Average Height of the Tropopause by Latitude

1id 121What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?
a 40 km
b 8 km
c 11 km
d 16 km
2id 122In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated ?

a Troposphere.
b Tropopause.
c Stratosphere.
d Stratopause.
3id 1157What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
a Tropopause.
b Ionosphere.
c Stratosphere.
d Atmosphere.
4id 1495Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
a Cumulonimbus
b Cirrostratus
c Altocumulus
d Altostratus
5id 1496Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?

a It is, by definition, a temperature inversion
b It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
c It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
d It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
6id 2069The thickness of the troposphere varies with

a latitude
b longitude
c rotation of the earth
d the wind
7id 2088What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ?
a 21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
b 10 % oxygen, 89 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
c 88 % oxygen, 9 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
d 50 % oxygen, 40 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
8id 2381Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?
a Troposphere
b Lower stratosphere
c Upper stratosphere
d Ionosphere
9id 2560Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause
a increases and its temperature increases
b decreases and its temperature increases
c increases and its temperature decreases
d decreases and its temperature decreases
10id 3592The troposphere is the

a part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere
b part of the atmosphere below the tropopause
c boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere
d boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere
11id 3593The tropopause is a level at which

a vertical currents are strongest
b water vapour content is greatest
c pressure remains constant
d temperature ceases to fall with increasing height
12id 3594The tropopause is lower

a south of the equator than north of it
b in summer than winter in moderate latitudes
c over the North Pole than over the equator
d over the equator than over the South Pole
13id 3598The average height of the tropopause at 50°N is about

a 14 km
b 8 km
c 11 km
d 16 km
14id 3599The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of
a 8 km and -40°C over the equator
b 16 km and -75°C over the equator
c 8 km and - 75°C over the poles
d 16 km and -40°C over the poles
15id 4164The troposphere
a has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles
b contains all oxygen of the stratosphere
c is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere
d reaches the same height at all latitudes
16id 5556In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from

a 85 to more than 200 km
b 0 to 11 km
c 50 to 85 km
d 11 to 50 km
17id 6406A temperature increase with altitude through a layer is called:

a Heating aloft.
b An inversion.
c An extension.
d Unstable air.
18 id 6457The layer of the Earth´s atmosphere which most concerns aviators is called the:
a Stratosphere.
b Tropopause.
c Troposphere.
d Equatorial zone.
19id 6462The percentage concentration of gases in the atmosphere is constant from the
surface of the earth to a certain altitude with the exception of:
a Oxygen
b Nitrogen
c Hydrogen
d Water vapour
20id 6536Define the tropopause:

a A relatively thin layer, or boundary zone, which separates the lower atmosphere from the tropopause
b That area where the temperature change does not exceed two-thirds of one degree
Celsius per thousand foot increase in altitude over a range of 6000 feet.
c That area where the temperature change does not exceed two-thirds of one degree Celsius per
thousand foot increase in altitude independent of latitude.
d A relatively thick layer or boundary zone below the troposphere.
21id 6559The region of the atmosphere which is normally stable and has few clouds isknown as the:
a Tropopause
b Troposphere
c Stratosphere
d Jetstream
22id 6572The lowest layer in the atmosphere is:

a The Stratosphere
b The Troposphere
c The Mesosphere
d The Heavi Side Layer
23id 6645The layer of the atmosphere above the tropopause is known as the:
a Troposphere
b Stratosphere
c Mesosphere
24id 6648What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather?
a Variation of solar energy at the Earth's surface
b Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface
c Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas
25id 6655What is a characteristic of the troposphere?

a It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere
b There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude
c The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 8 kilometres
26id 6656What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?
a Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones
b Abrupt temperature increase above the tropopause
c Thin layers of cirrus clouds at the tropopause level
27id 6657Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

a Absence of wind and turbulence
b Absolute upper limit of cloud formation
c Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate
28id 6679The boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere is called

a Ionosphere
b Tropopause
c Stratopause
d Atmosphere
29id 6717What is the average temperature of the tropical tropopause?
a -75°C
b -65°C
c -56,5°C
d -40°C
30id 6722Which statement is true concerning the tropopause from the equator to the poles?
a The tropopause decreases, the tropopause temperature increases
b The tropopause decreases, the tropopause temperature decreases
c The tropopause increases, the tropopause temperature increases
d The tropopause increases, the tropopause temperature decreases
31id 6738Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 % of the total amount of
water vapour?
a Troposphere
b Lower stratosphere
c Higher stratosphere
d Ionosphere
32id 6755What can be said about the temperature in the lower stratosphere?
a The temperature is constant
b The temperature is increasing
c The temperature is decreasing
d The temperature is first increasing and then decreasing
33id 138At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C; according to
the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL 350 ?
a -56,5°C.
b -50°C.
c -54°C.
d -58°C.
34id 1200What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?

a -55°C.
b -75°C.
c -35°C.
d -25°C.
35id 1497The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a

temperature of -6° C?
a FL 110
b FL 20
c FL 100
d FL 80
36id 2070In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature

a decreases with altitude
b is almost constant
c increases with altitude
d increases at first and decreases afterward
37id 4972Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?

a It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions
b It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regions
c It is highest in middle latitudes
d There is no significant difference with change of latitude
38id 6453As altitude increases, the weight of the atmosphere above you will:
a decrease
b remain the same
c increase
d increase with 1,5 kg/m2 pr 1000 ft.
39id 6542An inversion is characterized by:

a Constant temperature with increasing altitude
b Parts of the air mass at each level is warmer than surrounding air.
c The tendency to increase relative humidity with increasing altitude.
d Increasing temperature with increasing altitude.
40id 6716While flying at FL 120, you notice an OAT of -2°C. At which altitude do you expect
the freezing level to be?
a FL 110
b FL 130
c FL 150
d FL 90
41id 130Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the

following contribute the most ?
a Absorption and evaporation.
b Solar radiation and conduction.
c Absorption and vaporization.
d Convection and condensation.
42id 1160Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in

a winter in the afternoon.
b winter during the night and early morning.
c summer during the night and early morning.
d summer in the afternoon.
43id 3614Advection is :
a the same as convection
b vertical motion of air
c the same as subsidence
d horizontal motion of air
44id 3616The radiation of the sun heats

a the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are present
b the air in the troposphere directly
c the water vapour in the air of the troposphere
d the surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphere
45id 6454The majority of troposphere heating is the result of:

a Radiation of the sun
b Heating from the ground below
c Re-radiation of the sun's rays from the surface of the earth
d Re-radiation from the clouds.
46id 6455Why is a calm and clear-sky night cooler than a cloudy night?
a The clouds prevent radiation from the atmosphere
b There is radiation from the clouds
c The radiation from the earth's surface slips into space.
d Due to contents of carbon dioxide.
47id 132A layer is conditionally unstable if the air

a is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air.
b is stable for saturated air and unstable for dry air.
c becomes stable by lifting it.
d is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air.
48 id 1161Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate

a exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
b exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
c is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
d is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
49id 2067In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15°C and 13°C at 1000m.
This layer of air is:
a unstable
b stable
c a layer of heavy turbulence
d conditionally unstable
50id 3602An inversion is a layer of air which is

a absolutely unstable
b absolutely stable
c conditionally unstable
d conditionally stable
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51id 3603The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere
a has a fixed value of 2°C/1000 FT
b has a fixed value of 1°C/100m
c has a fixed value of 0.65°C/100m
d varies with time
52id 3604The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of

a 0.5°C/100m
b 2°C/1000FT
c 0.65°C/100m
d 1°C/100m
53id 3605The dry adiabatic lapse rate

a has a constant fixed value
b is greater in summer than in winter
c is greater during the night than during the day
d has a variable value
54id 3606An air mass is called stable when

a the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears
b the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with height
c the pressure in a given area is constant
d the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air currents
55id 4003In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2°C per 100 m increase in altitude.
This temperature change is called
a saturated adiabatic lapse rate
b environmental lapse rate
c dry adiabatic lapse rate
d normal lapse rate
56id 4041A layer can be

a unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstable
b stable for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated air
c unstable for unsaturated air and neutral for saturated air
d stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air
57id 4046When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the
a stability increases in the layer
b stability decreases in the layer
c wind will back with increasing height in the northern hemisphere
d wind speed will always decrease with increasing height in the northern hemisphere
58id 4125From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the
atmosphere be derived?
a Surface temperature
b Environmental lapse rate
c Dry adiabatic lapse rate
d Pressure at the surface
59id 4973The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry adiabatic
lapse rate in
a cumulus
b freezing fog
c stratus
d cirrus
60id 6408The weather is clear and the temperature decreases uniformly and rapidly as you
climb (approaching 3°C per 1000 ft), you have an indication of:
a Stable air.
b Unstable air.
c Saturation.
d Sublimation.
61id 6482Absolute instability in a layer of air is characterized by the vertical temperature

gradient in the layer being:
a Greater than 1°/100 m.
b Greater than 0.5°/100 m.
c Less than 0.65°/100 m.
d Less than 0.6°/100 m.
62id 6581What is meant by "standard lapse rate"?

a Temperature increases as height increases
b Temperature decreases as height increases
c Temperature remains constant as height increases
63id 6596The lapse rate for a dry parcel of air is:

a 3°C/1000ft
b 1.5°C/1000ft
c 1.98°C/1000ft
64id 6620An environmental lapse rate is observed to be 2.5C/1000ft. Which of the following
is correct?
a A dry parcel of air would be stable if it was forced to rise
b A saturated parcel of air would be stable if it was forced to rise
c A dry parcel of air would be unstable if it was forced to rise
65id 6675What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

a A stable layer of air
b An unstable layer of air
c Air mass thunderstorms
d Cold front
66id 6676What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or
decreases slightly as altitude is increased?
a The air is usntable
b A temperature inversion exists
c The air is stable
67id 6677Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable?

a The parcel of air resists convection
b The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill
c As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air
68id 6678How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?

a Ambient temperature lapse rate
b Atmospheric pressure at various levels
c Surface temperature/dewpoint spread.
69id 6729From which of the following pieces of information can stability of the atmosphere
be derived?
a Dry adiabatic lapse rate
b Pressure at the surface
c Surface temperature
d Environmental lapse rate
70id 6754State the preference of a layer of air with no clouds, surface temperature 15°C,
and 13°C at 1000 metres:
a Stable layer
b Unstable layer
c The preference cannot be determined
d None of the above
71id 6855What is the preference of a layer with constant temperature?

a Absolutely stable
b Unstable
c Relatively stable
d An example of an inversion
72id 137Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature

inversion ?
a Heating of the air by subsidence
b Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
c The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.
d Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds.
73id 1162Which of the following is a common result of subsidence ?

a Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes .
b CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large area.
c Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation.
d An inversion over a large area with haze, mist.
74id 2082What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion ?

a Stability
b Instability
c Clear ice
d Area of active storms
75id 2389What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
a Subsidence
b Inversion
c Adiabatic
d Advection
76id 3600An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature

a increases with height more than 1°C/100m
b remains constant with height
c increases with height
d decreases with height more than 1°C/100m
77id 3601An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature

a increases with height at a constant rate
b increases with height
c decreases with height at a constant rate
d remains constant with height
78id 4002An inversion is

a an increase of temperature with height
b an increase of pressure with height
c a decrease of pressure with height
d a decrease of temperature with height
79id 4122A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of

a the passage of cold front
b nocturnal radiation
c advection fog
d cumulus clouds
80id 6579What is meant by "inversion"?
81id 6580What is meant by "isothermal layer"?

82id 6658Where is a common location for an inversion?

a At the tropopause
b In the stratosphere
c At the base of cumulus clouds
83id 6712A temperature increase with increasing altitude is called

a Subsidence
b Inversion
c Adiabate
d Advection
84id 6916Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airport. Which would be the most
probable vertical temperature lapse rate?
aA
bB
cC
dD
85id 6934What is the cause for a surface temperature inversion?

a The presence of a high pressure area
b The presence of a polar front depression
c Moist, unstable air, and a lifting action
d By heavy radiational cooling at night of the lowest layer of air, or if warm air moves in over a
colder surface
86 id 3617The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is

a clear and winds are strong
b clear and winds are weak
c overcast and winds are weak
d overcast and winds are strong
87id 5548Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature, under shelter,
is 3°C. The sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is
covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of January 3rd to January 4th should be
a slightly above +3°C.
b significantly below 0°C.
c slightly below +3°C.
d significantly above +3°C.
88id 5549On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached
approximately
a at the moment the sun rises
b half an hour before sunrise
c half an hour after sunrise
d one hour before sunrise
89id 6467Temperature variation during 24 hours is least over:

a Sea.
b Grass.
c Mountain.
d Forest.
90id 6577Over which of the following surface types would you expect the greatest diurnal
range of temperature to occur?
a An extensive forest area
b A desert area
c An ocean
91id 1498What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
a Positions with the same air pressure at a given level
b Positions with the same temperature at a given level
c Positions with the same wind velocity at a given level
d Positions with the same relative pressure heights
92id 2086The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
a at a determined density altitude
b at flight level
c at height of observatory
d reduced to sea level
93id 2390The station pressure used in surface weather charts is

a QNE
b QFE
c QNH
d QFF
94id 4170Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal

a QFE
b QFF
c QNE
d QNH
95id 4989The pressure system at position "b" is a

a ridge of high pressure
b secondary low
c trough of low pressure
d col
96id 5004The pressure distribution located mainly at point B is a

a depression
b col
c trough of low pressure
d ridge of high pressure
97id 6451At sea level, the pressure of the atmosphere on a standard day will cause the
mercury in the column to rise to:
a 92.29 inches
b 19.19 inches
c 29.29 inches
d 29.92 inches
98id 6452What is dynamic pressure?

a Turbulence.
b Pressure caused by movement.
c Acceleration force.
d Centrifugal force.
99id 6458The unit of pressure most commonly used in meteorology is:

a kg /cm2.
b lbs/inch2.
c hPa
d tons/m2.
100id 6464Lines connecting points of equal pressure are called:

a Isogonic lines.
b Isobars.
c Agonic.
d Barometric.
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101id 6582A line on a chart joining places of equal sea level pressure is called an:
a Isogonal
b Agonic line
c Isobar
d Isotherm
102id 6686What is the pressure in surface weather charts called?

a QFE
b QFF
c QNH
d QNE
103id 6808 What can be said about isobars?

a Isobars appear on meteorological surface charts
b Isobars are lines of equal temperature
c Certain information can be depicted with the isobars on upper level charts
d Isobars show wind speeds around a jet stream area
104id 126In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height
a is greater at higher levels than at lower levels.
b remains constant at all levels.
c is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels.
d is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL.
105id 128What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an
altitude of 5500 m ?
a 15 m (50 FT).
b 8 m (27 FT).
c 32 m (105 FT).
d 64 m (210 FT).
106id 3609Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure ?

a It is higher in winter than in summer
b It decreases with height
c It is higher at night than during the day
d It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m
107id 5550An isohypse (contour)

a indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm
b is the longest slope line of a frontal surface
c is the limit between two air masses of different temperature
d indicates the true altitude of a pressure level
108id 6574The rate of fall of pressure with height is:

a Greater in cold air than in warm air
b Greater in warm air than in cold air
c Inversely proportional to temperature
109id 6575The average change of pressure with height in the lower atmosphere is:
a 1 hPa/27ft
b 1 hPa/20ft
c 1 hPa/50ft
d 1 hPa/56 ft
110id 6681The isohypse 2960 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for the
following pressure level:
a 850 hPa
b 700 hPa
c 500 hPa
d 300 hPa
a 850 hPa
b 700 hPa
c 500 hPa
d 300 hPa
a 850 hPa
b 700 hPa
c 500 hPa
d 200 hPa
a 300 hPa
b 700 hPa
c 500 hPa
d 200 hPa
114id 6685
The isohypse 8760 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for the
a 300 hPa
b 700 hPa
c 500 hPa
d 200 hPa
115id 6687At which average height can the 700 hPa pressure level in moderate latitudes beexpected?
a 3,0 km AMSL
b 5,5 km AMSL
c 9,0 km AMSL
d 12,0 km AMSL
a 3,0 km AMSL
b 5,5 km AMSL
c 9,0 km AMSL
d 12,0 km AMSL
117id 6689 At which average height can the 200 hPa pressure level in moderate latitudes beexpected?
a 3,0 km AMSL
b 5,5 km AMSL
c 9,0 km AMSL
d 12,0 km AMSL
a 1,5 km AMSL
b 3,0 km AMSL
c 9,0 km AMSL
d 12,0 km AMSL
a 1,5 km AMSL
b 3,0 km AMSL
c 9,0 km AMSL
d 12,0 km AMSL
120id 6699What is the value for a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5500 m?
a approx. 8 m (27ft)
b approx. 16 m (54 ft)
c approx. 32 m (105 ft)
d approx. 64 m (210 ft)
121id 129In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?a Elevation
and the temperature at the airfield.
b Temperature at the airfield.
c Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.
d Elevation of the airfield.
122id 2395The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa.The air
temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
a Less than 1016 hPa
b 1016 hPa
c More than 1016 hPa
d It is not possible to give a definitive answer
123id 2396The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa.The air
temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
a It is not possible to give a definitive answer
b More than 1016 hPa
c 1016 hPa
d Less than 1016 hPa
124id 2397 The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa.The air
temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
b 1009 hPa
125id 2398The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air
temperature is not available. What is the QFF?
b More than 1022 hPa
c 1022 hPa
126id 2399The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air
b Less than 1022 hPa
d 1022 hPa
127id 2400The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018 hPa.
The air temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
a More than 1018 hPa
c 1018 hPa
128id 2401The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1030 hPa.
The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
c 1030 hPa
d More than 1030 hPa
129id 2402If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH ?
a 1015 hPa
b 1000 hPa
c 1005 hPa
d 1010 hPa
130id 2403If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH?
a 985 hPa
b 1025 hPa
c 990 hPa
d 1035 hPa
131id 2404If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1015 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE? (Assume 1hPa = 8m)
a 1005 hPa
b 995 hPa
c 1000 hPa
d 990 hPa
132id 2405If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE?
a 1005 hPa
b 995 hPa
c 1000 hPa
d 1025 hPa
133id 3610QNH is defined as

a QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere
b pressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere
c pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere
d QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere
134id 4129In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ?
a Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield
b Temperature at the airfield
c Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
d Elevation of the airfield
135id 6692At an airport (400 m AMSL), a QFF of 1016 hPa and a temperature 10°C higher
than ISA is observed:
a The QNH is higher than 1016 hPa
b The QNH is lower than 1016 hPa
c The QNH equals 1016 hPa
d The QNH cannot be determined
136id 6693At an airport (400 m AMSL), a QFF of 1016 hPa and a temperature 10°C lower
137id 6694At an airport (200 m AMSL), a QNH of 1009 hPa and a temperature 10°C lower
a The QFF is higher than 1016 hPa
b The QFF is lower than 1016 hPa
c The QFF equals 1009 hPa
d The QFF cannot be determined
138id 6695At an airport (200 m AMSL), a QNH of 1022 hPa is observed and the temperature is
unknown:
139id 6696At an airport (0 m AMSL), a QNH of 1022 hPa is observed and the temperature is
unknown:
140id 6697At an airport in California (69 m below MSL), a QNH of 1018 hPa and a
temperature 10°C higher than standard is observed:
141id 6698At an airport in California (69 m below MSL), a QFF of 1030 hPa and a temperature
10°C lower than standard is observed:
142id 6700QFE 980 hPa at an altitude of 200 m AMSL: What will the approximate QNH be?
a 1000 hPa
b 1005 hPa
c 1010 hPa
d 1015 hPa
143id 6701QFE 1000 hPa at an altitude of 200 m AMSL: What will the approximate QNH be?
a 985 hPa
b 990 hPa
c 1025 hPa
d 1035 hPa
144id 6702QNH 1015 hPa at an altitude of 200 m AMSL: What will the approximate QFE be?
a 990 hPa
b 995 hPa
c 1000 hPa
d 1005 hPa
145id 6703QNH 1025 hPa at an altitude of 200 m AMSL: What will the approximate QFE be?
a 995 hPa
b 1000 hPa
c 1005 hPa
d 1025 hPa
146id 6724State the definition for QNH:

a QFE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient
b QFF reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient
c QFE reduced to MSL, using actual temperature gradient
d QNE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient
147id 6725State the definition for QFF:

a QFE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient
b QNH reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient
148id 6726Which value has to be known to calculate the QNH out of the QFE?
a Field elevation
b Actual temperature
c The relative humidity of the air
d The density altitude of the field
149id 6835Which statement is true?

a QNH can be equal to QFE
b QNH is always lower than QFE
c QFE is always lower than QNH
d QFE can be equal to QFF only
150id 6845State the definition for QNH:
a Pressure reduced to sea level, using the standard temperature gradient
b QFF reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient
151id 123At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at this level is:
a Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
b Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
c Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
d Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.
152id 125Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude ?
a When the altimeter has no position error.
b At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.
c At standard temperature.
d When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.
153id 2068Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first

a 11 km
b 3 km
c 8 km
d 5 km
154id 6407Stratiform clouds indicate stable air. Flight generally will be:
a Rough with good visibility.
b Smooth with low ceiling and visibility.
c Smooth with good visibility.
d Smooth with moderate turbulence and good visibility.
155id 6460In relation to 'air density' which of the following responses are correct:
a Cold air is less dense than warm air.
b Dry warm air is less dense than cold air.
c If the temperature is decreasing the air density will decrease
d Air density is not influenced of air humidity.
156id 6543Which of the following combinations contain the greatest air density?
a High pressure and high temperature.
b High pressure and low temperature.
c Low pressure and high temperature.
d Low pressure and low temperature.
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234

157id 6544Air density is mass of air per unity of volume, and is influenced by:
a Pressure, latitude and season.
b Pressure, temperature and the amount of water vapour.
c Altitude
d both b) and c) are correct.
158id 6637Which statement is true?

a Air density generally increases as altitude increases
b Air density generally stays the same as altitude increases
c Air density generally decreases as altitude increases
159id 124The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
is :
a -44.7°C
b -273°C
c -56.5°C
d -100°C
160id 127A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of
the following average heights is applicable ?
a FL 50.
b FL 300.
c FL 100.
d FL 390.
161id 135The temperature at FL 140 is -12°C. What will the temperature be at FL 110 if the
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?
a -9°C.
b -18°C.
c -6°C.
d -15°C.
162id 1159An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is
the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
a 5°C colder than ISA.
b 10°C warmer than ISA.
c 5°C warmer than ISA.
d 10°C colder than ISA.
163id 2089How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere below the tropopause?
a At first it increases and higher up it decreases
b Increases
c Decreases
d Remains constant
164id 2092What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO
atmosphere ?
a 2°C per 1000 m
b 4.5°C per 1000 m
c 3°C per 1000 m
d 6.5°C per 1000 m
165id 2382The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the
a +2°C
b -6°C
c 0°C
d -4°C
a -3°C
b +3°C
c 0°C
d +7°C
a -4°C
b -8°C
c 0°C
d +4°C
168id 2385A temperature of +15°C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If
the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the
temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level?
a +4°C
b +2°C
c 0°C
d -2°C
169id 2386How would you characterise an air temperature of -15°C at the 700 hPa level over
western Europe?
a Within +/-5°C of ISA
b High
c Low
d 20°C below standard
western Europe?
a Very low
b Within +/-5°C of ISA
c Low
d High
western Europe?
a Within +/-5°C of ISA
b High
c Low
d Very high
172id 2391A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of thefollowing
average heights is applicable ?
a FL 100
b FL 390
c FL 300
d FL 50
173id 2392A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the
following average heights is applicable ?
a FL 180
b FL 160
c FL 100
d FL 390
a FL 100
b FL 180
c FL 300
d FL 390
a FL 300
b FL100
c FL 50
d FL 390
176id 2406If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a standard
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
a -30°C
b -45°C
c -60°C
d -15°C
177id 2407If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10°C warmer than a standard
a +15°C
b +5°C
c -10°C
d -15°C
178id 2408If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2°C, at what altitude will
the "freezing level" be?
a FL 110
b FL 130
c FL 150
d FL 90
179id 3595The temperature at 10000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is :

a -20°C
b 0°C
c -5°C
d -35°C
180id 3596The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100 m in the International
Standard Atmosphere is :
a 0.65°C
b 1°C
c 0.5°C
d variable
181id 3607In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height
below 11 km is
a 1°C per 100m
b 0.65°C per 100m
c 0.5°C per 100m
d 0.6°C per 100m
182id 3608Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?

a At MSL temperature is 15°C and pressure is 1013.25hPa
b At MSL temperature is 15°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
c At MSL temperature is 10°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
d At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
183id 4169In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated?
a 300 - 200 hPa
b 400 - 300 hPa
c 500 - 400 hPa
d 600 - 500 hPa
184id 6459The international standard atmosphere (ISA)is defined for mean sea level as :
a 1015.25 hPa, 15°C, and a density of 1.225 kg/m3.
b 1015.25 hPa, 15°C, with a lapse rate of 1.98°C per 1000 ft.
c 1013.25 hPa, 15°C, a temperature lapse rate of 1.98°C per 1000 ft. and a humidity of 5%.
d 1013.25 hPa, 15°C, a temperature lapse rate of 1.98°C per 1000 ft. and a density of 1.225 kg/m3
185id 6466The temperature gradient in the international standard atmosphere (ISA) is:
a 1°C/100m.
b 0,5°C/100m.
c 0.65°C/100m
d 0.6°C/100m.
186id 6584The temperature at sea level in the ISA is:

a +12,5°C
b +25°C
c +15°C
d 0°C
187id 6595The pressure at sea level in the ISA is:

a 1012.35 hPa
b 1025.13 hPa
c 1013.25 hPa
d 29,95 in Hg
188id 6704At an altitude of 500 m AMSL, a temperature of +15°C is measured. What will the
temperature be at an altitude of 2500 m, if you consider the temperature gradient of
the Standard Atmosphere?
a +4°C
b +2°C
c 0°C
d -2°C
189id 6705FL 80, an OAT +06°C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 130, if you
consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
a -4°C
b +2°C
c 0°C
d -6°C
190id 6706FL 110, an OAT -05°C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 50, if you
a -3°C
b +3°C
c 0°C
d +7°C
191id 6707FL 140, an OAT -12°C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 110, if youconsider
the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
a +2°C
b -2°C
c -6°C
d -18°C
192id 6708FL 160, an OAT -22°C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 90, if you
a -8°C
b -4°C
c +4°C
d 0°C
193id 6709An OAT of -15°C at the 700 hPa pressure level:

a equals approximately (+/-5°C) ISA
b is high
c is low
d is almost impossible

b is high
c is low

b is high
c is low
196id 6713An aircraft cruises at FL 300 in an airmass, which is 15°C warmer than the
Standard Atmosphere. The OAT is therefore....
a -60°C
b -30°C
c -45°C
d -15°C
197id 6714An aircraft cruises at FL 100 in an airmass, which is 10°C warmer than the
Standard Atmosphere. The OAT is therefore....
a -10°C
b -15°C
c +5°C
d +15°C
198id 6715You cruise at FL 200 and notice an OAT of -35°C. The airmass has therefore an average
temperature which is...
a 5°C warmer than ISA
b 20°C colder than ISA
c 10°C colder than ISA
d 5°C colder than ISA
199id 6721What is the ISA temperature at FL 110?

a -7°C
b +7°C
c 0°C
d -5°C
200id 6723What is the temperature decrease in the ISA?

a 0,65°C/100 m
b 0,65°C/1000 ft
c 2°C/100 m
d 1°C/100 m
201id 6850A temperature of 10°C above ISA is observed at FL 180. What is the effectivedistance
between FL 60 and FL 120?
a 6240 ft
b 6000 ft
c 5760 ft
d 3000 ft
202id 715You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitudeis,
according to the aviation chart, 15000 FT/AMSL. The air mass that you will flythrough is on average
15°C warmer than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter
is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the
recommended minimum flight altitude?
a 15900 FT.
b 13830 FT.
c 14370 FT.
d 14100 FT.
203id 716You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the
temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH
1013,2 hPa) ?
a ISA +12°C
b ISA +/-0°C
c ISA +20°C
d ISA -20°C
204id 1912The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from
ISA is -15°C below FL 100. What is the true altitude of FL 100?
a 9790 FT.
b 10210 FT.
c 8590 FT.
d 11410 FT.
205id 1915You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 FT/AMSL. The airis on
an average 15°C colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa.
What indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read?
a 15690 FT.
b 16170 FT.
c 14370 FT.
d 13830 FT.
206id 1916During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca(QNH 1015
hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for thisis that :
a the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca.
b the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested.
c the air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca.
d one of the two QNH values may be incorrect.
207id 2242Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower
altitude than that actually flown ?
a Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude.
b Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
c Air temperature higher than standard
d Air temperature lower than standard.
208id 2409An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca(QNH
1006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that :
a the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
b the air at Palma de Mallorca is colder than that at Marseille
c the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseille
d one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
209id 2410During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma deMallorca
(QNH 1012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, ifany, should be taken ?
a None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer than the air
aroundMarseille
b Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong
c Recheck the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong
d Compensate by heading further to the left
210id 2411During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1016 hPa) to Palma deMallorca
(QNH 1016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is theprobable reason for this ?
a One of the QNH values must be wrong
b The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca
c The altimeter is faulty
d The aircraft is being blown off track to the left
211id 2412During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet; local QNH is1019
hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which theaircraft is flying?
a Its average temperature is the same as ISA
b It is colder than ISA
c It is warmer than ISA
d There is insufficient information to make any assumption
212id 2413An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH
isunknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the
aircraft is flying ?
a It is colder than ISA
b There is insufficient information to make any assumption
c It is warmer than ISA
d Its average temperature is the same as ISA
213id 2414An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet; localQNH is
1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
which the aircraft is flying ?
a It is warmer than ISA
b It is colder than ISA
c Its average temperature is the same as ISA
d There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
214id 2415An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is
1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
which the aircraft is flying ?
a There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
b Its average temperature is about ISA
c It is colder than ISA
d It is warmer than ISA
215id 2416An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold winter's day. The regional QNH
is 1013 hPa. During the flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its
summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the elevation of
the summit?
a The same altitude as the elevation of the summit
b A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
c A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
d There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion
216id 2417An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm summer's day. The weather is fine,
and there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is
passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give,
compared to the summit's elevation?
a There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion
b A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
c The same altitude as the elevation of the summit
d A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
217id 2421An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The
altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
a The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
b The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
c Wind speed at A is higher than at B
d Wind speed at Paris is higher than at B
a Wind speed at A and at B is the same
c Wind speed at A is higher than at B
d The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
219id 2423An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. Thealtimeter
setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
a The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
b The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
c Wind speed at Madrid is higher than at A
d Wind speed at B is higher than at A
a The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
c Wind speed at A and at B is the same
d Wind speed at B is higher than at A
221id 2425You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea
level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
a 20660 feet
b 19340 feet
c 21740 feet
d 18260 feet
222id 2426You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27°C, and the pressure at sea
level is 1003 hPa. What is the true altitude?
a 15630 feet
b 15090 feet
c 16370 feet
d 16910 feet
223id 2427You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a
minimum altitude of 12000 feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will be
flying through is an average 10°C warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is set to 1023
hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter
show when you have reached the recommended minimum altitude?
a 12210 feet
b 11520 feet
c 11250 feet
d 11790 feet
224id 3994The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200 UTC.
Assume the station is at MSL. Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. 20000.-12
18000.-11 16000.-10 14000.-10 12000.-6 10000.-2 8000. +2 6000. +6 4000. +12
2000. +15 surface+15.
a The layer between 16000 and 18000 FT is absolutely unstable
b The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12000 FT.
c The temperature at 10000 FT is in agreement with the temperature in the International Standard
Atmosphere.
d Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true altitude of an aircraft would actually
be higher than the indicated altitude.
225id 4131Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
pressure surface on a heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following statements
is correct?
a If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180 degrees, then true altitude is
increasing
b If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees, then true altitude is
increasing
c If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 270 degrees, then true altitude is
increasing
d If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090 degrees, then true altitude is
increasing
226id 4134An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from
the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude ?
a It remains constant
b It increases
c It decreases
d Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question can not be answered.
227id 4162The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if

a the outside air temperature is standard for that height
b standard atmospheric conditions occur
c the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface
d the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
228id 6456The altimeter is connected to:

a The pitot tube.
b The dynamic system.
c The static system.
d The elevator.
229id 6461In spite of a constant altimeter reading your aircraft is loosing altitude. This could
be caused by:
a Flying towards high pressure.
b Flying towards low pressure.
c The standard air pressure has fallen.
d Increased temperature.
230id 6583An aircraft, flying so that the altimeter indicates 2500ft with the current regional
QNH set in the subscale, is flying towards an area of lower pressure. If the pilot
fails to revise the subscale setting as the QNH changes, then the aircraft will:
a Gradually climb
b Gradually descend
c Maintain 2500ft AMSL
d no assumption is possible
231id 6757What condition would cause that your altimeter is indicating lower than actually
flown?
a Temperature higher than standard
b Temperature lower than standard
c Standard temperature
d Pressure lower than standard
232id 6759You fly over the sea at FL 90, TA 9100ft, QNH unknown. What can be assumpted ?
a No assumption is possible, because the information is not sufficient
b It is warmer than ISA
c It is colder than ISA
d The QNH is lower than 1013 hPa
233id 6766Your altimeter is blocked at 1000 hPa. You have to overfly a mountain (8000 ft) with a
terrain clearance of at least 1500 ft. What will be your indicated altitude when the
QNH of a nearby airport is 990 hPa and the temperature is 10C colder than ISA?
a 10150 ft
b 10501 ft
c 8850 ft
d 9500 ft
234id 6780You are flying at FL 100 in an airmass which is 15°C colder than ISA, local QNH
983. True altitude?
a 8590 ft
b 11'410 ft
c 10'000 ft
d 10'210 ft
235id 6840Refer to the upper level chart: Flight path A - B, altimeter setting 1013,2 hPa:
a Your true altitude is higher in B than in A
b Your true altitude is higher in A than in B
c The wind speed is higher in A than in B
d The wind speed in A and in B is the same
236id 6841Refer to the upper level contour chart: Flight path A - B, altimeter setting 1013,2
hPa:
c The wind speed is higher in B than in A
237id 6842Refer to the constant pressure chart: Flight path A - B, altimeter setting 1013,2 hPa:
c The wind speed is higher in B than in A
238id 6887While mountain flying on a cold winter day, under fair weather conditions (QNH
1013 hPa), you circle a mountain of known height at peak elevation. Comparing to
the elevation of the mountain, the aneroid altimeter of your aircraft will thereforeindicate.....
a a higher altitude
b a lower altitude
c peak elevation
d cannot be determined
239id 6888While mountain flying on a warm summer day under high pressure conditions, you
circle a mountain of known height at peak elevation. Comparing to the indication of
your altimeter, the peak elevation will therefore be....
a higher
b lower
c equal
d can not be determined
240id 6891You are cruising at FL 200, OAT -40°C, sea level pressure 1033 hPa. Calculate the true
altitude:
a 20660 ft
b 21740 ft
c 18260 ft
d 19340 ft
241id 6892You intend to overfly a mountain ridge at an altitude of 15000 ft AMSL. The average
air temperature is 15°C lower than ISA, the sea level pressure 1003 hPa. Which
altimeter indication (standard setting) is needed?
a 15630 ft
b 14370 ft
c 13830 ft
d 16170 ft
242id 6893You intend to overfly a mountain ridge. The recommended minimum altitude for
overflight according to your ICAO chart is 12000 ft AMSL. The average air
temperature is 10°C higher than ISA, your altimeter is set to the local QNH of 1023
hPa. Which altimeter indication is needed to maintain the recommended minimum
altitude?
a 11250 ft
b 12210 ft
c 11520 ft
d 11790 ft
243id 6894You have landed at an airport, local QNH 993 hPa. After landing, you notice, that your
altimeter subscale is still set to 1013,2 hPa. Your altimeter indicates 1200 ft.
What is the airport elevation?
a 660 ft AMSL
b 1740 ft AMSL
c 2280 ft AMSL
d 1200 ft AMSL
244id 6895You are cruising at FL 160 at an OAT of -27°C. The sea level pressure is 1003hPa. Your
true altitude therefore is...
a 15630 ft
b 16370 ft
c 16910 ft
d 15090 ft
245id 6944When the altimeter indicated 0 (zero) ft when the aircraft was parked for the night,
and 1000 ft the following morning, this shows that:
a the barometric pressure has decreased by approx. 37 hPa
b the barometric pressure is constant, but the temperature has fallen during the night
c a formation of fog has most probably taken place
d the barometric pressure has increased by approx. 37 hPa
246id 714After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 FT), the altimeter
indicates an altitude of 1310 FT. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013
hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?
a 1015 hPa.
b 1028 hPa.
c 1013 hPa.
d 998 hPa.
247id 1914What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 FT
below sea level?
a No clear relationship exists.
b QFE is smaller than QNH.
c QFE equals QNH.
d QFE is greater than QNH.
248id 1917An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, QNH 1008 hPa). The
altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate :
a 1200 FT.
b 1375 FT.
c 1105 FT.
d 1280 FT.
249id 2083What pressure is defined as QFE?

a The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures
b The pressure of the altimeter
c The pressure at field elevation
d The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures
250id 2418An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will
happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level ?
a It will increase
b It will decrease
c It will remain the same
d It will not be affected
251id 2419During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading
during the resetting procedure ?
b It will increase
d It will decrease
252id 2420During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading
during the resetting procedure?
a It will decrease
b It will increase
253id 2428An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 FT, QNH 993 hPa) with the
altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate ?
a 1080 FT
b 700 FT
c 380 FT
d 0 FT
254id 2429After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still
set to 1013,2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the
aerodrome above mean sea level ?
a 660 feet.
b 1200 feet.
c 1740 feet.
d 2280 feet.
255id 2547An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should thisaltimeter be
adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated
would be
a 2922 FT.
b 3006 FT.
c 4278 FT.
d 4194 FT.
256 id 2548In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The
QFE adjustment in Geneva is
a 942 hPa.
b 967 hPa.
c 961 hPa.
d 948 hPa.
257 id 2549An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter
has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately
a 7650 FT.
b 8600 FT.
c 8350 FT.
d 8000 FT.
258 id 2550The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013.2 hPa. The aircraft
has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is
1023 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 FT, the reading on the altimeter
on the ground will be:
a 20 FT.
b 11 FT.
c -10 FT.
d 560 FT.
259 id 3611
Which of the following statements is true ?
a QNH is always higher than QFE
b QNH is always lower than QFE
c QNH can be equal to QFE
d QNH is always equal to QFE
260id 3612Which statement is true ?

a QNH can be 1013.25 only for a station at MSL
b QNH can not be 1013.25 hPa
c QNH is lower than 1013.25 hPa at any time
d QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1013.25 hPa
261id 3613When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter indicates
a zero while landing
b elevation while landing
c elevation while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere
d zero while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere
262id 4160The QNH is equal to the QFE if

a T actual < T standard
b T actual = T standard
c T actual > T standard
d the elevation = 0
263id 4161Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?
a QFE = 1003 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
b QFE = 1000 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
c QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 FT (488m)
d QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
264id 4163You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby
island with an elevation of 4000 FT is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20°C.
What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the
subscale?
a Less than 0 FT
b 0 FT
c More than 0 FT, but less than 4000 FT
d 4000 FT
265id 4173For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate
elevation of the airfield is
a 120 metres
b 600 metres
c 540 metres
d 160 metres
266id 5551Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates

a the height of the aircraft's wheels above the runway.
b the flight level.
c the aircraft's altitude above the mean sea level.
d in standard atmosphere, the height of the aircraft above the official airport elevation.
267id 6463What altimeter reading would you expect when landing at an airfield 3000 ft above MSL,
altimeter setting is QFE for the field and local temperature is + 25°C?
a 3300 ft.
b 3000 ft.
c 2700 ft.
d 0 ft.
268id 6465The temperature is -15°C on an airport 3000' above mean sea level. Which of the following
statements is correct ?
a QFF > QNH
b QFF = QFE
c QFF = QNH
d QNH = QFE
269id 6468Which of altimeter settings is used when flying in flight levels ?

a 1013,25 hPa.
b 1025,13 hPa.
c QFF.
d QFE.
270id 6727While passing the Transition Level, you set the subscale on your altimeter to the local QNH
of 1009 hPa:
a Your indicated altitude decreases
b Your indicated altitude increases
c A statement is not possible without the knowledge of the exact OAT
d Your setting is wrong, the subscale must be set to 1013,2 hPa
271id 6728On takeoff, your altimeter is set to the local QNH of 1023 hPa. While passing theTransition
Altitude, you adjust the subscale accordingly:
a Your indicated altitude decreases
b Your indicated altitude increases
c A statement is not possible without the knowledge of the exact OAT
d The altimeter setting must remain at 1023 hPa
272id 6765You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft while a cold front passes the airport.What
does the altimeter indicate?
a It first decreases and then increases
b It first increases and then decreases
c It is not affected by a pressure change
d The pressure changes are very small and therefore, there is no visible change of the indication
273id 6889You have landed on an airport (elevation 1240 ft, QNH 1008 hPa). Your altimeter subscale
is erroneously set to 1013 hPa. Therefore, the indication will be:
a 1105 ft
b 1200 ft
c 1375 ft
d 1280 ft
274id 6890You have landed on an airport (elevation 540 ft, QNH 993 hPa). Your altimeter subscale is
erroneously set to 1013 hPa. Therefore, the indication will be:
a 0 ft
b 380 ft
c 1080 ft
d 700 ft
275id 6904Your altimeter indicates 3600 ft, while set to standard pressure. You now adjust the
subscale to the local QNH of 991 hPa. What will the indication be?
a 3006 ft
b 4194 ft
c 3600 ft
d 3320 ft
276id 6942When the barometric subscale of the altimeter is adjusted to 1013,2 hPa, what
type of altitude is being measured?
a Pressure altitude
b Indicated altitude
c True altitude
d Relative height
277id 6943You are departing an aerodrome (600 ft AMSL, QNH 1012 hPa) and proceed to another
airfield (195 ft AMSL) with the same QNH. After landing, which barometric
setting on the altimeter makes it again indicate 600 ft?
a 997
b 1032
c 992
d 1027
278id 6945Without readjusting the barometric setting of the altimeter, it will under-read when:
a flying from a high pressure area into a low pressure area
b flying in headwind with constant barometric pressure
c flaing in tailwind with constant barometric pressure
d flying from a low pressure area into a high pressure area
279id 136If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA +10°C in the lower
troposphere up to 18000 FT, what is the actual layer thickness between FL 60 and FL 120 ?
a 6240 FT.
b 6000 FT.
c 5900 FT.
d 5760 FT
.
280id 1201Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a position
where flight over mountains could be dangerous?
a Cold high.
b Warm depression.
c Cold low.
d Warm high.
281id 1499A vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under
conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical
separation be?
a More than 1000 FT
b It remains 1000 FT
c Less than 1000 FT
d Without QNH information, it can not be determined
282id 1500At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the
minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe
altitude?
a In a cold low pressure region
b At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is greater
than or equal to 1013 hPa
c At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1013 hPa
d In a warm high pressure region
283id 1913What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest
usable flight level?
a Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
b Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
c Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA
d Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA
284id 6946An aircraft is in level flight at FL100 over a mountain range, which extends up to 2400
metres AMSL. If the regional QNH is 998 hPa, what is the approximate terrain clearance?
a 2536 feet
b 1636 feet
c 7821 feet
d 405 feet
285id 2430What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per
hour?
a 60 km/h
b 35 km/h
c 55 km/h
d 45 km/h
286id 2431What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?

a 55 kt
b 50 kt
c 60 kt
d 70 kt
287id 2432What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec?

a 25 m/sec
b 15 m/sec
c 20 m/sec
d 30 m/sec
288id 4165
What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
a Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmh
b Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots
c Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmh
d Direction relative to true north and speed in knots
289id 6401Evaporation is the change of:

a Liquid water to water vapor.
b Water vapor to ice.
c Invisible water vapor to liquid water.
d Ice directly to water vapor.
290id 6402Water droplets often condense or persist at temperature colder than 0°C. What
are water droplets called which are colder than 0°C ?
a Super-heated water droplets.
b Supercooled water droplets.
c Ice.
d None of the above.
291id 6419The direction of the gradient force is?

a Towards high pressure
b Towards low pressure
c Parallel to the isobars
d Same direction as the friction force
292id 6422Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at some altitude above theground?
a Snow.
b Hail.
c Ice pellets.
d Ice crystals.
293id 6430Thermal turbulence is caused by:

a Wing-tip vortexes.
b Vertical movements due convection flow in unstable air.
c Deviations due to mountain terrain.
d Smooth air movements upon smooth substratum.
294id 6432What relationship exists between the winds at 2000 ft above the surface and the surface
winds ?
a The winds at 2000 ft and the surface winds flow in the same direction, but the surface winds are
weaker due to friction.
b The winds at 2000 ft and the surface winds are approximately the same except when eddies form due
to obstructions.
c The winds at 2000 ft tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars atan
angle toward lower pressure and are weaker.
d The surface winds tend to veer to the right of the winds at 2000 ft and are visually weaker.
295id 6433Possible mountain wave turbulence should be anticipated in cases where

windspeeds of
a 20 kts. or greater blow across a mountain ridge, and the air is unstable.
b 25 kts. or greater blow across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
c 25 kts. or greater blow down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable.
d 25 kts. or greater blow parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable.
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234

296id 6435Winds at 5000' AGL on a particular flight are south-westerly while most of thesurface
winds are southerly. The difference in direction is primarily due to:
a A stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
b Friction between the wind and the surface.
c Stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
d The influence of pressure systems at the lower altitudes.
297id 6436Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and
deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars ?
a Centrifugal.
b Pressure gradient.
c Coriolis.
d Advection.
298id 6442A trough is a:

a kind of low pressure.
b high pressure ridge.
c tropical thunderstorm.
d tropical wind.
299id 6445In the Northern Hemisphere the surface wind is blowing around a low pressure:
a anti-clockwise, oblique to the isobars towards the low pressure centre.
b parallel to the isobars.
c across the isobars.
d opposite the situation described in a).
300id 6446Characteristic of a cold air mass is:

a Precipitation (drizzle).
b Extensive fog.
c Showers and gusty winds.
d Strong and smooth winds.
301id 6447Due to the diurnal variations of temperature the following types of wind arise:
a Sea and land breeze.
b Trade-winds.
c Monsoon winds.
d Anabatic winds.
302id 6474An autumn day with rain showers and terminated by evening clear sky will be
followed in the next morning by:
a Advection fog.
b Radiation fog.
c Orografic fog.
d Frontal fog.
303id 6488What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather thanparallel to the
isobars ?
a Coriolis force.
b Surface friction.
c The greater density of the air at the surface.
d The greater atmospheric pressure at the surface.
304id 6492A high pressure (or anticyclone) is characterized by:

a The wind is blowing anticlockwise around the high pressure on the Northern Hemisphere.
b The wind is blowing anticlockwise around the high pressure on the Southern Hemisphere.
c The wind in the friction layer is blowing at an oblique angle and out from the high pressure in
relation
to the isobars.
d Both b) and c) are correct.
305id 6497In a low pressure:

a The isobars are found in closed and more or less oval circles around the lowest pressure.
b The isobars are often closer to each other than around a high pressure.
c The wind will tend to be stronger with increasing altitude and also blow more parallel to the isobars.
d a) , b) and c) are all correct
306id 6499Which clouds have the greatest turbulence ?

a Towering cumulus.
b Cumulonimbus.
c Nimbostratus.
d Altocumulus castellanus.
307id 6504Define low pressure:

a An area with lower pressure than that of the environments.
b An area of convergence.
c A trough.
308id 6505Define high pressure:

a An area with higher pressure than that of the environments.
b A high pressure ridge.
c An area of divergence.
d Non of the above
.
309id 6508List the two forces in balance in a geostrophic wind:
a Pressure force and friction force.
b Centrifugal force and friction force.
c Gradient force and Coriolis force.
d Coriolis force and centrifugal force.
310id 6511The expression "Mechanical turbulence" means:

a "Wake turbulence".
b That the terrain or other obstructions interfering with the airflow.
c Vertical movements in unstable air.
d That you experience "finger trouble".
311id 6513The mechanical turbulence will increase when:

a Flying from land to sea.
b temperature falls.
c pressure rises.
d the wind increases.
312id 6518What are trade winds?

a The wind zones towards the Intertropical Convergence Zone.
b The westerly wind zones.
c The polar easterly winds.
d Foen winds in alpine valleys.
313id 6522Mention one of the characteristics of the Monsoons:

a Daily change of wind direction.
b Yearly change of wind direction.
c The wind blowing from one direction all the year.
d The wind blowing along the 40° south, from the west towards the east.
314 id 6525 Describe the change of wind through the friction layer from the ground and up:
a Decreased force and "veering".
b Increased force and "veering".
c Increased force and "backing"
d Increased force and turning 180°
315id 6532 How does the geostrophic wind force change with latitude?
a Increase with increasing latitude to a certain latitude.
b Decrease with increasing latitude to a certain latitude.
c Increase with decreasing latitude.
d Latitude does not affect wind force.
316id 6548 Fog which reaches only 2 metres above ground or 10 metres above the sea is
called:
a Smog.
b Mist.
c Drifting fog.
d Shallow fog.
317id 6561 If you are flying into an area of low pressure, what drift would you expect to
experience in the northern hemisphere?
a Right drift
b None
c Left drift
d Ice directly to water vapor.
318id 6564 In contrast to brief showers, prolonged precipitation preceding a front is most likely
to be related to:
a Stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence
b Cumuliform cloud with little or no turbulence
c Shallow stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
319id 6569 The wind which results from air cooling on the side of a valley is known as:
a A katabatic wind
b A valley wind
c An anabatic wind
320id 6570 When flying in a sub-zero 0°C airmass, into which rain is falling, which of the following is
most likely?
a Hoar frost
b Hail
c Freezing rain
321id 6585 A wind who has changed clockwise in direction can be said to have:
a Reduced
b Backed
c Veered
d Advanced
322id 6587 If the wind at altitude is 24035KT, the most likely wind on the surface at an inland airfield
is:
a 27040KT
b 22020KT
c 22040KT
323id 6594 There is a natural tendency for air to flow from areas of:
a High pressure to low pressure
b Low pressure to high pressure
c Mountainous areas to flat areas
d Flat terrain towards the sea
324id 6599 With respect to high and low pressure systems:

a A high pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air
b A high pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air
c A low pressure area or trough is an area of descending air
325 id 6600 With respect to high and low pressure systems:
a A low pressure area or trough is an area of rising air
b A high pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air
c A low pressure area or trough is an area of descending air
326id 6603 What is the term used to describe streamers of precipitation trailing beneath
clouds, but evaporating before reaching the ground:
a Foehn
b Virga
c Dissipation trails
327id 6606 In the northern hemisphere an aircraft flying directly from low to high pressure would
expect to experience:
a No drift
b Right drift
c Left drift
328id6622 Which statement is true?

a The general visibility associated with a cold front is worse than the visibility associated with a warm
front
b The general visibility associated with a cold front is the same than the visibility associated with
awarm front
c The general visibility associated with a cold front is better than the visibility associated with a
warm front
329id 6623 A V-shaped extension of a low pressure area is called a:

a Ridge
b Col
c Trough
d Occlusion
330id 6628 If you stand with your back to the wind in the northern hemisphere, the low
pressure will be:
a On your left
b On your right
c Behind you
d Ahead of you
331id 6629 The wind at the surface is 24015KT. What is it most likely to be at 2000ft?
a 22025KT
b 26025KT
c 28015KT
332id 6639 What prevents air from flowing directly from high to low pressure areas over
western Europe?
a Coriolis force
b Surface friction
c Pressure gradient force
d The presence of occlusions
333id 6640 The general circulation of air associated with a high pressure area in the northern
hemisphere is:
a Inward, downward and counter clockwise
b Outward, upward and clockwise
c Outward, downward and clockwise
334id 6641 The general circulation of air associated with a low pressure area in the northern
hemisphere is:
a Inward, upward and counter clockwise
b Inward, upward and clockwise
c Outward, downward and clockwise
d Inward, downward and counter clockwise
335id 6650 What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?

a Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes
b Descending to the surface and the outward
c Moving outward from the high at high altitudes and into the high at the surface
336id 6651 At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low
because the friction
a decreases wind speed and Coriolis force
b decreases pressure gradient force
c creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure
337id 6652 At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
a At the poles
b Middle latitudes (30° to 60°)
c At the Equator
338id 6653 How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere?
a Causes clockwise rotation around a low
b Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high
c Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere
339id 6654 Which weather condition is defined as an anticyclone?

a Calm
b High pressure area
c Col
340id 6662 What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?

a Trough
b Ridge
c Hurricane or typhoon
341id 6664 Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?
a Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases
b Wind direction shifts to the left
c Atmospheric pressure increases
342id 6665 Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?
a Upper winds blowing across the front.
b Upper low located directly over the surface low.
c The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front
343id 6666 In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form?
a Warm fronts or occluded fronts
b Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts
c Cold front occlusions
344 id 6736 How is wind measured?

a 8-10 m above the ground on a mast with an anemometer
b 2 m above the ground in a weather shelter
c 2 m above the ground on a mast with an anemomenter
d 8-10 m above the ground on a mast with a pluviometer
345id 6743 What pressure does an observer at point A encounter in the next hour?
a Rising pressure
b Falling pressure
c A pressure rise first, then an immediate pressure drop
d No substantial pressure change
346 id 6744 What pressure does an observer at point B encounter in the next hour?
a Rising pressure
b Falling pressure
347id 6745 What pressure does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour?
a Rising pressure
b Falling pressure
348id 6746 What temperature does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour?
a The temperature increases
b The temperature decreases
c The temperature first increases and then decreases
d No substantial temperature change
349id 6747 What temperature does an observer at point B encounter in the next hour?
350id 6748 What temperature does an observer at point A encounter in the next hour?
351id 6751 What is the name of the low level winds between the subtropical high pressure belt and the
ITCZ?
a Monsoon
b Trade winds
c Easterly wave
d Low level jetstream
352id 6756 What is the most frequent wind in valleys, caused by thermal effects?
a Mountain breeze by day
b Mountain breeze by night
c Valley breeze by day
d Valley breeze by night
353id 6760 What does zone A depict?

a A trough
b A ridge
c The warm sector
d The cold front
354id 6761 Refer to the picture by pressing the "DLP" button: What does zone B depict?
a A trough
b A ridge
c The warm sector
d The cold front
355id 6762 Refer to the picture by pressing the "DLP" button: What does zone C depict?
a A trough
b A ridge
c The warm sector
d The cold front
356id 6767 What can you expect at FL 180, when the wind is geostrophic and your true
altitude is 18'000 ft?
a Crosswind from the right
b Crosswind from the left
c No crosswind
d None of the above
357id 6778 Where can a jetstream be observed?

a On a Significant Weather Chart (SWC)
b On a high level pressure chart
c On a surface chart
d All of the above
358id 6779 What can on a Significant Weather Chart be depicted?

a The speed and direction of a surface front
b The speed and direction of an upper front
c The amount of rain in a certain area
d The actual weather situation
359id 6784 What cloud type is prone to +RA?

a NS
b AS
c CC
d ST
360id 6785 When is heavy precipitation unlikely?

a In summer, with SC and AC clouds
b In summer, with CB and CU clouds
c In spring and autumn, with NS and CB clouds
d In winter, with CB clouds
361id 6786 The precipitation form +TSRA is most probably related to the following cloud type:
a CB
b CU
c NS
d CC
362id 6801 What happens when you descend from 2000 ft to the surface, when no fronts are present?
a The wind backs and decreases
b The wind veers and decreases
c The wind veers and increases
d The wind backs and the wind speed remains more or less constant
363id 6820 A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart.....

a is an area of convergence and widespread ascent
b is an area of divergence and widespread ascent
c leads to descending air masses
d is a narrow band of ascent
364id 6828 Name the conditions for the formation of radiation fog:
a Flat landscape, a clear night, no wind conditions
b Over the sea with a 20KT wind
c Mountainous terrain with winds of approx. 10 KT, overcast skies
d Flat landscape, a clear night, winds of 10-20KT
365id 6834 You fly from east to west at the 500 hPa level in the Northern hemisphere:
a If the wind is from the North, there is a gain in altitude
b If the wind is from the South, there is a gain in altitude
c If you encounter a northerly drift, there is a gain in altitude
d You fly towards an area of low pressure, and, therefore, experience a loss in altitude
366id 6839 Wind at 2000 ft 20040KT. What would you expect at the surface over the sea
approximately?
a 18515KT
b 18540KT
c 22020KT
d 22040KT
367id 6844 Which statement is true for condensation?

a Latent heat is released to the atmosphere
b Latent heat is transformed into pure energy
c Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet
d Precipitation forms
368id 6848 Of which air mass does the warm sector of a polar front depression consist?
a Maritime tropical air
b Maritime polar air
c Continental tropical air
d Continental equatorial air
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234

369id 6851 Which statement is true, when isobars stand close together on a surface chart?
a Strong winds are present
b Lights winds prevail
c A high pressure area is approaching
d Westerly winds prevail
370id 6856 Refer to the chart: On which route of flight would you expect no icing at FL 180?
a Zurich-Hamburg
b Zurich-Madrid
c Hamburg-Stockholm
d Zurich-Vienna
371id 6857 Refer to the chart: When flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, your cruising level is.....
a permanently in the troposphere
b permanently in the stratosphere
c first in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere
d intermittently in the stratosphere
372id 6858 Refer to the chart: Which statement is true?

a The frontal system south of London has a movement towards the south
b The freezing level over Madrid is higher than FL 120
c There is no risk for thunderstorms over France
d You may encounter turbulence over Madrid at FL 340
373id 6874 Refer to the chart: For which route of flight do you expect icing?
a Hamburg-Oslo
b Rome-Frankfurt
c Copenhagen-Helsinki
d Oslo-Prague
374id 6875 Refer to the chart: State the height of the tropopause over Frankfurt:
a FL 250
b FL 280
c FL 310
d FL 340
375id 6876 Refer to the chart: What are the weather conditions for a flight from Zurich to
London at your cruising altitude of FL 220?
a CAT during the first part of the route
b Severe turbulence and icing during the entire flight
c Flight mainly in clouds, no turbulence
d Occasional thunderstorms
376id 6877 Refer to the chart: Which statements are true?
a The front south of Frankfurt moves towards the Southeast with a speed of approximately 5 KT
b The jet stream over Italy shows a maximum wind speed of 120 km
c CBs have formed over the Iberian peninsula, with tops at about 25'000 ft
d No significant clouds are present over Rome
377id 6878 Refer to the chart: Which route is free of turbulence at Fl 340?
a Shannon-Hamburg
b Zurich-Rome
c Zurich-Athens
d Rom-Berlin
378id 6879 Refer to the chart: What are the weather conditions for a flight Zurich-Stockholm at FL
240:
a Your flight will be mainly in clouds, outside of CAT areas
b Your flight will be mainly clear of clouds, intermittently in icing conditions
c No thunderstorms have to be expected
d Your flight will be permanently clear of clouds
379id 6880 Refer to the chart: What wind speed do you expect over Rome at FL 340?
a 145KT
b 340KT
c 95KT
d 140 km/h
380id 6881 Refer to the chart: On which route do you expect moderate to severe CAT at FL 300?
a Zurich-Rome
b London-Zurich
c Zurich-Copenhagen
d Paris-Bordeaux
381id 6898 Which air mass and cloud depiction matches the routing A-B?
aB
bC
cD
dA
382id 6900On which route do you expect the cross section below?
a A-D
b B-C
c B-D
d A-E
383id 6901 On which route do you expect the cross section below?
a B-A
b D-A
c B-C
d C-A
384id 6912 The vertical extension of radiation fog during the winter over flat land is
approximately:
a 500 ft
b 1000 ft
c 2000 ft
d more than 2000 ft
385id 6918 What is sublimation?

a The change of state from ice to water
b The change of state from water to water vapour
c The change of state from water vapour to water
d The change of state from ice to water vapour or from water vapour to ice
386id 6919 What is evaporation?

387id 6920 What is condensation?

388id 6921What is freezing?

d The change of state from water to ice
389id 6923In an anticyclone in the Northern Hemisphere, with curved isobars, the speed of thegradient
wind.....
a is lower than the geostrophic wind
b equals the cyclostrophic wind
c depends on Coriolis force only
d is greater than the geostrophic wind
390id 6935 Why are there no or very few clouds, when a high pressure area is present?
a Because of subsiding air, subject to adiabatic heating
b Because of rising air, cooling adiabatically at the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
c The air is warmed from below
d Warm air moves over a cold surface, thus, generating stability
391id 6936 What is drizzle?

a Small water droplets of 0,2 to 0,5 mm in diameter
b Water droplets of more than 0,5 mm in diameter
c Precipitation which forms mostly in CB and CU clouds
d Typical precipitation, when NS clouds are present
392id 6937 What (amongst other) is the purpose for consulting an SWC chart prior to flight?
a To avoid areas with turbulence
b To obtain exact weather information for the destination airport
c To obtain complete weather forecasts for the entire route of flight
d To obtain weather information for a VFR flight only
393id 1178 Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?

a Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
b Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
c Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.
d Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force.
394id 1188 Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. What
effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft's true altitude ?
a Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answered.
b It increases.
c It remains constant.
d It decreases
395id 1202In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from ahigh
pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?
a Wind from the left.
b Wind from the right.
c Tailwind with no drift.
d Headwind with no drift.
396id 2075 The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure
system because the
a centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
b centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
c coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient
d coriolis force opposes to the centrifugal force
397id 2076 The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone
because the
a centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
b centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
c effect of coriolis is added to friction
d coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force
398id 2077 An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 feet)and
going directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to the aircraft, does the
wind come from ?
a From the left and slightly on the tail
b From the right and slightly on the nose
c From the right and slightly on the tail
d From the left and slightly on the nose
399id 2252 What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas ?
a The pressure gradient force
b Surface friction
c Katabatic force
d Coriolis force
400id 2435 An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right in order
to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of low pressure ?
a To the left.
b Behind.
c In front.
d To the right.
401id 3816 Wind is caused by

a the rotation of the earth
b horizontal pressure differences
c friction between the air and the ground
d the movements of fronts
402id 3822 You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
pressure surface. Which of the following statements is correct?
a If you have a tail wind you are losing altitude
b If the wind is from the south you are gaining altitude
c If you have a head wind you are gaining altitude
d If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude
403id 3823 Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are

a straight lines and no friction is involved.
b curved lines and no friction is involved
c straight lines and friction is involved.
d curved lines and friction is involved.
404id 3826 The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer because
a the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force
b contour lines are lines that connect points with the same windspeed in the upper air
c the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure system
d the friction of the air with the earth's surface gives the airflow a diversion perpendicular to the
gradient force.
405id 3827 The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with
straight isobars is (other conditions being the same)
a always higher
b higher if curvature is anticyclonic
c always lower
d higher if curvature is cyclonic
406id 3829 The geostrophic wind depends on

a centripetal force, height, pressure gradient
b earth's rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal force
c geographic latitude, centripetal force, height
d density, earth's rotation, geographic latitude
407id 3832 The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by
a curvature of isobars
b friction
c horizontal temperature gradients
d slope of pressure surfaces
408id 3836 The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the

a density of the air
b curvature of isobars
c sine of latitude
d horizontal pressure gradient
409id 3839 Geostrophic wind

a is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
b is directly proportional to the density of the air
c always increases with increasing height
d veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere
410id 4974 For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be
a the same at all latitudes north or south of 15°
b greater at 60°N than at 30°N
c greater at 30°N than at 60°N
d equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal component
411id 4975 For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N the speed of the
geostrophic wind will be
a greatest at 40°N
b the same at all latitudes
c greatest at 60°N
d least at 50°N
412id 4976 Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of
the gradient wind is
a less than the geostrophic wind
b greater than the geostrophic wind
c the same as the thermal component
d proportional only to the Coriolis force
413id 6429 Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity ?
a The amount of wind shear in cold fronts is insignificant and does not have to be considered.
b With a warm front, the most critical period is just before the front has passed the airport.
c With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.
d Turbulence will always exist in wind-shear conditions.
414id 6475 Concerning advection fog, a possible extent and duration is:
a Tens of meters and many days.
b Tens of meters and some hours.
c Hundreds of meters and many days.
d Hundreds of meters and some hours.
415id 6479 Fog formation by warm and humid air flowing over cold areas is often extensive and of
long duration. Such fog is called:
a Radiation fog.
b Advection fog
c Orografic fog.
d Frontal fog
416id 6491 When CAT (clear air turbulence) conditions are anticipated, the following
procedure should be used as soon as turbulent air penetration speed is
established:
a The airspeed indicator should be used as primary flight instrument.
b The attitude indicator should be used as secondary flight instrument.
c Maintain wings level and control pitch attitude smoothly.
d Prepare the use of large control inputs to fight the excessive G-forces that may occur.
417id 6503 Define a warm front:

a The front side of a heat wave.
b The situation when cold air displaces warm air.
c The situation when warm air displaces cold air.
d The same as an occlusion.
418id 6507 State in which type of front supercooled raindrops most frequently occur?
a Warm front.
b Cold front.
c Occlusion.
d Stationary front.
419id 6527 How would you describe a jetstream?

a A zone of wind in the upper troposphere or lower stratosphere with wind forces at 60 knots
minimum.
b The outflow airstream from a turbine engine..
c Any wind force above 64 knots.
d A zone of winds in connection with a "squall line".
420id 6528 The wind force at an isobaric surface in the Northern Hemisphere:
a increases with increased inclination of the isobaric surface.
b is greatest when the isobaric surface is horizontal.
c is not influenced by inclination of the isobaric surface.
d decreases with increased inclination of the isobaric surface.
421id 6529 Which phenomenon is often associated with a jetstream?

a Icing.
b Clear air turbulence (CAT).
c Windshear.
d Both a and b.
422id 6531 The approximate position of the polar jetstream is:

a approx. 60°N
b approx. 30°N
c approx. 80°N
d Over the north polar area.
423id 6537 When the inclination of isobar surfaces are equal, the geostrophic wind velocity depends
upon
a Air density.
b Latitude.
c Temperature.
d Centrifugal force.
424id 6555Buys-Ballot's law of winds states that in the northern hemisphere standing with your back to
the wind, you have:
a A low pressure ahead at an angle to your left, and a high pressure behind you at an angle to the
right.
b A low pressure ahead at an angle to your right, and a high pressure behind you at an angle to the left.
c A high pressure ahead at an angle to your right, and a low pressure behind you at an angle to the left.
d A high pressure ahead at an angle to your left, and a low pressure behind you at an angle to the right.
425id 6565 The weather most likely as a warm front passes is:
a Light showers, moderate continuous drizzle
b Moderate continuous rain, intermittent light drizzle
c Moderate continuous rain, rain showers
426id 6568 Which of the following processes can produce both fog and clouds?
a Divergence
b Advection
c Convection
427id 6586 The wind that flows along straight, parallel isobars is called the:
a Gradient Wind
b Geostrophic Wind
c Isobaric Wind
428id 6590 Turbulence at low level is more likely to be associated with:

a Steady drizzle
b An anticyclone over the ocean
c A temperature inversion
429id 6598 Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around high and low
pressure systems that are shown on a pressure chart:
a Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars
b When the isobars are far apart, crests of standing waves may be marked by lenticular clouds
c When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is stronger, and wind velocities
are higher
d When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is weaker, and wind velocities are
lower
430id 6610 A sea breeze blows:

a From the sea by day
b From the sea by night
c From the land by day
431id 6611 A land breeze blows:

a From the sea by day
b From the sea by night
c From the land by night
432id 6618 Within a depression, two air masses meet so that a warm front is formed. In
relation to a typical warm front:
a Warm air will be replaced by cold air, the frontal slope will be around 1:150
b Cold air will be replaced by warm air, the frontal slope will be around 1:150
c Warm air will be replaced by cold air, the frontal slope will be around 1:50
433id 6621 As a warm front approaches a stationary observer, the cloud base:
a Remains the same
b Lowers
c Rises
434id 6647 The cloud sequence that could be expected during the passage of a typical warm front
would be:
a CI, AS, CB, CU
b AS, CI, CS, ST, NS
c CI, CS, AS, NS, ST
435id 6659 Where are jetstreams normally located?

a In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere
b At the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located
c In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break between the equatorial and
polar tropopause
436id 6660 Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?
a CB cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front
b CI clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream
c CS cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream
437id 6661 Where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur?
a In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core
b Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of the jetstream is located
c On the equatorial side of the jetstream where moisture has formed cirriform clouds
438id 6667 Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts?
a North of the surface systems
b South of the low and warm front
c Over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front
439id 6668 Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream?
a Cold front and warm front
b Warm front
c Occluded front
440id 6733 When flying at FL 180 in the Northern Hemisphere you experience a right drift:
a Your TA decreases
b Your TA increases
c Your TA remains unchanged
d Not enough information is provided to determine the TA
441id 6734 When flying at FL 180 in the Northern Hemisphere you experience a left drift:
a Your TA decreases
b Your TA increases
c Your TA remains unchanged
d Not enough information is provided to determine the TA
442id 6758 In a warm front, a freezing level of 10'000 ft in the warm air and 2000 ft in the cold air is
observed. Where is the probability for FZRA the lowest?
a 5000 ft
b 12'000 ft
c 10'000 ft
d 1000 ft
443id 6792 What can be said about a wind speed of 350 KT in a jetstream?
a It is possible, but rare
b It is impossible
c A wind speed of 350 KT is common
d It is only possible in a subtropical jetstream
444id 6795 A warm front is approaching an airport:

a QFE and QNH decrease
b QFE increases and QNH decreases
c QFE decreases and QNH increases
d QNH decreases, while QFE remains unchanged
445id 6827 Where do you encounter the strongest winds close to the ground?
a In the transition zone between air masses
b I a cold air mass
c At a point distant from the center of the occlusion
d When a ridge is present
446id 6837 How is the weather in Bombay in early July influenced?

a By SW monsoon
b By NE monsoon
c By the Harmattan
d By the trade winds
447id 6849 What clouds do you expect approximately 800 km ahead of a warm front?
a CS
b AC
c NS
d CU
448id 6896The average slope of a warm front is approximately:

a 1:150
b 1:250
c 1: 500
d 1:80
449id 6922 What is the geostrophic wind?

a It blows along curved isobars, and is affected by Coriolis force and centrifugal force
b It blows parallel to straight isobars when there are no gradient forces present
c It blows along curved isobars when frictional forces are present
d It blows parallel to straight isobars, when no friction is present
450id 6940 State the altitude at which the core of the Arctic Jet Stream can be found:
a 20000 ft
b 30000 ft
c 40000 ft
d 50000 ft
451id 6941 State the altitude at which the core of the Subtropical Jet Stream can be found:
a 20000 ft
b 30000 ft
c 40000 ft
d 50000 ft
452id 1177What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the weather
map are very close together?
a Strong and parallel to the isobars.
b Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars.
c Strong and flowing across the isobars.
d Moderate and parallel to the isobars.
453id 2253 Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around highand low-
pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart.
a When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities
are stronger.
b Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars.
c Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature.
d When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by stationary lenticular
clouds.
454id 2434 Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
a At the centre of a high-pressure system
b At the centre of a low-pressure system
c In the transition zone between two air masses
d Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months
455id 3812 The greater the pressure gradient the
a further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
b closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
c closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures
d further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature
456id 3813 When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close
together, the wind is most likely to be
a strong
b blowing perpendicular to the isobars
c changing direction rapidly
d light
457id 4143 Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL180 in thenorthern
hemisphere, where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains
constant ?
a There is a cross wind from the right
b There is a cross wind from the left
c There is no cross wind
d Without knowing temperature at FL 180 this question can not be answered
458id 6627 An aircraft is flying on a constant heading with left drift in the northern
hemisphere,maintaining a constant indicated pressure altitude. Which of the following is true?
a It is likely to be climbing relative to the surface
b It is likely to be maintaining a constant distance relative to the surface
c It is likely to be descending relative to the surface
459id 3821 In an area of converging air

a clouds can not be formed
b convective clouds can be dissolved
c stratified clouds can be dissolved
d clouds can be formed
460id 3828 Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in
a falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
b rising pressure and likely formation of clouds
c rising pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
d falling pressure and likely formation of clouds
461id 3840 In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused by
a the inbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the Coriolis force
b centripetal forces
c frictional forces
d the curvature of the isobars
462id 2436 Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-pressure
belt ?
a 55° - 75°.
b 10° - 15°.
c 35° - 55°.
d 25° - 35°.
463id 2437 Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low pressure
systems ?
a 35° - 55°
b 55° - 75°
c 25° - 35°
d 10° - 15°
464id 4148 In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N and 20°N the prevailing winds are
a NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer
b NE trade winds
c SE trade winds
d SW winds throughout the whole year
465id 4978 Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the SE trade
winds are applicable to zone
aw
bt
cu
dv
466id 4979 Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone"t" is an
area of
a NE trade winds
b SE trade winds
c travelling low pressure systems
d subtropical high pressure systems
467id 4980 Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation the travelling low pressure
systems are applicable to zone
a u and w
b t only
c t and x
d s and y
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234

468id 4981Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by the zone of
a equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the intertropical convergence zone over central
Australia
b antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass between south Australia and
Antarctica
c disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fronts resulting in
strong winds, low cloud and rain
d subtropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originating in the adjacent zone
of disturbed temperate low pressure
469
id 4982 Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone "y" is an
area of
a SE trade winds
b NE trade winds
c travelling low pressure systems
d subtropical high pressure systems
470
id 4983 Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE trade
winds are applicable to zone
au
bt
cv
dw
471id 4984Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zoneb"u" is in
area of
a SW trade winds
b travelling depressions
c NE trade winds
d subtropical high pressure
472id 6438 When a cold front has passed over an airfield, the wind will:
a "reverse".
b "veer".
c not change.
d become laminar.
473id 6439 Bad weather usually follows a low pressure because there will be:
a Convergence.
b Divergence.
c Convergence with lifting of air masses in a deeper layer.
d A sinking of the air masses.
474 id 6448 What is meant by an area of divergence?
a An area where air masses are moving in
b An area where air masses are moving out
c A frontal zone.
d A high pressure area
475id 6566 What is the cloud-type sequence most likely to be associated with the passage of a cold
front?
a CU/CB, NS and low ST
b SC/CB, and BKN ST
c CU/CB, Isol CU
476id 6619 Within a depression, two air masses meet so that a cold front is formed. In relation to a
typical cold front:
a Warm air will be replaced by cold air, the frontal slope will be around 1:80
b Cold air will be replaced by warm air, the frontal slope will be around 1:80
c Warm air will be replaced by cold air, the frontal slope will be around 1:150
477id 6793 Name the jetstream(s) which appear all year round:
a Subtropical and polar front jetstream
b Subtropical jetstream only
c Polar front jetstream only
d Arctical jetstream
478id 6796 The ITCZ affects

a West Africa between 10° and 30° N, and the north coasts of the Arabian Sea
b East Africa between 10° and 20° N
c West Africa between 10° and 30° N only
d The entire African continent
479id 6825 What can be said about showers at a cold front?

a Unstable air is present
b They occur mostly in stable air
c It is a sign for a cold occlusion
d NS clouds are present
480id 6859 Refer to the chart: State the average wind for the route Zurich-Hamburg, FL 260:
a 20015KT
b 02020KT
c 23020KT
d 26025KT
481id 6860 Refer to the chart: State the average temperature for the route Zurich-Lissabon, FL 200:
a -33°C
b -30°C
c -41°C
d -49°C
482id 6861 Refer to the chart: State the height of the -40°C isotherm over Stockholm:
a FL 410
b FL 230
c FL 390
d FL 250
483id 6862 Which upper level chart do you use when preparing a flight at a cruising altitude of FL
170?
a 500 hPa
b 850 hPa
c 700 hPa
d 300 hPa
484id 6863 Refer to the chart: State the average wind for the route Athens-Geneva, FL 160:
a 05035KT
b 26040KT
c 21025KT
d 23040KT
485id 6864 Refer to the chart: State the average temperature for the route Athens-Geneva, FL 150:
a -21°C
b -14°C
c -27°C
d -11°C
486id 6865 Refer to the chart: State the air temperature and the deviation to ISA over
Copenhagen at FL 140:
a 8°C colder than ISA
b 4°C warmer than ISA
c 8°C warmer than ISA
487id 6866 Refer to the chart: State the average wind for the route Zurich-Rome, FL 110:
a 23015KT
b 20030KT
c 04010KT
d 25020KT
488id 6867 Refer to the chart: State the average air temperature for the route Zurich-Rome, FL110:
a -06°C
b -09°C
c -12°C
d +05°C
489id 6868 Refer to the chart: State the height of the freezing level over Shannon by applying the
common vertical temperature gradient:
a FL 140
b FL 120
c FL 60
d FL 20
490id 6869 Refer to the chart: State the average wind for the route Frankfurt-Rome, FL 170:
a 20050KT
b 23040KT
c 06050KT
d 03035KT
491id 6870 Refer to the chart: State the height of the freezing level over Tunis, considering the
common vertical temperature gradient:
a FL 260
b FL 180
c FL 100
d FL 20
492id 6871 Refer to the chart: What is the average temperature deviation from ISA for the route
Frankfurt-Rome?
d 4°C warmer than ISA
493id 6872 Refer to the chart: What is the average temperature for the route Geneva-
Stockholm, FL 260:
a -55°C
b -51°C
c -63°C
d -47°C
494id 6873 Refer to the chart: What is the average wind for the route Shannon-Lisbon, FL 290:
a 36080KT
b 03070KT
c 19075KT
d 34090KT
495id 6897 The average slope of a cold front is approximately:
a 1:150
b 1:250
c 1: 500
d 1:80
496id 1180 Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO
description? "There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude
but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in
air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's
center of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose
a Severe.
b Light.
c Moderate.
d Violent.
497id 2559 All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You
experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against
their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service
and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as
a light
b moderate
c severe
d extreme
498id 6449 On a weather chart an occlusion is indicated by a coloured line of:

a Violet.
b Yellow.
c Black.
d Green.
499id 6476 On a weather chart fog is indicated by:

a Yellow colour or horizontal lines.
b Green colour.
c Blue colour.
d Green comma sign.
500id 6826 You cross a jet stream 2500 ft below the core at a right angle over Western
Europe. While crossing, the temperature is increasing. What wind direction do you
encounter?
a Wind from the right
b Wind from the left
c Information insufficient to determine wind direction
d Calm winds
501id 6928 Which of the following symbols show a hazard for IFR flights, according to ICAO?
aA
b A, B
cC
d C, D
aA
b A, B
cC
d C, D
aA
b A, B
c A, C
dD
a A, C
bB
c A, D
dC
505id 1203 What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through a cold
front in the summer over Central Europe at FL 100?
a Moderate turbulence in NS cloud.
b Severe turbulence in CB cloud.
c Light turbulence in CB cloud.
d Light turbulence in ST cloud.
506id 2090 Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence ?
a Altocumulus lenticularis
b Stratocumulus
c Cirrocumulus
d Nimbostratus
507id 3824 Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of

a a high risk of thunderstorms
b poor visibility at surface
c smooth flying conditions below the cloud level
d turbulence at and below the cloud level
508id 4121 On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced
a immediately after sunset
b during the early afternoon
c during early morning hours before sunrise
d about midmorning
509id 1186 Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL are southwesterly while most of the
surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of difference
between these two wind directions?
a The influence of warm air at the lower altitude.
b A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
c Stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
d Friction between the wind and the surface.
510id 1187 Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:
a backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.
b veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
c backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
d veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.
511id 1204 You are flying at 2 500 FT/AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an airport, at
sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would you
expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?
a South.
b South-southwest.
c Southwest.
d South-southeast.
512id 2084 In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction towards the
low pressure area because :
a turbulence is formed and pressure decreases
b the pressure gradient increases
c turbulence is formed and pressure increases
d wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases
513id 2247 What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than
parallel to the isobars ?
a Coriolis force
b Surface friction
c Greater density of the air at the surface
d Greater atmospheric pressure at the surface
514id 2439 If Paris reports a wind of 19015KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect
to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?
a 16020KT
b 22030KT
c 25025KT
d 22010KT
515id 2440 If Paris reports a wind of 08010KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect
a 11020KT
b 08015KT
c 05020KT
d 08005KT
516id 2441If Paris reports a wind of 16020KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect
to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
a 14020KT
b 16030KT
c 19040KT
d 17015KT
517id 2442If Paris reports a wind of 30012KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect
a 30025KT
b 23030KT
c 33025KT
d 27020KT
518id 3814 In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL directly towards the centre of a
low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from
a about 45 degrees to the right of directly ahead
b right and behind
c left and behind
d directly ahead
519id 3815 In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows
a from a low pressure area to a high pressure area
b counter-clockwise around, and toward the centre of, a low pressure area
c clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a low pressure area
d counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure area.
520id 3817 During a descent from 2000 FT above the surface to the surface (no frontal
passage) the wind normally
a backs and decreases
b veers and increases
c backs and increases
d veers and decreases
521id 3825 What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet and the surface wind?
a The surface wind is veered compared to the wind at 3000 feet and is usually weaker.
b They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by friction
c They are practically the same, except when eddies exist, caused by obstacles
d The wind at 3000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind direction is across the
isobars toward the low pressure and the surface wind is weaker.
522id 3833 The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on
a roughness of surface, temperature, local time
b wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature
c stability, wind speed, roughness of surface
d temperature, local time, environmental lapse rate
523id 3834 During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anticyclonic conditions, the
a surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoon
b surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
c angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the early afternoon
d wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon
524 id 4985
In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure distribution is
350/24, over the sea the surface wind would approximate
a 340/20
b 030/20
c 340/28
d 030/28
525id 4986 In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic pressure system the geostrophic wind at
2000 FT over the sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind is most likely to be
a 060/12
b 045/12
c 060/18
d 075/12
526id 6530 Severe turbulence is associated with a jetstream:

a At the low pressure side.
b At the high pressure side.
c In the core of the jetstream.
d Underneath the core of the jetstream.
527id 6636 Which of the following is most likely to occur after passage of a cold front?
a A fall in pressure, a fall in temperature and dew point
b A rise in pressure, a fall in temperature and dew point
c A rise in pressure, a fall in temperature and a rise in dew point
528id 6813 What is the easterly wave?
a A wave in the trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in the
rear of its trough
b A wave in the moderate latitudes, moving from east to west, with mostly stable air in the rear of its
trough
c An orographic-induced wave, moving to the east, in moderate latitudes
d A wave in the trade wind belt, moving to the east, with severe convective action in the rear of its
trough
529id 3831 At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the
surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind
a veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
b backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
c veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
d backs in the friction layer and and backs above the friction layer
530id 1183 In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows :

a during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
b during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
c during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
d during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
531id 1184 A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the
Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely atthe airport on a sunny
afternoon?
a Parallel to the coastline.
b Land to sea.
c Variable.
d Sea to land.
532id 1185 A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows

a down the slope during the night.
b up the slope during the day.
c down the slope during the day.
d up the slope during the night.
533id 2085The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the :
a valley during daylight hours.
b mountain at night.
c mountain during daylight hours.
d valley during daylight as much as at night.
534id 2443 Which of the following is true of a land breeze?

a It blows from land to water
b It blows from water to land
c It blows by day
d It blows only at noon
535id 2444 An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to
the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What
wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny
afternoon?
a Crosswind from the left
b Crosswind from the right
c Tailwind
d Headwind
536id 2445 An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to
the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What
wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny
afternoon ?
a Crosswind from the left
c Tailwind
d Headwind
537id 3811When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large body of
water will experience wind
a continually from land to water
b from the water in daytime and from the land at night
c continually from water to the land
d from the land in daytime and from the water at night
538id 3819 The sea breeze is a wind from the sea

a blowing at night in mid-latitudes
b that reaches up to the tropopause in daytime
c occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime
d occurring only in mid-latitudes and in daytime
539id 3830 In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows

a during the day up from the valley
b at night up from the valley
c during the day down from the mountains
d at night down from the mountains
540id 6671 Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer?
a Land breeze
b Valley wind
c Katabatic wind
541id 1501 What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?
a The varied elevations of the tropopause in the polar front region
b The pressure difference, close to the ground, between a high over the Azores and a low over Iceland
c The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar front
d Strong winds in the upper atmosphere
542id 6538 Which jetstream is more or less found continuously around the Earth?
a The polar front jetstream.
b The artic front jetstream.
c The subtropical jetstream.
d The equatorial jetstream.
543id 720 An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the core.
How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this
portion of the flight?
a It first increases, then decreases.
b It increases.
c It decreases.
d It remains constant.
544id 1284 What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?
a 70 kt.
b 50 kt.
c 60 kt.
d 100 kt.
545id 1285 A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following
windprofile (Northern hemisphere). 900hPa 220/20kt 800hPa 220/25kt 700hPa
230/35kt 500hPa 260/60kt 400hPa 280/85kt 300hPa 300/100kt 250hPa 310/120kt
200hPa 310/80kt Which system is the jet stream associated with?
a With an easterly wave.
b With a cold front.
c With a ITCZ.
d With a warm front.
546id 1502 Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system?
a The arctic jet stream
b The polar front jet stream
c The subtropical jet stream
d The equatorial jet stream
547id 1920What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross
section?
a 1/1000
b 1/1
c 1/10
d 1/100
548id 1923An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL 400in the
southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be
experienced ?
a It stays the same.
b It rises.
c It falls.
d It falls and then rises.
549id 1924 A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be world-wide regarded as:
a a common occurence.
b not possible.
c possible but a very rare phenomenon.
d not unusual in polar regions.
550id 1928 An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 FT below its core at right
angles. While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing
wind is
a headwind.
b from the left.
c tailwind.
d from the right
551id 1950 Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?
a Just below the cold-air tropopause.
b In the cold air mass.
c Just above the warm-air tropopause.
d In the warm air mass.
552id 1952 You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While crossing, in
spite of a strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely
changes.
a You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with practically no temperature
difference between the two airmasses.
b This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core.
c Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will after landing have the instruments
tested.
d This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large temperature differences are
possible at these heights.
553id 1986 What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro
(23°S) at FL 350 in July ?
a A polar front jet stream followed by a subtropical jet stream and later, a second polar front jet stream.
b A subtropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream.
c A polar front jet stream followed by one or two subtropical jet streams.
d One subtropical jet stream.
554id 1987 While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 FT below itscore) and
OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?
a A headwind.
c Crosswind from the left
d A tailwind.
555id 2438 Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found ?
a At about 5500 metres altitude
b Just below the tropopause
c Close to the ground
d In the stratosphere
556id 4132 Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?
a In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur
b In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur
c In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur
d In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur
557id 4144 Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is
correct?
a It lies in the warm air; its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of the core
b It and its surface projection lie in the warm air
c It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature gradient; the slope of the pressure
surfaces at the height of the core is at its maximum
d It lies in the cold air; the thermal wind reverses direction at the height of the core
558id 4145 On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern
hemisphere. This means that
a above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
b the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet
c below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
d the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet
559id 719What name is given to the jet stream lying across India (A) ?
a Polar front jet stream.
b Equatorial jet stream.
c Arctic jet stream.
d Sub-tropical jet stream.
560id 1503 At approximately what altitude is the subtropical jet stream found over Europe?
a FL 500
b FL 200
c FL300
d FL 400
561id 1595What name is given to the jet stream lying over North Africa (B) ?
a Polar front jet stream
b Equatorial jet stream
c Sub-tropical jet stream
d Arctic jet stream
562id 1919 What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?
a 30000 FT.
b 20000 FT .
c 40000 FT.
d 50000 FT.
563id 1921 Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere?
a The arctic jet stream.

b The polar night jet stream.
c The equatorial jet stream.
d The subtropical jet stream.
564id 1922 What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream?
a 50000 FT.
b 20000 FT.
c 40000 FT.
d 30000 FT.
565id 1930In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from Bombay(19°N -
73°E) to Bangkok (13°N - 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect?
a Light winds diagonal to the route.
b Headwinds.
c Tailwinds.
d Strong northerly winds.
566id 1931 What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other jet
streams ?
a Horizontal dimension.
b Vertical dimension.
c Wind direction.
d Windspeed.
567id 1932 Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?
a Equatorial jet stream / arctic jet stream.
b Equatorial jet stream / polar front jet stream.
c Arctic jet stream / subtropical jet stream.
d Subtropical jet stream / polar front jet stream.
568id 2246 During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar front
jetstream moves toward the
a south and speed decreases
b north and speed decreases
c south and speed increases
d north and speed increases
569id 2558 The equatorial easterly jet is a jetstream that occurs :

a only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45 000 FT
b only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx. 30 000 FT
c during the whole year in the southern hemisphere
d during the whole year in the northern hemisphere
570id 3855Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly direction.There is,
however, an important easterly jet stream. When and where is it likely to be encountered ?
a In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean.

b In summer from south-east Asia extending over southern India to central Africa.
c In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the Mediterranean to southern
Spain.
d Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high.
571id 2245 The jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually
identified in flight by
a a constant outside air temperature
b dust or haze at high level
c long streaks of cirrus clouds.
d a high-pressure centre at high level
572id 1283 In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected ?
a About 12000 FT above the core.
b The warm air side of the core.
c Exactly in the center of the core.
d The cold air side of the core.
573id 1989 Which area of a polar front jet stream in the northern hemisphere has the highest
probability of turbulence?
a Looking downstream, the area to the left of the core.
b Looking downstream, the area to the right of the core.
c In the core of the jet stream.
d Above the core in the boundary between warm and cold air.
574id 4133 Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be
experienced ?
a A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms
b A curved jet stream near a deep trough
c A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer
d A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
575id 2243 Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain
waves?
a Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
b Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
c Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots blowing parallel to the
mountain ridge.
d Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the
mountain ridge.
576id 5558 At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be
encountered is
a altocumulus lenticularis.
b cirrostratus.
c cirrus.
d cumulus mediocris.
577id 3597What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather
stand-point ?
a Nitrogen
b Water vapour
c Oxygen
d Hydrogen
578id 6399Relative humidity relates to

a the amount of water vapor present in warm air compared to cold air.
b actual water vapor present to what could be present.
c the degree of saturation.
d both b and c.
579id 6405 Unsaturated air moving downwards is heated at a certain rate of temperature
change, called:
a Dry adiabatic.
b Chinook wind.
c Saturated adiabatic.
d Ambient lapse rate.
580id 6431 Hazardous wind shear is encountered near the ground

a during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots.
b during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valleys.
c during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.
d near mountain valleys and on the windward side of hills or mountains.
581id 6440 The inland climate is characterized by:
a a cold winter and a warm summer.
b a warm winter and a cold summer.
c a dry winter and a wet summer.
d a wet winter and a dry summer.
582id 6502 The formation of a thermal low pressure is by:

a Advection of warm air.
b Advection of cold air.
c A dynamic effect.
d A temperature rise in an area in relation to the environment.
583id 6509 "Instability" low pressure means:

a A lee low.
b Orographic low pressure containing condensation heat.
c Cold low pressure.
d A low pressure receiving energy from released condensation heat.
584id 6512 Wind shear is experienced when:

a The wind has been forecasted to be light and variable.
b Neither wind direction nor force changes at altitude.
c There is a ground inversion and strong winds above the inversion layer.
d Gusts have been forecasted or reported.
585id 6519 List the characteristics of a typical coastal climate:
a Warm summer and cold winter
b Chilly summer and mild winter.
c Small amounts of precipitation.
d Stable weather.
586id 6526 Describe how a cold high pressure changes at altitude:
a Strengthens.
b No change.
c Weakens and may transfer into a low pressure.
d Impossible to predict.
587id 6547 With decreasing temperature and unchanged dew point:

a The relative humidity will decrease.
b Water vapor will decrease.
c Water vapor will increase.
d The relative humidity will increase.
588id 6588 As a parcel of air cools, its ability to hold water vapour:
a Decreases
b Increases
c Remains unaltered
d Depends, whether the parcel is rising or not
589id 6589 As a parcel of air warms, its ability to hold water vapour:
a Decreases
b Increases
c Remains unaltered
d Depends, whether the parcel is rising or not
590id 6612 Moist air is:

a Denser than dry air
b Warmer than dry air
c Less dense than dry air
d Colder than dry air
591id 6649 Where is the usual location of a thermal low?

a Over the arctic region
b Over the eye of a hurricane
c Over the surface of a dry, sunny region
592id 6670 Which process causes adiabatic cooling?

a Expansion of air as it rises
b Movement of air over a colder surface
c Release of latent heat during the vaporization process
593id 6772 What does this picture depict?
a A westerly wave over Central Europe

b A high pressure area over Central Europe
c South foehn
d North foehn
594id 6803 Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture?

a In Central Europe
b Over the North Sea
c In the Mediterranean Sea
d Over the Baltics
595id 6804 Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture?

a In Central Europe
b Over Scandinavia
c In the Mediterranean Sea
d Over the Baltics
596id 6853 Which statement is true for the lifting of an air parcel?
a Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated
b Saturated parcels cool more rapidly than unsaturated
c An air parcel always cools at the dry adiabatic lapse rate
d A stable air mass must be present
597id 6885 Refer to the surface chart: Which weather situation can be expected during the dayat
Geneva airport?
a TAF LSGG 0716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013
05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 =
b TAF LSGG 0716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020
OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN 010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT 030 BKN090=
c TAF LSGG 0716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA BKN
030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100 =
d TAF LSGG 0716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB40
TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020 CB=
598id 6886 Refer to the surface chart: Which weather situation can be expected during the day at
Zurich airport?
a TAF LSZH 1601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002=
b TAF LSZH 1601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA
BKN003 OVC015 =
c TAF LSZH 1601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820
1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 =
d TAF LSZH 1601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB
=
599id 6915 In which of the following METARs is the probability the biggest for the formation of fog
the following night?
a 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/M08 Q1028 NOSIG =

b 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
c 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =
d 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OBC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
600id 1164 What does dewpoint mean?

a The temperature at which ice melts.
b The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation.
c The freezing level (danger of icing).
d The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the same.
601id 1165 Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity ?

a Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100
b Ratio between air temperature and dewpoint temperature X 100
c Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100
d Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100
602id 1166 The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air
mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?
a It is not influenced by changing water vapour.
b It increases with increasing water vapour.
c It decreases with increasing water vapour.
d It is only influenced by temperature.
603id 1167 Relative humidity

a is not affected by temperature changes of the air.
b is not affected when air is ascending or descending.
c changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant.
d does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains constant.
604id 1168 How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated airmass influenced by
temperature changes?
a It increases with increasing temperature.
b It is not influenced by temperature changes.
c It decreases with increasing temperature.
d It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour.
605id 1169How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated airmass change with
varying temperature?
a When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dewpoint remain constant.
b When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dewpoint decreases.
c When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint increases.
d When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint remains
constant.
606id 1170 When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative humidity?
a It increases up to 100%, then remains stable.

b It increases.
c It remains constant.
d It decreases.
607id 1171 During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C and a dew point of +5°C were
measured. What temperature change must occur during the night in order to
induce saturation?
a It must decrease to +6°C.
b It must decrease by 5°C.
c It must decrease to +5°C.
d It must decrease to +7°C.
608id 2446 Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
a It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is unknown
b It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
c It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity
d It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
609id 4047Relative humidity

a is higher in cool air than in warm air
b is higher in warm air than in cool air
c increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant
d decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant
610id 4048 The difference between temperature and dewpoint is greater in

a air with low temperature
b moist air
c air with high temperature
d dry air
611id 4049 The dewpoint temperature

a can not be equal to the air temperature
b is always lower than the air temperature
c is always higher than the air temperature
d can be equal to the air temperature
612id 4050 Relative humidity depends on

a temperature of the air only
b moisture content and pressure of the air
c moisture content of the air only
d moisture content and temperature of the air
613id 4051 The dewpoint temperature

a can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature constant
b can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant
c can not be equal to the air temperature
d can not be lower than the air temperature
614id 4058 The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the
a dewpoint
b relative humidity
c stability of the air
d air temperature
615id 5002 Dew point is defined as

a the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption
of latent heat
b the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure
c the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity
d the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure
616id 5552 Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between
a dew point and air temperature
b water vapour weight and dry air weight
c water vapour weight and humid air volume
d actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content
617id 6400 The difference between air temperature and dew point temperature is popularly called the
"spread". As spread increases, relative humidity:
a increases.
b decreases.
c stays the same.
d first decreases and then increases.
618id 6403 If the dew point stays the same, but the air temperature decreases, then:
a The relative humidity will decrease.
b Water vapor will decrease.
c Water vapor will increase.
d The relative humidity will increase.
619id 6409 The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on:
a Relative humidity.
b Air temperature.
c Stability of air.
d Dew point.
620id 6481 The danger of experiencing fog is greatest when:

a dew point temperature is high.
b dew point temperature is low.
c there is little dispersion.
d there is great dispersion.
621id 6483 When temperature drops without changes of dew point temperature:
a The amount of water vapor will increase.

b Relative humidity will increase.
c The amount of water vapor will decrease.
d Relative humidity will decrease.
622id 6490 Which conditions result in the formation of frost ?

a The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are
falling.
b When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing.
c Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding air and the dew
point is colder than freezing.
d None of the above is correct.
623id 6626 A parcel of air is said to be saturated if it has a relative humidity of:
a 50 %
b 100 %
c Greater than 90 %
d Greater than 80 %
624id 6631 The temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated if it cools is called:
a Dew point temperature
b Saturation temperature
c Condensation temperature
d Freezing temperature
625id 6787 The maximum water in the air depends on the following:
a Temperature
b Density
c Cloud type
d None of the above
626id 6917 What is relative humidity?

a The actual water vapour content in the air given in per cent
b The possible saturated water vapour content at a given temperature, given in per cent
c A term used to indicate the presence of water vapour, or moisture, in the air
d The ratio of the actual water vapour content in the air to the saturated water vapour content of
the air at a given temperature
627id 947 Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?
a Solid direct to liquid

b Solid direct to vapour
c Liquid direct to solid
d Liquid direct to vapour
628id 948 Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:
a relative humidity reaches 98%.

b water vapour is present.
c water vapour condenses.
d temperature and dew point are nearly equal.
629id 1505 In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released ?
a Liquid to gas
b Solid to liquid
c Solid to gas
d Gas to liquid
630id 1506How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet
aircraft ?
a Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases
b Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips
while flying through relatively warm but humid air
c Through water vapour released during fuel combustion
d In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases
631id 3988 Supercooled droplets are always

a large and at a temperature below freezing
b small and at a temperature below freezing
c at a temperature below freezing
d at a temperature below -60°C
632id 3989 Supercooled droplets can be encountered

a only in winter at high altitude
b in winter only in high clouds
c only in winter above 10000 FT
d at any time of the year
633id 4052 When water evaporates into unsaturated air

a relative humidity is decreased
b heat is released
c relative humidity is not changed
d heat is absorbed
634id 4056 A super-cooled droplet is

a a water droplet that is mainly frozen
b a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing
c a small particle of water at a temperature below -50°C
d a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent
635id 4115 Supercooled droplets can occur in

a clouds but not in precipitation
b clouds, fog and precipitation
c precipitation but not in clouds
d clouds but not in fog
636id 4117 A super-cooled droplet is one that

a is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air
b has frozen to become an ice pellet
c has a shell of ice with water inside it
d remains liquid at a below freezing temperature
637id 5003 The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as
a supercooling
b sublimation
c supersaturation
d radiation cooling
638id 6471 Fog and cloud formation takes place by:

a Condensation.
b Evaporation.
c Sublimation.
d None of the above
639id 6510 What is meant by the expression "Low level windshear" ?

a A change of wind direction and force during a limited period of time within a small area.
b Turbulence containing whirling dust.
c The effect of friction.
d The wind when blowing across the isobars.
640id 6560 When water vapor condenses into water droplets, there is a:
a Release of heat energy that increases density of the surrounding air.
b Sublimation.
c Release of heat energy that makes the surrounding air warmer.
641id 6578 A VOLMET broadcast is:

a A recorded broadcast of the METAR for a specific airfield
b A special ATC broadcast, to all aircraft on frequency, of a significant change in weather conditions
c A recorded broadcast of METARs for about 10 airports
642id 6672 What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a
thunderstorm?
a Latent heat is released to the atmosphere
b Latent heat is transformed into pure energy
c Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet
643id 6720What kind of weather conditions are most common in a stationary high pressure area?
a Calm winds and haze
b Thunderstorm and showers in the summer
c Light rain
d Gusty winds and clear skies
644id 6731The stable layer at some height in the lower troposphere of an old high pressure area in the
moderate latitudes is called:
a Friction inversion
b Radiation inversion
c Trade wind
d Subsidence inversion

c South foehn
d North foehn
646id 131 What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 FT ?
a 1.5°C
b 2.0°C
c 3.0°C.
d 3.5°C
647id 133 A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then returned to
its original level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air?
a Lower than the starting temperature.
b Higher than the starting temperature.
c The same as the starting temperature.
d It depends upon the QFE.
648id 1504 A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects. Which of the following
changes ?
a Specific humidity
b Absolute humidity
c Mixing ratio
d Relative humidity
649id 2072 If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at
a the same rate as if the air mass were dry.
b a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat.
c a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat.
d a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat.
650id 3991 During an adiabatic process heat is

a neither added nor lost
b added
c lost
d added but the result is an overall loss
651id 3992The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is
]
a 0.65°C
b 2°C
c 1°C
d 0.5°C
652id 3993The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at lower level
of the atmosphere is approximately
a 1.5°C
b 1°C
c 0.6°C
d 0.35°C
653id 4000 The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending
unsaturated air because:
a water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun
b moist air is heavier than dry air
c water vapour doesn't cool as rapidly as dry air
d heat is released during the condensation process
654id 4001If the surface temperature is 15°C , then the temperature at 10000 FT in a current of
ascending unsaturated air is:
a 5°C
b 0°C
c -15°C
d -5°C
655id 4042 In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than
1°C. This layer can be described as being
a conditionally stable
b absolutely stable
d absolutely unstable
656id 4043 Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer?

a The wet adiabatic lapse rate is 0.65°C/100m
b The environmental lapse rate is less than 0.65°C/100m
c The layer is unstable for unsaturated air
d The environmental lapse rate is less than 1°C/100m
657id 4044 The stability in a layer is increasing if

a warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
b warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
c warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
d cold and dry air is advected in the upper part
658id 4045 Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct?
a Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels

b Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels
c Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0.65°C per 100m
d Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0.65°C per 100m
659id 4053 A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated by

a lowering the parcel to a lower level
b lifting the parcel to a higher level
c moving the parcel to an area with lower pressure and equal temperature
d moving the parcel to an area with higher pressure and equal temperature
660id 4054 A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by
a expanding it adiabatically
b raising the temperature
c lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constant
d compressing it adiabatically
661id 4070 The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by

a temperature and dewpoint at the surface
b temperature at surface and air pressure
c wind and dewpoint at the surface
d wet adiabatic lapse rate and dewpoint at the surface
662id 4135 A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is
a between 1°C per 100m and 0.65°C per 100m
b more than 1°C per 100m
c 0.65°C per 100m
d less than 0.65°C per 100m
663id 4136 A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is
a neutral
b unstable
c absolutely stable
664id 4137 A layer in which the temperature increases with height is

a conditionally unstable
b absolutely unstable
c absolutely stable
d neutral
665id 4138 A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1°C per 100m is
b absolutely stable
c neutral for dry air
666id 4139 If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10°C and at the top of
the layer is 8°C then this layer is
b absolutely stable
d neutral
667id 4140 An inversion is

a an absolutely stable layer
b a conditionally unstable layer
c an unstable layer
d a layer that can be either stable or unstable
668id 6404 The rate at which descending unsaturated air is heated is about:
a 1.5°C per 100 m.
b 1.5°C per 1000 ft.
c 3° C per 100 m.
d 3°C per 1000 ft
669id 6669Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion
with no heat added or removed?
a Katabatic
b Advection
c Adiabatic
d Atmospheric
670id 6673 What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry
adiabatic lapse rate converge?
a Cloud bases form
b Precipitation starts
c Stable air changes to unstable air
671id 6674 When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases
a at a faster rate than dry air because of the release of latent heat
b at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat
c at a slower rate than dry air because condensation releases heat

c Uniform pressure pattern
d North foehn
673id 6791 What can be said about the altimeter indication during a period of 10 minutes,
when a uniform pressure pattern prevails?
a There will be no visible change in the indication
b The indication decreases
c The indication increases
d The altimeter indicates lower when set to 1013,2 hPa
674id 6807 What can be said about this weather situation?

a Air mass thunderstorms may develop during summertime
b Strong gradient winds may occur over Central Europe
c Foehn conditions lead to severe weather south of the Alps
d No ground fog will be present in Paris and Zurich during the winter
675id 952 Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?
a Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind.
b Unstable air.
c Convection during the day.
d The release of latent heat.
676id 953 Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and
CB clouds?
a Frontal lifting within stable layers.
b Radiation.
c Subsidence.
d Convection.
677id 1507 What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud
coverage?
a Convection process
b Sinking
c Lifting
d Radiation
678id 3618 Rising air cools because

a it becomes more moist
b surrounding air is cooler at higher levels
c it expands
d it contracts
679id 4059 Convective clouds are formed

a in stable atmosphere
b in unstable atmosphere
c in summer during the day only
d in mid-latitudes only
680id 4068 In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these
clouds depends on the
a air pressure at the surface
b wind direction
c thickness of the unstable layer
d pressure at different levels
681id 6545The formation of a cumulonimbus (CB) depends on:
a Warm and humid air.

b Instability of thick layers of air.
c Some sort of lifting of the air.
d all answers are correct.
682id 6546 Formation of an orographic cloud takes place when sufficient wind forces the air over
obstacles like a mountain, and further:
a with sufficient height of the mountain the air temperature reaches the dew point thus creating a cloud.
b it is true that the necessary amount of lifting of the air depends on the air humidity.
c the air is supercooled and unstable.
d a) and b) are correct.
683id 6608Given a surface temperature of +10°C, and a dew point of +5°C, at what height might you
expect cumulus clouds to form?
a 2000ft
b 4000ft
c 1000ft
d 3000 ft
684id 6625 If a stable air mass is forced to rise, what type of cloud is most likely:
a CU
b NS
c TCU
d CB
685id 6642 What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being
forced to ascend?
a The stability of the air before lifting occurs
b The method by which air is lifted
c The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs
686id 6933 Which process in an air mass lead to NS-AS-ST clouds?

a Lifting
b Sublimation
c Evaporation
d The presence of a high pressure area
687id 955 Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
a ST, CS.
b CU, CB.
c SC, NS.
d CI, SC.
688id 956Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions ?
a CI, CC.
b SC, NS
c AS, AC.
d CS, ST.
689id 1172 Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus
castellanus?
a b)
b d)
c a)
d c)
690id 1173 What is the main composition of clouds classified as "high level clouds"?
a Supercooled water droplets.
b Ice crystals.
c Water droplets.
d Water vapour.
691id 1174 A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is
covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground
is the base of this cloud to be expected?
a 1500 - 7000 FT above the terrain.
b 100 - 1500 FT above the terrain.
c 7000 - 15000 FT above the terrain.
d 15000 - 25000 FT above the terrain.
692id 1175 Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?
a Stratus.
b Nimbostratus.
c Altocumulus.
d Cirrus.
693id 1508 Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ?
a ST
b CS
c AS
d CC
694id 2447 Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
a ST, AS
b CU, CB
c NS, CU
d CB, CC
695id 2448 Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus
lenticularis?
ab
ba
cd
dc
696id 2449 Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus
capillatus?
a d)
b a)
c b)
d c)
697id 2450 Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud
levels ?
a CB
b AC
c ST
d CI
698id 2451 A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is
covered with a uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At
what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
a 7000 - 15000 FT above ground
b 100 - 1500 FT above ground
c 1500 - 7000 FT above ground
d 15000 - 25000 FT above ground
699id 2452 A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is
covered with a uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At
what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
a 15000 - 35000 FT above the terrain
b 7000 - 15000 FT above the terrain
c 1500 - 7000 FT above the terrain
d 100 - 1500 FT above the terrain
700id 2453 Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?
a SC
b CI
c AS
d CU
701id 2454 Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud ?
a ST
b CS
c AS
d SC
702id 3810 The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the

a presence of valley winds
b risk of orographic thunderstorms
c development of thermal lows
d presence of mountain waves
703id 4060 Altostratus clouds are classified as

a convective clouds
b low level clouds
c high level clouds
d medium level clouds
704id 4062 A cumulonimbus cloud at moderate latitudes in summer contains

a only water droplets
b a combination of ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water droplets
c only ice crystals
d a combination of ice crystals and water droplets
705id 4063 Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of

a the presence of a low level inversion
b instability in the atmosphere
c the presence of warm air aloft
d poor surface visibility
706id 4066 Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from
a 500 to 1000 FT
b 1000 to 2000 FT
c the surface to 6500 FT
d 100 to 200 FT
707id 4067 Which of the following are medium level clouds ?

a Altostratus and altocumulus
b Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus
c Cumulonimbus
d All convective clouds
708id 4072 What type of cloud is being described ? A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform
base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains.
When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible.
Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.
a Stratus
b Altostratus
c Nimbostratus
d Cirrostratus
709 id 4073 The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates

a stability in the higher troposphere
b strong convection at low height
c instability in the middle troposphere
d subsidence in a large part of the troposphere
710id 4113 Fallstreaks or virga are
a water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground
b strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
c gusts associated with a well developed Bora
d strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation
711id 6410 The family of medium clouds include altostratus, altocumulus and nimbostratus. In
moderate latitudes their height of base ranges from:
a 3000 to 5000 feet.
b 2000 to 10000 feet.
c 2000 to 12000 feet.
d 6500 to 23000 feet.
712id 6414 High clouds are normally composed of

a Hail.
b Water droplets.
c Condensation nuclei.
d Ice crystals.
713id 6416 State the four families of clouds:

a High, medium and low clouds
b High and medium clouds, and clouds with extensive vertical development.
c Heapclouds, stratified clouds, layered clouds and nimbo clouds.
d High, medium and low clouds, and clouds with extensive vertical development.
714id 6473The type of cloud formed when warm, light air rises rapidly into cooler air is a: a Stratus
type.
b Cumulus-type.
c Strato-cumulus type.
d Nimbo-status type
715id 6630 What wil be the classification of high level clouds and where will the base be?
a above 14000ft, Nimbus
b above 16500ft, Cumuliform
c above 16500ft, Cirriform
d above 7000 ft, Cumuliform
716id 6632 Which of the following types of cloud is most likely to be associated with prolonged and
continuous moderate rain?
a NS
b CU
c ST
d CI
717id 6643 The presence of standing lenticular AC clouds is a good indication of:
a Updrafts and downdrafts
b An approaching thunderstorm
c An unstable air mass
d A stable air mass
718id 6739 Which clouds, normally found in the medium level, can extend to the other levels?
a NS
b AS
c CU
d ST
719id 6768 Which cloud represent an altocumulus lenticularis?

aA
bB
cC
dD
720id 6769 Which cloud represent an altocumulus castellanus?

aA
bB
cC
dD
721id 6800 What does a CB contain at moderate latitudes in summer?

a A combination of ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water droplets
b A combination of ice crystals and water droplets
c Ice crystals, snow, and water droplets
d Ice crystals only
722id 6829 Which of the following are medium level clouds? State the most complete answer:
a AS, AC
b ST, CU
c CI, ST
d NS, CI
723id 6830 Which of the following are low level clouds? State the most complete answer:
a AS, AC
b ST, NS
c CI, ST
d NS, CI
724id 6831 Which of the following are high level clouds? State the most complete answer:
a AS, AC
b ST, NS
c CI, CC
d NS, CI
725id 6832 Which cloud, normally found in the medium level, may extend to the low and high levels?
a AC
b NS
c CI
d CU
726id 6833 Which cloud type may extend from low to high level (vertical development)?
a CB
b NS
c CI
d AC
727id 6913 Which of the four radio soundings corresponds with a low stratus layer?
aA
bB
cC
dD
728id 6914 Which of the four radio soundings corresponds with "OVC015"?
aA
bB
cC
dD
729id 6788 What can be said about the formation of Haze?

a Dust particles are trapped below an inversion
b The air is very cold and thus the relative humidity increases
c A strong lifting action in the atmosphere is necessary
d A frontal system is the cause
730id 954 What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

a Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice.
b Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain.
c Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.
d Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice.
731id 1509In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be
encountered?
a Within cloud of any type
b Below the freezing level in clear air
c In clear air above the freezing level
d In Nimbostratus cloud
732id 1510 What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?
a Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; light to moderate rime ice.
b Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; nil icing.
c Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; light to moderate icing.
d Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; nil icing.
733id 4071Cumulus clouds are an indication for
a stability
b up and downdrafts
c the approach of a cold front
d the approach of a warm front
734id 6417 Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate:

a Turbulence at and below the cloud level.
b Smooth flying conditions.
c Rain and strong winds.
d Fog.
735id 6472 Flying conditions associated with cumulonimbus (cb) at summertime are:
a Hazy weather combined with drizzle and turbulence.
b Good visibility, intervals of fine weather and little turbulence.
c Bad visibility, continuous rain and little turbulence.
d Bad visibility in showers and pronounced turbulence.
736id 6809 What do you expect with fair weather Cumulus clouds?
a Turbulence at and below the cloud level
b Smooth flight below the cloud level
c Continuous rain
d Turbulence in and above the clouds up to approximately FL 250
737id 1210 At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?
a At sunset.
b Shortly after sunrise.
c Late evening.
d Shortly after midnight.
738id 1211 What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?

a 2 000 FT.
b 500 FT.
c 5 000 FT.
d 10 000 FT.
739id 1213 What wind conditions, occuring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog at anairport
where the temperature is 15°C and the dew point is 14°C?
a Westerly, 10 kt variable.
b Northerly, 10 kt.
c Calm.
d Easterly, 10 kt.
740id 1214 Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?
a Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
b Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air.
c Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air.
d Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
741id 1511 Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog ?
a A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a sinking air mass
b A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground
c Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night
d A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground
742id 2074 The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is :
a increasing surface wind speed.
b an increasingly stable atmosphere.
c surface cooling.
d a low level temperature inversion.
743id 2078 What are the differences between radiation fog and advection fog ?
a Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms
when warm humid air flows over a cold surface.
b Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea.
c Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling.
d Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by evaporation
over the sea.
744id 2254What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light
wind conditions ?
a Radiation.
b Advection.
c Steam.
d Orographic.
745id 2455 Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?
a Very dry air
b Little or no cloud
c Strong surface winds
d Very low temperatures
746id 2456Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog? a Dry, warm
air passing over warm ground
b Heat loss from the ground on clear nights
c The passage of fronts
d Cold air passing over warm ground
747id 4004 Freezing fog consists of

a frozen water droplets
b supercooled water droplets
c frozen minute snow flakes
d ice crystals
748id 4075When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions
are most likely to be
a unlimited visibility
b clear and cool
c high scattered clouds
d fog or low cloud
749id 4076 The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the
dewpoint, is likely to produce
a a cold front
b radiation fog
c advection fog
d good clear weather
750id 4084 Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog?
a Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountain
b Moist air over land during clear night with little wind
c Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea
d Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea
751id 4172 The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is :
a above 15 kt
b between 10 and 15 kt
c between 5 and 10 kt
d below 5 kt
752id 6783 Which type of fog do you expect over flat landscape on a clear night, under no wind
conditions?
a Radiation fog
b Advection fog
c Orographic fog
d Steam fog
753id 1512 Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog ?
a Moist cold air moving over a warm surface
b Moist warm air moving over a cold surface
c Dry warm air moving over a cold surface
d Dry cold air moving over a warm surface
754id 2248 Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15°C and dew point of
12°C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5°C ?
a Radiation fog
b Advection fog
c Steam fog
d Frontal fog
755id 4077 Advection fog can be formed when
a cold moist air flows over warmer water

b cold moist air flows over a warmer surface
c warm moist air flows over a warmer surface
d warm moist air flows over a colder surface
756id 4083 Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog?
a It forms slowly and disappears rapidly
b It forms at night or the early morning
c It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically
d It can be formed suddenly by day or night
757id 6633 Fog forming over the sea in a 20KT wind is most likely to be:
a Advection fog
b Radiation fog
c Neither, fog cannot form above 12KT wind speed
758 id 6836 Name the difference between radiation and advection fog:
a Vertical movement (radiation fog) versus horizontal movement (advection fog)
b Advection fog occurs under no wind conditions in a clear night, while radiation fog forms over the
sea
in a 20 KT wind
c Flat landscape, a clear night, winds of 10-20KT, for the formation of radiation fog, and mountainous
terrain and no wind conditions for advection fog
d Orographic lifting for radiation fog, and horizontal movement with a 20 KT wind for advection fog
759id 1513 Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog
(arctic smoke)?
a Warm air moving over cold water
b Cold air moving over warm water
c The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun
d The coastal region of the sea cools at night
760id 4078Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air

a that is stable
b with warm mass properties
c that is absolutely stable
d with cold mass properties
761id 1212 When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?
a When very humid warm air meets with dry cold air.
b When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air.
c When very humid cold air meets with dry warm air.
d When very dry cold air meets with very dry warm air.
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234
762id 4079 Frontal fog is most likely to occur

a in winter in the early morning
b in rear of a warm front
c in summer in the early morning
d in advance of a warm front
763id 2087 What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?
a Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills.
b High relative humidity and an unstable air mass
c Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity
d Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the range
764id 950Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-
latitudes?
a Hail.
b Moderate rain with large drops.
c Heavy rain with large drops.
d Drizzle.
765id 1514 How does freezing rain develop?
a Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes
b Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C
c Through melting of sleet grains
d Through melting of ice crystals
766id 6421 What enhances the growth rate of precipitation ?

a Advective action.
b Upward currents.
c Cyclonic movement.
d Temperature inversions.
767id 6480 When a rain shower approaches and passes an airfield, the following will happen:
a The temperature drops and dew point rises.
b The temperature remains unchanged and dew point drops.
c The temperature rises and dew point remains unchanged.
d The temperature rises and dew point drops..
768 id 949 Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain?
a Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0°C.
b Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0°C.
c Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm.
d An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0°C through which rain is falling.
769id 1176 Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy
precipitation ?
a SC.
b CS.
c NS.
d ST.
770id 1209 With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
a Stratocumulus.
b Cumulonimbus.
c Nimbostratus.
d Stratus.
771id 1515 What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

a CS
b NS
c CB
d AC
772id 2256 The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that
a freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude
b a cold front has passed
c there are thunderstorms in the area
d a warm front has passed
773id 2457 With which of the following types of cloud is "+RA" precipitation most commonly
associated?
a NS
b AC
c SC
d ST
774id 2458 With what type of cloud is "GR" precipitation most commonly associated?
a CC
b AS
c ST
d CB
775id 2459 With what type of cloud is "DZ" precipitation most commonly associated?
a CB
b ST
c CC
d CU
776id 2460Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation ?
a CI
b AS
c CB
d NS
777id 2461With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer months ?
a NS, CC
b CB, ST
c SC, AS
d AS, NS
778id 2462With what type of cloud is "+TSRA" precipitation most commonly associated?
a CB
b AS
c SC
d NS
779id 3998Freezing precipitation occurs

a only in the precipitation of a warm front
b only in the precipitation of a cold front
c mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle
d mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow
780id 4055Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from

a clouds containing only ice crystals
b stratified clouds
c cirro-type clouds
d convective clouds
781id 4057Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from

a stratiform clouds with severe turbulence
b convective clouds with little or no turbulence
c stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
d convective clouds with moderate turbulence
782id 4101 Large hail stones

a only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes
b are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
c are entirely composed of clear ice
d only occur in frontal thunderstorms
783id 4124 Freezing rain occurs when

a snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air
b ice pellets melt
c water vapour first turns into water droplets
d rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0°C
784id 4987 The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list
containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:
a Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light
and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
b Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.
c Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.
d Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
785id 5553 From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ?

a Stratus.
b Altostratus
c Cumulus
d Cirrostratus.
786id 5554 What type of clouds are associated with rain showers ?
a Nimbostratus.
b Towering cumulus and altostratus.
c Altostratus and stratus.
d Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus.
787id 5555 What type of clouds are associated with snow showers ?
a Nimbostratus
b Cumulus and altostratus
c Altostratus and stratus
d Cumulus and cumulonimbus
788id 6434 Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceeding a front is an indication of:
a cumuliform clouds with moderate turbulence.
b stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.
c cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.
d stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.
789id 6470 Regarding stratus (st) and nimbostratus (ns):

a Neither does cause precipitation.
b St does cause drizzle and ns rain showers.
c St does cause rain showers and ns drizzle.
d St does cause drizzle and ns rain.
790id 6735 What type of cloud is pertinent for showers?

a CB
b NS
c CI
d AS
791id 4119 An airmass is unstable when

a temperature increases with height
b temperature and humidity are not constant
c pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
d an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height.
792id 4120 An airmass is stable when

a pressure is constant
b temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
c the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and disappears.
d the lapse rate is 1°C per 100 m
793id 6420 An air mass is a body of air that

a has similar cloud formations associated with it.
b creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth's surface.
c covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.
d has extensive turbulence associated with it.
794id 1205 What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity between an air mass
with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over northern Russia ?
a The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North-Russian air.
b The North-Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores.
c The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North-Russian air.
d The North-Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores.
795id 1206 Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?
a The Azores region.
b Southern Italy.
c Southern France.
d The southern Balkan region and the Near East.
796id 1207 Where does polar continental air originate?

a The region of the Baltic sea.
b Areas of arctic water.
c Siberian landmass.
d The region of Greenland.
797id 1208 In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?
a Arctic maritime air.
b Polar maritime air.
c Tropical continental air.
d Polar continental air.
798id 1264 In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate ?
a Baltic Sea
b Region of British Isles
c East of Greenland
d Black Sea
799id 1309 What is the classification of the airmass affecting position "Q" at 0600 UTC?
a Tropical continental.
b Polar maritime.
c Polar continental.
d Tropical maritime.
800id 6427 Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm
surface ?
a Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.
b Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
c Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.
d Stratiform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
801id 6443 A warm air mass:

a is cooled from below by the base layer.
b is warmed from below by the base layer.
c originates at the equator.
d is characterized by sea breeze.
802id 6535 The stability of an air mass increases by:

a cooling of the lower and heating of the upper layers.
b heating of the lower and cooling of the upper layers.
c supply of humidity.
d decreasing dispersion.
803id 6576A body of air over the ocean is referred to as:

a Polar air
b Oceanic air
c Maritime air
804id 6601What are the most common characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a
warm surface?
a Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility
b Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility
c Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility
d Stratiform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility
805id 6602 What are the most common characteristics of a warm airmass, moving over a
cold surface?
a Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility
b Comuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility
c Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility
d Stratiform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility
806id 6718 Where does a Polar Cold Airmass has its origin?
a Over the Siberian Landmass
b Over the Baltic Sea
c Over the Atlantic Ocean
d Over the North Pole
807id 6905 Which air masses do most often contribute to the weather situation in Western Europe?
a Maritime tropical air, maritime polar air

b Maritime tropical air, continental polar air
c Continental tropical air, continental arctic air
d Maritime equatorial air, maritime polar air
808id 1163 The polar front is the boundary between:

a maritime polar air and continental polar air.
b arctic air and polar air.
c arctic air and tropical air.
d polar air and tropical air.
809id 1220 What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?
a A low on lee side of a mountain.
b A cold air pool.
c Polar front low.
d Heat low.
810id 1241 At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east
generally, at their most southerly position?
a Autumn.
b Summer.
c Spring.
d Winter.
811id 2468 Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this crosssection
to be expected?
a Track B-C
b Track B-D
c Track A-D
d Track A-E
812id 1215 What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central
Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0°C, and freezing rain
starts to fall?
a Cold occlusions.
b Warm fronts, warm occlusions.
c High level cold fronts.
d Cold fronts.
813id 1216 Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when
approaching an active warm front at medium to low level ?
a Severe thunderstorms at low altitude.
b Low cloud base and poor visibility.
c Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground.
d High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms.
814id 1217 During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of clouds:
Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. Which of the following are
you most likely to encounter ?
a Strong, gusty winds.
b Decreasing temperatures.
c A strong downdraught.
d Increasing temperatures.
815id 1218What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass overrides
a cold air mass?
a Cumulus.
b Nimbostratus.
c Altostratus.
d Cumulonimbus.
816id 1219 The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:

a 1/50
b 1/150
c 1/300
d 1/500
817id 1265 In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered ?
a Ahead of a warm front in the winter
b Ahead of a cold front in the winter
c Behind a warm front in the summer
d Ahead of a cold front in the summer
818id 1266 How do air masses move at a warm front ?

a Cold air overrides a warm air mass
b Warm air overrides a cold air mass
c Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
d Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
819id 1835 Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if

a the cold air is convectively stable.
b the cold air is convectively unstable.
c the warm air is convectively unstable.
d the warm air is convectively stable.
820id 1837On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching

a QFE increases and QNH decreases.
b QFE and QNH increase.
c QFE and QNH decrease.
d QFE decreases and QNH increases.
821id 2080 What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front ?
a Extensive areas of fog. At some100 km from the front NS begin
b At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front
c At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CB
d At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km thickening AS
822id 2250 If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the warm air
and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of
freezing rain the lowest ?
a 9000 feet
b 12000 feet
c 5000 feet
d 3000 feet
823id 2463 Read this description: "After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign
yesterday evening for the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down
outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey; but at
least it has become a little bit warmer." Which of these weather phenomena is
being described?
a A warm front
b A blizzard
c Weather at the back of a cold front
d A cold front
824id 4065 The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm
front is the
a saturation of the warm air by rain falling into it and evaporating
b saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating
c reduction of outgoing radiation due to clouds
d warm air moving over a cold surface
825id 6549 The following is true concerning a warm front:

a The associated type of weather is mostly uniform and offers only small variations.
b When the air is stable, the clouds are stratiform with uniform precipitation.
c When the air is unstable, the clouds form vertically and showers will develop in the precipitation
area.
826id 1230 After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the cold air,
what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a
marked change in temperature?
a A decrease in headwind.
b A backing in the wind direction.
c An increase in tailwind.
d A veering in the wind direction.
827id 1267 What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?
a Showers associated with thunderstorms
b Freezing rain
c Light to moderate continuous rain
d Drizzle
828id 1268 What is the relative movement of the two airmasses along a cold front ?
a Cold air slides over a warm air mass
b Warm air pushes over a cold air mass
c Cold air pushes under a warm air mass
d Warm air pushes under a cold air mass
829id 1519 What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour?
a Approximately constant pressure
b A drop in pressure
c Irregular fluctuations
d A rise in pressure
830id 2467 Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer ?
a Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed
b Mainly layered clouds
c Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed
d Mainly towering clouds
831id 6550 The following is true concerning a cold front:

a A cold front is normally less steep than a warm front.
b A cold front is normally moving with less speed than a warm front.
c A cold front is normally steeper than a warm front.
832id 6551 The weather associated with a cold front may vary from a minor change of wind to a
serious thunderstorm with low cloud base, bad visibility and strong, gusty winds. The type of weather
depends on:
a The amount of humidity in the warm air.
b The stability of the warm air.
c The speed and slope of the cold front.
d All answers are correct.
833 id 6763You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft shortly before an active cold front passes.
What does the altimeter indicate?
a It increases
b It decreases
834id 6764 You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft shorty after an active cold front has passed.
What does the altimeter indicate?
a It increases
b It decreases
835id 1224Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression
during winter?
a CI, CS.
b ST with drizzle.
c Fair weather CU.
d CU, CB.
836id 1226What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime air,
during the summer?
a Very good (greater than 50 km).
b Very poor (less than 1 km).
c Good (greater than 10 km).
d Moderate (several km).
837id 1269What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over Central
Europe in the summer ?
a BKN CU and CB
b Fair weather CU
c Sky clear
d ST with drizzle
838id 2464What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground
during the period following the passage of an active cold front ?
a It will have increased.
b It will remain unchanged.
c It will have decreased.
d It will show a small increase or decrease.
839id 2465 What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground
shortly before an active cold front passes?
a It will be decreasing.
c It will be increasing.
d It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet.
840id 2466 What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as
an active cold front is passing?
a It will first increase then decrease.
c It will first decrease then increase.
d It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet.
841id 1225 What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North Sea,
approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front?
a Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers.
b Showers and thunderstorms.
c Rain covering a large area, 8 octas NS.
d 8 octas CS, AS without precipitation.
842id 1222 Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front characteristics?
a Ahead of the front.
b Behind the front.
c At the surface position of the front.
d At the junction of the occlusion.
843id 1306 Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross-section shown on the left
?
a Track B-A
b Track C-A
c Track D-A
d Track B-C
844id 1307 Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the
straight line A-B?
aa
bc
cb
dd
845id 1516 Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?

a The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front
b The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front
c The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
d The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front
846id 1517 When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Europe?

a Summer
b Winter
c Autumn and winter
d Winter and spring
847id 2071 How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion ?
a The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the warm air
mass is above ground level.
b The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion; the warm air mass is
aboveground level.
c The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less cold air is above ground
level.
d The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less cold air mass is above
ground level.
848id 2531 In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air
a behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm air at a high altitude.
b in front of the surface position of front is only at a high altitude.
c behind is colder than the cold air in front.
d behind is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at a high altitude.
849id 4085 In a warm front occlusion

a the warm front becomes a front aloft
b the warm front overtakes the cold front
c the warm air is lifted
d the cold air is lifted
850id 6506 An occlusion takes place when:

a A cold front catches up with a warm front.
b Warm air displaces cold air.
c Cold air displaces warm air.
d The front no longer moves.
851id 6797 Describe a warm occlusion at a polar front depression:

a The air behind the cold front is less cold than the air ahead of the warm front
b The air behind the cold front is colder than the air ahead of the warm front
c The air ahead of the warm front is warmer than the air behind the cold front
d Both, the air ahead of the warm front and the air behind the cold front are of approximately the same
temperature.
852id 6798 Describe a cold occlusion at a polar front depression:

a The air behind the cold front is less cold than the air ahead of the warm front
b The air ahead of the warm front is colder than the air behind the cold front
c The air ahead of the warm front is warmer than the air behind the cold front
d Both, the air ahead of the warm front and the air behind the cold front are of approximately the same
temperature.
853id 2073 What characterizes a stationary front ?

a The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front
b The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
c The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
d The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense cold front and
those of a warm and very active front.
854id 6663 What is feature of a stationary front?

a The warm front surface moves about half the speed of the cold front surface
b Weather conditions are a combination of strong cold front and strong warm front weather
c Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone
855id 1221 In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?
a In the direction of the warm sector isobars.
b In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front.
c In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase.
d In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front.
856id 1223 What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?
a Cold front.
b Warm front.
c Cold occlusion.
d Warm occlusion.
857id 1279This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 0600 UTC on May 4.Which of the
following reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport?
a TAF LSGG 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013
05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 =
b TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020
OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090 =
c TAF LSGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or
+SHRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100 =
d TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU
PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =
858id 1280In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken:160450Z
23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG =
160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG = 160850Z
25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG = 161050Z 24008KT 9999
SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG = 161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005
NOSIG = 161450Z 23016KT
a A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoon
b A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during late afternoon
c A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoon
d Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station
859id 1308Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of movement, where will this polar
frontal wave have moved ?
a Position c
b Position a
c Position b
d Position d
860id 1518 In which main direction does a polar front depression move?
a Along the front towards the east
b Along the front towards the west
c Across the front towards the north
d Across the front towards the south
861id 2079 Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet wind
a in the warm sector
b in front of the warm front
c behind the cold front
d at the apex of the wave
862id 2081 A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you expect ?
a Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm sector the rain
increases. Improvement on the passage of the cold front.
b Continous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24 hours.
c Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm sector within 12
hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold front.
d Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The precipitation stops
for several hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, showers within a
couple of hours.
863 id 2469Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the
polar frontal wave have moved ?
a Position D
b Position C
c Position A
d Position B
864id 4074 An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a
depression, which is moving from West to East. The centre of the depression
passes to the South of the observer. For this observer the wind direction is
a continuously veering
b continuously backing
c initially backing, then veering
d initially veering, then backing
865id 6552 In connection with the passage of a front:

a The pressure will increase before it passes.
b The pressure will decrease before it passes.
c After frontal passage, the wind will veer to the left.
d Answers b) and c) are correct.
866id 6607 If a cold front moves at 30 knots, you could expect the warm front to be moving at:
a 20 knots
b 30 knots
c 40 knots
d 50 knots
867id 6742 In which direction does the polar front move in this picture?
aA
bB
cC
dD
868id 6771 In which direction does the polar front move in this picture?
aA
bB
cC
dD
869 id 6899 On a summer day, the following observations are made in Zurich: 0450Z 23015KT3000
+RA SCT008 SCT020 0VC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG= 0650Z 25008KT 6000SCT040 BKN090 18/14
Q1010 RERA NOSIG= 0850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040
SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG= 1050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15
Q1008 NOSIG= 1250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG= 1450Z 23016KT
9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003
a a warm front early in the morning and a cold front late in the afternoon have passed the station
b a trough line early in the morning and a warm front late in the afternoon have passed the station
c an air mass thunderstorm only has passed during the entire day
d a cold front early in the morning and a warm front late in the afternoon have passed the station
870id 6902On a summer day, the following observations are made in Zurich: 0650Z 19002 KT3000
SCT280 08/07 Q1019 BECMG 5000 = 0850Z 21004KT 8000 BKN280 10/07Q1019 NOSIG = 1050Z
22007KT CAVOK 14/06 Q1017 NOSIG = 1250Z 22012KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 BKN250 16/07
Q1016 NOSIG = 1450Z 22015KT 9999
SCT040 OVC080 17/08 Q1014 NOSIG = 1650Z 23014KT 8000 -RA SCT030
OVC070 16/10 Q1013 TEMPO 30
a a cold front in the morning, and a second cold front in the afternoon have passed the station
b a warm front has passed the station during the day
c a warm front early in the morning, and a cold front in the evening have passed the station
d a north foehn weather pattern prevailed the entire day
871id 6903 On a summer day, the following observations are made in Zurich: 0450Z 24009 KT 7000
SCT040 SCT120 15/12 Q1014 NOSIG = 0650Z 24010KT 6000 SCT040
SCT120 17/13 Q1012 NOSIG = 0850Z 23014KT 8000 BKN100 19/13 Q1009
BECMG 26020G35KT TS = 1050Z 28022G33KT 4000 TSRA SCT015 SCT050CB
OVC080 16/14 Q1006 BECMG NSW = 1250Z 31016KT 9999 SCT025TCU
BKN030 13/09 Q1009 NOSIG = 1450Z 30012
a a warm front in the morning, and a cold front in the afternoon have passed the station
b a warm front has passed the station in the morning, and warm sector weather prevailed in the
afternoon
c a cold front has passed the station in the morning, and rear side weather prevailed in the
afternoon
d a cold front in the morning, and a warm front in the afternoon have passed the station
872id 6906 Refer to the chart: On which airport do you expect the development of the following
weather situation: TAF 1019 21010KT 8000 SCT120 OVC180 BECMG 1013
OVC090 TEMPO -RA BECMG 1417 22016KT 5000 RA BKN020 OVC030 TEMPO
3000 +RA BKN012 OVC020 =
a EGLL
b LYBE
c LFPO
d LSZH
873id 6907 Refer to the chart: Which airport has the biggest probability for rain at 12.00 UTC?
a EKCH
b LFPO
c LIRF
d LEMD
874id 6908Refer to the chart: Which weather situation do you expect for EGLL at 1150 UTC?
a 23015KT 8000 SCT100 BKN200 21/07 Q1002 NOSIG=
b 32002KT 3000 OBC006 16/12 Q1024 TEMPO 8000 =
c 17016G28KT 2500 +RA BKN009 OVC 018 12/10 Q0994 BECMG 8000 =
d 28006KT 4000 -TSRA SCT012 BKN030CB 19/14 Q1022 BECMG NSW =
875id 6909 Refer to the chart: Which weather situation do you expect for LGAT at 1450 UTC?
a 21002KT 6000 BR SCT040 29/16 NOSIG =
b 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG VV001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800 =
c 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =
d 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG =
876id 6910 Refer to the chart: On which airport do you expect the development of the following
weather situation? TAF 1322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015
BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000
SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220 =
a ESSA
b EINN
c LSZH
d EKCH
877id 6911 Refer to the chart: Which airport has the biggest probability for the formation of fog the
following night?
a ENFB
b EKCH
c EINN
d LFPO
878id 6932 Where does the frontal depression move in the direction of the 2000 ft wind?
a In the warm sector
b At the rear side
c Ahead of the warm front
d In the center of an occlusion
879id 4977 In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually
predominate over the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the
adjoining land areas during the northern summer?
a Greenland, SW Europe, NE Canada
b Greenland, Azores, NE Canada
c Iceland, SW USA, Azores
d Azores, SE USA, SW Europe
880id 4988 Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following
statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic
region between 30°N and 65°N. During winter the predominant mean low pressure
system at the surface is usually centred over
a USA
b Iceland / Greenland
c Siberia
d Azores
881id 4990 Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjacent land areas
during mid-summer, the predominant pressure systems are
a weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian high
b Scandinavian high and Azores high
c Azores high and weak low over NE Canada
d Azores low and Icelandic high
882id 4991 Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N together with the adjacent
land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones
at the surface is
a Azores, Siberia
b Siberia, Iceland, Canaries
c NE Canada, Iceland
d Greenland, Iberian peninsula
883id 6540 The formation of high and low pressure areas is normally caused by:
a Temperature differences.
b Humidity.
c Mechanical turbulence.
d Storms.
884id 6730 Select the answer in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North
Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N: During winter the predominant low
pressure system at the surface is usually centered over......
a USA
b Siberia
c Azores
d Iceland & Greenland
885id 1238 What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure area?
a Convection.
b Convergence.
c Advection.
d Subsidence.
886id 1239 What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the
winter?
a Thunderstorms.
b A tendency for fog and low ST.
c NS with continuous rain.
d The possibility of snow showers.
887id 1240 In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the
summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone ?
a NS.
b TS, SH.
c CB, TS.
d Calm winds, haze.
888id 1520 What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?
a Instability
b Rising air
c Sinking air
d Divergence at higher levels
889id 3615 Subsidence is :

a vertically upwards motion of air
b horizontal motion of air
c vertically downwards motion of air
d the same as convection
890id 4061 The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by

a convection
b subsidence
c a decrease in temperature
d a decrease in pressure
891id 4064 Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it
a reaches warmer layers
b is heated by compression
c is heated by expansion
d loses water vapour
892id 4087 If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a
a cold low
b warm high
c cold high
d warm low
893id 4089 The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the
mid-latitudes is called
a subsidence inversion
b friction inversion
c radiation inversion
d trade wind inversion
894id 4090 A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is
a a warm anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N
b quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N/ a cold anticyclone
c situated between 50° and 70°N/a cold anticyclone/steering depressions
d a cold anticyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia
895id 6680 Refer to the upper level chart: Flight path A - B, altimeter setting 1013,2 hPa:
a Your true altitude is greater in B than in A
b Your true altitude is greater in A than in B
c The wind speed is greater in A than in B
d The wind speed is equal in A and in B
896id 1235 What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool?
a Nothing (CAVOK).
b Strong westerly winds.
c Fine weather CU.
d Showers and thunderstorms.
897id 1236 How do you recognize a cold air pool?

a A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure area.
b As a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
c As a low pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
d A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a high pressure area.
898id 1237 What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?
a Divergence with lifting.
b Divergence with descending air.
c Convergence with lifting.
d Convergence with descending air.
899id 2261 With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather likely to
be experienced is :
a strong wind shear, convection and snow showers
b light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling
c strong wind with subsidence at low levels
d strong wind associated with an almost clear sky
900id 2557 Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal depression
because of :
a surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression
b surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression
c surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the
depression
d surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234
901id 4993 Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?

a It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense
b It tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense
c It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary
d It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary
902id 5005 A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of

a divergence and subsidence
b convergence and widespread ascent
c divergence and widespread ascent
d convergence and subsidence
903id 5006 Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression?

a It forms over the ocean in summer
b It forms over land in summer
c It forms over the ocean in winter
d It forms over land in winter
904id 1286 Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical revolving storm?
a Anywhere in the eye.
b In the wall of clouds around the eye.
c In the centre of the eye.
d About 600 km away from the eye.
905id 1522 What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, could indicate the presence of
a tropical revolving storm?
a NS spread over a large area
b Frequent SC
c Excessive accumulation of CU
d Dense CI
906id 1933 Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the south
Atlantic because
a there is no coriolis force present.
b of the low water temperature.
c of the strong southeast wind.
d the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern hemisphere.
907id 1936 What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving storm?
a The equatorial jet stream.
b Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and subtropical high pressure belt.
c Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes.
d Latent heat released from condensing water vapour.
908id 4128 What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane in the Carribean area?
a West in the earlier stages and later south east
b East
c West deep into the U.S.
d West in the earlier stages and later north east
909id 4130 Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?
a From the earth's surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its surroundings
b They intensify rapidly after landfall
c The diameter is 50-500 m
d Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter
910id 4994 Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the
tropical oceans?
a Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sea
b Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive windshear with increase of height
c Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds`long sea passage
d Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation
911id 1233 What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Carribean area?
a West in the earlier stages and later turning north east.
b East then south.
c West deep into the USA.
d West in the earlier stages and later turning south east.
912id 1234 During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern
hemisphere?
a All seasons.
b Winter.
c Winter and spring.
d Summer and autumn.
913id 1521 On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?
a NE coast
b W coast
c N coast
d SE coast
914id 1918 At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands of
Japan?
a January to May.
b September to January.
c July to November.
d May to July.
915id 1953 During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean?
a January until April.

b October until January.
c July until November.
d April until July.
916id 2532 The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is
a the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
b the carribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the USA.
c the south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of Réunion.
d the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese coastline.
917id 4992 The arrows labelled "r" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms
which occur mainly from
a June to October and are called typhoons
b December to April and are called tornadoes
c December to April and are called cyclones
d June to October and are called hurricanes
918id 4995 The arrows labelled "s" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur
mainly from
a December to April and are called cyclones
b May to November and are called cyclones
c May to November and are called hurricanes
d December to April and are called typhoons
919id 4997 The arrows labelled "u" represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur
mainly from
a January to March and are called willy-willies
b July to October and are called typhoons
c May to July and are called cyclones
d December to April and are called tornadoes
920id 4998 When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central
north coast of Australia?
a December to April
b May to July
c August to October
d Not experienced at Darwin
921id 1984 At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of
prevailing westerlies?
a 50°N.
b 10°N.
c 30°N.
d 80°N.
922id 3852 The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in summer
is that
a the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows.
b the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter.
c the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter.
d converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter.
923id 3856 What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial region ?
a Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The greatest
intensity is in July.
b Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the year
c Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but frequency is highest
during two periods: April-May and October-November.
d Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year; the frequency is highest in January.
924id 6752 In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?
a June
b December
c March
d October
925id 1231 When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?

a March to May and October to November.
b December to February and July to October.
c March to May and August to October.
d April to July and December to February.
926id 1985 During July flights from Bangkok (13°N - 100°E) to Karachi (25°N - 67°E)
experience an average tailwind component of 22 kt. In January the same flights,
also operating at FL 370, have an average headwind of 50 kt. What is the reason
for this difference?
a The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet stream.
b The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual, favorable conditions.
c The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse conditions.
d The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind system.
927id 4147 Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct?
a They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the continents
b They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over the oceans
c They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceans
d They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more pronounced over the continents
928id 1227 Which one of the following statements regarding the intertropical convergence zone
(ITCZ) is correct?
a The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the year.
b Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ.
c The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream.
d Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area of the ITCZ.
929id 1228 In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most
likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?
a 8° - 12°S.
b 3° - 8°S.
c 0° - 7°N.
d 7° - 12°N.
930id 1232 Which of the following best describes the intertropical convergence zone ?
a The zone where the Harmattan meets the northeasterly trade winds over Africa.
b The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the southern
hemisphere.
c The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics.
d The zone where the west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt.
931id 1524 Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be
encountered?
a At the latitudes of Algeria
b Near the Canary Islands
c At the latitudes of Gibraltar
d In the vicinity of Dakar
932id 1525 Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?
a SE trade winds and NE trade winds
b SW monsoon and NW monsoon
c SW monsoon and NW trade winds
d NW monsoon and SW trade winds
933id 2530 The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects

a western Africa, at a latitude of 25°N in July.
b western Africa between 10° and 20°N and the northern coasts of the Arabian sea in July.
c the atlantic ocean, between latitudes 10°N and 30°N, depending on the time of year.
d western Africa, where it is situated between the 10°N and 30°N parallels, depending on the time of
the year.
934id 3853 Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of the ITCZ in
the region of West Africa?
a It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5° S in January
b It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15° - 20° N in July
c It oscillates during the year between 10 degrees North and 10 degrees South.
d It oscillates during the year between the Equator and 10 degrees North.
935id 4018 What weather conditions are most likely to affect an approach to Dakar during July?
a Reduced visibility due to the rising sand of the Harmattan
b Dry and clear due to the influence of the Azores high pressure system
c Generally clear skies - NW trade winds
d Wet and thundery due to the proximity of intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
936id 4092 Which of the following statements concerning the intertropical convergence zone is true?
a There are frequent occurrences of CB
b It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern hemisphere in January
c It does not change its position over the oceans during the year
d It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity
937id 5001 The line labelled "Y" represents the

a mean position of the temperate/tropical front during July
b axis of the subtropical jet stream during January
c mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July
d mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during January
938id 1229 What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India?
a Fog.
b Stratus clouds and drizzle.
c Sandstorms.
d Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain.
939id 1254 What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon
regions of the Indian sub-continent ?
a Northeasterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.
b Southwesterly winds carrying warm and humid air.
c Northwesterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.
d Southeasterly winds carrying warm and humid air.
940id 1282 What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high pressure
belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?
a Trade winds.
b Doldrums.
c Westerly winds.
d Monsoon.
941 id 1526 From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
aN
b NE
c SW
d SE
942id 1983 In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?
a In October.
b In June.
c In December.
d In March.
943id 3854 What is the name of the wind or airmass which gives to the main part of India its greatest
proportion of precipitation?
a Indian, maritime tropical air mass.

b South-east trade wind.
c South-west monsoon.
d Winter monsoon.
944id 4019 Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are mainly influenced by the
a NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZ
b SW monsoon
c passage of frontal system generated in the south indian ocean
d high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the persian gulf
945id 4020 Weather conditions at Bombay during January are mainly influenced by the
a SW monsoon
b NE monsoon
c NW monsoon
d SE monsoon
946id 4091 The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in

a September, October, November
b July, August, September
c December, January, February
d February, March, April
947id 4094 The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the equator
(gulf of Guinea) is a
a NE monsoon in winter and SE tradewind in summer
b SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summer
c NE tradewind in summer and SE tradewind in winter
d SW monsoon in summer and NE tradewind in winter
948id 4149 Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the
a NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January
b SW monsoon in July and a SE monsoon in January
c SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in January
d SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January
949id 6521 To build a hurricane, the following conditions, among others, must be fulfilled:
a The surface temperature at least +27°C, and the building area 8 - 15° away from the equator.
b Building area 5 - 6° away from the equator.
c Building area in the equatorial area.
d The hurricane must be in the western areas of the ocean.
950id 6799 Which is the greatest region of tropical revolving storms?

a The north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese coastline
b The Bermuda Triangle
c The Carribean Sea, affecting Florida and the Bahamas
d The Gulf of Mexico, affecting Texas, Louisiana and Florida
951id 1253 What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?

a Thunderstorms and rain.
b Continuous rain.
c Clear skies.
d Frontal weather.
952id 4093 An easterly wave is a

a wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of
its trough
b wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with severe
convective activity ahead of its trough
c small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity
ahead of its trough
d disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from east to west,
with severe convective activity in rear of its trough
953id 1281Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for the area of Central Europe ?
a Westerly waves
b Uniform pressure pattern
c Cutting wind
d Easterly waves
954id 1830 Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for northern Italy?
a Westerly wind
b Warm southerly wind
c High pressure
d Easterly wind
955id 1831 The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on May 23.
Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich
Airport?
a TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002 =
b TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG
1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 =
c TAF LSZH 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600
+SNRA BKN003 OVC015 =
d TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA
BKN020CB =
956id 4021 The weather most likely to be experienced at position "R" is a early morning fog lifting to
low stratus
b fine and warm with little or no cloud
c increasing high and medium cloud cover and generally good visibility
d mainly overcast with anticyclonic gloom
957id 1305 Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart ? (spacing of the isobars: 5
hPa)
a Uniform pressure pattern.

b Cutting wind.
c West wind condition.
d Warm south wind condition (Foehn).
958id 2470 With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the
indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a
period of about ten minutes?
a Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small.
b Increase rapidly.
c Show strong fluctuations.
d Decrease rapidly.
959id 4088 A cold pool

a normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
b develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents stream
southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded
systems
c is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and
may show little or no sign on a surface chart
d occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence of cold
north-westerly airstream
960id 6719 What kind of weather conditions do you encounter in a cold air pool centre?
a Showers and thunderstorms
b Light drizzle
c Light rain
d Mostly clear skies
961id951 Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation?
a The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south.
b The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north.
c Frontal zones.
d Occlusions.
962id 1181 For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?
a Sand up to FL 150.
b Thunderstorms.
c Dust and poor visibility.
d Hail.
963id 1182 What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic
coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
a Mistral.
b Ghibli.
c Bora.
d Scirocco.
964id 1252 Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with stormy winds
from the south (Foehn)?
a Good visibility, turbulence.
b Continuous precipitation, severe turbulence.
c Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icing.
d Icing, huge mass of clouds.
965id 1523 What is characteristic of the pamperos?
a Foehn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees
b Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountains
c A marked advance of cold arctic air in North America
d A marked advance of cold air in South America
966id 1527 What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from
south?
a Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the Alps
b Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the Alps
c Strong north winds on the southern side of the Alps
d Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps
967id 2471Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the following statements is likely to apply?
a Severe gradient wind likely over Central Europe.
b Thunderstorms may occur in the summer months over Central Europe.
c Moderate to strong Foehn in the Alps.
d Radiation fog is unlikely in Central Europe in the winter.
968 id 2561 Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a
a warm southerly dust-bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa.
b SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the West African coast south of
15°N.
c NE wind affecting north-west Africa during November to April reducing visibility in rising
dust.
d localised depression giving squally winds.
969id 3818 The Foehn wind is a

a warm anabatic wind
b cold fall wind
c warm fall wind
d cold anabatic wind
970id 3835 The Chinook is a

a warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the Rocky Mountains
b very cold wind with blowing snow
c downslope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools along mountain slopes
d warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers
971id 3837 A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air over hills
or mountains is known as a
a Bora
b Harmattan
c Mistral
d Foehn
972id 3838 A dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of
North West Africa is known as a
a Scirocco
b Harmattan
c Pampero
d Khamsin
973id 3849 What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a
certain part of Europe?
a Bora.
b Foehn.
c Mistral.
d Typhoon.
974id 3850 What are the characteristics of the Bora ?

a It is a warm and moist, southwesterly wind experienced in the eastern Mediterranean, that usually
carries precipitation.
b It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter from a northwesterly direction in the Mediterranean
c It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a tableland downwards to
the Adriatic
d It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara desert, that often carries dust.
975id 3851 What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain chains? In
the Alps, for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly wind depending on the weather
situation.
a Foehn.
b Mistral.
c Bora.
d Scirocco.
976id 4023 Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?
a Harmattan
b Scirocco
c Chinook
d Bora
977id 4171 The Bora is a

a cold catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
b squally warm catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
c cold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
d cold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers
978id 5007 A Foehn wind occurs on the

a leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the condensation level being lower on the leeward
side than on the windward side
b windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heating
c windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and reverse air flow
d leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture loss by
precipitation from cloud
979id 6732 Which of the following is a cold katabatic wind flowing towards the Adriatic Sea?
a Bora
b Scirocco
c Ghibli
d Mistral
980id 6741 What typical weather do you encounter during foehn conditions north of the Alps?
a Good weather
b Turbulence during south foehn
c Heavy rain and NS clouds
d Icing
981id 6773
What does this picture depict?
c South foehn
d North foehn

c South foehn
d North foehn

a VFR flights over the Alps can easily be conducted
b The Alps are in clouds from the south
c Severe turbulence in the south and icing in the north can be encountered
d Very good VFR conditions prevail on the south side of the Alps

a VFR flights over the Alps can easily be conducted
b Precipitation can be expected north of the Alps
c The Alps are in clouds from the south
d Marginal VFR conditions prevail on the south side of the Alps
985id 6810 Define the Chinook:
a Warm and dry air descending at the leeward side of the Rocky Mountains
b Cold and dry air descending at the leeward side of the Appalachian Mountains
c A dust and sand laden northeasterly wind in Northwest Africa
d Warm and dry air ascending on the West Side of the Rocky Mountains
986id 6811 Define the Foehn:

a Warm and dry air descending at the leeward side of the Alps
b Cold and dry air descending at the leeward side of the Appalachian Mountains
c Strong, cold wind, mostly observed in the Rhone valley, blowing towards Southern France
d Warm and dry air ascending on the west side of the Alps
987id 6812 What is a dry, sand and dust-laden northeasterly wind in the winter in Northwest Africa?
a Harmattan
b Khamsin
c Scirocco
d Pampero
988id 1832 You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air
temperature is -25°C. Which of the following statements is true?
a If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as CB is unlikely to form in such
cloud
b Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditions
c Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions
d In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air temperature of -5°C
989id 1990Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile : 3000 FT +15°C6000 FT
+8°C 10000 FT +1°C 14000 FT -6°C 18000 FT -14°C 24000 FT -26°C At which of the following
flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest?
a FL 80
b FL 150
c FL 180
d FL 220
990id 1991 On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5°C. The freezing level is at 3000
FT/AGL. At 4000 FT/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is
falling. According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an inversion caused
by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you expect icing?
a Yes, between ground level and 3000 FT/AGL.

b Yes, but only between 3000 and 4000 FT/AGL.
c No, flights clear of cloud experience no icing.
d No, absolutely no icing will occur.
991id 2255 In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of
accretion ?
a Cirrus clouds.
b Freezing rain.
c Stratus clouds.
d Snow.
992id 2472 In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's
surface?
a -20°C to -35°C
b +10°C to 0°C
c 0°C to -10°C
d -35°C to -50°C
993id 2473 Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe icing?
a It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation
b It will occur in clear-sky conditions
c It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
d It always occurs in altostratus cloud
994id 2474 Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe icing?
a It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation
b It always occurs in altostratus cloud
c It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
d It will not occur in clear-sky conditions
995id 2475 In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
a CU
b SC
c NS
d CI
996id 2476 In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
a NS
b AS
c SC
d CS
997id2477 Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing ?
a PE
b GR
c SHSN
d +FZRA
998id 2478 Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield. Which of the four diagrams is most
likely to reflect temperatures above the airfield concerned?
a Diagram b)
b Diagram c)
c Diagram d)
d Diagram a)
999id 2759 In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing ?
a Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero degrees C.
b Flying in dense cirrus clouds.
c Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer.
d Flying in heavy drizzle.
1000id 2760 Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing
when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cloud droplets?
a Stratocumulus and cirrostratus
b Altocumulus and altostratus.
c Stratus and cumulonimbus
d Altostratus and cirrocumulus
1001id 2761 A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and
temperature close to zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect:
a Reduced visibility and light icing in clouds
b Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light icing in clouds.
c A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due to accumulation of
large droplets.
d Turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist of ice crystals
1002id 2762 Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most
correct ?
a Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below minus 12 degrees C.
b Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds.
c A cloud consisting of both supercooled cloud droplets and ice crystals produces aircraft icing
d Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud.
1003id 3844 Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various
types of ice on an aircraft ?
a Relative humidity inside the cloud
b Aircraft speed and size of cloud droplets
c Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil
d Cloud temperature and droplet size
1004id 3996 A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the
temperature profile
a coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate
b intersects the 0°C isotherm twice
c indicates temperatures below -40°C
d indicates temperatures above 3°C
1005id 4081 Freezing fog exists if fog droplets

a are frozen
b are supercooled
c are freezing very rapidly
d freeze when temperature falls below zero
1006id 6486 In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the
highest rate of accumulation ?
a Cumulonimbus clouds.
b High humidity and freezing temperature.
c Heavy wet snow.
d Freezing rain.
1007id 6495 If you fly into rain which freezes on impact ?

a You have flown into an area of thunderstorms.
b Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude.
c You have flown through a cold front.
d If you descend, you will fly out of the icing condition.
1008id 6617 Carburettor icing is unlikely:

a In clouds
b At temperatures between -10°C and -30°C
c When the relative humidity is 40%
1009id 6634 Airframe icing:

a Cannot occur outside cloud or precipitation
b Can occur outside cloud or precipitation
c Can only occur if the Outside Air Temperature (OAT) is below freezing
d Occurs only, when the temperature is below -15C
1010id 6753 Observation: Surface temperature -5°C, FZLVL 3000 ft: The solid cloud deck at 4000 ft
with RA is an inversion. Do you expect icing?
a Yes, between GND and 3000 ft AGL
b No
c Yes, at approx. 4000 ft
d Yes, between 3000 and approx. 8000 ft
1011id 6790 In which cloud type does moderate to severe airframe icing most probably occur?
a NS
b ST
c CS
d AC
1012id 6818 What can be said about supercooled water droplets?

a They remain liquid at a below-freezing temperature
b They don't contribute to clear ice
c They only occur in CB clouds
d They cool to a below-freezing temperature on impact
1013id 6821 Which cloud type of the following is most prone to airframe icing?
a NS
b AS
c CC
d ST
1014id 6822 In which cloud type of the following does no airframe icing occur?
a CI
b NS
c CB
d AS
1015id 6823 What can be said if you encounter +FZRA during flight?
a Icing will most probably occur
b There is no significant icing to expect
c Freezing rain consists of water droplets which supercool to below-freezing temperatures on impact
d Only light rime ice has to be expected
1016id 6924 In which temperature range does clear ice most commonly occur?
a -5°C to -10°C
b -10°C to -15°C
c below -15°C
d 0°C to -6°C
1017id 6925 In which temperature range does rime ice most commonly occur?
a -5°C to -10°C
b -10°C to -15°C
c around freezing level
d 0°C to -6°C
1018id 6926 In which temperature range does mixed ice most commonly occur?
a -5°C to -10°C
b -10°C to -15°C
c around freezing level
d 0°C to -6°C
1019id 717 Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of
a water vapour.
b large supercooled water drops.
c small supercooled water drops.
d snow.
1020id 1528 Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a
CB?
a Close to the freezing level
b Between -20°C and -30°C
c Between -2°C and -15°C
d Between -30°C and -40°C
1021id 1529 Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :
a water vapour
b large supercooled water drops
c small supercooled water drops
d snow
1022 id 3845 Hoar frost is most likely to form when

a flying inside convective clouds.
b taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion.
c flying inside stratiform clouds.
d flying in supercooled drizzle.
1023id 3847 While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and
rough powderlike contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This contamination is
called:
a Clear ice.
b Rime ice.
c Mixed ice.
d Frost
1024id 3848 A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely
a freeze immediately and create rime ice.
b freeze immediately and create clear ice.
c travel back over the wing, creating rime ice.
d travel back over the wing, creating clear ice.
1025id 3990 Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are
a small and at a temperature just below freezing
b large and at a temperature just below freezing
c small and freeze rapidly
d of any size at temperatures below -35°C.
1026id 4005 Clear ice is dangerous because it

a spreads out and contains many air particles
b is translucent and only forms at the leading edges
c is not translucent and forms at the leading edges
d is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
1027id 4116 During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze
a rapidly and do not spread out
b slowly and do not spread out
c slowly and spread out
d rapidly and spread out
1028id 4118 Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of

a water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
b freezing rain striking the aircraft
c droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing
d small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234
1029id 4123 Clear ice forms as a result of

a supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process
b water vapour freezing to the aircraft
c ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
d supercooled droplets freezing on impact
1030id 4126 Large supercooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an airplane, form
a rime ice
b clear ice
c hoar frost
d cloudy ice
1031id 4127 The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a
temperature of -5°C is most likely to be
a clear ice
b hoar frost
c rime ice
d cloudy ice
1032id 6493 Clear ice is most often experienced, when the outside temperature is:
a 0° to minus 20° C.
b Minus 5° to minus 10°.
c Minus 5° to plus 5°.
d 0° to minus 5° C.
1033id 6815 While forming rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze........
b rapidly and spread out extensively
c slowly and do not spread out
d on impact, at temperatures near the freezing leve
1034id 6816 While forming clear ice in flight, water droplets freeze........
b and spread out extensively
c slowly and do not spread out
d on impact, at temperatures lower than -10°C
1035id 6817 When is clear ice formed?

a When supercooled droplets are large and at a temperature just below freezing
b When supercooled droplets freeze rapidly and do not spread out
c When supercooled droplets are small and at a temperature just below freezing
d When supercooled droplets impact the structure and at a temperature well below -10°C
1036id 6819 Which airframe icing is the most dangerous?

a Clear ice
b Rime ice
c Hoar frost
d Mixed ice
1037id 718 How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 FT/AGL, when he is unable to deice,
nor land?
a He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability.
b He descends to the warm air layer below.
c He ascends to the cold air layer above.
d He continues to fly at the same altitude.
1038id 2259 The most dangerous form of airframe icing is

a rime ice.
b hoar frost.
c dry ice.
d clear ice.
1039id 2479 At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change of course and/or altitude desirable"
recommendation be followed?
a Light
b Moderate
c Severe
d Extreme
1040id 2480 At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change course and/or altitude immediately"
instruction be followed?
a Light
b Severe
c Moderate
d Extreme
1041id 2481 At what degree of icing can ICAO's "No change of course and altitude
necessary"recommendation be followed?
a Moderate
b Light
c Severe
d Extreme
1042id 3846 Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T), are
flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled
droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct
concerning ice accretion ?
a Aircraft T experiences more icing than S.
b Aircraft S experiences more icing than T.
c Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing
d Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets.
1043id 6496 Why is frost considered hazardous to flight ?

a The increased weight requires a greater takeoff distance.
b Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil.
c Frost decreases control effectiveness.
d Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.
1044id 6498 The possibility of significant icing at altitude, should be expected when on ground you
observe:
a Ice grains.
b Hail.
c Snow.
d Corn-snow.
1045id 1179 How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?

a Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control
momentarily.
b Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude or
attitude.
c Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times.
d Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage.
1046id 1942 A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate
gust you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary
measures?
a Increase the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents.
b Increase the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents, if aircraft performance
parameters allow.
c Decrease the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents.
d Decrease the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft
performance parameters allow.
1047id 1988 What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
a Decrease of speed.
b Change of course.
c Increase of speed.
d Change of flight level.
1048id 2244 An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and
experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL
310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by :
a Climbing
b Descending
c Turn right
d Maintain FL 270
1049id 3857A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05;an
inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just
above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure ?
a Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible.
b Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion.
c Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind.
d Take-off is not possible under these conditions.
1050id 6558 Wake turbulence is created by:

a Cumulonimbus clouds.
b Behind high buildings less than 300 m from the runway.
c Wind forces greater than 50 kts.
d The wingtips of heavy aircraft during takeoff and landing.
1051id 2260 The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an aircraft is proportional to the
a intensity of the solar radiation

b height of the aircraft
c stability of the air
d intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear
1052id 3858 The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type
Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe clear air turbulence
affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
a The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out type. The
manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the
passengers the flight will be inpleasant.
b The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to manoeuvre. The
passengers will feel some discomfort.
c The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (small scale) and will not
have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little more difficult. The passengers
will seldom notice anything of this turbulence.
d The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasent for the passengers but the
manoeuvring will not be affected essentially.
1053id 6553 Clear air turbulence (CAT) should be anticipated when:

a Immediately after the passage of a thunderstorm.
b A sharp trough area aloft is present with wind speed considerably higher than that of jetstream winds.
c A sharp trough area aloft is present, even though the wind speeds may be considerably less
than that of jetstream winds.
d Whenever a high pressure is present close to a thunderstorm area.
1054id 134 What is the effect of a strong low level inversion ?

a It results in good visual conditions.
b It promotes extensive vertical movement of air.
c It prevents vertical windshear.
d It promotes vertical windshear.
1055id 1836 Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest

a at the condensation level when there is strong surface friction.
b at the condensation level when there is no night radiation.
c at the top of a marked surface-based inversion.
d at the top of the friction layer.
1056id 4097 Vertical wind shear is

a horizontal variation in the horizontal wind
b vertical variation in the vertical wind
c vertical variation in the horizontal wind
d horizontal variation in the vertical wind
1057id 6534 What is meant by the expression "windshear"?

a A change of wind- direction and/or speed in horizontal and/or vertical direction.
b Whirlwind.
c The retardation of wind at the friction layer.
d Interference when to wind streams meet.
1058id 3820 Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night
a and early morning only in summer
b in unstable atmospheres
c and early morning only in winter
d in association with radiation inversions
1059id 4096 The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered
a when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
b in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kts
c during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
d near valleys and at the windward side of mountains.
1060id 4142 Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to
a experience little or no change in speed and direction
b change in speed but not in direction
c change in direction but not in speed
d change significantly in speed and direction
1061id 1250 Where is a squall line to be expected?

a At the surface position of a warm front.
b Behind a cold front.
c In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels.
d In front of an active cold front.
1062id 1251 What are squall lines?

a Unusual intensive cold fronts.
b Bands of intensive thunderstorms.
c The surface weather associated with upper air troughs.
d The paths of tropical revolving storms.
1063id 1530 What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?
a Strong steady rain
b Thunderstorms
c Fog
d Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels
1064id 1943 At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with a CB?
a From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450.
b From the ground up to about FL 200.
c From the ground up to about FL 100.
d From the base of the clouds up to FL 200.
1065id 4086 A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered

a at an occluded front
b ahead of a cold front
c in an airmass with cold mass properties
d behind a stationary front
1066id 4099 During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by
downdrafts?
a Dissipating stage
b Cumulus stage
c Mature stage
d Anvil stage
1067id 4100 What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
a Frequent lightning
b Roll cloud
c Continuous updraft
d Rain or hail at the surface
1068id 4103 A gustfront is

a normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
b formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
c characterized by heavy lightning
d another name for a cold front
1069id 4111 In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and
downdrafts simultaneously?
a Dissipating stage
b Cumulus stage
c Mature stage
d In all stages
1070id 6425 Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as
heavy hail and destructive winds ?
a Warm front.
b Squall line.
c Air mass.
d Cold front.
1071id 6428
Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found ? (Choose the
most complete answer.)
a In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side).
b Ahead of the roll clouds or gust front.
c In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.
d On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.
1072id 6489 Between the external appearance of a severe thunderstorm and the turbulence and hail that
are contained within it, there is:
a A strong correlation.
b Apparently no correlation.
c A moderate correlation.
1073id 6514 Which type of clouds are associated with "Microburst"?

a Stratus (st).
b Altocumulus (ac).
c Cumulonimbus (cb).
d Cumulus (cu).
1074id 6515 In a microburst you may experience strong wind shear, the horizontal extension of this
area being:
a 1 - 3 km.
b 8 km.
c 10 km.
d 15 km.
1075id 6539 Which of the following weather factors will not cause the formation of
thunderstorms?
a An occlusion.
b A warm front.
c A cold front.
d Sea fog.
1076id 6740 What is a squall line?

a A band of intense thunderstorms
b A band of cumulus clouds
c Extended areas of nimbostratus clouds
d Fog patches ahead of a warm front
1077id 6781 What is the location of a squall line?

a Ahead of a cold front
b Ahead of a warm front
c Between cold and warm front
d On the rear side of a frontal system
1078id 6824 Which statement is true with regard to a thunderstorm?

a Updrafts in CU clouds, up- and downdrafts as well as downdrafts only in the CB (mature and
dissipating stage)
b Up- and downdrafts can occur in CU and CB clouds
c Only downdrafts may be expected in the mature and dissipating stage (CB) of a thunderstorm
d Hail must be expected in all stages
1079id 6846 What is a microburst?

a A downdraught of a CB in the mature stage
b A downdraught, occurring when a warm front passes by
c Severe windshear, caused by a low level jet stream
d Up- and downdraughts during a thunderstorm
1080id 6847 What is the size of a microburst?

a Approximately 4 kms in diameter
b Approximately 200 metres in diameter
c A widespread area of approximately 10 kms
d A small, clearly defined area of about 50 metres in diameter
1081id 6854 Describe the microburst:

a A high speed downburst of air with a generally lower temperature than its surroundings
b Sinking air of higher temperature than its surroundings
c Precipitation at the base of a cumulonimbus cloud
d Horizontal movement of air, generally colder than its surroundings
1082id 6938 What is true about thunderstorms?
a They occur at cold fronts only
b They only occur, when a cold front occlusion is present
c They can exceptionally occur at a warm front, when warm air is unstable
d They occur only in the summertime
1083id 1247 In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to warm updrafts?
a Mid - afternoon.
b Around midnight.
c Early morning.
d Late morning.
1084id 1248 During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll
clouds most likely to occur ?
a Dissipating stage.
b Cumulus stage.
c Mature stage.
d Cumulus stage and mature stage.
1085id 1249 What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed by
lifting processes, over land?
a Low temperatures, low humidity.
b High air pressure (> 1013 hPa), high temperatures.
c High temperatures, high humidity.
d Subsidence, inversion.
1086id 1937 Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability
which may lead to thunderstorm development ?
a Red cirrus.
b AC lenticularis.
c Halo.
d AC castellanus.
1087id 1938 Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by

a frontal lifting (warm front).
b thermal triggering.
c frontal lifting (cold front).
d frontal occlusion.
1088id 1939 Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?
a Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes.

b Frontal thunderstorms.
c Thermal thunderstorms.
d Orographic thunderstorms.
1089id 2091 The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized by

a rain starting at surface
b continuous downdraughts
c frequent lightning
d continuous updraughts
1090id 2249 In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for
thunderstorm formation ?
a Stable conditions and high moisture content
b Unstable conditions and high moisture content
c Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
d Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
1091id 2257 Continuous updraughts occur in a thunderstorm during the

a dissipating stage.
b mature stage.
c cumulus stage.
d period in which precipitation is falling.
1092id 2258 Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

a dissipating stage.
b cumulus stage.
c mature stage.
d period in which precipitation is not falling.
1093id 4104 What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
a Water vapour and high pressure
b An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action
c A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
d A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
1094id 4105 Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land in moderate
latitudes?
a Occlusion thunderstorms
b Warm front thunderstorms
c Cold mass thunderstorms
d Airmass thunderstorms
1095id 4106 In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms
encountered ?
a Tropical
b Polar
c Subtropical
d Temperate
1096id 4108Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the

a warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
b cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate
c warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
d cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
1097id 6423 What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm ?
a Sufficient water vapor and a lifting action.
b A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture.
c A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate.
d Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.
1098id 6485 During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by
downdrafts ?
a Cumulus.
b Dissipating.
c Mature.
d Anvil.
1099id 6494 Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a
thunderstorm?
a The start of rain at the surface.
b Growth rate cloud is maximum.
c Strong turbulence in the cloud.
d The appearance of an anvil top.
1100id 6604 Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a
thunderstorm:
a The appearance of an anvil top
b Growth rate of cloud is maximum
c The start of precipitation
1101id 6605 Which of the following are not essential factors for thunderstorm development?
a High temperature
b An unstable atmosphere
c A supply of moist air
1102id 6737 In which stage do rotor winds and roll clouds occur in a strong thunderstorm?
a Mature stage
b Dissipating stage
c Cumulus stage
d Rain stage
1103id 6814 What type of thunderstorms develop in the afternoon in summer over land in
moderate latitudes?
a Airmass thunderstorms
b Cold mass thunderstorms
c Warm front thunderstorms
d Occlusion thunderstorms
1104id 6843 Which air mass can be related to thunderstorms during summer in Central
Europe?
a Maritime tropical air
b Maritime polar air
c Continental tropical air
d Continental equatorial air
1105id 6939 What conditions (amongst others) have to be met for the development of CBs and
thunderstorms?
a Moist air must be present
b Warm air has to move over a cold surface
c There have to be significant pressure differences over a small area
d A front has to be present
1106id 4098 The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight is
a cirrus
b stratocumulus
c cumulus
d cumulonimbus
1107id 6484Concerning the radar reflectivity in relation to a thunderstorm, the following is true:
a Reflectivity decreases with severity and frequency of turbulence.
b Reflectivity increases with severity and frequency of turbulence.
c Reflectivity is a function of the number and size of water droplets in a given unit of volume
1108id 6487In a thunderstorm pilots should be on alert for hail when radar echoes:
a show turbulence.
b are well defined.
c are ill-defined.
d None of the above is correct.
1109id 6644 The hazards that thunderstorms pose to aviation include:
a Windshear, severe turbulence, hail
b Heavy precipitation, lightning, severe icing
c All of the above
1110id 1531 What is the approximate maximum diameter of a microburst ?

a 20 km
b 400 m
c 4 km
d 50 km
1111id 1944 What is a microburst?

a A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds.
b A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding air.
c An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.
d A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air.
1112id 1951 How long does a typical microburst last?

a About 30 minutes.
b Less than 1 minute.
c 1 to 2 hours.
d 1 to 5 minutes.
1113id 2551 A microburst phenomenon can arise in the

a downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.
b updraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.
c downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the formation stage.
d updraught of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage.
1114id 4107 A microburst

a is always associated with thunderstorms
b has a life time of more than 30 minutes
c has a diameter up to 4 km
d occurs only in tropical areas
1115id 4112 Which of the following statements describes a microburst ?

a A high speed downburst of air with a generally lower temperature than its surroundings
b A high speed downdraft of air with a higher temperature than its surroundings
c An extremely strong wind gust associated with a tropical revolving storm
d A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed
1116id 4114 The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of
a 8 km and 5-15 minutes
b 4 km and 30-40 minutes
c 4 km and 1-5 minutes
d 12 km and 5-10 minutes
1117id 3859 Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least
temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one
of the following statements is correct?
a An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a "Faradays cage", which means that struck of
lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew
may get a shock.
b An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will follow
the surface and therefore no damage will be caused.
c Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded and
temporarily lose the hearing.
d Aircraft made by composite material can´t conduct a lightning and will therefore very seldom be
struck.
1118id 1246 At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?
a Spring, summer.
b Summer, autumn.
c Autumn, winter.
d Winter.
1119id 4109 With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated ?
a Cumulonimbus
b Cumulus
c Stratus
d Nimbostratus
1120id 4110The diameter of a typical tornado is

a only a few metres
b 100 to 150 metres
c about 2 to 6 km
d in the order of 10 km
1121id 4166 A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take off the
aircraft's rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to
a a very strong temperature inversion
b sand/dust in the engines
c very pronounced downdrafts
d low relative humidity
1122id 4069 Which of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stable layer of air is forced
to rise against a mountain range ?
a Inversions
b Stratified clouds
c Showers and thunderstorms
d Areas of severe turbulence
1123id 1244 You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12°C and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150
through 8 octas NS. What type and degree of icing is most probable?
a In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe rime ice.
b In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice.
c Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice.
d Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost.
1124id 1245 You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a hot summer day, when the
weather is unstable. What is the best time of day to conduct this flight?
a Morning.
b Mid-day.
c Afternoon.
d Early evening.
1125id 6437 CAP clouds are one three groups of mountain wave clouds.
a They appear to be harmless.

b Downdrafts as great as 5000 feet per minute can be expected on the leeward side.
c They cool adiabatically and therefore evaporate.
d Both a) and b) are correct.
1126id 6516 Mention 3 types of weather phenomena associated with mountain waves:
a Rotor , cap and lenticular clouds.
b Fog, lenticular and medium height clouds.
c Low clouds, downdrafts and thunderstorms.
d Turbulence, advection and convection clouds.
1127id 6517 Should a mountain wave situation occur without creating mountain wave clouds, this
would indicate:
a Stable air mass.
b Too strong winds.
c Too dry air.
d Too strong turbulence.
1128id 6556 The meteorological conditions required to form mountain waves are among others:
a The height of the mountain must be at least 3000 ft.
b The air must be unstable.
c Wind velocity on top of the mountain must be 50 kts or more.
d A wind profile whereby the wind velocity increases with increasing altitude and a strong,
steady wind flow at higher levels often extending to the tropopause.
1129id 6557 What is likely when mountain waves are observed?
a Strong wind and turbulence in the mountains.
b Unstable air.
c Rain on the leeward side of the mountain.
d Convection clouds.
1130id 6624 A mountain range runs north-south, and a strong wind is blowing from the west. What
meteorological phenomena is most likely and where will it be at its most
dangerous?
a Fog in the valleys
b Mountain wave activity to the west of the mountains
c Mountain wave activity to the east of the mountains
1131id 6776 Which would be the best time for nice weather conditions when flying in the Alps during
summertime?
a In the morning
b In the afternoon
c In the evening
d Anytime during the day
1132id 1532 In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall compared to during drizzle is
a less
b the same
c greater
d in rain - below 1 km, in drizzle - more than 2 km
1133id 3995 In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by

a low stratus
b haze
c drizzle
d showers of rain or snow
1134id 3999 In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when
a the surface wind is strong and gusty
b there is a low level inversion
c cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon
d a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area
1135id 4080 Visibility is reduced by haze when

a a cold front just passed
b a light drizzle falls
c dust particles are trapped below an inversion
d small waterdroplets are present
1136id 4141 Below a low level inversion visibility is often
a moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers.
b very good at night
c very good in the early morning
d moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange
1137id 4168 Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to
minimal
a about 500 metres
b about 200 metres
c tens of metres
d about 1000 metres
1138id 6614 You are flying in a layer of haze, late on a winter afternoon. Which of the following
statements is true?
a Flight visibility into sun will be worse
b Flight visibility "down sun" will be worse
c The position of the sun will not effect flight visibility
1139id 6749 Compare meteorological visibility:

a Visibility is greater in RA than in DZ
b Visibility is lower in RA than in DZ
c Visibility is equal in RA and in DZ
d Visibility is greater in FG than in DZ
1140id 6777 The flight visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in a tropical downpour can decrease to
minimal....
a about 500 metres
b about 1000 metres
c about 200 metres
d tens of metres
1141id 1242 What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis.) and RVR in
homogeneous fog?
a The met. vis. generally is the same as the RVR.
b The met. vis. generally is greater than the RVR.
c The met. vis. is generally less than the RVR.
d There is no specific relationship between the two.
1142id 1243 The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an
anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?
a On the roof of the weather station.
b 1 m above the runway.
c Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.
d On a mast 8-10 m above the ground.
1143id 1255 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "BKN"?

a 6 - 8 octas.
b 3 - 4 octas.
c 5 - 7 octas.
d 8 octas.
1144id 1256 When is the RVR reported at most airports?

a When the RVR decreases below 2000 m.
b When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m.
c When the RVR decreases below 800 m.
d When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m.
1145id 2482 When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?
a When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
b When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
c With gusts of at least 25 knots
d With gusts of at least 35 knots
1146id 2552 While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message: RVR
runway 23: 400m This information indicates the
a portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23 in
service.
b meteorological visibility on runway 23.
c length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of
runway 23.
d minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service.
1147id 4082 Runway Visual Range (RVR) is

a measured with ceilometers alongside the runway
b reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000m
c reported in TAF and METAR
d usually better than meteorological visibility
1148id 4155 The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to

a the 0-meridian
b magnetic north
c true north
d grid north
1149id 4159The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above
a the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station
b mean sea level
c the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
d airfield level
1150id 6411What does a Transmissiometer measure ?
a Wind speed.
b Cloud base.
c Visibility.
d Breaking action.
1151id 6412 What does RVR stand for ?
a Reduced visibility range.
b Reduced vertical range.
c Runway visual range.
d Radio VHF and range.
1152id 6413 RVR is measured when meteorological visibility falls below:

a 500 m
b 1500 m.
c 2000 m.
d 2500 m.
1153id 6426 When last 10 minutes wind velocity deviates more than 10 kts from mean value during the
same period of time, this will be indicated as:
a A gust
b A squall
c Tempo 10 kts
d Geostrophic wind.
1154id 6477 The horizontal visibility given for VFR flight planning by a MET Office is:
a The average flight visibility for the planned flight.
b Meteorological visibility at an average altitude of 500 meters.
c Meteorological visibility on ground.
d Vertical visibility.
1155id 6478 The information about visibility to be used planning a VFR flight is:
a Observed horizontal visibility on ground.
b Forecasted horizontal visibility on ground.
c Observed vertical visibility.
d RVR
1156id 6554 Among the ten groups of clouds, the following two are mentioned specifically in MET-
reports and forecasts intended for aviation:
a Altocumulus and stratus.
b Cirrostratus and cumulonimbus.
c Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus.
d Cumulonimbus and nimbostratus.
1157id 6782 Under what conditions is RVR measured?

a When the meteorological visibility is lower than 1500 metres
b When the meteorological visibility is lower than 1000 metres
c When fog is present
d When the technical equipment for the measurement at an airport is available
1158id 1303 Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog:
a c)
b b)
c a)
d d)
1159id 2483 Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates low stratus:
a4
b3
c1
d2
1160id 6415 The average visibility as seen from the cockpit in flight is called:
a Cockpit visibility.
b Flight visibility.
c RVR.
d Slant visibility.
1161id 2484 What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used for?
a To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations
b To measure wind currents on the ground
c To help provide 14-day forecasts
d To locate precipitation zones
1162id 2485 Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?
a Hail
b Water vapour
c Fog
d Any cloud
1163id 2554An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location of
a cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by falls of hail
b all clouds
c zones of precipitation, particulary liquid-state precipitation, and also their intensity
d stratocumulus and its vertical development
1164id 1259 In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?
a 300 hPa chart.
b 24 hour surface forecast.
c 500 hPa chart.
d Significant Weather Chart.
1165id 1260On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jetstream?
a Upper air chart.
b Wind / temperature chart.
c Surface chart.
d Significant weather chart.
1166id 1533 Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing level ?
a Surface chart
b 500 hPa chart
c 700 hPa chart
d Significant weather chart
1167id 4095 What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?

a The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the chart
b The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart
c The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
d The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart
1168id 1158 Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 4781 FT pressure level (FL50)?
a 500 hPa.
b 700 hPa.
c 850 hPa.
d 300 hPa.
1169id 1257 How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts ?
a The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per hour.
b The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots.
c The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots.
d The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour.
1170id 1258 What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart?
a Positions with the same air density.
b Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels.
c Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure.
d Positions with the same wind velocity
.
1171id 2486 Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 9882 FT pressure level
(FL 100) ?
a 850 hPa
b 700 hPa
c 500 hPa
d 300 hPa
1172id 2487 Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 18289 FT pressure level (FL 180)?
a 200 hPa
b 300 hPa
c 500 hPa
d 700 hPa
1173id 2488 Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30065 FT pressure level (FL 300)?
a 500 hPa
b 200 hPa
c 700 hPa
d 300 hPa
1174id 2489 Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 38662 FT pressure level (FL 390)
?
a 700 hPa
b 300 hPa
c 500 hPa
d 200 hPa
1175id 2490 If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these upper wind and temperature charts
would be nearest your flight level ?
a 300 hPa
b 500 hPa
c 850 hPa
d 700 hPa
1176id 2491If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these upper wind and temperature charts
would be nearest your flight level ?
a 850 hPa
b 500 hPa
c 700 hPa
d 300 hPa
1177id 2492 When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be
nearest your flight level ?
a 500 hPa
b 700 hPa
c 850 hPa
d 300 hPa
1178id 2493 When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart would be
nearest your flight level ?
a 300 hPa
b 850 hPa
c 700 hPa
d 500 hPa
1179id 2555 The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard
atmosphere, to about
a 34 000 FT
b 39 000 FT
c 30 000 FT
d 32 000 FT
1180id 4146An isohypse of the 500 hPa pressure surface is labelled with the number 552. This means
that for all points on the isohypse the
a topography is 552 decameters above MSL
b pressure is 552 hPa
c topography is 552 meters above MSL
d pressure altimeter will overread by 552 FT
1181id 6418 What units of measurement are used in forecasts for winds aloft?
a Magnetic direction and knots.
b Magnetic direction and MPH.
c True direction and knots.
d True direction and MPH.
1182id 1300
How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart?
a ISOL CB.
b EMBD CB.
c FREQ CB.
d OCNL CB.
1183id 1302 The cold front is indicated with a number at position:

a1
b2
c3
d4
1184id 1304 What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?
a The center of a tropopause "high", where the tropopause is at FL 400.
b The center of a high pressure area at 400 hPa.
c The upper limit of significant weather at FL 400.
d The lower limit of the tropopause.
1185id 1534 Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?

a Symbol c)
b Symbol b)
c Symbol a)
d Symbol d)
1186id 1535 Which of the following symbols represents a tropical revolving storm?
a Symbol c)
b Symbol b)
c Symbol a)
d Symbol d)
1187id 1594 The front labelled "Z" is a:

a Cold front
b Warm front
c Warm front occlusion
d Cold front occlusion
1188id 2494 A trough is indicated by letter:

aB
bA
cC
dD
1189id 2495 The warm sector is indicated by letter:
aA
bB
cD
dC
1190id 2496 Which of the following best describes Zone A?

a Depression
b Col
c Ridge of high pressure
d Trough of low pressure
1191id 2497 Which of the following best describes Zone B?

a Col
b Ridge of high pressure
c Depression
1192id 2498 Which of the following best describes Zone C?

a Ridge of high pressure
b Col
c Trough of low pressure
d Depression
1193id 2499 Which of the following best describes Zone D?

a Anticyclone
b Ridge of high pressure
c Depression
1194id 2500 According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe icing ?

a Symbol a)
b Symbol b)
c Symbol c)
d Symbol d)
1195id 2501 According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical revolving storm?
a Symbol d)
b Symbol c)
c Symbol b)
d Symbol a)
1196id 2502 According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft in flight?
a Symbol b)
b Symbol d)
c Symbol a)
d Symbol c)
1197id 2503 According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft in flight?
a Symbols c) and d)
b Symbol d)
c Symbols a) and b)
d Symbol c)
1198id 982 Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport. FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000
-RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005
OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = Flight
from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast
for arrival at Amsterdam?
a 500 m
b 250 FT
c 500 FT
d 800 FT
1199id 1263 In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note: TEMPO
TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in
anyone instance ?
a 120 minutes.
b 60 minutes.
c 10 minutes.
d 20 minutes.
1200id 1287 In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from Zurich
to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance at the time: EINN
SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir blw fl 050 south of 53n wkn =
LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc
= EGL
a You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route to be flown.
b Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250.
c Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at planned FL
310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370).
d You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route would demand
too much of the passengers.
1201id 1536 What is a trend forecast?

a An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
b A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours
c A route forecast valid for 24 hours
d A routine report
1202id 1537 What does the expression "Broken (BKN)" mean?

a 5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud covered
b 3-4 Eights of the sky is cloud covered
c 3-5 Eights of the sky is cloud covered
d Nil significant cloud cover
1203id 1538 What does the abbreviation "nosig" mean?

a No significant changes
b No report received
c No weather related problems
d Not signed by the meteorologist
1204id 1539 In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on
the runway?
a TAF
b SIGMET
c GAFOR
d METAR
1205id 1540
In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog
formation, in the coming night, the highest?
a VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =
b 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =
c VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =
d 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =
1206id 1541 Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
a LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =
b LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =
c LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
d LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =
regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT) a LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA
NOSIG =
b LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 =
c LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =
d LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =
1208id 1543 Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced strong clear
air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of these reports?
a The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI
b The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed
c The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET
d The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning
1209id 1596 Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport. FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999
SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight
Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to
Bordeaux ?
a Light drizzle and fog
b Continuous moderate rain
c Heavy rain showers
d Moderate snow showers
1210id 1597 Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport. FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999
SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight
Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ?
a 10 or more km
b 8 NM
c 10 NM
d 8 km
from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface
wind is forecast ?
a 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt
b 140° / 10 kt
c 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
d 250° / 20 kt
from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum visibility
forecast for ETA Amsterdam ?
a 5 km
b 3 km
c 5 NM
d 6 km
1213id 1925Does the following report make sense? LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015
NOSIG
a The report is nonsense, because it is impossible to observe a meteorological visibility of 5 km if
shallow fog is reported.
b The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when the meteorological
visibility is more than 2 km.
c The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog below eye level.
d The report is not possible, because, with a temperature of 2°C and a dew point of 2°C there must be
uniform fog.
1214id 1926 You receive the following METAR : LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG
VV001 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG = What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC?
a 300 m.
b The RVR is unknown, because the "NOSIG" does not refer to RVR.
c 700 m.
d 900 m.
1215id 1927 Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR ?
16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000 =
a Meteorological visibility 1000 m, RVR 400 m, freezing level at 300 m, variable winds, temperature
2°C.
b RVR for runway 16 1000 m, meteorological visibility increasing in the next 2 hours to 2000 m,
vertical visibility 300 m, temperature -2°C.
c RVR for runway 14 1500 m, meteorological visibility 400 m, QNH 1026 hPa, wind 160° at 3 kt.
d Meteorological visibility 400m, RVR for runway 16 1000 m, dew point -2°C, freezing fog.
1216id 1934 Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG
2124 0500 FG VV001 What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
a Between 500 m and 2000 m.
b 2000 m.
c 500 m.
d Between 0 m and 1000 m.
2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean?
a RVR greater than 100 m.
b RVR less than 100 m.
c Vertical visibility 100 FT.
d Vertical visibility 100 m.
1218id 1940 What does the term METAR signify?

a A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.
b A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.
c A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-
hourly intervals.
d A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report.
1219id 1941 How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?
a 9 hours.
b 2 hours.
c 1 hour.
d 30 minutes.
1220id 1945 What is a SPECI?

a A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours.
b A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather
conditions have been observed.
c A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required.
d An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours.
1221id 1946 Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428 What must you
consider when making performance calculations?
a Aquaplaning conditions.
b The braking action will be medium to good.
c The runway will be wet.
d The friction coefficient is 0.28.
2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the "BECMG" data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?
a The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC
b A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC.
c Many short term changes in the original weather.
d Many long term changes in the original weather.
2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean?
a 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m.
b 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.
c 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m.
d 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.
1224id 1949 Refer to the following TAF extract; BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG
2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation "PROB30" mean?
a Probability of 30%.
b Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes.
c The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT.
d Change expected in less than 30 minutes.
1225 id 2251 Refer to TAF below. EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822
29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR
BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010 KT From the TAF above you can assume that
visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be :
a not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km.
b a maximum 5 km.
c a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km.
d more than 10 km
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234
1226id 2433 What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on?
a The average speed of the previous 30 minutes
b The average speed of the previous 10 minutes
c The strongest gust in the previous hour
d The actual speed at the time of recording
1227id 2504 What does the term SIGMET signify?

a A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
b A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
c A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
d A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly
intervals
1228id 2505 What does the term TREND signify?
a It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
b It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals
c It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
d It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
1229id 2506 Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they
are observed?
a FZFG
b BCFG
c SN
d HZ
1230id 2507 Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they
are observed?
a +SHSN
b VA
c BR
d MIFG
1231id 2508Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they
are observed?
a TS
b SA
c DZ
d SQ
1232id 2509 Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action
of a runway?
a HZ
b MIFG
c FG
d +FZRA
1233id 2510 Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of aquaplaning?
a SA
b FG
c BCFG
d +RA
1234id 2511
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few hours?
a 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =
b 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG =
c 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000 =
d 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG =
1235id 2512 Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few
hours?
a 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS =
b 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008 NOSIG =
c 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG =
d 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000 =
1236id 2513 In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in the
coming night the highest?
a 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =
b 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG =
c 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
d 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
1237id 2514 Look at this TAF for Zurich Airport TAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012
BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022
25015KT T1815Z T1618Z = Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be
experienced at 1500 UTC?
a Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots.
b Meteorological visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18°C.
c Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 3000 feet, wind
250°,temperature 18°C.
d Severe rainshowers, meteorological visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15°C, gusts up to 35 knots.
1238id 2515 Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001
BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 =
Which of these statements best describes the weather that can
be expected at 1200 UTC?
a Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots
b Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230°, cloudbase 500 feet
c Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm
d Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots
regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"?
a 29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG =
b 24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000 =
c 15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG =
d 04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG =
1240id 2517Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"?
a 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =
b 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =
c 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =
d 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =
1241id 2518 Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ?

25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG NSW =
a Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18°C
b Mean wind speed 20-38 knots, meteorological visibility 1200 metres, temperature 23°C
c Broken, cloudbase 600 feet and 1500 feet, temperature 18°C
d Wind 250°, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa
1242id 2519 Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ? 00000KT0200
R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
a Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more
than 1500 metres
b Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C, vertical
visibility 100 metres
c Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100
feet, fog with hoar frost
d RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility
improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
1243id 2520 Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ? LSAW
SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps btn
fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf =
a Zone of moderate-to-severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity
increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260
b Moderate-to-severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity
increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380
c Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area above
FL 380
d Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the Alps
1244id 2521Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ? SIGMET VALID
121420/121820 embd ts obs and fcst in w part of athinai fir / mov e / intst nc =
a Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens by
1820 UTC
b Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving west
c Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm
zone is moving east. Intensity is constant
d The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above the western
part of the Athens FIR
1245id 2543 Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050
BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518
23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430
UTC is:
a 6 NM.
b 6 km.
c 4 km.
d 10 km.
1246id 2544 Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050
BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518
23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich
(1200 UTC) is:
a 1000 FT.
b 1500 FT.
c 1500 m.
d 5000 FT.
1247id 2545 The following weather report EDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG
1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 is a :
a METAR.
b 24 hour TAF.
c SPECI.
d 9 hour TAF.
1248 id 2546 In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the

a QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa.
b QFE rounded to the nearest hPa.
c QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa.
d QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa.
1249id 2553 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SCT" ?

a 1 - 2 oktas
b 3 - 4 oktas
c 5 - 7 oktas
d 1 - 4 oktas
1250id 4102 Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines ?
a Severe squall lines always move from northwest to southeast

b Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics
c For severe squall lines a TAF is issued
d For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued
1251id 4150 The validity of a TAF is

a between 6 and 9 hours
b 2 hours
c stated in the TAF
d 9 hours from the time of issue
1252id 4152 If CAVOK is reported then

a no low drifting snow is present
b no clouds are present
c low level windshear has not been reported
d any CB's have a base above 5000 FT
1253id 4153 Runway visual range can be reported in

a a TAF
b a METAR
c a SIGMET
d both a TAF and a METAR
1254id 4154 SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to

a heavy aircraft only
b light aircraft only
c VFR operations only
d all aircraft
1255id 4156 A SPECI is

a an aviation routine weather report
b an aviation selected special weather report
c a warning for special weather phenomena
d a forecast for special weather phenomena
1256id 4157 On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed with
intervals of
a 2 hours
b 1 hour
c 0.5 hour
d 3 hours
1257id 4158 The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the

a highest value of the A-, B- and C-position
b average value of the A-, B- and C-position
c value representative of the touchdown zone
d lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position
1258id 4167 Given the following METAR: EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N
R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 05/05 Q1025 NOSIG
a Visibility is reduced by water droplets
b There is a distinct change in RVR observed
c Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR
d RVR on runway 26R is increasing
1259id 5557 At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature and dew point are
respectively: T = - 0,5°C,Td = -1,5°C. In the METAR message transmitted by this
station, the "temperature group" will be:
a M00/M01
b M01/M02
c 00/M01
d M01/M01
1260id 6444The TAF validity in terms of time is usually:

a 3 hours
b 6 hours
c 9 hours
d 12 hours
1261id 6450 A "SIGMET" is:

a A significant weather chart
b A special "METAR"
c A message about observed or forecasted weather phenomena of special importance to aviation
d The same as a "TAF"-forecast
1262id 6469 Which of the following is a landing forecast ?

a METAR.
b TAF.
c SPECI.
d METAR with TREND.
1263id 6500 SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous:

a Particularly to light aircraft
b To all aircraft
c Only to light aircraft operations
d Particularly to heavy aircraft
1264id 6501 The function of a TAF is to be a/an :

a Area forecast.
b Local forecast.
c Forecast for an airfield.
d Wind forecast.
1265id 6541 A METAR from an airfield reporting visibility 8 km. Added to the report is a "BECMG
4000". From this you will expect the visibility to
a Decrease to 4 km within 1 hour.

b Improve from 4 km to 8 km in the next 2 hours.
c Be variable between 4 and 8 km.
d Decrease to 4 km within the next 2 hours.
1266id 6567 Cloud bases in TAFs and METARs are given in:
a Heights above mean sea level
b Heights above the 1013 hPa pressure level
c Heights above airfield elevation
1267id 6591 The abbreviation BKN means:

a 1-4 oktas cloud cover
b 3-7 oktas cloud cover
c 5-7 oktas cloud cover
1268id 6592 The abbreviation SCT means:

1269id 6593 The abbreviation FEW means:

1270id 6609 EHAM 120600Z 02025KT 3000 RA BKN005 OVC015 11/10 Q1012= Which of the
following is the correct decode for the Amsterdam METAR?
a Observation at 0600Z, wind 020° at 25 knots, visibility 3000 metres in rain, clouds: broken ST
with base 500ft AGL and 8 oktas NS with base 1500ft AGL, temperature +11°C, dew point
+10°C, QNH 1012 hPa
b Observation at 0600 UTC, wind 020° at 25 knots, visibility 3000m, rain, broken ST with base 500ft
AGL and 8 oktas NS with base 1500ft MSL, temperature +11°C, dew point +10°C, QNH 1012 hPa
c Period valid between 0600 UTC and 0000 UTC, wind 020° at 25 knots, visibility 3000 metres in rain,
clouds: broken ST with base 500ft AGL and 8 oktas NS with base 1500ft AGL, temperature +11°C,
dew point +10°C, QNH 1012 hPa
1271id 6613 If weather conditions are reported as CAVOK, which of the following could not be
present:
a Winds 25 KT, gusting to 40 KT
b 1 okta of CB at 9000ft
c Overcast cloud at 5100ft
1272id 6615 A SIGMET message is:

a A routine weather report to an aircraft in flight
b A routine weather report from an aircraft in flight
c A warning of reported or forecast hazardous in-flight conditions
1273id 6646 It is October, and an aerea of high pressure has been established for several days. Which
of the following is most likely to represent the TAF for an inland airport?
a 0716 04025KT 7000 BKN013 OVC090=
b 0716 05002KT 0800 FG OVC001 TEMPO 0709 0200 VV/// BECMG 0811 3000 BR OVC005
TEMPO 1116 6000 SCT008=
c 0716 30005KT 9999 SCT035 PROB30 TEMPO 0710 5000 +TSRA BKN050CB=
1274id 6789 What conditions have to be met amongst others, that the weather is reported to be
CAVOK?
a No low drifting snow is present
b Wind of less than 25KT
c No clouds are present below 8000 ft AGL
d No clouds are present below 5000 ft AMSL
1275id 6802A pilot observes thunderstorm activity and severe icing along his flight path.
Therefore, he files a pilot report. What does it lead to?
a It leads to a SIGMET
b It leads to a METAR
c An amended General Aviation Forecast will be issued
d No action will be taken
1276id 6882A SIGMET....

a is a warning of meteorological hazards in the FIR for all aircraft
b is a route forecast, issued several times during the day by the Met Offices
c is added as a short-term forecast to the actual weather report of an airport
d reports the actual weather of an airport every 30 minutes
1277id 6883 TAF LSZH 1322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT
BECMG 1820 4000 RA BKN025 BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z = Which statement is true
at 15 UTC?
a met. vis. 4000 metres, gusts of 25 KT, temperature 18°C
b met. vis. 10 km or more, ceiling 3000 ft, wind from 250 degrees, temperature 18°C
c met. vis. 10 km or more, ceiling 1200 ft, gusts of 45 KT
d strong rain showers, met. vis. 4000 metres, temperature 15°C, gusts of 35 KT
1278id 6884 Refer to the TAF below: What are the weather conditions you have to expect at 1200UTC
on Zurich airport? TAF LSZH 0716 00000KT 0100FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG
1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000
SCT007 =
a met. vis. 800 metres, vertical vis. 200ft, calm
b met. vis. 6 km, ceiling 500 ft, wind from 230 degrees
c met. vis. 2,5 km, ceiling 500 ft, wind speed 5 KT
d met. vis. 800 m, wind direction 230 degrees, ceiling 500 ft
1279id 6927 For your flight from Zurich to Rome you consult, amongst other information, the
following SIGMET: SIGMET VALID121420/121820 MOD TO SEV CAT OBS AND FCST S OF
ALPS BTN FL 260 AND FL 380 / STNR / INTSF =
a You select a flight level below FL 260 due to turbulence

b You select a flight level between FL 260 and FL 380 due to turbulence
c You delay your departure until 18.20 LT to avoid the icing conditions between FL 260 and FL 380
d You disregard this SIGMET, because it does not affect your flight
1280id 2522 Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice: TAF 240716 VRB02KT
CAVOK = 0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS = What can be
concluded from the differences between the two reports ?
a That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the TAF
b That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF
c That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have predicted earlier in
the morning
d That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there is no way the latest
VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF
1281id 2556 Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for Ajaccio and
Calvi for 16:00 UTC : Ajaccio: wind 360°/2 kt, visibility 2000 m, rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1000 FT,
OVC altostratus at 8000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa. Calvi:
wind 040°/2 kt, visibility 3000 m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 FT, SCT stratocumulus
at 2000 FT, OVC altostratus at 9000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa. The
a 1000 FT at Ajaccio and 2000 FT at Calvi
b 1000 FT at Ajaccio and 500 FT at Calvi
c 8000 FT at Ajaccio and 9000 FT at Calvi
d 1000 FT at Ajaccio and 9000 FT at Calvi
1282id 4151ATIS information contains

a operational information and if necessary meteorological information
b only meteorological information
c meteorological and operational information
d only operational information
1283id 977 Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of precipitation?
a ESSA
b LSZH
c ENFB
d EFHK
1284id 978 Over Paris at what height would you expect to find the tropopause according to the map?
a approx.30000 FT
b approx. 36000 FT
c approx. 15000 FT
d approx. 28000 FT
1285id 979 What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the
significant weather chart?
a FL 340
b FL 200
c FL 160
d FL 180
1286id 980 Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC. At what flight level would you
first expect to encounter clear air turbulence on the climb out from Zurich?
a FL 140
b FL 160
c FL 320
d FL 220
1287id 981 What is the approximate height of the tropopause between Munich and Helsinki?
a FL 340
b FL 280
c FL 300
d FL 390
1288id 983 You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight levels would you
choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?
a FL 140
b FL 320
c FL 180
d FL 260
1289id 984 In what height range and at what intensity could you encounter turbulence in CAT area
n°2?
a From FL 220 to FL 400, moderate
b From FL 220 to FL 350, moderate
c From below FL 220 to FL 400, moderate, occasionally severe
d From FL 240 to FL 370, light, occasionally moderate
1290id 985 At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated over Germany?
a FL 280
b FL 330
c FL 360
d FL 300
1291id 1261 How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, which is between two upper air
chart levels? (e.g. wind at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa chart are
available).
a By interpolation of the wind information available from the two charts, while also
considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather Chart.
b By simple interpolation of wind information available from the two charts.
c By reading wind direction and speed from the next higher chart.
d By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart.
1292id 1262 Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight
documentation in the tropics?
a The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart.
b The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown.
c The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and therefore not important.
d Tropopause informations are of no value.
1293id 1276 If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, where will your cruising altitude be?
a Constantly in the troposphere
b Constantly in the stratosphere
c First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere
d In the stratosphere for part of time
1294id 1277 Which of these statements is true?

a Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 410 over Madrid
b Freezing level above Madrid is higher than FL 120
c The front to the north of London is moving south
d Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over France
1295id 1278 On which of these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL 220?
a Zurich - Hamburg
b Zurich - Madrid
c Hamburg - Stockholm
d Shannon – Zurich
1296id 1301 What is the wind direction and speed at 3 000 FT overhead position "Q" at 0600 UTC?
a 270° 30 kt.
b 270° 15 kt.
c 240° 25 kt.
d 240° 20 kt.
1297id 1544 At which airport, is the following weather development taking place? (Chart 0600 UTC)
TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100
BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 =
a EGLL
b LFPO
c EDDF
d LEMD
1298id 1545 What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 1300 UTC?
a 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG =
b 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA =
c 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009 BECMG NSW =
d 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG =
1299id 1589 Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL 200 ?
a Moderate turbulence and icing

b Moderate turbulence, light icing
c Severe turbulence, moderate icing
d Severe turbulence, severe icing
1300id 1590 At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over Frankfurt?
a FL 300
b FL 330
c FL 350
d FL 240
1301id 1591 Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich - London at FL 280.
a 040 / 60
b 250 / 80
c 220 / 50
d 160 / 90
1302id 1592 What is the average wind at FL 160 between Zurich and Rome ?
a 050/40
b 020/50
c 200/45
d 200/40
1303id 1593 The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will be

a -42°C
b -30°C
c -33°C
d -57°C
1304id 1598 What wind is forecast at FL 390 over Paris ?

a 030/40
b 230/20
c 210/40
d 190/40
1305id 1599 What is the average temperature at FL 160 between Oslo and Paris ?
a -11°C
b -23°C
c -19°C
d -25°C
1306id 1600 What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the International
Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt ?
a ISA + 2°C
b ISA -13°C
c ISA +13°C
d ISA +8°C
1307id 1601 What is the speed of the front located over France?
a 30 kt
b 25 kt
c 10 kt
d 15 kt
1308id 1602 Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and maximum speed of the jet stream
affecting the route between Munich and London ?
a 230° / 120 kt
b 220° / 120 km/h
c 050° / 120 kt
d 230° / 120 m/sec
1309id 1605 Flight Shannon to London. What is forecast for the eastern sector of the route between
Shannon and London at FL 220 ?
a Scattered towering cumulus
b Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
c Moderate or severe turbulence and icing
d Scattered castellanus
1310id 1606 Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of cloud would you expect at FL 160 ?
a Mainly 5 to 8 oktas
b 4 oktas broken cumulus
c Isolated cumulonimbus only
d 5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate turbulence
1311id 1607 To what extent is Munich covered by clouds ?

a 5 to 8 oktas
b 1 to 4 oktas
c 5 to 7 oktas
d 3 to 5 oktas
1312id 1608 What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva ?
a -24°C
b -20°C
c -16°C
d -28°C
1313id 1813 Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level
above Tunis be found?
a FL 100
b FL 20
c FL 180
d FL 240
1314id 1814 What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the Frankfurt - Roma route?
d 9°C warmer than ISA
1315id 1815 Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens - Geneva at FL 160.
a 240/40
b 210/25
c 260/40
d 050/35
1316id 1816 Select from the map the average temperature for the route Athens - Geneva at FL 150.
a -21°C
b -14°C
c -11°C
d -27°C
1317id 1817 What is the deviation of the temperature at FL 140 above Copenhagen compared to ISA?
a 4°C warmer than ISA
b 9°C colder than ISA
c 9°C warmer than ISA
1318id 1818 Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Hamburg at FL 240.
a 230/15
b 020/20
c 200/15
d 260/25
1319id 1819Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Lisboa at FL200.
a -33°C
b -30°C
c -41°C
d -49°C
1320id 1820 Select from the map the average wind for the route Shannon - Lisboa at FL 290.
a 030/70
b 360/80
c 190/75
d 340/90
1321id 1821 Select from the map the average temperature for the route Geneva -Stockholm at
FL 260.
a -55°C
b -51°C
c -47°C
d -63°C
1322id 1822 On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart?
a Rome - Frankfurt
b Hamburg - Oslo
c Tunis - Rome
d Copenhagen – Helsinki
1323id 1823 Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the
tropopause to be located?
a FL 310
b FL 350
c FL 250
d FL 280
1324id 1824 If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what conditions can you expect at
cruising altitude?
a Flight largely in cloud; no turbulence
b Scattered thunderstorms
c Prolonged severe turbulence and icing throughout the flight
d CAT for the first half of the flight
1325id 1825 Which of the following statements is true?

a Thunderclouds have formed over the Iberian peninsula extending to some 25000 meters
b The jet stream above Italy has a maximum speed of 120 km/h
c The front to the north of Frankfurt is moving north-east at about 5 kt
d There is no significant cloud above Rome
1326id 1826 On which of these routes would you not have to worry about turbulence at FL 340?
a Rome - Berlin
b Zurich - Rome
c Zurich - Athens
d Shannon – Hamburg
1327id 1827 If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL 240, what conditions can you expect at
cruising altitude?
a Out of cloud throughout the flight
b Cloud most of the way; little chance of CAT
c Scattered thunderstorms
d Largely free of cloud; moderate icing half way along the route
1328id 1828 Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect at FL 340 above Rome?
a 340 kt
b 145 kt
c 95 kt
d 140 km/h
1329id 1829 Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter
moderate and locally severe CAT at FL 300?
a Zurich - Rome
b London - Zurich
c Zurich - Copenhagen
d Paris – Bordeaux
1330id 1929 To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable ? TAF 231019 24014KT 6000
SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113 25020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008
BKN025CB BECMG 1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 5000 SHRA BKN020
BECMG 1719 27008KT 9999 SCT030
a LFPG
b LEMD
c LOWW
d EKCH
1331id 2523 At which airport is the following weather development taking place? TAF 231322
24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999
BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030
OVC220 = (chart 1200 UTC)
a EINN
b ESSA
c ENFB
d EKCH
1332id 2524 Which of the following weather conditions would be expected at Athens Airport (LGAT)
at around 1450 UTC? (chart 1200 UTC)
a 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =
b 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG VV001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800 =
c 21002KT 6000 BR SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG =
d 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG =
1333id 2525 Which airport is most likely to have fog in the coming night?
a ENFB
b LSZH
c EKCH
d ESSA
1334id 2526 Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Rome at FL110.
a 230/10
b 200/30
c 040/10
d 250/20
1335id 2527 Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Rome at FL 110.
a -6°C
b -12°C
c -9°C
d +5°C
1336id 2528 Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will
the freezing level above Shannon be found?
a FL 20
b FL 60
c FL 140
d FL 120
1337id 2529 Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt - Roma at FL 170.
a 230/40
b 200/50
c 050/40
d 030/35
1338id 2542 8/8 stratus base 200 FT/AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of
France; the QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt. What change
in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?
a Winter: BKN base 2500 FT/AGL; summer BKN base 3500 FT/AGL.
b Winter: clear sky; summer BKN CB base 1500 FT/AGL.
c Winter: OVC base 500 FT/AGL; summer SCT base 3000 FT/AGL.
d Winter: SCT base 3000 FT/AGL; summer OVC base 500 FT/AGL.
1339id 3997 A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in
a TAF and SIGMET

b TAF and METAR
c METAR and SIGMET
d SWC and SIGMET
1340id 711 What units are used to report vertical wind shear?
a kt.
b kt/100 FT.
c m/100 FT.
d m/sec.
1341id 712 Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially
hazardous to aircraft in flight ?
a SPECI.
b ATIS.
c SIGMET.
d TAF.
1342id 713 In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued ?

a Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome.
b Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome.
d A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR.
1343id8814. The troposphere is the:

A – part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere
B – part of the atmosphere below the tropopause
C – boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere
D – boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere
1344id8817. What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called:
A – Tropopause
B – Ionosphere
C – Stratosphere
D – Atmosphere
1345id8824. The amount of water vapour which air can hold largely depends on:
A – relative humidity
B – air temperature
C – stability of air
D – dew point
1346id8876. The tropopause is a level at which:

A – vertical currents are strongest
B – water vapour content is greatest
C – pressure remains constant
D – temperature ceases to fall with increasing height
1347id8889. The tropopause is lower;

A – south of the equator than north of it
B – in summer than winter in moderate latitudes
C – over the North pole than over the equator
D – over the equator than over the South Pole
1348id10050. What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the
troposphere?
A – 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and the rest other gases
B – 10% oxygen, 89% nitrogen, and the rest other gases
C – 88% oxygen, 9% nitrogen, and the rest other gases
D – 50% oxygen, 40$ nitrogen and the rest other gases
1349id10055. In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated?

A – Troposphere
B – Tropopause
C – Stratosphere
D – Stratopause
1350id10061. The thickness of the troposphere varies with:

A – latitude
B – longitude
C – rotation of the earth
D – the wind
1351id10102. Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause:
A – increases and its temperature increases
B – decreases and its temperature increases
C – increases and its temperature decreases
D – decreases and its temperature decreases
1352id10753. In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from:

A – 85 to more than 200 km
B – 0 to 11 km
C – 50 to 85 km
D – 11 to 50 km
1353id10804. Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water
vapour?
A – Troposphere
B – Lower stratosphere
C – Upper stratosphere
D – Ionosphere
1354id10825. Which one of the following statement applies to the tropopause?

A – It is, by definition, a temperature inversion
B – It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
C – It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
D – It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
1355id10846. The average height of the tropopause at 50oN is about:

A – 14 km
B – 8 km
C – 11 km
D – 16 km
1356id10851. The troposphere:

A – has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles
B – contains all oxygen of the stratosphere
C – is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere
D – reaches the same height at all latitudes
1357id10855. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the
northern hemisphere?
A – It remains constant throughout the year
B – It remains constant from north to south
C – It increases from south to north
D – It decreases from south to north
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234
1358id10896. What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator?
A – 40 km
B – 8 km
C – 11km
D – 16 km
1359id15783. Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight
documentation in the tropics?
A – The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown
B – The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart
C – The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and
therefore not important
D – Tropopause information are of no value
1360id15790. What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?

A - -25oC
B - -75oC
C - -55oC
D - -35oC
1361id15820. Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first:

A – 5 km
B – 3 km
C – 8 km
D – 11 km
1362id15849. What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere
from a weather stand point?
A – Hydrogen
B – Water vapour
C – Nitrogen
D – Oxygen
1363id15850. The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of:
A – 16 km and -40oC over the poles
B – 16 km and -75oC over the equator
C – 8 km and -40oC over the equator
D – 8 km and -75oC over the poles
1364id16572. The troposphere is:

A – deepest over the equator
B – deepest over the poles
C – the same depth all over the earth
D – shallowest over the poles in summer
1365id24289. In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere between
mean sea level and a height of 5500m is:
A – 25%
B – 1%
C – 50%
D – 99%
1366id24425. Which of the following statements concerning the tropopause is correct?

A – The temperature of the tropopause at the equator and at the poles is equal
B – The temperature remains constant above and below the tropopause
C – The temperature of the tropopause at the equator is higher than at the
poles
D – The temperature lapse rate changes abruptly at the tropopause
1367id24440. Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct?

A – The temperature at the tropopause is approximately -80oC over the Poles
and approximately -40oC over the equator
B – Above the tropopause no clear air turbulence occurs
C – in the ICAO standard atmosphere the tropopause lies higher over the Poles
than over the equator
D – The layer just above the tropopause is absolutely stable
1368id8808. Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?

A – It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions
B – It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regions
C – It is highest in middle latitudes
D – There is no significant difference with change of latitude
1369id8810. Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the

following contribute the most?
A – Absorption and evaporation
B – Solar radiation and conduction
C – Absorption and vaporisation
D – Convection and condensation
1370id8833. An outside air temperature of -35oC is measured while cruising at FL 200.

What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
A – 5oC colder than ISA
B – 10oC warmer than ISA
C – 5oC warmer than ISA
D – 10oC colder than ISA
1371id8856. A layer can be:

A – unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstable
B – stable for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated air
C – unstable for unsaturated air and neutral for saturated air
D – stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air
1372id8858. At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48oC; according to the
tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350?
A - -56.5oC
B - -50oC
C - -54oC
D - -58oC
1373id8864. Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate:

A – exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
B – exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate
C – is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
D – is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate
1374id8887. A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of:

A – the passage of cold front
B – nocturnal radiation
C – advection fog
D – cumulus clouds
1375id8890. An inversion is a layer of air which is:

A – absolutely unstable
B – absolutely stable
C – conditionally unstable
D – conditionally stable
1375id8898. An inversion is:

A – an increase of temperature with height
B – an increase of pressure with height
C – a decrease of pressure with height
D – a decrease of temperature with height
1376id10024. When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the
A – stability increases in the layer
B – stability decreases in the layer
C – wind will back with increasing height in the northern hemisphere
D – wind speed will always decrease with increasing height in the northern hemisphere
1377id10028. Advection is:

A – the same as convection
B – vertical motion of air
C – the same as subsidence
D – horizontal motion of air
1378id10038. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere:

A – has a fixed value of 2oC/1000 ft
B – has a fixed value of 1oC/100m
C – has a fixed value of 0.65oC/100m
D – varies with time
1379id10066. In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature:

A – decreases with altitude
B – is almost constant
C – increases with altitude
D – increases at first and decreases afterward
1380id10068. An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature:

A – increases with height at a constant rate
B – increases with height
C – decreases with height at a constant rate
D – remains constant with height
1381id10074. Which of the following is a common result of subsidence?

A – Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes
B – CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large sea
C – Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation
D – An inversion over a large area with haze, mist
1382id10083. An air mass is called stable when:

A – the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears
B – the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with height
C – the pressure in a given area is constant
D – the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air currents
1383id10095. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
A – Subsidence
B – Inversion
C – Adiabatic
D – Advection
1384id10111. The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of:
A – 0.5oC/100m
B – 2oC/1000 ft
C – 0.65oC/100m
D – 1oC/100m
1385id10122. How would you characterise an air temperature of 15oC at the 700 hPa level over
western Europe?
A – Within +/-5oC of ISA
B – High
C – Low
D – 20oC below standard
1386id10128. In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15oC and the
temperature at 1000m/AGL is 13oC. This layer of air is:
A – unstable
B – stable
C – a layer of heavy turbulence
D – conditionally unstable
1387id10130. The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100m in the International Standard
Atmosphere is:
A – 0.65oC
B – 1oC
C – 0.5oC
D – variable
1388id10145. The radiation of the sun heats:

A – the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are present
B – the air in the troposphere directly
C – the water vapour in the air of the troposphere
D – the surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphere
1389id10742. From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the
atmosphere be derived?
A – Surface temperature
B – Environmental lapse rate
C – Dry adiabatic lapse rate
D – Pressure at the surface
1390id10754. What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion?

A – Stability
B – Instability
C – Clear ice
D – Area of active storms
1391id10760. Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in:

A – winter in the afternoon
B – winter during the night and early morning
C – summer during the night and early morning
D – summer in the afternoon
1392id10761. The dry adiabatic lapse rate:

A – has a constant fixed value
B – is greater in summer than in winter
C – is greater during the night than during the day
D – has a variable value
1393id10802. The temperature at FL 160 is -22oC. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO
standard lapse rate is applied?
A - -4oC
B - -8oC
C – 0oC
D - +4oC
standard lapse rate is applied:
A - -9oC
B - -18oC
C - -6oC
D - -15oC
1395id10820. The temperature at FL 80 is +6oC. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO
A - +2oC
B - -6oC
C – 0oC
D - -4oC
139610839. The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is:
A – clear and winds are strong
B – clear and winds are weak
C – overcast and winds are weak
D – overcast and winds are strong
1397id10861. On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum
temperature is reached approximately:
A – at the moment the sun rises
B – half an hour before sunrise
C – half an hour after sunrise
D – one hour before sunrise
A - -3oC
B - +3oC
C – 0oC
D - +7oC
1399id10877. The 0o isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature
of -6oC?
A – FL 110
B – FL 20
C – FL 100
D – FL 80
1400id10879. A temperature of 15oC is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If the
vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will
the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level?
A - +4oC
B - +2oC
C – 0oC
D - -2oC
1401id10887. The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry
adiabatic lapse rate in:
A – cumulus
B – freezing fog
C – stratus
D – cirrus
1402id10894. Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature under
shelter is 3oC. The sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If
the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of January
3rd to January 4th should be:
A – slightly above +3oC
B – significantly below 0oC
C – slightly below +3oC
D – significantly above +3oC
1403id15782. Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion?
A – Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds
B – Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain
C – The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air
over cold air
D – Heating of the air by subsidence
1404id15810. How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere below the tropopause?
A – increases
B – At first it increases and higher up it decreases
C – Remains constant
D – Decreases
western Europe?
A – High
B – Within +/- 5oC of ISA
C – Low
D – Very low
western Europe?
A – High
B – Low
C – Very high
D – Within +/- 5oC of ISA
1407 id15851. An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature:

A – increases with height more than 1oC/100m,
B – decreases with height more than 1oC/100m
C – increases with height
D – remains constant with height
1408id15858. A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take off
the aircraft’s rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to:
A – low relative humidity
B – a very strong temperature inversion
C – sand/dust in the engines
D – very pronounced downdrafts
1409id15876. In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2oC per 100m increase
in altitude. This temperature change is called:
A – environmental lapse rate
B – saturated adiabatic lapse rate
C – dry adiabatic lapse rate
D – normal lapse rate
1410id16340. In the disturbed temperate regions:
A – winters are generally mild
B – the weather is mainly governed by travelling frontal depressions
C – the wet season is normally from May to September
D – the surface winds are moderate westerlies
1411id16348. Horizontal differences in the mean temperature of a layer are caused by:
A – insulation
B – advection
C – differential heating of the earth’s surface
D – change of air mass
1412id16351. Which of the following statements concerning the thermal wind component (TWC) is
true?
A – TWC decreases as the horizontal mean temperature gradient increases
B – TWC increases as the horizontal mean temperature gradient increases
C – the greater the TWC, the greater the reduction in the upper wind
D – the greater the TWC, the greater the surface wind
1413id16555. Which one of the following describes normal conditions?

A – Temperature decreases with height in the troposphere
B – Temperature increases with height in the troposphere
C – Temperature decreases with height in the stratosphere
D – Temperature decreases at a similar rate in the troposphere as in the
stratosphere
1414id16556. For international aviation meteorological purposes, temperature is measured in degrees:

A – Fahrenheit
B – Celsius
C – Absolute
D – Kelvin
1415id16571. If the depth of the troposphere increases, the temperature at the tropopause
must:
A – decrease
B – stay the same
C – increase
D – impossible to say
1416id16594. Air at T = +16oC and DP = +4oC is forced from sea level over a 10,000 ft
mountain range and descends back to sea level on the other side. If the
leeward condensation level is observed to be 8,000 ft what will be the final
temperature?
A – 18oC
B – 20oC
C – 22oC
D – 24oC
1417id24216. A parcel of unsaturated air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. So
long as it remains unsaturated, the temperature of the parcel:
A – decreases 0.65oC per 100m
B – remains constant
C – decreases 1oC per 100m
D – becomes equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer
1418id24221. Absolute instability in the atmosphere will occur when the environmental
lapse rate is
A – greater than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate
B – less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate
C – less than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate
D – greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse
rate
1419id24222. According to ISA the temperature in the lower part of the stratosphere:
A – decreases with altitude
B – is almost constant
C – increases with altitude
D – increases at first and decreases afterward
1420id24269. For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the
A – environmental lapse rate is greater than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and
saturated adiabatic lapse rate
B – environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but
less than dry adiabatic lapse rate
C – environmental lapse rate is less than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and
D – dry adiabatic lapse rate is less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but
greater than environmental lapse rate
1421id24291. In the lower levels of the atmosphere when the environmental lapse rate is
greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but les than dry adiabatic lapse rate
– the air mass is described as being
A – conditionally unstable
B – stable
C – unstable
D – absolutely unstable
1422id24353. The temperature lapse rate of the standard atmosphere in the troposphere is:
A – 2.5oC/1000 ft
B – 3oC/1000 ft
C – 6.5oC/1000 ft
D – 2oC/1000 ft
1423id24386. What is, approximately, the temperature at 20000 ft in the ICAO Standard
Atmosphere?
A - -20oC
B - -15oC
C - -25oC
D - -30oC
1424id10035. What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
A – Positions with the same air pressure at a given level
B – Positions with the same temperature at a given level
C – Positions with the same wind velocity at a given level
D – Positions with the same relative pressure heights
1425id10059. In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100m increase in height:
A – is greater at higher levels than at lower levels
B – remains constant at all levels
C – is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels
D – is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL
1426id10085. An isohypse (contour):

A – indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm
B – is the longest slope line of a frontal surface
C – is the limit between two air masses of different temperature
D – indicates the true altitude of a pressure level
1427id10137. The station pressure used in surface weather charts is:

A – QNE
B – QFE
C – QNH
D – QFF
1428id10807. Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure?

A – It is higher in winter than in summer
B – It decreases with height
C – It is higher at night than during the day
D – It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m
1429id10822. Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal:

A – QFE
B – QFF
C – QNE
D – QNH
1430id15780. What is approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1hPa at an
altitude of 5,500m?
A – 15m (50 ft)
B – 8m (27 ft)
C – 32m (105 ft)
D – 64m (210 ft)
1431id15809. The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:
A – at height of observatory
B – at a determined density altitude
C – reduced to sea level
D – at flight level
1432 id15837. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low pressure
systems?
A – 25o – 35o
B – 10o – 15o
C – 55o – 75o
D – 35o – 55o
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234
1433id15877. Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
pressure surface on a heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees,
then true altitude is increasing
B – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180 degrees,
C – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 20 degrees,
D – If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090 degrees,
1434id16349. At altitude, the atmospheric pressure in a column of warm air is likely to be:
A – lower than at the same height in a column of cold air
B – higher than at the same height in a column of cold air
C – the same irrespective of the temperature
D – depends on the relative humidity
1435id16357. Which of the following statements is true?

A – High contour values are equivalent to high pressure
B – Low contour values are equivalent to high pressures
C – High contour values are equivalent to low pressure
D – There is no direct relationship between contour values and pressure
1436id16358. When flying towards high contour values an aircraft will experience:
A – headwind
B – tailwind
C – port drift
D – starboard drift
1437id16363. Contour heights are:

A – true heights AGL
B – true heights AMSL
C – indicated heights above 1013.25 mb
D – do not indicate heights at all
1438id16364. When flying from high to low contour values, which of the following is
incorrect?
A – the true height of the aircraft will be falling
B – the pressure altimeter will indicate a constant value
C – the indicated height of the aircraft will be constant
D – the indicated height of the aircraft will only be true if 1013.25 mb is set
1439id16436. You are making a long distance flight and have chosen a suitable cruising
altitude for the whole flight. Towards the end of your flight, you have
descended. What may be the reason for this?
A – you are approaching a region of high pressure

B – you are approaching a region of low pressure
C – standard pressure has dropped
D – temperature has increased
1440id16438. Select the correct statement regarding the wind direction in connection with the high and
low pressure systems in the Northern Hemisphere:
A – the winds blow counter clockwise around a high and clockwise in a low
B – the winds blow clockwise in both highs and lows
C – the winds blow clockwise in a high and counter clockwise in a low
D – the winds blow counter clockwise in both highs and lows
1441id16439. If you fly across the isobars towards a region of high pressure in the Northern
Hemisphere you will:
A – drift to the right
B – drift to the left
C – experience no drift but experience a headwind
D – experience no drift but experience a tailwind
1442id16511. According to definition, flight levels are surfaces with constant air pressure
determined from a certain pressure value. Which is this value?
A – 1013.25 hPa
B – 1025.13 hPa
C – Actual QFE
D – Actual QNH
1443id16517. If you have a column of air limited by two isobaric surfaces at a pressure
difference of 100 hPa, the distance between the pressure surfaces will change
if mean temperature and mean pressure of the column of air change. In which
of the following alternatives will the change of temperature and pressure
interact to shorten the distance as much as possible?
A – The temperature increases and pressure increases

B – The temperature decreases and pressure increases
C – The temperature increases and pressure decreases
D – The temperature decreases and pressure decreases
1444id16534. Lines joining points of equal pressure are known as:

A – Isotherms
B – Isopleths
C – Isobars
D – Isotachs
1445id16544. A pressure difference of 10 hPa close to the ground corresponds to a height

difference of:
A – about 50m
B – about 150m
C – about 300ft
D – about 30ft
1446id16587. A rising parcel of air which has no heat entering or leaving it, will:
A – reduce in pressure, rise in temperature, decrease in density
B – maintain volume, decrease in density, reduce in pressure
C – maintain pressure, reduce in density, increase in volume
D – reduce in pressure, decrease in density, increase in volume
1447id24345. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The
air temperature is 10oC higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
A – 1016 hPa
B – More than 1016 hPa
C – Less than 1016 hPa
D – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
1448id24431. Which of the following statements is correct?

A – Cumulus clouds and a good viability are normally observed in a warm
sector in winter
B – Cumulus clouds and a good visibility are normally observed in a warm
sector in autumn
C – Normally atmospheric pressure stops falling rapidly behind a warm front,
the air temperature rises
D – At warm fronts thunderstorms are often observed
1449id10146. Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density
altitude?
A – When the altimeter has no position error
B – At sea level when the temperature is 0oC
C – At standard temperature
D – When the altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa
1450id15779. At FL 180, the air temperature is -35oC. The air density at this level is:
A – unable to be determined without knowing the QNH
B – greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
C – less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
D – equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
1451id16525. What happens if density altitude is 3000 ft at an airport whose elevation is

1000 ft?
A – Take off and landing performance will be unaffected
B – The altimeter will indicate 3000 ft when the aircraft is on the ground
C – Take off and landing performance will be about the same as for an airport
with an elevation of 3000 ft
D – Indicated speed at 50 kt on take off and landing will be higher than in a
standard atmosphere
1452id24454. With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere
increases with increasing:
A – relative humidity
B – air pressure
C – stability
D – temperature
1453id8840. The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere
(ISA) is:
A - -44.7oC
B - -273oC
C - -58.5oC
D - -100oC
1454id8850. A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following
average heights is applicable?
A – FL 180
B – FL 160
C – FL 100
D – FL 390
1455id8869. A 700 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following
average heights is applicable?
A – FL 100
B – FL 180
C – FL 300
D – FL 390
1456id8882. The temperature at 10000 ft in the International Standard Atmosphere is:

A - -20oC
B – 0oC
C - -5oC
D - -35oC
1457id8884. If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2oC, at what altitude
will the freezing level be?
A – FL 110
B – FL 130
C – FL 150
D – FL 90
1458id10073. A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of
the following average heights is applicable?
A – FL 300
B – FL 100
C – FL 50
D – FL 390
1459id10120. If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15oC warmer than a standard
A - -30oC
B - -45oC
C - -60oC
D - -15oC
1460id10125. In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with
height below 11 km is:
A – 1oC per 100m
B – 0.65oC per 100m
C – 0.5oC per 100m
D – 0.6oC per 100m
1461id10127. What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO
atmosphere?
A – 2oC per 1000m
B – 4.5oC per 1000m
C – 3oC per 1000m
D – 6.5oC per 1000m
1462id10136. A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions
which of the following average heights is applicable?
A – FL 50
B – FL 300
C – FL 100
D – FL 390
1463id10736. A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of
the following average heights is applicable?
A – FL 100
B – FL 390
C – FL 300
D – FL 50
1464id19763. If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10oC warmer than a standard
A - +15oC
B - +5oC
C - -10oC
D - -15oC
1465id10888. Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?

A – At MSL temperature is 15oC and pressure is 1013.25 hPa
B – At MSL temperature is 15oC and the decrease in temperature with height
is 1oC per 100m
C – At MSL temperature is 10oC and the decrease in temperature with height
is 1oC Ref: all
1466id24253. Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the ICAO
Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:
A - -44.7oC
B - -273oC
C - -56.5oC
D - -100oC
1467id24336. The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce at the rate
of:
A - 2oC per 1000 ft up to 65617 ft after which it will remain constant to
104987 ft
B – 1.98oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft and will then rise at 0.3oC per 1000 ft
up to 65617 ft when it will remain constant
C – 1,98oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft after which it remains constant to 65617
ft
D – 2oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft and will then increase at 0.3oC per 1000 ft
up to 65617 ft
1468id8807. In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 ft. The QFE
adjustment in Geneva is:
A – 942 hPa
B – 967 hPa
C – 961 hPa
D – 948 hPa
1469id8811. An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa,
what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the
transition level?
A – It will increase
B – It will decrease
C – It will remain the same
D – It will not be affected
1470id8815. The QNH level at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air
temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the
QFF?
A – Less than 1009 hPa
B – 1009 hPa
C – More than 1009 hPa
1471id8818. An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second
altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be
approximately:
A – 7650 ft
B – 8600 ft
C – 8350 ft
D – 8000 ft
1472id8829. The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1030hPa. The air
temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is
the QNH?
A – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
B – Less than 1030 hPa
C – 1030 hPa
D – More than 1030 hPa
1473id8834. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 ft, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is
set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate:
A – 1200 ft
B – 1375 ft
C – 1105 ft
D – 1280 ft
1474id8836. The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200 UTC.
Assume the station is at MSL. Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. 20000
(-12) 18000 (-11), 16000 (-10), 14000 (-10), 12000 (-6), 10000 (-2), 8000 (+2),
6000 (+6), 4000 (+12), 2000 (+15), surface (+15).
A – The layer between 16000 and 18000 ft is absolutely unstable
B – The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12000 ft
C – The temperature at 10000 ft is in agreement with the temperature in the
International Standard Atmosphere
D – Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true altitude of an
aircraft would actually be higher than the indicated altitude
1475id8842. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 ft, QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter
set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate?
A – 1080 ft
B – 700 ft
C – 380 ft
D – 0 ft
1476id8843. You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 ft. What is the
temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH
1013.2 hPa)?
A – ISA + 12oC
B – ISA +/- 0oC
C – ISA +20oC
D – ISA -20oC
1477id8845. The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if:

A – the outside air temperature is standard for that height
B – standard atmospheric conditions occur
C – the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface
D – the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
1478id8861. Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude
than that actually flown?
A – Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude
B – Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
C – Air temperature higher than standard
D – Air temperature lower than standard
1479id8863. What pressure is defined as QFE?

A – The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures
B – The pressure of the altimeter
C – The pressure at field elevation
D – The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures
1480id8867. During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transiktion altitude.
If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter
reading during the resetting procedure?
B – It will increase
C – It will remain the same
D – It will decrease
1481id8870. An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere with a crosswind

from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude?=
A – It remains constant
B – It increases
C – It decreases
D – Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question cannot be
answered
1482id8875. In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?
A – Elevation and the temperature at the airfield
B – Temperature at the airfield
C – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
D – Elevation of the airfield
1483id8879. If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE?
A – 1005 hPa
B – 995 hPa
C – 1000 hPa
D – 1025 hPa
1484id10030. You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40oC and the pressure at sea level
is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
A – 20660 feet
B – 19310 feet
C – 21740 feet
D – 18260 feet
1485id10046. The QNH at an airfield located 6 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature
is not available. What is the QFF?
D – 1022 hPa
1486 id10049. Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?
A – QFE = 1003 hPa, elevation = 1200 ft (366m)
B – QFE = 1000 hPa, elevation = 1200 ft (366m)
C – QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 ft (488m)
D – QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1200 ft (366m)
1487id10052. Which statement is true?

A – QNH can be 1013.25 only for a station at MSL
B – QNH cannot be 1013.25 hPa
C – QNH is lower than 1013.25 at any time
D – QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1013.5 hPa
1488 id10079. When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter
indicates:
A – zero while landing
B – elevation while landing
C – elevation while landing only if conditions are as in the International
Standard Atmosphere
D – zero while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard
Atmosphere
1489id10087. A vertical spacing of 1000 ft, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under
conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15oC), what would the true
vertical separation be?
A – More than 1000 ft
B – It remains 1000 ft
C – Less than 1000 ft
D – Without QNH information, it cannot be determined
1490id10090. The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018hPa. The
air temperature is 10oC higher than a standard atmosphere. What is
the QFF?
A – More than 1018 hPa
C – 1018 hPa
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234
1491id10091. You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a
minimum altitude of 12000 feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will
be flying through is an average 10oC warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is set
to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will
the altimeter show when you have reached the recommended minimum
altitude?
A – 12210 feet
B – 11520 feet
C – 11250 feet
D – 11790 feet
1492id10101. You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is,
according to the aviation chart, 15000 ft/AMSL. The air mass that
you will fly through is on average 15oC warmer than the standard atmosphere.
The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you
effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude?
A – 15900 ft
B – 13830 ft
C – 14370 ft
D – 14100 ft
1493id10113. QNH is defined as:

A – The pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere
B – The pressure at MSL, obtained using the actual conditions
C – QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions
D – QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere
1494id10124. At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the minimum
usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum
safe altitude?
A – In a cold low pressure region
B – At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the
QNH is greater than or equal to 1013 hPa
C – At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH
is less than 1013 hPa
D – In a warm high pressure region
1495id10140. The QNH is equal to the QFE if:

A – T actual < T standard
B – T actual = T standard
C – T actual > T standard
D – the elevation = 0
1496id10147. The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is
-15oC below FL 100. What is the true altitude of FL 100?
A – 9740 ft
B – 10160 ft
C – 8640 ft
D – 11460 ft
1497id10162. The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013.2

hPa. The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where
the QNH is 1023 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 ft, the reading
on the altimeter on the ground will be:
A – 20 ft
B – 11 ft
C - -10 ft
D – 560 ft
1498id10165. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH is
unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
which the aircraft is flying?
A – It is colder than ISA
B – There is insufficient information to make any assumption
C – It is warmer than ISA
D – Its average temperature is the same as ISA
1499id10735. An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold winters day. The regionalQNH is
1013 hPa. During the flight, you circle around a mountain at an
altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared
to the elevation of the summit?
A – The same altitude as the elevation of the summit
B – A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
C – A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
D – There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion
1500id10740. An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm summers day. The weather is fine, and
there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a
mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid
altimeter give, compared to the summit’s elevation?
A – There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion
B – A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
C – The same altitude as the elevation of the summit
D – A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
1501id10798. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The
air temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
B – More than 1016 hPa
C – 1016 hPa
D – Less than 1016 hPa
1502id10799. In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known?
A – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield
B – Temperature at the airfield
C – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
D – Elevation of the airfield
1503id10803. After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 ft), the altimeter
indicates an altitude of 1310 ft. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of
1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?
A – 1015 hPa
B – 1028 hPa
C – 1013 hPa
D – 998 hPa
1504id10808. What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable
flight level?
A – Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation
from ISA
B – Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation
from ISA
C – Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from
ISA
D – Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from
ISA
1505id10813. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH
is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air
mass in which the aircraft is flying?
A – There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
B – Its average temperature is about ISA
C – It is colder than ISA
D – It is warmer than ISA
1506id10816. Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a
position where flight over mountains could be dangerous?
A – Cold high
B – Warm depression
C – Cold low
D – Warm high
1507id10830. An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de
Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason
for this is that:
A – the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
B – the air at Palma de Mallorca is colder than that at Marseille
C – the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseille
D – one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
1508id10835. During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet; local
QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass
in which the aircraft is flying?
A – Its average temperature is the same as ISA
B – It is colder than ISA
C – It is warmer than ISA
D – There is insufficient information to make any assumption
1509id10836. If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA
10oC in the lower troposphere up to 18000 ft, what is the actual layer
thickness between FL 60 and FL 120?
A – 6240 ft
B – 6000 ft
C – 5900 ft
D – 5760 ft
1510id10853. For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The
approximate elevation of the airfield is:
A – 120 metres
B – 600 metres
C – 540 metres
D – 160 metres
1511id10858. If the QFE at Locarnho (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate
QNH?
A – 1015 hPa
B – 1000 hPa
C – 1005 hPa
D – 1010 hPa
1512id10859. If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the approximate
QNH?
A – 985 hPa
B – 1025 hPa
C – 990 hPa
D – 1035 hPa
1513id10864. An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 ft. Should this altimeter
be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated
would be:
A – 2922 ft
B – 3006 ft
C – 4278 ft
D – 4194 ft
1514id10865. You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27oC and the pressure at sea level
is 1003 hPa. What is the true altitude?
A – 15630 feet
B – 15100 feet
C – 16370 feet
D – 16910 feet
1515id10868. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to
Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing.
What action, if any, should be taken?
A – None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer
than the air around Marseille
B – Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong
C – Re-check the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong
D – Compensate by heading further to the left
1516id10873. During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de
Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The
reason for this is that:
A – the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca
B – the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
C – the air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca
D – one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
1517id10876. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1016 hPa) to
Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing.
What is the probable reason for this?
A – One of the QNH values must be wrong
B – The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca
C – The altimeter is faulty
D – The aircraft is being blown off track to the left
1518id10881. You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 ft/AMSL. The air is
on an average 15oC colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is
1003 hPa. What indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read?
A – 15690 ft
B – 16230 ft
C – 14370 ft
D – 13830 ft
1519id15812. What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated
50 ft below sea level?
A – QFE equals QNH
B – No clear relationship exists
C – QFE is greater than QNH
D – QFE is smaller than QNH
1520id15824. The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air
A – Less than 1022 hPa
B – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
D – 1022 hPa
1521id15825. If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1016 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE? (Assume 1 hPa = 8m)
A – 1005 hPa
B – 990 hPa
C – 995 hPa
D – 1000 hPa
1522id15826. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet, local
QNHY is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air
mass in which the aircraft is flying?
A – It is warmer than ISA
B – There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
C – Its average temperature is the same as ISA
D – It is colder than ISA
1523id15827. During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude.
If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter
reading during the resetting procedure?
A – It will decrease
B – It will remain the same
C – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
D – It will increase
1524id15828. (Refer to figure 050-14)

An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart.
The altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
A – Wind speed at A and at B is the same
B – The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
C – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
D – Wind speed at A is higher than at B
1525id15836. After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still set to
1013.2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the
aerodrome above mean sea level?
A – 2280 feet
B – 660 feet
C – 1200 feet
D – 1740 feet
A – QNH is always lower than QFE

B – QNH is always higher than QFE
C – QNH is always equal to QFE
D – QNH can be equal to QFE
1527id15857. You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby island
with an elevation of 4000 ft is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20C.
What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the
subscale?
A – 4000 ft
B – Less than 0 ft
C – 0 ft
D – More than 0 ft, but less than 4000 ft
1528id15889. Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates:

A – the height of the aircraft’s wheels above the runway
B – in standard atmosphere the height of the aircraft above the official airport
elevation
C – the flight level
D – the aircraft’s altitude above the mean sea level
1529id16504. Suppose that you are flying at FL 40 and that you reset the altimeter to
reference pressure 993 hPa. The altimeter then indicates:
A – about 3,400 ft
B – about 3,700 ft
C – about 4,300 ft
D – about 4,600 ft
1530id16505. In which of the following cases will the altimeter always indicate the airport elevation
when landing?
A – If QFF of the airport is set as reference
B – If QFE of the airport is set as reference
C – If QNH of the airport is set as reference
D – At standard setting
1531id16506. A pressure altimeter can indicate different altitudes depending on the setting.Regardless
of setting it can generally be said that it indicates:
A – altitude above mean sea level at +15oC
B – altitude in the standard atmosphere at +15oC
C – altitude corresponding to difference between reference pressure and the
pressure where the instrument is
D – height above terrain
1532id16509. If an aircraft, without changing altimeter reference, flies so that the altimeter
all the time indicates the same altitude, this always means that :
A – the actual height above the mean ground level is unchanged

B – the air pressure around the aircraft is unchanged
C – the actual altitude above sea level is unchanged
D – the air pressure at sea level is unchanged
1533id16510. At an airport 1700 ft above sea level the temperature reading is +10oC from the
barometer readings made at the same time QFE, QFF and QNH are
computed. Which of the following statements concerning air pressure is
correct?
A – QFF is higher than QNH
B – QFF is equal to QNH
C – QFF is equal to QFE
D – QNH is equal to QFE
1534id16512. When landing at an airport you have correctly set QNH = 1023 hPa as
reference pressure on your altimeter. The altimeter indicates 1200 ft after
landing. Suppose that you change the pressure reference to standard setting
(1013 hPA) what will your altimeter indicate?
A – 0 ft
B – 900 ft
C – 1200 ft
D – 1500 ft
1535id16514. What will the altimeter indicate if the actual altitude is to be 10000 ft when the pressure
altitude is 10000 ft at OAT = -30oC?
A – 9000 ft
B – 10,000 ft
C – 11,000 ft
D – 12,000 ft
1536id16515. A barometric altimeter always indicates:

A – correct altitude to the terrain below
B – altitude to the set altitude reference
C – standard altitude
D – the dynamic pressure
1537id16516. Suppose that you want your altimeter on landing to indicate airport elevation which of
the following pressures will you use as reference?
A – Standard (1013.25)
B – QFE
C – QFF
D – QNH
1538id16520. A pressure altimeter indicates:

A – actual altitude above MSL
B – actual altitude above the terrain below
C – the distance between two isobaric surfaces in the actual atmosphere
D – the distance between two isobaric surfaces in the standard atmosphere
1539id16521. You are flying at a constant altitude according to your altimeter. Your
altimeter setting is unchanged. Which of the following interact to give a
minimum a true altitude?
1) Flying from an area of low pressure to that of an area of high pressure
2) Flying from an area of high pressure to that of an area of low pressure
3) Flying from a warm air mass to a cold air mass
4) Flying from a cold air mass to a warm air mass
A – 1, 3
B – 2, 4
C – 1, 4
D – 2, 3
1540id16522. You are flying over an airport at an indicated altitude of 5600 ft. Airport
elevation = 2785 ft. The altimeter is set at the correct aerodrome QNH value
of 993 hPa and the instrument error is zero, you are crossing the airport at a height above ground of:
(standard pressure setting = 1013 hPa, 1 hPa = 30 ft)
A – 5000 ft
B – 5600 ft
C – 2815 ft
D – 2215 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
1541id16523. Your pressure altimeter is set at 1000 hPa. You have been cleared to join thetraffic
circuit at 2600 ft and received current QNH = 1010 hPa. You join the
circuit at 2600 ft but forget to reset your altimeter. Other aircraft with correct
altimeter settings indicating 2600 ft in the circuit will, compared to you, be
flying:
A – 300 ft above
B – 300 ft below
C – 100 ft above
D – 100 ft below
1542id16524. At the official measuring level for a specific airport, an aircraft altimeter, set at QNH for
the airport, should read:
A – the elevation of the airport, but only at standard ISA temperature
B – the elevation of the airport, regardless of temperature
C – zero, regardless of temperature
D – zero, only at standard ISA temperature
1543id16526. Which factors below increase density altitude for a given aerodrome:
1) Decreasing air pressure
2) Increasing air pressure
3) Decreasing temperature
4) Increasing temperature
A – 1, 2
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 2, 4
1544id16527. Which one of the following conditions gives the shortest take off run, if the
airports have the same QNH?
A – High temperature and low airport elevation
B – Low temperature and low airport elevation
C – High temperature and high airport elevation
D – Low temperature and high airport elevation
1545id16535. On the ground, an altimeter will read ___ if QFE is set and ___ if QNH is set
A – airfield elevation; airfield altitude
B – zero ft; airfield altitude
C – zero ft; airfield height
D – zero ft; airfield elevation
1546id16536. If flying North with easterly drift, an aircraft’s altimeter will progressively:
A – under-read
B – over-read
C – remain correct
D – impossible to say – it depends on the atmospheric pressure
1547id16541. An aircraft is flying at FL 75 over point A where the QNH is 1013 hPa,
enroute to B where the QNH is 979 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa equals 30 ft
and that point B is 823 metres AMSL the terrain clearance over B is:
A – 6480 ft
B – 4280 ft
C – 3780 ft
D – 5680 ft
1548id16543. An aircraft is to fly at an indicated altitude of 5000 ft from X (elevation 850 ft,QNH 984
hPA) to Y (elevation 2300 ft QNH 1024 hPa). Assuming that the
altimeter sub-scale is set to 984 mbs and 1 hPa = 30 ft, the height of the
aircraft over X and Y will be:
A – 5000 ft; 3900 ft
B – 4150 ft; 3900 ft
C – 4150 ft; 1500 ft
D – 5000 ft; 1500 ft
1549id16568. The barometric reading of pressure must be corrected for the following errors:
A – temperature, index, instrument
B – index, temperature, pressure
C – instrument, gravity, temperature
D – instrument, temperature, pressure

A – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A

C – Wind speed at A is higher than at B
D – Wind speed at A and at B is the same

A – Wind speed at B is higher than at A
C – Wind speed at Madrid is higher than at A
D – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A

A – Wind speed at B is higher than at A
C – Wind speed at A and at B is the same
D – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
1553id24229. An aeroplane flies at flight level 40.

Elevation of the aerodrome: 990 ft QNH 976 hPa
The tower clears the pilot to fly at 3000 ft QNH
Which of the following statements is correct?
A – Only a small change of altitude is necessary
B – The aeroplane has to climb about 1000 ft
C – The aeroplane has to descend about 1000 ft
D – The aeroplane has to descend about 2000 ft
1554id24236. An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6oC) obtains a reading of 1860 ft on its radio altimeter
(ground elevation 3090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the
nearest hPa, at that point?
A – 1042
B – 996
C – 1013
D – 1030
1555id24237. An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 4500 ft from A (360

ft/AMSL – QNH 986 hPa) to B (690 ft/AMSL –QNH 1011 hPa). Assuming
that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at 986 hPa, the height
of the aircraft above the surface is:
A – 4815 ft
B – 3135 ft
C – 4485 ft
D – 5175 ft

ft/AMSL – QNH 968 hPa) to B (650 ft/AMSL – QNH 1016 hPa). Assuming
A – 4854 ft
B – 6796 ft
C – 6146 ft
D – 7446 ft

ft/AMSL – QNH 1012 hPa) to B (930 ft/ALMSL – QNH 977 hPa). Assuming
A – 4625 ft
B – 6515 ft
C – 5555 ft
D – 5225 ft

ft/AMSL – QNH 1021 hPa) to B (1650 ft/AMSL – QNH 983 hPa). Assuming
of the aircraft above the surface:
A – 6204 ft
B – 4824 ft
C – 6876 ft
D – 6474 ft
1559id24273. Given:
Altimeter setting: 1013.2 hPa
Altimeter reading: 5000 ft
Outside air temperature at 5000 ft: +5oC
QFE: 958 hPa
QNH: 983 hPa
What is the true height of the aeroplane above the aerodrome?
A – 4325 ft
B – 4190 ft
C – 3515 ft
D – 4865 ft
1560id24280. If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value,
A – the 1013.25 hPa level must be at MSL
B – the conditions must be as in the ISA
C – the airport must be at MSL and the conditions must be as in the ISA
D – the airport must be at MSL
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234
1561id24313. Pressure altitude is obtained by:

A – setting the altimeter to QFF pressure
B – correcting the altimeter for temperature deviation from ISA
C – setting the altimeter to a station pressure which has been corrected to sea
level
D – setting the altimeter to standard sea level pressure
1562id24408. Which FL corresponds with the 200 hPa pressure level?

A – FL 300
B – FL 390
C – FL 100
D – FL 50

A – FL 390
B – FL 300
C – FL 100
D – FL 50
A – FL 100
B – FL 160
C – FL 180
D – FL 390

A – FL 300
B – FL 180
C – FL 100
D – FL 390

A – FL 100
B – FL 50
C – FL 300
D – FL 390
1567id24456. You are flying at FL 340 (250 hPa) on the northern hemisphere. The wind is geostrophic
and there is a cross wind from the right all the time. Your true
altitude will:
A – increase, only if the temperature at your flight level is rising on your route
B – decrease
C – decrease, only if the pressure at the surface is decreasing on your route
D – increase
1568id24458. You are flying over the sea at FL 250 and measure an outside temperature of – 50oC.
The pressure at sea level is 10213 hPa. What is your approximate true
altitude calculated using normal vertical change in temperature with increase
in height?
A – 23770 ft/AMSL
B – 26230 ft/AMSL
C – 26770 ft/AMSL
D – 23230 ft/AMSL
1569id8940. What is the approximate speed of a 40 knot wind, expressed in m/sec?

A – 25 m/sec
B – 15 m/sec
C – 20 m/sec
D – 30 m/sec

What does zone A depict?
A – A trough
B – A ridge
C – The warm sector
D – The cold front
1571id8947. What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
A – Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmh
B – Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots
C – Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmh
D – Direction relative to true north and speed in knots
1572id8952. The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer because:
A – the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient
force
B – contour lines are lines that connect points with the same wind speed in the
upper air
C – the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low
pressure system
D – the friction of the air with the earth’s surface gives the airflow a diversion
perpendicular to the gradient force
1573id8953. During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anti-cyclonic

conditions, the:
A – surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoon
B – surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
C – angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in
the early afternoon
D – wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon

Which air mass and cloud depiction matches the routing A-B?
A–2
B–3
C–4
D–1

On which route do you expect moderate to severe CAT at FL 300?
A – Zurich-Rome
B – London-Zurich
C – Zurich-Copenhagen
D – Paris-Bordeaux
1576id8994. Wind is caused by?

A – Mixing of fronts
B – Horizontal pressure difference
C – Earth rotation
D – Surface friction

What does zone C depict?
A – A trough
B – A ridge

What wind speed do you expect over Rome at FL 340?
A – 145 kt
B – 340 kt
C – 95 kt
D – 140 km/h
1579id10562. What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to
the isobars?
A – Coriolis force
B – Surface friction
C – The greater density of the air at the surface
D – The greater atmospheric pressure at the surface

What are the weather conditions for a flight Zurich-Stockholm at FL 240?
A – Your flight will be mainly in clouds, outside of CAT areas
B – Your flight will be mainly clear of clouds, intermittently in icing
conditions
C – You may encounter thunderstorms intermittently
D – Your flight will be permanently clear of clouds
What are the weather conditions for a flight Zurich-Stockholm at FL 240?
A – Your flight will be mainly in clouds, outside of CAT areas
B – Your flight will be mainly clear of clouds, intermittently in icing
conditions
C – You may encounter thunderstorms intermittently
D – Your flight will be permanently clear of clouds
1582id10632. What is the approximate speed of a 25 knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour?
A – 60 km/h
B – 35 km/h
C – 55 km/h
D – 45 km/h
1583id10648. What prevents air from flowing directly from high pressure areas to low
pressure areas?
A – The pressure gradient force
B – Surface friction
C – Katabatic force
D – Coriolis force
1584id10687. What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots:

A – 55 kt
B – 50 kt
C – 60 kt
D – 70 kt
1585id10702. The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by:
A – curvature of isobars
B – friction
C – horizontal temperature gradients
D – slope of pressure surfaces

What does zone B depict?
A – A trough
B – A ridge
1587id15860. In an area of Converging air in low level:

A – convective clouds can be dissolved
B – stratified clouds can be dissolved
C – clouds cannot be formed
D – clouds can be formed
1588id15862. What relationship exists between the wind at 3,000 feet and the surface wind?
A – The wind at 3,000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind
direction is across the isobars toward the low pressure and the surface
wind is weaker
B – They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by
friction
C – The geostrophic force deflects the wind to the left in the Southern
hemisphere
D – the wind blows anti-clockwise round anti-cyclones in the Northern
hemisphere
1589id16597. Which of the following statements is NOT-TRUE?
The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in the Northern hemisphere
only
B – The geostrophic force is the same as the Coriolis force
C – The geostrophic force deflects the wind to the left in the Southern
hemisphere
D – The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in both hemispheres
1590id16600. Buys Ballots Law implies that:

A – the wind blows anti-clockwise round depressions in both hemispheres
B – the wind blows clockwise round an anti-cyclone in the southern
hemispheres
C – the wind blows clockwise round a depression in the southern hemisphere
only
D – the wind blows anti-clockwise round anti-cyclones in the Northern
Hemisphere

A – A gale has an average speed of 33 kts or more
B – A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutes
C – A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutes
D – The more stable the atmosphere, the less turbulence
1592id24219. A wind of 20 knots corresponds to an approximate speed of

A – 10 m/sec
B – 40 m/sec
C – 10 km/h
D – 50 km/h
1593id24294. In the mid-latitudes of the northern hemisphere the wind blows:

A – direct from high to low pressure areas
B – clockwise around anti-cyclones and cyclones
C – clockwise around cyclones and anti-clockwise around anti-cyclones
D – clockwise around anti-cyclones and anti-clockwise around cyclones
1594id24297. In this question the wind speed with straight isobars (vst), the wind speed
around a high pressure system (vhigh) and the wind speed around a low
pressure system (vlow) in the southern hemisphere are being compared while
pressure gradient and latitude are:
A – vst < vhigh and vst < vlow
B – vst > vhigh and vst < vlow
C – vst < vhigh and vst > vlow
D – vst > vhigh and vst > vlow
1595id2849. For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be?
A – greater at 60oN than at 30oN
B – greater at 30oN than at 60oN
C – equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal component
D – the same at all latitudes north or south of 15o
1596id8918. The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with
straight isobars is (other conditions being the same):
A – always higher
B – higher if curvature is anti-cyclonic
C – always lower
D – higher if curvature is cyclonic
1597id8965. What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the
weather map are very close together?
A – Strong and parallel to the isobars
B – Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars
C – Strong the flowing across the isobars
D – Moderate and parallel to the isobars
1598id8993. In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying
from a high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?
A – Wind from the left
B – Wind from the right
C – Tailwind with no drift
D – Headwind with no drift
1599id10606. Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are:

A – straight lines and no friction is involved
B – curved lines and no friction is involved
C – straight lines and friction is involved
D – curved lines and friction is involved
1600id10631. The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure
system because the:
A – centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
B – centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
C – coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient
D – coriolis force opposes to the centrifugal force
1601id10644. For the same pressure gradient at 60oN, 50oN and 40oN the speed of the
geostrophic wind will be:
A greatest at 40oN
B – the same at all latitudes
C – greatest at 60oN
D – least at 50oN
1602id10645. Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in:
A – falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
B – rising pressure and likely formation of clouds
C – rising pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
D – falling pressure and likely formation of clouds
1603id10649. Under anti-cyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed
of the gradient wind is:
A – less than the geostrophic wind
B – greater than the geostrophic wind
C – the same as the thermal component
D – proportional only to the coriolis force
1604id10656. The greater the pressure gradient the:

A – further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
B – closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
C – closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures
D – further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature
1605id10692. Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences

right drift. What effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft’s true altitude?
A – Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answered
B – It increases
C – It remains constant
D – It decreases
1606id10697. When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close
together, the wind is most likely to be:
A – strong
B – blowing perpendicular to the isobars
C – changing direction rapidly
D – light
1607id10698. Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around
high and low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart?
A – When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater
and wind velocities are stronger
B – Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars
C – Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature
D – When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by
stationary lenticular clouds
1608id10701. Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?

A – Pressure gradient force, coriolis force
B – Friction force, pressure gradient force, coriolis force
C – Pressure gradient force, coriolis force, centrifugal force
D – Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force
1609id10719. An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right in
order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is
the centre of low pressure?
A – To the left
B – Behind
C – In front
D – To the right
1610id10777. Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
A – At the centre of a high pressure system
B – At the centre of a low pressure system
C – In the transition zone between two air masses
D – Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months
1611id15863. The geostrophic wind depends on:

A – density, earth’s rotation, geographic latitude
B – earth’s rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal force
C – geographic latitude, centripetal force, height
D – centripetal force, height, pressure gradient
1612id15865. The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the:

A – density of the air
B – horizontal pressure gradient
C – curvature of isobars
D – sine of latitude
1613id15866. Geostrophic wind:

A – always increases with increasing height
B – veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere
C – is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
D – is directly proportional to the density of the air
1614id16595. A pressure gradient is said to exist when:

A – two columns of air have different temperatures
B – surface pressure is compared at two different points on the earth’s surface
C – two points at the same level have a different atmospheric pressure
D – two points on the earth’s surface have the same isobar passing through them
1615id16596. The pressure gradient force acts:

A – parallel to the isobars with low pressure on its left (in the Northern
hemisphere)
B – perpendicular to the isobars with low pressure behind it
C – perpendicular to the isobars and away from the high pressure
D – parallel to the isobars and towards the low pressure
1616id16598. The wind, which blows when the gradient and geostrophic forces are in
balance, is:
A – the gradient wind
B – the coriolis wind
C – the geostrophic wind
D – the surface
1617id16599. A geostrophic wind is a true wind only under the following conditions:
A – straight and parallel isobars, unchanging pressure field, no friction
B – uniformly curved isobars, constant pressure field, 2000 ft wind
C – circular isobars, slack pressure gradient, no friction
D – parallel isobars, constant pressure field, no friction
1618id16601. For a given latitude, which of the following statements is true:

A – Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects its speed and
direction
B – Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects speed but not
direction
C – Geostrophic force acts at right angles to the wind and affects direction but
not speed
D – none of the above since the geostrophic force is only an apparent force
1619id16602. With balanced flow, which of the following statements is untrue?

A – The geostrophic force decreases near the poles
B – The geostrophic force is non-existent at the equator
C – The geostrophic force varies in direct proportion to the wind speed
D – The pressure gradient force is a maximum at the poles
1620id16603. The gradient wind:

A – blows across the isobars when there is a surface pressure gradient
B – is the 2000 ft geostrophic wind
C – is the surface wind affected by friction
D – blows parallel to curved isobars due to a combination of the pressure
gradient force, geostrophic force and cyclostrophic force
1621id16604. The effect of curved isobars on geostrophic wind speed correction is:
A – greater at high latitudes
B – greater at low altitudes
C – less at high latitudes
D – no effect
1622id16605. The gradient wind is:
A – less that the geostrophic wind around a low
B – more than the geostrophic wind around a low
C – less that the geostrophic wind around a high
D – none of the above
1623id16606. In the Northern hemisphere, surface friction causes the geostrophic wind to:
A – back and decrease
B – veer and decrease
C – back and increase
D – veer and increase
1624id16607. Which of the following statements is untrue?

A – At night the surface wind is lighter in speed and more inclined towards
low pressure
B – Over land, the surface wind is backed by 15o to the isobars and is 2/3
geostrophic speed
C – The steeper the pressure gradient, the less marked the nocturnal effect
D – At night, the wind can be geostrophic down to 1000 ft or less
1625id24270. For the same horizontal distance between adjacent isobars at latitudes 50oN and 30oN
the gradient wind speed will be least at latitude:
A – 30oN in an anti-cyclone
B – 50oN in an anti-cyclone
C – 30oN with a cyclonic circulation
D – 50oN with a cyclonic circulation
1626id24398. When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface friction will
cause the surface wind to:
A – back and increase
B – back and decrease
C – veer and decrease
D – veer and increase
1627id8941. Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by the zone
of:
A – equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the inter-tropical
convergence zone over central Australia
B – Antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass
between south Australia and Antarctica
C – disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous
succession of fronts resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rain
D – sub-tropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts
originating in the adjacent zone of disturbed temperate low pressure
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation,
zone U is in area of:
A – SW trade winds
B – travelling depressions
C – NE trade winds
D – sub-tropical high pressure

Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt-Rome at FL 170:
A – 200/50 kt
B – 230/40 kt
C – 060/50 kt
D – 030/35 kt
1630id8998. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the sub-tropical high
pressure belt?
A – 55o – 75o
B – 10o – 15o
C – 35o – 55o
D – 25o – 35o
1631id10566. In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10oN and 20oN the
prevailing winds are:
A – NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer
B – NE trade winds
C – SE trade winds
D – SW winds throughout the whole year
1632id10576. The average slope of a cold front is in the order of:

A – 1:150
B – 1:250
C – 1:500
D – 1:80
1633id10650. (Refer to figure 050-48)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind
circulation, zone Y is an area of:
A – SE trade winds
B – NE trade winds
C – travelling low pressure systems
D – sub-tropical high pressure systems

What is the average wind for the route Shannon-Lisbon, FL 290:
A – 360/80 kt
B – 030/70 kt
C – 190/75 kt
D – 340/90 kt
What is the average temperature for the route Geneva-Stockholm, FL 260?
A - -55oC
B - -51oC
C - -63oC
D - -47oC

zone T is an area of:
A – NE trade winds
B – SE trade winds
C – travelling low pressure systems
D – sub-tropical high pressure systems
1637id15861. You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
pressure surface. Which of the following statements is correct?
A – If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude
B – If the wind is from the south you are gaining altitude
C – If you have a head wind you are gaining altitude
D – If you have a tail wind you are losing altitude
1638id16437. Which of the following alternatives is the correct one, regarding the surface
wind in relation to the air pressure in the Northern hemisphere?
A – The wind over land blows parallel to the isobars
B – The wind around a high pressure blows clockwise and slants across the
isobars towards higher pressure
C – The wind blows counter-clockwise around a low and slants across the
isobars towards lower pressure
D – The wind blows counter-clockwise around a high and clockwise around a
low
1639id24262. During periods of undisturbed radiation weather, overland, the:

A – wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon
B – surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
C – angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in
the mid-afternoon
D – surface wind speed tends to be highest during the mid-afternoon
1640id8933. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?
A – Altocumulus lenticularis
B – Stratocumulus
C – Cirrocumulus
D – Nimbostratus
1641id8981. Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO

description?
“There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the
aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air
speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0g at the aircraft’s centre
of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about.
Food service and walking are difficult.”
A – Severe
B – Light
C – Moderate
D – Violent
1642id8983. What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying

through a cold front in the summer over Central Europe at FL 100?
A – Moderate turbulence in NS cloud
B – Severe turbulence in CB cloud
C – Light turbulence in CB cloud
D – Light turbulence in ST cloud
1643id10676. On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most

pronounced:
A – immediately after sunset
B – during the early afternoon
C – during early morning hours before sunshine
D – about mid-morning
1644id10728. Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of:

A – a high risk of thunderstorms
B – poor visibility at surface
C – smooth flying conditions below the cloud level
D – turbulence at and below the cloud level
1645id16329. If a strong wind perpendicular to a ridge decreases or reverses in direction at medium

and high levels the likely result is:
A – travelling rotors with very severe turbulence
B – stationary rotors with very severe turbulence
C – stationary rotors with light turbulence
D – travelling rotors with light turbulence
1646id8913. If Paris reports a wind of 08010 kt on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect
A – 11020 kt
B – 08015 kt
C – 05020 kt
D – 08005 kt
1647id8955. You are flying at 2500 ft/AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an airport, at
sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would
you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?
A – South
B – South-southwest
C – Southwest
D – South-southeast
1648id8962. In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction
towards the low pressure area because:
A – turbulence is formed and pressure decreases
B – the pressure gradient increases
C – turbulence is formed and pressure increases
D – wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases
1649id8996. In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows:

A – from a low pressure area to a high pressure area
B – counter-clockwise around, and towards the centre of, a low pressure area
C – clockwise around, and away from the centre of a low pressure area
D – counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure
Area
1650id10647. In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused by:
A – the imbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the coriolis force
B – centripetal forces
C – frictional forces
D – the curvature of the isobars
A – 16020 kt
B – 22030 kt
C – 25025 kt
D – 22010 kt
1652id10671. At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction
changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is
that the wind:
A – veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
B – backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
C – veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
D – backs in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
1653id10693. In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure

distribution is 350/24 over the sea the surface wind would approximate:
A – 340/20
B – 030/20
C – 240/28
D – 030/28
1654id10725. The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anti-cyclone
because the:
A – centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
B – centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
C – effect of coriolis is added to friction
D – coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force
A – 30025 kt
B – 23030 kt
C – 33025 kt
D – 27020 kt
to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground:
A – 14020 kt
B – 16030 kt
C – 19040 kt
D – 17015 kt
1657id15789. Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 ft AGL are south westerly while most of
the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of
difference between these two wind directions?
A – A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes
B – Stronger coriolis force at the surface
C – The influence of warm air at the lower altitude
D – Friction between the wind and the surface
1658id15838. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel
to the coast. When down wind over the sea, the airfield is on the left.
What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a
sunny afternoon?
A – Tail wind
B – Head wind
C – Crosswind from the left
D – Crosswind from the right
1659id15859. During a descent from 2000 ft above the surface to the surface (no frontal
passage) the wind normally:
A – veers and decreases

B – backs and decreases
C – veers and increases
D – backs and increases
1660id15864. The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on:
A – wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature
B – roughness of surface, temperature, local time
C – temperature, local time environmental lapse rate
D – stability, wind speed, roughness of surface
1661id8905. Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL 180 in the
northern hemisphere where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude
remains constant?
A – There is a cross wind from the right
B – There is a cross wind from the left
C – There is no cross wind
D – Without knowing temperature at FL 180 this question cannot be answered
1662id8927. An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000
feet) and going directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction,
relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from?
A – From the left and slightly on the tail
B – From the right and slightly on the nose
C – From the right and slightly on the tail
D – From the left and slightly on the nose
1663id8942. In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows:

A – during the day up from the valley
B – at night up from the valley
C – during the day down from the mountains
D – at night down from the mountains
1664id10577. In a land and sea breeze circulation the land breeze blows:
A – during the day and is stronger than the sea breeze
B – during the night and is weaker than the sea breeze
C – during the day and is weaker than the sea breeze
D – during the night and is stronger than the sea breeze
1665id10590. Which of the following is true of a land breeze?

A – It blows from land to water
B – It blows from water to land
C – It blows by day
D – It blows only at noon
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234
1666id10599. Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:
A – backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface
B – veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface
C – backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface
D – veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface
1667id10621. A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the
Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is
likely at the airport on a sunny afternoon?
A – Parallel to the coastline
B – Land to sea
C – Variable
D – Sea to land
1668id10641. In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 ft/AGL directly towards the centre of a
low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from:
A – about 45 degrees to the right of directly ahead
B – right and behind
C – left and behind
D – directly ahead
1669id10658. The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is
toward the:
A – valley during daylight hours
B – mountain at night
C – mountain during daylight hours
D – valley during daylight as much as at night
1670id10662. The sea breeze is a wind from the sea:

A – blowing at night in mid latitudes
B – that reaches up to the tropopause in daytime
C – occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime
D – occurring only in mid latitudes and in day time
1671id10681. When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a
large body of water will experience wind:
A – continually from land to water
B – from the water in daytime and from the land at night
C – continually from water to the land
D – from the land in day time and from the water at night
1672id10684. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel
to the coast. When down wind over the sea, the airfield is on the right.
What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a
sunny afternoon?
A – Cross wind from the left

B – Cross wind from the right
C – Tailwind
D – Headwind
1673id10726. A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows:

A – down the slope during the night
B – up the slope during the day
C – down the slope during the day
D – up the slope during the night
1674id15883. In the northern hemisphere with an anti-cyclonic pressure system the

geostrophic wind at 2000 ft over the sea is 060/15. At the same position the
surface wind is most likely to be:
A – 075/12
B – 060/18
C – 060/12
D – 045/12
1675id16611. The normal maximum height of the sea breeze in mid altitudes is
approximately:
A – 5000 ft
B – 200 ft
C – 500 – 1000 ft
D – 50 ft
1676id24211. A high pressure area (slack pressure gradient) covers part of the
Mediterranean Sea and coastal region during the summer. What surface wind
direction is likely at an airport at the coast on a sunny afternoon?
A – Land to sea
B – Sea to land
C – Variable
D – Parallel to the coastline
1677id24317. Sea breezes are most likely to occur when:

A – slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land
temperatures
B – a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast
conditions persist
C – a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and clear skies
at night exist
D – a slack pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast
conditions persist
1678id8906. What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Riode Janeiro
(23oS) at FL 350 in July?
A – A polar front jet stream followed by a sub-tropical jet stream and later, a
second polar front jet stream
B – A sub-tropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream
C – A polar front jet stream followed by one or two sub-tropical jet streams
D – One sub-tropical jet stream
1679id8930. What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?
A – 70 kt
B – 50 kt
C – 60 kt
D – 100 kt
1680id8931. In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected?

A – About 12000 ft above the core
B – The warm air side of the core
C – Exactly in the centre of the core
D – The cold air side of the core
1681id8956. In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from
Bombay (19oN – 73oE) to Bangkok (13oN – 100oE). What wind conditions
can you expect?
A – Light winds diagonal to the route
B – Head winds
C – Tail winds
D – Strong northerly winds
1682id8987. While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 ft below its core) and
OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?
A – A head wind
B – Cross wind from the right
C – Cross wind from the left
D – A tail wind
1683id10565. Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?
A – Just below the cold air tropopause
B – In the cold air mass
C – Just above the warm air tropopause
D – In the warm air mass
1684id10568. Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?
A – Equatorial jet stream/arctic jet stream

B – Equatorial jet stream/polar front jet stream
C – Arctic jet stream/sub-tropical jet stream
D – Sub-tropical jet stream/polar front jet stream
1685id10569. Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be
experienced:
A – A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms
B – A curved jet stream near a deep trough
C – A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer
D – A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
1686id10592. A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following
wind profile (Northern hemisphere)
900 hPa 220/20 kt 800 hPa 220/25 kt
700 hPa 230/35 kt 500 hPa 260/60 kt
400 hPa 280/85 kt 300 hPa 300/100 kt
250 hPa 310/120 kt 200 hPa 310/80 kt
Which system is the jet stream associated with:
A – With an easterly wave
B – With a cold front
C – With a ITCZ
D – With a warm front
1687id10605. At approximately what altitude is the sub-tropical jet stream found over
Europe?
A – FL 500
B – FL 200
C – FL 300
D – FL 400
1688id10609. What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?
A – The varied elevations of the tropopause in the polar front region
B – The pressure difference, close to the ground, between a high over the
Azores and a low over Iceland
C – The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar front
D – Strong winds in the upper atmosphere
1689id10619. What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream?
A – 50000 ft
B – 20000 ft
C – 40000 ft
D – 30000 ft
1690id10626. Which area of a polar front jet steam in the northern hemisphere has the
highest probability of turbulence?
A – Looking downstream, the area to the left of the core
B – Looking downstream, the area to the right of the core
C – In the core of the jet stream
D – Above the core in the boundary between warm and cold air
1691id10633. Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet
stream is correct?
A – It lies in the warm air; its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of
the core
B – It and its surface projection lie in the warm air
C – It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature gradient, the
slope of the pressure surfaces at the height of the core is at its maximum
D – It lies in the cold air; the thermal wind reverses direction at the height of
the core
1692id10640. What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other
jet streams?
A – Horizontal dimension
B – Vertical dimensions
C – Wind direction
D – Wind speed
1693id10643. What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?
A – 30,000 ft
B – 20,000 ft
C – 40,000 ft
D – 50,000 ft
1694id10667. You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While crossing,
in spite of a strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely changes.
A – You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with
practically no temperature difference between the two air masses
B – This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core
C – Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will after landing have the instruments
tested
D – This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large
temperature differences are possible at these heights
1695id10672. Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere?
A – The arctic jet stream
B – The polar night jet stream
C – The equatorial jet stream
D – The sub-tropical jet stream
1696id10690. Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly
direction. There is, however, an important easterly jet stream. When and
where is it likely to be encountered?
A – In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean
B – In summer from south east Asia extending over southern India to central
Africa
C – In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the
Mediterranean to southern Spain
D – Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high
1697id10709. On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the
northern hemisphere. This means that:
A – above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from
north to south
B – the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet
C – below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from
north to south
D – the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet

What name is given to the jet stream lying over North Africa (B)?
A – Polar front jet stream
B – Equatorial jet stream
C – Sub-tropical jet stream
D – Arctic jet stream
1699id10720. Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found?
A – At about 5500 metres altitude
B – Just below the tropopause
C – Close to the ground
D – In the stratosphere
1700id10727. Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system?

A – The arctic jet stream
B – The polar front jet stream
C – The sub-tropical jet stream
D – The equatorial jet stream
1701id10786. An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north,
beneath the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere,
during this portion of the flight?
A – It first increases, then decreases
B – It increases
C – It decreases
D –It remains constant
1702id10792. During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the
polar front jet stream moves towards the:
A – south and speed decreases
B – north and speed decreases
C – south and speed increases
D – north and speed increases
1703id10795. An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 ft below its core at right
angles. While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The
prevailing wind is:
A – head wind
B – from the left
C – tail wind
D – from the right
1704id15813. What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross section?
A – 1/1
B – 1/10
C – 1/1000
D – 1/100
1705id15815. A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be worldwide regarded as:
A – possible but a very rare phenomenon
B – not possible
C – a common occurrence
D – not unusual in polar regions
1706id15878. Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?

A – In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur
B – In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur
C – In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur
D – In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur
1707id16335. In January, a mean sub-tropical jet appears at:
A – 30oS
B – 30oN
C – 60oS
D – 50oS
1708id16355. A jet stream is:

A – a band of strong winds only found near thunderstorms
B – a broad band of strong winds flattened and tubular in cross section
C – a narrow band of strong winds only found near fronts
D – a narrow band of strong winds flattened and tubular in cross section
1709id16365. The normal maximum speeds of the Polar Front Jet are in the region of:
A – 150 kt in January/135 kt in July
B – 150 kt in July/135 kt in January
C – 150 kt in July/50 kt in January
D – 135 kt in July/135 kt in January
1710id24251. At which time, if any, are polar front jet streams over the South Pacific usually
strongest?
A – October
B – January
C – There is no annual variation
D – July
1711id24302. Isotechs are lines joining equal:

A – wind speed lapse rates
B – sea level pressures
C – horizontal wind speed gradients
D – wind speeds
1712id24304. Maximum wind speeds associated with sub-tropical jet streams are usually
located in the:
A – polar air above the tropopause
B – tropical air above the tropopause
C – tropical air below the tropopause
D – polar air below the tropopause
1713id24328. The core of the polar front jet stream is usually located in the:
A – tropical air above the tropical tropopause
B – polar air above the tropopause
C – polar air below the tropopause
D – tropical air below the tropopause
1714id24371. What is necessary for the development of a polar front jet stream?
A – An unstable atmosphere up to great heights
B – Strong vertical temperature gradients
C – A uniform pressure pattern
D – Strong horizontal temperature gradients

What name is given to the jet stream lying across India (A)?
A – Tropical jet stream
B – Polar front jet stream
C – Arctic jet stream
D – Sub-tropical jet stream
1716id25630. An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL 400 in
the southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be
experienced?
A – It decreases
B – It increases
C – It stays the same
D – It decreases and then increases
1717id25636. Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found:
A – Just above the warm air tropopause
B – In the polar air mass
C – In the tropical air mass
D – Just below the cold air tropopause

In which direction does the polar front move in this picture?
A–1
B–2
C–3
1713id10675. At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be
encountered is:
A – altocumulus lenticularis
B – cirrostratus
C – cirrus
D – cumulus mediocris
1714id16613. Standing waves are likely when:

A – wind speeds are uniform with height
B – the atmosphere is uniformly stable
C – the wind direction is at 45o to the ridge of the hills
1715id9004. Relative humidity:
A – is not affected by temperature changes of the air
B – is not affected when air is ascending or descending
C – changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature
remains constant
D – does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of
the air remains constant
1716id9012. The dew point temperature:

A – cannot be equal to the air temperature
B – is always lower than the air temperature
C – is always higher than the air temperature
D – can be equal to the air temperature
1717id9018. Relative humidity:

A – is higher in cool air than in warm air
B – is higher in warm air than in cool air
C – increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure
constant
D – decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure
constant
1718id9019. Relative humidity depends on:

A – temperature of the air only
B – moisture content and pressure of the air
C – moisture content of the air only
D – moisture content and temperature of the air
Ref: all
1719id9022. Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
A – It can be used to estimate the air mass’ relative humidity even if the air
temperature is unknown
B – It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
C – It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass’
relative humidity
D – It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
1720id9027. During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12oC and a dew point of +5oC were
measured. What temperature change must occur during the night in order
to induce saturation?
A – It must decrease to +6oC
B – It must decrease by 5oC
C – It must decrease to +5oC
D – It must decrease to +7oC

Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture?
A – In Central Europe
B – Over the North Sea
C – In the Mediterranean Sea
D – Over the Baltics
1722id9047. Dew point is defined as:

A – the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air
will result in the absorption of latent heat
B – the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given
pressure
C – the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the
relative humidity
D – the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at
a given pressure
1723id9049. Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between:

A – dew point and air temperature
B – water vapour weight and dry air weight
C – water vapour weight and humid air volume
D – actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content
1724id9051. When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative
humidity?
A – It increases up to 100%, then remains stable
B – It increases
C – It remains constant
D – It decreases
1725id9064. The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative
humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour
in it?
A – It is not influenced by changing water vapour
B – It increases with increasing water vapour
C – It decreases with increasing water vapour
D – It is only influenced by temperature
1726id9066. Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity?

A – Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X
100
B – Ratio between air temperature and dew point temperature X 100
C – Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100
D – Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100
Ref: all
Ans: A
1727id9074. How does relative humidity and the dew point in an unsaturated air mass
change with varying temperature?
A – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dew point
remains constant
B – When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dew
point decreases
C – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point increases
D – When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point remains constant
1728id9077. The dew point temperature:

A – can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature
constant
B – can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant
C – cannot be equal to the air temperature
D – cannot be lower than the air temperature
1729id9083. The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the:
A – dew point
B – relative humidity
C – stability of the air
D – air temperature
1730id9093. The difference between temperature and dew point is greater in:
A – air with low temperature
B – moist air
C – air with high temperature
D – dry air
1731id9094. (Refer to figue 050-42)

A – A westerly wave over Central Europe
B – A high pressure area over Central Europe
C – South foehn
D – North foehn
1732id9100. What does dew point mean?

A – The temperature at which ice melts
B – The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach
saturation
C – The freezing level (danger of icing)
D – The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour
pressure are the same

Which weather situation can be expected during the day at Zurich airport?
A – TAF LSZH 1601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT
+SHSN W002=
B – TAF LSZH 1601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023
22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OV3015=
C – TAF LSZH 1601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500
MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG W001=
D – TAF LSZH 1601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201
32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=

Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture?
B – Over Scandinavia
C – In the Mediterranean Sea
1735id10193. How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by
temperature changes?
A – It increases with increasing temperature
B – It is not influenced by temperature changes
C – It decreases with increasing temperature
D – It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour
1736id16563. In a high relative humidity condition, which of the following sets of conditions is true?
A – High evaporation rate; reduced latent heat absorption; small wet/dry bulb
difference
B – Increased latent heat absorption; low evaporation rate; large wet/dry bulb
difference
C – Small wet/dry bulb difference; high evaporation rate; increased latent heat
absorption
D – Small wet/dry bulb difference; reduced latent heat absorption; low evaporation rate
1737id24385. What is true for the water vapour distribution in the layer between the surface and the
500 hPa pressure surface in the trade wind belt?
A – The lower part is relatively dry and the upper part is relatively moist
B – The whole layer is relatively dry
C – The whole layer is relatively moist
D – The lower part is relatively moist and the upper part is relatively dry
1738id9009. Super-cooled droplets can occur in:

A – clouds but not in precipitation
B – clouds, fog and precipitation
C – precipitation but not in clouds
D – clouds but not in fog
1739id9038. The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as:
A – super cooling
B – sublimation
C – super saturation
D – radiation cooling
1740id9042. In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

A – Liquid to gas
B – Solid to liquid
C – Solid to gas
D – Gas to liquid
1741id9043. When water evaporates into unsaturated air:

A – relative humidity is decreased
B – heat is released
C – relative humidity is not changed
D – heat is absorbed
1742id9048. A super cooled droplet is:

A – a water droplet that is mainly frozen
B – a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing
C – a small particle of water at a temperature below 50oC
D – a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent
1743id9057. Super cooled droplets can be encountered:

A – only in winter at high altitude
B – in winter only in high clouds
C – only in winter above 10,000 ft
D – at any time of the year
1744id9072. Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:

A – relative humidity reaches 98%
B – water vapour is present
C – water vapour condenses
D – temperature and dew point are nearly equal
1745id9073. A super cooled droplet is one that:
A – is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air
B – has frozen to become an ice pellet
C – has a shell of ice with water inside it
D – remains liquid at a below freezing temperature
1746id9081. How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally
behind jet aircraft?
A – Only through un-burnt fuel in the exhaust gases
B – Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in
temperature at the wing tips while flying through relatively warm but
humid air
C – Through water vapour released during fuel combustion
D – In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in
the exhaust gases
1747id10186. Super cooled droplets are always:

A – large and at a temperature below freezing
B – small and at a temperature below freezing
C – at a temperature below freezing
D – at a temperature below -60oC
1748id10189. Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?

A – Solid direct to liquid
B – Solid direct to vapour
C – Liquid direct to solid
D – Liquid direct to vapour
1749id9003. What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 ft?
A – 1.5oC
B – 2.0oC
C – 3.0oC
D – 3.5oC
1750id9005. If the surface temperature is 15oC, then the temperature at 10000 ft in a current of
ascending unsaturated air is:
A – 5oC
B – 0oC
C - -15oC
D - -5oC
1751id9016. A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and
then returned to its original level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of
air?
A – Lower than the starting temperature
B – Higher than the starting temperature
C – The same as the starting temperature
D – It depends upon the QFE
1752id9030. A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects. Which of the
following changes?
A – Specific humidity
B – Absolute humidity
C – Mixing ratio
D – Relatie humidity
1753id9035. A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by:
A – expanding it adiabatically
B – raising the temperature
C – lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constant
D – compressing it adiabatically
1754id9046. The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is:
A – 0.65oC
B – 2oC
C – 1oC
D – 0.5oC
1755id9058. The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending
unsaturated air because:
A – water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun
B – moist air is heavier than dry air
C – water vapour does not cool as rapidly as dry air
D – heat is released during the condensation process
1756id9062. If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at:
A – the same rate as if the air mass were dry
B – a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat
C – a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat
D – a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat
1757id9076. Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is
correct?
A – Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels
B – Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels
C – Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0.65oC per 100m
D – Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0.65oC per 100m
1758id9079. The stability in a layer is increasing if:

A – warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
B – warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
C – warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
D – cold and dry air is advected in the upper part

What can be said about this weather situation?
A – Air mass thunderstorms may develop during summertime

B – Strong gradient winds may occur over Central Europe
C – Foehn conditions lead to severe weather south of the Alps
D – No ground fog will be present in Paris and Zurich during the winter
1760id9085. A layer in which the temperature increases with height is:
A – conditionally unstable
B – absolutely unstable
C – absolutely stable
D – neutral
1761id9089. Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer?

A – The wet adiabatic lapse rate is 0.65oC/100m
B – The environmental lapse rate is less than 0.65oC/100m
C – The layer is unstable for unsaturated air
D – The environmental lapse rate is less than 1oC/100m
1762id9095. In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than
1oC. This layer can be described as being:
A – conditionally stable
D – absolutely unstable
1763id9099. (Refer to figure 050-41) What does this picture depict?

A – A westerly wave over Central Europe
B – A high pressure area over Central Europe
C – Uniform pressure pattern
D – North foehn
1764id9101. An inversion is:

A – an absolutely stable layer
B – a conditionally unstable layer
C – an unstable layer
D – a layer that can be either stable or unstable
1765id9141. Rising air cools because:

A – it becomes more moist
B – surrounding air is cooler at higher levels
C – it expands
D – it contracts
1766id10175. If in a 100m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10oC and
at the top of the layer is 8oC then this layer is:
D – neutral
1767id10177. A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated by:

A – lowering the parcel to a lower level
B – lifting the parcel to a higher level
C – moving the parcel to an area with lower pressure and equal temperature
D – moving the parcel to an area with higher pressure and equal temperature
1768id10180. A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is:
A – neutral
B – unstable
C – absolutely stable
1769id10181. During an adiabatic process heat is:

A – neither added nor lost
B – added
C – lost
D – added but the result is an overall loss
1770id10183. A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is:
A – between 1oC per 100m and 0.65oC per 100m
B – more than 1oC per 100m
C – 0.65oC per 100m
D – less than 0.65oC per 100m
1771id10184. The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by:

A – temperature and dew point at the surface
B – temperature at surface and air pressure
C – wind and dew point at the surface
D – wet adiabatic lapse rate and dew point at the surface
1772id10187. The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air
at lower level of the atmosphere is approximately:
A – 1.5oC
B – 1oC
C – 0.6oC
D – 0.35oC
1773id10202. A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1oC per 100m is:
C – neutral for dry air
1774id16588. What is the final temperature of unsaturated surface air at 12oC, which rises to 6000 ft?
A - +30oC
B - +18oC
C - +30oC
D - -06oC
1775id16592. The average value of the ELR is:

A – 1.5oC / 1000 ft
B – 2.0oC / 1000 ft
C – 3.0oC / 1000 ft
D – It varies daily
1776id16593. An ELR of 2.9oC per 1000 ft, is by definition:

A – stable
B – conditionally stable
C – unstable
1777id9104. Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?
A – Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind
B – Unstable air
C – Convection during the day
D – The release of latent heat
1778id9105. What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud
coverage?
A – Convection process
B – Sinking
C – Lifting
D – Radiation
1779id9108. What type of cloud is being described? A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform
base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains.
When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible.
Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.
A – Stratus
B – Altostratus
C – Nimbostratus
D – Cirrostratus
1780id9109. Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in
temperate regions?
A – C1, CC
B – SC, NS
C – AS, AC
D – CS, ST
1781id9110. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
A – ST, CS
B – CU, CB
C – SC, NS
D – C1, SC

Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus
castellanus?
A–B
B–D
C–A
D–C
1783id9139. Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and
CB clouds?
A – Frontal lifting within stable layers
B – Radiation
C – Subsidence
D – Convection
1784id9142. Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?

A – ST
B – CS
C – AS
D – SC
1785id9143. A cumulonimbus cloud at mid latitudes in summer contains:

A – only water droplets
B – ice crystals, water droplets and super cooled water droplets
C – only ice crystals
D – ice crystals and water droplets but never super cooled water droplets
1786id9146. Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?

A – SC
B – C1
C – AS
D – CU
1787id9151. Which of the following are medium level clouds?

A – Altostratus and altocumulus
B – Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus
C – Cumulonimbus
D – All convective clouds
1788id9154. A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500m (1600 ft) above sea level is
covered with a uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months.
At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
A – 7000 – 15000 ft above ground
B – 100 – 1500 ft above ground
C – 1500 – 7000 ft above ground
D – 15000 – 25000 ft above ground
1789id9159. What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?
A – Average horizontal visibility more than 1000m; light to moderate rime ice
B – Average horizontal visibility less than 500m; nil icing
C – Average horizontal visibility less than 500m; light to moderate icing
D – Average horizontal visibility more than 1000m; nil icing
1790id9166. Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from:
A – 500 to 1000 ft
B – 1000 to 2000 ft
C – the surface to 6500 ft
D – 100 to 200 ft
1791id9169. Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and
high cloud levels?
A – CB
B – AC
C – ST
D – C1
1792id9171. Altostratus clouds are classified as:

A – convective clouds
B – low level clouds
C – high level clouds
D – medium level clouds
1793id9185. Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?
A – Stratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Altocumulus
D – Cirrus
1794id9186. Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud?

A – ST
B – CS
C – AS
D – CC
1795id9189. Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
A – ST, AS
B – CU, CB
C – NS, CU
D – CB, CC
1796id9191. Fall-streaks or virga are:

A – water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching
the ground
B – strong down draughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
C – gusts associated with a well developed Bora
D – strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy
precipitation
1797id9193. Convective clouds are formed:

A – in stable atmosphere
B – in unstable atmosphere
C – in summer during the day only
D – in mid latitudes only

Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus
capillatus?
A–D
B–A
C–B
D–C
1799id9196. Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of:

A – the presence of a low level inversion
B – instability in the atmosphere
C – the presence of warm air aloft
D – poor surface visibility

lenticularis?
A–2
B–1
C–4
D–3
1801id10223. In an unstable layer thee are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds
depends on the:
A – air pressure at the surface
B – wind direction
C – thickness of the unstable layer
D – pressure at different levels
1802id10231. A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500m (1600 ft) above sea level is
covered with a uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months.
At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
A – 15000 – 35000 ft above the terrain

B – 7000 – 15000 ft above the terrain
C – 1500 – 7000 ft above the terrain
D – 100 – 1500 ft above the terrain
1803id10235. What is the main composition of clouds classified as high level clouds?
A – Super cooled water droplets
B – Ice crystals
C – Water droplets
D – Water vapour
1804id10237. What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

A – Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime
ice
B – Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain
C – Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice
D – Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and
rime ice
1805id10243. A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500m (1600 ft) above sea level
is covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer
months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be
expected?
A – 1500 – 7000 ft above the terrain
B – 100 – 1500 ft above the terrain
C – 7000 – 15000 ft above the terrain
D – 15000 – 25000 ft above the terrain
1806id10244. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the:

A – presence of valley winds
B – risk or orographic thunderstorms
C – development of thermal lows
D – presence of mountain waves
1807id10246. In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to
be encountered?
A – Within cloud of any type
B – Below the freezing level in clear air
C- In clear air above the freezing level
D – In Nimbostratus cloud
1808id10247. Cumulus clouds are an indication for:
A – stability
B – up and downdrafts
C – the approach of a cold front
D – the approach of a warm front
1809id10248. The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates:
A – stability in the higher troposphere

B – strong convection at low height
C – instability in the middle troposphere
D – subsidence in a large part of the troposphere
1810id15793. Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
A – Cumulonimbus
B – Cirrostratus
C – Altocumulus
D – Altostratus
1811id16552. Which of the following is most correct regarding the cloud types Stratus and
Nimbostratus?
A – Neither cloud type may give precipitation
B – Stratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains and Nimbostratus may
give rain showers
C – Stratus may give rain showers and Nimbostratus may give drizzle, ice
prisms or snow grains
D – Stratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains and Nimbostratus may
give continuously falling rain or snow
1812id16553. Altostratus (AS) and Nimbostratus (NS) are easily confused. How do you
distinguish between them?
A – The cloud base is higher in AS and precipitation, if any, is light
B – Precipitation falls from AS but not from NS
C – Steady precipitation from AS
D – The sun can be seen through NS
1813id16554. Which one of the following cloud types gives steady rain or snowfall?
A – Altostratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Cirrostratus
D – Cumulonimbus
1814id16612. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is a sign of:

A – severe instability
B – anabatic winds
C – katabatic winds
D – lee waves

The cloud most likely to be experienced in square 1E is:
A – CS
B – C1
C – AS
D – CB

The cloud type most applicable to square 2D is:
A – AS
B – CU
C – CB
D – CS

The cloud type most applicable to square 3C is:
A – NS
B – AC
C – AS
D – CB

During summer, the cloud type most applicable to square 2A is:
A – ST
B – AC
C – CB
D – CS

The cloud type most applicable to most of square 3B is:
A – SC
B – CS
C – AS
D – NS

The cloud type most applicable to square 1E is:
A – CS
B – CB
C – NS
D – SC
The cloud type most applicable to square 2C is:
A – CS
B – AS
C – CB
D – CU

The cloud type most applicable to square 2B is:
A – ST
B – CS
C – CB
D – SC
1823id24209. A cumulus congestus is:

A – a remnant of a CB
B – a cumulus that is of great vertical extent
C – a cumulus with little vertical development
D – a cumulus that only occurs in association with the ITCZ
1824id24213. A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispensed by:

A – adiabatic cooling due to subsidence
B – absorption of long waved solar radiation in the stratus layer
C – the release of latent heat due to precipitation
D – insulation resulting in the lifting of the condensation level
1825id24220. About ten identical clouds are in the sky, well isolated from one another,
dense, with well defined contours, developing vertically in a cauliflower
shape. The side of these clouds lit by the sun is bright white. Their base,
relatively dark, is essentially horizontal and at FL 30, and their tops at FL 150.
These clouds are:
A – Altocumulus castellanus
B – broken Cumulus humilis
C – towering Cumulus
D – Stratocumulus
1826id24225. After a clear night cumuliform clouds are formed in the morning. Why can
the base of these clouds become higher during the day?
A – Because the difference between the temperature and the dew point
temperature at the initial condensation level becomes smaller
B – The wind speed is increasing, because the cold air mass changes into a
warm air mass
C – Because the stability increases
D – Because the surface temperature increases
1827id24254. Clouds in patches, sheets or grey or whitish layers made up of elements

resembling large pebbles or rollers, together or not, and always clear of the
ground are:
A – Altostratus
B – Stratus
C – Stratocumulus
D – Nimbostratus
1828id24255. Clouds will mainly consist of super cooled water droplets when the
temperature is:
A – between -5oC and -30oC

B – between 0oC and -15oC
C – between -30oC and -40oC
D – below -40oC
1829id24303. Lenticular clouds in mountainous areas indicate:

A – unstable air
B – turbulence
C – an inversion
D – light variable winds
1830id24306. Of what does lenticular cloud provide evidence?

A – Jet streams
B – Mountain waves
C – Stratospheric inversions
D – Areas of high level clear air turbulence

astellanus?
A–A
B–B
C–C
D–D

astellanus?
A–1
B–2
C–3
D–4
1833id9107. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lea to the formation of
advection fog?
A – Moist cold air moving over a warm surface
B – Moist warm air moving over a cold surface
C – Dry warm air moving over a cold surface
D – Dry cold air moving over a warm surface
1834id9112. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?
A – Dry, warm air passing over warm ground
B – Heat loss from the ground on clear nights
C – The passage of fronts
D – Cold air passing over warm ground
1835id9113. Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog?
A – Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountain
B – Moist air over land during clear night with little wind
C – Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea
D – Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea
1836id9114. What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?

A – 2000 ft
B – 500 ft
C – 5000 ft
D – 10000 ft
1837id9116. Frontal fog is most likely to occur:

A – in winter in the early morning
B – in rear of a warm front
C – in summer in the early morning
D – in advance of a warm front
1838id9118. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of
steam fog (arctic smoke)?
A – Warm air moving over cold water
B – Cold air moving over warm water
C – The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun
D – The coastal region of the sea cools at night
1839id9119. At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?
A – At sunset
B – Shortly after sunrise
C – Late evening
D – Shortly after midnight
1840id9123. The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is:
A – above 15 kt
B – between 10 and 15 kt
C – between 5 and 10 kt
D – below 5 kt
1841id9124. When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?
A – When very humid warm air meets with dry cold air
B – When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air
C – When very humid cold air meets with dry warm air
D – When very dry cold air meets with very dry warm air
1842id9130. Freezing fog consists of:

A – frozen water droplets
B – super cooled water droplets
C – frozen minute snow flakes
D – ice crystals
1843id9132. Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog?

A – It forms slowly and disappears rapidly
B – It forms at night or the early morning
C – It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically
D – It can be formed suddenly by day or night
1844id9133. What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?
A – Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills
B – High relative humidity and an unstable air mass
C – Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity
D – Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the
range
1845id9155. The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to
the dew point, is likely to produce:
A – a cold front
B – radiation fog
C – advection fog
D – good clear weather
1846id9179. When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions
are most likely to be:
A – unlimited visibility
B – clear and cool
C – high scattered clouds
D – fog or low cloud
1847id9183. What wind conditions, occurring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog at an
airport where the temperature is 15oC and the dew point is 14oC?
A – Westerly, 10 kt variable
B – Northerly, 10 kt
C – Calm
D – Easterly, 10 kt
1848id9188. The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is:
A – increasing surface wind speed
B – an increasingly stable atmosphere
C – surface cooling
D – a low level temperature inversion
1849id9198. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog?
A – A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming
associated with a sinking air mass
B – A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground
C – Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night
D – A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground
1850id10209. Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air:

A – that is stable
B – with warm mass properties
C – that is absolutely stable
D – with cold mass properties
1851id10212. Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15oC and dew point
of 12oC blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperature of
5oC?
A – Radiation fog
B – Advection fog
C – Steam fog
D – Frontal fog
1852id10218. Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?
A – Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air
B – Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air
C – Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air
D – Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air
1853id10241. Advection fog can be formed when:

A – cold moist air flows over warmer water
B – cold moist air flows over a warmer surface
C – warm moist air flows over a warmer surface
D – warm moist air flows over a colder surface
1854id10242. Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?
A – Very dry air
B – Little or no cloud
C – Strong surface winds
D – Very low temperatures
1855id10245. What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or
light wind conditions?
A – Radiation
B – Advection
C – Steam
D – Orographic

Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog:
A–3
B–3
C–1
D–4
1857id16545. Which one of the following statements regarding the meteorological

horizontal visibility is the correct one?
A – If the visibility varies in different directions, the visibility in the worst
direction is reported
B – If the visibility varies in different directions, an average value of around
the horizon is reported
C – The visibility is improved when darkness falls, because you distinguish a
point of light more easily than an unlighted mark
D – Fog (FG) is used to describe visibility less than 1000 m except when
qualified by MI, BC, PR or VC
1858id16579. For (FG) is defined as being a:

A – visibility of < 1,000m due to any precipitation in the atmosphere
B – visibility of < = 1,000m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in
the atmosphere
C – visibility of < 1,000m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in
the atmosphere
D – visibility of < 1,000m due to solid or liquid particles suspended in the
atmosphere
1859id16580. Mist (BR) is defined as being:

A – reduced visibility > 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to the presence
of water droplets in the atmosphere
B – reduced visibility > 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to solid or
liquid particles in the atmosphere
C – reduced visibility > = 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to solid or
liquid particles in the atmosphere
D – reduced visibility > = 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to the
presence of water droplets in the atmosphere
1860id16581. According to ICAO, haze (HZ) or smoke (FU), is reduced visibility due to the presence
of solid particles (lithometeors) in the atmosphere to a value of:
A - < 5,000 m
B - < = 5,000m
C - > 5,000m
D - > = 5,000m
1861id16582. Conditions favourable for the development of radiation fog (FG) are:
A – high relative humidity, no cloud
B – high relative humidity, little or no cloud
C – high relative humidity, little or no cloud, a strong sea breeze
D – high relative humidity, little or no cloud, little wind (2-8 kts or calm)

A – Radiation fog only forms on a clear night with no wind
B – Radiation fog only forms in valleys (the katabatic effect)
C – Radiation fog only forms when the air is very dry and there is an inversion
D – Radiation fog cannot form over the sea
1863id16584. Radiation fog can be dispersed by:

A – insulation
B – strong winds
C – replacement of moist air by drier air
D – all of the above
1864id16585. Advection fog is caused by:

A – dry air over a cold surface
B – cold air over a warm moist surface
C – air, cooler by at least 10oC, moving over a moist surface
1865id16586. Sea fog:

A – is formed by advection
B – can form a persist with moderate or even strong wind
C – is cleared by change of air mass or less commonly by an increase in wind
strength
1866id24223. Advection fog is most likely to form when:

A – cold maritime air flows over a warmer surface and the wind speed is
greater than 15 kt
B – cold air is forced over higher ground and further adiabatic cooling occurs
C – a mild moist air stream flows over snow covered ground and the wind
speed is less than 10 kt
D – warm maritime air flows over a relatively warmer surface and the wind
speed is greater than 15 kt
1867id24224. Advection of very cold air over a warm sea current can cause:
A – frontal fog
B – advection fog
C – no fog at all
D – steaming fog
1868id24245. As a result of diurnal variation radiation fog is lifted and a cloud cover is
formed. Which statement is true?
A – Layers of alto cumulus will develop caused by increasing wind speed
B – Low stratus will develop caused by radiation in combination with low
geostrophic wind speed
C – Low stratus will develop caused by increasing wind speed
D – Stratocumulus will develop caused by insulation
1869id24272. Frontal fog can be formed by:

A – cooling at night
B – condensation of air saturated by adiabatic cooling
C – condensation of air saturated by evaporation of precipitation
D – evaporation of moisture at the surface
1870id24279. If radiation fog forms on a clear night with light winds, the increase in wind speed from
5 kt to 13 kt will most likely:
A – disperse the fog immediately
B – change the radiation fog to advection fog
C – have no effect
D – cause the fog to lift and become low stratus
1871id24300. In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

A – A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea
B – A warm moist air mass on the windward side of the mountains
C – An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
D – Warm moist air settling over a warmer surface under no-wind conditions
1872id24314. Radiation fog most frequently occurs in:

A – low pressure systems over sea
B – high pressure systems over land
C – high pressure systems over sea
D – low pressure systems over land
1873id24335. The formation of morning fog before sunrise is possible if

A – air temperature and dew point are equal or close to one another
B – the wind is strong
C – the sky is overcast
D – the turbulence in the lower layers is moderate
1874id24375. What is the difference between radiation fog and advection fog?
A – Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog
is formed by evaporation over the sea
B – Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea
C – Radiation for forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to day
time cooling
D – Radiation for forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind.
Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface
1875id24387. What kind of fog is often observed in the coastal region of Newfoundland in spring
time?
A – Radiation fog
B – Frontal fog
C – Advection fog
D – Steaming fog
1876id24415. Which of the following layers of fog above land is coded as MIFG?
A – A layer of 5 feet deep
B – A layer of 10 feet deep
C – A layer of 15 feet deep
D – A layer of 20 feet deep
1877id24418. Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a
Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm?
A – Convection
B – Ground radiation
C – Convergence
D – Orographic lift
1878id24422. Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the
formation of advection fog?
A – Cold maritime air flowing over a warmer land surface at a speed greater
than 15 kt
B – Clear skies at night over an inland marshy area
C – A mild moist air stream flowing over colder surfaces with a wind in
excess of 30 kt
D – A mild moist air stream flowing over colder surfaces with the wind speed
less than 15 kt
1879id24448. Which statement is correct?
A – Fog can be super cooled and can also contain ice crystals
B – Mist and haze consist of water droplets
C – Fog and haze do not occur in the tropics
D – Mist and haze only differ by different values of visibility
1880id24451. Which type of fog can NOT be formed over water?

A – Advection fog
B – Radiation fog
C – Arctic smoke
D – Frontal fog
1881id24498. Which is true of advection fog?

A – It can appear suddenly by day or by night
B – It develops slowly and clears fast
C – It forms when unstable air is adiabatically cooled
D – It usually forms by night and clears by day
1882id9203. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that:

A – freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude
B – a cold front has passed
C – there are thunderstorms in the area
D – a warm front has passed
1883id9205. Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in
mid-latitudes?
A – Hail
B – Moderate rain with large drops
C – Heavy rain with large drops
D – Drizzle
1884id9227. How does freezing rain develop?

A – Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes
B – Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0oC
C – Through melting of sleet grains
D – Through melting of ice crystals
1885id24357. The widest precipitation zone occurs usually:

A – ahead of a warm front
B – ahead of a cold front
C – in rear of a cold front
D – in rear of a warm front
1886id9202. Freezing precipitation occurs:

A – only in the precipitation of a warm front
B – only in the precipitation of a cold front
C – mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle
D – mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow
1887id9204. What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

A – CS
B – NS
C – CB
D – AC
1888id9206. With what type of cloud is GR precipitation most commonly associated?

A – CC
B – AS
C – ST
D – CB
1889id9207. From what type of cloud does drizzle fall?

A – Stratus
B – Altostratus
C – Cumulus
D – Cirrostratus
1890id9215. Freezing rain occurs when:

A – snow falls into an above freezing layer of air
B – ice pellets melt
C – water vapour first turns into water droplets
D – rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0oC
1891id9216. With what type of cloud is +TSRA precipitation most commonly associated?
A – CB
B – AS
C – SC
D – NS
1892id9218. Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain?
A – Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature
below 0oC
B – Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0oC
C – Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm
D – An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0oC through
which rain is falling
1893id9219. With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer
months?
A – NS, CC
B – CB, ST
C – SC, AS
D – AS, NS
1894id9221. What type of clouds are associated with snow showers?

A – Nimbostratus
B – Cumulus and altostratus
C – Altostratus and stratus
D – Cumulus and cumulonimbus
1895id9222. Large hail stones:

A – only occur in thunderstorms of mid latitudes
B – are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
C – are entirely composed of clear ice
D – only occur in frontal thunderstorms
1896id9223. Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from:

A – clouds containing only ice crystals
B – stratified clouds
C – cirro-type clouds
D – convective clouds
1897id9224. What type of clouds are associated with rain showers?

A – Nimbostratus
B – Towering cumulus and altostratus
C – Altostratus and stratus
D – Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus
1898id9228. Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy
precipitation?
A – SC
B – CS
C – NS
D – ST
1899id9229. With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
A – Stratocumulus
B – Cumulonimbus
C – Nimbostratus
D – Stratus
1900id9230. With what type of cloud is DZ precipitation most commonly associated?
A – CB
B – ST
C – CC
D – CU
1901id9231. With which of the following types of cloud is +RA precipitation most
commonly associated?
A – NS
B – AC
C – SC
D – ST
1902id9232. The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list
containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:
A – Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range
between light and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate
B – Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are
frequently severe
C – Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are
frequently severe
D – Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than
moderate
1903id9233. Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from:

A – stratiform clouds with severe turbulence
B – convective clouds with little or no turbulence
C – stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
D – convective clouds with moderate turbulence
1904id9235. Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation?
A – C1
B – AS
C – CB
D – NS
1905id16578. Which precipitation type generally has the greatest impact on visibility?
A – Heavy rain
B – Drizzle
C – Hail
D – Snow
1906id24275. Hazardous hailstones, reaching the ground, are most likely to be experiencedbelow CB
clouds situated:
A – over the sea in middle latitudes
B – over the sea near the equator
C – in continental interiors near the equator
D – in continental interiors in middle latitudes
1907id24319. Super cooled droplets can occur in:

A – clouds, fog and precipitation
B – clouds but not in precipitation
C – precipitation but not in clouds
D – clouds but not in fog
1908id9236. Where does polar continental air originate?

A – The region of the Baltic sea
B – Areas of arctic water
C – Siberian landmass
D – The region of Greenland

What is the classification of the air mass affecting North-Western parts of
France at 0600 UTC?
A – Tropical continental
B – Polar maritime
C – Polar continental
D – Tropical maritime
1910id9282. An air mass is unstable when:

A – temperature increases with height
B – temperature and humidity are not constant
C – pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
D – an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height
1911id9285. What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity between an air
mass with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over
northern Russia?
A – The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North Russian
air
B – The North Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores
C – The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North Russian air
D – The North Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores
1912id9304. In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?

A – Arctic maritime air
B – Polar maritime air
C – Tropical continental air
D – Polar continental air
1913id9310. An air mass is stable when:

A – pressure is constant
B – temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
C – the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and
disappears
D – the lapse rate is 1oC per 100m
1914id9324. Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?
A – The Azores region
B – Southern Italy
C – Southern France
D – The southern Balkan region and the Near East
1915id10264. In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate?
A – Baltic Sea
B – Region of British Isles
C – East of Greenland
D – Black Sea
1916id16429. A stable humid warm air mass slowly over rides a cold one. Which one of the following
weather types may originate from this condition?
A – The formation of thunder storms

B – Warm front dissipation
C – The forming of a warm front
D – The forming of a cold front
1917id16431. Which of these phenomena usually forms in the transition zone between two air masses?
A – an unstable low pressure
B – radiation fog
C – a frontal low pressure
D – a ridge of high pressure
1918id24217. A stationary front is a front in which:

A – there are never frontal clouds
B – there is no difference in temperature between the two air masses
C – there is no wind on both sides of the front
D – there is no horizontal motion perpendicular to the front
1919id24228. Air masses which are being cooled from below are often characterised by:
A – fog, poor visibility and layered clouds

B – strong winds, cumulus clouds, good visibility
C – uniform temperature, good visibility
D – continuous rain and freezing temperature
1920id24230. An air mass acquires its basic properties
A – by widespread thunderstorms
B – by the influence of jet streams
C – by stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having
particular characteristics
D – in the westerlies of the mid latitudes
1921id24231. An air mass is stable when

A – lifted air returns to its original level
B – temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
C – pressure is constant
D – the lapse rate is 1oC per 100m
1922id24232. An air mass is unstable when

A – pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
B – temperature and humidity are not constant
C – an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height
D – temperature increases with height
1923id24233. An air mass is:

A – an extensive body of air within which the temperature and humidity in
horizontal planes are practically uniform
B – a large body of air with temperature and humidity constant in the vertical
C – a body of air with a volume of not more than thousand cubic kilometres
D – a large body of air within which the temperature and humidity is uniform
in horizontal and vertical planes
1924id24243. An unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope. What type of
clouds can be expected?
A – Stratiform clouds with a temperature inversion
B – Stratiform clouds with considerable turbulence
C – Layer like clouds with little vertical development
D – Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence
1925id24244. An unstable air mass will normally be characterised by

A – stratiform cloud
B – cumuliform cloud and good visibility except in precipitation
C – continuous light rain from medium level layer cloud
D – poor visibility due to haze at the lower levels
1926id24276. How does relative humidity and the dew point in an unsaturated air mass
change with varying temperature?
A – When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point remains constant
B – When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dew
point decreases
C – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point increases
D – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dew point
remain constant
1927id24419. Which of the following processes will increase the stability of an air mass?
A – Addition of water vapour in the lower layer
B – Cooling by the underlying surface
C – Warming of the air mass from below
D – Advection of colder air aloft
1928id9238. What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North Sea,
approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front?
A – Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers
B – Showers and thunderstorms
C – Rain covering a large area, 8 octas NS
D – 9 octas CS, AS without precipitation
1929id9240. In a warm front occlusion:

A – the warm front becomes a front aloft
B – the warm front overtakes the cold front
C – the warm air is lifted
D – the cold air is lifted
1930id9241. Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a
depression during winter?
A – C1, CS
B – ST with drizzle
C – Fair weather CU
D – CU, CB
1931id9247. Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer?
A – Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed
B – Mainly layered clouds
C – Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed
D – Mainly towering clouds
1932id9251. Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet
wind:
A – in the warm sector
B – in front of the warm front
C – behind the cold front
D – at the apex of the wave
1933id9252. If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the warm
air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability
of freezing rain the lowest?
A – 9000 feet
B – 12000 feet
C – 5000 feet
D – 3000 feet
1934id9253. How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion?

A – The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion;
the warm air mass is above ground level
B – The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion; the
warm air mass is above ground level
C – The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less
cold air is above ground level
D – The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less
cold air mass is above ground level
1935id9254. Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?

A – The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front
B – The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of
the front
C – The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
D – The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front
1936id9255. In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken:
160450Z 23015KT 3000 + RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010
NOSIG =
160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG =
160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG =
161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG =
161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG
25020G40KT TS =
161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002
NOSIG =
What do you conclude based on these observations?
A – A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front
during late afternoon
B – A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front
C – A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front
D – Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station
1937id9258. Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when
approaching an active warm front at medium to low level?
A – Severe thunderstorms at low altitude
B – Low cloud base and poor visibility
C – Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground
D – High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms
1938id9261. Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front
characteristics?
A – Ahead of the front
B – Behind the front
C – At the surface position of the front
D – At the junction of the occlusion
1939id9262. What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front?
A – Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS begin
B – At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front
C – At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CB
D – At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km
thickening AS
1940id9265. What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central
Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0oC, and freezing rain
starts to fall?
A – Cold occlusions
B – Warm fronts, warm occlusions
C – High level cold fronts
D – Cold fronts

Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross
section to be expected?
A – Track B-C
B – Track B-D
C – Track A-D
D – Track A-E
1942id9268. What type of front/occlusion usually moves the fastest?

A – Cold front
B – Warm front
C – Cold occlusion
D – Warm occlusion
1943id9272. (Refer to figure 050-47)This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 0600
UTC on May 4. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Geneva
Airport?
A – TAF LSGG 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN
018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025=
B – TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 –RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG
0810 5000 RA BKN 020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030
BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090=
C – TAF LSGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013
25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or +SHRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316
VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100=
D – TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG 0811
23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000
TSRA BKN020CB =
1944id9274. During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of clouds:
Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. Which of the following
are you most likely to encounter?
A – Strong, gusty winds
B – Decreasing temperatures
C – A strong down draught
D – Increasing temperatures
1945id9275. In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air:
A – behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm air at a high
altitude
B – in front of the surface position of front is only at a high altitude
C – behind is colder than the cold air in front
D – behind is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at a
high altitude
1946id9287. An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a
depression, which is moving from West to East. The centre of the
depression passes to the South of the observer. For this observer the wind
direction is:
A – continuously veering
B – continuously backing
C – initially backing, then veering
D – initially veering, then backing

Where might we find the warmest air?
A–B
B–C
C–A
D–D
1948id9298. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground
as an active cold front is passing?
A – It will first increase then decrease

B – It will remain unchanged
C – It will first decrease then increase
D – It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet
1949id9303. What characterises a stationary front?

A – The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front
B – The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
C – The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
D – The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those
of an intense cold front and those of a warm and very active front

Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross section
shown on the left?
A – Track B-A
B – Track C-A
C – Track D-A
D – Track B-C
1951id9307. When do cold occlusions occur more frequently in Europe?

A – Summer
B – Winter
C – Autumn and winter
D – Winter and spring

What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour?
A – Approximately constant pressure
B – A drop in pressure
C – Irregular fluctuations
D – A rise in pressure
1953id9312. The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:

A – 1/50
B – 1/150
C – 1/300
D – 1/500
1954id9314. What is the relative movement of the two air masses along a cold front?
A – Cold air slides over a warm air mass
B – Warm air pushes over a cold air mass
C – Cold air pushes under a warm air mass
D – Warm air pushes under a cold air mass
1955id9319. What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?
A – A low on lee side of a mountain

B – A cold air pool
C – Polar front low
D – Heat low
1956id9320. At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east
generally, at their most southerly position?
A – Autumn
B – Summer
C – Spring
D – Winter
1957id9322. What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical
maritime air, during the summer?
A – Very good (greater than 50 km)
B – Very poor (less than 1 km)
C – Good (greater than 10 km)
D – Moderate (several km)
1958id9328. On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching:

A – QFE increases and QNH decreases
B – QFE and QNH increase
C – QFE and QNH decrease
D – QFE decreases and QNH increases
1959id9330. In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?
A – In the direction of the warm sector isobars
B – In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front
C – In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase
D – In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front
1960id9332. How do air masses move at a warm front?
A – Cold air over rides a warm air mass
B – Warm air over rides a cold air mass
C – Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
D – Warm air undercuts a cold air mass

Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar
frontal wave have moved?
A – Position 4
B – Position 3
C – Position 1
D – Position 2
1962id9334. What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over
Central Europe in the summer?
A – BKN CU and CB
B – Fair weather CU
C – Sky clear
D – ST with drizzle
during the period following the passage of an active cold front?
A – It will have increased
C – It will have decreased
D – It will show a small increase or decrease
1964id10258. In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered?

A – Ahead of a warm front in the winter
B – Ahead of a cold front in the winter
C – Behind a warm front in the summer
D – Ahead of a cold front in the summer
1965id10262. In which main direction does a polar front depression move?

A – Along the front towards the east
B – Along the front towards the west
C – Across the front towards the north
D – Across the front towards the south
1966id10270. The polar front is the boundary between:

A – maritime polar aid and continental polar air
B – arctic air and polar air
C – arctic air and tropical air
D – polar air and tropical air
1967id10271. What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air
mass over rides a cold air mass?
A – Cumulus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Altostratus
D – Cumulonimbus
shortly before an active cold front passes?
A – It will be decreasing
C – It will be increasing
D – It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet

Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the
straight line A-B?
A–1
B–3
C–2
D–4
1970id10278. Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if:

A – the cold air is convectively stable
B – the cold air is convectively unstable
C – the warm air is convectively unstable
D – the warm air is convectively stable
1971id10279. Read this description:

“After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign yesterday
evening for the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down outside.
The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey; but at
least it has become a little bit warmer.”
Which of these weather phenomena is being described?
A – A warm front
B – A blizzard
C – Weather at the back of a cold front
D – A cold front
1972id10281. A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you
expect?
A – Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within
the warm sector the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the
cold front
B – Continuous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of
some 24 hours
C – Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the
warm sector within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold
front
D – Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The
precipitation stops for several hours within the warm sector. On the
arrival of the cold front, showers within a couple of hours
1973id10282. After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the cold
air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in
temperature?
A – A decrease in head wind
B – A backing in the wind direction
C – An increase in tail wind
D- A veering in the wind direction
1974id10284. The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm
front is the:
A – saturation of the warm air by rain falling into it and evaporating
B – saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating
C – reduction of outgoing radiation due to clouds
D – warm air moving over a cold surface
1975id10286. What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?
A – Showers associated with thunderstorms
B – Freezing rain
C – Light to moderate continuous rain
D – Drizzle
1976id15867. A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:

A – in an air mass with cold mass properties
B – behind of a stationary front
C – ahead of a cold front
D – at an occluded front
1977id16354. Ahead of a warm front:

A – winds back and increase with height
B – wind back slightly but veer on passage and increase with height
C – winds veer and decrease with height
D – winds back and decrease with height
1978id16361. Jets are very rare near occluded front because:

A – the air is too cold across the fronts
B – the air is too warm across the fronts
C – there is not enough pressure difference across the fronts
D – there is not enough temperature difference across the fronts
1979id16366. The boundary between polar and tropical air is known as:
A – Tropical front
B – Cold front
C – Warm front
D – Polar front
1980id16427. If cold air is being “replaced” by warm air, the boundary between the air
masses is called:
A – a warm front
B – a cold front
C – a polar front
D – an arctic front
1981id16430. Which one of the following alternatives indicates how an occluded front is
generated?
A – warm air supersedes cold air
B – cold air wedges under warm air
C – a cold front overtakes a warm front and the warm air between the fronts is
lifted
D – a cold front is halted and becomes almost stationary
1982id16432. When flying through a cold front in the summer, the following flying weather may be
expected:
A – towering clouds with showery precipitation
B – horizontally extended clouds with drizzle
C – horizontally extended clouds with even tops and bases
D – towering clouds without turbulence
1983id16434. The passage of a cold front over a meteorological station will result in:
A – a steady fall in pressure and a backing of the surface wind
B – a steady rise in pressure and a veering of the surface wind
C – a steady fall in pressure and a veering of the surface wind
D – a steady rise in pressure and a backing of the surface wind
1984id16435. The mean position of the polar front in the North Atlantic is:
A – from Florida to SW UK in July
B – from Florida to North of the UK in January
C – from north of UK to Newfoundland in July
D – from SW UK to Newfoundland in January

The diagram of the system in annex represents a
A – cold occlusion
B – warm occlusion
C – warm front
D – cold front
1986id24210. A gust front is:

A – normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
B – formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
C – characterised by heavy lightning
D – another name for a cold front
1987id24218. A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a
depression. The centre of the depression passes from west to east and south of
the observer. For this observer the wind:
A – backs
B – veers
C – initially veers, then backs
D – initially backs, then veers
1988id24241. An occlusion has the characteristics of a warm front when:

A – the cold air behind is colder than the cold air ahead
B – the cold air behind is warmer than the cold air ahead
C – the cold air behind is lifted by the warm air
D – the cold air ahead is lifted
1989id24242. An occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air:

A – at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead, with the warm
air at a higher altitude
B – ahead of the surface position of the occlusion is only at a higher altitude
C – at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead
D – at the rear of the occlusion is less cold that the cold air ahead, with the
warm air at a higher altitude
1990id24247. At a cold front:

A – warm air is lifted as cooler air pushes under it
B – warm air is compressed as cold air rises over it
C – temperature rises owing to increased pressure
D – fog will form from the interaction of cold and warm air
1991id24248. At a station at the surface the significant weather with a warm front will come:
A – after the warm sector has passed
B – only at the same time as the front passes
C – after the front has passed
D – mostly before the front passes
1992id24266. During the passage of a front in the northern hemisphere the wind veers. This statement
is:
A – not true
B – only true for the passage of a cold front
C – only true for the passage of a warm front
D – true
1993id24295. In the northern hemisphere advection of warm air aloft indicates:

A – the approach of a warm occlusion
B – backing winds with increasing heights
C – increasing probability for showers
D – the formation of advection fog
1994id24324. The air mass in the warm sector of a polar front is:
A – arctic air
B – polar air
C – tropical air
D – equatorial air
1995id24326. The arctic front is the boundary between:

A – arctic air and tropical air
B – polar air and tropical air
C – cold polar air and less cold polar air
D – polar air and arctic air
1996id24330. The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and
cirrostratus, and altostratus. The sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens
and drizzle or rain begins to fall. The cloud base is lowering as Nimbostratus
arrives. These phenomena:
A – warm front
B – cold front
C – trade wind front
D – sea breeze front
1997id24332. The following sequence of clouds is observed at an airport; cirrus, cirrostratus,

altostratus, nimbostratus. This is typical for:
A – the passage of a squall line
B – the passage of a cold front
C – anti-cyclonic weather
D – the passage of a warm front
1998id24338. The lowest cloud type observed is Stratus fractus and there is moderate
continuous rain. The area of the system in which you are at this moment is:
A – behind the cold front
B – the main body of the warm or cold front, or of the occlusion
C – the warm sector
D – the high pressure area
1999id24342. The passage of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types of fog just in
advance and just after the passage are respectively
A – arctic smoke and frontal fog
B – advection fog and radiation fog
C – frontal fog and advection fog
D – advection fog and steaming fog
2000id24347. The reason for the fact, that the atmospheric pressure of a polar front
depression is normally lower in winter than in summer is that
A – converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter
B – the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter
C – the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the
development of lows
D – the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much
greater in winter
2001id24348. The slope and speed of a warm front compared to the slope and speed of a
cold front is in general:
A – smaller and slower
B – greater and faster
C – greater and slower
D – smaller and faster
PH: +916366581234, +916366591234
2002id24396. When a front has to cross a chain of mountains, its activity:

A – strengthens “upwind” of the mountains
B – decreases when it reaches the mountains
C – is not disturbed by the mountains
D – ceases immediately
2003id24406. Where is the projection of the polar front jet stream on the surface most likely to be
found in relation to the cold and warm fronts of a depression?
A – 30 to 450 NM behind the cold front and 50 to 200 NM ahead of the warm
front
B – Up to 100 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side
of the warm front
C – Up to 200 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side
of the warm front
D – 50 to 200 NM behind the cold front and 300 to 450 NM ahead of the
warm front
2004id24438. Which statement concerning the cold front and warm front of a frontal
depression in the northern hemisphere is correct?
A – The precipitation zone of the cold front is in general wider than the
precipitation zone of the warm front
B – The risk of fog is greater ahead of and behind the warm front than ahead
of and behind the cold front
C – While occluding the warm front always becomes a front aloft
D – The wind backs more at the warm front than at the cold front
2005id24443. Which statement is correct for a warm occlusion?
A – The warm front overtakes the cold front
B – The cold front becomes a front aloft
C – The warm front becomes a front aloft
D – Both fronts become fronts aloft
2006id9353. In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually
predominate over the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN and the
adjoining land areas during the northern summer?
A – Greenland, SW Europe, NE Canada
B – Greenland, Azores, NE Canada
C – Iceland, SW USA, Azores
D – Azores, SE USA, SW Europe
2007id9367. Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following
statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic
region between 30oN and 65oN. During winter the predominant mean low
pressure system at the surface is usually centred over:
A – USA
B – Iceland/Greenland
C – Siberia
D – Azores
2008id9391. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN together with the adjacent
land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at the surface is:
A – Azores, Siberia
B – Siberia, Iceland, Canaries
C – NE Canada, Iceland
D – Greenland, Iberian peninsula
2009id9405. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN and the
adjacent land areas during mid summer, the predominant pressure systems are:
A – weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian high
B – Scandinavian high and Azores high
C – Azores high and weak low over NE Canada
D – Azores low and Icelandic high
2010id9344. In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land
during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone?
A – NS
B – TS, SH
C – CB, TS
D – Calm winds, haze
2011id9348. If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a:
A – cold low
B – warm high
C – cold high
D – warm low
2012id9358. The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by:

A – convection
B – subsidence
C – a decrease in temperature
D – a decrease in pressure
2013id9362. Subsidence is:

A – vertically upwards motion of air
B – horizontal motion of air
C – vertically downwards motion of air
D – the same as convection
2014id9390. The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in
the mid-latitudes is called:
A – subsidence inversion
B – friction inversion
C – radiation inversion
D – trade wind inversion
2015id9399. A blocking anti-cyclone on the northern hemisphere is:
A – a warm anti-cyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN

B – quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone
C – situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions
D – a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia
2016id9410. What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region
overland in the winter?
A – Thunderstorms
B – A tendency for fog and low ST
C – NS with continuous rain
D – The possibility of snow showers
2017id9415. What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?
A – Instability
B – Rising air
C – Sinking air
D – Divergence at higher levels
2018id9416. Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it:
A – reaches warmer layers
B – is heated by compression
C – is heated by expansion
D – loses water vapour
2019id9420. What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure
area?
A – Convection
B – Convergence
C – Advection
D – Subsidence
2020id16433. Polar air moving south will become:

A – increasingly stable
B – increasingly unstable
D – it depends on the humidity
2021id24206. A blocking anti-cyclone in the northern hemisphere is:

A – quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone
B – a warm anti-cyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN
C – situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions
D – a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia
2022id24263. During summer an anti-cyclone covers the British isles giving mainly clear
skies. At 0600 UTC a south coast airfield in Southern England reports a
surface wind of 350/06. The coastline at the airfield perimeter is aligned in an
east/west direction. During:
A – back to NW and strengthen by mid afternoon

B – become southerly to south westerly and increase in velocity by afternoon
C – increase from the north by mid morning becoming calm towards evening
D – veer to easterly before becoming calm by the afternoon
2023id24399. When flying at 5000 feet in the northern hemisphere over plains (flat country) with an
anti-cyclone on the left and a depression on the right, the wind will be:
A – from the right
B – from the left
C – a head wind
D – a tail wind
2024id24457. You are flying in the northern hemisphere at 2000 ft over a flat country area. An anti-
cyclone is ahead of you and a depression is behind you. The wind
affecting you, will be:
A – from your right
B – from your left
C – from ahead
D – from behind
2025id9349. Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?
A – It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense
B – It tends to move round the primary in an anti-cyclonic sense
C – It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary
D – It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary
2026id9352. What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?
A – Divergence with lifting
B – Divergence with descending air
C – Convergence with lifting
D – Convergence with descending air
2027id9366. With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the
weather likely to be experienced is:
A – strong wind shear, convection and snow showers
B – light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling
C – strong wind with subsidence at low levels
D – strong wind associated with an almost clear sky
2028id9392. How do you recognise a cold air pool?

A – A cold air pool may only be recognised on the surface chart as a low
pressure area
B – As a high pressure area aloft (eg. On the 500 hPa chart)
C – As a low pressure area aloft (eg. On the 500 hPa chart)
D – A cold air pool may only be recognised on the surface chart as a high
pressure area
2029id9395. What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool?
A – Nothing (CAVOK)
B – Strong westerly winds
C – Fine weather CU
D – Showers and thunderstorms
2030id9407. A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of:
A – divergence and subsidence

B – convergence and widespread ascent
C – divergence and widespread ascent
D – convergence and subsidence
2031id9408. Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal thermal
depression because of:
A – surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread
descent of air in the depression
B – surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread
descent of air in the depression
C – surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread
ascent of air in the depression
D – surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread
ascent of air in the depression
2032id9412. Which is true of a typical non-frontal thermal depression?

A – It forms over the ocean in summer
B – It forms over land in summer
C – It forms over the ocean in winter
D – It forms over land in winter
2033id24208. A cold air pool:

A – occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is
under the influence of cold north westerly air stream
B – develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime
arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an
extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems
C – normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
D – is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the
middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart
2034id24256. Cold air pools:

A – only occur in winter
B – can easily be recognised on synoptic surface charts
C – only occur at mid-latitudes
D – are most evident in the temperature and wind fields of the upper levels
2035id9339. What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, could indicate the presenceof a
tropical revolving storm?
A – NS spread over a large area
B – Frequent SC
C – Excessive accumulation of CU
D – Dense C1
2036id9345. What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Caribbean area?
A – West in the earlier stages and later turning north east
B – East then south
C – West deep into the USA
D – West in the earlier stages and later turning south east
2037id9354. What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving storm?

A – The equatorial jet stream
B – Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and subtropical
high pressure belt
C – Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes
D – Latent heat released from condensing water vapour
2038id9355. During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean?

A – January until April
B – October until January
C – July until November
D – April until July
2039id9363. On which coast of North America is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?
A – NE coast
B – W coast
C – N coast
D – SE coast
2040id9364. When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central
north coast of Australia?
A – December to April
B – May to July
C – August to October
D – Not experienced at Darwin
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
2041id9369. During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern
hemisphere?
A – All seasons
B – Winter
C – Winter and spring
D – Summer and autumn
2042id9376. Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the south-east Pacific and the south Atlantic
because:
A – there is no coriolis force present
B – of the low water temperature
C – of the strong southeast wind
D – the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern hemisphere
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
2043id9379. Why to tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the
tropical oceans?
A – Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and
sea
B – Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive wind shear
with increase of height
C – Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds
long sea passage
D – Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary
circulation
2044id9380. What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane in the Caribbean area?
A – West in the earlier stages and later south east
B – East
C – West deep into the US
D – West in the earlier stages and later north east
2045id9388. The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is:
A – the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh
B – the Caribbean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south east
coastline of the USA
C – the south western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the
island of Reunion
D – the north west Pacific, affecting Japan, Taiwan, Korea and the Chinese
coastline

The arrows labelled “U” represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms
which occur mainly from:
A – January to March and are called willy willies
B – July to October and are called typhoons
C – May to July and are called cyclones
D – December to April and are called tornadoes
2047id9402. Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?

A – From the earth’s surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its
surroundings
B – They intensify rapidly after landfall
C – The diameter is 50-500m
D – Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter
2048id9403. At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern
islands of Japan?
A – January to May
B – September to January
C – July to November
D – May to July

The arrows labelled “S” represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms
A – December to April and are called cyclones
B – May to November and are called cyclones
C – May to November and are called hurricanes
D – December to April and are called typhoons
2050id9411. (Refer to figue 050-18)

The arrows labelled “R” represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms
A – June to October and are called typhoons
B – December to April and are called tornadoes
C – December to April and are called cyclones
D – June to October and are called hurricanes
2051id9419. Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical revolving storm?

A – Anywhere in the eye
B – In the wall of clouds around the eye
C – In the centre of the eye
D – About 600 km away from the eye
2052id9468. The reason for the fact that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in summer
is that:
A – the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the
development of lows
B – the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter
C – the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much
greater in winter
D – converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter
2053id9473. What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the
equatorial region?
A – Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain
occurs also. The greatest intensity is in July
B – Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the
same throughout the year
C – Rain showers, hail showers and thunder storms occur the whole year, but
frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and October-
November
D – Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year; the frequency is highest
in January
2054id10312. At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of
prevailing westerlies?
A – 50oN
B – 10oN
C – 30oN
D – 80oN
2055id24257. Considering the North Atlantic area north of 60oN during winter, the mean
height of the tropopause is approximately:
A – 37000 ft
B – 56000 ft
C – 29000 ft
D – 20000 ft
2056id24258. Considering the North Atlantic at latitude 50oN during winter, the mean
height of the tropopause is approximately
A – 23000 ft
B – 31000 ft
C – 43000 ft
D – 54000 ft
2057id24260. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN, the mean
position of the polar front during summer extends from:
A – Florida to SW England
B – Newfoundland to N Scotland
C – NE Canada to Iceland
D – Greenland to Spain
2058id9435. What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon
regions of the Indian sub-continent?
A – North easterly winds bringing dry and hazy air
B – South westerly winds carrying warm and humid air
C – North westerly winds bringing dry and hazy air
D – South easterly winds carrying warm and humid air
2059id9456. Which one of the following statements regarding the inter-tropical convergence zone
(ITCZ) is correct?
A – The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the year
B – Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ
C – The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream
D – Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area
of the ITCZ
2060id9457. The inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects:
A – western Africa, at a latitude of 25oN in July

B – western Africa between 10o and 20oN and the northern coasts of the
Arabian sea in July
C – the Atlantic ocean, between latitudes of 10oN and 30oN depending on the
time of year
D – western Africa, where it is situated between the 10oN and 30oN parallels,
depending on the time of the year
2061id9463. Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?
A – SE trade winds and NE trade winds
B – SW monsoon and NW monsoon
C – SW monsoon and NW trade winds
D – NW monsoon and SW trade winds
2062id9470. Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct?

A – They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the
continents
B – They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced
over the oceans
C – They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceans
D – They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more
pronounced over the continents
2063id9475. Weather conditions at Bombay during January are mainly influenced by the:
A – SW monsoon
B – NE monsoon
C – NW monsoon
D – SE monsoon
2064id9479. In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?

A – In October
B – In June
C – In December
D – In March
2065id9481. An easterly wave is a:

A – wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe
convective activity in rear of its trough
B – wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east
to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
C – small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west,
with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
D – disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet,
moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its
trough

What weather conditions are most likely to affect an approach to Dakar during July?
A – Reduced visibility due to the rising sand of the Harmattan
B – Dry and clear due to the influence of the Azores high pressure system
C – Generally clear skies – NW trade winds
D – Wet and thundery due to the proximity of inter-tropical convergence zone
(ITCZ)
2067id9486. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of the ITCZ in
the region of West Africa?
A – It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5oS in January
B – It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15o – 20oN in July
C – It oscillates during the year between 10oN and 10oS
D – It oscillates during the year between the Equator and 10oN
2068id9490. What name is given to the low level wind system between the sub-tropical high pressure
belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ)?
A – Doldrums
B – Westerly winds
C – Monsoon
D – Trade winds
2069id9519. Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are mainly influenced by the
A – NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZ
B – SW monsoon
C – passage of frontal system generated in the south Indian ocean
D – high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the Persian Gulf
2070id9523. What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?

A – Thunderstorms and rain
B – Continuous rain
C – Clear skies
D – Frontal weather
2071id10297. During July flights from Bangkok (13oN – 100oE) to Karachi (25oN – 67oE) experience
an average tailwind component of 22 kt. In January the same
flights, also operating at FL 370, have an average head wind of 50 kt. What is
the reason for this difference?
A – The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet stream
B – The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual,
favourable conditions
C – The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse
conditions
D – The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional
wind system
2072id10299. Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the:
A – NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January

B – SW monsoon in July and a SE monsoon in January
C – SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in January
D – SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January
2073id10300. Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be
encountered?
A – At the latitudes of Algeria
B – Near the Canary Islands
C – At the latitudes of Gibraltar
D – In the vicinity of Dakar
2074id10302. From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
A–N
B – NE
C – SW
D – SE
2075id10307. When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?

A – March to May and October to November
B – December to February and July to October
C – March to May and August to October
D – April to July and December to February
2076id10316. The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in:

A – September, October, November
B – July, August, September
C – December, January, February
D – February, March, April
2077id10328. What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India?
A – Fog
B – Stratus clouds and drizzle
C – Sandstorms
D – Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain
2078id10333. In which of the following bands of latitude is the inter-tropical convergence zone most
likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de
Janeiro?
A – 8o – 12oS
B – 3o – 8oS
C – 0o – 7oN
D – 7o – 12oN
2079id10334. Which of the following best describes the inter-tropical convergence zone?
A – The zone where the Harmattan meets the north easterly trade winds over
Africa
B – The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of
the southern hemisphere
C – The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics
D – The zone where the west winds meet the sub-tropical high pressure belt
2080id10337. What is the name of the wind or air mass which gives to the main part of India its
greatest proportion of precipitation?
A – Indian, maritime tropical air mass
B – South east trade wind
C – South west monsoon
D – Winter monsoon

Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE trade
winds are applicable to zone:
A–U
B–T
C–V
D–W
2082id16333. In January, mean high pressure areas are usually present over:
A – the Aleutians, Australia, South America
B – the Azores, Siberia, the South Pacific
C – the South Pacific, the Azores, Australia
D – Greenland, Siberia, North West Australia
2083id16334. Which of the following statements concerning the ITCZ is correct?

A – In the southern summer it is normally positioned entirely south of the
equator
B – Its furthest displacement from the equator is normally about 45oS
C – It is normally fed with converging northern and southern trade winds
D – Its associated weather is invariably strong convergence and heavy
cumuliform cloud
2084id16336. The Doldrums are:

A – another name for the sub-tropical anti-cyclones
B – cold between weak fronts encountered in low latitudes
C – weak inter-tropical convergence zones
D – associated with light and variable monsoon winds

Considering the sector from 10oN to Nairobi of the route indicated, during
January the upper winds at the 300 hPa level are most likely to be:
A – westerlies in excess of 60 kt
B – easterly jet streams in excess of 70 kt
C – light easterlies
D – westerlies at 40 kt

The arrows labelled “t” represents the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms
A – June to October and are called cyclones
B – December to April and are called hurricanes
C – June to October and are called tornadoes
D – June to October and are called hurricanes

Considering that portion of the route indicated from 30oE to 50oE, the upper
winds in January above FL 300 are most likely to be:
A – a sub-tropical westerly jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
B – a westerly polar front jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
C – variable in direction and less than 30 kt
D – light easterlies
2088id24135. (Refer to figue 050-61)

Which is true of Nairobi (Kenya)?
A – There are two wet seasons
B – Apart from the wet season(s) it is cloud and rain free
C – There is one wet season
D – In July it is frequently affected by clear skies and northerly winds from
North Africa

The typical weather conditions affecting the Darwin area during July are:
A – NE monsoon – continuous heavy rain but little thunder storm activity
B – dry season – mainly SE winds – visibility reduced by dust and haze
C – NW monsoon – very wet – proximity of the inter-tropical convergence
zone causes widespread thunderstorm activity
D – mainly clear skies – advection fog drifting inland with the typical NE
wind
2090id24265. During the approach to Bombay (19oN – 73oE) on the west coast of India,
you are listening to the ATIS on 15 July at 0700 T. Which of the following
reports is most likely?
A – 25014KT 4500 SHRA SCT015 BKN025CB 25/24 Q1006 NOSIG =
B – 05013KT 3500 MIFG SCT003 BKN005 19/14 Q1012 BECMG 8000 =
C – 02005KT CAVOK 24/09 Q1030 NOSIG =
D – 30012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT200 20/16 Q1025 BECMG 4000 BR =
2091id24310. On the West coast of India it can be said in general that the wind blows:
A – the whole year from the North East
B – for six months from the North West and for six months from the South
East
C – for six months from the North East and for six months from the South
West
D – the whole year from the South East
2092id24312. Over which areas can tropical cyclones occur?

A – Australia, Gulf of Bengal, Atlantic Ocean at 20oS
B – India, Arabic Sea, Atlantic Ocean at 2oS
C – Caribbean Sea, Gulf of Bengal, Indian Ocean East of Madagascar
D – Caribbean Sea, Indian Ocean at 20oS, Pacific Ocean at 2oN
2093id24404. Where do the trade winds blow?

A – At the equator
B – Between the “horse latitudes” and the mid latitudes
C – Between the “horse latitudes” and the equatorial highs
D – Between the “horse latitudes” and the doldrums
2094id9446. A cold pool:

A – normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
B – develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime
arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an
extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems
C – is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the
middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart
D – occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is
under the influence of cold north westerly air stream
2095id9458. Which of the following statements concerning the inter-tropical convergence zone is true?
A – There are frequent occurrences of CB
B – It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern
hemisphere in January
C – It does not change its position over the oceans during the year
D – It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity

Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart? (spacing of the
isobars: 5 hPa)
A – Uniform pressure pattern
B – Cutting wind
C – West wind condition
D – Warm south and condition (Foehn)
Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for northern Italy?
A – Westerly wind
B – Warm southerly wind
C – High pressure
D – Easterly wind
2098id10304. With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the indication
of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over
a period of about ten minutes?
A – Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small
B – Increase rapidly
C – Show strong fluctuations
D – Decrease rapidly

Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for the area of Central
Europe?
A – Westerly waves
B – Uniform pressure pattern
C – Cutting wind
D – Easterly waves

A – In winter the Savannah climatic region is governed by the equatorial rains
B – Trade wind seldom extend much above 5000 feet
C – The outflow of air from the Siberian high over northern China and Japan
is initially north westerly
D – The easterly jet stream normally appears at the 200 mb level
zone “x” is an area of:
A – NE trade winds
B – travelling low pressure systems
C – sub-tropical high pressure systems
D – the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
2102id24287. In mid-latitudes, the tops of Cumulus are often limited by:

A – a radiation inversion
B – a layer of unstable air
C – a temperature inversion
D – the tropopause
2103id24337. The length, width and height of a typical mid-latitude jet stream are
respectively:
A – 1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 30000 feet

B – 1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 18000 feet
C – 1000 nautical miles, 5000 to 8000 feet, 30000 feet
D – 200 nautical miles, 5 nautical miles, 18000 feet
2104id24437. Which statement about hurricanes in the North Atlantic is correct?

A – Their eye can be well observed by weather satellite
B – They intensify after landfall
C – They move towards the equator
D – They move with a speed of at least 60 kt
2105id9429. The Chinook is a:

A – warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the
Rocky Mountains
B – very cold wind with blowing snow
C – down slope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools along
mountain slopes
D – warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers
2106id9430. What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a
certain part of Europe?
A – Bora
B – Foehn
C – Mistral
D – Typhoon
2107id9441. Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with
stormy winds from the south (Foehn)?
A – Good visibility, turbulence
B – Continuous precipitation, severe turbulence
C – Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icing
D – Icing, huge mass of clouds
2108id9449. A dry sand and dust laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of
North West Africa is known as a:
A – Scirocco
B – Harmattan
C – Pampero
D – Khamsin
2109id9451. For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?
A – Sand up to FL 150
B – Thunderstorms
C – Dust and poor visibility
D – Hail
2110id9466. What are the characteristics of the Bora?
A – It is a warm and moist, south westerly wind experienced in the eastern

Mediterranean, that usually carries precipitation
B – It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter fro a north westerly
direction in the Mediterranean
C – It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a table
and downwards to the Adriatic
D – It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara desert, that
often carries dust
2111id9474. (Refer to figure 050-41)?

Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the following statements is
likely to apply?
A – Severe gradient wind likely over Central Europe
B – Thunderstorms may occur in the summer months over Central Europe
C – Moderate to strong Foehn in the Alps
D – Radiation fog is unlikely in Central Europe in the winter
2112id9488. Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no

precipitation?
A – The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south
B – The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north
C – Frontal zones
D – Occlusions
2113id9495. What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with
Foehn from south?
A – Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the Alps
B – Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the Alps
C – Strong north winds on the southern side of the Alps
D – Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps
2114id9507. The Foehn wind is a:

A – warm anabatic wind
B – cold fall wind
C – warm fall wind
D – cold anabatic wind
2115id9524. What is characteristic of the pamperos?

A – Foehn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees
B – Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountains
C – A marked advance of cold arctic air in Northern America
D – A marked advance of cold air in South America
2116id9527. What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic
coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
A – Mistral
B – Ghibli
C – Bora
D – Scirocco
2117id9747. What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate?

A – Because the Earth’s spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the
Sun
B – Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year
C – Because the Earth’s orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the
time of the year
D – Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar
Year
2118id9808. At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly?
A – Spring Equinox and Autumn Equinox
B – Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice
C – Spring Equinox and Summer Solstice
D – Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice
2119id10301. A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air over
hills or mountains is known as a:
A – Bora
B – Harmattan
C – Mistral
D – Foehn

Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a:
A – warm southerly dust bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa
B – SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the
West African coast south of 15oN
C – NE wind affecting north west Africa during November to April reducing
visibility in rising dust
D – localised depression giving squally winds
2121id10329. A Foehn wind occurs on the:
A – leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the condensation level
being lower on the leeward side than on the windward side
B – windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heating
C – windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and
reverse air flow
D – leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture
loss by precipitation from cloud
2122id10330. What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain chains?
In the Alps, for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly
wind depending on the weather situation.
A – Foehn
B – Mistral
C – Bora
D – Scirocco
2123id10331. The Bora is a:

A – cold katabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
B – squally warm katabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
C – cold katabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
D – cold katabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers
2124id10336. Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?
A – Harmatan
B – Scirocco
C – Chinook
D – Bora
2125id15829. 8/8 stratus base 200 ft/AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of
France; the QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt. What
change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?
A – Winter: SCT base 3,000 ft/AGL; summer OVC base 500 ft/AGL
B – Winter: OVC base 500 ft/AGL; summer SCT base 3000 ft/AGL
C – Winter: clear sky; summer BKN CB base 1500 ft/AGL
D – Winter: BKN base 2500 ft/AGL; summer BKN base 3500 ft/AGL

Considering the route indicated from Recife to Dakar the mean height of the
tropopause during January is approximately:
A – 56000 ft
B – 43000 ft
C – 36000 ft
D – 29000 ft

Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the SE trade
winds are applicable to zone:
A–t
B–w
C–u
D–v
2128id24104 (Refer to figure 050-99)

Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation the travelling
low pressure systems are applicable to zone:
A – s and y
B – t only
C – t and x
D – u and w
2129id24250. At which height and at what time of the year can an aircraft be affected by the equatorial
jet stream?
A – FL 500 from June to August
B – FL 500 from November to February
C – FL 400 during the winter in the northern hemisphere
D – FL 400 during the winter in the southern hemisphere
2130id24259. Considering the North Atlantic between 30oN and 65oN, the mean position of the polar
front during winter extends from:
A – Florida to SW England
B – Newfoundland to Iceland
C – Iceland to Norway
D – NE Canada to Portugal
2131id24268. For an airfield located in the British Isles, the passage of a warm front will
usually be indicated by:
A – a fall in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind backing and
decreasing
B – rise in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind veers and
decreases
C – rapid improvement in visibility, pressure falling rapidly, wind veering and
increasing
D – rise in temperature, rapid rise in pressure, wind backs and becomes gusty
2132id24271. From summer to winter the polar front jet stream over the North Atlantic
moves:
A – towards the south and the speed increases
B – towards the north and the speed increases
C – towards the south and the speed decreases
D – towards the north and the speed decreases
2133id24290. In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated with sub-
tropical jet streams are usually located
A – below the tropopause at about 300 hPa
B – above the tropopause at about 100 hPa
C – below the tropopause at about 200 hPa
D – above the tropopause at about 250 hPa
2134id24311. Over the Indian Ocean and the Bay of Bengal tropical cyclones are:
A – frequently observed, in the average 15 per year over the Indian Ocean, but
never over the Bay of Bengal
B – rare, in the average one every two years
C – never observed
D – occasionally observed, in the average 12 per year
2135id24325. The air masses that are observed most frequently over western Europe are:
A – polar air and equatorial air

B – arctic air and polar air
C – polar air and tropical air
D – arctic air and tropical air
2136id24327. The average position of the polar front in the northern hemisphere is:
A – more southerly during the summer than during the winter
B – more southerly during the winter than during the summer
C – located near 55oN during the whole year
D – located near 65oN during the whole year
2137id24329. The easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs:

A – only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx 30000 ft
B – only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45000 ft
C – during the whole year in the southern hemisphere
D – during the whole year in the northern hemisphere
2138id24331. The Foehn wind is a:

A – cold katabatic wind
B – warm katabatic wind
C – warm anabatic wind
D – cold anabatic wind
2139id24344. The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the equator
(Gulf of Guinea) is a:
A – SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summer
B – SW monsoon in summer and NE trade wind in winter
C – NE trade wind in summer and SE trade wind in winter
D – NE monsoon in winter and SE trade wind in summer
2140id24350. The SW monsoon starts in the month of:
A – December in southern India to reach Pakistan in May
B – September in Pakistan to reach southern India in November
C – June in southern India to reach Pakistan in July
D – March in southern India to reach Pakistan end of April
2141id24359. Tropical revolving storms are NOT formed in:

A – South Indian Ocean
B – Gulf of Bengal
C – Waters around the Philippines
D – South Atlantic Ocean
2142id24368. What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco?

A – Extension of the Azores high pressure area over the Alps
B – High pressure area over Italy
C – Low pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean
D – High pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean Sea
2143id24393. What type of weather can usually be expected in a polar maritime air mass
over Central Europe in the daytime during summer?
A – Sky clear
B – Continuous rain and poor visibility
C – Drizzle and low stratus
D – Showers and good visibility
2144id24397. When and where is an easterly jet stream likely to be encountered?

A – Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high
B – In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean
C – In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the
Mediterranean to southern Spain
D – In summer from south east Asia extending over southern India to central
Africa
2145id24426. Which of the following statements concerning the variation in wind speed
between summer and winter on the North Atlantic between FL 300 and FL
400 is most correct?
A – The average westerly component is greater in the winter than in the
summer. The latitude of the axis of greatest seasonal wind speed is
further south in winter than in summer
B – The average westerly component remains the same but the axis of greatest
speeds moves south in winter
C – The average westerly component remains the same but the altitude of
greatest wind speed reduces in winter
D – The average westerly component is greater in the summer than in the
winter. The latitude of the axis of greatest wind speed is also further north
in summer than in winter
2146id24439. Which statement concerning the Sirocco is correct?

A – It is a north easterly wind over the western part of North Africa with much
dust and sand
B – It blows from southerly directions and can carry dust and sand which may
reach Europe
C – The carried dust and sand does not reach great heights. This is caused by
the presence of a trade wind inversion
D – It is formed by a strong increase of air pressure over North Africa
2147id24446. Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere?
A – The jet streams are easterly
B – In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing height
C – The wind veers at the passage of a cold front
D – If the wind veers with increasing height then warm air is advected
2148id24449. Which two air masses are most likely to govern weather in western Europe?
A – Continental tropical warm and continental polar cold
B – Maritime tropical warm and maritime polar cold
C – Maritime tropical warm and continental polar cold
D – Maritime polar warm and continental tropical warm
2149id24450. Which type of air mass never occurs over central Europe?
A – Tropical air
B – Arctic air
C – Polar air
D – Equatorial air

Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced
by the zone of:
A – sub-tropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts
originating in the adjacent zone of westerly waves
B – Antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass
between south Australia and Antarctica
C – disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous
succession of fronts resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rain
D – equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the inter-tropical
convergence zone over central Australia
2151id25631. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling
low pressure systems during summer?
A – 45o – 75o
B – 35o – 45o
C – 15o – 25o
D – 10o – 15o
2152id25635. What is the surface visibility most likely to be in a warm sector of maritime tropical air
during a summer afternoon in western Europe?
A – Very poor (less than 1 km)
B – Moderate (several km)
C – Very good (greater than 50 km)
D – Good (greater than 10 km)
2153id9536. Large super cooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an airplane form:
A – rime ice
B – clear ice
C – hoar frost
D – cloudy ice
2154id9537. In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
A – CU
B – SC
C – NS
D – C1
2155id9541. You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air
temperature is -25oC. Which of the following statements is true?
A – If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as

CB is unlikely to form in such cloud
B – Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditions
C – Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions
D – In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air
temperature of -5oC
2156id9548. In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft’s surface?
A - -20oC to -35oC
B - +10oC to 0oC
C – 0oC to -10oC
D - -35oC to -50oC
2157id9568. In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
A – NS
B – AS
C – SC
D – CS
2158id9570. On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5oC. The freezing level Is at 3000
ft/AGL. At 4000 ft/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which
rain is falling. According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an
inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you
expect icing?
A – Yes, between ground level and 3000 ft/AGL
B – Yes, but only between 3000 and 4000 ft/AGL
C – No. flights clear of cloud experience no icing
D – No. absolutely no icing will occur
2159id9581. Which of the following conditions is mot likely to cause airframe icing?
A – PE
B – GR
C – SHSN
D - +FZRA
2160id9595. A small super cooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely:
A – freeze immediately and create rime ice
B – freeze immediately and create clear ice
C – travel back over the wing, creating rime ice
D – travel back over the wing, creating clear ice
2161id9604. While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a
white and rough powder like contamination is detected along the leading edge
of the wing. This contamination is called:
A – Clear ice
B – Rime ice
C – Mixed ice
D – Frost
2162id9608. In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing?

A – Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero
degrees C
B – Flying in dense cirrus clouds
C – Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer
D – Flying in heavy drizzle
2163id9612. Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft
icing is most correct?
A – Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below
minus 12 degrees C
B – Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds
C – A cloud consisting of both super cooled cloud droplets and ice crystals
produces aircraft icing
D – Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud
2164id9615. Hoar frost is most likely to form when:

A – flying inside convective clouds
B – taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion
C – flying inside stratiform clouds
D – flying in super cooled drizzle
2165id9616. Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various
types of ice on an aircraft?
A – Relative humidity inside the cloud
B – Aircraft speed and size of cloud droplets
C – Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil
D – Cloud temperature and droplet size
2166id9618. Freezing fog exists if fog droplets:

A – are frozen
B – are super cooled
C – are freezing very rapidly
D – freeze when temperature falls below zero
2167id9621. Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick
profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The
cloud consists of small super cooled droplets. Which of the following
statements is most correct concerning ice accretion?
A – Aircraft T experiences more icing than S
B – Aircraft S experiences more icing than T
C – Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing
D – Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets
2168id9624. A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and
temperature close to zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect:
A – Reduced visibility and light icing in clouds

B – Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light
icing in clouds
C – A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due
to accumulation of large droplets
D – Turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist
of ice crystals
2169id9626. Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing
when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of super cooled
cloud droplets?
A – Stratocumulus and cirrostratus
B – Altocumulus and altostratus
C – Stratus and cumulonimbus
D – Altostratus and cirrocumulus
2170id10341. At what degree of icing should ICAOs change course and/or altitude
immediately instruction be followed?
A – Light
B – Severe
C – Moderate
D – Extreme
2171id10345. Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of:

A – water vapour
B – large super cooled water drops
C – small super cooled water drops
D – snow
2172id10353. Clear ice is dangerous because it:

A – spreads out and contains many air particles
B – is translucent and only forms at the leading edges
C – is not translucent and forms at the leading edges
D – is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
2173id10358. The most dangerous form of airframe icing is:

A – rime ice
B – hoar frost
C – dry ice
D – clear ice
2174id10368. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of
accumulation?
A – Cirrus clouds
B – Freezing rain
C – Stratus clouds
D – Snow
2175id10373. At what degree of icing should ICAOs change of course and/or altitude
desirable recommendation be followed:
A – Light
B – Moderate
C – Severe
D – Extreme
2176id10376. Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile:

3000 ft 15oC 6000 ft 8oC 10000 ft 1oC 14000 ft -6oC 18000 ft -14oC 24000
ft -26oC. At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing,
in cloud, greatest?
A – FL 80
B – FL 150
C – FL 180
D – FL 220
2177id10377. Clear ice forms as a result of:

A – super cooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process
B – water vapour freezing to the aircraft
C – ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
D – super cooled droplets freezing on impact
2178id10378. Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of:
A – water vapour
B – large super cooled water drops
C – small super cooled water drops
D – snow
2179id10379. How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 ft/AGL, when he is
unable to de-ice nor land?
A – He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability
B – He descends to the warm air layer below
C – He ascends to the cold air layer above
D – He continues to fly at the same altitude
2180id10386. Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a
CB?
A – Close to the freezing level

B – Between -20oC and -30oC
C – Between -2oC and -15oC
D – Between -30oC and -40oC
2181id10391. Glaze or clear ice is formed when super cooled droplets are:
A – small and at a temperature just below freezing
B – large and at a temperature just below freezing
C – small and freeze rapidly
D – of any size at temperatures below -35oC
2182id10392. The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large super cooled drops
that have a temperature of -5oC is most likely to be:
A – clear ice
B – hoar frost
C – rime ice
D – cloudy ice
2183id10430. At what degree of icing can ICAO (no change of course and altitude
necessary) recommendation be followed?
A – Moderate
B – Light
C – Severe
D – Extreme
2184id10435. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of:
A – water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
B – freezing rain striking the aircraft
C – droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing
D – small super cooled droplets striking the aircraft
2185id10442. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe

airframe icing?
A – It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus
formation
B – It always occurs in altostratus cloud
C – It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
D – It will not occur in clear sky conditions
2186id15839. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe

airframe icing?
A – It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus
formation
C – It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
D – It will occur in clear sky conditions
2187id15873. During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze:
A – rapidly and do not spread out
B – slowly and do not spread out
C – slowly and spread out
D – rapidly and spread out
2188id15875. A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when
the temperature profile:
A – coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate
B – indicates temperatures below -40oC
C – indicates temperatures above 3oC
D – intersects the 0oC isotherm twice
2189id16327. The icing in cloud which forms over hills is likely to be more severe than in the same
type of cloud over level terrain because:
A – orographic lifting causes the freezing level to rise and increases the free
water content of the cloud
B – increases the temperature inside the cloud by forcing the release of latent
heat so causing the air to hold more water vapour
C – enforced ascent of air releases more water, which is retailed in the cloud
by the increased upward components
D – adiabatic cooling lowers the freezing level and the water content of the
cloud
2190id16441. Which one of the following statements concerning icing in freezing rain is
correct?
A – A coating of clear ice forms when water vapour sublimates
B – Rime ice forms when large water drops freeze
C – Clear ice forms when large water drops freeze
D – Hoar frost form when small water droplets freeze
2191id16442. One of the most serious consequences of icing on the wings of an aircraft is?
A – The wing construction being unable to bear the increased load
B – Lift becoming too great as the aircraft becomes heavier
C – The lift co-efficient increasing as the aircraft becomes heavier
D – The stalling speed increasing substantially
2192id16443. Icing on the wings of an aircraft normally causes:
A – the stalling speed to increase
B – the stalling speed to decrease
C – the interference drag to increase
D – the interference drag to decrease
2193id16444. A thin coating of hoar frost on the airfoil surface:

A – does not affect take-off performance
B – has deleterious effects on the lift of the wing
C – affects the aspect ratio of the wing
D – only affects stability
2194id16445. Which one of the following precipitation types gives the most severe icing?
A – Snowfall
B – Mixed rain and snow
C – Freezing rain
D – Ice pellets
2195id24226. After a prolonged VMC descent in very cold air, you penetrate a humid air
mass. What type of icing will you encounter?
A – Hoar frost
B – Rime ice
C – Clear ice
D – Smooth icing
2196id24234. An aircraft descends in layered clouds; the freezing level is situated at FL 60. At what
levels is the probability for airframe icing the highest?
A – Between FL 120 and FL 60
B – Between FL 120 and FL 180
C – Between FL 60 and Fl 20
D – At FL 140
2197id24235. An aircraft flies into super cooled rain in an area with a temperature below
0oC. The type of icing it will most likely encounter is
A – granular frost
B – hoar frost
C – rime ice
D – clear ice
2198id24267. For a VFR aircraft, the conditions in which it could encounter severe airframe icing are:
A – flight into an area outside of clouds where the temperature is below 0oC,
resulting in rime ice formation
B – flight into super cooled rain, resulting in rime ice formation
C – flight into freezing rain, resulting in clear ice formation
D – flight between two cloud layers, without precipitation, resulting in clear
ice formation
2199id24278. Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures:

A – between 0oC and -17oC in ST
B – between 0oC and -17oC in AS
C – between 0oC and -23oC in large CU
D – below -40oC in CB
2200id24286. In mature CB’s the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological

rules, is greatest in the following temperature range:
A - -23oC to -40oC
B - +5oC to 0oC
C – 0oC to -23oC
D - -40oC to -60oC
2201id24298. In which conditions would you most likely encounter clear icing, and how
would it normally appear?
A – Cumuliform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -20oC
and 25oC. Appears transparent and tends to take the shape of the surface
on which it freezes
B – Stratiform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -10oC and
–20oC. Appears granular and tends to accumulate forward into the air
stream
C – Cumuliform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures between 0oC and –
15oC. Appears smooth and tends to spread back over an aircraft wing
D – Stratiform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures well below freezing.
Appears opaque and builds forward from leading surface into a sharp edge
2202id24334. The formation of clear ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely to be caused
by the:
A – relatively slow freezing of small super cooled water droplets and ice
crystals
B – instantaneous freezing of small super cooled water droplets
C – instantaneous freezing of large super cooled water droplets and snow
crystals
D – relatively slow freezing of large super cooled water droplets
2203id24340. The most dangerous icing conditions are encountered in:
A – icy clouds at high levels
B – super cooled precipitation
C – unstable clouds at medium levels
D – zones where the air temperature is below -15oC
2204id24360. What are the characteristics of rime ice, and what conditions are most
favourable for its formation?
A – Milky granular appearance, forming on leading edges and accumulating
forward into the air stream. Stratiform clouds at temperatures of -10oC to
-20oC are most conducive to its formation
B – Opague rough appearance, tending to spread back over an aircraft surface.
Most frequently encountered in cumuliform clouds at temperatures
slightly below freezing
C – Smooth appearance and builds forward from leading surfaces into a sharp
edge. Most common in cumuliform clouds at temperatures of -20oC to –
25oC
D – Transparent appearance and tendency to take the shape of the surface on
which it freezes. Stratiform clouds and temperatures only slightly below
freezing promote its formation
2205id24364. What intensity and type of aircraft icing is likely to occur at FL 100 in a
thunderstorm, with the freezing level at 7000 ft?
A – Moderate to severe icing due to clear ice
B – Light icing due to rime ice
C – Moderate to severe icing due to rime ice
D – Light icing due to clear ice
2206id24365. What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when aircraft descends
rapidly from FL 320 (temp -45oC) to FL 60 in warm, moist clear
air?
A – Light or moderate hoar frost
B – Moderate opaque rime
C – Nil ice
D – Light opaque rime and light clear ice
2207id24366. What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when flying at FL 170
in AS with the outside air temperature at -20oC?
A – Moderate – hoar frost
B – Severe – clear
C – Light – rime
D – Moderate – clear

A – Airframe icing can occur in clear air
B – Haze is a reduction of visibility due to the presence of water vapour
C – Mountain waves are always accompanied by rotor clouds
D – Above the tropopause no turbulence occurs
2209id24433. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe

airframe icing?
A – It will not occur in clear sky conditions
C – It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
D – It will occur in the anvil part of the cumulonimbus cloud
2210id25633. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is the evidence that:
A – temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitudes
B – a cold front has passed
C – there are thunderstorms in the area
D – after take-off you can climb to a higher altitude without encountering
more than light icing conditions
2211id9603. What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
A – Decrease of speed
B – Change of course
C – Increase of speed
D – Change of flight level
2212id9625. A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate
gust you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary
measures?
A – Increase the speed/try to descend below the zone of convective currents
B – Increase the speed/try to climb above the zone of convective currents, if
aircraft performance parameters allow
C – Decrease the speed/try to descend below the zone of convective currents
D – Decrease the speed/try to climb above the zone of convective currents if
aircraft performance parameters allow
2213id10360. The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type
Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe clear air
turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
A – The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out
type. The manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even
impossible. For the passengers the flight will be unpleasant
B – The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be
difficult to manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort
C – The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing board
(small scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity,
but will make flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom
notice anything of this turbulence
D – The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the
passengers but the manoeuvring will not be affected essentially
2214id10369. How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?

A – Large, abrupt changes in altitude or altitude occur but the aircraft may
only be out of control momentarily
B – Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without
appreciable changes in altitude or attitude
C – Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive
control at all times
D – Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage
2215id10384. The degree of clear air turbulence experienced by an aircraft is proportional to the:
A – intensity of the solar radiation
B – height of the aircraft
C – stability of the air
D – intensity of vertical and horizontal wind shear
2216id10420. An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and
experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be
at FL 310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by:
A – Climbing
B – Descending
C – Turning right
D – Maintain FL 270
2217id15795. The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in
flight by:
A – a high pressure centre at high level
B – long streaks of cirrus clouds
C – dust or haze at high level
D – a constant outside air temperature
2218id15848. All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience
CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain
against their seat below or shoulder straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged.
Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be
reported as:
A – severe
B – extreme
C – moderate
D – light
2219id16324. Maximum turbulence associated with the standing waves is likely to be:
A – two wavelengths down wind and just above the surface
B – approximately one wavelength down wind of, and approximately level
with, the top of the ridge
C – just below the tropopause above the ridge
D – down the lee side of the ride and along the surface
2220id16346. Possible severe turbulence will be encountered in mountain waves in:

A – roll cloud
B – lenticular cloud
C – at the crest of the mountain
D – on the windward side
2221id16608. Conditions favourable for low-level frictional turbulence are:

A – strong wind, rough terrain, steep lapse rate
B – strong wind, rough terrain, stable lapse rate
C – light wind, rough terrain, stable lapse rate
D – strong wind, smooth terrain, stable lapse rate

Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC. At what flight level
would you first expect to encounter clear air turbulence on the climb out from
Zurich?
A – FL 140
B – FL 160
C – FL 320
D – FL 220

On which of the following routes would you not have to worry about oderate
and/or severe turbulence on the cruising level?
A – Keflavik to Oxlo at FL 220

B – Rome to Frankfurt at FL 320
C – Beirut to Athens at FL 310
D – Madrid to Zurich at FL 280
2224id24212. A layer is conditionally unstable if the air:

A – becomes stable by lifting it
B – is stable for satuated air and unstable for dry air
C – is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air
D – is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air
2225id24301. In which zone of a polar front jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected?
A – Exactly in the centre of the core
B – On the tropical air side of the core
C – On the polar air side of the core
D – About 12000 ft above the core
2226id24318. Stratus formed by turbulence will occur when:

A – the wind speed is greater than 10 kt and the condensation level is situated
just above the turbulent layer
B – the wind speed is less than 10 kt and the air is heated by the earth’s
surface
C – in the friction layer mixing occurs by turbulence and the condensation
level is situated below the top of the turbulent layer
D – absolute instability exists at low level
2227id24341. The most likely place to encounter clear air turbulence associated with a jet
stream is:
A – well below the core
B – close to the core on the side facing the polar air
C – on the tropical side of the core
D – 5000 feet or more above the core
2228id24441. Which statement does correspond to the definition of severe turbulence?

A – Aircraft will be damaged and an emergency landing will be absolutely
necessary
B – Difficulty in walking, occupants feel strain against seat belts, loose objects
move about
C – Aircraft gets out of control and crashes
D – Aircraft may be out of control for short periods occupants are forced
violently against seat belts, loose objects are tossed about
2229id9594. Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to:
A – experience little or no change in speed and direction
B – change in speed but not in direction
C – change in direction but not in speed
D – change significantly in speed and direction
2230id9605. Vertical wind shear is:

A – horizontal variation in the horizontal wind
B – vertical variation in the vertical wind
C – vertical variation in the horizontal wind
D – horizontal variation in the vertical wind
2231id10342. The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered:
A – when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
B – in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kts
C – during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
D – near valleys and at the windward side of mountains
2232id10356. Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest….

A – at the condensation level when there is a stong surface friction
B – at the condensation level when there is no night radiation
C – at the top of the friction layer
D – at he top of a marked surface-based inversion
2233id10417. Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night:
A – and early morning only in summer
B – in unstable atmospheres
C – and early morning only in winter
D – in association with radiation inversions
2234id10431. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?

A – It results in good visual conditions
B – It promotes extensive vertical movement of air
C – It prevents vertical wind shear
D – It promotes vertical wind shear
2235id16326. An important characteristic of wind shear is that:

A – it is encountered most frequently near mountain waves during winter
months
B – it is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of
convergence
C – it only occurs with jet streams
D – it is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level
temperature inversion, a jet stream or a frontal zone
2236id16386. An additional hazard to aircraft taking-off or landing in or near a thunderstorm is:

A – extra turbulence
B – wind shear
C – compass error
D – pilot disorientation

In which squares are conditions most likely to cause the occurrence of low
level wind shear?
A – 3B and 3C
B – 3A and 3B
C – 3A and 3C
D – 3B and 3D
2238id24288. In relation to the polar front jet stream, the greatest rate of wind shear is most likely to
occur
A – on the tropical side of the core
B – well below the core
C – close to the core on the polar side
D – 5000 ft or more above the core
2239id24405. Where does wind shear occur?

A – At any level in the atmosphere if associated with either a change of wind
direction and/or wind speed
B – Wind shear of any significance occurs only in connection with jet streams
C – Wind shear occurs primarily at lower altitudes in the vicinity of mountain
waves
D – Wind shear occurs only when there is a strong temperature inversion, or
when the jet stream is associated with a strong depression
2240id24489. Vertical wind shear is:

A – a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with height
B – a change of vertical wind speed with horizontal distance
C – a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with horizontal
distance
D – a horizontal shear of vertical wind
2241id9531. Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?

A – Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes
B – Frontal thunderstorms
C – Thermal thunderstorms
D – Orographic thunderstorms
2242id9538. Where is a squall line to be expected?

A – At the surface position of a warm front
B – Behind a cold front
C – In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels
D – In front of an active cold front
2243id9539. A microburst phenomenon can arise in the:

A – down-draught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage
B – up-draught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage
C – down-draught of a cumulonimbus at the formation stage
D – up-draught of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage
2244id9547. Which of the following statements describes a microburst?

A – A high speed down burst of air with a generally lower temperature than its
surroundings
B – A high speed down draft of air with a higher temperature than its
surroundings
C – An extremely strong wind gust associated with a troical revolving storm
D – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed
2245id9554. What is a microburst?

A – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high
speeds
B – A concentrated down draft with high speeds and a high temperature than
the surrounding air
C – An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm
D – A concentrated down draft with high speeds and a lower temperature than
the surrounding air
2246id9555. A gust front is:

A – normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
B – formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
C – characterised by heavy lightning
D – another name for a cold front
2247id9574. Continuous up-draughts occur in a thunderstorm during the:

A – dissipating stage
B – mature stage
C – initial stage
D – period in which precipitation is falling
2248id9575. At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection

with a CB?
A – From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450
B – From the ground up to about FL 200
C – From the ground up to about FL 100
D – From the base of the clouds up to FL 200
2249id9577. What are squall lines?

A – Unusual intensive cold fronts
B – Bands of intensive thunderstorms
C – The surface weather associated with upper air troughs
D – The paths of tropical revolving storms
2250id9583. The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of:
A – 8 km and 5-15 minutes
B – 4 km and 30-40 minutes
C – 4 km and 1-5 minutes
D – 12 km and 5-10 minutes
2251id9596. During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll
clouds most likely to occur?
A – Dissipating stage
B – Cumulus stage
C – Mature stage
D – Cumulus stage and mature stage
2252id9607. What are the meteorological pre-requisites, at low level, for thunderstorms
formed by lifting processes over land?
A – Low temperatures, low humidity
B – High air pressure (>1013 hPa), high temperatures
C – High temperatures, high humidity
D – Subsidence, inversion
2253id9622. What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?
A – Strong steady rain
B – Thunderstorms
C – Fog
D – Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels
2254id10343. In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for
thunderstorm formation?
A – Stable conditions and high moisture content
B – Unstable conditions and high moisture content
C – Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
D – Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
2255id10359. How long does a typical microburst last?

A – About 30 minutes
B – Less than 1 minute
C – 1 to 2 hours
D – 1 to 5 minutes
2256id10366. Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land
in moderate latitudes?
A – Occlusion thunderstorms
B – Warm front thunderstorms
C – Cold mass thunderstorms
D – Air mass thunderstorms
2257id10381. In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to
warm updrafts?
A – Mid-afternoon
B – Around midnight
C – Early morning
D – Late morning
2258id10383. Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least
temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A – An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a “Faradays Cage”,

which means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the
result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a shock
B – An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but
the lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be
caused
C – Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew
may be blinded and temporarily lose the hearing
D – Aircraft made by composite material cant conduct a lightning and will
therefore very seldom be struck
2259id10385. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterised

predominantly by down drafts?
B – Cumulus stage
C – Mature stage
D – Anvil stage
2260id10394. What feature is normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm?
A – Frequent lightning
B – Roll cloud
C – Continuous updraft
D – Rain or hail at the surface
2261id10400. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the:

A – dissipating stage
B – cumulus stage
C – mature stage
D – period in which precipitation is not falling
2262id10402. In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up and down
drafts simultaneously?
B – Cumulus stage
C – Mature stage
D – In all stages
2263id10409. A microburst:
A – is always associated with thunderstorms
B – has a life time of more than 30 minutes
C – has a diameter up to 4 km
D- occurs only in tropical areas
2264id10410. The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterised by:
A – rain starting at surface
B – continuous down draughts
C – frequent lightning
D – continuous up draughts
2265id10421. The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight is:
A – cirrus
B – stratocumulus
C – cumulus
D – cumulonimbus
2266id10425. Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indictes upper level

instability which may lead to thunderstorm development?
A – Red cirrus
B – AC lenticularis
C – Halo
D – AC castellanus
2267id10438. Which thunderstorms generally product the most severe conditions, such as
heavy hail and destructive winds?
A – Warm front thunderstorms
B – Squall line thunderstorms
C – Nocturnal air mass thunderstorms
D – Daytime air mass thunderstorms
2268id15817. Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by:

A – frontal occlusion
B – thermal triggering
C – frontal lifting (warm flood)
D – frontal lifting (cold front)
2269id15869. What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

A – A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
B – An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action
C – Water vapour and high pressure
D – A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
2270id15870. In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms

encountered?
A – Sub-tropical
B – Temperate
C – Tropical
D – Polar
2271id15871. Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the:

A – cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry
adiabatic lapse rate
B – warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the
C – cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated
D – warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated
2272id16359. In general terms, an intense contour low will indicate:

A – quiet settled weather
B – changeable weather but getting better
C – heavy rain, hail and thunderstorm
D – no change to the weather
2273id16367. Which of the following is consered to be one of the conditions necessary for
thunderstorm development?
A – A marked temperature inversion extending well above the 0 degree
isotherm
B – ELR less than the DALR extending well above the 0 degree isotherm
C – Instability throughout a deep layer extending well above the 0 degree
isotherm
D – Stability throughout a deep layer extending well above the 0 degree
isotherm
2274id16368. Which of the following conditions are necessary for thunderstorms?

A – Low surface temperatures and high moisture content
B – High moisture content and a trigger action
C – Instability at night
D – Low upper temperatures, and a high 0 degree isotherm
2275id16369. There are two principal types of origin of thunderstorm

A – Air mass thunderstorms and frontal thunderstorms
B – Air mass thunderstorms and heat thunderstorms
C – Convection thunderstorms and frontal thunderstorms
D – Convection thunderstorms and orographic uplift thunderstorms
2276id16372. Air mass thunderstorms are triggered off by:

A – fronts and/or orographic uplift
B – convection at air mass boundaries
C – standing wves in the lee of hills
D – convection and/or orographic uplift
2277id16373. Frontal thunderstorms are triggered off by:

A – rising air dur to falling pressure at air mass boundaries
B – convection by intense daytime heating or cold air moving over a warm
surface
C – rising air due to falling pressure or due to orographic uplift
D – mass ascent over large areas of cold air moving over a warm surface
2278id16374. A thunderstorm has the following stages in its life cycle:

A – cumulus, mature or building and declining
B – building, mature, declining and dissipating
C – cumulus, declining and dissipating
D – cumulus of building, mature and dissipating
2279id16375. The building stage of a thunderstorm last for approximately:

A – 20 min
B – 30 min
C – 20/.30 min
D – 40 min
2280id16376. In the building stage of a thunderstorm, which of the following is true?

A – Only up-currents are present
B – Only down-currents are present
C – Both up-currents and down-currents are present
D – Up-currents and side-currents are present
2281id16377. The mature stage of a thunderstorm lasts for approximately:

A – 15 min
B – 30 min
C – 20/30 min
D – 40 min
2282id16378. Which of the following statements is true with regard to a mature

thunderstorm:
A – both up-currents and down-currents appear concurrently
B – the cloud top assumes an anvil shape
C – water droplets, hail and snow are all present
D – the top of the cloud is negatively charged and the base is positively charged
2283id16379. The final stage of a thunderstorm is reached when:
A – no further electrical charge is developed
B – the lower portion of the cloud dissipates
C – a well developed anvil can be seen
2284id16381. The most common hazards of thunderstorms to aircraft on or near the ground are:
A – lightning and hail
B – heavy precipitation and surfaces squalls
C – turbulence and static
2285id16383. Which types of thunderstorm can be the most difficult to avoid?

A – Mature thunderstorms because they spread over such a wide area
B – Frontal thunderstorms
C – Air mass thunderstorms
D – Low level thunderstorms
2286id16384. Which thunderstorms are the more difficult to forecast and detect?
A – cumulus thunderstorms
B – air mass thunderstorms
C – frontal thunderstorms
D – cumulus thunderstorms because they are smaller
2287id16385. If you cannot avoid penetrating a thunderstorm, which is the best area to
penetrate?
A – The top
B – The middle
C – The bottom
D – The sides
2288id24180. (Refr to figure 050-72)

At which position is the development of thunderstorms most likely, and what
is the maximum height of the CB clouds at 00 UTC?
A – Position C, FL 200
B – Position A, FL 200
C – Position B, FL 270
D – Position D, FL 290
2289id24207. A Cb with thunderstorm has reached the mature stage. Which statement is
correct?
A – The freezing level in the whole cloud lies lower than outside the cloud
B – In temperatures lower than -23oC icing is still possible
C – If hail occurs, it only occurs in down drafts
D – Severe turbulence occurs in the cloud, but hardly ever below the cloud
2290id24215. A microburst with its damaging winds at the surface:

A – has a diameter up to 4 km
B – has a life time of more than 30 minutes
C – is always associated with thunderstorms
D – occurs only in tropical areas
2291id24246. Assuming that an initial “trigger” force is present, the conditions most likely to result in
the formation of thunderstorms are:
A – high surface temperature, low dew point and high dry adiabatic lapse rate
B – high relative humidity and instability throughout a deep layer
C – rapid orographic cooling of cloud containing ice crystals
D – intense surface heating, anti-cyclonic pressure system and relatively high
freezing level
2292id24249. At the surface the lifetime of a typical microburst and the diameter of the area affected
by damaging winds are in the order of:
A – 1-5 minutes and 4 km
B – 30-40 minutes and 4 km
C – 5-15 minutes and 8 km
D – 5-10 minutes and 12 km
2293id24261. Convective weather phenomena include:
A – heavy showers, lightning strikes, hail, mist, squalls, light rain over a large
area
B – thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail, haze, wind gusts, advection fog
C – thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers, lightning
strikes
D – hail, lightning strikes, wind lulls, squalls, stratocumulus, low level wind
maximum
2294id24299. In which of the following situations is the probability for severe thunderstorms the
highest?
A – Advection of continental cold air over a warm land surface
B – Advection of warm air over a cold land surface
C – Advection of maritime cold air over a warm sea surface
D – Advection of maritime warm air over a cold sea surface
2295id24358. Thunderstorms are often preceded by:

A – Altostratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Altocumulus Castellanus
D – Altocumulus Lenticularis
2296id24367. What is a down burst?

A – A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than
the surrounding air
B – A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than
the surrounding air
C – An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm
D – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high
speeds
2297id24373. What is the approximate maximum diameter of a area affected by damaging winds at the
surface caused by a microburst?
A – 20 km
B – 400m
C – 4 km
D – 50 km
2298id24421. Which of the following sets of conditions are most favourable to the
development of thunderstorms?
A – Extensive isothermal layer, ice particles and water droplets must exist just
below the freezing level and orographic lifting
B – Environmenal lapse rate greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate through
a great vertical extent, high relative humidity and an initial lifting process
C – Environmental lapse rate less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate with dew
point below 0oC and considerable surface heating
D – Environmental lapse rate less than dry adiabatic lapse rate with freezing
level below the cloud base, high relative humidity and strong surface
winds
2299id24423. Which of the following situations favours the formation of heavy

thunderstorms?
A – A cold front approaching a mountain range in the evening
B – The passage of a warm front in the morning
C – A cold front on the leeward side of a mountain range
D – A warm sector moving over a snow-covered ground
2300id24424. Which of the following statements about lightnings and lightning strikes is
correct?
A – The aircraft is temporarily part of the lightning trajectory
B – Spherical lightnings often penetrate into aircraft
C – Lightning strikes always cause heavy damage
D – Compasses and electronics are always affected
2301id24436. Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass
thunderstorms?
A – Advection of cold air over a warm sea
B – Mountain waves
C – Advection of warm air over a cold sea
D – Low level wind shear
2302id24445. Which statement is correct for microbursts?

A – They only develop below convective clouds with heavy rain
B – The diameter of the affected area on the surface does not exceed 4 km
C – They occur in the tropics only
D – Their downdraft is warmer than the surroundings
2303id24455. With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only
updraughts of air?
A – Anvil stage
B – Mature stage
C – Initial stage
D – Dissipating stage
2304id9544. The diameter of a typical tornado is:

A – only a few metres
B – 100 to 150 metres
C – about 2 to 6 km
D – in the order of 10 km
2305id9606. At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?
A – Spring, summer
B – Summer, autumn
C – Autumn, winter
D – Winter
2306id10413. With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated?

A – Cumulonimbus
B – Cumulus
C – Stratus
D – Nimbostratus
2307id24320. Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by:
A – terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night
B – an unstable air mass causing convection currents and mixing of the
atmosphere at lower levels
C – gusting winds increasing surface friction during the day with consequent
mixing at the lower levels
D – compression causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform
cloud
2308id24321. Surface-based temperature inversions are common during:

A – cloud free nights in winter when the ground is dry
B – cloud free days in summer when the ground is dry
C – cloudy days in summer when the ground is wet
D – cloudy days in winter when the ground is wet
2309id10352. You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alpa, on a hot summer day,
when the weather is unstable. What is the best time of day to conduct this
flight?
A – Morning
B – Mid day
C – Afternoon
D – Early evening
2310id10380. Which of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stablelayer of air is forced
to rise against a mountain range?
A – Inversions
B – Stratified clouds
C – Showers and thunderstorms
D – Areas of severe turbulence
2311id10398. You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12oC and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150
through 8 octas NS. What type and degree of icing is most
probable?
A – In clouds pushed up against he mountains, moderate to severe rime ice
B – In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice
C – Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice
D – Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost
2312id15811. Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of
mountain waves?
A – Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing
across the mountain ridge
B – Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at lest 30 knots
blowing parallel to the mountain ridge
C – Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing
D – Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing
2313id16325. For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the level of the ridge
should:
A – decrease or even reverse direction
B – increase initially, then decrease
C – increase with little change in direction
D – increase and then reverse in direction
2314id16337. With reference to rotor streaming:

A – It can occur at levels up to 80,000 ft
B – It is a low level phenomenon
C – It is found at approximately the tropopause level
D – It is another name for the rotor zones associated with mountain waves
2315id24305. Mountain waves should be expected:
A – when instability is high
B – on the downwind side of the mountain chain
C – directly over the mountain chain
D – on the upwind side of the mountain chain
2316id24401. When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most
severe turbulence be located?
A – Just below the tropopause
B – Just above the cap cloud
C – On the windward side of the mountain range
D – in the rotor zone
2317id24434. Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves?
A – The absence of cloud over high ground indicates the absence of mountain
waves
B – Mountain waves are not experienced beyond 100 miles downwind from
initiating high ground, regardless of the height of the ground
C – Flight with headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous
than flight with tailwind toward high ground
D – Flight with tailwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous
than flight with headwind toward high ground
2318id24442. Which statement is correct concerning a mountain ridge where a marked

mountain wave has been reported?
A – The atmosphere is unstable at the level of the mountain tops

B – There are always rotor clouds
C – Ragged altocumulus lenticularis is an indication for the presence of
moderate/severe turbulence at the level of these clouds
D – The axis of a rotor is horizontal and perpendicular to the mountains
2319id25632. The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves are:
A – wind direction parallel to the mountain range – wind speed increasing
with height – extensive isothermal layer between mountain crests and the
tropopause
B – wind diretion parallel to the general alignment of the mountain range –
wind speed increasing with height – intense surface heating
C – wind speed less than 15 kt and wind direction at right angles to mountains
– intense radiation cooling at night particularly at the higher levels
D – wind direction approximately at right angles to the mountain range – wind
speed 30 kt and steadily increasing with height – an inversion just above
the crest level with less stable air above and below
2320id9558. In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall compared to during

drizzle is:
A – less
B – the same
C – greater
D – in rain – below 1 km, in drizzle – more than 2 km
2321id9572. Visibility is reduced by haze when:

A – a cold front just passed
B – a light drizzle falls
C – dust particles are trapped below an inversion
D – small water droplets are present
2322id9600. In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface
visibility when:
A – the surface wind is strong and gusty
B – there is a low level inversion
C – cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon
D – a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area
2323id10390. Below a low level inversion visibility is often:

A – moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers
B – very good at night
C – very good in the early morning
D – moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange
2324id10405. Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to
minimal:
A – about 500 metres

B – about 200 metres
C – tens of metres
D – about 1000 metres
2325id10422. In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by:

A – low stratus
B – haze
C – drizzle
D – showers of rain or snow
2326id16575. The solid particles which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:
A – atmospheric pollution, dust, ozone and moisture
B – atmospheric pollution, volcanic fumes, dust and sand
C – atmospheric pollution, dust, sand and spray
D – atmospheric pollution, dust, sand and volcanic ash
2327id16576. The forms of visible water which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:
A – fog, spray, cloud and hail (but only for short periods)
B – cloud, fog, smog, spray or precipitation
C – cloud, fog, mist, spray or smog
D – cloud, fog, mist spray or precipitation
2328id16577. Reduction in visibility due to precipitation depends on:

A – precipitation type and duration
B – precipitation duration and droplet size
C – precipitation intensity and duration
D – precipitation intensity and type
2329id24296. In the weather pattern behind a cold front, the visibility outside precipitation is:
A – low and the precipitation is showers
B – good and the precipitation is steady rain
C – good and the precipitation is showers
D – low and the precipitation is steady rain
2330id24361. What conditions are necessary for vertical visibility to be reported?

A – It is always reported
B – Whenever the sky is obscured by fog or heavy precipitation and the height
of the cloud base cannot be measured
C – Whenever the lowest ceiling is below 1500 ft above ground
D – Whenever the lowest cloud base is below 1500 ft above ground
2331id24400. When fog is reported, the visibility is below:

A – 0.8 km
B – 1 km
C – 1.5 km
D – 3 km
2332id24402. When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is
classified as:
A – fog
B – dust fog
C – haze
D – mist
2333id9660. What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used for?
A – To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations
B – To measure wind currents on the ground
C – To help provide 14-day forecasts
D – To locate precipitation zones
2334id9663. The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an
anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?
A – On the roof of the weather station
B – 1m above the runway
C – Close to the station about 2m above the ground
D – On a mast 6-10m above the runway
2335id9685. While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:
RVR runway 23: 400m This information indicates the:
A – portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways
would see, with runway 23 in service
B – meteorological visibility on runway 23
C – length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on
the threshold of runway 23
D – minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in
service
2336id9710. What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis) and RVR in
homogeneous fog?
A – The met. vis. generally is the same as the RVR
B – The met. vis. generally is greater than the RVR
C – The met. vis. is generally less than the RVR
D – There is no specific relationship between the two
2337id9715. Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?

A – Hail
B – Water vapour
C – Fog
D – Any cloud
2338id10464. When is the RVR reported at most airports?

A – When the RVR decreases below 2000m
B – When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800m
C – When the RVR decreases below 800m
D – When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500m
2339id10493. An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location of:
A – cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by
falls of hail
B – all clouds
C – zones of precipitation, particularly liquid state precipitation, and also their
intensity
D – stratocumulus and its vertical development
2340id10558. Runway Visual Range (RVR) is:

A – measured with ceilometers alongside the runway
B – reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000m
C – reported in TAF and METAR
D – usually better than meteorological visibility
2341id15796. Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the
braking action of a runway?
A – MIFG
B – FG
C – HZ
D - +FZRA
2342id15818. What is a SPECI?

A – An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours
B – A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant
change of the weather conditions have been observed
C – A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours
D – A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when
required

Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the
A – FL 410
B – FL 360
C – FL 330
D – FL 390

Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what
altitude will the freezinglevel above Shannon be found?
A – FL 20
B – FL 140
C – FL 120
D – FL 60
2345id16548. The meaning of RVR is:

A – cross-wind component
B – runway visual range
C – meteorological visibility
D – braking action
2346id16561. Normally, temperature readings are taken at a height of ___ in a Stevenson

Screen:
A – 4 ft (1.25 m)
B – 4m
C – 10m
D – 40cm
2347id16562. A cup ___ and remote transmitting vane form the transmitting head of the
electrical ___ which enables a continuous record of wind direction and speed
to be made on a moving chart.
A – anemograph; anemometer
B – anemometer; barograph
C – anemometer; anemograph
D – barograph; anemometer
2348id16564. The three elements in a cloud report are:

A – amount, cover, height of base
B – type, cover, amount
C – amount, type, height of base
D – type, amount, cloud species
2349id16565. Barometric tendency is measured on ___ and recorded on ___

A – an anemometer; an aneroid barometer
B – an anemograph; an anemometer
C – barograph; aneroid barometer
D – aneroid barometer; barograph
2350id16569. LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN 010 OVC015 TEMPO 1500 + RA
OVC005 FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015
TEMPO 1619 25010 KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30 TEMPO 1619 1500
TSGR BKN007CB
What is the most likely visibility for landing at 1345Z?
A – 4,500m
B – 1,500m
C – 6,000m
D – 12,000m
2351id16570. LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN010 OVC015

TEMPO 1200 + RA OVC005
FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015
TEMPO 1619 25010 KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30
TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CB
What is the lowest cloud base you may encounter at 1345Z?
A – 1,000 ft
B – 500 ft
C – 700 ft
D – 12,000 ft

For 1300 UTC select a METAR which you consider to be most appropriate to
position “T”:
A – 19010KT 6000 RA BKN016 OVC090 08/06 Q1004=
B – 24020KT 5000 RA BKN100 11/10 Q1002=
C – 18015KT 9999 SCT020 03/01 Q1000=
D – 27030KT 8000 SCT020 07/03 Q1004=

Which of the following METAR’s reflect the weather conditions expected at
Brussels airport (EBBR) at 1200 UTC?
A – 21014KT 5000 RA BKN015 OVC030 15/12 Q1011 NOSIG=
B – 28010KT 9999 BKN030 22/11 Q1016 NOSIG=
C – VRB03KT 8000 BKN280 19/12 Q1012 BECMG 3000 BR=
D – 19022G46KT 1200+TSGR BKN003 BKN015 17/14 Q1014 BECMG
NSW=

Of the four radio surroundings, select the one that indicates low stratus:
A–3
B–1
C–2
D–4
2355id24214. A METAR message is valid

A – at the time of observation
B – for 2 hours
C – for the hour following the observation
D – for 9 hours
2356id24277. How is a ceiling defined?

A – Height above ground or water of the highest layer of cloud or obscuring
phenomena aloft that covers 4 oktas or more of the sky
B – Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud independent on
the amount of clouds
C – Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud that contributes
to the overall overcast
D – Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud below 20000 ft
covering more than half of the sky
2357id24281. In a METAR message, BR and HZ mean respectively:

A – BR = mist HZ = widespread dust
B – BR = fog HZ = haze
C – BR = mist HZ = smoke
D – BR = mist HZ = haze
2358id24282. In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010 MPS. This means:
A – Wind from 230o magnetic at 10 miles per hour
B – Wind from 230o true at 10 miles per hour
C – Wind from 230o magnetic at 20 knots
D – Wind from 230o true at 20 knots
2359id24292. In the METAR code the abbreviation VC indicates:

A – volcanic ash
B – present weather within the approach area
C – present weather within a range of 8 km, but not at the airport
D – present weather at the airport
2360id24293. In the METAR code the abbreviation VCBLDU means:

A – an active dust storm
B – blowing dust in the vicinity
C – an active sandstorm
D – an active dust and sand storm
2361id24352. The temperature at the surface is given as +15oC and at 4000 ft it is +9oC the state of
this layer is said to be:
B – conditionally unstable
C – stable
D – unstable
2362id24356. The visibility transmitted in a METAR is:

A – given by transmissometer when the visibility is below 1500 metres
B – the maximum determined by a meteorologist in a 360o scan at the horizon
C – the lowest observed in a 360o scan from the meteorological station
D – measured by an observer counting the number of lights visible on the
runway
2363id24362. What does the code R24R/P1500 mean?

A – Snow clearance in progress on RWY 24 right, useable runway length
1500 metres
B – RVR RWY 24 right below 1500 metres
C – RVR RWY 24 right above 1500 metres
D – RVR RWY 24 right 1500 metres
2364id24374. What is the best approximation for the wind speed at flight level 250?
A – By simple interpolation of wind information available from the 500 and

300 hPa charts
B – By interpolation of the wind information available from the 500 and 300
hPa charts, while also considering the maximum wind information found
on the Significant Weather Chart
C – By reading wind direction and speed from the 500 hPa chart
D – By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart
2365id24378. What is the lowest cloud base that can be expected from the forecast for 1500 UTC?
KCHS 280430Z 280606 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 PROB40
SHRA BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416
VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030
BECMG
A – 3000 feet
B – 1000 feet
C – 1300 feet
D – 1500 feet
2366id24379. What is the lowest possible cloud base forecast for 2300 UTC?
EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG
1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600
TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122
CAVOK
A – 5000 feet
B – 3000 feet
C – 500 feet
D – 1500 feet
2367id24381. What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC?
LSZH 260900Z 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO
1215 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT
4000 RA OVC010=
A – 10 km
B – 6 NM
C – 4 km
D – 6 km
2368id24394. What visibility is most likely to be experienced at 1400 UTC?

1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600
CAVOK
A – 1600 metres
B – 4000 metres
C – 1000 metres
D – 9000 metres
2369id24413. Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance
with the regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”?
(MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 ft, LSZH 8000 ft, LSGG
12000 ft, LFSB 6000 ft)
A – LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000
TSRA=
B – LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 KBN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000
BR=
C – LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG=
D – LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG=
2370id24427. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?

LSAS SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSZH- SWITZERLAND FIR/UIR
MOD TO SEV CAT FCST N OF ALPS BTN FL 260/380 STNR INTSF
A – Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps.
Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380
B – Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of
the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL
260
C – Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots
advised to cross this area above FL 380
D – Moderate to severe clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be
expected north of the Alps
2371id24435. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”?
A – 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG=
B – 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600=
C – 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500=
D – 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG=
2372id24452. While appreciating your destination aerodrome you receive the following
message: RVR runway 23: 400m This information indicates the
A – portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways
would see, with runway 23 in service
B – visibility on runway 23
C – length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on
the threshold of runway 23
D – minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in
service
2373id24453. Why can the following METAR not be abbreviated to CAVOK?

DLLO 121550Z 31018G30KT 9999 FEW060TCU BKN070 14/08 Q1016
TEMPO 4000 TS=
A – Because the cloud base in below the highest minimum sector altitude
B – Because there are gusts reported
C – Because towering cumulus are observed
D – Because thunderstorms are forecast temporary for the next 2 hours
2374id25596. (Refer to figure 050-04) Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground
fog:
A–1
B–2
C–3
D–4
2375id25634. The radiosonde can directly measure:

A – below 5 kt
B – between 10 and 15 kt
C – between 5 and 10 kt
D – above 15 kt
2376id24119. (Refer to figure 050-57) The weather most likely to be experienced at position “A” is:
A – cumulus, cumulonimbus clouds, heavy rain or snow showers, medium to
strong winds
B – clear skies, good visibility in light winds
C – mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus and drizzle, medium to
strong winds
D – radiation fog, low stratus, drizzle, no medium or upper cloud, light wind
2377id2847. In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated?
A – 500 – 400 hPa
B – 600 – 500 hPa
C – 300 – 200 hPa
D – 400 – 300 hPa

On which route of flight would you expect no icing at FL 180?
A – Zurich-Hamburg
B – Zurich-Madrid
C – Hamburg-Stockholm
D – Zurich-Vienna

The cold front is indicated at position:
A–A
B–B
C–C
D–D

The warm sector is indicated by letter:
A–A
B–B
C–D
D–C
2381id9649. When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart
would be nearest you rflight level?
A – 300 hPa
B – 850 hPa
C – 700 hPa
D – 500 hPa

Which of the following best describes Zone B?
A – Col
B – Ridge of high pressure
C – Depression
D – Trough of low pressure
2383id9680. If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these upper wind and
temperature charts would be nearest your flight level?
A – 850 hPa
B – 500 hPa
C – 700 hPa
D – 300 hPa
2384id9703. What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart?
A – Positions with the same air density
B – Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels
C – Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure
D – Positions with the same wind velocity
2385id9713. (Refer to figure 050-105_A)

According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe icing?
A–1
B–4
C–5
D–6

Which of the following best describes Zone C?
A – Ridge of high pressure
B – Col
C – Trough of low pressure
D – Depression
2387id10449. Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL 300?

A – 500 hPa
B – 200 hPa
C – 700 hPa
D – 300 hPa
2388id10456. If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these upper wind and
temperature charts would be nearest your flight level?
A – 300 hPa
B – 500 hPa
C – 850 hPa
D – 700 hPa
2389id10472. On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jet
stream?
A – Upper air chart
B – Wind/temperature chart
C – Surface chart
D – Significant weather chart

What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?
A – The centre of a tropopause high, where the tropopause is at FL 400
B – The centre of a high pressure area at 400 hPa
C – The upper limit of significant weather at FL 400
D – The lower limit of the tropopause

According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical revoving storm?
A–2
B–7
C – 10
D–6

Which of the following best describes Zone D?
A – Anti-cyclone
B – Ridge of high pressure
C – Depression

A – 200 hPa
B – 300 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 700 hPa

A – 700 hPa
B – 300 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 200 hPa
2395id10524. Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the
freezing level?
A – Surface chart
B – 500 hPa chart
C – 700 hPa chart
D – Significant weather chart

A – 850 hPa
B – 700 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 300 hPa
2397id10535. How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather
Chart?
A – ISOL CB
B – EMBD CB
C – FREQ CB
D – OCNL CB
2398id10538. In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions

found?
A – 300 hPa chart
B – 24 hour surface forecast
C – 500 hPa chart
D – Significant Weather Chart
2399id10543. What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?

A – The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the
time given on the chart
B – The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart
C – The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
D – The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given
on the chart
2400id10544. How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts?
A – The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per
hour
B – The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots
C – The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots
D – The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour
A – 850 hPa
B – 700 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 300 hPa

You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight
levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?
A – FL 140
B – FL 260
C – FL 320
D – FL 300

What is the average wind at FL 160 between Zurich and Rome?
A – 020/50
B – 050/40
C – 200/40
D – 350/40

The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC
on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects weather development
at Zurich airport?
A – TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN01S TEMPO 1720 05018KT
0300 +SHSN W002=
22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015
C – TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201
D – TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT
3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG W001=
2405id15835. The upper wind and temperatue chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere,
to about:
A – 39,000 ft
B – 30,000 ft
C – 32,000 ft
D – 34,000 ft
2406id15842. When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart
would be nearest your flight level?
A – 500 hPa
B – 300 hPa
C – 850 hPa
D – 700 hPa

Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich-Rome at FL 110:
A – 230/10
B – 200/30
C – 040/10
D – 250/20
2408id16356. The 500 mb contour chart is equivalent to Flight Level:

A – FL 300
B – FL 90
C – FL 50
D – FL 180
2409id16362. The lines on a contour chart join points at:

A – equal pressure
B – equal temperature
C – equal height
D – equal humidity

Considering the North Atlantic route from the Azores to Bermuda, the mean
height of the tropical tropopause during summer is approximately:
A – 33,000 ft
B – 39,000 ft
C – 51,000 ft
D – 60,000 ft

Considering the sector Rom to 25oN on the route indicated, what mean upper
winds may be expected at FL 300 during winter?
A – Easterlies at 40 kt
B – Variable easterlies
C – Light westerlies
D – Westerly jet streams in excess of 70 kt

The air mass affecting positon “A” is most likely to be:
A – Continental tropical
B – Maritime polar
C – Continental polar
D – Maritime tropical
The air mass affecting position “C” is most likely to be:
B – Maritime tropical
C – Maritime polar
D – Continental polar

The air mass affecting position “S” is most likely to be:
A – Maritime polar and unstable

B – Maritime tropical and stable
C – Maritime polar and stable
D – Continental tropical and unstable

The air mass affecting position “P” is most likely to be:
A – Maritime tropical
C – Continental tropical
D – Continental polar

The air mass affecting position “R” is most likely to be:
D – Continental tropical

The weather most likely to be experienced at position “S” is:
A – little or no cloud – hazy

B – morning fog liftig to low stratus
C – OVC SC
D – frequent heavy showers of rain or snow

The weather most likely to be experienced at position “A” is:
A – advection fog
B – clear skies – radiation fog forming overnight
C – snow showers – gale force wind
D – continuous drizzle and hill fog

The occurrence of freezing rain at FL 60 is most likely in square:
A – 2D
B – 2A
C – 3B
D – 3C
2420id24120. (Refer to figue 050-50)

The weather most likely to be experienced at position “S” is:
A – increasing AS and NS with moderate to heavy rain
B – scattered thunderstorms and good visibility
C – overcast with drizzle and orographic fog
D – small amounts of CU with generally good visibility

What flight conditions are most likely to be experienced in square 2B by an
aircraft at FL 120?
A – IMC in NS with risk of light icing
B – VMC below an overcast of AS and CS, generally smooth air
C – IMC in layers of AS and isolated CB risk of severe turbulence and icing
D – VMC above layers of ST and SC, generally stable conditions

For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, the
most likely weather conditions are:
A – showers of rain and hail
B – moderate continuous rain
C – low cloud, mist
D – scattered AC base 2000 ft, good visibility

For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, away
from the vicinity of the fronts, the most likely weather conditions in winter
are:
A – generally overcast, moderate continuous rain and risk of low level wind
shear
B – scattered SC and CU, good visibility
C – poor visibility in mist and drizzle
D – prolonged periods of heavy rain and hail

The weather most likely to be experienced near to position “A” is:
A – overcast layer cloud – rain later
B – advection fog and drizzle
C – frequent showers of rain and snow, good visibility outside precipitation
D – clear skies – radiation fog at night
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “B” is:
A – early morning fog lifting to low stratus later
B – advection fog and drizzle
C – poor visibility in anty-cyclonic circulation
D – frequent showers of rain or snow

The weather most likely to be experienced at position “B” is:
A – mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus, drizzle
B – scattered stratocumulus with good visibility
C – frequent showers of rain or snow, good visibility outside showers
D – clear skies, moderate wind, good visibility

The weather most likely to be experienced on the coast near position “Q” is:
A – mainly clear skies with fog developing overnight
B – mainly overcast with poor visibility
C – thundery showers particularly at night
D – showery with generally good visibility

The pressure system at position “D” is a:
A – secondary low
B – col
C – trough of low pressure
D – ridge of high pressure

The dotted line designated “Z” represents the:
A – mean position of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July
B – mean position of the inter-tropical convegency zone (ITCZ) during
January
C – northerly limit of the sub-tropical jet stream during July
D – northerly limit of the SE trade winds during January

The dotted line labelled “Y” represents the:
A – axis of the sub-tropical jet stream during January
B – mean position of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during
January
C – mean position of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July
D – axis of the equatorial jet stream during July

The weather most likely to be experienced at position “R” is:
A – overcast with drizzle and hill fog
B – early morning fog lifting to low stratus
C – increasing amounts of AS and NS – heavy rain
D – fine and warm at first – AC castellanus and CB in late afternoon with
thunderstorms

For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield which is not situation near
high ground, in the vicinity of the active front in square 3B, a potential hazard
exists in the form of:
A – radiation fog
B – low level wind shear
C – rotor streaming
D – clear air turbulence (CAT)

The front at the bottom of the diagram, south of position C, is:
A – an occlusion on the surface
B – a warm front
C – an occlusion above the surface
D – a cold front

The air mass at position “X” is most likely to be:
A – Maritime polar

The air mass type indicated by arrow number 4 is designated:
A – Continental polar
C – Maritime polar

The air mass affecting position “R” is most likely to be:
B – Continental polar
C – Continental tropical
D – Maritime polar

For an aircraft at FL 80, ahead of the front in square 2D, the expected flight
conditions are:
A – IMC in cumuliform cloud, moderate turbulence with a risk of rime icing
B – overcast skies, moderate to heavy turbulence with the possibility of
thunderstorms
C – below AS type cloud, generally smooth air with light precipitation
D – high C1 and CS type cloud, light turbulence and poor visibility

For an aircraft at FL 40, approaching the front (square 3C) from the direction
of square 3D a potential hazard exists before reaching the front in the form of:
A – clear ice accretion to the airframe
B – severe turbulence associated with CB
C – severe turbulence and wind shear
D – severe down drafts from subsiding air

What conditions are most likely to prevail at an aerodrome located in square
3B?
A – Mainly overcast at 8000 ft, visibility less than 5 km in continuous
moderate rain
B – Broken CU base 2000 ft, visibility more than 5 km, occasional showers of
rain or snow
C – 6-8 oktas SC and ST, visibility moderate to poor in drizzle
D – Intermittent thunderstorms otherwise generally clear skies with good
visibility

When front “G” passes position “T” the surface wind should:
A – veer and decrease
B – veer and increase
C – back and increase
D – back and decrease

The pressure distribution located mainly in square 2A is a:
A – trough of low pressure
B – col
C – ridge of high pressure
D – depression

From indications shown on the chart, when front “S” passes position “V” the
urface wind should:
A – back and decrease
B – veer and increase
C – back and remain more or less at the same speed
D – veer and remain more or less at the same speed

By the time the front “Z” has passed point “Q” the surface wind will have:
A – veered and increased
B – veered and decreased
C – backed and increased
D – backed and decreased

The temperature deviation from ISA (to the nearest oC) overhead Charleston
t FL 340 is:
A - +3
B - +5
C - -5
D - -7

At 40oN 70oW, the forecast wind is:
A – 270o/95 kt
B – 320o/40 kt
C – 240o/90 kt
D – 280o/70 kt

At 40oN 20oW, the forecast wind at FL 390 is:
A – 090o/45 kt
B – 060o/45 kt
C – 070o/30 kt
D – 270o/45 kt

The front located from 10oW to 10oE is most likely to be:
A – a quasi-stationary front
B – an active warm front moving north
C – an active occlusion moving south
D – a cold front moving south

The front labelled “E” is a:
A – cold front
B – warm front
C – warm occlusion
D – cold occlusion

Considering the route between Valencia and Charleston at FL 340, the forecast
mean temperature is:
A - -45oC
B - -50oC
C - -55oC
D - -40oC

What is the average wind forecast for FL 300 between Edinburgh and Madrid?
A – 180/20
B – 300/45
C – 240/25
D – 280/30

What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL 300 between
Edinburgh and Madrid?
A - +2oC
B - +12oC
C - -2oC
D - -12oC

The average forecast wind for the leg from Madrid to Dhahran at FL 390 is:
A – 270/50
B – 270/30
C – 320/70
D – 310/50

What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL 390 between
Madrid and Dhahran?
A - -1oC
B - +5oC
C - -5oC
D - +2oC

Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP). At 40oN 20oW, the
temperature deviation from ISA at FL 390 is:
A – 0oC
B - +6oC
C - +2oC
D - -2oC

Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP). Considering the route
segment between 60oW and 70oW, at FL 390 the forecast mean temperature
is:
A – -52oC
B - -55oC
C - -58oC
D - -61oC

The mean wind that may be expected to affect the route segment from the
coast of SE England to Geneva at FL 270 is:
A – 245/55
B – 240/90
C – 270/70
D – 220/70

The mean temperature that may be expected to affect that segment of the route
from the coast of SE England to Geneva at FL 270 is:
A - -34oC
B - -38oC
C - -30oC
D - -42oC

At FL 300 between Geneva and Tunis, what mean wind would be most likely?
A – 245/50
B – 225/25
C – 265/40
D – 265/25

In appendix are shown four sections of the 700 hPa wind chart. The diagram
representing most accurately the wind direction and speed is:
A – 210o/30 kt (diagram B)
B – 030o/30 kt (diagram A)
C – 030o/30 kt (diagram C)
D – 210o/30 kt (diagram D)

According to the extract of the surface isobar map, the surface wind direction
over the sea is approximately:
A – 140o
B – 110o
C – 310o
D – 220o
On a Significant Weather Chart, hail is represented by symbol:
A–1
B–4
C–2
D–3

What is the classification of the air mass affecting position “Q”?
D – Maritime tropical
2463id24175. (Refer to figure 050-105_B)

Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?
A – Symbol 5
B – Symbol 3
C – Symbol 4
D – Symbol 2

What is the approximate height of the tropopause between Keflavik and
Helsinki?
A – FL 360
B – FL 350
C – FL 300
D – FL 320

At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated over northern
Scandinavia?
A – FL 330
B – FL 280
C – FL 360
D – FL 300
2466id24181. (Reer to figure 050-73)

At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over Frankfurt?
A – FL 350
B – FL 300
C – FL 330
D – FL 240
The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will be:
A - -57oC
B - -39oC
C - -33oC
D - -45oC

What is the average temperature at FL 160 between Oslo and Paris?
A - -25oC
B - -23oC
C - -15oC
D - -19oC

What is the speed of the front located over France?
A – 15 kt
B – 25 kt
C – 10 kt
D – 30 kt

Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield. Which of the four
diagrams is most likely to reflect temperatures above the airfield concerned?
A – Diagram 3
B – Diagram 4
C – Diagram 2
D – Diagram 1

A convergence line is indicated by:
A–C
B–B
C–A
D–D

According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying
according to instrument flight rules (IFR)?
A – Symbol 1
B – Symbol 4
C – Symbol 2
D – Symbol 3

A – Symbol 6
B – Symbol 9
C – Symbol 3
D – Symbol 7

Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt – Rome at FL
170:
A – 230/40
B – 200/50
C – 050/40
D – 030/35

If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 240, what conditions can you
expect at cruising altitude?
A – Flight largely in cloud; no turbulence
B – Moderate or severe turbulence and icing
C – Prolonged severe turbulence and icing throughout the flight
D – CAT for the first half of the flight

Judging by the chart, what wind speeds can you expect at FL 310 above
London?
A – 90 kt
B – 300 kt
C – 140 kt
D – 100 km/h

Which of these statements is true?
A – Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 400 over Malaga (LEMG)
B – Freezing level above London (EGLL) is higher than FL 065
C – The front to the east of Paris (LEPO) is moving south
D – Local snow and severe aircraft icing can be expected over Germany

On which of these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL 170?
A – Paris – Lisbon
B – Madrid – Vienna
C – London – Stockholm
D – Zurich – Athens

This chart shows the weather situation at 0600 UTC on May 23. Which of the
ollowing reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport?
A – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 23016KT 8000 –RA BKN030 OVC070
BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 1012 3000 +RA
BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090=
B – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 05014KT 5000 BR OVC015 BECMG 0810
8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025=
C – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO
1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT
3000 BCFG SCT100=
D – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 VRB03KT 6000 SCT020 BECMG 0811
23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000
TSRA BKN020CB=

Which of the following statements is true?
A – The moderate icing conditions overhead Zurich are forecast in a layer
between FL 140 and above the limit of the chart
B – The wind speed in the core of the jet stream near Bordeaux (B) is about 90
kt
C – The west part of the front system over Spain moves to the south with 10 kt
and the eastern part of that front over Spain moves to the north
D – On a flight from Copenhagen to Amsterdam you have not to worry about
moderate and/or severe turbulence at FL 100
2481id24205. (Refer to figue 050-85)

If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 130 between 0600 and 0900
UTC, what can you expect at cruising level?
A – You will be out of clouds more of three quarters of your flight
B – A strong wind from the right with 90 kt at the crossing of the core of the
jet stream
C – You will arrive at your destination before you have to cross the warm
front
D – Moderate icing about half way along the route
Ref: all
2482id24308. On an upper wind and temperature chart:

A – the wind increases from south to north
B – the temperature is constant all over the chart
C – the height is constant all over the chart
D – the pressure is constant all over the chart
A convergence line is indicated by:
A – Sector A
B – Sector B
C – Sector C
D – Sector D

The warm sector is indicated by:
A – Sector A
B – Sector B
C – Sector C
D – Sector D
2485id25581. (Refer to figue 050-98)

Which of the following best describes Zone A?
A – Trough of low pressure
B – Cold Front
C – Ridge of high pressure
D – Depression

Which of the following best describes Zone B?
B – Cold Front
C – Depression

Which of the following best describes Zone C?
B – Cold Front
C – Trough of low pressure
D – Depression

Which of the following best describes Zone D?

B – Trough of low pressure
C – Anti-cyclone
D – Depression

What does zone A depict?
A – A trough
B – A ridge
D – The Cold Front

What does zone C depict?
A – A trough
B – A ridge
D – The Cold Front

A–1
B–2
C–3
D–4

A–D
B–C
C–B
D–A

Which airport has the biggest probability for rain at 1200 UTC?
A – LIRF
B – LEMD
C – LFPO
D – LOWW

Which airport has the biggest probability for the formation of fog the
following night?
A – ENFB
B – EKCH
C – LFPO
D – EINN

A – A high pressure area over France
B – A westerly wave over Central Europe
C – South foehn
D – North foehn

Where do the westerly wves occur in this picture?
B – Over Scandinavia
C – In the Mediterranean

Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the
freezing level above Tunis be found?
A – FL 100
B – FL 20
C – FL 180
D – FL 260

What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the route Frankfurt-
Rome at FL 180?
C – 10oC colder than ISA
D – 10oC warmer than ISA

What is the average temperature for the route Geneva-Stockholm, FL 260?
A - -55oC
B - -51oC
C - -63oC
D - -47oC

Over Paris at what flight level would you expect to find the tropopause
according to the map?
A – FL 300
B – FL 330
C – FL 150
D – FL 280

On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of
the chart?
A – Hamburg – Oslo
B – Rome – Frankfurt
C – Tunis – Rome
D – Copenhagen – Helsinki

Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the
A – FL 360
B – FL 410
C – FL 330
D – FL 390

On which of these routes would you not have to worry about turbulence at FL
240?
A – Rome – Berlin
B – Zurich – Rome
C – Zurich – Athens
D – Shannon – Hamburg

You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight
levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?
A – FL 260
B – FL 320
C – FL 180
D – FL 140

What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the ICAO Standard
Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt?
A – ISA -13oC
B – ISA -2oC
C – ISA +13oC
D – ISA +2oC

State the temperature deviation to ISA over Copenhagen at FL 140:

A – Symbol 7
B – Symbol 5
C – Symbol 10
D – Symbol 3
2508id25611. Which of the following symbols represents a thunderstorm?

A – Symbol 3
B – Symbol 4
C – Symbol 9
D – Symbol 1

A – Symbol 7
B – Symbol 1
C – Symbol 8
D – Symbol 9

A – FL 300
B – FL 330
C – FL 150
D – FL 280
2511id25614. (Refer to figue 050-75)

What wind is forecast at FL 390 over Paris?
A – 210/40
B – 240/20
C – 030/40
D – 190/40

A – FL 330
B – FL 310
C – FL 300
D – FL 280
2513id25616. (Refer to figue 050-71)

To what extend is Zurich covered by clouds?
A – 3 to 5 oktas
B – 5 to 8 oktas
C – 1 to 4 oktas
D – 5 to 7 oktas

Which of the following best describes Zone A?
B – Trough of low pressure
C – Depression
D – Col

What pressure does an observer at point A encounter in the next hour?
A – Rising pressure
B – Falling pressure
C – A pressure rise first, then an immediate pressure drop
D – No substantial pressure change

What pressure does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour?
A – Rising pressure
B – Falling pressure
C – A pressure rise first, then an immediate pressure drop
D – No substantial pressure change
2517id25620. (Reer to figure 050-104)

What temperature does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour?
A – The temperature decreases
B – The temperature increases
C – The temperature first increases and then decreases
D – No substantial temperature change
2518id25623. (Refer to figue 050-105_B)

Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?
A – Symbol 3
B – Symbol 4
C – Symbol 5
D – Symbol 6

Flight Shannon to London. What amount and type of cloud is forecast for the
eastern sector of the route between Shannon and London at FL 220?
A – Individual cumulonimbus
B – Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
C – Scattered towering cumulus
D – Scattered castellanus
2520id25625. (Refer to figue 050-80)
To what extent is Munich covered by clouds?
A – 5 to 8 oktas
B – 1 to 4 oktas
C – 5 to 7 oktas
D – 3 to 5 oktas

An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper leel contour chart.
A – Wind speed at A is higher than at B
B – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
C – The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
D – Wind speed at Paris is higher than at B

Which airport is most likely to have radiation fog in the coming night?
A – ESSA
B – ENGM
C – EKCH
D – LSZH
If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, where will your cruising
altitude be?
A – Constantly in the troposphere
B – Constantly in the stratosphere
C – First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere
D – In the stratosphere for part of time
2524id9628. Runway visual range can be reported in:

A – a TAF
B – a METAR
C – a SIGMET
D – both a TA and a METAR
2525id9632. You receive the following METAR:

LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/M02 Q1014
NOSIG= What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC?
A – 300 m
B – The RVR is unknown, because the NOSIG does not refer to RVR
C – 700 m
D – 900 m
2526id9633. When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor?
A – When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
B – When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
C – With gusts of at least 25 knots
D – With gusts of at least 35 knots
regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?
A – 29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG=
B – 24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000=
C – 15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG=
D – 04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG=
2528id9639. The follwing weather report EDDM 241332 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004
BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 is
a:
A – METAR
B – 24 hour TAF
C – SPECI
D – 9 hour TAF
2529id9642. (Refr to figure 050-67)

Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL 200?
A – Moderate turbulence, moderate icing
B – Moderate turbulence, light icing
C – Severe turbulence, moderate icing
D – Severe turbulence, severe icing
2530id9643. Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they
are observed?
A – TS
B – SA
C – DZ
D – SQ
2531id9646. What is the meaning of the expression “FEW”?

A – 2-4 oktas cloud cover
B – 1-2 oktas cloud cover
C – 5-7 oktas cloud cover
D – 1-3 oktas cloud cover
2532id9647. In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formatin in the
coming night the highest?
A – 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 BR=
B – 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG=
C – 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG=
D – 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO
1500=
Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich-Lisboa at FL
200:
A - -33oC
B - -30oC
C - -41oC
D - -49oC
2534id9652. Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for Ajaccio and
Calvi for 16:00 UTC: Ajaccio: wind 360o/2 kt, visibility 2000m,
rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1000 ft, OVC altostratus at 8000 ft, QNH 1023
hPa,Calvi: wind 040o/2 kt, visibility 3000m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 ft, SCT
stratocumulus at 2000 ft, OVC altostratus at 9000 ft, QNH 1023 hPa. The
ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore:
A – 1000 ft at Ajaccio and 2000 ft at Calvi

B – 1000 ft at Ajaccio and 500 ft at Calvi
C – 8000 ft at Ajaccio and 9000 ft at Calvi
D – 1000 ft at Ajaccio and 9000 ft at Calvi
2535id9657. What is the meaning of the abbreviation BKN?

A – 6 – 8 oktas
B – 3 – 4 oktas
C – 5 – 7 oktas
D – 8 oktas
2536id9661. Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice:
TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK = 0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB
BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS=
What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports:
A – That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the
TAF
B – That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF
C – That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have
predicted earlier in the morning
D – That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there
is no way the latest VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF
2537id9662. What units are used to report vertical wind shear?

A – kt
B – kt/100 ft
C – m/100 ft
D – m/sec

In what height range and at what intensity could you encounter turbulence in
CAT area no2?
A – From FL 220 to FL 400, moderate
B – From FL 240 to FL 370, light
C – From below FL 130 to FL 270, light
D – From FL 250 to FL 320, moderate
2539id9666. What does the abbreviation “NOSIG” mean?

A – No significant changes
B – No report received
C – No weather related problems
D – Not signed by the meteorologist

On which of these routes would you have to worry about turbulence at FL
340?
A – Rome – Berlin
B – Zurich – Rome
C – Zurich – Athens
D – Shannon – Hamburg
2541id9668. A SPECI is:

A – an aviation routine weather report
B – an aviation selected special weather report
C – a warning for special weather phenomena
D – a forecast for special weather phenomena
2542id9673. What does the term METAR signify?

A – A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several
times daily
B – A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a
FIR
C – A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is
generally issued in half-hourly intervals
D – A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a
brief prognostic report
2543id9674. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:

FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum
visibility forecast for ETA Amsterdam?
A – 5 km
B – 3 km
C – 5 NM
D – 6 km
2544id9675. How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, which is between two
upper air chart levels? (eg. Wind at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa
chart are available)
A – By interpolation of the wind information available from the two charts,

while also considering the maximum wind information found on the
Significant Weather Chart
B – By simple interpolation of wind information available from the two charts
C – By reading wind direction and speed from the next higher chart
D – By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart

If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what conditions can you
expect at cruising altitude?
A – Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
B – Individual cumulonimbus
C – Scattered towering cumulus
D – Scattered castellanus

Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich-London at FL 280:
A – 040/80
B – 250/80
C – 220/60
D – 160/90

Which of the following weather conditions would be expected at Athens
Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 UTC?
A – 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG W001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800=
B – 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 RA=
C – 21002KT 5000 HZ SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG=
D – 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG=
2548id9683. What is the meaning of the abbreviation SCT?

A – 1-2 oktas
B – 3-4 oktas
C – 5-7 oktas
D – 1-4 oktas
2549id9687. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?

SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embd t sobs and fcst in w part of athinai
fir/mov e/inst nc =
A – Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone

should be east of Athens by 1820 UTC
B – Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are
slowly moving west
C – Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR.
The thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constant
D – The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are
stationary above the western part of the Athens FIR
2550id9688. Given the following METAR:

EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002
OVC003 05/05 Q1025 NOSIG
A – Visibility is reduced by water droplets
B – There is a distinct change in RVR observed
C – Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR
D – RVR on runway 26R is increasing

What is the deviation of the temperatue at FL 140 above Copenhagen
compared to ISA?
A – 4oC warmer than ISA
B – 8oC colder than ISA
2552id9692. ATIS information contains:

A – operational information and if necessary meteorological information
B – only meteorological information
C – meteorological and operations information
D – only operational information
are observed?
A – FZFG
B – BCFG
C – SN
D – HZ
regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?
(MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT,
LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
A – LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG=

B – LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 –RA=
C – LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG=
D – LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG=
2555id9696. What does the expression Broken (BKN) mean?

A – 5-7 eights of the sky is cloud covered
B – 3-4 eights of the sky is cloud covered
C – 3-5 eights of the sky is cloud covered
D – Nil significant cloud cover
2556id9699. In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued?

A – Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome
B – Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome
C – Severe mountain waves
D – A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR
2557id9704. Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR?
LSZH 050820Z 16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003
M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000=
A – Meteorological visibility 1000m, RVR 400m, freezing level at 300m,
variable winds, temperature 2oC
B – RVR for runway 16 1000m, meteorological visibility increasing in the
next two hours to 2000m, vertical visibility 300m, temperature -2oC
C – RVR for runway 14 1500m meteorological visibility 400m, QNH 1026
hPa, wind 160o at 3 kt
D – Meteorological visibility 400m, RVR for runway 16 1000m, dew point –
2oC freezing fog

What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 0550
UTC?
A – 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG=
B – 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA=
C – 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009
BECMG NSW=
D – 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG=
2559id9709. Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few
hours?
A – 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO

24018G30 TS=
B – 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/M02 Q1008 NOSIG=
C – 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 M02/M04 Q1014 NOSIG=
D – 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000=

Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of cloud would you expect at
FL 160?
A – Mainly 5 to 8 oktas of stratiform cloud in layers
B – 4 oktas broken cumulus
C – Isolated cumulonimbus only
D – 5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate turbulence

Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of precipitation?
A – ESSA
B – LSZH
C – ENFB
D – EFHK

Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and maximum speed of the jet
stream affecting the route between Munich and London?
A – 220o / 120 kt
B – 220o / 120 km/h
C – 050o / 120 kt
D – 230o / 120 m/sec
2563id9717. What is a trend forecast?

A – An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
B – A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours
C – A route forecast valid for 24 hours
D – A routine report
2564id9719. LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ
BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA
OVC010= The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:
A – 1000 ft
B – 1500 ft
C – 1500 m
D – 5000 ft
2565id9721. If CAVOK is reported then:

A – no low drifting snow is present
B – no clouds are present
C – low level windshear has not been reported
D – any CBs have a base above 5000 ft
2566id9722. How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?
A – 9 hours
B – 2 hours
C – 1 hour
D – 30 minutes
2567id10445. In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from
Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing
importance at the time:
EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir
blw ft 050 south of 53n wkn=
LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl
430 fcst limm fir stnr nc=
EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for London fir isol cb
embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb
ts also fcst move wkn=
Which decision is correct?
A – You show no further interest in these reports, since they do nt concern the
route to be flown
B – Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250
C – Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy
thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370)
D – You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions
along the route would demand too much of the passengers

Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the
freezing level above Tunis be found?
A – FL 100
B – FL 20
C – FL 180
D – FL 260
FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam
what surface wind is forecast?
A – 120o / 15 kt gusts 25 kt
B – 140o / 10 kt
C – 300o / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
D – 250o / 20 kt
are observed?
A - +SHSN
B – VA
C – BR
D – MIFG

Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich – Hamburg at FL
240:
A – 230/20
B – 020/20
C – 200/15
D – 260/25

FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud
base is forecast for arrival at Amsterdam?
A – 500m
B – 250 ft
C – 500 ft
D – 800 ft
2573id10460. In the TAF for Delhi, during the summer, for the time of your landing you
note:TEMPO TS
What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone
instance?
A – 120 minutes
B – 60 minutes
C – 10 minutes
D – 20 minutes

On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of
the chart?
A – Rome – Frankfurt
B – Hamburg – Oslo
C – Tunis – Rome
D – Copenhagen – Helsinki
2575id10463. A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information

supplied in:
A – TAF and SIGMET
B – TAF and METAR
C – METAR and SIGMET
D – SWC and SIGMET
2576id10470. Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport:

TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002
BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007=
Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at
1200 UTC?
A – Meteorological visibility 6 kilometers, cloudbase 500 feet, wind speed 5
knots
B – Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230o, cloud base 500 feet
C – Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet calm
D – Meteorological visibility 2.5 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed
5 knots
2577id10471. Which of the following phenomena can product a risk of aqua planning?
A – SA
B – FG
C – BCFG
D - +RA
2578id10473. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation VV001 mean?
A – RVR greater than 100m

B – RVR less than 100m
C – Vertical visibility 100 ft
D – Vertical visibility 100m

What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius from the International
Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt?
A – ISA -2oC
B – ISA -13oC
C – ISA +13oC
D – ISA +2oC
Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect at FL 340 above Rome?
A – 340 kt
B – 145 kt
C – 95 kt
D – 140 km/h

What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva?
A - -24oC
B - -20oC
C - -16oC
D - -28oC
2582id10483. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport:

FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620
26020G30KT 8000 SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA=
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the
lowest quoted visibility forecast?
A – 10 or more km
B – 8 NM
C – 10 NM
D – 8 km
2583id10485. SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to:

A – heavy aircraft only
B – light aircraft only
C – VFR operations only
D – all aircraft
2584id10488. Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced strong
clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of
these reports?
A – The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI
B – The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed
C – The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET
D – The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning
2585id10490. In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing
conditions on the runway?
A – TAF
B – SIGMET
C – GAFOR
D – METAR
2586id10491. What does the term TREND signify?

A – It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times
daily
B – It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at
half-hourly intervals
C – It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
D – It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report

Select from the map the average temperature for the route Athens – Geneva at
FL 150:
A - -21oC
B - -14oC
C - -11oC
D - -27oC
2588id10494. The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above:
A – the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station
B – mean sea level
C – the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
D – airfield level

Which of these statements is true?
A – Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 410 over Madrid
B – Freezing level above Madris is higher than FL 120
C – The front to the north of London is moving south
D – Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over France
What does the abbreviation PROB30 mean?
A – Probability of 30%
B – Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes
C – The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 ft
D – Change expected in less than 30 minutes
2591id10500. Refer to TAF below:

EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000
SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB
BECMG 2124 26010KT
From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham
(EGBB) will be:
A – not less than 1.5 km but could be in excess of 10 km
B – a maximum of 5 km
C – a minimum of 1.5 km and a maximum of 5 km
D – more than 10 km
2592id10501. On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and
distributed with intervals of:
A – 2 hours
B – 1 hour
C – 0.5 hours
D – 3 hours

Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter
moderate CAT at FL 300?
A – Zurich – Athens
B – London – Zurich
C – Zurich – Stockholm
D – Madrid – Bordeaux
2594id10510. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be
potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight?
A – SPECI
B – ATIS
C – SIGMET
D – TAF

If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL 280, what conditions can
you expect at cruising altitude?
A – Out of cloud throughout the flight
B – Cloud most of the way; little chance of CAT
C – Scattered thunderstorms
D – Largely free of cloud; moderate turbulence half way along the route

Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich – Rome at
FL 110:
A - -6oC
B - -12oC
C - -9oC
D - +5oC

Which airport is most likely to have fog in the coming night?
A – ENFB
B – LSZH
C – EKCH
D – ESSA
2598id10515. In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog
formation, in the coming night, the highest?
A – VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG=
B – 22004KT 6000 –RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG=
C – VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 BR=
D – 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG=
2599id10517. What does the term SIGMET signify?

A – A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
B – A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station
several times daily
C – A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
D – A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally
issued at half-hourly intervals
2600id10521. Which of the statements is true concerning equal lines?

A – Severe squall lines always move from north west to south east
B – Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics
C – For severe squall lines a TAF is issued
D – For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued
2601id10525. (Reer to figure 050-109)
Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens – Geneva at FL
160:
A – 240/40
B – 210/25
C – 260/45
D – 050/35
2602id10529. Refer to the following TAF for Zurich:

LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT
6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA
OVC010=
The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:
A – 6 NM
B – 6 km
C – 4 km
D – 10 km
2603id10534. Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the
next few hours?
A – 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000=
B – 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG=
C – 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000
D – 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG=
2604id10536. Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be
experienced at 1500 UTC?
TAF LSZH 211200Z 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG
1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022
25015KT TX18/15Z TN14/21Z=
A – Visibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots
B – Visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18oC
C – Visibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 3000 feet, wind 250o,
temperature 18oC
D – Severe rainshowers, visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15oC, gusts up to
35 knots
2605id10537. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?

25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG
NSW=
A – Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18oC

B – Mean wind speed 20-38 knots, meteorological visibility 1200 metres,
temperature 23oC
C – Broken, cloud base 600 feet and 1500 feet, temperature 18oC
D – Wind 250o, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa

What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the
significant weather chart?
A – FL 340
B – FL 220
C – FL 160
D – FL 180
2607id10545. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?

00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022
BECMG 0800=
A – Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar front,
RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres
B – Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres,
temperature -3oC, vertical visibility 100 metres
C – Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500
metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
D – RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm,
meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
2608id10546. Does the following report make sense?

LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG
A – The report is nonsence, because it is impossible to observe a
meteorological visibility of 5 km if shallow fog is reported
B – The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when
the meteorological visibility is more than 2 km
C – The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog
below eye level
D – The report is not possible, because with a temperature of 2oC and a dew
point of 2oC there must be uniform fog
Ref: all
2609id10547. The wind directin in a METAR is measured relative to:

A – the 0-meridian
B – magnetic north
C – true north
D – grid north
2610id10551. In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the:
A – QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa
B – QFE rounded to the nearest hPa
C – QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa
D – QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa
Ref: all
2611id10552. (Refer to figue 050-100)

What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the Frankfurt – Rome
route?
C – 4oC colder than ISA
D – 10oC warmer than ISA
2612id10553. Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428.
What must you consider when making performance calculations?
A – Aquaplaning conditions
B – The braking action will be medium to good
C – The runway will be wet
D – The friction co-efficient is 0.28

What does the BECMG data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?
A – The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC
B – A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC
C – Many short term changes in the original weather
D – Many long term changes in the original weather

On which airport do you expect the development of the following weather
situation?
TAF 1322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB
BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA
BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220=
A – ESSA
B – EINN
C – LSZH
D – EKCH
2615id15804. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.

FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620
26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA=
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is
forecast on the approach to Bordeaux?
A – Light drizzle and fog
B – Moderate snow showers
C – Heavy rain showers
D – Continuous moderate rain
2616id15819. Refr to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG 2001
What does the abbreviation BKN004 mean?
A – 4-8 oktas, ceiling 400m
B – 1-4 oktas, ceiling 400m
C – 5-7 oktas, ceiling 400 ft
D – 1-4 oktas, ceiling 400 ft
2617id15855. The validity of a TAF is:

A – between 6 and 9 hours
B – 9 hours from the time of issue
C – stated in the TAF
D – 2 hours
2618id15856. The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the:

A – value representative of the touchdown zone
B – average value of the A-, B- and C- position
C – highest value of the A-, B- and C- position
D – lowest value of the A-, B- and C- position
2619id15880. A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an
inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear.
The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure
procedure?
A – Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible
B – Take off is not possible under these conditions
C – Depart on runway 09 with a tail wind
D – Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle, during the passage through the
inversion
2620id16529. The heights of cloud bases in TAFs are reported as being:

A – AGL
B – AMSL
C – AAL
D – Pressure altitude
2603id16551. How is the cloud base reported in a METAR:

A – In steps of 100 ft up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft
B – In steps of 100m up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft
C – In steps of 10 ft up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft
D – It steps of 10m up to 10,000 ft and in steps of 1,000 ft above 10,000 ft
2604id24173. (Refr to figure 050-115)

At Lyon (LFLY, N4545 E00500), at 1200 UTC, the sky is overcast with
Stratocumulus and Altostratus and it is raining. Using the SWC in appendix,
valid at 1200 UTC, we can estimate a weather improvement for Lyon:
A – 1330 UTC
B – 2100 UTC
C – 0300 UTC the following day
D – 1215 UTC

At which airport, is the following weather development taking place?
TAF 060600Z 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200
BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA
SCT030 OVC050=
A – LFPO
B – EDDL
C – LOWW
D – LEMD

To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable?
TAF 230900Z 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113
5020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG 1315 28012KT
9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1617 5000 SHRA BKN020
A – EKCH
B – LFPG
C – LEMD
D – LOWW
2607id24252. Below is the forecast for the destination of a flight whose ETA is 2030 UTC.
TAF YUDO 120600Z 121206 17010KT 3000 SCT005 BECMG 1820
RB03KT BCFG SKC BECMG 2022 0300 FG VV002=
What can be said about the destination airport at 2030 UTC if CAT II ILS
inimum:
A – Open the whole night because 300 m of visibility corresponds to at least
900m RVR
B – Still open until 2200 UTC because the weather change is not completed
before 2200 UTC
C – Has to be considered as closed
D – Still open because the decrease of the visibility below the CAT II minima
will be a little bit later than 2030 UTC

BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2123 0500 FG VV001
What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
A – 500 m
B – 2000 m
C – Between 5000m and 2000m
D – Between 0m and 1000m
2609id24316. Refer to the following TAF message

LFxx 180800Z 180918 22020KT 6000 SCT015 SCT080 BECMG 1214
24025KT 2000 RA BKN009 OVC070=
At 1400 UTC, the lowest cloud base will be:
A – between 900 and 1500 feet AMSL
B – at 900 feet AGL
C – between 900 and 1500 feet AGL
D – at 1500 feet AGL
2610id24322. TAF EHAM 142300Z 150009 33005KT 9999 SCT025 BKN100 BECMG
0002 27015KT 4500 –SN SCT008 OVC015 TEMPO 0206 0400 +SN VV002
BECMG 0406 01008KT 9999 NSW SCT030 TEMPO 0709 03015G25KT
1200 SNSH SCT006 SCT015CB=
What is the expected visibility at 0300 UTC?
A – 4500m
B – Between 400m and 10 km or more
C – Between 4500m and 10 km or moe
D – Between 400m and 4500 m
2611id24323. TAF LSZH 250600Z 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800
VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BR BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000
SCT007=
Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at
1200 UTC?
A – Visibility 800 metres, fog, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm
B – Visibility 800 metres, fog, wind from 230o, cloud base 500 feet
C – Visibility 2.5 kilometres, mist, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots
D – Visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots
2612id24333. The following weather message:

EDDM 241200Z 241322 VRB03KT 1500 BR OVC004 BECMG 1517
00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001
Is a:
A – METAR
B – 24 hour TAF
C – SPECI
D – 9 hour TAF
2613id24351. The TAF weather messages are:

A – airport forecasts
B – hourly or semi-hourly weather observations
C – special weather observations
D – landing forecasts of the “trend” type
2614id24354. The term CAVOK is used when weather conditions are:

A – 9999, NSC, NOSIG
B – 9000, SKC, NOSIG
C – 8000, HAZARDOUS WX NIL, NOSIG
D – 9999, NSC, NSW
2615id24355. The term PROB as used in a TAF message, indicates the probability in
percentage, of phenomena described during a specific period. The numerical
values immediately following the term PROB, are:
A – 25 or 25
B – 20 or 30
C – 30 or 40
D – 35 or 50
2616id24363. What does the code TAF AMD mean?

A – Revised TAF
B – No change compared with the previous TAF
C – Weather conditions expected to affect the safety of normal operations
D – Delayed issue of a TAF
2617id24376. What is the height of the lowest cloud forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400
UTC?
TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000
BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000
TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000=
A – 1800 feet
B – 1200 feet
C – 1400 feet
D – 900 feet
2618id24377. What is the lowest cloud base forecast for arrival at Geneva (ETA 1200
UTC)?
TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG
1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT
TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB=
A – 500 ft
B – 500 m
C – 1000 ft
D – 1000 m
2619id24380. What is the lowest probably cloud base forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at
Kingston?
TAF MKJP 160000Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315
14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1520 6000 +SHRA
SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025=
A – 1500 m
B – 1000 m
C – 1500 ft
D – 1000 ft
2620id24382. What is the lowest visibility forecast for approach into Geneva (ETA 1200
UTC)?
TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB=
A – 8 NM
B – 8 km
C – 6 NM
D – 10 km
2621id24383. What is the lowest visibility forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC?
TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000
BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000
TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000=
A – 1200 metres
B – 5 km
C – 6 km
D – 10 km or more
2622id24384. What is the lowest visibility that may be expected during an approach into
Dhahran at ETA 0600 UTC?
TAF OEDR 280000Z 280110 VRB08KT CABOK BECMG 0103 7000
TEMPO 0410 28014G24KT 4000 SA=
A – 4000 yards
B – 10 km or more
C – 7 km
D – 4 km
2623id24388. What lowest cloud base is most likely to be experienced during an approach into Madrid
at 2300 UTC?
TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000
SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40
TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008
A – 2000 feet
B – 1500 feet
C – 3000 feet
D – 800 feet
2624id24389. What surface wind is forecast for 2200 UTC?

1314 9000 SHRA OVC 015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600
CAVOK
A – 260o / 10 kt
B – Variable / 05 kt
C – Variable / 15 to 25 kt
D – Calm
2625id24390. What surface wind is forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston?
MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025CB BECMG1315
A – 360o / 10 kt
B – 140o / 20 kt gusts 34 kt
C – 340o / 10 kt
D – 140o / 27 kt
2626id24391. What type of meteorological hazard to safe flight is most likely to be

experienced during the final approach to Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)?
TSRA
A – Anabatic winds
B – Roll cloud associated with standing waves
C – Radiation fog
D – Low level wind shear
2627id24392. What type of precipitation might occur at 1700 UTC?

MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315
A – Heavy rain showers
B – Light drizzle
C – Continuous moderate rain
D – Intermittent light rain
2628id24395. What visibility is most likely to be experienced during an approach into

Madrid at 2300 UTC?
TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000
SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40
TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008
A – 6000 metres
B – 8000 metres
C – 10 kilometres or more
D – Greater than 10 kilometres
2629id24416. Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?

A – Heavy duststorm
B – Strong inversion
C – Thick fog
D – Snow and ice on the runway
2630id24417. Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?
A – Strong inversion
B – Heavy duststorm
C – Thick fog
D – Snow and ice on the runway

The following TAF applies best to which aerodrome? 19010KT 8000 RA
BKN014 TEMPO 1518 4000 RADZ BKN010
A – EBBR
B – LOWW
C – MADRID
D – PARIS
Which weather situation do you expect for EGLL at 1150 UTC?
A – 23015KT 8000 SCT100 BKN200 21/07 Q1002 NOSIG=
B – 32002KT 3000 OBC006 16/12 Q1024 TEMPO 8000=
C – 28006KT 4000 =TSRA SCT012 BKN030CB 19/14 Q1022 BECMG
NSW=
D – 17016G28KT 2500 +RA BKN009 OVC 018 12/10 Q0994 BECMG
8000=

At which airport is the following weather development most likely to be
taking place?
TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013
23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030
OVC050=
A – LFPO
B – EDDL
C – LEMD
D – EPWA

On which airport do you expect the development of the following most likely
weather situation?
TAF 1019 21010KT 8000 SCT120 OCT 180 BECMG 1013 OVC090
TEMPO –RA BECMG 1417 22016KT 5000 RA BKN020 OVC030 TEMPO
3000 +RA BKN012 OVC020
A – LFPO
B – EGLL
C – EDDL
D – LOWW

At which airport is the following weather development taking place?
TAF 231322 24014G32KT 4000 TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB
BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA
BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220=
A – EINN
B – LFPO
C – LFML
D – EKCH

The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC
on May 23. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at
Zurich Airport?
A – TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT
0300 +SHSN VV002=
22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015=
C – TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201
D – TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT
3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001=

The attached chart shows isobars and fronts at 1200 UTC on October 10.
Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport
(LSZH)?
A – TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618
00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG
VV001=
B – TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720
05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002=
C – TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030
TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015=
D – TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201
2638.Minute traces of the atmosphere have been found up to:

a) 800 km above the earths surface
b) 500 km above the earths surface
c) 200 km above the earths surface
2639 The atmosphere consists of the following gasses and their percentages by
volume are as follows:
a) Nitrogen 79% Oxygen 20% and Argon 1%
b) Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% and Argon 1%
c) Nitrogen 80% Oxygen 19% and Argon 1%
2640. The troposphere extends to about:

a) 52 000 ft above the polar regions
b) 35 000 ft above the tropical regions.
c) 26 000 ft above the polar regions.
2641.Large scale horizontal and vertical movement of air masses is a characteristic of

the:
a) Troposphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Ionosphere
2642. In the troposphere temperature decreases with an increase in altitude up to a height

of 36 090 ft. Thereafter the temperature remains constant at:
a) + 56° A
b) – 24° F
c) – 70° F
2643.In the lower layers of the troposphere, atmospheric pressure decreases with an
increase in altitude, at a rate of 1 HPa every:
a) 1.98 ft.
b) 27.20 ft.
c) 47.06 ft.
2644The stratosphere is found:

a) Between the stratopause and mesosphere
b) Above the tropopause to an average height of 98 000 ft
c) Above the troposphere with an upper limit in the ozone layer
2645. Which of the following statements regarding the stratosphere is false?

a) The stratosphere is free of clear air turbulence
b) Air in the stratosphere is very dry
c) Horizontal movement of air is a common phenomenon
2646 Ozone is formed by the absorption of:
a) Intense solar radiation
b) Long wave terrestrial radiation
c) Short wave terrestrial radiation
2647.The mesosphere extends up to a height of about:

a) 98 000 ft
b) 162 000 ft
c) 262 000 ft
2648I.S.A. states that at sea level the air density is:

a) 1.225 g/m³
b) 122.5 g/m³
c) 1225 g/m³
2649.I.S.A. states that at sea level the gravity is:

a) 9.8 m/s
b) 9.8 m/s²
c) 9.8 m/s³
2650.The atmosphere is divided into layers according to:

a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Humidity
2651.QNE relates to:

a) Pressure altitude
b) Density altitude
c) True altitude
2652.An atmospheric pressure of 1024 HPa is equal to:

a) 30.23 inches
b) 34.67 inches
c) 40.67 inches
2653. An atmospheric pressure of 29.88 inches is equal to:

a) 882 HPa
b) 1012 HPa
c) 988 HPa
2654.Under standard conditions a layer of 1 HPa equals approximately 14 meters at:
a) 40 000 ft
b) 30 000 ft
c) 20 000 ft
2655. Pressure is measured with a:

a) Psycrometer
b) Barometer
c) Hygrometer
2656.What setting must be applied for the altimeter to indicate pressure altitude and the
aircraft to fly at flight levels?
a) QFE
b) QNH
c) QNE
2657.An aircraft is flying at flight level 70. What actual terrain clearance would the aircraft have when
passing over high ground 4920 ft above mean sea level when the QNH
is 1006.25 hPa?
a) 1870 ft
b) 2290 ft
c) 2080 ft
2658.You are flying at flight level 85, the QNH is 1023 hPa. The radio altimeter reads
1850 feet. What is the elevation of the land over which you are flying?
a) 6350 ft
b) 2150 ft
c) 6945 ft
2659.An aircraft departs from FACT (elevation 150 feet) with QNH 1016 HPa set. What is the true
height above the airfield when the aircraft arrives at FAPE (elevation 225
feet) at 1000 ft indicated altitude? QFE FAPE 1005.5 hPa.
a) 460 ft
b) 685 ft
c) 865 ft.
2660.The QFE at FAJS is 844 HPa. The elevation is 5500 feet. What is the QNH?
a) 1027 HPa
b) 830 HPa
c) 661 HPa
2661.An aircraft on the ground has QNE set. The altimeter indicates 1800 feet. The local
QNH is 1002 HPa. What is the airfield elevation?
a) 1811 ft.
b) 2300 ft.
c) 1465 ft.
2662.The elevation at FALA is 4517 feet. The QNH is 1030 HPa. What is the QFE?
a) 863 HPa.
b) 879 HPa.
c) 1013 HPa.
2663.When QNH is set on the subscale of the pressure altimeter, the altimeter indicates:
a) Pressure altitude at airfield elevation
b) True altitude at field elevation
c) Density altitude at field elevation
2664. When the QNH setting is changed from 1019 HPa to 1014 HPa the approximate
change in indication will be:
a) 150 feet higher
b) 150 feet lower
c) 50 feet lower
2665. Air pressure is:

a) The indication of a barometer
b) The weight of a column of air over a given area
c) W = mg and P1V1 = P2V2
2666. An isobar is a line joining places of equal:

a) Temperature
b) Density
c) Pressure
2667. True altitude and pressure altitude will be the same when:
a) The outside air temperature is standard for that altitude
b) The atmospheric pressure is 1013.25 HPa.
c) When the air is dry and stable
2668. When an altimeter indicates a higher flight level than actually flown, the following
condition is likely:
a) When flying from an area of low pressure to an area of high pressure.
b) When flying from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure.
c) When the air temperature is warmer than standard
2669. When the subscale of an altimeter is set from 29.35 inches to 30.06 inches the
approximate change in indication will be:
a) 721,3 feet higher
b) 21 feet higher
c) 6 feet higher
2670. When the subscale of the altimeter is set from 29.92” to 30.12”, what is the
approximate change in indication?
a) 203 feet higher
b) 6 feet higher
c) 6 feet lower
2671. An area of indeterminable weather with light and variable winds can be expected in
a:
a) Secondary depression
b) Saddleback
c) Shallow anti-cyclone
2672. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

a) Chinook winds on mountain slopes
b) A stable layer of air
c) An unstable layer of air
2673. A temperature inversion will form only:

a) In stable air
b) In unstable air
c) When a stratiform layer merges with cumuliform mass
2674. The earth’s weather changes are primarily due to:

a) Movement of air masses
b) Pressure variations over the earth’s surface
c) Variations of solar energy received at the surface of the earth.
2675. If the actual temperature at 11 000 feet is -14°C, what is the ISA deviation (assume
NALR 2°C/1000 feet).
a) +1°C
b) -8°C
c) -7°C
2676. The most frequent type of surface temperature inversion is that produced by:
a) Advection of colder air under warmer air
b) Advection of warm air over cold air
c) Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night
2677. The atmosphere receives its heat:

a) Directly from the sun via short wave radiation
b) From the earth via long wave radiation
c) From the sun via long wave radiation
2678. A common type of ground inversion is produced by:

a) Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft by mountainous area
b) Ground radiation on clear, cold nights when the wind is light.
c) Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by
compression
2679. If the actual temperature at 13 000 feet is -16°C, what is the I.S.A. deviation
(assume 2°/1000 feet)?
a) +4°C
b) -5°C
c) -7°C
2680. Land warms up faster than water because:

a) There is more insulation over land than over water
b) The same amount of energy has to heat op a lot more
c) The change of state from solid to liquid
2681. An aircraft is flying at FL290 where the OAT is -34°C. The I.S.A. deviation is:
a) +16°F
b) +49°F
c) +9°F
2682. The process involving the transfer of heat from one body to another in contact with it is called:
a) Convection
b) Conduction
c) Convergence
2683. The surface temperature of oceans has a diurnal range of:

a) 2°C to 5°C
b) 0.2°C to 0.5°C
c) 10°C to 25°C
2684. When the temperature remains constant with an increase in height it is called:
a) An isothermal layer
b) An inversion layer
c) A positive ELR
2685. Temperature decreases at 1.5°C per 1000 feet of ascent. The ELR is said to be:
a) Negative
b) Shallow
c) Steep
2686. 15°C is equal to:

a) 15°A
b) 288°A
c) 258°A
2687. 300°A is equal to:

a) 80°F
b) -16°F
c) 9°F
2688. 86°F is equal to:

a) 30°C
b) 187°C
c) 359°C
2689. The temperature at 40 000 feet should be:

a) 330°A
b) -217°A
c) -85°F
2690. At the same pressure and temperature the density of moist air will be:
a) More than the density of dry air
b) Less than the density of dry air
c) The same as the density of dry air
2691. An aircraft operating on a constant flight level flies towards an area of increasing
pressure and decreasing temperature. The density altitude will:
a) Increase because the ambient air pressure is increasing
b) Decrease because the air temperature is decreasing
c) May increase or decrease depending on the percentage change in pressure
versus the percentage change in temperature
2692. If the temperature of an airmass increases and the pressure remains constant:
a) The air density will decrease and the density altitude will increase
b) Both the air density and the density altitude will increase
c) The air density will increase and the density altitude will decrease
2693. An aircraft is flying at FL180 where the COAT is -8°C. The QNH is 1028 HPa. Theactual
altitude of the aircraft is:
a) 18 450 feet
b) 20 010 feet
c) 17 440 feet
2694. Under what condition will pressure altitude and density altitude be the same?
a) When 1013.25 HPa is set on the subscale
b) When the temperature for the level under consideration is standard
c) When the true altitude equals the density altitude
2695. Pressure altitude is 12 000 feet. True temperature is 5°C. What is the density
altitude?
a) 13 700 feet
b) 12 600 feet
c) 10 300 feet
2695. Density altitude is:

a) Used to calibrate the I.S.A. altimeter
b) Pressure altitude corrected for temperature
c) The indicated altitude when QNH is set
2696. An aircraft is flying at 5000 feet indicated altitude with QNH 1022 HPa set, outside
temperature is 15°C. What is the density altitude?
a) 6125 feet
b) 6190 feet
c) 5860 feet
2697. With QNH 1030 HPa set, the altitude indicated on the altimeter is 6500 feet. OAT is +9°C. What
is the density altitude?
a) 7950 feet
b) 7330 feet
c) 6700 feet
2698. Density altitude is a:

a) Height
b) Measure for aircraft performance
c) Difference between true altitude and pressure altitude
2699. What is meant by the term dew point?

a) The temperature to which the air must be cooled to become saturated
b) The temperature at which dew will always form
c) The spread between actual temperature and the temperature during
evaporation
2700. Which of the following conditions will result in the formation of frost?
a) When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing
b) The temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of
surrounding air and the dewpoint is below freezing
c) Small drops of moisture falling on the collecting surface when the surrounding
air temperature is at or below freezing
2701. Which of the following is correct?

a) Sublimation is the process of water changing to vapour
b) The process of ice turning to vapour is called evaporation
c) Evaporation is the process where liquid water in contact with unsaturated air
is absorbed by the air.
2702. Which of the following statements are correct?

1 Vapour to ice is called deposition
2 During evaporation heat is given out
3 Solid to vapour is called melting
4 During condensation heat is released
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
2703. The amount of water vapour the air is holding x 100 ÷ the amount of water vapour
the air can hold. This is the equation for:
a) Absolute humidity
b) Vapour pressure
c) Relative humidity
d) Mixing ratio
2704. Cloud mist or dew will always form when:

a) Water vapour is present in the atmosphere
b) When the dew point and temperature are equal
c) The air is stable

a) The temperature, dew point spread can be used to determine the cloud base
b) Relative humidity is the ratio of air to water
c) Vapour pressure is high when the relative humidity is low
2706. Which of the following lapse rates is not adiabatic?

a) DALR
b) SALR
c) ELR
2707. In cold air, what will the approximate SALR temperature be?
a) 2.5°/1000’
b) 1.5°/1000’
c) 1.0°/1000’
2708. The ELR is 1.0°/1000’; the atmosphere condition is:

a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Conditionally unstable
2709. From which measurement of atmosphere can stability be determined?

a) Surface temperature
b) The dry adiabatic lapse rate
c) The ambient lapse rate
2710. Unsaturated air flowing upslope will cool at a rate of about:

a) 3°C per 1000 ft
b) 2°C per 1000 ft
c) 2.5° per 1000 ft
2711. Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?

a) Ambient lapse rate
b) Atmospheric pressure
c) Difference between standard temperature and surface temperature
2712. At what height AGL would you expect to find cloud developing if the following
conditions prevail?
Surface temp. +24°C; ELR 2.5°C/1000’; Dew Point 12°C; SALR 1.5°C/1000’
a) ± 4000’
b) ± 5000’
c) ± 8000’
2713. Which is not a variable?

a) ELR
b) SALR
c) DALR
2714. If the ELR temperature lies between the SALR and the DALR temperatures, the
atmospheric condition is likely to be:
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Conditionally unstable

a) For unstable air the ELR must be steeper than the SALR and the DALR
b) For stable air the ELR must be steeper than the SALR and the DALR
c) For conditionally unstable air the ELR must be steeper than the SALR and
DALR
2716. During the adiabatic process the following changes:
a) Temperature, pressure and volume
b) Temperature, pressure and absolute humidity
c) Pressure, volume and absolute humidity
2717. Temperature changes due to the adiabatic process, mainly because of:
a) Pressure
b) Moisture
c) Insulation
2718. Which of the following environmental lapse rate is most likely to lead to instability?
a) 3°C/1000’
b) 2°C/1000’
c) 1.5°C/1000’
2719. If the SALR is 1.7°C/1000 feet and the ELR is 1.6°C/1000 feet, then the air mass is
likely to be:
a) Conditionally unstable
b) Stable
c) Unstable

a) A PIREP is a report made by a pilot the day after the flight
b) An anemometer is used to measure humidity
c) The sunshine recorder is a glass ball which focuses the suns rays and burns
a hole through paper
2721. The difference in temperature between the SALR and the DALR is caused by:
a) Specific heat
b) Vapour Absorption
c) Latent heat
2722. In a surface depression the air is generally tending to:

a) Settle towards the surface
b) Rise
c) Advect
2723. Pressure belts migrate north and south because of:

a) The rotation of the earth
b) The distribution of land and sea masses
c) The earths orbit round the sun
2724. Day and night occurs because of:

a) The earth’s orbit round the sun
b) The rotation of the earth
c) The rotation axis of the earth is at an angle
2725. In a low pressure system (southern hemisphere) the winds at 5000’ are 270°. The
expected surface wind would be:
a) 270°
b) 300°
c) 240°
2726. You are flying at an indicated height of 2000’ in the southern hemisphere. Your
track is 220° and the wind is 300/25. If you maintain the indicated height and the
wind remains the same, your true height will:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Stay the same
2727. Which force, in the southern hemisphere, acts 90° to the wind and deflects it to the
left until parallel to the isobars?
a) Cyclostrophic
b) Pressure gradient
c) Coriolis
2728. The easterly winds 15° N/S of the equator are a result primarily to:
a) The ITCZ
b) The thermal equator
c) Upper air moving polewards
2729. Jet-streams are usually more predominant in the:

a) Polar regions
b) Equatorial regions
c) Mid-latitudes
2730. During a Chinook wind the air on the leeward side of the mountain is warmer
because of:
a) SALR
b) A steep DALR
c) Moisture being lost on the windward side.
2731. Coriolis force is greatest at:

a) The poles
b) The mid latitudes
c) The equator
d) 10° N/S of the equator
2732. A berg wind is blowing from the interior to the coast. The escarpment is 4500’ high
and the temperature on the escarpment is 16.5°C. What is the temperature at sea
level?
a) 29.0°C
b) 30.0°C
c) 30.5°C
d) 31.0°C
2733. The Bora is an example of a:

a) Katabatic wind
b) Anabatic wind
c) Föhn wind
2734. A monsoon is a giant:

a) Sea breeze
b) Katabatic wind
c) Berg wind
2735. In the Southern Hemisphere, when the winds at 5000 ft above mean sea level are
north-easterly most of the surface winds are easterly. This difference in direction is
primarily due to:
a) A stronger pressure gradient at high altitudes
b) Stronger Coriolis force at the surface
c) Friction between the wind and the surface
2736. During the South African summer, the I.T.C.Z.:

a) Moves further north of the Equator, following the region of maximum solar
intensity
b) Moves further south of the Equator, following the region of maximum solar
intensity
c) Remains at, or near, the Equator due to maximum solar intensity, regardless
of the season
2737. What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than
parallel to the isobars?
a) Coriolis force
b) Surface friction
c) Greater air density at the surface
2738. Anabatic winds are formed when:

a) Air in contact with the ground is cooled and flows downhill
b) The wind is accelerated by orographic funnel effect
c) Air in contact with the surface is heated and therefore ascends the mountain
slopes
2739. Clear Air Turbulence is frequently associated with:

a) Jet streams
b) Cb clouds
c) Cold fronts
2740. Which of the following statements regarding the seabreeze is true?

a) The seabreeze occurs during the night
b) The seabreeze blows from the land to the sea
c) The seabreeze generally effects a strip of 10 to 15 nautical miles either side
of the coastline
2741. A gradient wind is a result of:

a) Centrifugal force and geostrophic wind
b) Coriolis force and pressure gradient force
c) Surface friction and pressure gradient force
2742. The Monsoon winds over the Indian Ocean are:

a) South Easterly at all times of the year
b) South Westerly in June
c) North Easterly in June
2743. While on final approach the wind sheers from a crosswind to a headwind. This will
cause:
a) The indicated airspeed to increase momentarily and the aircraft’s glide path
to steepen
b) The indicated airspeed to decrease momentarily and the aircraft’s glide angle
to decrease
c) The indicated airspeed to decrease momentarily and the aircraft’s glide to
steepen
2744. What are some of the characteristics of unstable air?

a) Turbulence and good surface visibility
b) Nimbostratus cloud and poor surface visibility
c) Nimbostratus cloud and good surface visibility
2745. The characteristics if stable air is:

a) Poor visibility and steady precipitation from stratus type cloud
b) Poor visibility and intermittent rain from cumuliform type cloud
c) Good visibility and steady precipitation from cumuliform type cloud
2746. Moist stable air flowing upslope may be expected to produce:

a) Stratus type cloud
b) Thunderstorms and showers
c) A temperature inversion
2747. A general characteristic of a cold airmass is:

a) Stability
b) Smooth flying conditions above the friction layer
c) Good visibility
2748. A property of a cold air mass is:

a) Poor visibility
b) Turbulent conditions
c) Stratus type clouds
2749. A property of a warm air mass is:

a) Poor visibility
b) Turbulent conditions
c) Shower type precipitation
2750. An air mass is moving slowly over a high plateau in winter and the pressure is high.
The relative humidity will:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain unchanged
2751. The general characteristics of unstable air are:

a) Good visibility, showery precipitation and cumuliform type cloud
b) Good visibility, steady precipitation and stratiform type cloud
c) Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation and cumuliform type cloud
2752. Which are the characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
a) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence and good visibility
b) Stratiform cloud, smooth air and poor visibility
c) Cumuliform cloud, turbulence and poor visibility
2753. A cold air mass moving over a warm land mass will:
a) Become stable
b) Become unstable
c) Will cause poor surface visibility
2754. Which weather conditions can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively
warm surface to a colder surface?
a) Stratus layer type cloud
b) Convective turbulence due to surface heating
c) Fog, or mist
2755. Which is a characteristic of stable air?

a) Unlimited visibility
b) High ELR
c) Stratiform cloud
2756. A parcel of air at sea level has the following temperature/dew point relationship
26/23. What airmass is the air most likely to be part of?
a) TKC
b) PWC
c) TWM
2757. An SALR of 1.1°C/1000’ is likely in which of the following airmasses?

a) PWM
b) TKE
c) TWM
2758. Which of the following will not affect the modification of an airmass during its
passage from the source region?
a) Longitude
b) Speed
c) Day/night variations in temperature
2759. Land and sea breezes will develop when:

a) Anabatic conditions exist
b) Katabatic conditions exist
c) The gradient wind conditions are suitable
2760. Wind speed and direction received from the meteorological office are usually given
in:
a) Knots and degrees from true north
b) Knots and degrees from magnetic north
c) Miles per hour and degrees from true north
2761. If the surface wind direction is 220°, what do you expect the upper wind direction to be at 3000
feet?
a) ± 180°
b) ± 220°
c) ± 240°
2762. What type of upper winds is dominant over the RSA?

a) Northerly winds
b) Westerly winds
c) Southerly winds
2763. What is “Zonal” upper air wind?

a) A Monsoon type of wind
b) When the winds are due westerly
c) Easterly wind wave
2764. What weather is normally associated with upper “cut-off low”?

a) Heavy rain just east of the low
b) Normally fine and stable weather
c) Thunderstorms to the west of the low
2765. Where over the RSA can we expect the “Easterly wind wave”?
a) Over the Cape Peninsula
b) Along the West Coast
c) Over the northern parts of the RSA
2766. On which side of contrasting air masses lies the jetstream?

a) In the cold air
b) Halfway between the cold and warm air
c) In the warm air
2767. With reference to jet-streams, CAT is usually found:

a) Approximately 1000’ above the tropopause
b) Approximately 1000’ below the tropopause
c) In a layer extending 2000’ above 6000’ and below the tropopause
d) None of the above
2768. What type of cloud is most likely to form under conditions of stable moist air?
a) Fair weather cumulus cloud
b) Stratiform cloud
c) Cumuliform type cloud
2769. The four groups of cloud types are:

a) Clouds formed by: Thermal uplift, orographic uplift, convective uplift and
frontal uplift.
b) High, middle and low cloud and those formed by extensive vertical
development.
c) Stratus type, nimulus type, cumulus cirrus
2770. What determines the type of cloud (structure) which is a result of air being forced to ascend?
a) The method by which the air is lifted
b) The stability of the air before lifting occurs
c) The SALR temperature
2771. The structure and formation of different cloud types which form as a result of air that is forced to
rise depends upon:
a) The stability of the air before it is forced to rise
b) The method by which the air is forced to rise
c) The amount of humidity present after lifting occurs
2772. Cumuliform type cloud associated with good visibility, rain showers and possible
clear ice formation is likely to result from:
a) Stable moist air forced to rise orographically
b) Unstable moist air forced to rise orographically
c) Unstable dry air forced to rise orographically
2773. With which type of cloud would you expect strong turbulence?
a) Nimbostratus
b) Cumulonimbus
c) Cumulus castellanus
2774. The type of cloud expected to form when unstable moist air is forced to rise over a
mountain is most likely to be:
a) Stratified clouds with intermittent showers
b) Layer type cloud with little vertical development
c) Vertical development type cloud
2775. Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?
a) Middle clouds
b) High clouds
c) Clouds with extensive vertical development
d) Low clouds
2776. Convective clouds are most dangerous from the icing point of view because:
a) Convective clouds indicate a lower freezing level
b) The strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of small supercooled
water droplets will be present
c) The strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of large supercooled
2777. With regard to meteorology, virga is:

a) A type of Asiatic fog
b) Precipitation from a cloud not reaching the ground
c) A sea breeze experienced in Portugal
2778. Lenticular altocumulus standing clouds are likely to indicate:

a) Jet streams
b) Heavy icing conditions
c) Strong turbulence
2779. Cloud formation at small closed lows is an example of:

a) Convective cloud
b) Convergent cloud
c) Frontal cloud
2780. Which instrument is used to determine the height of cloudbase?

a) The ceilometer
b) The transmissometer
c) The anemometer
2781. At approximately what altitude above the surface would you expect to base of
cumuliform clouds if the surface temperature is 28°C and dew point is 13°C?
a) 5000 ft
b) 6000 ft
c) 8000 ft
2782. What type of cloud will be formed, if very stable moist air is forced upslope?
a) First stratified clouds, then vertical clouds

b) First vertical clouds, then stratified clouds
c) Stratified clouds with little vertical development
2783. The suffix Nimbus, used in naming clouds, means:

a) Cloud with extensive vertical development
b) Raincloud
c) Dark massive, towering cloud
2784.a) An inversion
b) An unstable layer
c) Turbulence
2785. Select the incorrect answer. Cloud formation by adiabatic cooling due to lifting can
be caused by:
a) Turbulence
b) Radiation
c) Convection
2786. Which of the following is not an example of orographic lifting?

a) Table Mountain table cloth
b) Upslope Fog
c) Col areas

a) The ITCZ is at approximately the 30° latitude
b) The tropical travelling depression contains frontal weather
c) Convergency uplifting is normally found in a col.
2788. If a parcel of air at sea level has the following temperature / dewpoint relationship
26/23, at what height do you expect to find the cloudbase?
a) 2000’
b) 1500’
c) 1000’
2789. Which of the following are correct? In order to dissipate cloud

1 The temperature must decrease to below the dew point
2 Relative humidity must decrease to below 100 %
3 Dry air must replace moist air (advection)
4 Precipitation will assist
5 Contact heating will have no effect
6 Subsiding air will assist
a) 1, 3, 6
b) 2, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 6
2790. At sea level the temperature is 26°C; dew point temperature is 23°C. Assume ELR
= 2°/1000’ and SALR = 1.5°C/1000’. At what height do you expect to find neutral
stability?
a) 3500’
b) 1500’
c) 4000’
2791. If the SALR = ELR, what type of clouds are most likely to form?
a) Cb Ci
b) St Cb
c) St Sc
2792. At what height AGL would you expect the base of cumuliform type clouds if the
surface temperature is 24°C and the dew point is 12°C?
a) 4000’
b) 5000’
c) 6000’
2793. A strong wind is forming turbulence stratocumulus cloud with a base of 2000 ft
above ground. The surface temperature is +7°C. What is the height of the freezing
level above the ground to the nearest 100 ft?
a) 2000 ft
b) 2700 ft
c) 3700 ft
2794. The turbulence in stratocumulus clouds can be expected to be:

a) Slight
b) Moderate
c) Severe
2795. The following is a requirement for the formation of turbulent cloud:

a) Unstable lapse rate above the turbulent layer
b) Very strong winds near the ground
c) Light winds between 2 kts and 4 kts
2796. Conditions most favourable for the formation of radiation fog are:
a) Cold air moving over a warm surface at night

b) Warm, moist air moving over a cold surface
c) Warm, moist air over low flat land areas on clear nights with a light breeze
2797. Which conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?

a) Clear skies, 5 to 10 knots wind, small temperature/dew point spread and over
a land surface
b) Cloudy skies, light winds, large temperature/dew point spread and over a
land surface
c) Moist air moving over a cold ground or water surface
2798. Under which condition does advection fog usually form?

a) Moist air moving over colder ground or water
b) Warm, moist settling over a cool surface under no wind conditions
c) A land breeze blowing a cold air mass over a warm water current
2799. Under which conditions does advection fog usually form?

a) Moist air moving over colder ground to water
b) A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea
c) A land breeze blowing a cold airmass over a warm ocean current
2800. In what localities is advection fog likely?

a) Level inland areas
b) Coastal areas
c) Mountain valleys
2801. In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

a) A warm, moist airmass on the windward side of mountains
b) An airmass moving inland from the coast in winter
c) Warm moist air settling over a warmer surface under no-wind conditions
2802. What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist?

a) Advection and upslope fog
b) Steam and downslope fog
c) Tropical air fog
2803. Which type of fog persists with stronger winds?

a) Valley fog
b) Upslope fog
c) Radiation fog
2804. At times, fog is prevalent in industrial areas because of:

a) An abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products
b) Increased temperatures due to industrial heating
c) A high concentration of steam from industrial plants
2805. Steam fog occurs mainly:

a) When the air over the surface is much warmer than the surface itself
b) In the Polar Regions
c) As a thin layer on a water surface
2806. Choose the correct statement:

a) Fog – visibility more than 1000 m
b) Mist – visibility more than 1000 m
c) None of the above

a) Sea fog and advection fog are the same thing
b) During valley fog an anabatic wind blows
c) The Stephenson screen measures mainly pressure

a) In mist the visibility is less than 1 km
b) Radiation fog occurs after horizontal transfer of heat
c) If the wind speed is greater than 10 kts, radiation fog will dissipate and
change into Fs, St or Sc
2809. Radiation fog is most likely:

a) Over high ground
b) With cloudy skies
c) On a clear night
2810. The type of fog most common over water areas is:
a) Radiation fog
b) Upslope fog
c) Advection fog
2811a) Radiation fog is likely to be the deepest

b) The depth of fog has no relation to its type
c) Advection fog is likely to be deeper than radiation fog
2812. Which of the following statements are correct?

a) Tropical air fog is often found over the sea
b) Frontal fog is common with very rapidly moving cold fronts
c) Valley fog is also known as downslope radiation fog
2813. RVR is assessed when visibility falls below:
a) 2000 m
b) 1500 m
c) 1000 m
2814. RVR will only be reported at an aerodrome if the meteorological visibility is less
than:
a) 10 km
b) 5 km
c) 1.5 km
2815. What is the difference between RVR and visibility?

a) No difference (two terms describing the same thing)
b) No difference (RVR is just an old term)
c) No difference except that RVR is measured in a specific direction
2816. When poor visibility is due to a layer of mist near the surface, it is possible to see a
greater area of the surface by:
a) Descending to a lower level
b) Climbing to a higher level
c) Looking into the direction of the sun
2817. What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?
a) You have flown into an area of thunderstorms
b) You have flown through a cold front
c) Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude
2818. The growth of cloud droplets are explained in the following two theories:
a) The convergence and ice particle theory
b) The ice particle and coalescence theory
c) The condensation and ice particle theory
2819. The maximum size of a raindrop is 5.5 mm because:

a) It disintegrates if it gets any bigger
b) Larger droplets are classified as showers
c) To grow any larger additional condensation nuclei is required
2820. Which of the following statements regarding precipitation is correct?

a) Rain that freezes in stratiform clouds forms snow
b) From an aviation point of view snow produces severe airframe icing
c) Drizzle is tiny water droplets and their individual impact on a water surface
cannot be seen
2821. The poorest visibility can be expected in:

a) Hail
b) Snow
c) Rain
2822. Ice pellets at the surface is evidence that:

a) There are thunderstorms present
b) A cold front has passed
c) There is freezing rain at higher altitudes
2823. If you encounter ice pellets at 8000 ft it would indicate:

a) Thunderstorms are in the area
b) There is freezing rain at higher altitudes
c) High altitude cold front

a) Convergence is the forcing up of air when two airmasses converge
b) Conduction is the transfer of heat by radiation
c) During radiation advection takes place
2825. Which one of the following is correct?

a) Thermals always form clouds
b) A thermal can normally be found under a stratus cloud
c) A cold air mass, together with conditional instability and warm land would
cause a convective up current
2856. Frontal waves normally form on:

a) Slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts
b) Slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded fronts
c) Rapidly moving cold or warm fronts
2857. Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal
system?
a) A wind change
b) An abrupt decrease in pressure
c) Clouds, either ahead or behind the front
d) An abrupt temperature decrease
2858. Fronts are a feature of the weather of:

a) Polar regions
b) Tropical regions
c) Temperate regions
d) Sub-tropical regions
2859. Fronts are formed in the:
a) South-east trades
b) Arctic front
c) Polar front
d) Sub-tropical high pressure zone
2860. Depressions in temperate areas tend to form along the line of:
a) The doldrums
b) The I.T.C.Z.
c) The polar front
2861. In a temperature depression the isobars are straight:

a) Ahead of the warm front
b) Ahead of the cold front
c) Behind the cold front
2862. After the passage of a cold front at Cape Town the wind veers to NW, this probably
indicates:
a) The bad weather is over
b) A Col.
c) A family depression
2863. Choose the correct statement regarding the passage of cold fronts:
a) Temperature drop and dew point temp rise once the front has passed
b) With the advance of the front the pressure rises steadily
c) There is a sharp backing of the wind after the front has passed
2864. When crossing a cold front in the southern hemisphere from the warm to the cold
sector there will be:
a) A backing in wind direction
b) A veering in wind direction
c) No change in wind direction
2865. A cold front is passing over a station. After the frontal passage:
a) Temperature and pressure will decrease rapidly
b) Poor surface visibility in fog can be expected
c) The wind direction will change and the visibility will improve rapidly
2866. In a cold front occlusion (front moving in an easterly direction):

a) The cold air is to the west of the front
b) The cool air is to be west of the front
c) Neither of the above
2867. Frontal fog is associated mainly with:

a) Warm fronts
b) Cold fronts
c) Cold occluded fronts
2868.Which of the following statements regarding fronts is correct?

a) Cold fronts have shallower slopes than warm fronts
b) Warm fronts are often 200 to 300 nm deep
c) Warm fronts overtaking cold fronts are called warm occlusions
2869. When crossing a front at higher altitude the change in the temperature and wind,
direction will be:
a) Greater than the change at a lower altitude
b) Less than the change at a lower altitude
c) The same as the change at a lower altitude
2870. If the air behind the warm sector is warmer than the air ahead of the warm sector it
is called a:
a) Cool occlusion
b) Warm occlusion
c) Cold occlusion
2871. Which factors determine the weather intensity at any front?

1 Stability of the cold airmass
2 Slope of the front
3 Temperature difference between the two air masses
4 Moisture content of the cold airmass
5 Speed of the overtaking air mass from the rear
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 5
c) 1, 2 and 4
2872. What are the requirements for the development of a thunderstorm?

a) Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate and a trigger action
b) Sufficient water vapour and orographic uplifting
c) Cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inversion
2873. The conditions necessary for the developments of thunderstorms are:

a) Moist air in the lower layers, instability and a lifting action
b) Moist air in the upper layers, stability and frontal activity
c) Sufficient moisture, instability and static electricity
2874. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterised predominantly
by downdraughts?
a) The mature stage when precipitation begins to fall
b) The dissipating stage with the formation of the anvil
c) The cumulus stage
2875. What are the indications that downdraughts have developed and that a
thunderstorm has reached a mature stage?
a) A gust front occurs and thereafter precipitation begins to fall
b) The anvil top completes its development and light rain begins to fall
c) Temperatures drops sharply and pressure begins to rise rapidly
2876. Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions such as heavy
hail and destructive winds?
a) Cold front
b) Warm front
c) Air mass
2877. Which weather phenomenon is always associated with thunderstorms?

a) Lightning
b) Heavy rain showers
c) Hail
2878. Which is the most common hazard of lightning strikes on aircraft?

a) Fuel is ignited in the tanks
b) Structural damage to major components of the aircraft
c) Failure of the entire electrical system
2879. Short duration atmospheric electrical effects experienced on radio transmitters

associated with thunderstorms are caused by:
a) Electromagnetic radio waves produced by lightning discharge
b) Precipitation static
c) St Elmo’s fire
2880. What is meant by the term “embedded thunderstorms”

a) Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers
b) Thunderstorms are predicted to form in stable air
c) Severer thunderstorms lie within a squall line
2881. Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? (Choose the most
complete answer)
a) In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell

b) On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell
c) In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the right of the cell
2882. Tornados and destructive winds are generally associated with which thunderstorms?
a) Thunderstorms associated with any type of front which produces
considerable rain
b) Thunderstorms with bases near the surface
c) Large air mass thunderstorms developing in areas where the ground
temperature is warmer than the air above
2883. What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the
mature stage?
a) The anvil top has completed its development
b) Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base
c) A gust front forms
2884. Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate

embedded thunderstorm activity?
a) Reduce speed to manoeuvring speed and maintain a constant altitude
b) Set power for recommended turbulence penetration speed and attempt to
maintain a level flight altitude
c) Reduce speed to manoeuvring speed and thereafter maintain a constant
airspeed
2885. If you fly into severe turbulence, which condition should you attempt to maintain?
a) Constant altitude
b) Level flight altitude
c) Constant altitude and airspeed
2886. What is the best procedure for controlling an aircraft in a thunderstorm, if

thunderstorm penetration is unavoidable?
a) Maintain altitude and manoeuvring speed – don’t turn back
b) Maintain a constant attitude and safe operating range power setting – don’t
turn back
c) Reduce airspeed to manoeuvring speed – turn 180° as soon as possible
2887. What precaution, in addition to controlling the aircraft, should you take if you cannot avoid
thunderstorm penetration?
a) Tighten safety belts, turn on autopilot to altitude hold mode, turn on cockpit
lights and pitot heat
b) Turn on pitot heat, carburettor heat or alternate air, de-icing and anti-icing
equipment, and turn cockpit lights to highest intensity
c) Tighten safety belts, turn on pitot heat, turn on carburettor heat or alternate
air, and turn cockpit lights to highest intensity
2888. Which is the most common hazard of lightning strikes on aircraft?

a) Temporary blindness of the pilot
b) Failure of entire electrical system
c) Structural damage of major components of the aircraft
2889. Which one of the following is correct?

a) During frontal uplift the slope at the cold front is steeper than that at the warm
front
b) The warm sector is the area ahead of the warm front
c) A warm front is associated with an anti-cyclone
2890. The atmosphere moves at:

a) 2 ½ hours per 6° of longitude
b) 6 hours per 2 ½ of latitude
c) West to Ease
a) The position of the sun has no effect on insolation
b) Advection is the lateral transfer of heat
2892. Which of the following give rise to the formation of CAT?

1 Anti-cyclones
2 Jetstreams
3 Mountain standing waves
4 Surface Troughs
5 Strong upper air troughs
6 Seasonal upper air winds
a) 2, 4 and 6
b) 2, 3 and 5
c) 1, 2, 3 and 6
2893. Which statement about low-level wind shear, as it relates to frontal activity, is
correct?
a) With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the
airport
b) With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the
airport
c) With a cold front, the problem ceases to exist after the front passes the
airport
2894. Where does wind shear occur?

a) Primarily in the lower altitudes in mountainous areas
b) Where there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature
c) With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the
atmosphere
2895. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

a) It occurs exclusively at lower levels and is associated with strong horizontal
temperature inversions
b) It usually exists in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a
strong temperature inversion
c) It may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any
level of the atmosphere
2896. What are the three correct favourable conditions for the formation of standing
waves?
A Wind blowing parallel to the mountain
B Wind speed increasing with height
C Wind blowing perpendicular to the mountain
D Strong wind with little or no change in direction with height
E An unstable layer above the mountain
F Precipitation on the windward side of the mountain
G Rotor streaming on the lee of the mountain
a) A, F, G
b) B, C, D
c) A, B, E
2897. Weather information indicates a strong wind blowing perpendicular to a mountain

range. Other information confirming the existence of mountain waves in the area
will be:
a) Station down-wind from the mountain range reporting patches of Cu clouds
b) Stations up-wind of the mountain range reporting Cu clouds
c) Stations on both sides of the mountain range reporting no clouds but good
visibility
2898. Which one of the following statements best describes the action required by a light
aircraft landing behind a departing heavy transport aircraft?
a) Aim to touch down and stop before reaching the point of rotation of the heavy
transport aircraft
b) Aim to touch down past the point of rotation of the heavy transport aircraft
c) Aim to touch down before the rotation point of the heavy transport aircraft and
continue rolling through this point
2899. The correct method to avoid wake turbulence during take-off and landing is to:
a) Take-off and land beyond the touchdown of arriving aircraft
b) Take-off and land beyond the point of rotation of departing aircraft
c) Maintain a lower glide path than the aircraft ahead and land beyond its
touchdown point
2900. CAT is found in:

a) Surface troughs
b) Mountainous areas
c) Seasonal upper air winds
2901. When an aircraft encounters a rapid increase in headwind component on the final
phase of the approach to land, the aircraft will:
a) Overshoot the required glide slope
b) Undershoot the required glide slope
c) The glide slope will remain constant as the I.A.S. remains constant
2902. When an aircraft encounters a rapid decrease in headwind component on the final
phase of the approach to land, the aircraft will:
a) Overshoot the required glide slope
b) Undershoot the required glide slope
c) The glide slope will remain constant as the I.A.S. remains constant
2903. Turbulence is defined as random fluctuations of wind:

a) In the vertical plane only
b) In the horizontal plane only
c) And is made up of gusts
2904. You are approaching an aerodrome for landing, the control tower warns you that you might
experience wind shear on final approach, you fly the final approach:
a) With full flap selected down
b) After delaying landing with 30 minutes, in the normal configuration
c) Using a flatter approach path
2905. Clear Air Turbulence is associated with:

a) Low level turbulence
b) Windshear turbulence
c) Wake turbulence
d) Mechanical turbulence
2906. Conditions favourable for the formation of standing waves are:

a) The wind to blow within 20° of the mountain range
b) Windspeed not less than 10 kts
c) A fairly deep layer of uniform wind
d) Lenticular cloud
2907. The strength and magnitude of mechanical turbulence depends on:

a) Windspeed and frictional surface
b) Windspeed and stability
c) Stability and the frictional surface
d) All of the above
2908. Wake turbulence vortices may, under calm conditions persist up to:
a) 4 min.
b) 5 min.
c) 3 min.
d) 2 min.
2909. Which procedure is recommended when operating in an area of suspected or known icing?
a) The de-icing system should be engaged as soon as light accumulation of ice
has formed on the leading edges
b) If unable to maintain airspeed due to icing, altitude should be traded for
airspeed
c) As icing builds up increases, angle of attack should be increased and power
reduced to maintain level flight
2910. The most likely temperature range for carburettor icing to occur is:
a) -4°C to -18°C
b) +20°C to -5°C
c) -10°C to -30°C
2911. The conditions for severe icing are:

1 Ns
2 Cu and Cb
3 14°F to 32°F
4 Wet snow
5 Large droplets
6 High speed
7 High water content
a) 2, 3, 5, and 7
b) 1, 3, 5 and 7
c) 3, 4, 5 and 6
2912. When flying from an area with temperatures below freezing to a warmer air mass, in clear air,
the expected type of icing would be:
a) Hoar frost
b) Rime ice
c) Glazed ice
d) A combination of a, b and c
2913. The primary danger of glazed ice is:

a) Its weight
b) Because it breaks off in large chunks
c) Vibration when present on propellers
2914. Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operations?

a) The increased weight requires a greater take-off distance
b) Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift
c) Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the aerofoil
2915. In which temperature range is opaque rime ice most commonly found?
a) -15°C to -40°C
b) 0°C to -15°C
c) +15°C to -10°C
2916. The most dangerous type of icing is regarded as being:

a) Hoar frost
b) Rime ice
c) Glazed ice
d) Rain ice
2917. Convective clouds are most dangerous from the icing point of view because:
a) Convective clouds indicate a lower freezing level

b) The strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of small supercooled
c) The strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of large supercooled
2918. The only type of airframe icing which occurs in clear air is:
a) Translucent rime ice
b) Hoar frost
c) Opaque rime ice
2919. In which environment is aircraft icing most likely to have the highest rate of
accumulation?
a) Heavy wet snow
b) Cumulonimbus clouds
c) High humidity and freezing temperatures
2920. Ice formation will be most severe in:

a) Cumulus type clouds
b) Stratus type clouds
c) Very high clouds at low temperatures
2921. Heavy ice accretion in nimbostratus clouds can be expected in the temperature
range:
a) 0 to -10°C
b) -10 to -20°C
c) -15 to -25°C
2922. Which minimum temperature range is most conducive to aircraft icing in Stratiform cloud?
a) -2°C to -15°C
b) 0°C to -15°C
c) 0°C to -10°C
2923. Ice formation in carburettors due to evaporation of fuel will occur at:
a) -25°C to +13°C
b) -25°C to +10°C
c) -10°C to +25°C
2924. Strong winds in a humid airstream have caused the formation of an extensive layer
of turbulent clouds, the base of which is reported to be at 1000 ft above MSL and
the tops at 5000 ft. Airfield elevation is 330 ft and the air temperature at take-off is
5°C. The estimated depth of the airframe icing layer in the Sc is:
a) Between 1000 and 3000 ft above MSL
b) Between 1330 and 3670 ft above MSL
c) Between 3000 ft and the top of the clouds
2925. The most severe throttle icing in the carburettor occurs at:
a) +13°C Outside free air temperature
b) +13°C Cylinder heat temperature
c) +13°C Carburettor mixture temperature
d) +13°C Dewpoint temperature
2926. Rime ice can form when the temperature is anywhere from:
a) -10°C to +27°C
b) 0°c to -40°C
c) 0°C to -10°C
d) +5°C to +27°C
2927. Carburettor icing may result in:

a) An engine cut due to an excessively rich mixture
b) Rough running die to early airflow separation in the venture
c) Increased RPM indications in piston aircraft fitted with a C.S.U.
2928. The requirements for the formation of a tropical cyclone are:

a) Within 30° of the equator over warm oceans
b) Within 10° and 30° of the equator over warm oceans
c) Within 15° and 35° of the equator over warm oceans
d) Within 5° and 25° of the equator over warm oceans
2929. Give the three correct options with regard to tropical cyclones:
1 They never cross the equator
2 They travel in an easterly direction
3 They originate within 5° - 25° north and south of the equator
4 Due to their destructive winds they often cause severe damage for inland
over continental regions
5 They occur mainly during winter and spring in the southern hemisphere
6 They do not occur in the North Atlantic Ocean
7 The winds in tropical cyclones blow clockwise in the northern hemisphere
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 6 and 7
c) 1, 3 and 5
d) 1, 2 and 3
2930. Common features of high pressures are:

a) Strong surface winds near the centre
b) Clouds of vertical development
c) Good visibility
d) Stability
2931. Give three correct characteristics of a cold anti-cyclone:

1 Airflow at the 500 mb level is similar to that at the surface resulting in slow
movement of the system
2 Fog seldom occurs or of short duration
3 Circulation is limited in height, seldom above 3000 m
4 They are normally found on the equatorial side of the polar front
5 Moves fast at an average speed of 25 knots
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 5
c) 1, 2 and 3
2932. During the South African summer:

a) The Indian and Atlantic low pressure move northwards causing westerlies to
blow over the southern part of the continent
b) The Atlantic high pressure is a source of dry subsiding air, having its centre
fairly near the west coast
c) Moisture laden North Easterly tradewinds invade the southern regions
causing torrential rains over the Southern Cape
2933. Under which climatic zone does Cape Town fall?

a) Temperate low pressure zone
b) Sub-tropical dry zone
c) Transitional sub-tropic zone
d) Transitional tropic zone
2934. During the South African winter:

a) A cell of low pressure usually forms over the Transvaal interior resulting in
clear skies and calm conditions
b) Mid Atlantic depressions linked with cold fronts invade the southern regions
of South Africa
c) A strong low forming closely behind a front
2935. The Buster is characterized by the following phenomena:

a) Strong South Westerly winds following in the wake of a coastal low; stratiform
cloud type with intermittent drizzle
b) Strong South Easterly winds accompanied by overcast conditions and rain
showers
c) Strong South Easterly winds accompanied by generally clear skies giving a
health effect on the environment
2936. The disastrous torrential rains that affected Laingsburg in 1981 was partly due to:
a) The Cape Doctor
b) The South Westerly Buster
c) The Black South Easter
d) The Wet North Western
2937. The Cape Doctor:

a) Occurs frequently during the winter over the Cape Peninsula
b) Is a strong south westerly wind usually accompanied with clear skies
c) Blows when there is a well developed high pressure system west of Cape
Town
2938. The special or routine meteorological reports made by aircraft crew are known as:
a) AIREPS
b) NOTAMS
c) SPECIS
d) METARS
2939. The elements contained in an AIREP and their order shall be:
a) Operational and Meteorological information
b) Meteorological and Positional information
c) Positional, Operational and Meteorological information
d) Operational, Positional and Meteorological information
2940. Weather satellites generally operate in either a:

a) Polar or equatorial orbit
b) Geographical or solar orbit
c) Solar or stationary orbit
d) Geostationary or polar orbit
2941. Which weather satellites orbits at a height of about 36 000 km?

a) Equatorial satellites
b) Geostationary satellites
c) Geographical satellites
d) Polar satellites
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol “A”:
2942. The wind direction is:

a) 125°T
b) 025°T
c) 320°T
2943. The wind strength is:

a) 05 kts
b) 05 m/s
c) 05 km/m
2944. The atmospheric sea level pressure or GPM is:

a) 1003,9 HPa
b) 1028,0 HPa
c) 1015.0 HPa.
2945. The pressure tendency in the last three hours was:

a) Rising
b) Falling steadily
c) Remaining steady
2946. The dewpoint temperature is:

a) 25°C
b) 09°C
c) 12.5°C
2947. The visibility is

a) 5600 m
b) 6000 m
c) 600 m
2948. The amount of low cloud is:

a) 6 Octas
b) 4 Octas
c) 8 Octas
2949. The present weather is:

a) Hail
b) Rain
c) Freezing Rain
2950. The cloud type is:

a) Large Cumulus and Nimbostratus
b) Dense Cirrus and Altocumulus
c) Stratus and Thick Altostratus
2951. The cloudbase is:

a) ± 260 ft
b) ± 700 ft
c) ± 1500 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol “B”

a) 220°T
b) 120°T
c) 030°T

a) 30m/s
b) 3.0 m/s
c) 7 m/s

a) 1000.0 HPa
b) 1013.8 HPa
c) 1010.0 HPa

a) Not recorded
b) Rising
c) Fluctuating

a) -12.0°C
b) +2.0°C
c) +12.0°C
2957. The visibility is:

a) 450 m
b) 45 km
c) 4500 m

a) 4 Octas
b) 1 Octa below 6000 ft
c) 3 Octas

a) Showers of rain
b) Very good
c) Unmeasurable

a) ± 800 ft
b) 7000 to 9000 ft
c) 150 to 300 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol “C”:

a) Calm
b) 270° Magnetic
c) 270° True

a) 0 kts
b) 5 m/second
c) 5 km/hour

a) 1099.8 HPa
b) 99.8 HPa
c) 999.8 HPa

a) Falling or steady, then rising
b) Rising then falling
c) Falling steadily

a) +16.2°C
b) +11.1°C
c) +3.1°C
a) 8 Octas
b) 3 Octas
c) 7 Octas

a) Slight intermittent rain
b) Fog
c) Ice needles

a) Stratus
b) Cirrus or Cirrostratus, altocumulus and large Cumulus
c) Cumulus and Stratocumulus, altocumulus and Cirrocumulus
a) 600 to 1000 ft
b) 50 to 150 ft
c) 1000 to 2000 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol “D”:

a) 215°T
b) 230°T
c) 020°T

a) 25 kts
b) 30 kts
c) 55 kts

a) 984.0 GPM
b) 1000.2 HPa
c) 1028.0 HPa

a) To rise with 2.8 HPa
b) To drop with 2.2 HPa
c) To drop with 5.6 HPa

a) +20.1°C
b) +11.0°C
c) +6.0°C
2975. The past weather is:

a) Nil
b) Rain
c) Showers

a) 6 Octas
b) 3 Octas
c) 8 Octas

a) Dust storm
b) Continuous drizzle
c) Rain

a) Stratocumulus, Cirrus and Stratus
b) Small Cumulus, Stratocumulus and Stratus
c) Cumulonimbus

a) 3000 to 5000 ft
b) 2000 to 3000 ft
c) 1000 to 2000 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol “E”:

a) 110°T
b) 110°M
c) 110°C

a) 10 kts
b) 10 km/hr
c) 10 m/sec
a) 1125 HPa
b) 1025 GPM
c) 1002.5 HPa

a) Steady rise of 6 HPa
b) Steady rise of 0.3 HPa
c) Steady rise of 0.06 HPa

a) -3°C
b) -0.3°C
c) +3°C

a) 120 m
b) 1 200 m
c) 12 000 m
a) Obscured
b) Six Octas
c) Seven Octas

a) Snow
b) Freezing snow
c) Fog in patches

a) Cirrostratus
b) Altocumulus
c) Stratus or Nimbostratus

a) 0 to 150 ft
b) 150 to 300 ft
c) 300 to 600 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol “N”

a) 209°T
b) 300°T
c) 010°T

a) 20 kts
b) 40 kts
c) 80 kts

a) 1005.2 HPa
b) 1052.2 HPa
c) 1522.0 GPM

a) Rise 0.3 HPa
b) Rise 1 HPa
c) Rise 3 HPa

a) +0°C
b) +4°C
c) +5°C
2995. The past weather is:
a) Drizzle
b) Clear skies
c) Thunderstorms

a) 5 Octas
b) 2 Octas
c) 1 Octa

a) 80 km
b) 50 km
c) 4 km
2998. The low cloud type is:
a) Cumulonimbus
b) Moderate to large cumulus
c) Thin altostratus

a) ± 2000 ft
b) ± 5000 ft
c) ± 8000 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol “G”:

a) 360°T
b) No direction
c) 360°M

a) 0 kts
b) 20 km/h
c) 20 m/s
3002. The atmospheric sea level pressure of GPM is:

a) 1025.0 HPa
b) 1002.5 HPa
c) 1025.5 HPa
3003. What was the atmospheric pressure three hours ago?

a) 1023.7 HPa
b) 1017.5 HPa
c) 1001.2 HPa

a) 6°C
b) 25°C
c) 2°C

a) 800 m
b) 8000 m
c) 80 km
3006. The amount of medium cloud is:
a) 8 Octas
b) 3 Octas
c) 2 Octas

a) Haze
b) Slight freezing rain
c) Moderate or heavy freezing rain
3008. The cloudtype is:

a) Altocumulus with Altostratus or Nimbostratus
b) Altocumulus and Cirrus
c) Cirrostratus not covering the whole sky

a) Not given
b) Below 10 000 ft
c) Above 10 000 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol “H”:

a) 320°T
b) 250°T
c) 010°T

a) 5 kts
b) 50 kts
c) 15 kts
a) 1021.0 HPa
b) 1008.3 HPa
c) 983.0 HPa

a) Falling steadily or unsteadily
b) Falling then rising
c) Falling steadily then rising rapidly
a) + 6°C
b) + 5°C
c) - 5°C
3015. The visibility at the time of the message is:

a) 35 km
b) 350 m
c) 3500 m

a) 2 Octas
b) 8 Octas
c) 3 Octas
3017. The amount of total cloud is:

a) 8 Octas
b) 2 Octas
c) 4 Octas
3018. The cloudtype is:

a) Stratus
b) Cumulus
c) Predominantly fog

a) 600 ft
b) 6000 ft
c) 7000 ft
The following eight questions refer to synoptic chart No 1:
3020. Berg wind conditions can be expected at:

a) The Namibian west coast
b) The Mozambique south coast
c) Cape Town
3021. The visibility at Walvisbay is:

a) 40 km
b) 4 km
c) 0.4 km
3022. The base of the low cloud at Cape Town is:
a) ± 300 ft
b) ± 800 ft
c) ± 1200 ft
3023. The medium cloud at Pretoria is:

a) Stratocumulus
b) Altocumulus
c) Small cumulus
3024. The present weather at Durban is:

a) Visibility reduced due to smoke
b) 4 Octas cloud
c) Not significant enough to be included
3025. The atmospheric pressure or GPM at Bloemfontein is given as 519, meaning:

a) 1051.9 HPa
b) 819.0 HPa
c) 1519 GPM
3026. The windspeed and direction at Mosselbay is:

a) 270° True heading at 10 kts
b) 270° Magnetic heading at 10 kts
c) 270° Magnetic heading at 5 kts
3027.Regarding the weather at Walvisbay, which statement regarding the fog is true:
a) The fog is either radiation or tropical steam fog
b) If the wind strengthens the fog will be blown inland
c) If the wind veers through 90° the fog will be blown inland
The following eight questions refer to synoptic chart No 2
3028. You are flying from ship F to ship E.

a) The cloudbase will drop significantly
b) The altimeter will overread on arrival at ship E
c) Severe rime icing can be expected at 1500 AGL
3029. The visibility at ship D is:
a) 7000 m
b) 20 000 m
c) 5000 m
3030. The base of the low cloud at ship A is:
a) ± 2500 ft
b) ± 1500 ft
c) ± 500 ft
3031. The low cloud at ship C is most likely to be:

a) Stratus Fractus
b) Cumulus
c) Cumulonimbus
3032. The present weather at station ship C is:

a) Intermittent rain
b) Stratus cloud
c) Moderate continuous rain
3033. The atmospheric sea level pressure or GPM at ship C is:

a) 980.0 HPa
b) 898.0 HPa
c) 1011.2 HPa
3034. The windspeed and direction at ship E is:

a) 220/30 kts
b) 170/30 kts
c) 120/30 kts
3035. In the next two hours the wind and pressure at ship C will respectively:
a) Back and drop
b) Back and rise
c) Veer and rise
The following eight questions refer to synoptic chart No 2.
3036. The wind direction at Cape Town is:

a) Typical of the Cape doctor providing cloud over Table Mountain.
b) North at 25 kts
c) South-east at 25 kts
3037. The visibility at Durban (station 588) is:

a) 7000 m
b) 700 m
c) 20 000 m
3038. The base of the low cloud at Durban (station 588) is:
a) 1000 to 2000 ft
b) 2000 to 3000 ft
c) 3000 to 5000 ft
3039. The medium clout at Bloemfontein (station 442) is:

a) Dense cirrus
b) Altostratus
c) Altocumulus castellanus
3040. The present weather at Cape Town (station 816) is:

a) Continuous rain
b) Low fractostratus cloud
c) Cold and windy
3041. The atmospheric sea level pressure or GPM at Port Elizabeth (station 842) is:
a) 1015.8 HPa
b) 1146 GPM
c) 1216 HPa
3042. The windspeed and direction at Upington (station 424) is:

a) Easterly at 10 kts
b) Light and variable
c) North-Easterly at 15 kts
3043. In the next 3 hours Durban (station 588) will experience:

a) A sharp backing of the wind and a temperature drop
b) Slight showers
c) A drop in pressure and a veering of the wind

a) Cape Town (station 816)
b) Port Elizabeth (station 842)
c) Maputo (station 341)
3045. The visibility at Cape Town is:

a) 160 meters
b) 1600 meters
c) 16 000 meters
3046. The base of the low cloud at Cape Town (station 816) is:
a) ± 300 ft
b) ± 800 ft
c) ± 1600 ft
3047. The medium cloud at Beaufort West (station 728) is:

a) Altocumulus
b) Altocumulus or Nimbostratus
c) Altocumulus in chaotic layers
3048. The present weather at Cape Town (station 816) is:

a) Continuous rain
b) Dust in the air
c) Severe dust storm
3049. The atmospheric sea level pressure or GPM at Port Elizabeth (station 842) is:
a) 842 HPa
b) 858 HPa
c) 1016 HPa
3050. The windspeed and direction at Cape Town is:

a) 360° True/25 kts
b) 180° Magnetic/25 kts
c) 180° True/25 kts
3051. What is the total cloud cover at Alexander Bay (station 406):
a) Sky obscured
b) 8 Octas
c) 7 Octas
3052. What weather do you expect at ship C in about 3 hours

a) Slight rain showers
b) Intermittent rain
c) Squalls
3053. The visibility at Ship A is:

a) 20 km
b) 7 km
c) 15 km
3054. The base of the low cloud at Ship E is:

a) 400 feet
b) 800 feet
c) 1500 feet
3055. The medium cloud at Ship E is:

a) There is no medium cloud
b) Cumulus
c) Stratocumulus
3056. The past weather at Ship D is:

a) Showers
b) Slight rain showers
c) Squalls
3057. The atmospheric pressure at Ship C in the next three hours is likely:
a) To continue dropping after the passage of the cold front
b) To continue dropping before and after the passage of the cold front
c) To continue dropping until the passage of the cold front and then start rising
3058. The windspeed and direction at Ship E is:

a) 15 kts 045°T
b) 30 kts 045°T
c) 30 kts 225°T
3059. You are flying from Cape Town to Ship B. The wind will:
a) First veer then back
b) Back twice during the flight
c) Only back when passing through the cold front
The following five questions refer to the METAR as listed below:

METAR FACT 120500Z 34032G 44 KT 5000 + RA SCT005 OVC013 14/13 Q 1008
TEMPO 2000 =
3060. Which of the following statements regarding TEMPO is correct?

a) The visibility will reduce to 2000 m for less than one hour
b) The visibility will reduce to 2000 m within the next hour
c) The visibility will increase to 5000 m within the next two hours
3061. The lowest cloud is:

a) Scattered stratocumulus
b) The low cloud is at 5000 ft
c) Between 3 and 4 Octas
3062. The wind direction and strength is:

a) 340°T, 32 kts gusting 44 kts
b) 340°T at 44 kts
c) Varying between 340°T and 320°T at 44 kts
3063. At 07h00 bravo time the visibility is:
a) 2000 m
b) 5000 m
c) Unknown
3064. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The QNH is 1008 HPa
b) The QFE is 1008 HPa
c) The temperature is 14°C gusting 13°C
The following five questions refer to the METAR as listed below.

METAR FACT 220500Z 01018 G 32 KT 9999 SCT020 BKN035 12/09 Q1020 NOSIG
3065. The wind speed and direction is:

a) 010° True at 32 kts
b) 018° True at 32 kts
c) 010° True at 18 kts gusting 32 kts
3066. NOSIG means:

a) No significant weather
b) No significant change
c) No significant dangers
3067. The atmospheric pressure is:

a) 1002.0 HPa
b) 1020.0 HPa
c) 1000.2 HPa
3068. The visibility:

a) Is 9999 m
b) Is greater than 10 000 m
c) Was not recorded
3069. The low cloud is:

a) Scattered stratocumulus
b) 3 to 4 Octas at 200 ft
c) 3 to 4 Octas at 2000 ft

FAMM 070500Z 15008KT CAVOK 06/00 Q 1026 =
3070. The wind direction is in degrees from:

a) Magnetic north
b) True north
c) Compass north
3071. CAVOK indicates that:
a) There are no clouds visible
b) There are no low cloud present
c) The visibility is greater than 10 000 feet
3072. Which of the following is true regarding the term CAVOK?

a) CAVOK may apply during sandstorms
b) CAVOK may apply during frost
c) CAVOK may apply during tornados
3073. The time of the report is:

a) 0700 Bravo time
b) 0500 Bravo time
c) 0300 Bravo time

a) The weather will become CAVOK at 06h00Z
b) FAMM is somewhere in Namibia
c) The dewpoint temperature is 0°C

METAR EGLL 020800Z 01008KT 0400N R03/0400D R21/0350N FG BKN006 SCT01514/13 Q1020
BECMG 7000 BCFG
3075. The horizontal visibility is:

a) 1020 m
b) 400 m to the North
c) 350 m to the North
3076. The wind direction and speed is:

a) 210° True/35 kts
b) 030° True/40 kts
c) 010° True/8 kts

a) Temperature is between 13 and 14° Celsius
b) The airfield is presently experiencing fog
c) The atmospheric pressure is 1510.2 geopotential meters
3078. Which of the following statements is true?

a) The RVR to the North is 350 m
b) The RVR is 400 m on runway 03
c) The RVR is 210 m on runway 35
3079. What is the trend of the WX?

a) Vis improving to 7000 m in fog patches
b) Either precipitation, shallow fog or low drifting snow will follow
c) The sky will be clear within two hours

METAR FAOB 170600Z 01020G35KT 8000 SCT040 20/15 Q0999 BECMG FM07 3000 +RA 18/15
3080. What is the cloud height at 0630 Zulu?

a) 3000 ft
b) 1500 ft
c) 4000 ft
3081. What is the QNH?

a) 1999.0 HPa
b) 1099.9 HPa
c) 999.0 HPa
3082. The visibility will be 3000 m after:

a) 0700Z to 0800Z
b) 0600Z and before 0700Z
c) 0800Z
3083. You can expect that the height of the cloud base, two hours after the METAR was
sent will:
a) Rise slightly
b) Drop slightly
c) Stay 400 feet
3084. The weather after 0700Z will be:

a) Slight rain
b) Heavy rain
c) No rain
METAR FACT 070500Z 34032G44 KT 9000 – RA BKN020 SCT050 14/08 Q1012 BECMG 9999
SCT 035
3085. Present weather is:

a) Heavy rain
b) Rain
c) Light rain
3086. Windspeed at FACT is:

a) 32 kts gusting 44 kts
b) 40 kts
c) 34 kts
3087. The visibility at 0700 Bravo time is:

a) 9 km
b) 9.999 km
c) Greater than 10 000 meters
3088. Wind direction is:

a) 340° True
b) 340° Magnetic
c) 340° Compass

a) A METAR has the same format as a TAF
b) A SPECI has the same format as a METAR
c) A METAR is a weather forecast.
The following four questions refer to the METAR as listed below.

METAR FAWK 090500Z 27005 KT 0500 FG OVC 001 09/09 Q1022 BECMG FM06
26010KT 9999 SCT015
3090. The visibility at 0645Z is:

a) 500 m
b) More than 10 000 m
c) ± 1000 m
3091. What time was the METAR compiled for?

a) 0500 Bravo time
b) 0700 Bravo time
c) 0300 Bravo time
3092. Cloudcover between 0500Z and 0600Z will be:

a) 1 Octa
b) 4 Octas
c) 8 Octas
3093. The rapid change in weather will take place:

a) Within an hour
b) After one hour
c) Within the following two hours
The following four questions refer to the METAR as listed below:

METAR FACT 170800Z 35005KT 4000 – FZRA OVC020 06/00 Q1008 BECMG FM09
0800 OVC004
3094. What type of precipitation is occurring at 0800Z?

a) Light freezing rain
b) Heavy freezing rain
c) Fog
3095. What happens to the visibility between 0800Z and 0930Z?
a) Decreases to 700 meters
b) Decreases to 800 meters
c) Decreases to 900 meters in Fog or Mist
3096. The cloudbase at 0930Z will be:

a) 400 meters
b) 400 feet
c) 400 HPa

a) 6°C
b) 2°C
c) 0°C

METAR FAPE 060500Z 25003KT 1500S MIFG SCT090 09/09 Q1025 NOSIG
3098. MIFG means that the visibility at two meters above ground level shall be:
a) Less than 1000 m
b) 1000 m or more
c) 2000 m or more
a) The RVR on runway 18 is 1500 meters

b) The visibility at Port Elizabeth is 1500 feet
c) The visibility is 1500 meters towards the sea
3100. The wind is:

c) 025° True at 3 kts

a) QNE 1025 HPa
b) QNH 1025 HPa
c) QFE 1025 HPa
3102. NOSIG means:

a) No significant change is expected in the next 2 hours
b) No significant change is expected in the next 3 hours
c) No significant change is expected in the next 6 hours

METAR FADN 220500Z 26004KT 3000 FU SCT 025 17/15 Q1018
3103. What is the visibility?

a) 500 meters
b) 3000 feet
c) 3 km
3104. FU is used to indicate:

a) Fog
b) Smoke
c) Funnel clouds
3105. The cloud cover is:

a) ± 4 Octas
b) ± 6 Octas
c) None of the above
3106. The QNH is:

a) 1018 HPa
b) 1001.8 HPa
c) 851.8 HPa
3107. The wind direction is given in degrees from:

a) Compass North
b) Magnetic North
c) True North
The following five questions refer to the TAF as listed below.

TAF FACT 120000Z 120312 02010KT 9999 SCT 035 TEMPO 0307 36025G35KT
PROB30 TEMPO 0810 BKN 020 T10/12Z =
3108. The forecast was made at:

a) 0200Z
b) 1200Z
c) 0000Z
3109. The wind will increase to 360°/25 kts gusting 35 kts:

a) After 0600Z
b) Between 0300Z and 0700Z
c) If the 30 % probability comes about
3110. The cloudbase at 0700Z is forecast to be:

a) 3500 ft
b) 2000 ft
c) Between 2000 and 3500 ft
3111. The cloud cover at between 0800Z and 1000Z is:
a) Between 7 and 5 Octas
b) Between 4 and 7 Octas
c) Scattered stratocumulus
3112. Which of the following statements are true?

a) The temperature is 11°C
b) The forecast period is from 0800Z to 1000Z
c) The forecast period is from 0300Z
The following five questions refer to the TAF as listed below:

TAF FADN 270300Z 270615 21016 KT 9999 SCT 030 BKN120 FM12 14012 KT BKN 020
T26/12Z =
3113. The forecast is valid:

a) From 0600Z to 1500Z
b) On the 6th of the month at 1500Z
c) At 0615Z
3114. The visibility is measured from:

a) 1.5 meters above the ground
b) 15 meters above the ground
c) 50 meters above the ground
3115. The cloudbase at 1430Z is forecast to be:

a) 3000 feet
b) 2000 feet
c) Between 2000 and 3000 feet

a) Greater than 10 km
b) Not measurable
c) 9.9999 km
3117. Which of the following statements are true:

a) The wind will back during the forecast period
b) The temperature is 12°C
c) The forecast ends at 1400 Bravo time

TAF FAGG 120000Z 120312 VRB05KT 9999 SCT 012 PROB40 TEMPO 0810 26010KT 5000 RA
OVC 020 FM11 21015KT 8000 BKN040 T09/10Z =
3118. The time for the forecast period is:

a) Between 12H00 and 01H00 Zulu time
b) Between 05H00 and 14H00 Bravo time
c) Between 03H00 and 11H00 Zulu time
3119. A requirement for CAVOK is:

a) The visibility is not less than 10 000 m
b) Low cloud is less than 4 Octas
c) No cloud below the minimum sector altitude
3120. The forecast visibility at 0900Z is:

a) Greater than 10 000 m
b) 5000 m
c) 8000 m
3121. The cloudbase after 1100Z is forecast to be:
a) 2000 ft
b) 3000 ft
c) 4000 ft
3122. The wind is forecast to:

a) Veer between 0800Z and 1000Z
b) Back after 1300 Bravo time
c) Fluctuate in strength between 0300Z and 1200Z

TAF FALW 020000Z 020312 27005KT 4000 VC FG BKN020 BECMG 0911 OVC 010
T12/11Z =
3123. The weather at 0500 Bravo time is:

a) Fog
b) Fog in the vicinity of the aerodrome
c) Rain showers
3124. When will the cloud become overcast?

a) Before 1100Z time
b) After 1500Z time
c) At 1700Z time
3125. At what time was this TAF compiled?

a) 0000Z
b) 0200Z
c) 0300Z
3126. The QNH will decrease to 1008 HPa:

a) No QNH given
b) Between 0600 and 0800 Zulu
c) Between 0700 and 1400 Zulu
3127. The visibility at 1100Z will be:

a) 1000 meters
b) 4000 meters
c) Greater tan 10 km

TAF FAUT 040300Z 040615 03007KT 9999 BKN 035 BECMG 0709 SCT045 BECMG
1012 CAVOK T33/13Z =
3128. The wind is:

a) 300° at 7 kts
b) 030° at 7 kts
c) Measured in degrees from magnetic north
3129. CAVOK will apply from:

a) 0700Z
b) 0900Z
c) 1000Z
3130. The forecast period terminates at:

a) 1000Z
b) 1200Z
c) 1500Z
3131. CAVOK indicates:

a) No clouds
b) No low and medium clouds
c) No low clouds
3132. During the forecast period the amount of cloud will:

a) Increase and the base will rise
b) Decrease and the base will rise
c) Remain the same and the base will rise

TAF FAWM 270300Z 270615 15008KT CAVOK BECMG 0810 36010KT T28/14Z =
3133. The wind direction will change to 36010KT:

a) At 0800Z
b) At 0810Z
c) Between 0800 and 1000Z

a) Greater than 10 km
b) Greater than 5 km
c) Greater than 50 km
3135. A TAF is a:
a) Routine weather report
b) Special message sent when requested by pilots
c) Routine weather forecast.
3136. The wind direction at 0700 Zulu time:

a) Will be 015° True
b) Will be 036° True
c) Will be south easterly

a) The TAF was compiled at 0615Z time
b) There will be no cloud overhead FAWM throughout the forecast period
c) The wind strength at 0900 Bravo time will be 8 kts

TAF FACT 090300Z 090615 35025G45KT 8000 SCT008 BCN030 TEMPO 0612 2000 RA OVC008
BECMG 1415 26015G25KT =
3138. The forecast period is from:

a) 0900Z
b) 0600Z
c) 0400Z
3139. The visibility at 1400Z will be:

a) 2000 m
b) 8000 m
c) Greater than 10 000 m
3140. The wind strength at 1200Z will be:

a) 15 kts
b) 25 kts gusting 45 kts
c) 45 kts
3141. The wind direction will:

a) Veer
b) Back
c) Change temporarily
3142. The cloudbase of the overcast cloud is:

a) 800 feet
b) 80 meters
c) 800 meters
The following five questions refer to the TAF as listed in the Exam Aid Page: Exam-15
3143. On what synoptic chart was the TAFS based?
a) 1200Z
b) 0600Z
c) 0300Z
3144. At Johannesburg International, there is a 30 % probability that:
a) The cloud base will be 2000 feet at 1200B
b) The wind will gust up to 35 kts after 0800B time
c) Thunder showers and rain will occur between 1300Z and 1500Z
3145. The forecasts are valid from:

a) 0900Z
b) 0312Z
c) 0600Z
3146. TEMPO means:

a) Change after time given
b) Cause the influx of cold moisture laden air
c) Temporary change for less than half the period given
3147. Which statement regarding TAFs is correct?

a) Units of wind strength is always in knots (nautical miles per hour)
b) If cumulonimbus is present it will be included in the TAF
c) NSC means no significant cirro clouds
The following five questions refer to the TAF from Margate as listed on page 98:
3148. The forecast:

a) Is from 0200 to 1000Z
b) Is from 0900 to 1800Z
c) Is form 1000 to 2400Z
3149. The predicted weather between 1400Z and 1800Z is:

a) Freezing rain
b) Rain in the vicinity of the airfield
c) Light rain.
3150. The visibility at 1200 local time:

a) Is 6000 meters
b) Will be greater than 10 km
c) Is not given in this specific TAF
3151. The cloudbase will:

a) Temporarily lower during the forecast period
b) Rise during the forecast period
c) Initially be lower then rise during the latter part of the forecast period
3152. Forecast wind direction:
a) Is given in degrees magnetic heading

b) Is predicted to change after 17H00 local time
c) Is measured from true north

TAF FACT 010300Z 010615 VRB03KT 2000 FG OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 0810
28015G30KT 5000 +RA OVC 020 FM11 29020KT 8000 –RA OVC 025 T17/11Z =
3153. The visibility at 0900B time will be:

a) 2000 m
b) 5000 m
c) 8000 m
3154. The TAF is valid for the period:

a) 0100Z to 1100Z
b) 0300Z to 1400Z
c) 0600Z to 1500Z
3155. TEMPO means:

a) The forecast weather will be interrupted
b) The weather as forecast will occur in the interim period
c) The weather as forecast will occur for less than half the period stated
3156. The weather at 1200Z will be:

a) Fog
b) Light rain
c) Heavy rain
3157. The abbreviation VRB as used in the TAF means:

a) Variable
b) Voice rotating beacon
c) VFR flight rules must be obeyed
Refer to significant weather charts valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13
3158. You are flying from Cape Town to Port Elizabeth at F110. You are most likely to
experience:
a) 5 to 7 Octas cloud
b) Severe carburetor icing
c) Lightning
For the following two questions refer to significant weather chartsvalid 0600 UT 1998-01-13:
3159. You are flying from East Londen to Cape Town. You are likely to encounter:
a) Clear air turbulence at FL130
b) Strong westerly winds exceeding 280 kts
c) Icing above 1000 ft at times
3160. The temperature at Port Elizabeth at 0800 local time:

a) ± 34°C
b) ± 14°C
c) ± 26°C
For the following two questions refer to significant weather charts

valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13:
3161. You have to fly VFR from Overberg to Langebaanweg. At what level will you
experience the safest flight?
a) FL060
b) FL100
c) Should not fly at all
3162. At what level will the temperature increase with height above Cape Town?
a) 50 000 ft
b) 42 000 ft
c) 35 000 ft
For the following two questions refer to significant weather chart valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13
3163. You are flying from Overberg to Cape Town at 1500 ft AMSL. The weather en route is:
a) Rain
b) Showers
c) Hail
3164. The visibility en route to Nelspruit (flying from Durban at 4000 ft AMSL):
a) Will progressively deteriorate to 1000 m
b) Will be poor when precipitation and fog occurs
c) Will remain ± 3000 m due to fog on the escarpment
For the following two questions refer to significant weather chart valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13:
3165. You are flying in the South-Western Cape at FL360. You can expect:
a) Thundershowers
b) Icing
c) C.A.T.
3166. En route from Maputo to Pretoria at FL075 you can expect:

a) Fog on the escarpment
b) High turbulence
c) Severe turbulence
For the following two questions refer to significant weather chart valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13:
3167. You expect the lowest temperatures at:
a) Port Elizabeth
b) Durban
c) Cape Town
3168. The cloud tops at Johannesburg:

a) Was not measured
b) Below FL170
c) FL090
Refer to significant weather chart valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13:
3169. You are flying from Alexander Bay to Cape Town, you are most likely to experience icing at:
a) Above FL140
b) FL100 to FL140
c) Below FL100
For the following two questions refer to the upper winds chart based on 0600 UT 1998-01-07. You are
flying from 30°S 30°E to 30°S 20°E at FL130.
3170. Which of the following is true?

a) Groundspeed will be greater than Indicated Airspeed
b) You can expect to drift left of track
c) Your altimeter will underread at destination if QNH setting is not adjusted
3171. The wind direction and speed at 30°S 28°E is:

a) 290°/20 kts at FL170
b) 160°/10 kts at FL100
c) 195°/15 kts at FL210
For the following two questions refer to the upper winds chart based
on 0600 UT 1998-01-07.
3172. What is the wind speed and direction at FL100 at 33°S 22°E?
a) 110°/15 kts
b) 075°/15 kts
c) 300°/15 kts
3173. You fly from 20°S 30°E to 20°S 25°E, at what altitude is carburetor icing most likely?
a) 8000 ft
b) 14 000 ft
c) 19 000 ft
For the following two questions refer to upper wind and temperature chart valid at 0600 UT 1998-01-
07.
3174. What is the wind direction and strength at FL100 at 22°S 25°E?
a) ± 300°/15 kts
b) ± 030°/10 kts
c) ± 355°/10 kts
3175. What is the wind strength and direction at FL90 at 25°S 25°E?
a) 110°/10 kts
b) 020°/08 kts
c) 180°/30 kts
For the following two questions refer to upper winds and temperature chart valid at 0600
UT 1998-01-07.
3176. The wind direction and speed at FL110 at 33°S 26°E is:
a) 200°/35 kts
b) 185°/20 kts
c) 300°/15 kts
3177. The temperature at 30°S and 30°E is:

a) -21°C at FL150
b) -5°C at FL170
c) -6°C at FL070
Refer to upper winds and temperature charts valid at 0600 UT 1998-01-07
3178. The density altitude at 25°S 20°E at FL170 is:
a) 18 800 feet
b) 16 000 feet
c) 14 700 feet
For the following three questions refer to Actual Upper Wind Chart 950411 12H00.
3179. What is the wind direction and speed overhead Durban at FL230?
a) 190°/35 kts
b) 230°/65 kts
c) 220°/50 kts
3180. From FL170 to FL350, on which side of the country is the High situated?
a) Cannot calculate from the given chart
b) To the West of the country
c) To the East of the country
3181. You are flying from Waterkloof to Windhoek at FL150. What wind can you expect
en route?
a) A head wind of 15 kts
b) A vector wind of 090°/20 kts
c) A tail wind of 35 kts
For the following three questions refer to Actual Upper Wind Chart 950411 12H00.
3182. What is the wind direction and speed overhead Cape Town at FL050?
a) 250°/20 kts
b) 290°/10 kts
c) 360°/05 kts
3183. You are flying form Cape Town to Durban at FL270. Without adjusting your
altimeter after take-off, will it…
a) Overread at Durban
b) Underread at Durban
c) Can’t calculate from given chart
3184. Which level will be the most favourable to fly from Pietersburg to Bloemfontein?
a) FL100
b) FL170
c) FL080
3185. Refer to Synoptic Chart 2. You fly from A to B, the altimeter will overread.
a) True
b) False
3186. The trend attached to a METAR and SPECI is valid for:

a) 2 hours
b) 6 hours
c) 9 hours
3187. A sudden significant change in visibility, low cloud, surface wind or weather is
provided for in one of the following:
a) SPECI
b) METAR
c) TAF

a) A TAF is an area forecast whilst a METAR and SPECI are aerodrome
forecasts
b) METARs and SPECIs are issued as routine whilst TAFs are issued on an as
required basis
c) A METAR is issued on a routine basis whilst a SPECI is issued when
significant deteriorations or improvements occur in the weather

a) Maputo (station 341)
b) Cape Town (station 816)
c) Alexander Bay (station 406)
3190. The visibility at Ship G is:

a) 7000 m
b) 70 000 m
c) 20 000 m
3191. The base of the low cloud at Ship G is:

a) 500 feet
b) 700 feet
c) 2500 feet
3192. The medium cloud at station Ship G is:

a) Nil
b) Cumulus
c) Stratocumulus
3193. The present weather at Upington (station 424) is:

a) Precipitation at the station
b) Precipitation near the station
c) Precipitation for from the station
3194. The atmospheric sea level pressure or GPM at Ship G is:

a) 822.2 HPa
b) 1022.2 HPa
c) 1222.0 HPa
3195. The windspeed and direction at Ship G is:

c) 260° True at 15 kts
3196. You fly from ship G to ship E. At ship G you set the correct QNH, after landing at
ship E (QNH 1004 on arrival) the altimeter:
a) Will indicate 540 feet
b) Will indicate 420 feet
c) Will indicate 60 feet
a) Durban
b) Cape Town
c) Maputo
3198. The visibility at Windhoek is:

a) 8 km
b) 30 km
c) 80 km
3199. The base of the low cloud at Windhoek (station 110) is:
a) 2000 ft
b) 4500 ft
c) Above 9000 ft
3200. The medium cloud at Windhoek (station 110) is:

a) Altocumulus
b) Altocumulus castellanus
c) Cumulus
3201. The present weather at Beaufort West is:

a) Rain
b) Showers
c) No significant weather
3202. The sea level pressure or GPM at Walvis Bay 68104 is:
a) 1156.0 HPa
b) 1156 GPM
c) 1015.6 HPa
3203. The windspeed and direction at Grootfontein (station 012) in Namibia is:
a) South Easterly at 10 kts
b) South Westerly at 10 kts
c) North Westerly at 10 kts
3204. The total cloud cover at Windhoek is:

a) 2 Octas
b) 3 Octas
c) 4 Octas

a) Maputo
b) Durban
c) Port Elizabeth
3206. The visibility at Bashee (station 768) is likely to:

a) Decrease to 4000 m within the next 3 hours
b) Decrease to 7000 m within the next 3 hours
c) Decrease to 10 000 m within the next 3 hours
3207. The base of the low cloud at Port Elizabeth (station 842) is likely to:
a) Drop in the next hour
b) Stay approximately at the same height for the next hour
c) Rise significantly in the next hour
3208. The low cloud at Port Elizabeth (station 842) is:

a) Small cumulus
b) Strato cumulus
c) Cumulus and strato cumulus
3209. The present weather at Durban (station 588) is:

a) Dry haze
b) Fog
c) No significant weather
3210. The atmospheric pressure at Bashee (station 768) will:

a) Rise after the passage of the front
b) Drop after the cold front has passed
c) Rise slightly and then drop within the next three hours
3211. The windspeed and direction at Bashee, after the passage of the cold front will:
a) Increase and veer
b) Decrease and back
c) Increase and become south westerly
3212. The upper air at Bloemfontein is:

a) Stable and moist
b) Unstable and moist
c) Saturated at 6000 above mean sea level
the following seven questions refer to synoptic chart No 2.
3213. What wind changes can be expected at Ship E in the next 3 hours?
a) The wind will back and increase in strength
b) The wind will back twice and increase in strength
c) The wind will back once due to the existence of the surface occlusion
3214. The visibility at Ship E is:
a) 200 meters
b) 2000 meters
c) 2500 meters
3215. The base of the low cloud at Ship E is:

a) ± 300 feet
b) ± 500 feet
c) ± 800 feet
3216. The medium cloud at station 323 on the Mosambique coast is:
a) Altocumulus from spreading cumulus
b) Large cumulus
c) Small altocumulus
3217. The present weather at ship D is:

a) Slight rain
b) Showers
c) Rain showers
3218. The atmospheric pressure at Ship D two hours ago was:

a) 1001 HPa
b) 1002 HPa
c) 1005 HPa
3219. What wind conditions would you expect to find at sea level at 35°S 11°E?
a) Light westerly wind
b) Light northerly wind
c) Light easterly wind
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Average Height of the Tropopause by Latitude

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Average Height of the Tropopause by Latitude

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1id 121What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?

2id 122In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated ?

5id 1496Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?

6id 2069The thickness of the troposphere varies with

10id 3592The troposphere is the

11id 3593The tropopause is a level at which

12id 3594The tropopause is lower

13id 3598The average height of the tropopause at 50°N is about

16id 5556In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from

17id 6406A temperature increase with altitude through a layer is called:

20id 6536Define the tropopause:

22id 6572The lowest layer in the atmosphere is:

25id 6655What is a characteristic of the troposphere?

27id 6657Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

28id 6679The boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere is called

34id 1200What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?

35id 1497The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a

36id 2070In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature

37id 4972Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?

39id 6542An inversion is characterized by:

41id 130Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the

42id 1160Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in

44id 3616The radiation of the sun heats

45id 6454The majority of troposphere heating is the result of:

47id 132A layer is conditionally unstable if the air

48 id 1161Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate

50id 3602An inversion is a layer of air which is

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52id 3604The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of

53id 3605The dry adiabatic lapse rate

54id 3606An air mass is called stable when

56id 4041A layer can be

61id 6482Absolute instability in a layer of air is characterized by the vertical temperature

62id 6581What is meant by "standard lapse rate"?

63id 6596The lapse rate for a dry parcel of air is:

65id 6675What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

67id 6677Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable?

68id 6678How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?

71id 6855What is the preference of a layer with constant temperature?

72id 137Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature

73id 1162Which of the following is a common result of subsidence ?

74id 2082What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion ?

76id 3600An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature

77id 3601An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature

78id 4002An inversion is

79id 4122A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of

81id 6580What is meant by "isothermal layer"?

82id 6658Where is a common location for an inversion?

83id 6712A temperature increase with increasing altitude is called

85id 6934What is the cause for a surface temperature inversion?

86 id 3617The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is

89id 6467Temperature variation during 24 hours is least over:

93id 2390The station pressure used in surface weather charts is

94id 4170Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal

95id 4989The pressure system at position "b" is a

96id 5004The pressure distribution located mainly at point B is a

98id 6452What is dynamic pressure?

99id 6458The unit of pressure most commonly used in meteorology is:

100id 6464Lines connecting points of equal pressure are called:

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