Ref: all
Ans: A
38. How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere below the tropopause?
A – increases
B – At first it increases and higher up it decreases
C – Remains constant
D – Decreases
Ref: all
Ans: D
39. How would you characterise an air temperature of 30oC at the 300 hPa level
over western Europe?
A – High
B – Within +/- 5oC of ISA
C – Low
D – Very low
Ref: all
Ans: A
40. How would you characterise an air temperature of 55oC at the 200 hPa level
over western Europe?
A – High
B – Low
C – Very high
D – Within +/- 5oC of ISA
Ref: all
Ans: D
17
41. An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature:
Ref: all
Ans: C
42. A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after
take off the aircraft’s rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to:
Ref: all
Ans: B
43. In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2 oC per 100m increase
in altitude. This temperature change is called:
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: B
18
45. Horizontal differences in the mean temperature of a layer are caused by:
A – insulation
B – advection
C – differential heating of the earth’s surface
D – change of air mass
Ref: all
Ans: C
46. Which of the following statements concerning the thermal wind component
(TWC) is true?
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Fahrenheit
B – Celsius
C – Absolute
D – Kelvin
Ref: all
Ans: B
19
49. If the depth of the troposphere increases, the temperature at the tropopause
must:
A – decrease
B – stay the same
C – increase
D – impossible to say
Ref: all
Ans: A
50. Air at T = +16oC and DP = +4oC is forced from sea level over a 10,000 ft
mountain range and descends back to sea level on the other side. If the
leeward condensation level is observed to be 8,000 ft what will be the final
temperature?
A – 18oC
B – 20oC
C – 22oC
D – 24oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
52. Absolute instability in the atmosphere will occur when the environmental
lapse rate is
A – greater than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate
B – less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate
C – less than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate
D – greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse
rate
Ref: all
Ans: A
20
53. According to ISA the temperature in the lower part of the stratosphere:
Ref: all
Ans: B
54. For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the
A – environmental lapse rate is greater than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and
saturated adiabatic lapse rate
B – environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but
less than dry adiabatic lapse rate
C – environmental lapse rate is less than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and
saturated adiabatic lapse rate
D – dry adiabatic lapse rate is less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but
greater than environmental lapse rate
Ref: all
Ans: A
55. In the lower levels of the atmosphere when the environmental lapse rate is
greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but les than dry adiabatic lapse rate
– the air mass is described as being
A – conditionally unstable
B – stable
C – unstable
D – absolutely unstable
Ref: all
Ans: A
56. The temperature lapse rate of the standard atmosphere in the troposphere is:
A – 2.5oC/1000 ft
B – 3oC/1000 ft
C – 6.5oC/1000 ft
D – 2oC/1000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: D
21
57. What is, approximately, the temperature at 20000 ft in the ICAO Standard
Atmosphere?
A - -20oC
B - -15oC
C - -25oC
D - -30oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
22
050-01-03 Atmospheric pressure
1. What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: C
3. An isohypse (contour):
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – QNE
B – QFE
C – QNH
D – QFF
Ref: all
Ans: D
23
5. Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure?
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – QFE
B – QFF
C – QNE
D – QNH
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
8. The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:
A – at height of observatory
B – at a determined density altitude
C – reduced to sea level
D – at flight level
Ref: all
Ans: C
24
9. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling
low pressure systems?
A – 25o – 35o
B – 10o – 15o
C – 55o – 75o
D – 35o – 55o
Ref: all
Ans: C
10. Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
pressure surface on a heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees,
then true altitude is increasing
B – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180 degrees,
then true altitude is increasing
C – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 20 degrees,
then true altitude is increasing
D – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090 degrees,
then true altitude is increasing
Ref: all
Ans: A
11. At altitude, the atmospheric pressure in a column of warm air is likely to be:
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
25
13. When flying towards high contour values an aircraft will experience:
A – headwind
B – tailwind
C – port drift
D – starboard drift
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
15. When flying from high to low contour values, which of the following is
incorrect?
Ref: all
Ans: D
16. You are making a long distance flight and have chosen a suitable cruising
altitude for the whole flight. Towards the end of your flight, you have
descended. What may be the reason for this?
Ref: all
Ans: B
26
17. Select the correct statement regarding the wind direction in connection with
the high and low pressure systems in the Northern Hemisphere:
A – the winds blow counter clockwise around a high and clockwise in a low
B – the winds blow clockwise in both highs and lows
C – the winds blow clockwise in a high and counter clockwise in a low
D – the winds blow counter clockwise in both highs and lows
Ref: all
Ans: C
18. If you fly across the isobars towards a region of high pressure in the Northern
Hemisphere you will:
Ref: all
Ans: B
19. According to definition, flight levels are surfaces with constant air pressure
determined from a certain pressure value. Which is this value?
A – 1013.25 hPa
B – 1025.13 hPa
C – Actual QFE
D – Actual QNH
Ref: all
Ans: A
20. If you have a column of air limited by two isobaric surfaces at a pressure
difference of 100 hPa, the distance between the pressure surfaces will change
if mean temperature and mean pressure of the column of air change. In which
of the following alternatives will the change of temperature and pressure
interact to shorten the distance as much as possible?
Ref: all
Ans: B
27
21. Lines joining points of equal pressure are known as:
A – Isotherms
B – Isopleths
C – Isobars
D – Isotachs
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – about 50m
B – about 150m
C – about 300ft
D – about 30ft
Ref: all
Ans: C
23. A rising parcel of air which has no heat entering or leaving it, will:
Ref: all
Ans: D
24. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The
air temperature is 10oC higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
A – 1016 hPa
B – More than 1016 hPa
C – Less than 1016 hPa
D – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
Ref: all
Ans: B
28
25. Which of the following statements is correct?
Ref: all
Ans: C
29
050-01-04 Atmospheric density
1. Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density
altitude?
Ref: all
Ans: C
2. At FL 180, the air temperature is -35oC. The air density at this level is:
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: C
4. With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere
increases with increasing:
A – relative humidity
B – air pressure
C – stability
D – temperature
Ref: all
Ans: B
30
050-01-05 International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
1. The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere
(ISA) is:
A - -44.7oC
B - -273oC
C - -58.5oC
D - -100oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
2. A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of
the
following average heights is applicable?
A – FL 180
B – FL 160
C – FL 100
D – FL 390
Ref: all
Ans: A
3. A 700 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of
the
following average heights is applicable?
A – FL 100
B – FL 180
C – FL 300
D – FL 390
Ref: all
Ans: A
A - -20oC
B – 0oC
C - -5oC
D - -35oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
31
5. If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2oC, at what
altitude
will the freezing level be?
A – FL 110
B – FL 130
C – FL 150
D – FL 90
Ref: all
Ans: A
6. A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of
the following average heights is applicable?
A – FL 300
B – FL 100
C – FL 50
D – FL 390
Ref: all
Ans: C
7. If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15 oC warmer than a standard
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
A - -30oC
B - -45oC
C - -60oC
D - -15oC
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: B
32
9. What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO
atmosphere?
Ref: all
Ans: D
10. A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions
which of the following average heights is applicable?
A – FL 50
B – FL 300
C – FL 100
D – FL 390
Ref: all
Ans: D
11. A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of
the following average heights is applicable?
A – FL 100
B – FL 390
C – FL 300
D – FL 50
Ref: all
Ans: C
12. If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10 oC warmer than a standard
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
A - +15oC
B - +5oC
C - -10oC
D - -15oC
Ref: all
Ans: B
33
13. Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?
Ref: All
Ans: A
14. Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the
ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:
A - -44.7oC
B - -273oC
C - -56.5oC
D - -100oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
15. The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce
at the rate of:
Ref: all
Ans: C
34
050-01-06 Altimetry
1. In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 ft.
The
QFE adjustment in Geneva is:
A – 942 hPa
B – 967 hPa
C – 961 hPa
D – 948 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: A
2. An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa,
what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the
transition level?
A – It will increase
B – It will decrease
C – It will remain the same
D – It will not be affected
Ref: all
Ans: B
3. The QNH level at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa.
The air temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the
QFF?
Ref: all
Ans: C
35
4. An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second
altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be
approximately:
A – 7650 ft
B – 8600 ft
C – 8350 ft
D – 8000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: A
5. The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1030
hPa. The air temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is
the QNH?
Ref: all
Ans: D
6. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 ft, QNH 1008 hPa). The
altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate:
A – 1200 ft
B – 1375 ft
C – 1105 ft
D – 1280 ft
Ref: all
Ans: B
36
7. 8836. The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200
UTC.
Assume the station is at MSL. Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. 20000
(-12) 18000 (-11), 16000 (-10), 14000 (-10), 12000 (-6), 10000 (-2), 8000 (+2),
6000 (+6), 4000 (+12), 2000 (+15), surface (+15).
Ref: all
Ans: D
8. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 ft, QNH 993 hPa) with the
altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate?
A – 1080 ft
B – 700 ft
C – 380 ft
D – 0 ft
Ref: all
Ans: A
9. You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 ft. What is the
temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH
1013.2 hPa)?
A – ISA + 12oC
B – ISA +/- 0oC
C – ISA +20oC
D – ISA -20oC
Ref: all
Ans: D
37
10. The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if:
Ref: all
Ans: B
11. Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a
lower
altitude than that actually flown?
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
13. During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the
transiktion
altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter
reading during the resetting procedure?
Ref: all
Ans: D
38
14. An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere with a crosswind
from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude?=
A – It remains constant
B – It increases
C – It decreases
D – Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question cannot be
answered
Ref: all
Ans: C
15. In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?
Ref: all
Ans: D
16. If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE?
A – 1005 hPa
B – 995 hPa
C – 1000 hPa
D – 1025 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: C
17. You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40oC and the pressure at
sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
A – 20660 feet
B – 19310 feet
C – 21740 feet
D – 18260 feet
Ref: all
Ans: B
39
18. The QNH at an airfield located 6 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air
temperature is not available. What is the QFF?
Ref: all
Ans: D
19. Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
21. When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter
indicates:
Ref: all
Ans: B
40
22. A vertical spacing of 1000 ft, is the standard required separation between two
FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15oC), what would the true
vertical separation be?
Ans: C
23. The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018
hPa. The air temperature is 10oC higher than a standard atmosphere. What is
the QFF?
Ref: all
Ans: A
24. You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a
minimum altitude of 12000 feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will
be flying through is an average 10oC warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is set
to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will
the altimeter show when you have reached the recommended minimum
altitude?
A – 12210 feet
B – 11520 feet
C – 11250 feet
D – 11790 feet
Ans: B
41
25. You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight
altitude is, according to the aviation chart, 15000 ft/AMSL. The air mass that
you will fly through is on average 15oC warmer than the standard atmosphere.
The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you
effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude?
A – 15900 ft
B – 13830 ft
C – 14370 ft
D – 14100 ft
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
27. 10124. At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume
that the
minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum
safe altitude?
Ans: B
42
28. The QNH is equal to the QFE if:
Ref: all
Ans: D
29. The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation
from ISA is -15oC below FL 100. What is the true altitude of FL 100?
A – 9740 ft
B – 10160 ft
C – 8640 ft
D – 11460 ft
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – 20 ft
B – 11 ft
C - -10 ft
D – 560 ft
Ans: A
31. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local
QNH is unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
which the aircraft is flying?
Ref: all
Ans: B
43
32. An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold winters day. The regional
QNH is 1013 hPa. During the flight, you circle around a mountain at an
altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared
to the elevation of the summit?
Ans: C
33. An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm summers day. The weather is
fine, and there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a
mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid
altimeter give, compared to the summit’s elevation?
Ans: D
34. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The
air temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
Ref: all
Ans: D
44
35. In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be
known?
Ref: all
Ans: D
36. After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 ft), the altimeter
indicates an altitude of 1310 ft. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of
1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?
A – 1015 hPa
B – 1028 hPa
C – 1013 hPa
D – 998 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: B
37. What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest
usable flight level?
Ans: A
45
38. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet;
local QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air
mass in which the aircraft is flying?
Ref: all
Ans: D
39. Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude
to a position where flight over mountains could be dangerous?
A – Cold high
B – Warm depression
C – Cold low
D – Warm high
Ref: all
Ans: C
40. An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de
Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason
for this is that:
Ref: all
Ans: C
41. During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet; local
QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass
in which the aircraft is flying?
Ref: all
Ans: B
46
42. If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA
10oC in the lower troposphere up to 18000 ft, what is the actual layer
thickness between FL 60 and FL 120?
A – 6240 ft
B – 6000 ft
C – 5900 ft
D – 5760 ft
Ans: A
43. For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The
approximate elevation of the airfield is:
A – 120 metres
B – 600 metres
C – 540 metres
D – 160 metres
Ref: all
Ans: D
44. If the QFE at Locarnho (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH?
A – 1015 hPa
B – 1000 hPa
C – 1005 hPa
D – 1010 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: C
45. If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH?
A – 985 hPa
B – 1025 hPa
C – 990 hPa
D – 1035 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: B
47
46. An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 ft. Should this
altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated
would be:
A – 2922 ft
B – 3006 ft
C – 4278 ft
D – 4194 ft
Ref: all
Ans: B
47. You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27oC and the pressure at
sea level is 1003 hPa. What is the true altitude?
A – 15630 feet
B – 15100 feet
C – 16370 feet
D – 16910 feet
Ref: all
Ans: B
48. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to
Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing.
What action, if any, should be taken?
A – None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer
than the air around Marseille
B – Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong
C – Re-check the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong
D – Compensate by heading further to the left
Ans: A
48
49. During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de
Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The
reason for this is that:
Ans: C
50. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1016 hPa) to
Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing.
What is the probable reason for this?
Ans: B
51. You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 ft/AMSL.
The air is on an average 15oC colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is
1003 hPa. What indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read?
A – 15690 ft
B – 16230 ft
C – 14370 ft
D – 13830 ft
Ans: B
52. What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated
50 ft below sea level?
Ref: all
Ans: C
49
53. The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The
air temperature is not available. What is the QFF?
Ref: all
Ans: B
54. If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1016 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE? (Assume 1 hPa = 8m)
A – 1005 hPa
B – 990 hPa
C – 995 hPa
D – 1000 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: B
55. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet,
local QNHY is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air
mass in which the aircraft is flying?
Ref: all
Ans: C
56. During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter
reading during the resetting procedure?
A – It will decrease
B – It will remain the same
C – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
D – It will increase
Ref: all
Ans: D
50
57. (Refer to figure 050-14)
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart.
The altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
Ref: all
Ans: B
58. After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is
still set to 1013.2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the
aerodrome above mean sea level?
A – 2280 feet
B – 660 feet
C – 1200 feet
D – 1740 feet
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
51
60. You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby
island with an elevation of 4000 ft is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20C.
What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the
subscale?
A – 4000 ft
B – Less than 0 ft
C – 0 ft
D – More than 0 ft, but less than 4000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: B
62. Suppose that you are flying at FL 40 and that you reset the altimeter to
reference pressure 993 hPa. The altimeter then indicates:
A – about 3,400 ft
B – about 3,700 ft
C – about 4,300 ft
D – about 4,600 ft
Ref: all
Ans: A
63. In which of the following cases will the altimeter always indicate the airport
elevation when landing?
Ref: all
Ans: C
52
64. A pressure altimeter can indicate different altitudes depending on the setting.
Regardless of setting it can generally be said that it indicates:
Ref: all
Ans: C
65. If an aircraft, without changing altimeter reference, flies so that the altimeter
all the time indicates the same altitude, this always means that :
Ref: all
Ans: B
66. At an airport 1700 ft above sea level the temperature reading is +10 oC from
the barometer readings made at the same time QFE, QFF and QNH are
computed. Which of the following statements concerning air pressure is
correct?
Ref: all
Ans: A
53
67. When landing at an airport you have correctly set QNH = 1023 hPa as
reference pressure on your altimeter. The altimeter indicates 1200 ft after
landing. Suppose that you change the pressure reference to standard setting
(1013 hPA) what will your altimeter indicate?
A – 0 ft
B – 900 ft
C – 1200 ft
D – 1500 ft
Ref: all
Ans: B
68. What will the altimeter indicate if the actual altitude is to be 10000 ft when the
pressure altitude is 10000 ft at OAT = -30oC?
A – 9000 ft
B – 10,000 ft
C – 11,000 ft
D – 12,000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
70. Suppose that you want your altimeter on landing to indicate airport elevation
which of the following pressures will you use as reference?
A – Standard (1013.25)
B – QFE
C – QFF
D – QNH
Ref: all
Ans: D
54
71. A pressure altimeter indicates:
Ref: all
Ans: D
72. You are flying at a constant altitude according to your altimeter. Your
altimeter setting is unchanged. Which of the following interact to give a
minimum a true altitude?
A – 1, 3
B – 2, 4
C – 1, 4
D – 2, 3
Ref: all
Ans: D
73. You are flying over an airport at an indicated altitude of 5600 ft. Airport
elevation = 2785 ft. The altimeter is set at the correct aerodrome QNH value
of 993 hPa and the instrument error is zero, you are crossing the airport at a
height above ground of:
(standard pressure setting = 1013 hPa, 1 hPa = 30 ft)
A – 5000 ft
B – 5600 ft
C – 2815 ft
D – 2215 ft
Ans: C
55
74. Your pressure altimeter is set at 1000 hPa. You have been cleared to join the
traffic circuit at 2600 ft and received current QNH = 1010 hPa. You join the
circuit at 2600 ft but forget to reset your altimeter. Other aircraft with correct
altimeter settings indicating 2600 ft in the circuit will, compared to you, be
flying:
A – 300 ft above
B – 300 ft below
C – 100 ft above
D – 100 ft below
Ans: B
75. At the official measuring level for a specific airport, an aircraft altimeter, set at
QNH for the airport, should read:
Ref: all
Ans: A
76. Which factors below increase density altitude for a given aerodrome:
A – 1, 2
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 2, 4
Ref: all
Ans: B
56
77. Which one of the following conditions gives the shortest take off run, if the
airports have the same QNH?
Ref: all
Ans: B
78. On the ground, an altimeter will read ___ if QFE is set and ___ if QNH is set
Ref: all
Ans: D
79. If flying North with easterly drift, an aircraft’s altimeter will progressively:
A – under-read
B – over-read
C – remain correct
D – impossible to say – it depends on the atmospheric pressure
Ref: all
Ans: B
80. An aircraft is flying at FL 75 over point A where the QNH is 1013 hPa,
enroute to B where the QNH is 979 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa equals 30 ft and
that point B is 823 metres AMSL the terrain clearance over B is:
A – 6480 ft
B – 4280 ft
C – 3780 ft
D – 5680 ft
Ans: C
57
81. An aircraft is to fly at an indicated altitude of 5000 ft from X (elevation 850 ft,
QNH 984 hPA) to Y (elevation 2300 ft QNH 1024 hPa). Assuming that the
altimeter sub-scale is set to 984 mbs and 1 hPa = 30 ft, the height of the
aircraft over X and Y will be:
Ans: B
82. The barometric reading of pressure must be corrected for the following errors:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
58
85. (Refer to figure 050-15)
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart.
The altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ans: A
87. An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6oC) obtains a reading of 1860 ft on its radio
altimeter (ground elevation 3090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the
nearest hPa, at that point?
A – 1042
B – 996
C – 1013
D – 1030
Ref: all
Ans: D
59
88. An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 4500 ft from A (360
ft/AMSL – QNH 986 hPa) to B (690 ft/AMSL –QNH 1011 hPa). Assuming
that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at 986 hPa, the height
of the aircraft above the surface is:
A – 4815 ft
B – 3135 ft
C – 4485 ft
D – 5175 ft
Ans: C
A – 4854 ft
B – 6796 ft
C – 6146 ft
D – 7446 ft
Ans: C
A – 4625 ft
B – 6515 ft
C – 5555 ft
D – 5225 ft
Ans: A
60
91. An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 7500 ft from A (270
ft/AMSL – QNH 1021 hPa) to B (1650 ft/AMSL – QNH 983 hPa). Assuming
that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at 1021 hPa, the height
of the aircraft above the surface:
A – 6204 ft
B – 4824 ft
C – 6876 ft
D – 6474 ft
Ans: B
92. Given:
Altimeter setting: 1013.2 hPa
Altimeter reading: 5000 ft
Outside air temperature at 5000 ft: +5oC
QFE: 958 hPa
QNH: 983 hPa
A – 4325 ft
B – 4190 ft
C – 3515 ft
D – 4865 ft
Ans: C
93. If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value,
Ref: all
Ans: D
61
94. Pressure altitude is obtained by:
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – FL 300
B – FL 390
C – FL 100
D – FL 50
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – FL 390
B – FL 300
C – FL 100
D – FL 50
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – FL 100
B – FL 160
C – FL 180
D – FL 390
Ref: all
Ans: C
62
98. Which FL corresponds with the 700 hPa pressure level?
A – FL 300
B – FL 180
C – FL 100
D – FL 390
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – FL 100
B – FL 50
C – FL 300
D – FL 390
Ref: all
Ans: B
100. You are flying at FL 340 (250 hPa) on the northern hemisphere. The wind is
geostrophic and there is a cross wind from the right all the time. Your true
altitude will:
A – increase, only if the temperature at your flight level is rising on your route
B – decrease
C – decrease, only if the pressure at the surface is decreasing on your route
D – increase
Ref: all
Ans: D
101. You are flying over the sea at FL 250 and measure an outside temperature of –
50oC. The pressure at sea level is 10213 hPa. What is your approximate true
altitude calculated using normal vertical change in temperature with increase
in height?
A – 23770 ft/AMSL
B – 26230 ft/AMSL
C – 26770 ft/AMSL
D – 23230 ft/AMSL
Ans: A
63
050-02 WIND
A – 25 m/sec
B – 15 m/sec
C – 20 m/sec
D – 30 m/sec
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – A trough
B – A ridge
C – The warm sector
D – The cold front
Ref: all
Ans: A
3. What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
Ref: all
Ans: D
64
4. The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer
because:
A – the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient
force
B – contour lines are lines that connect points with the same wind speed in the
upper air
C – the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low
pressure system
D – the friction of the air with the earth’s surface gives the airflow a diversion
perpendicular to the gradient force
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: A
A–2
B–3
C–4
D–1
Ref: all
Ans: B
65
7. (Refer to figure 050-101)
On which route do you expect moderate to severe CAT at FL 300?
A – Zurich-Rome
B – London-Zurich
C – Zurich-Copenhagen
D – Paris-Bordeaux
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Mixing of fronts
B – Horizontal pressure difference
C – Earth rotation
D – Surface friction
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – A trough
B – A ridge
C – The warm sector
D – The cold front
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – 145 kt
B – 340 kt
C – 95 kt
D – 140 km/h
Ref: all
Ans: A
66
11. What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than
parallel to the isobars?
A – Coriolis force
B – Surface friction
C – The greater density of the air at the surface
D – The greater atmospheric pressure at the surface
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
14. What is the approximate speed of a 25 knot wind, expressed in kilometres per
hour?
A – 60 km/h
B – 35 km/h
C – 55 km/h
D – 45 km/h
Ref: all
Ans: D
67
15. What prevents air from flowing directly from high pressure areas to low
pressure areas?
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – 55 kt
B – 50 kt
C – 60 kt
D – 70 kt
Ref: all
Ans: B
17. The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by:
A – curvature of isobars
B – friction
C – horizontal temperature gradients
D – slope of pressure surfaces
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – A trough
B – A ridge
C – The warm sector
D – The cold front
Ref: all
Ans: D
68
19. In an area of Converging air in low level:
Ref: all
Ans: D
20. What relationship exists between the wind at 3,000 feet and the surface wind?
A – The wind at 3,000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind
direction is across the isobars toward the low pressure and the surface
wind is weaker
B – They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by
friction
C – The geostrophic force deflects the wind to the left in the Southern
hemisphere
D – the wind blows anti-clockwise round anti-cyclones in the Northern
hemisphere
Ref: all
Ans: A
The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in the Northern hemisphere
only
B – The geostrophic force is the same as the Coriolis force
C – The geostrophic force deflects the wind to the left in the Southern
hemisphere
D – The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in both hemispheres
Ref: all
Ans: D
69
22. Buys Ballots Law implies that:
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – 10 m/sec
B – 40 m/sec
C – 10 km/h
D – 50 km/h
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
70
26. In this question the wind speed with straight isobars (vst), the wind speed
around a high pressure system (vhigh) and the wind speed around a low
pressure system (vlow) in the southern hemisphere are being compared while
pressure gradient and latitude are:
Ref: all
Ans: C
71
050-02-02 Primary cause of wind
1. For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be?
Ref: all
Ans: B
2. The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with
straight isobars is (other conditions being the same):
A – always higher
B – higher if curvature is anti-cyclonic
C – always lower
D – higher if curvature is cyclonic
Ref: all
Ans: B
3. What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars
on
the weather map are very close together?
Ref: all
Ans: C
4. In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying
from a high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?
Ref: all
Ans: B
72
5. Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are:
Ref: all
Ans: A
6. The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure
system because the:
Ref: all
Ans: A
7. For the same pressure gradient at 60oN, 50oN and 40oN the speed of the
geostrophic wind will be:
A greatest at 40oN
B – the same at all latitudes
C – greatest at 60oN
D – least at 50oN
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
73
9. Under anti-cyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars
the speed of the gradient wind is:
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
B – closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
C – closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures
D – further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
12. When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close
together, the wind is most likely to be:
A – strong
B – blowing perpendicular to the isobars
C – changing direction rapidly
D – light
Ref: all
Ans: A
74
13. Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around
high and low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart?
A – When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater
and wind velocities are stronger
B – Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars
C – Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature
D – When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by
stationary lenticular clouds
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: A
15. An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the
right in order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is
the centre of low pressure?
A – To the left
B – Behind
C – In front
D – To the right
Ref: all
Ans: C
16. Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
Ref: all
Ans: C
75
17. The geostrophic wind depends on:
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
76
21. The pressure gradient force acts:
A – parallel to the isobars with low pressure on its left (in the Northern
hemisphere)
B – perpendicular to the isobars with low pressure behind it
C – perpendicular to the isobars and away from the high pressure
D – parallel to the isobars and towards the low pressure
Ref: all
Ans: C
22. The wind, which blows when the gradient and geostrophic forces are in
balance, is:
Ref: all
Ans: C
23. A geostrophic wind is a true wind only under the following conditions:
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects its speed and
direction
B – Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects speed but not
direction
C – Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects direction but
not speed
D – none of the above since the geostrophic force is only an apparent force
Ref: all
Ans: C
77
25. With balanced flow, which of the following statements is untrue?
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
27. The effect of curved isobars on geostrophic wind speed correction is:
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: A
78
29. In the Northern hemisphere, surface friction causes the geostrophic wind to:
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – At night the surface wind is lighter in speed and more inclined towards
low pressure
B – Over land, the surface wind is backed by 15o to the isobars and is 2/3
geostrophic speed
C – The steeper the pressure gradient, the less marked the nocturnal effect
D – At night, the wind can be geostrophic down to 1000 ft or less
Ref: all
Ans: B
31. For the same horizontal distance between adjacent isobars at latitudes 50 oN
and 30oN the gradient wind speed will be least at latitude:
A – 30oN in an anti-cyclone
B – 50oN in an anti-cyclone
C – 30oN with a cyclonic circulation
D – 50oN with a cyclonic circulation
Ref: all
Ans: D
32. When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface
friction will cause the surface wind to:
Ref: all
Ans: B
79
050-02-03 General circulation
1. Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced
by
the zone of:
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – SW trade winds
B – travelling depressions
C – NE trade winds
D – sub-tropical high pressure
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – 200/50 kt
B – 230/40 kt
C – 060/50 kt
D – 030/35 kt
Ref: all
Ans: B
80
4. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the sub-tropical high
pressure belt?
A – 55o – 75o
B – 10o – 15o
C – 35o – 55o
D – 25o – 35o
Ref: all
Ans: D
5. In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10oN and 20oN the
prevailing winds are:
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 1:150
B – 1:250
C – 1:500
D – 1:80
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – SE trade winds
B – NE trade winds
C – travelling low pressure systems
D – sub-tropical high pressure systems
Ref: all
Ans: C
81
8. (Refer to figure 050-107)
What is the average wind for the route Shannon-Lisbon, FL 290:
A – 360/80 kt
B – 030/70 kt
C – 190/75 kt
D – 340/90 kt
Ref: all
Ans: A
A- -55oC
B- -51oC
C- -63oC
D- -47oC
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – NE trade winds
B – SE trade winds
C – travelling low pressure systems
D – sub-tropical high pressure systems
Ref: all
Ans: C
11. You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
pressure surface. Which of the following statements is correct?
Ref: all
Ans: A
82
12. Which of the following alternatives is the correct one, regarding the surface
wind in relation to the air pressure in the Northern hemisphere?
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
83
050-02-04 Turbulence
1. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?
A – Altocumulus lenticularis
B – Stratocumulus
C – Cirrocumulus
D – Nimbostratus
Ref: all
Ans: A
“There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the
aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air
speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0g at the aircraft’s centre
of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about.
Food service and walking are difficult.”
A – Severe
B – Light
C – Moderate
D – Violent
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
84
4. On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most
pronounced:
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: A
85
050-02-05 Variation of wind with height
1. If Paris reports a wind of 08010 kt on the METAR, what wind velocity would
you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
A – 11020 kt
B – 08015 kt
C – 05020 kt
D – 08005 kt
Ref: all
Ans: A
2. You are flying at 2500 ft/AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an
airport, at sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would
you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?
A – South
B – South-southwest
C – Southwest
D – South-southeast
Ref: all
Ans: D
3. In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes
direction
towards the low pressure area because:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
86
5. In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused by:
A – the imbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the coriolis force
B – centripetal forces
C – frictional forces
D – the curvature of the isobars
Ref: all
Ans: C
6. If Paris reports a wind of 19015 kt on the METAR, what wind velocity would
you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
A – 16020 kt
B – 22030 kt
C – 25025 kt
D – 22010 kt
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
B – backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
C – veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
D – backs in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – 340/20
B – 030/20
C – 240/28
D – 030/28
Ref: all
Ans: A
87
9. The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anti-cyclone
because the:
Ref: all
Ans: B
10. If Paris reports a wind of 30012 kt on the METAR, what wind velocity would
you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
A – 30025 kt
B – 23030 kt
C – 33025 kt
D – 27020 kt
Ref: all
Ans: C
11. If Paris reports a wind of 16020 kt on the METAR, what wind velocity would
you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground:
A – 14020 kt
B – 16030 kt
C – 19040 kt
D – 17015 kt
Ref: all
Ans: C
12. Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 ft AGL are south westerly while
most of the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of
difference between these two wind directions?
Ref: all
Ans: D
88
13. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is
parallel to the coast. When down wind over the sea, the airfield is on the left.
What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a
sunny afternoon?
A – Tail wind
B – Head wind
C – Crosswind from the left
D – Crosswind from the right
Ref: all
Ans: C
14. During a descent from 2000 ft above the surface to the surface (no frontal
passage) the wind normally:
Ref: all
Ans: B
15. The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on:
Ref: all
Ans: D
89
050-02-06 Local winds
1. Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL 180 in
the northern hemisphere where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude
remains constant?
Ref: all
Ans: C
2. An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000
feet) and going directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction,
relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from?
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
90
5. Which of the following is true of a land breeze?
Ref: all
Ans: A
6. Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
8. In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 ft/AGL directly towards the
centre of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from:
Ref: all
Ans: C
91
9. The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is
toward the:
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
11. When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a
large body of water will experience wind:
Ref: all
Ans: B
12. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is
parallel to the coast. When down wind over the sea, the airfield is on the right.
What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a
sunny afternoon?
Ref: all
Ans: B
92
13. A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows:
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – 075/12
B – 060/18
C – 060/12
D – 045/12
Ref: all
Ans: D
15. The normal maximum height of the sea breeze in mid altitudes is
approximately:
A – 5000 ft
B – 200 ft
C – 500 – 1000 ft
D – 50 ft
Ref: all
Ans: C
16. A high pressure area (slack pressure gradient) covers part of the
Mediterranean Sea and coastal region during the summer. What surface wind
direction is likely at an airport at the coast on a sunny afternoon?
A – Land to sea
B – Sea to land
C – Variable
D – Parallel to the coastline
Ref: all
Ans: B
93
17. Sea breezes are most likely to occur when:
A – slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land
temperatures
B – a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast
conditions persist
C – a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and clear skies
at night exist
D – a slack pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast
conditions persist
Ref: all
Ans: A
94
050-02-07 Jet streams
1. What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to
Rio de Janeiro (23oS) at FL 350 in July?
A – A polar front jet stream followed by a sub-tropical jet stream and later, a
second polar front jet stream
B – A sub-tropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream
C – A polar front jet stream followed by one or two sub-tropical jet streams
D – One sub-tropical jet stream
Ans: C
A – 70 kt
B – 50 kt
C – 60 kt
D – 100 kt
Ans: C
Ans: D
4. In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from
Bombay (19oN – 73oE) to Bangkok (13oN – 100oE). What wind conditions
can you expect?
Ans: B
95
5. While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 ft below
its
core) and OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?
A – A head wind
B – Cross wind from the right
C – Cross wind from the left
D – A tail wind
Ans: B
6. Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?
Ans: D
7. Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?
Ans: D
8. Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be
experienced:
Ans: B
96
9. A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following
wind profile (Northern hemisphere)
Ans: D
10. At approximately what altitude is the sub-tropical jet stream found over
Europe?
A – FL 500
B – FL 200
C – FL 300
D – FL 400
Ans: D
11. What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?
Ans: C
97
12. What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream?
A – 50000 ft
B – 20000 ft
C – 40000 ft
D – 30000 ft
Ans: D
13. Which area of a polar front jet steam in the northern hemisphere has the
highest probability of turbulence?
Ans: A
14. Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet
stream is correct?
A – It lies in the warm air; its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of
the core
B – It and its surface projection lie in the warm air
C – It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature gradient, the
slope of the pressure surfaces at the height of the core is at its maximum
D – It lies in the cold air; the thermal wind reverses direction at the height of
the core
Ans: C
15. What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and
all the other jet streams?
A – Horizontal dimension
B – Vertical dimensions
C – Wind direction
D – Wind speed
Ans: C
98
16. What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?
A – 30,000 ft
B – 20,000 ft
C – 40,000 ft
D – 50,000 ft
Ans: B
17. You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While
crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely
changes.
A – You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with
practically no temperature difference between the two air masses
B – This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core
C – Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will after landing
have the instruments tested
D – This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large
temperature differences are possible at these heights
Ans: B
18. Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere?
Ans: D
99
19. Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly
direction. There is, however, an important easterly jet stream. When and
where is it likely to be encountered?
Ans: B
20. On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in
the northern hemisphere. This means that:
A – above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from
north to south
B – the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet
C – below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from
north to south
D – the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet
Ans: D
Ans: C
22. Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found?
Ans: B
100
23. Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system?
Ans: B
24. An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north,
beneath the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere,
during this portion of the flight?
Ans: C
25. During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the
polar front jet stream moves towards the:
Ans: C
26. An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 ft below its core
at right angles. While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The
prevailing wind is:
A – head wind
B – from the left
C – tail wind
D – from the right
Ans: D
101
27. What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross
section?
A – 1/1
B – 1/10
C – 1/1000
D – 1/100
Ans: D
28. A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be worldwide regarded
as:
Ans: A
Ans: B
A – 30oS
B – 30oN
C – 60oS
D – 50oS
Ans: B
102
31. A jet stream is:
Ans: D
32. The normal maximum speeds of the Polar Front Jet are in the region of:
Ans: A
33. At which time, if any, are polar front jet streams over the South Pacific usually
strongest?
A – October
B – January
C – There is no annual variation
D – July
Ans: D
Ans: D
103
35. Maximum wind speeds associated with sub-tropical jet streams are usually
located in the:
Ans: C
36. The core of the polar front jet stream is usually located in the:
Ans: D
37. What is necessary for the development of a polar front jet stream?
Ans: D
Ans: A
104
39. An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL
400 in the southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be
experienced?
A – It decreases
B – It increases
C – It stays the same
D – It decreases and then increases
Ans: A
40. Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found:
Ans: C
A–1
B–2
C–3
D–3
Ref: all
Ans: C
105
050-02-08 Standing waves
1. At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely
to be encountered is:
A – altocumulus lenticularis
B – cirrostratus
C – cirrus
D – cumulus mediocris
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
106
050-03 THERMODYNAMICS
050-03-01 Humidity
1. Relative humidity:
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
3. Relative humidity:
Ref: all
Ans: C
107
4. Relative humidity depends on:
Ref: all
Ans: D
5. Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
A – It can be used to estimate the air mass’ relative humidity even if the air
temperature is unknown
B – It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
C – It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass’
relative humidity
D – It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
Ref: all
Ans: D
6. During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12oC and a dew point of +5oC
were measured. What temperature change must occur during the night in order
to induce saturation?
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – In Central Europe
B – Over the North Sea
C – In the Mediterranean Sea
D – Over the Baltics
Ref: all
Ans: A
108
8. Dew point is defined as:
A – the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air
will result in the absorption of latent heat
B – the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given
pressure
C – the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the
relative humidity
D – the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at
a given pressure
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
10. When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative
humidity?
Ref: all
Ans: D
11. The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative
humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour
in it?
Ref: all
Ans: B
109
12. Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity?
A – Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X
100
B – Ratio between air temperature and dew point temperature X 100
C – Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100
D – Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100
Ref: all
Ans: A
13. How does relative humidity and the dew point in an unsaturated air mass
change with varying temperature?
A – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dew point
remains constant
B – When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dew
point decreases
C – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point increases
D – When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point remains constant
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
15. The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the:
A – dew point
B – relative humidity
C – stability of the air
D – air temperature
Ref: all
Ans: D
110
16. The difference between temperature and dew point is greater in:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: C
111
20. (Refer to figure 050-43)
Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture?
A – In Central Europe
B – Over Scandinavia
C – In the Mediterranean Sea
D – Over the Baltics
Ref: all
Ans: B
21. How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by
temperature changes?
Ref: all
Ans: C
22. In a high relative humidity condition, which of the following sets of conditions
is true?
A – High evaporation rate; reduced latent heat absorption; small wet/dry bulb
difference
B – Increased latent heat absorption; low evaporation rate; large wet/dry bulb
difference
C – Small wet/dry bulb difference; high evaporation rate; increased latent heat
absorption
D – Small wet/dry bulb difference; reduced latent heat absorption; low
evaporation rate
Ref: all
Ans: D
23. What is true for the water vapour distribution in the layer between the surface
and the 500 hPa pressure surface in the trade wind belt?
A – The lower part is relatively dry and the upper part is relatively moist
B – The whole layer is relatively dry
C – The whole layer is relatively moist
D – The lower part is relatively moist and the upper part is relatively dry
Ref: all
Ans: D
112
050-03-02 Change of state of aggregation
1. Super-cooled droplets can occur in:
Ans: B
2. The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known
as:
A – super cooling
B – sublimation
C – super saturation
D – radiation cooling
Ans: B
A – Liquid to gas
B – Solid to liquid
C – Solid to gas
D – Gas to liquid
Ans: D
Ans: D
113
5. A super cooled droplet is:
Ans: B
Ans: D
Ans: C
Ans: D
114
9. How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found
occasionally
behind jet aircraft?
Ans: C
Ans: C
Ans: B
115
050-03-03 Adiabatic processes
1. What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 ft?
A – 1.5oC
B – 2.0oC
C – 3.0oC
D – 3.5oC
Ans: C
A – 5oC
B – 0oC
C - -15oC
D - -5oC
Ans: C
3. A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and
then returned to its original level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of
air?
Ans: C
4. A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects. Which of
the following changes?
A – Specific humidity
B – Absolute humidity
C – Mixing ratio
D – Relatie humidity
Ans: D
116
5. A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by:
A – expanding it adiabatically
B – raising the temperature
C – lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constant
D – compressing it adiabatically
Ans: A
A – 0.65oC
B – 2oC
C – 1oC
D – 0.5oC
Ans: C
7. The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of
ascending unsaturated air because:
Ans: D
8. If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at:
Ans: B
117
9. Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is
correct?
Ans: B
A – warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
B – warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
C – warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
D – cold and dry air is advected in the upper part
Ans: B
Ans: A
A – conditionally unstable
B – absolutely unstable
C – absolutely stable
D – neutral
Ans: C
118
13. Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer?
Ans: D
14. In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height
is
more than 1oC. This layer can be described as being:
A – conditionally stable
B – absolutely stable
C – conditionally unstable
D – absolutely unstable
Ans: D
Ans: C
Ans: A
119
17. Rising air cools because:
Ans: C
18. If in a 100m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10 oC and
at the top of the layer is 8oC then this layer is:
A – absolutely unstable
B – absolutely stable
C – conditionally unstable
D – neutral
Ans: A
Ans: B
20. A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is:
A – neutral
B – unstable
C – absolutely stable
D – conditionally unstable
Ans: C
120
21. During an adiabatic process heat is:
Ans: C
22. A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is:
Ans: B
Ans: A
24. The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air
at lower level of the atmosphere is approximately:
A – 1.5oC
B – 1oC
C – 0.6oC
D – 0.35oC
Ans: C
121
25. A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1oC per 100m is:
A – absolutely unstable
B – absolutely stable
C – neutral for dry air
D – conditionally unstable
Ans: C
26. What is the final temperature of unsaturated surface air at 12 oC, which rises to
6000 ft?
A - +30oC
B - +18oC
C - +30oC
D - -06oC
Ans: D
A – 1.5oC / 1000 ft
B – 2.0oC / 1000 ft
C – 3.0oC / 1000 ft
D – It varies daily
Ans: B
A – stable
B – conditionally stable
C – unstable
D – conditionally unstable
Ans: D
122
050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG
A – Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind
B – Unstable air
C – Convection during the day
D – The release of latent heat
Ans: A
2. What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and
ST
cloud coverage?
A – Convection process
B – Sinking
C – Lifting
D – Radiation
Ans: C
3. What type of cloud is being described? A generally grey cloud layer with
fairly
uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains.
When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible.
Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.
A – Stratus
B – Altostratus
C – Nimbostratus
D – Cirrostratus
Ref: all
Ans: A
123
4. Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in
temperate regions?
A – C1, CC
B – SC, NS
C – AS, AC
D – CS, ST
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – ST, CS
B – CU, CB
C – SC, NS
D – C1, SC
Ref: all
Ans: B
A–B
B–D
C–A
D–C
Ref: all
Ans: D
7. Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building
of CU and CB clouds?
Ans: D
124
8. Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?
A – ST
B – CS
C – AS
D – SC
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ans: B
A – SC
B – C1
C – AS
D – CU
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
125
12. A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500m (1600 ft) above sea
level is covered with a uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months.
At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
Ref: all
Ans: C
13. What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?
A – Average horizontal visibility more than 1000m; light to moderate rime ice
B – Average horizontal visibility less than 500m; nil icing
C – Average horizontal visibility less than 500m; light to moderate icing
D – Average horizontal visibility more than 1000m; nil icing
Ans: D
14. Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from:
A – 500 to 1000 ft
B – 1000 to 2000 ft
C – the surface to 6500 ft
D – 100 to 200 ft
Ref: all
Ans: C
15. Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and
high cloud levels?
A – CB
B – AC
C – ST
D – C1
Ans: A
126
16. Altostratus clouds are classified as:
A – convective clouds
B – low level clouds
C – high level clouds
D – medium level clouds
Ref: all
Ans: D
17. Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?
A – Stratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Altocumulus
D – Cirrus
Ans: B
A – ST
B – CS
C – AS
D – CC
Ref: all
Ans: A
19. Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
A – ST, AS
B – CU, CB
C – NS, CU
D – CB, CC
Ans: A
127
20. Fall-streaks or virga are:
A – water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching
the ground
B – strong down draughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
C – gusts associated with a well developed Bora
D – strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy
precipitation
Ans: A
A – in stable atmosphere
B – in unstable atmosphere
C – in summer during the day only
D – in mid latitudes only
Ans: B
A–D
B–A
C–B
D–C
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ans: B
128
24. (Refer to figure 050-03)
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus
lenticularis?
A–2
B–1
C–4
D–3
Ref: all
Ans: A
25. In an unstable layer thee are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these
clouds depends on the:
Ans: C
26. A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500m (1600 ft) above sea
level is covered with a uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months.
At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
Ref: all
Ans: A
27. What is the main composition of clouds classified as high level clouds?
Ans: B
129
28. What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?
Ans: C
29. A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500m (1600 ft) above
sea level is covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer
months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be
expected?
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ans: D
31. In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most
likely to be encountered?
Ans: D
130
32. Cumulus clouds are an indication for:
A – stability
B – up and downdrafts
C – the approach of a cold front
D – the approach of a warm front
Ans: B
Ans: C
34. Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
A – Cumulonimbus
B – Cirrostratus
C – Altocumulus
D – Altostratus
Ref: all
Ans: A
35. Which of the following is most correct regarding the cloud types Stratus and
Nimbostratus?
Ref: all
Ans: D
131
36. Altostratus (AS) and Nimbostratus (NS) are easily confused. How do you
distinguish between them?
Ref: all
Ans: A
37. Which one of the following cloud types gives steady rain or snowfall?
A – Altostratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Cirrostratus
D – Cumulonimbus
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – severe instability
B – anabatic winds
C – katabatic winds
D – lee waves
Ans: D
A – CS
B – C1
C – AS
D – CB
Ref: all
Ans: B
132
40. (Refer to figure 050-34)
The cloud type most applicable to square 2D is:
A – AS
B – CU
C – CB
D – CS
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – NS
B – AC
C – AS
D – CB
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – ST
B – AC
C – CB
D – CS
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – SC
B – CS
C – AS
D – NS
Ref: all
Ans: A
133
44. (Refer to figure 050-58)
The cloud type most applicable to square 1E is:
A – CS
B – CB
C – NS
D – SC
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – CS
B – AS
C – CB
D – CU
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – ST
B – CS
C – CB
D – SC
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – a remnant of a CB
B – a cumulus that is of great vertical extent
C – a cumulus with little vertical development
D – a cumulus that only occurs in association with the ITCZ
Ref: all
Ans: B
134
48. A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispensed by:
Ref: all
Ans: D
49. About ten identical clouds are in the sky, well isolated from one another,
dense, with well defined contours, developing vertically in a
cauliflower shape. The side of these clouds lit by the sun is bright white.
Their base, relatively dark, is essentially horizontal and at FL 30, and their
tops at FL 150. These clouds are:
A – Altocumulus castellanus
B – broken Cumulus humilis
C – towering Cumulus
D – Stratocumulus
Ref: all
Ans: C
50. After a clear night cumuliform clouds are formed in the morning. Why can
the base of these clouds become higher during the day?
A – Because the difference between the temperature and the dew point
temperature at the initial condensation level becomes smaller
B – The wind speed is increasing, because the cold air mass changes into a
warm air mass
C – Because the stability increases
D – Because the surface temperature increases
Ref: all
Ans: D
135
51. Clouds in patches, sheets or grey or whitish layers made up of elements
resembling large pebbles or rollers, together or not, and always clear of the
ground are:
A – Altostratus
B – Stratus
C – Stratocumulus
D – Nimbostratus
Ref: all
Ans: C
52. Clouds will mainly consist of super cooled water droplets when the
temperature is:
Ans: B
A – unstable air
B – turbulence
C – an inversion
D – light variable winds
Ans: B
A – Jet streams
B – Mountain waves
C – Stratospheric inversions
D – Areas of high level clear air turbulence
Ans: B
136
55. (Refer to figure 050-02)
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus
astellanus?
A–A
B–B
C–C
D–D
Ref: all
Ans: C
A–1
B–2
C–3
D–4
Ref: all
Ans: C
137
050-04-02 Fog, mist, haze
1. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lea to the formation of
advection fog?
Ref: all
Ans: B
2. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 2000 ft
B – 500 ft
C – 5000 ft
D – 10000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: B
138
5. Frontal fog is most likely to occur:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – At sunset
B – Shortly after sunrise
C – Late evening
D – Shortly after midnight
Ref: all
Ans: B
8. The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is:
A – above 15 kt
B – between 10 and 15 kt
C – between 5 and 10 kt
D – below 5 kt
Ref: all
Ans: D
139
9. When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?
A – When very humid warm air meets with dry cold air
B – When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air
C – When very humid cold air meets with dry warm air
D – When very dry cold air meets with very dry warm air
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
12. What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?
Ref: all
Ans: A
140
13. The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped
to the dew point, is likely to produce:
A – a cold front
B – radiation fog
C – advection fog
D – good clear weather
Ref: all
Ans: B
14. When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the
weather conditions are most likely to be:
A – unlimited visibility
B – clear and cool
C – high scattered clouds
D – fog or low cloud
Ref: all
Ans: D
15. What wind conditions, occurring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog
at an airport where the temperature is 15oC and the dew point is 14 oC?
A – Westerly, 10 kt variable
B – Northerly, 10 kt
C – Calm
D – Easterly, 10 kt
Ref: all
Ans: C
16. The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is:
Ref: all
Ans: A
141
17. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation
fog?
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – that is stable
B – with warm mass properties
C – that is absolutely stable
D – with cold mass properties
Ref: all
Ans: D
19. Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15 oC and
dew point of 12oC blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperature of
5oC?
A – Radiation fog
B – Advection fog
C – Steam fog
D – Frontal fog
Ref: all
Ans: B
20. Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation
fog?
Ref: all
Ans: A
142
21. Advection fog can be formed when:
Ref: all
Ans: D
22. Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?
Ref: all
Ans: B
23. What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with
calm or light wind conditions?
A – Radiation
B – Advection
C – Steam
D – Orographic
Ref: all
Ans: A
A–3
B–3
C–1
D–4
Ref: all
Ans: B
143
25. Which one of the following statements regarding the meteorological
horizontal visibility is the correct one?
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – reduced visibility > 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to the presence
of water droplets in the atmosphere
B – reduced visibility > 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to solid or
liquid particles in the atmosphere
C – reduced visibility > = 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to solid or
liquid particles in the atmosphere
D – reduced visibility > = 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to the
presence of water droplets in the atmosphere
Ref: all
Ans: D
144
28. According to ICAO, haze (HZ) or smoke (FU), is reduced visibility due to the
presence of solid particles (lithometeors) in the atmosphere to a value of:
A - < 5,000 m
B - < = 5,000m
C - > 5,000m
D - > = 5,000m
Ref: all
Ans: B
29. Conditions favourable for the development of radiation fog (FG) are:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – insulation
B – strong winds
C – replacement of moist air by drier air
D – all of the above
Ref: all
Ans: D
145
32. Advection fog is caused by:
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – is formed by advection
B – can form a persist with moderate or even strong wind
C – is cleared by change of air mass or less commonly by an increase in wind
strength
D – all of the above
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – cold maritime air flows over a warmer surface and the wind speed is
greater than 15 kt
B – cold air is forced over higher ground and further adiabatic cooling occurs
C – a mild moist air stream flows over snow covered ground and the wind
speed is less than 10 kt
D – warm maritime air flows over a relatively warmer surface and the wind
speed is greater than 15 kt
Ref: all
Ans: C
35. Advection of very cold air over a warm sea current can cause:
A – frontal fog
B – advection fog
C – no fog at all
D – steaming fog
Ref: all
Ans: D
146
36. As a result of diurnal variation radiation fog is lifted and a cloud cover is
formed. Which statement is true?
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – cooling at night
B – condensation of air saturated by adiabatic cooling
C – condensation of air saturated by evaporation of precipitation
D – evaporation of moisture at the surface
Ref: all
Ans: C
38. If radiation fog forms on a clear night with light winds, the increase in wind
speed from 5 kt to 13 kt will most likely:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
147
40. Radiation fog most frequently occurs in:
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – air temperature and dew point are equal or close to one another
B – the wind is strong
C – the sky is overcast
D – the turbulence in the lower layers is moderate
Ref: all
Ans: A
42. What is the difference between radiation fog and advection fog?
Ref: all
Ans: D
43. What kind of fog is often observed in the coastal region of Newfoundland in
spring time?
A – Radiation fog
B – Frontal fog
C – Advection fog
D – Steaming fog
Ref: all
Ans: C
148
44. Which of the following layers of fog above land is coded as MIFG?
Ref: all
Ans: A
45. Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a
Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm?
A – Convection
B – Ground radiation
C – Convergence
D – Orographic lift
Ref: all
Ans: B
46. Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the
formation of advection fog?
A – Cold maritime air flowing over a warmer land surface at a speed greater
than 15 kt
B – Clear skies at night over an inland marshy area
C – A mild moist air stream flowing over colder surfaces with a wind in
excess of 30 kt
D – A mild moist air stream flowing over colder surfaces with the wind speed
less than 15 kt
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – Fog can be super cooled and can also contain ice crystals
B – Mist and haze consist of water droplets
C – Fog and haze do not occur in the tropics
D – Mist and haze only differ by different values of visibility
Ref: all
Ans: A
149
48. Which type of fog can NOT be formed over water?
A – Advection fog
B – Radiation fog
C – Arctic smoke
D – Frontal fog
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
150
050-05 PRECIPITATION
Ref: all
Ans: A
2. Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely
to fall in mid-latitudes?
A – Hail
B – Moderate rain with large drops
C – Heavy rain with large drops
D – Drizzle
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
151
050-05-02 Types of precipitation
1. Freezing precipitation occurs:
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – CS
B – NS
C – CB
D – AC
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – CC
B – AS
C – ST
D – CB
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – Stratus
B – Altostratus
C – Cumulus
D – Cirrostratus
Ref: all
Ans: A
152
5. Freezing rain occurs when:
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – CB
B – AS
C – SC
D – NS
Ref: all
Ans: A
7. Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing
rain?
A – Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature
below 0oC
B – Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0 oC
C – Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm
D – An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0 oC through
which rain is falling
Ref: all
Ans: A
8. With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer
months?
A – NS, CC
B – CB, ST
C – SC, AS
D – AS, NS
Ref: all
Ans: C
153
9. What type of clouds are associated with snow showers?
A – Nimbostratus
B – Cumulus and altostratus
C – Altostratus and stratus
D – Cumulus and cumulonimbus
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – Nimbostratus
B – Towering cumulus and altostratus
C – Altostratus and stratus
D – Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus
Ref: all
Ans: D
154
13. Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy
precipitation?
A – SC
B – CS
C – NS
D – ST
Ref: all
Ans: C
14. With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
A – Stratocumulus
B – Cumulonimbus
C – Nimbostratus
D – Stratus
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – CB
B – ST
C – CC
D – CU
Ref: all
Ans: B
16. With which of the following types of cloud is +RA precipitation most
commonly associated?
A – NS
B – AC
C – SC
D – ST
Ref: all
Ans: A
155
17. The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select
the list containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:
A – Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range
between light and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate
B – Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are
frequently severe
C – Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are
frequently severe
D – Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than
moderate
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: C
19. Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation?
A – C1
B – AS
C – CB
D – NS
Ref: all
Ans: A
20. Which precipitation type generally has the greatest impact on visibility?
A – Heavy rain
B – Drizzle
C – Hail
D – Snow
Ref: all
Ans: D
156
21. Hazardous hailstones, reaching the ground, are most likely to be experienced
below CB clouds situated:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: A
157
050-06 AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Tropical continental
B – Polar maritime
C – Polar continental
D – Tropical maritime
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
158
4. What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity
between
an air mass with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over
northern Russia?
A – The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North Russian
air
B – The North Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores
C – The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North Russian air
D – The North Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – pressure is constant
B – temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
C – the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and
disappears
D – the lapse rate is 1oC per 100m
Ref: all
Ans: C
7. Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?
Ref: all
Ans: D
159
8. In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate?
A – Baltic Sea
B – Region of British Isles
C – East of Greenland
D – Black Sea
Ref: all
Ans: C
9. A stable humid warm air mass slowly over rides a cold one. Which one of the
following weather types may originate from this condition?
Ref: all
Ans: C
10. Which of these phenomena usually forms in the transition zone between two
air masses?
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
160
12. Air masses which are being cooled from below are often characterised by:
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – by widespread thunderstorms
B – by the influence of jet streams
C – by stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having
particular characteristics
D – in the westerlies of the mid latitudes
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: C
161
16. An air mass is:
Ref: all
Ans: A
17. An unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope. What type of
clouds can be expected?
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – stratiform cloud
B – cumuliform cloud and good visibility except in precipitation
C – continuous light rain from medium level layer cloud
D – poor visibility due to haze at the lower levels
Ref: all
Ans: B
19. How does relative humidity and the dew point in an unsaturated air mass
change with varying temperature?
A – When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point remains constant
B – When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dew
point decreases
C – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point increases
D – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dew point
remain constant
Ref: all
Ans: A
162
20. Which of the following processes will increase the stability of an air mass?
Ref: all
Ans: B
163
050-06-02 Fronts
1. What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North Sea,
approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front?
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: C
3. Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of
a
depression during winter?
A – C1, CS
B – ST with drizzle
C – Fair weather CU
D – CU, CB
Ref: all
Ans: B
4. Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the
summer?
Ref: all
Ans: D
164
5. Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet
wind:
Ref: all
Ans: A
6. If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in
the warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability
of freezing rain the lowest?
A – 9000 feet
B – 12000 feet
C – 5000 feet
D – 3000 feet
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion;
the warm air mass is above ground level
B – The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion; the
warm air mass is above ground level
C – The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less
cold air is above ground level
D – The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less
cold air mass is above ground level
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front
B – The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of
the front
C – The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
D – The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front
Ref: all
Ans: C
165
9. In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were
taken:
A – A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front
during late afternoon
B – A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front
during late afternoon
C – A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front
during late afternoon
D – Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station
Ref: all
Ans: B
10. Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when
approaching an active warm front at medium to low level?
Ref: all
Ans: B
166
11. Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front
characteristics?
Ref: all
Ans: B
12. What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front?
Ref: all
Ans: B
13. What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central
Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0oC, and freezing rain
starts to fall?
A – Cold occlusions
B – Warm fronts, warm occlusions
C – High level cold fronts
D – Cold fronts
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Track B-C
B – Track B-D
C – Track A-D
D – Track A-E
Ref: all
Ans: B
167
15. What type of front/occlusion usually moves the fastest?
A – Cold front
B – Warm front
C – Cold occlusion
D – Warm occlusion
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – TAF LSGG 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN
018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025=
B – TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 –RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG
0810 5000 RA BKN 020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030
BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090=
C – TAF LSGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013
25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or +SHRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316
VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100=
D – TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG 0811
23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000
TSRA BKN020CB =
Ref: all
Ans: B
17. During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of
clouds: Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. Which of the following
are you most likely to encounter?
Ref: all
Ans: B
168
18. In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the
cold air:
A – behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm air at a high
altitude
B – in front of the surface position of front is only at a high altitude
C – behind is colder than the cold air in front
D – behind is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at a
high altitude
Ref: all
Ans: A
19. An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system
of a depression, which is moving from West to East. The centre of the
depression passes to the South of the observer. For this observer the wind
direction is:
A – continuously veering
B – continuously backing
C – initially backing, then veering
D – initially veering, then backing
Ref: all
Ans: B
A–B
B–C
C–A
D–D
Ref: all
Ans: A
169
21. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on
the ground as an active cold front is passing?
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front
B – The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
C – The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
D – The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those
of an intense cold front and those of a warm and very active front
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Track B-A
B – Track C-A
C – Track D-A
D – Track B-C
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Summer
B – Winter
C – Autumn and winter
D – Winter and spring
Ref: all
Ans: A
170
25. (Refer to figure 050-104)
What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour?
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – 1/50
B – 1/150
C – 1/300
D – 1/500
Ref: all
Ans: B
27. What is the relative movement of the two air masses along a cold front?
Ref: all
Ans: C
28. What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?
Ref: all
Ans: C
171
29. At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from
west
to east generally, at their most southerly position?
A – Autumn
B – Summer
C – Spring
D – Winter
Ref: all
Ans: D
30. What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical
maritime air, during the summer?
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
32. In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?
Ref: all
Ans: A
172
33. How do air masses move at a warm front?
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Position 4
B – Position 3
C – Position 1
D – Position 2
Ref: all
Ans: B
35. What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression
over Central Europe in the summer?
A – BKN CU and CB
B – Fair weather CU
C – Sky clear
D – ST with drizzle
Ref: all
Ans: B
36. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on
the ground during the period following the passage of an active cold front?
Ref: all
Ans: C
173
37. In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered?
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
40. What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air
mass over rides a cold air mass?
A – Cumulus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Altostratus
D – Cumulonimbus
Ref: all
Ans: B
174
41. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on
the ground shortly before an active cold front passes?
A – It will be decreasing
B – It will remain unchanged
C – It will be increasing
D – It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet
Ref: all
Ans: C
A–1
B–3
C–2
D–4
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: C
175
44. Read this description:
“After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign yesterday
evening for the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down outside.
The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey; but at
least it has become a little bit warmer.”
A – A warm front
B – A blizzard
C – Weather at the back of a cold front
D – A cold front
Ref: all
Ans: A
45. A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do
you expect?
A – Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within
the warm sector the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the
cold front
B – Continuous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of
some 24 hours
C – Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the
warm sector within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold
front
D – Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The
precipitation stops for several hours within the warm sector. On the
arrival of the cold front, showers within a couple of hours
Ref: all
Ans: D
46. After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of
the cold air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately
after a marked change in temperature?
Ref: all
Ans: D
176
47. The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead
of a warm front is the:
Ref: all
Ans: B
48. What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
177
51. Jets are very rare near occluded front because:
Ref: all
Ans: D
52. The boundary between polar and tropical air is known as:
A – Tropical front
B – Cold front
C – Warm front
D – Polar front
Ref: all
Ans: D
53. If cold air is being “replaced” by warm air, the boundary between the air
masses is called:
A – a warm front
B – a cold front
C – a polar front
D – an arctic front
Ref: all
Ans: A
54. Which one of the following alternatives indicates how an occluded front is
generated?
Ref: all
Ans: C
178
55. When flying through a cold front in the summer, the following flying weather
may be expected:
Ref: all
Ans: A
56. The passage of a cold front over a meteorological station will result in:
Ref: all
Ans: B
57. The mean position of the polar front in the North Atlantic is:
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – cold occlusion
B – warm occlusion
C – warm front
D – cold front
Ref: all
Ans: B
179
59. A gust front is:
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – backs
B – veers
C – initially veers, then backs
D – initially backs, then veers
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – the cold air behind is colder than the cold air ahead
B – the cold air behind is warmer than the cold air ahead
C – the cold air behind is lifted by the warm air
D – the cold air ahead is lifted
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead, with the warm
air at a higher altitude
B – ahead of the surface position of the occlusion is only at a higher altitude
C – at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead
D – at the rear of the occlusion is less cold that the cold air ahead, with the
warm air at a higher altitude
Ref: all
Ans: D
180
63. At a cold front:
Ref: all
Ans: A
64. At a station at the surface the significant weather with a warm front will come:
Ref: all
Ans: D
65. During the passage of a front in the northern hemisphere the wind veers. This
statement is:
A – not true
B – only true for the passage of a cold front
C – only true for the passage of a warm front
D – true
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: A
181
67. The air mass in the warm sector of a polar front is:
A – arctic air
B – polar air
C – tropical air
D – equatorial air
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
69. The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and
cirrostratus, and altostratus. The sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens
and drizzle or rain begins to fall. The cloud base is lowering as Nimbostratus
arrives. These phenomena:
A – warm front
B – cold front
C – trade wind front
D – sea breeze front
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
182
71. The lowest cloud type observed is Stratus fractus and there is moderate
continuous rain. The area of the system in which you are at this moment is:
Ref: all
Ans: B
72. The passage of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types of
fog just in advance and just after the passage are respectively
Ref: all
Ans: C
73. The reason for the fact, that the atmospheric pressure of a polar front
depression is normally lower in winter than in summer is that
Ref: all
Ans: D
74. The slope and speed of a warm front compared to the slope and speed of a
cold front is in general:
Ref: all
Ans: A
183
75. When a front has to cross a chain of mountains, its activity:
Ref: all
Ans: A
76. Where is the projection of the polar front jet stream on the surface most likely
to be found in relation to the cold and warm fronts of a depression?
A – 30 to 450 NM behind the cold front and 50 to 200 NM ahead of the warm
front
B – Up to 100 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side
of the warm front
C – Up to 200 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side
of the warm front
D – 50 to 200 NM behind the cold front and 300 to 450 NM ahead of the
warm front
Ref: all
Ans: D
77. Which statement concerning the cold front and warm front of a frontal
depression in the northern hemisphere is correct?
A – The precipitation zone of the cold front is in general wider than the
precipitation zone of the warm front
B – The risk of fog is greater ahead of and behind the warm front than ahead
of and behind the cold front
C – While occluding the warm front always becomes a front aloft
D – The wind backs more at the warm front than at the cold front
Ref: all
Ans: B
184
78. Which statement is correct for a warm occlusion?
Ref: all
Ans: B
185
050-07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS
Ref: all
Ans: D
2. Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following
statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic
region between 30oN and 65oN. During winter the predominant mean low
pressure system at the surface is usually centred over:
A – USA
B – Iceland/Greenland
C – Siberia
D – Azores
Ref: all
Ans: B
3. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN together with
the adjacent land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anti-
cyclones at the surface is:
A – Azores, Siberia
B – Siberia, Iceland, Canaries
C – NE Canada, Iceland
D – Greenland, Iberian peninsula
Ref: all
Ans: A
186
4. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN and the
adjacent land areas during mid summer, the predominant pressure systems are:
Ref: all
Ans: C
050-07-02 Anti-cyclone
A – NS
B – TS, SH
C – CB, TS
D – Calm winds, haze
Ref: all
Ans: D
2. If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is
a:
A – cold low
B – warm high
C – cold high
D – warm low
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – convection
B – subsidence
C – a decrease in temperature
D – a decrease in pressure
Ref: all
Ans: B
187
4. Subsidence is:
Ref: all
Ans: C
5. The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high
pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called:
A – subsidence inversion
B – friction inversion
C – radiation inversion
D – trade wind inversion
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Thunderstorms
B – A tendency for fog and low ST
C – NS with continuous rain
D – The possibility of snow showers
Ref: all
Ans: B
188
8. What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a
stationary high?
A – Instability
B – Rising air
C – Sinking air
D – Divergence at higher levels
Ref: all
Ans: C
9. Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it:
Ref: all
Ans: B
10. What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure
area?
A – Convection
B – Convergence
C – Advection
D – Subsidence
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – increasingly stable
B – increasingly unstable
C – conditionally unstable
D – it depends on the humidity
Ref: all
Ans: B
189
12. A blocking anti-cyclone in the northern hemisphere is:
Ref: all
Ans: B
13. During summer an anti-cyclone covers the British isles giving mainly clear
skies. At 0600 UTC a south coast airfield in Southern England reports a
surface wind of 350/06. The coastline at the airfield perimeter is aligned in an
east/west direction. During:
Ref: all
Ans: B
14. When flying at 5000 feet in the northern hemisphere over plains (flat country)
with an anti-cyclone on the left and a depression on the right, the wind will be:
Ref: all
Ans: C
15. You are flying in the northern hemisphere at 2000 ft over a flat country area.
An anti-cyclone is ahead of you and a depression is behind you. The wind
affecting you, will be:
Ref: all
Ans: A
190
050-07-03 Non-frontal depressions
1. Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?
Ref: all
Ans: A
2. What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?
Ref: all
Ans: C
3. With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the
weather likely to be experienced is:
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – A cold air pool may only be recognised on the surface chart as a low
pressure area
B – As a high pressure area aloft (eg. On the 500 hPa chart)
C – As a low pressure area aloft (eg. On the 500 hPa chart)
D – A cold air pool may only be recognised on the surface chart as a high
pressure area
Ref: all
Ans: C
191
5. What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air
pool?
A – Nothing (CAVOK)
B – Strong westerly winds
C – Fine weather CU
D – Showers and thunderstorms
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
192
9. A cold air pool:
A – occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is
under the influence of cold north westerly air stream
B – develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime
arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an
extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems
C – normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
D – is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the
middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
193
050-07-04 Tropical revolving storms
1. What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, could indicate the
presence
of a tropical revolving storm?
Ans: D
Ans: A
Ans: D
Ans: C
194
5. On which coast of North America is the danger of tropical revolving storms
the
greatest?
A – NE coast
B – W coast
C – N coast
D – SE coast
Ans: D
A – December to April
B – May to July
C – August to October
D – Not experienced at Darwin
Ans: A
7. During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern
hemisphere?
A – All seasons
B – Winter
C – Winter and spring
D – Summer and autumn
Ans: D
8. Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the south-east Pacific and the south
Atlantic because:
Ans: B
195
9. Why to tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts
of
the tropical oceans?
Ans: C
10. What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane in the Caribbean area?
Ans: D
11. The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms
occur is:
A – the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh
B – the Caribbean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south east
coastline of the USA
C – the south western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the
island of Reunion
D – the north west Pacific, affecting Japan, Taiwan, Korea and the Chinese
coastline
Ans: D
196
12. (Refer to figure 050-18)
The arrows labelled “U” represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms
which occur mainly from:
Ans: B
A – From the earth’s surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its
surroundings
B – They intensify rapidly after landfall
C – The diameter is 50-500m
D – Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter
Ans: A
14. At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern
islands of Japan?
A – January to May
B – September to January
C – July to November
D – May to July
Ans: C
Ans: B
197
16. (Refer to figue 050-18)
The arrows labelled “R” represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms
which occur mainly from:
Ans: C
Ans: B
198
050-08 CLIMATOLOGY
A – the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the
development of lows
B – the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter
C – the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much
greater in winter
D – converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter
Ans: C
Ans: C
A – 50oN
B – 10oN
C – 30oN
D – 80oN
Ans: A
199
4. Considering the North Atlantic area north of 60oN during winter, the mean
height of the tropopause is approximately:
A – 37000 ft
B – 56000 ft
C – 29000 ft
D – 20000 ft
Ans: C
5. Considering the North Atlantic at latitude 50oN during winter, the mean
height of the tropopause is approximately
A – 23000 ft
B – 31000 ft
C – 43000 ft
D – 54000 ft
Ans: B
6. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN, the mean
position of the polar front during summer extends from:
A – Florida to SW England
B – Newfoundland to N Scotland
C – NE Canada to Iceland
D – Greenland to Spain
Ans: B
200
050-08-02 Tropical climatology
1. What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon
regions of the Indian sub-continent?
Ans: A
A – The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the year
B – Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ
C – The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream
D – Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area
of the ITCZ
Ans: D
Ans: B
4. Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?
Ans: A
201
5. Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct?
A – They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the
continents
B – They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced
over the oceans
C – They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceans
D – They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more
pronounced over the continents
Ans: B
A – SW monsoon
B – NE monsoon
C – NW monsoon
D – SE monsoon
Ans: B
A – In October
B – In June
C – In December
D – In March
Ans: B
202
8. An easterly wave is a:
A – wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe
convective activity in rear of its trough
B – wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east
to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
C – small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west,
with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
D – disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet,
moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its
trough
Ans: A
Ans: D
10. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of
the ITCZ in the region of West Africa?
Ans: B
203
11. What name is given to the low level wind system between the sub-tropical
high
pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ)?
A – Doldrums
B – Westerly winds
C – Monsoon
D – Trade winds
Ans: D
12. Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are mainly influenced by the
Ans: B
Ans: A
204
14. During July flights from Bangkok (13oN – 100oE) to Karachi (25oN – 67oE)
experience an average tailwind component of 22 kt. In January the same
flights, also operating at FL 370, have an average head wind of 50 kt. What is
the reason for this difference?
A – The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet stream
B – The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual,
favourable conditions
C – The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse
conditions
D – The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional
wind system
Ans: D
15. Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the:
Ans: C
16. Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be
encountered?
Ans: D
17. From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
A–N
B – NE
C – SW
D – SE
Ans: D
205
18. When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?
Ans: A
Ans: A
20. What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India?
A – Fog
B – Stratus clouds and drizzle
C – Sandstorms
D – Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain
Ans: D
A – 8o – 12oS
B – 3o – 8oS
C – 0o – 7oN
D – 7o – 12oN
Ans: C
206
22. Which of the following best describes the inter-tropical convergence zone?
A – The zone where the Harmattan meets the north easterly trade winds over
Africa
B – The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of
the southern hemisphere
C – The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics
D – The zone where the west winds meet the sub-tropical high pressure belt
Ans: B
23. What is the name of the wind or air mass which gives to the main part of India
its greatest proportion of precipitation?
Ans: C
A–U
B–T
C–V
D–W
Ans: A
25. In January, mean high pressure areas are usually present over:
Ans: B
207
26. Which of the following statements concerning the ITCZ is correct?
Ans: D
Ans: C
A – westerlies in excess of 60 kt
B – easterly jet streams in excess of 70 kt
C – light easterlies
D – westerlies at 40 kt
Ans: C
Ans: A
208
30. (Refer to figure 050-19)
Considering that portion of the route indicated from 30 oE to 50oE, the upper
winds in January above FL 300 are most likely to be:
Ans: A
Ans: A
Ans: B
209
33. During the approach to Bombay (19oN – 73oE) on the west coast of India,
you are listening to the ATIS on 15 July at 0700 T. Which of the following
reports is most likely?
Ans: A
34. On the West coast of India it can be said in general that the wind blows:
Ans: C
Ans: C
A – At the equator
B – Between the “horse latitudes” and the mid latitudes
C – Between the “horse latitudes” and the equatorial highs
D – Between the “horse latitudes” and the doldrums
Ans: D
210
050-08-03 Typical weather situations in mid-
latitudes
1. A cold pool:
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: A
211
4. (Refer to figure 050-43)
Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for northern Italy?
A – Westerly wind
B – Warm southerly wind
C – High pressure
D – Easterly wind
Ref: all
Ans: C
5. With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the
indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over
a period of about ten minutes?
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Westerly waves
B – Uniform pressure pattern
C – Cutting wind
D – Easterly waves
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: C
212
8. (Refer to figure 050-99)
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation,
zone “x” is an area of:
A – NE trade winds
B – travelling low pressure systems
C – sub-tropical high pressure systems
D – the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – a radiation inversion
B – a layer of unstable air
C – a temperature inversion
D – the tropopause
Ref: all
Ans: C
10. The length, width and height of a typical mid-latitude jet stream are
respectively:
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
213
050-08-04 Local seasonal weather and wind
1. The Chinook is a:
A – warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the
Rocky Mountains
B – very cold wind with blowing snow
C – down slope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools along
mountain slopes
D – warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers
Ref: all
Ans: A
2. What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows
over a certain part of Europe?
A – Bora
B – Foehn
C – Mistral
D – Typhoon
Ref: all
Ans: C
3. Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with
stormy winds from the south (Foehn)?
Ref: all
Ans: A
214
4. A dry sand and dust laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large
parts of North West Africa is known as a:
A – Scirocco
B – Harmattan
C – Pampero
D – Khamsin
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Sand up to FL 150
B – Thunderstorms
C – Dust and poor visibility
D – Hail
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
215
8. Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no
precipitation?
A – The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south
B – The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north
C – Frontal zones
D – Occlusions
Ref: all
Ans: A
9. What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with
Foehn from south?
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
216
12. What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern
Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
A – Mistral
B – Ghibli
C – Bora
D – Scirocco
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Because the Earth’s spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the
Sun
B – Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year
C – Because the Earth’s orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the
time of the year
D – Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar
Year
Ref: all
Ans: A
14. At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most
rapidly?
Ref: all
Ans: A
15. A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of
air over hills or mountains is known as a:
A – Bora
B – Harmattan
C – Mistral
D – Foehn
Ref: all
Ans: D
217
16. (Refer to figure 050-56)
Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a:
A – warm southerly dust bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa
B – SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the
West African coast south of 15oN
C – NE wind affecting north west Africa during November to April reducing
visibility in rising dust
D – localised depression giving squally winds
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
18. What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain
chains? In the Alps, for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly
wind depending on the weather situation.
A – Foehn
B – Mistral
C – Bora
D – Scirocco
Ref: all
Ans: A
218
19. The Bora is a:
A – cold katabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
B – squally warm katabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
C – cold katabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
D – cold katabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Harmatan
B – Scirocco
C – Chinook
D – Bora
Ref: all
Ans: C
21. 8/8 stratus base 200 ft/AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north
of France; the QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt. What
change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?
A – Winter: SCT base 3,000 ft/AGL; summer OVC base 500 ft/AGL
B – Winter: OVC base 500 ft/AGL; summer SCT base 3000 ft/AGL
C – Winter: clear sky; summer BKN CB base 1500 ft/AGL
D – Winter: BKN base 2500 ft/AGL; summer BKN base 3500 ft/AGL
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 56000 ft
B – 43000 ft
C – 36000 ft
D – 29000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: A
219
23. (Refer to figure 050-99)
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the SE trade
winds are applicable to zone:
A–t
B–w
C–u
D–v
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – s and y
B – t only
C – t and x
D – u and w
Ref: all
Ans: A
25. At which height and at what time of the year can an aircraft be affected by the
equatorial jet stream?
Ref: all
Ans: A
26. Considering the North Atlantic between 30oN and 65oN, the mean position of
the polar front during winter extends from:
A – Florida to SW England
B – Newfoundland to Iceland
C – Iceland to Norway
D – NE Canada to Portugal
Ref: all
Ans: A
220
27. For an airfield located in the British Isles, the passage of a warm front will
usually be indicated by:
Ref: all
Ans: B
28. From summer to winter the polar front jet stream over the North Atlantic
moves:
Ref: all
Ans: A
29. In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated
with sub-tropical jet streams are usually located
Ref: all
Ans: C
30. Over the Indian Ocean and the Bay of Bengal tropical cyclones are:
A – frequently observed, in the average 15 per year over the Indian Ocean, but
never over the Bay of Bengal
B – rare, in the average one every two years
C – never observed
D – occasionally observed, in the average 12 per year
Ref: all
Ans: D
221
31. The air masses that are observed most frequently over western Europe are:
Ref: all
Ans: C
32. The average position of the polar front in the northern hemisphere is:
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: B
222
35. The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the
equator (Gulf of Guinea) is a:
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
223
39. What type of weather can usually be expected in a polar maritime air mass
over Central Europe in the daytime during summer?
A – Sky clear
B – Continuous rain and poor visibility
C – Drizzle and low stratus
D – Showers and good visibility
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
41. Which of the following statements concerning the variation in wind speed
between summer and winter on the North Atlantic between FL 300 and FL
400 is most correct?
Ref: all
Ans: A
224
42. Which statement concerning the Sirocco is correct?
A – It is a north easterly wind over the western part of North Africa with much
dust and sand
B – It blows from southerly directions and can carry dust and sand which may
reach Europe
C – The carried dust and sand does not reach great heights. This is caused by
the presence of a trade wind inversion
D – It is formed by a strong increase of air pressure over North Africa
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: B
44. Which two air masses are most likely to govern weather in western Europe?
Ref: all
Ans: B
45. Which type of air mass never occurs over central Europe?
A – Tropical air
B – Arctic air
C – Polar air
D – Equatorial air
Ref: all
Ans: D
225
46. (Refer to figure 050-20)
Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced
by the zone of:
Ans A
47. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling
low pressure systems during summer?
A – 45o – 75o
B – 35o – 45o
C – 15o – 25o
D – 10o – 15o
Ref: all
Ans: A
48. What is the surface visibility most likely to be in a warm sector of maritime
tropical air during a summer afternoon in western Europe?
Ref: all
Ans: B
226
050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS
050-09-01 Icing
1. Large super cooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an airplane form:
A – rime ice
B – clear ice
C – hoar frost
D – cloudy ice
Ans: B
A – CU
B – SC
C – NS
D – C1
Ref: all
Ans: D
3. You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air
temperature is -25oC. Which of the following statements is true?
Ref: all
Ans: C
227
4. In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft’s
surface?
A - -20oC to -35oC
B - +10oC to 0oC
C – 0oC to -10oC
D - -35oC to -50oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – NS
B – AS
C – SC
D – CS
Ref: all
Ans: D
6. On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5oC. The freezing level
Is at 3000 ft/AGL. At 4000 ft/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which
rain is falling. According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an
inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you
expect icing?
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – PE
B – GR
C – SHSN
D - +FZRA
Ref: all
Ans: D
228
8. A small super cooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most
likely:
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Clear ice
B – Rime ice
C – Mixed ice
D – Frost
Ans: B
A – Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero
degrees C
B – Flying in dense cirrus clouds
C – Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer
D – Flying in heavy drizzle
Ref: all
Ans: A
11. Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft
icing is most correct?
A – Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below
minus 12 degrees C
B – Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds
C – A cloud consisting of both super cooled cloud droplets and ice crystals
produces aircraft icing
D – Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud
Ref: all
Ans: C
229
12. Hoar frost is most likely to form when:
Ref: all
Ans: B
13. Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the
various types of ice on an aircraft?
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – are frozen
B – are super cooled
C – are freezing very rapidly
D – freeze when temperature falls below zero
Ans: B
15. Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick
profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The
cloud consists of small super cooled droplets. Which of the following
statements is most correct concerning ice accretion?
Ref: all
Ans: B
230
16. A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds
and
temperature close to zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect:
Ref: all
Ans: C
17. Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to
moderate
icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of super cooled
cloud droplets?
Ref: all
Ans: B
18. At what degree of icing should ICAOs change course and/or altitude
immediately instruction be followed?
A – Light
B – Severe
C – Moderate
D – Extreme
Ans: B
231
19. Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of:
A – water vapour
B – large super cooled water drops
C – small super cooled water drops
D – snow
Ans: B
Ans: D
A – rime ice
B – hoar frost
C – dry ice
D – clear ice
Ans: D
22. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest
rate of accumulation?
A – Cirrus clouds
B – Freezing rain
C – Stratus clouds
D – Snow
Ans: B
232
23. At what degree of icing should ICAOs change of course and/or altitude
desirable recommendation be followed:
A – Light
B – Moderate
C – Severe
D – Extreme
Ans: B
A – FL 80
B – FL 150
C – FL 180
D – FL 220
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ans: A
26. Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of:
A – water vapour
B – large super cooled water drops
C – small super cooled water drops
D – snow
Ans: C
233
27. How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 ft/AGL, when he is
unable to de-ice nor land?
Ref: all
Ans: A
28. Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to
occur in a CB?
Ref: all
Ans: C
29. Glaze or clear ice is formed when super cooled droplets are:
Ans: B
30. The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large super cooled drops
that have a temperature of -5oC is most likely to be:
A – clear ice
B – hoar frost
C – rime ice
D – cloudy ice
Ans: A
234
31. At what degree of icing can ICAO (no change of course and altitude
necessary) recommendation be followed?
A – Moderate
B – Light
C – Severe
D – Extreme
Ans: B
A – water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
B – freezing rain striking the aircraft
C – droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing
D – small super cooled droplets striking the aircraft
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
235
35. During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze:
Ref: all
Ans: A
36. A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when
the temperature profile:
Ref: all
Ans: D
37. The icing in cloud which forms over hills is likely to be more severe than in
the same type of cloud over level terrain because:
A – orographic lifting causes the freezing level to rise and increases the free
water content of the cloud
B – increases the temperature inside the cloud by forcing the release of latent
heat so causing the air to hold more water vapour
C – enforced ascent of air releases more water, which is retailed in the cloud
by the increased upward components
D – adiabatic cooling lowers the freezing level and the water content of the
cloud
Ref: all
Ans: C
38. Which one of the following statements concerning icing in freezing rain is
correct?
Ans: C
236
39. One of the most serious consequences of icing on the wings of an aircraft is?
Ans: D
Ans: A
Ans: B
42. Which one of the following precipitation types gives the most severe icing?
A – Snowfall
B – Mixed rain and snow
C – Freezing rain
D – Ice pellets
Ref: all
Ans: C
237
43. After a prolonged VMC descent in very cold air, you penetrate a humid air
mass. What type of icing will you encounter?
A – Hoar frost
B – Rime ice
C – Clear ice
D – Smooth icing
Ans: A
44. An aircraft descends in layered clouds; the freezing level is situated at FL 60.
At what levels is the probability for airframe icing the highest?
Ref: all
Ans: A
45. An aircraft flies into super cooled rain in an area with a temperature below
0oC. The type of icing it will most likely encounter is
A – granular frost
B – hoar frost
C – rime ice
D – clear ice
Ans: D
46. For a VFR aircraft, the conditions in which it could encounter severe airframe
icing are:
A – flight into an area outside of clouds where the temperature is below 0 oC,
resulting in rime ice formation
B – flight into super cooled rain, resulting in rime ice formation
C – flight into freezing rain, resulting in clear ice formation
D – flight between two cloud layers, without precipitation, resulting in clear
ice formation
Ref: all
Ans: C
238
47. Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures:
Ref: all
Ans: C
A - -23oC to -40oC
B - +5oC to 0oC
C – 0oC to -23oC
D - -40oC to -60oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
49. In which conditions would you most likely encounter clear icing, and how
would it normally appear?
Ref: all
Ans: C
239
50. The formation of clear ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely to
be caused by the:
A – relatively slow freezing of small super cooled water droplets and ice
crystals
B – instantaneous freezing of small super cooled water droplets
C – instantaneous freezing of large super cooled water droplets and snow
crystals
D – relatively slow freezing of large super cooled water droplets
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
52. What are the characteristics of rime ice, and what conditions are most
favourable for its formation?
Ref: all
Ans: A
240
53. What intensity and type of aircraft icing is likely to occur at FL 100 in a
thunderstorm, with the freezing level at 7000 ft?
Ans: A
54. What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when aircraft
descends rapidly from FL 320 (temp -45oC) to FL 60 in warm, moist clear
air?
Ans: A
55. What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when flying
at FL 170 in AS with the outside air temperature at -20oC?
Ans: C
Ans: A
241
57. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe
airframe icing?
Ref: all
Ans: A
58. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is the evidence that:
Ref: all
Ans: A
242
050-09-02 Turbulence
1. What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
A – Decrease of speed
B – Change of course
C – Increase of speed
D – Change of flight level
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
3. The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of
the type Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe clear air
turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
A – The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out
type. The manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even
impossible. For the passengers the flight will be unpleasant
B – The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be
difficult to manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort
C – The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing board
(small scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity,
but will make flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom
notice anything of this turbulence
D – The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the
passengers but the manoeuvring will not be affected essentially
Ref: all
Ans: A
243
4. How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?
A – Large, abrupt changes in altitude or altitude occur but the aircraft may
only be out of control momentarily
B – Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without
appreciable changes in altitude or attitude
C – Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive
control at all times
D – Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
6. An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270
and experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be
at FL 310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by:
A – Climbing
B – Descending
C – Turning right
D – Maintain FL 270
Ref: all
Ans: B
7. The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually
identified in flight by:
Ref: all
Ans: B
244
8. All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You
experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain
against their seat below or shoulder straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged.
Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be
reported as:
A – severe
B – extreme
C – moderate
D – light
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – roll cloud
B – lenticular cloud
C – at the crest of the mountain
D – on the windward side
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: A
245
12. (Refer to figure 050-70)
Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC. At what flight level
would you first expect to encounter clear air turbulence on the climb out from
Zurich?
A – FL 140
B – FL 160
C – FL 320
D – FL 220
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: C
15. 24301. In which zone of a polar front jet stream is the strongest CAT to be
expected?
Ans: C
246
16. Stratus formed by turbulence will occur when:
A – the wind speed is greater than 10 kt and the condensation level is situated
just above the turbulent layer
B – the wind speed is less than 10 kt and the air is heated by the earth’s
surface
C – in the friction layer mixing occurs by turbulence and the condensation
level is situated below the top of the turbulent layer
D – absolute instability exists at low level
Ref: all
Ans: C
17. The most likely place to encounter clear air turbulence associated with a jet
stream is:
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
247
050-09-03 Windshear
1. Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
248
5. Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – extra turbulence
B – wind shear
C – compass error
D – pilot disorientation
Ref: all
Ans: B
249
9. (Refer to figure 050-27)
In which squares are conditions most likely to cause the occurrence of low
level wind shear?
A – 3B and 3C
B – 3A and 3B
C – 3A and 3C
D – 3B and 3D
Ref: all
Ans: C
10. In relation to the polar front jet stream, the greatest rate of wind shear is most
likely to occur
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: A
250
050-09-04 Thunderstorms
1. Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – A high speed down burst of air with a generally lower temperature than its
surroundings
B – A high speed down draft of air with a higher temperature than its
surroundings
C – An extremely strong wind gust associated with a troical revolving storm
D – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed
Ref: all
Ans: A
251
5. What is a microburst?
A – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high
speeds
B – A concentrated down draft with high speeds and a high temperature than
the surrounding air
C – An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm
D – A concentrated down draft with high speeds and a lower temperature than
the surrounding air
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – dissipating stage
B – mature stage
C – initial stage
D – period in which precipitation is falling
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: A
252
9. What are squall lines?
Ref: all
Ans: B
10. The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of:
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Dissipating stage
B – Cumulus stage
C – Mature stage
D – Cumulus stage and mature stage
Ref: all
Ans: C
12. What are the meteorological pre-requisites, at low level, for thunderstorms
formed by lifting processes over land?
Ref: all
Ans: C
253
13. What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?
Ref: all
Ans: B
14. In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for
thunderstorm formation?
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – About 30 minutes
B – Less than 1 minute
C – 1 to 2 hours
D – 1 to 5 minutes
Ref: all
Ans: D
16. Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land
in moderate latitudes?
A – Occlusion thunderstorms
B – Warm front thunderstorms
C – Cold mass thunderstorms
D – Air mass thunderstorms
Ref: all
Ans: D
254
17. In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to
warm updrafts?
A – Mid-afternoon
B – Around midnight
C – Early morning
D – Late morning
Ref: all
Ans: A
18. Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at
least temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Dissipating stage
B – Cumulus stage
C – Mature stage
D – Anvil stage
Ref: all
Ans: A
255
20. What feature is normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm?
A – Frequent lightning
B – Roll cloud
C – Continuous updraft
D – Rain or hail at the surface
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – dissipating stage
B – cumulus stage
C – mature stage
D – period in which precipitation is not falling
Ref: all
Ans: C
22. In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up and
down drafts simultaneously?
A – Dissipating stage
B – Cumulus stage
C – Mature stage
D – In all stages
Ref: all
Ans: C
23. A microburst:
Ref: all
Ans: C
256
24. The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterised by:
Ref: all
Ans: D
25. The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country
flight is:
A – cirrus
B – stratocumulus
C – cumulus
D – cumulonimbus
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – Red cirrus
B – AC lenticularis
C – Halo
D – AC castellanus
Ref: all
Ans: D
27. Which thunderstorms generally product the most severe conditions, such as
heavy hail and destructive winds?
Ref: all
Ans: B
257
28. Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by:
A – frontal occlusion
B – thermal triggering
C – frontal lifting (warm flood)
D – frontal lifting (cold front)
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Sub-tropical
B – Temperate
C – Tropical
D – Polar
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry
adiabatic lapse rate
B – warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the
saturated adiabatic lapse rate
C – cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated
adiabatic lapse rate
D – warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated
adiabatic lapse rate
Ref: all
Ans: D
258
32. In general terms, an intense contour low will indicate:
Ref: all
Ans: C
33. Which of the following is consered to be one of the conditions necessary for
thunderstorm development?
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
259
36. Air mass thunderstorms are triggered off by:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – 20 min
B – 30 min
C – 20/.30 min
D – 40 min
Ref: all
Ans: A
260
40. In the building stage of a thunderstorm, which of the following is true?
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – 15 min
B – 30 min
C – 20/30 min
D – 40 min
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: C
261
44. The most common hazards of thunderstorms to aircraft on or near the ground
are:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
46. Which thunderstorms are the more difficult to forecast and detect?
A – cumulus thunderstorms
B – air mass thunderstorms
C – frontal thunderstorms
D – cumulus thunderstorms because they are smaller
Ref: all
Ans: B
47. If you cannot avoid penetrating a thunderstorm, which is the best area to
penetrate?
A – The top
B – The middle
C – The bottom
D – The sides
Ref: all
Ans: D
262
48. (Refr to figure 050-72)
At which position is the development of thunderstorms most likely, and what
is the maximum height of the CB clouds at 00 UTC?
A – Position C, FL 200
B – Position A, FL 200
C – Position B, FL 270
D – Position D, FL 290
Ref: all
Ans: C
49. A Cb with thunderstorm has reached the mature stage. Which statement is
correct?
A – The freezing level in the whole cloud lies lower than outside the cloud
B – In temperatures lower than -23oC icing is still possible
C – If hail occurs, it only occurs in down drafts
D – Severe turbulence occurs in the cloud, but hardly ever below the cloud
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – has a diameter up to 4 km
B – has a life time of more than 30 minutes
C – is always associated with thunderstorms
D – occurs only in tropical areas
Ref: all
Ans: A
51. Assuming that an initial “trigger” force is present, the conditions most likely
to result in the formation of thunderstorms are:
A – high surface temperature, low dew point and high dry adiabatic lapse rate
B – high relative humidity and instability throughout a deep layer
C – rapid orographic cooling of cloud containing ice crystals
D – intense surface heating, anti-cyclonic pressure system and relatively high
freezing level
Ref: all
Ans: B
263
52. At the surface the lifetime of a typical microburst and the diameter of the area
affected by damaging winds are in the order of:
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – heavy showers, lightning strikes, hail, mist, squalls, light rain over a large
area
B – thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail, haze, wind gusts, advection fog
C – thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers, lightning
strikes
D – hail, lightning strikes, wind lulls, squalls, stratocumulus, low level wind
maximum
Ref: all
Ans: C
54. In which of the following situations is the probability for severe thunderstorms
the highest?
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Altostratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Altocumulus Castellanus
D – Altocumulus Lenticularis
Ref: all
Ans: C
264
56. What is a down burst?
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – 20 km
B – 400m
C – 4 km
D – 50 km
Ref: all
Ans: C
58. Which of the following sets of conditions are most favourable to the
development of thunderstorms?
A – Extensive isothermal layer, ice particles and water droplets must exist just
below the freezing level and orographic lifting
B – Environmenal lapse rate greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate through
a great vertical extent, high relative humidity and an initial lifting process
C – Environmental lapse rate less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate with dew
point below 0oC and considerable surface heating
D – Environmental lapse rate less than dry adiabatic lapse rate with freezing
level below the cloud base, high relative humidity and strong surface
winds
Ref: all
Ans: B
265
59. Which of the following situations favours the formation of heavy
thunderstorms?
Ref: all
Ans: A
60. Which of the following statements about lightnings and lightning strikes is
correct?
Ref: all
Ans: A
61. Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass
thunderstorms?
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: B
266
63. With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only
updraughts of air?
A – Anvil stage
B – Mature stage
C – Initial stage
D – Dissipating stage
Ref: all
Ans: C
267
050-09-05 Tornadoes
1. The diameter of a typical tornado is:
Ref: all
Ans: B
2. At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?
A – Spring, summer
B – Summer, autumn
C – Autumn, winter
D – Winter
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Cumulonimbus
B – Cumulus
C – Stratus
D – Nimbostratus
Ref: all
Ans: A
268
050-09-06 Low and high level inversions
1. Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by:
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: A
269
050-09-08 Hazards in mountainous areas
1. You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alpa, on a hot summer day,
when the weather is unstable. What is the best time of day to conduct this
flight?
A – Morning
B – Mid day
C – Afternoon
D – Early evening
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Inversions
B – Stratified clouds
C – Showers and thunderstorms
D – Areas of severe turbulence
Ref: all
Ans: B
3. You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12oC and a TAS of 250 kt
at FL 150 through 8 octas NS. What type and degree of icing is most
probable?
Ref: all
Ans: B
270
4. Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of
mountain waves?
A – Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing
across the mountain ridge
B – Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at lest 30 knots
blowing parallel to the mountain ridge
C – Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing
across the mountain ridge
D – Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing
across the mountain ridge
Ref: all
Ans: D
5. For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the level of the ridge
should:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: B
271
8. When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most
severe turbulence be located?
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – The absence of cloud over high ground indicates the absence of mountain
waves
B – Mountain waves are not experienced beyond 100 miles downwind from
initiating high ground, regardless of the height of the ground
C – Flight with headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous
than flight with tailwind toward high ground
D – Flight with tailwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous
than flight with headwind toward high ground
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
272
11. The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves are:
Ref: all
Ans: D
273
050-09-09 Visibility reducing phenomena
1. In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall compared to during
drizzle is:
A – less
B – the same
C – greater
D – in rain – below 1 km, in drizzle – more than 2 km
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
274
5. Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can
decrease to minimal:
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – low stratus
B – haze
C – drizzle
D – showers of rain or snow
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
8. The forms of visible water which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:
A – fog, spray, cloud and hail (but only for short periods)
B – cloud, fog, smog, spray or precipitation
C – cloud, fog, mist, spray or smog
D – cloud, fog, mist spray or precipitation
Ref: all
Ans: D
275
9. Reduction in visibility due to precipitation depends on:
Ref: all
Ans: D
10. In the weather pattern behind a cold front, the visibility outside precipitation
is:
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – It is always reported
B – Whenever the sky is obscured by fog or heavy precipitation and the height
of the cloud base cannot be measured
C – Whenever the lowest ceiling is below 1500 ft above ground
D – Whenever the lowest cloud base is below 1500 ft above ground
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 0.8 km
B – 1 km
C – 1.5 km
D – 3 km
Ref: all
Ans: B
276
13. When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is
classified as:
A – fog
B – dust fog
C – haze
D – mist
Ref: all
Ans: A
277
050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION
050-10-01 Observation
1. What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used
for?
Ref: all
Ans: A
2. The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value
from
an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?
Ref: all
Ans: D
3. While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:
RVR runway 23: 400m This information indicates the:
Ref: all
Ans: C
278
4. What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis) and RVR
in
homogeneous fog?
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Hail
B – Water vapour
C – Fog
D – Any cloud
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
279
8. Runway Visual Range (RVR) is:
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – MIFG
B – FG
C – HZ
D - +FZRA
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – FL 410
B – FL 360
C – FL 330
D – FL 390
Ref: all
Ans: B
280
12. (Refer to figure 050-82)
Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what
altitude will the freezinglevel above Shannon be found?
A – FL 20
B – FL 140
C – FL 120
D – FL 60
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – cross-wind component
B – runway visual range
C – meteorological visibility
D – braking action
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 4 ft (1.25 m)
B – 4m
C – 10m
D – 40cm
Ref: all
Ans: A
15. A cup ___ and remote transmitting vane form the transmitting head of the
electrical ___ which enables a continuous record of wind direction and speed
to be made on a moving chart.
A – anemograph; anemometer
B – anemometer; barograph
C – anemometer; anemograph
D – barograph; anemometer
Ref: all
Ans: C
281
16. The three elements in a cloud report are:
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
18. LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN 010 OVC015 TEMPO 1500 +
RA OVC005 FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015
TEMPO 1619 25010 KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30 TEMPO 1619 1500
TSGR BKN007CB
A – 4,500m
B – 1,500m
C – 6,000m
D – 12,000m
Ref: all
Ans: A
282
19. LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN010 OVC015
TEMPO 1200 + RA OVC005
FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015
TEMPO 1619 25010 KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30
TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CB
A – 1,000 ft
B – 500 ft
C – 700 ft
D – 12,000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: A
283
22. (Refer to figure 050-05)
Of the four radio surroundings, select the one that indicates low stratus:
A–3
B–1
C–2
D–4
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
284
26. In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010 MPS. This means:
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – volcanic ash
B – present weather within the approach area
C – present weather within a range of 8 km, but not at the airport
D – present weather at the airport
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
29. The temperature at the surface is given as +15 oC and at 4000 ft it is +9 oC the
state of this layer is said to be:
A – absolutely unstable
B – conditionally unstable
C – stable
D – unstable
Ref: all
Ans: C
285
30. The visibility transmitted in a METAR is:
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
32. What is the best approximation for the wind speed at flight level 250?
Ref: all
Ans: B
286
33. What is the lowest cloud base that can be expected from the forecast for 1500
UTC?
A – 3000 feet
B – 1000 feet
C – 1300 feet
D – 1500 feet
Ref: all
Ans: B
34. What is the lowest possible cloud base forecast for 2300 UTC?
EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG
1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600
TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122
CAVOK
A – 5000 feet
B – 3000 feet
C – 500 feet
D – 1500 feet
Ref: all
Ans: A
35. What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC?
A – 10 km
B – 6 NM
C – 4 km
D – 6 km
Ref: all
Ans: D
287
36. What visibility is most likely to be experienced at 1400 UTC?
EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG
1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600
TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122
CAVOK
A – 1600 metres
B – 4000 metres
C – 1000 metres
D – 9000 metres
Ref: all
Ans: D
37. Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance
with the regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”?
(MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 ft, LSZH 8000 ft, LSGG
12000 ft, LFSB 6000 ft)
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
288
39. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”?
Ref: all
Ans: A
40. While appreciating your destination aerodrome you receive the following
message:
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Because the cloud base in below the highest minimum sector altitude
B – Because there are gusts reported
C – Because towering cumulus are observed
D – Because thunderstorms are forecast temporary for the next 2 hours
Ref: all
Ans: A
289
42. (Refer to figure 050-04)
Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog:
A–1
B–2
C–3
D–4
Ans: B
A – below 5 kt
B – between 10 and 15 kt
C – between 5 and 10 kt
D – above 15 kt
Ans: A
290
050-10-02 Weather charts
1. (Refer to figure 050-57)
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “A” is:
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Zurich-Hamburg
B – Zurich-Madrid
C – Hamburg-Stockholm
D – Zurich-Vienna
Ref: all
Ans: C
A–A
B–B
C–C
D–D
Ref: all
Ans: B
291
5. (Refer to figure 050-98)
The warm sector is indicated by letter:
A–A
B–B
C–D
D–C
Ref: all
Ans: D
6. When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart
would be nearest you rflight level?
A – 300 hPa
B – 850 hPa
C – 700 hPa
D – 500 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Col
B – Ridge of high pressure
C – Depression
D – Trough of low pressure
Ref: all
Ans: A
8. If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these upper wind and
temperature charts would be nearest your flight level?
A – 850 hPa
B – 500 hPa
C – 700 hPa
D – 300 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: D
292
9. What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart?
Ref: all
Ans: C
A–1
B–4
C–5
D–6
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – 500 hPa
B – 200 hPa
C – 700 hPa
D – 300 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: D
293
13. If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these upper wind and
temperature charts would be nearest your flight level?
A – 300 hPa
B – 500 hPa
C – 850 hPa
D – 700 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: B
14. On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find
a jet stream?
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: A
A–2
B–7
C – 10
D–6
Ref: all
Ans: A
294
17. (Refer to figure 050-45)
Which of the following best describes Zone D?
A – Anti-cyclone
B – Ridge of high pressure
C – Depression
D – Trough of low pressure
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – 200 hPa
B – 300 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 700 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – 700 hPa
B – 300 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 200 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: D
20. Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the
freezing level?
A – Surface chart
B – 500 hPa chart
C – 700 hPa chart
D – Significant weather chart
Ref: all
Ans: D
295
21. Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL 100?
A – 850 hPa
B – 700 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 300 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: B
22. How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather
Chart?
A – ISOL CB
B – EMBD CB
C – FREQ CB
D – OCNL CB
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the
time given on the chart
B – The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart
C – The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
D – The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given
on the chart
Ref: all
Ans: C
296
25. How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts?
A – The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per
hour
B – The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots
C – The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots
D – The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – 850 hPa
B – 700 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 300 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – FL 140
B – FL 260
C – FL 320
D – FL 300
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 020/50
B – 050/40
C – 200/40
D – 350/40
Ref: all
Ans: C
297
29. (Refer to figure 050-44)
The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC
on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects weather development
at Zurich airport?
Ref: all
Ans: D
30. The upper wind and temperatue chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard
atmosphere, to about:
A – 39,000 ft
B – 30,000 ft
C – 32,000 ft
D – 34,000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: D
31. When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart
would be nearest your flight level?
A – 500 hPa
B – 300 hPa
C – 850 hPa
D – 700 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: C
298
32. (Refer to figure 050-82)
Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich-Rome at FL 110:
A – 230/10
B – 200/30
C – 040/10
D – 250/20
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – FL 300
B – FL 90
C – FL 50
D – FL 180
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – equal pressure
B – equal temperature
C – equal height
D – equal humidity
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – 33,000 ft
B – 39,000 ft
C – 51,000 ft
D – 60,000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: C
299
36. (Refer to figure 050-61)
Considering the sector Rom to 25oN on the route indicated, what mean upper
winds may be expected at FL 300 during winter?
A – Easterlies at 40 kt
B – Variable easterlies
C – Light westerlies
D – Westerly jet streams in excess of 70 kt
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – Continental tropical
B – Maritime polar
C – Continental polar
D – Maritime tropical
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Continental tropical
B – Maritime tropical
C – Maritime polar
D – Continental polar
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: B
300
40. (Refer to figure 050-62)
The air mass affecting position “P” is most likely to be:
A – Maritime tropical
B – Maritime polar
C – Continental tropical
D – Continental polar
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – Maritime tropical
B – Maritime polar
C – Continental polar
D – Continental tropical
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – advection fog
B – clear skies – radiation fog forming overnight
C – snow showers – gale force wind
D – continuous drizzle and hill fog
Ref: all
Ans: C
301
44. (Refer to figure 050-34)
The occurrence of freezing rain at FL 60 is most likely in square:
A – 2D
B – 2A
C – 3B
D – 3C
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
302
48. (Refer to figure 050-34)
For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, away
from the vicinity of the fronts, the most likely weather conditions in winter
are:
A – generally overcast, moderate continuous rain and risk of low level wind
shear
B – scattered SC and CU, good visibility
C – poor visibility in mist and drizzle
D – prolonged periods of heavy rain and hail
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
303
52. (Refer to figure 050-54)
The weather most likely to be experienced on the coast near position “Q” is:
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – secondary low
B – col
C – trough of low pressure
D – ridge of high pressure
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: B
304
56. (Refer to figure 050-22)
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “R” is:
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – radiation fog
B – low level wind shear
C – rotor streaming
D – clear air turbulence (CAT)
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Maritime polar
B – Maritime tropical
C – Continental polar
D – Continental tropical
Ref: all
Ans: B
305
60. (Refer to figure 050-17)
The air mass type indicated by arrow number 4 is designated:
A – Continental polar
B – Maritime tropical
C – Maritime polar
D – Continental tropical
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Maritime tropical
B – Continental polar
C – Continental tropical
D – Maritime polar
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: A
306
64. (Refer to figure 050-27)
What conditions are most likely to prevail at an aerodrome located in square
3B?
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
307
68. (Refer to figure 050-29)
By the time the front “Z” has passed point “Q” the surface wind will have:
Ref: all
Ans: A
A - +3
B - +5
C - -5
D - -7
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 270o/95 kt
B – 320o/40 kt
C – 240o/90 kt
D – 280o/70 kt
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – 090o/45 kt
B – 060o/45 kt
C – 070o/30 kt
D – 270o/45 kt
Ref: all
Ans: A
308
72. (Refer to figure 050-63)
The front located from 10oW to 10oE is most likely to be:
A – a quasi-stationary front
B – an active warm front moving north
C – an active occlusion moving south
D – a cold front moving south
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – cold front
B – warm front
C – warm occlusion
D – cold occlusion
Ref: all
Ans: A
A - -45oC
B - -50oC
C - -55oC
D - -40oC
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 180/20
B – 300/45
C – 240/25
D – 280/30
Ref: all
Ans: D
309
76. (Refer to figure 050-92)
What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL 300 between
Edinburgh and Madrid?
A - +2oC
B - +12oC
C - -2oC
D - -12oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – 270/50
B – 270/30
C – 320/70
D – 310/50
Ref: all
Ans: A
A - -1oC
B - +5oC
C - -5oC
D - +2oC
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – 0oC
B - +6oC
C - +2oC
D - -2oC
Ref: all
Ans: A
310
80. (Refer to figure 050-95)
Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP). Considering the route
segment between 60oW and 70oW, at FL 390 the forecast mean temperature
is:
A – -52oC
B - -55oC
C - -58oC
D - -61oC
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 245/55
B – 240/90
C – 270/70
D – 220/70
Ref: all
Ans: D
A - -34oC
B - -38oC
C - -30oC
D - -42oC
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 245/50
B – 225/25
C – 265/40
D – 265/25
Ref: all
Ans: A
311
84. (Refer to figure 050-114)
In appendix are shown four sections of the 700 hPa wind chart. The diagram
representing most accurately the wind direction and speed is:
A – 210o/30 kt (diagram B)
B – 030o/30 kt (diagram A)
C – 030o/30 kt (diagram C)
D – 210o/30 kt (diagram D)
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 140o
B – 110o
C – 310o
D – 220o
Ref: all
Ans: A
A–1
B–4
C–2
D–3
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Continental tropical
B – Maritime polar
C – Continental polar
D – Maritime tropical
Ref: all
Ans: D
312
88. (Refer to figure 050-105_B)
Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?
A – Symbol 5
B – Symbol 3
C – Symbol 4
D – Symbol 2
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – FL 360
B – FL 350
C – FL 300
D – FL 320
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – FL 330
B – FL 280
C – FL 360
D – FL 300
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – FL 350
B – FL 300
C – FL 330
D – FL 240
Ref: all
Ans: C
313
92. (Refer to figure 050-69)
The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will be:
A - -57oC
B - -39oC
C - -33oC
D - -45oC
Ref: all
Ans: D
A - -25oC
B - -23oC
C - -15oC
D - -19oC
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – 15 kt
B – 25 kt
C – 10 kt
D – 30 kt
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Diagram 3
B – Diagram 4
C – Diagram 2
D – Diagram 1
Ref: all
Ans: B
314
96. (Refer to figure 050-98)
A convergence line is indicated by:
A–C
B–B
C–A
D–D
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Symbol 1
B – Symbol 4
C – Symbol 2
D – Symbol 3
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Symbol 6
B – Symbol 9
C – Symbol 3
D – Symbol 7
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – 230/40
B – 200/50
C – 050/40
D – 030/35
Ref: all
Ans: A
315
100. (Refer to figure 050-86)
If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 240, what conditions can you
expect at cruising altitude?
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 90 kt
B – 300 kt
C – 140 kt
D – 100 km/h
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – Paris – Lisbon
B – Madrid – Vienna
C – London – Stockholm
D – Zurich – Athens
Ref: all
Ans: C
316
104. (Refer to figure 050-47)
This chart shows the weather situation at 0600 UTC on May 23. Which of the
ollowing reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport?
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: D
317
107. On an upper wind and temperature chart:
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – Sector A
B – Sector B
C – Sector C
D – Sector D
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Sector A
B – Sector B
C – Sector C
D – Sector D
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: A
318
111. (Refer to figure 050-98)
Which of the following best describes Zone B?
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – A trough
B – A ridge
C – The warm sector
D – The Cold Front
Ref: all
Ans: A
319
115. (Refer to figure 050-98)
What does zone C depict?
A – A trough
B – A ridge
C – The warm sector
D – The Cold Front
Ref: all
Ans: C
A–1
B–2
C–3
D–4
Ref: all
Ans: C
A–D
B–C
C–B
D–A
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – LIRF
B – LEMD
C – LFPO
D – LOWW
Ref: all
Ans: C
320
119. (Refer to figure 050-46)
Which airport has the biggest probability for the formation of fog the
following night?
A – ENFB
B – EKCH
C – LFPO
D – EINN
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – In Central Europe
B – Over Scandinavia
C – In the Mediterranean
D – Over the Baltics
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – FL 100
B – FL 20
C – FL 180
D – FL 260
Ref: all
Ans: A
321
123. (Refer to figure 050-100)
What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the route Frankfurt-
Rome at FL 180?
Ref: all
Ans: A
A - -55oC
B - -51oC
C - -63oC
D - -47oC
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – FL 300
B – FL 330
C – FL 150
D – FL 280
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Hamburg – Oslo
B – Rome – Frankfurt
C – Tunis – Rome
D – Copenhagen – Helsinki
Ref: all
Ans: A
322
127. (Refer to figure 050-85)
Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the
tropopause to be located?
A – FL 360
B – FL 410
C – FL 330
D – FL 390
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Rome – Berlin
B – Zurich – Rome
C – Zurich – Athens
D – Shannon – Hamburg
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – FL 260
B – FL 320
C – FL 180
D – FL 140
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – ISA -13oC
B – ISA -2oC
C – ISA +13oC
D – ISA +2oC
Ref: all
Ans: A
323
131. (Refer to figure 050-109)
State the temperature deviation to ISA over Copenhagen at FL 140:
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Symbol 7
B – Symbol 5
C – Symbol 10
D – Symbol 3
Ans: D
A – Symbol 3
B – Symbol 4
C – Symbol 9
D – Symbol 1
Ans: A
A – Symbol 7
B – Symbol 1
C – Symbol 8
D – Symbol 9
Ans: D
324
135. (Refer to figure 050-69)
Over Paris at what flight level would you expect to find the tropopause
according to the map?
A – FL 300
B – FL 330
C – FL 150
D – FL 280
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – 210/40
B – 240/20
C – 030/40
D – 190/40
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – FL 330
B – FL 310
C – FL 300
D – FL 280
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – 3 to 5 oktas
B – 5 to 8 oktas
C – 1 to 4 oktas
D – 5 to 7 oktas
Ref: all
Ans: B
325
139. (Refer to figure 050-110)
Which of the following best describes Zone A?
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Rising pressure
B – Falling pressure
C – A pressure rise first, then an immediate pressure drop
D – No substantial pressure change
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Rising pressure
B – Falling pressure
C – A pressure rise first, then an immediate pressure drop
D – No substantial pressure change
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: B
326
143. (Refer to figue 050-105_B)
Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?
A – Symbol 3
B – Symbol 4
C – Symbol 5
D – Symbol 6
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Individual cumulonimbus
B – Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
C – Scattered towering cumulus
D – Scattered castellanus
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – 5 to 8 oktas
B – 1 to 4 oktas
C – 5 to 7 oktas
D – 3 to 5 oktas
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: C
327
147. (Refer to figure 050-46)
Which airport is most likely to have radiation fog in the coming night?
A – ESSA
B – ENGM
C – EKCH
D – LSZH
Ref: all
Ans: d
Ref: all
Ans: B
328
050-10-03 Information for flight planning
1. Runway visual range can be reported in:
A – a TAF
B – a METAR
C – a SIGMET
D – both a TA and a METAR
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 300 m
B – The RVR is unknown, because the NOSIG does not refer to RVR
C – 700 m
D – 900 m
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
B – When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
C – With gusts of at least 25 knots
D – With gusts of at least 35 knots
Ref: all
Ans: A
4. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?
Ref: all
Ans: C
329
5. The follwing weather report EDDM 241332 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004
BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 is
a:
A – METAR
B – 24 hour TAF
C – SPECI
D – 9 hour TAF
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – TS
B – SA
C – DZ
D – SQ
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: B
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9. In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formatin
in the coming night the highest?
Ref: all
Ans: A
A - -33oC
B - -30oC
C - -41oC
D - -49oC
Ref: all
Ans: A
11. Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for
Ajaccio and Calvi for 16:00 UTC: Ajaccio: wind 360o/2 kt, visibility 2000m,
rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1000 ft, OVC altostratus at 8000 ft, QNH 1023
hPa,Calvi: wind 040o/2 kt, visibility 3000m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 ft, SCT
stratocumulus at 2000 ft, OVC altostratus at 9000 ft, QNH 1023 hPa. The
ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore:
Ref: all
Ans: D
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12. What is the meaning of the abbreviation BKN?
A – 6 – 8 oktas
B – 3 – 4 oktas
C – 5 – 7 oktas
D – 8 oktas
Ref: all
Ans: C
13. Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice:
TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK = 0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB
BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS=
What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports:
A – That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the
TAF
B – That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF
C – That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have
predicted earlier in the morning
D – That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there
is no way the latest VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – kt
B – kt/100 ft
C – m/100 ft
D – m/sec
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
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16. What does the abbreviation “NOSIG” mean?
A – No significant changes
B – No report received
C – No weather related problems
D – Not signed by the meteorologist
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – Rome – Berlin
B – Zurich – Rome
C – Zurich – Athens
D – Shannon – Hamburg
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: C
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20. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:
FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum
visibility forecast for ETA Amsterdam?
A – 5 km
B – 3 km
C – 5 NM
D – 6 km
Ref: all
Ans: B
21. How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, which is between two
upper air chart levels? (eg. Wind at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa
chart are available)
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: B
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23. (Refer to figure 050-74)
Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich-London at FL 280:
A – 040/80
B – 250/80
C – 220/60
D – 160/90
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – 1-2 oktas
B – 3-4 oktas
C – 5-7 oktas
D – 1-4 oktas
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: C
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27. Given the following METAR:
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – FZFG
B – BCFG
C – SN
D – HZ
Ref: all
Ans: C
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31. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?
(MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT,
LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: C
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34. Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the
following METAR?
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: B
36. Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in
the next few hours?
Ref: all
Ans: A
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37. (Refer to figure 050-79)
Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of cloud would you expect at
FL 160?
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – ESSA
B – LSZH
C – ENFB
D – EFHK
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 220o / 120 kt
B – 220o / 120 km/h
C – 050o / 120 kt
D – 230o / 120 m/sec
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: B
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41. LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT
6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA
OVC010=
The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:
A – 1000 ft
B – 1500 ft
C – 1500 m
D – 5000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: A
43. How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?
A – 9 hours
B – 2 hours
C – 1 hour
D – 30 minutes
Ref: all
Ans: B
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44. In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight
from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing
importance at the time:
EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir
blw ft 050 south of 53n wkn=
LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl
430 fcst limm fir stnr nc=
EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for London fir isol cb
embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb
ts also fcst move wkn=
A – You show no further interest in these reports, since they do nt concern the
route to be flown
B – Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250
C – Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy
thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370)
D – You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions
along the route would demand too much of the passengers
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – FL 100
B – FL 20
C – FL 180
D – FL 260
Ref: all
Ans: A
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46. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:
FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
A – 120o / 15 kt gusts 25 kt
B – 140o / 10 kt
C – 300o / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
D – 250o / 20 kt
Ref: all
Ans: A
A - +SHSN
B – VA
C – BR
D – MIFG
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – 230/20
B – 020/20
C – 200/15
D – 260/25
Ref: all
Ans: A
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49. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:
FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud
base is forecast for arrival at Amsterdam?
A – 500m
B – 250 ft
C – 500 ft
D – 800 ft
Ref: all
Ans: C
50. In the TAF for Delhi, during the summer, for the time of your landing you
note:
TEMPO TS
What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone
instance?
A – 120 minutes
B – 60 minutes
C – 10 minutes
D – 20 minutes
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Rome – Frankfurt
B – Hamburg – Oslo
C – Tunis – Rome
D – Copenhagen – Helsinki
Ref: all
Ans: B
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52. A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information
supplied in:
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
54. Which of the following phenomena can product a risk of aqua planning?
A – SA
B – FG
C – BCFG
D - +RA
Ref: all
Ans: D
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55. Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation VV001 mean?
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – ISA -2oC
B – ISA -13oC
C – ISA +13oC
D – ISA +2oC
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – 340 kt
B – 145 kt
C – 95 kt
D – 140 km/h
Ref: all
Ans: B
A - -24oC
B - -20oC
C - -16oC
D - -28oC
Ref: all
Ans: A
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59. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport:
FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620
26020G30KT 8000 SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA=
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the
lowest quoted visibility forecast?
A – 10 or more km
B – 8 NM
C – 10 NM
D – 8 km
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
61. Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced
strong clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of
these reports?
Ref: all
Ans: C
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62. In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing
conditions on the runway?
A – TAF
B – SIGMET
C – GAFOR
D – METAR
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: D
A - -21oC
B - -14oC
C - -11oC
D - -27oC
Ref: all
Ans: B
65. The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above:
Ref: all
Ans: D
347
66. (Refer to figure 050-90)
Which of these statements is true?
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – Probability of 30%
B – Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes
C – The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 ft
D – Change expected in less than 30 minutes
Ref: all
Ans: A
From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham
(EGBB) will be:
Ref: all
Ans: A
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69. On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and
distributed with intervals of:
A – 2 hours
B – 1 hour
C – 0.5 hours
D – 3 hours
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Zurich – Athens
B – London – Zurich
C – Zurich – Stockholm
D – Madrid – Bordeaux
Ref: all
Ans: A
71. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could
be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight?
A – SPECI
B – ATIS
C – SIGMET
D – TAF
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: D
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73. (Refer to figure 050-82)
Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich – Rome at
FL 110:
A - -6oC
B - -12oC
C - -9oC
D - +5oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – ENFB
B – LSZH
C – EKCH
D – ESSA
Ref: all
Ans: B
75. In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog
formation, in the coming night, the highest?
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: A
350
77. Which of the statements is true concerning equal lines?
A – Severe squall lines always move from north west to south east
B – Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics
C – For severe squall lines a TAF is issued
D – For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – 240/40
B – 210/25
C – 260/45
D – 050/35
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – 6 NM
B – 6 km
C – 4 km
D – 10 km
Ref: all
Ans: B
351
80. Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the
next few hours?
Ref: all
Ans: A
81. Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be
experienced at 1500 UTC?
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: A
352
83. (Refer to figure 050-68)
What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the
significant weather chart?
A – FL 340
B – FL 220
C – FL 160
D – FL 180
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar front,
RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres
B – Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres,
temperature -3oC, vertical visibility 100 metres
C – Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500
metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
D – RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm,
meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: C
353
86. The wind directin in a METAR is measured relative to:
A – the 0-meridian
B – magnetic north
C – true north
D – grid north
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
89. Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428.
What must you consider when making performance calculations?
A – Aquaplaning conditions
B – The braking action will be medium to good
C – The runway will be wet
D – The friction co-efficient is 0.28
Ref: all
Ans: D
354
90. Refer to the following TAF extract:
A – The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC
B – A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC
C – Many short term changes in the original weather
D – Many long term changes in the original weather
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – ESSA
B – EINN
C – LSZH
D – EKCH
Ref: all
Ans: B
Ref: all
Ans: C
355
93. Refr to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG 2001
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: C
96. A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is
270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear.
The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure
procedure?
Ref: all
Ans: C
356
97. The heights of cloud bases in TAFs are reported as being:
A – AGL
B – AMSL
C – AAL
D – Pressure altitude
Ref: all
Ans: C
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – 1330 UTC
B – 2100 UTC
C – 0300 UTC the following day
D – 1215 UTC
Ref: all
Ans: B
357
100. (Refer to figure 050-36)
At which airport, is the following weather development taking place?
A – LFPO
B – EDDL
C – LOWW
D – LEMD
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – EKCH
B – LFPG
C – LEMD
D – LOWW
Ref: all
Ans: D
102. Below is the forecast for the destination of a flight whose ETA is 2030 UTC.
TAF YUDO 120600Z 121206 17010KT 3000 SCT005 BECMG 1820
RB03KT BCFG SKC BECMG 2022 0300 FG VV002=
What can be said about the destination airport at 2030 UTC if CAT II ILS
inimum:
Ref: all
Ans: C
358
103. Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2123 0500 FG VV001
A – 500 m
B – 2000 m
C – Between 5000m and 2000m
D – Between 0m and 1000m
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: B
105. TAF EHAM 142300Z 150009 33005KT 9999 SCT025 BKN100 BECMG
0002 27015KT 4500 –SN SCT008 OVC015 TEMPO 0206 0400 +SN VV002
BECMG 0406 01008KT 9999 NSW SCT030 TEMPO 0709 03015G25KT
1200 SNSH SCT006 SCT015CB=
A – 4500m
B – Between 400m and 10 km or more
C – Between 4500m and 10 km or moe
D – Between 400m and 4500 m
Ref: all
Ans: D
359
106. TAF LSZH 250600Z 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800
VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BR BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000
SCT007=
Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at
1200 UTC?
Ref: all
Ans: C
Is a:
A – METAR
B – 24 hour TAF
C – SPECI
D – 9 hour TAF
Ref: all
Ans: D
A – airport forecasts
B – hourly or semi-hourly weather observations
C – special weather observations
D – landing forecasts of the “trend” type
Ref: all
Ans: A
360
109. The term CAVOK is used when weather conditions are:
Ref: all
Ans: D
110. The term PROB as used in a TAF message, indicates the probability in
percentage, of phenomena described during a specific period. The numerical
values immediately following the term PROB, are:
A – 25 or 25
B – 20 or 30
C – 30 or 40
D – 35 or 50
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Revised TAF
B – No change compared with the previous TAF
C – Weather conditions expected to affect the safety of normal operations
D – Delayed issue of a TAF
Ref: all
Ans: A
112. What is the height of the lowest cloud forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400
UTC?
A – 1800 feet
B – 1200 feet
C – 1400 feet
D – 900 feet
Ref: all
Ans: D
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113. What is the lowest cloud base forecast for arrival at Geneva (ETA 1200
UTC)?
A – 500 ft
B – 500 m
C – 1000 ft
D – 1000 m
Ref: all
Ans: A
114. What is the lowest probably cloud base forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at
Kingston?
A – 1500 m
B – 1000 m
C – 1500 ft
D – 1000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: D
115. What is the lowest visibility forecast for approach into Geneva (ETA 1200
UTC)?
A – 8 NM
B – 8 km
C – 6 NM
D – 10 km
Ref: all
Ans: B
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116. What is the lowest visibility forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC?
A – 1200 metres
B – 5 km
C – 6 km
D – 10 km or more
Ref: all
Ans: B
117. What is the lowest visibility that may be expected during an approach into
Dhahran at ETA 0600 UTC?
A – 4000 yards
B – 10 km or more
C – 7 km
D – 4 km
Ref: all
Ans: D
118. What lowest cloud base is most likely to be experienced during an approach
into Madrid at 2300 UTC?
A – 2000 feet
B – 1500 feet
C – 3000 feet
D – 800 feet
Ref: all
Ans: B
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119. What surface wind is forecast for 2200 UTC?
A – 260o / 10 kt
B – Variable / 05 kt
C – Variable / 15 to 25 kt
D – Calm
Ref: all
Ans: A
120. What surface wind is forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston?
A – 360o / 10 kt
B – 140o / 20 kt gusts 34 kt
C – 340o / 10 kt
D – 140o / 27 kt
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – Anabatic winds
B – Roll cloud associated with standing waves
C – Radiation fog
D – Low level wind shear
Ref: all
Ans: D
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122. What type of precipitation might occur at 1700 UTC?
Ref: all
Ans: A
A – 6000 metres
B – 8000 metres
C – 10 kilometres or more
D – Greater than 10 kilometres
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – Heavy duststorm
B – Strong inversion
C – Thick fog
D – Snow and ice on the runway
Ref: all
Ans: A
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125. Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?
A – Strong inversion
B – Heavy duststorm
C – Thick fog
D – Snow and ice on the runway
Ref: all
Ans: B
A – EBBR
B – LOWW
C – MADRID
D – PARIS
Ref: all
Ans: A
Ref: all
Ans: D
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128. (Refer to figure 050-36)
At which airport is the following weather development most likely to be
taking place?
TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013
23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030
OVC050=
A – LFPO
B – EDDL
C – LEMD
D – EPWA
Ref: all
Ans: B
TAF 1019 21010KT 8000 SCT120 OCT 180 BECMG 1013 OVC090
TEMPO –RA BECMG 1417 22016KT 5000 RA BKN020 OVC030 TEMPO
3000 +RA BKN012 OVC020
A – LFPO
B – EGLL
C – EDDL
D – LOWW
Ref: all
Ans: C
A – EINN
B – LFPO
C – LFML
D – EKCH
Ref: all
Ans: A
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131. (Refer to figure 050-46)
The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC
on May 23. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at
Zurich Airport?
Ref: all
Ans: D
Ref: all
Ans: A
368