AIR NAVIGATION TEST – 2

Total Questions: 100 Total Marks: 100

Total Time: 3 hours
Note:
- Answer all the questions
- Tick the appropriate option and assume values wherever necessary
- Use of flight computer and scientific calculator is permitted

1) A rhumb line is
a) Any straight line on a lambert projection
b) A line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at same angle
c) A curved line on a Mercator projection
2) An aircraft is descending down a 6% glide slope whilst maintaining a ground speed of 300
knots. The rate of descent of the aircraft approximately is:
a) 3600 fpm
b) 10800 fpm
c) 1800 fpm
3) What airborne equipment if any is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let down may be
flown?
a) VHF radio
b) VOR
c) VOR DME
4) When in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the ball is on the
left, the aircraft is:
a) Turning right with too much bank
b) Turning left with too much bank
c) Turning right with not enough bank
5) In the flight management computer (FMC) of the flight management system (FMS), data
relating to flight plan is stored in the:
a) Performance database
b) Navigation database
c) Air data database
6) In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency signify:
a) The number of pulses Transmitted per second
b) The time between each transmission of pulses
c) The radar frequency used
7) An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading 300* and the track selector (OBS) reads:
330*. The indications on the CDI are ‘fly’:
a) Left with ‘from’ showing
b) Left with ‘to’ showing
c) Right with ‘to’ showing
8) Transmission from a VOR facility maybe adversely affected by:
a) Static interference
b) Night effect
c) Uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
9) An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane:
a) Omni-directional
b) A beam rotating at 30 Hz
c) Bi-local circular
10) Given an airplane with:
Maximum structural landing mass – 68000 kg
Maximum Zero fuel mass – 70200 kg
Maximum structural takeoff mass – 78200 kg
Dry operating mass – 48000 kg
Trip fuel 7000 kg, Reserve fuel 2800 kg
Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take off mass
and payload respectively are:
a) 77200 kg , 19400 kg
b) 77200 kg, 22200 kg
c) 75000 kg, 17200 kg
11) The highest value of longitude is found:
a) Along the Equator
b) At Greenwich anti meridian
c) Closer to prime meridian
12) What is a VDF referenced to:
a) Magnetic north at the station
b) Magnetic north at the aircraft
c) True north at the aircraft
13) What is the wavelength of n NDB transmitting in 375kHz ?
a) 8 m
b) 80 m
c) 800 m
14) The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave landing system (MLS) provides a fan shaped
horizontal approach zone which is usually:
a) + or – 30* of the runway centre line
b) + or – 40* of the runway centre line
c) + or – 50* of the runway centre line
15) During deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction, a magnetic compass made
for the Southern Hemisphere indicates:
a) No apparent turn
b) An apparent turn to the north
c) An apparent turn to the south
16) For TAS calculations the ADC uses the following inputs:
1. SAT
2. TAT
3. Static pressure
4. Total pressure
a) 1,3,4
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,2,3,4
17) The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
a) Hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal
b) To stop loop rotation
c) Find the null position
18) Given GS = 122 KT
Distance from A to B = 985 nm
What is the time from A to B ?
a) 7 h 48 min
b) 7 h 49 min
c) 8 h 04 min
19) Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum
when the NDB is:
a) Inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
b) Near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
c) Inland and bearing crosses the coast at right angles
20) If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
a) Under read
b) Gradually indicate zero
c) Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred
21) The purpose of a vibrating device of an altimeter is to:
a) Inform the crew of a failure of the instrument
b) Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages
c) Reduce the hysteresis effect
22) Which of the following affects the VDF range:
a) Height of the transmitter and receiver
b) Sky wave propagation
c) Coastal refraction
23) Given: Pressure altitude 29000 ft
OAT -55*C
What is the density altitude ?
a) 26000 ft
b) 27500 ft
c) 30000 ft
24) An aircraft at latitude 10*N flies south at a ground speed of 445 kph. What will be it’s
latitude after 3 hours?
a) 02*00’ S
b) 03*50’ S
c) 12*15’ S
25) Night effect which causes loss of signals and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB
transmissions, is due to:
a) The effect of Aurora borealis
b) Static activity increasing at night particularly at the low frequency band
c) Sky wave distortion at the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk
26) Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers ?
a) 190-1750 kHz
b) 255-450 kHz
c) 200-2000 kHz
27) On which of the following displays are you able to get a direct readout of the magnetic
bearing from the aircraft to the NDB?
a) Fixed card ADF only
b) Fixed card ADF and RMI
c) Moving card ADF and RMI
28) On the following display, the ____ is indicated by a yellow circle
a) RA intruder
b) TA intruder
c) Proximate intruder
29) The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source
is known as:
a) Pressure position error
b) Barometric error
c) Instrument error
30) The indicated range from a DME station is
a) ground range
b) Slant range
c) Ground range only if beacon is co-located with VOR
31) In a directional gyro, gimballing errors are due to:
a) Banked attitude
b) Vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field
c) Aircraft’s movement over the earth
32) The altimeter indicates 11000 ft with a sub scale setting of 1013.25 hPa. QNH is 1023 hPa,
OAT Isis +3*C. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:
a) 11740 ft
b) 11000 ft
c) 10260 ft
33) At a specific location the value of magnetic variation
a) depends on the value of magnetic heading
b) depends on the value of true heading
c) varies slowly with time
34) Isogonals converge at the?
a) magnetic equator
b) north and south magnetic poles
c) north and south geographic and magnetic poles
35) An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 150 Hz than 90 Hz modulation
notes from both the localiser and glide path transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
a) Fly left and fly up
b) fly right and fly up
c) fly right and fly down
36) What is the angle between true north and magnetic north ?
a) Dip
b) deviation
c) variation
37) Compared to VSI what error is eliminated by IVSI
a) Lag
b) Turning
c) Pressure
38) Position A is 55*N 030*W and B is 54*N 020*W. What is the rhumb line bearing from A to B,
if the great circle track from A to B measured at A is 100*T?
a) 110*T
b) 90*T
c) 104*T
39) EAS is the IAS corrected for the errors
a) Instrument, pressure, compressibility
b) Instrument, pressure, density
c) Instrument, temperature deviation, density
40) What speed is Vno?
a) That which may never be exceeded
b) That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air
c) That which may be exceeded only in emergencies
41) An altimeter with barometric sub scale set to 999hPa reads 1500ft. If sub scale is reset to
1006hPa, the altimeter will read?
a) 1290ft
b) 1300ft
 c) 1710ft
42) The dither motor in a ring laser gyroscope?
a) Stabilises frequency or the laser source
b) Minimises transport wander
c) Prevents laser lock
43) To obtain heading heading information from a gyro stabilised platform, the gyros should be?
a) 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis
b) 1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis
c) 2 degree of freedom and a vertical axis
44) In a primary radar using pulse recurrence frequency (PRF) determines:
a) Target discrimination
b) Minimum range
c) Maximum theoretical range
45) Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?
a) Coastal refraction
b) Scalloping
c) Night effect
46) An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244* radial. In order to obtain
correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
a) 064* with the TO flag showing
b) 064* with the FROM flag showing
c) 244* with the TO flag showing
47) An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Minimum rate of
descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 KT. The minimum range from the
DME at which descent should start is:
a) 59 NM
b) 69 NM
c) 79 NM
48) The standard parallels of a Lambert’s conical orthomorphic projection are 07*40’N and
38*20’N. The constant of the cone for this chart is:
a) 0.39
b) 0.42
c) 0.92
49) Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:
a) Magnetic course
b) Magnetic track
c) Compass heading
50) A westerly magnetic variation signifies that:
a) True north is east of magnetic north
b) Compass north is west of magnetic north
c) True north is west of magnetic north
51) The rhumb-line distance between points A(60*00’N 02*30’E) and B(60*00’N 07*30’W) is:
a) 150 NM
b) 300 NM
c) 450 NM
52) The great circle track from X to Y, measured at ‘X’ is 319* and measured at ‘Y’ is 325*.
Consider the following statements:
a) Southern Hemisphere, rhumb line track is 322*
b) Northern hemisphere, rhumb line track is 322*
c) Southern Hemisphere, rhumb line track is 331*
53) Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in
ADF bearings?
a) Quadrantal error
b) Coastal effect
c) Local thunderstorm activity
54) Due to the rotation of the earth, the apparent drift of an horizontal free gyroscope at a
latitude of 30*S is:
a) 7.5* per hour to the left
b) 15* per hour to the right
c) 11* per hour to the left
55) In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
a) SHF
b) UHF
c) VHF
56) The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed
radar is pulse:
a) Amplitude
b) Frequency
c) Length
57) Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency that can be used by a
primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:
a) 325 pps
b) 405 pps
c) 782 pps
58) In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based upon:
a) A frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the
transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.
b) A pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured
on a circular scanning screen
c) A triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between
transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured
59) A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63cm and represents 150 NM. The chart scale is:
a) 1:5 000 000
b) 1:6 000 000
c) 1:1 000 000
60) If the static source to an airspeed indicator becomes blocked during a descent the
instrument will:
a) Read zero
b) Under-read
c) Over-read
61) In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:
a) At the aircraft location
b) At both VOR and aircraft
c) At the VOR
62) In order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power output must be
increased by a factor of:
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
63) Scale on a Lambert’s conformal chart is:
a) Constant over the whole chart
 b) Constant along a parallel of latitude
c) Constant along a meridian of longitude
64) An agonic line is a line that connects:
a) Positions that have 0* dip
b) Positions of same variation
c) Positions that have 0* variation
65) At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)?
a) Beginning of July
b) End of September
c) Beginning of January
66) What is the local mean time, position 65*25’N 123*45’W at 2200 UTC?
a) 0615
b) 0815
c) 1345
67) According to ICAO annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator transmit?
a) HF
b) MF/HF
c) LF/MF
68) Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency ?
a) 110.20 MHz
b) 109.15 MHz
c) 108.25 MHz
69) On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?
a) 3000 Hz
b) 75 MHz
c) 400Hz
70) The azimuth coverage of a 3* glidepath is:
a) +/- 35* to 17nm
b) +/- 10* to 25nm
c) +/- 8* to 10nm
71) The provision of RAIM requires a minimum of _____ satellites:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
72) The vertical feed indicator is fed by:
a) Static pressure
b) Dynamic pressure
c) Total pressure
73) The emission characteristics A3E describe?
a) ILS
b) VOR
c) VDF
74) Given: Magnetic heading 280*, VOR radial 090*. What bearing should be selected on the
omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a “TO”
indication?
a) 270*
b) 090*
c) 100*
75) Assuming a 5 dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localiser
cockpit display represent:
a) 2 degrees
b) 1 degrees
c) 0.5 degrees
76) The doppler effect is:
a) The change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter and receiver
b) The change in frequency caused by the movement of a receiver
c) The change in frequency caused by the relative movement between a transmitter and
receiver
77) An aircraft is to fly from position 72 00’N 02 30’ E to position 72 00’N 177 30’ Won the
shortest possible route. What will be the initial true (T) track ?
a) 180
b) 270
c) 360
78) Charts on which the angles of the earth are correctly represented are called
a) Perspective
b) Non perspective
c) Orthomorphic
79) What is the Local Speed of Sound at 30000ft if ambient temperature is -40*C ?
a) 584 KT
b) 594 KT
c) 660 KT
80) In an IRS:
a) Accelerometers and gyros are both gyro stabilised
b) The platform is strapped down but the accelerometers are gyro stabilised
c) Accelerometers and gyros are both strapped down
81) The machmeter compares (Pt = total pressure, Ps = static pressure)
a) (Pt-Ps) to Ps
b) (Pt-Ps) to Pt
c) (Pt+Ps) to Ps
82) Vfe is the maximum speed that:
a) The flaps can be operated
b) Flaps may be extended in the takeoff configuration
c) Flaps may be extended in the landing configuration
83) Given: True track 180*, Drift 8R, compass heading 195* and deviation -2*. Calculate the
variation?
a) 23*W
b) 20*W
c) 21*W
84) The main reason that day and night throughout the year have different duration is due to
the?
a) the changing distance between the sun and earth
b) the changing speed of rotation of the earth
c) the inclination of ecliptic to the equator
85) Transponder code for radio communication failure is:
a) 7600
b) 7500
c) 7700
86) An aircraft was over ‘A’ at 1435 hours flying direct to ‘B’. Given: Distance A to B 2900 NM,
TAS 470 KT, Mean wind component out +55 KT, mean wind component back -75 KT. The ETA
for reaching the point of equal time between A and B is?
a) 1657
b) 1721
c) 1744
87) There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland and the other 50 NM inland from the coast.
ZAssuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the
extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be?
a) same from both the beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180* and 360*
b) greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
c) greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland
88) A straight line drawn on a Lamberts conformal conic chart between the positions of different
longitude. The angular difference between the initial true track and the final true track of the
line is equal to:
a) Conversion angle
b) Earth convergency
c) Chart convergency
89) An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation
indicator where 1 dot = 2* deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the
instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10
NM wide)
a) 1.5
b) 4.5
c) 6.0
90) A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify by listening to the call sign. Having
heard the same call sign 4 times in 30 seconds the,
a) VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch
b) DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times
c) DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once
91) At a given altitude, the hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the:
a) Mach number
b) Time passed at this altitude
c) Static temperature
92) Given: FL 250, OAT = -15*C, TAS 250 KT. Calculate the mach number?
a) 0.44
b) 0.40
c) 0.42
93) The duration of __________ is the time between sunset and when the centre of the sun is
6* below sensible or true horizon.
a) Nautical Twilight
b) Civil Twilight
c) Astronomical Twilight
94) The force acting on the needle of a direct reading compass varies:
a) Directly with horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
b) Directly with vertical component of earth’s magnetic field
c) Inversely with horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
95) When CG moves fore of the aircraft:
a) Increases stability, decreases manoeuvrability
b) Decreases stability, increases manoeuvrability
c) Increases stability, increases manoeuvrability
 96) A lambert conformal conic projection, with the two standard parallels:
a) Shows all great circles as straight lines
b) The scale is only correct along the standard parallels
c) The scale is only correct at parallel of origin
97) An aircraft climbs away from the runway with static vents still blocked. If QFE is set the
altimeter will
a) Continue to read zero
b) Indicate correctly the increasing altitude as the aircraft climbs
c) Show a slower gain of altitude than correct
98) When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will
a) Under read
b) Remain same
c) Over read
99) A compass swing is used to:
a) Align compass north with true north
b) Align compass north with magnetic north
c) Align magnetic north with true north
100) A category 1 Instrument landing system (ILS) ground installation provides accurate
guidance from coverage limit down to:
a) 200 feet above runway threshold
b) 50 feet above ILS reference point
c) Runway surface

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