AIR NAVIGATION TEST – 1

Total Questions: 100 Total Marks: 100

Total Time: 3 hours

Note:
- Answer all the questions
- Tick the appropriate option and assume values wherever necessary
- Use of flight computer and scientific calculator is permitted

1) A rhumb line cuts all meridians at the same angle. This gives:
a) The shortest distance between two points
b) A line which could never be a great circle track
c) A line of constant direction

2) If variation is West, then:

a) True north is west of magnetic north
b) True north is east of magnetic north
c) Magnetic north is west of compass north

3) What is the dip angle at the south magnetic pole?

a) 0*
b) 90*
c) 180*

4) An airfield has runways 18/36 and 07/25 all of equal length. The TAF W/V is 310/25. Variation is
20*E. Which will be the best R/W for take-off and landing?
a) 18
b) 25
c) 36

5) The emission characteristics A3E describe?

a) ILS
b) VOR
c) VDF

6) The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at a frequency of 118.7MHz?

a) 2.53m
b) 2.53cm
c) 25.3m

7) Your position is 58*33’N 174*00’W. You fly exactly 6nm eastwards. What is your new position?
a) 58*33’N 173*48.5’W
b) 58*33’N 173*40’W
c) 58*33’N 173*55’W
8) On a chart, 49nm is represented by 7cm. What is the scale?
a) 1/700000
b) 1/1296400
c) 1/2015396

9) A blocked pitot probe will affect?

a) ASI
b) VSI
c) Altimeter

10) If QNH is 999hPa, what is the pressure altitude at an elevation of 25000 ft?
a) 25200 ft
b) 25100 ft
c) 25400 ft

11) SAT=+35*C, pressure altitude (corrected for barometric error) = 5000’. What is the true altitude?
a) 4550’
b) 5550’
c) 4920’

12) An aeroplane is tracking away from an NDB maintaining track 020* with 5* starboard drift. The
relative bearing indicator should indicate a bearing of?
a) 185* relative
b) 175* relative
c) 015* relative

13) You plan to fly a track of 348*(T), drift is 17* port, variation is 32*W and deviation is 4*E. What
compass heading should you fly?
a) 33*
b) 16*
c) 41*

14) Coefficient A=-1, B=2, C=-3. The Deviation from heading 295(C) will be
a) -0.45
b) +0.45
c) +4.06

15) What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 365kHz?

a) 82m
b) 822m
c) 8200m

16) Flying from P to Q, MTOW 71500lbs, Weight less fuel and payload 49000lbs, mean TAS 195KT,
W/V 30 knots headwind, distance 1010nm, Maximum fuel consumption 215 imp gallons (SG 0.72),
MLW 62800lbs. Max payload in flight in still air will be:
a) 12610 lbs
b) 14547 lbs
c) 11928 lbs
17) At a specific location the value of magnetic variation
a) depends on the value of magnetic heading
b) depends on the value of true heading
c) varies slowly with time

18) Earth is at the greatest distance from the sun at:

a) spring equator
b) aphelion
c) perihelion

19) ADC has inputs from

a) autopilot control system and all wind sensors
b) all flying control surface
c) all pressure instrument, gyro computer and engine instrument

20) GMT X(36*50’N 10*14’E) is 19:47:00 28 th April. X is 1 hour ahead of GMT. Calculate the LMT?
a) 20:27:56
b) 19:06:04
c) 20:06:04

21) Max. pulse range radar is given by

a) PRF
b) Pulse width
c) Beam width

22) An aircraft climbing at constant CAS in ISA condition. What will be the effect on TAS and Mach
No.?
a) Both increase
b) Both decrease
c) TAS decreases, Mach No. increases

23) The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:

a) Beat frequency discrimination
b) difference in depth modulation
c) phase comparison

24) A non-perspective chart:

a) is produced directly from a light projection of a reduced earth
b) cannot be used for navigation
c) is produced by mathematically adjusting a light projection of the reduced earth

25) Given: TAS 140 KT, HDG 005*(T), W/V 265/25, Calculate the drift and groundspeed.
a) 11R – 140 KT
b) 10R – 146 KT
c) 11R – 142 KT

26) The standard parallels of a lamberts conical orthomorphic projection are 07*40’N and 38*20’N.
The constant of the cone for this chart is:
a) 0.45
b) 0.42
c) 0.39

27) Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF
bearings?
a) Coastal effect
b) Local thunderstorm activity
c) Precipitation interference

28) A VOR is sited at position A(45*00’N 010*00’E). An aircraft is located at position B(44*00’N
010*00’E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10*W and at B is 15*W, the aircraft is on
VOR radial:
a) 195*
b) 190*
c) 185*

29) Given: FL 120, OAT is ISA, CAS=200 KT, Track=222*(M), Heading=215*(M), Variation=15*W. If the
time to fly 105nm is 21 minutes, what is the W/V?
a) 040T/105KT
b) 055T/105KT
c) 050T/70KT

30) BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:

a) hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal
b) stop loop rotation
c) hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON

31) Given: Magnetic heading 280*, VOR radial 090*. What bearing should be selected on the omni-
bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a “TO” indication?
a) 270*
b) 280*
c) 100*

32) Real wander is caused by

a) topple due to earth rate
b) transportation of gyro
c) latitude nut correction

33) The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
a) 3000Hz, blue
b) 400Hz, blue
c) 400Hz, amber

34) Compressibility is corrected for when obtaining

a) EAS from RAS
b) RAS from IAS
c) TAS from EAS
35) A CAT III-C ILS glide path provides reliable guidance information down to:
a) a maximum height of 200ft above the runway
b) a maximum height of 100ft above the runway
c) surface of the runway

36) Purpose of caging knob is to

a) prevent gyro topple
b) reset gyro and prevent topple
c) prevent apparent wander

37) What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3* glide path at a
groundspeed of 120KT?
a) 550ft/min
b) 600ft/min
c) 800ft/min

38) Assuming a 5 dot display, what does each of the dots on wither side of the ILS localiser cockpit
display represent:
a) 0.5*
b) 1.5*
c) 2*

39) The departure between the positions 60*N 60*E and 60*N ‘x’ is 1800nm East. What is the
longitude of ‘x’ ?
a) 145*E
b) 120*E
c) 120*W

40) Isogonals converge at the?

a) magnetic equator
b) north and south magnetic poles
c) north and south geographic and magnetic poles

41) Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

a) 108.25 MHz
b) 109.15 MHz
c) 110.20 MHz

42) An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes
from both the localiser and glide path transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
a) Fly left and fly down
b) fly right and fly up
c) fly right and fly down

43) When accelerating on a westerly heading in NH in the magnet assembly of Direct Reading
compass, when viewed from above will turn
a) anticlockwise towards the north
b) clockwise towards south
c) anticlockwise towards south

44) Apparent topple of a gyro is given by

a) 15x sin lat
b) 15 x cos lat
c) GS/60 x tan lat

45) Given: True track 180*, Drift 8R, compass heading 195* and deviation -2*. Calculate the
variation?
a) 23*W
b) 20*W
c) 21*W

46) On a lambert conformal conic chart, the distance between standard parallels of latitude spaced
and the number of degrees apart?
a) Increases between and reduced outside of standard parallels
b) reduces between and expands outside of standard parallels
c) is constant between the standard parallels

47) Electromagnetic waves travel at?

a) speed of sound
b) 300000 metres per second
c) speed of light

48) An aircraft is flying on the true track 090* towards a VOR station located near the equator where
the magnetic variation is 15*E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8*E. The aircraft is on VOR
radial?
a) 255*
b) 262*
c) 278*

49) Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
a) 190-1750 KHz
b) 300-3000 KHz
c) 200-2000 KHz

50) What is the angle between true north and magnetic north ?
a) Dip
b) deviation
c) variation

51) The sensitivity of a direct reading compass varies?

a) inversely with the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field
b) directly with the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
c) directly with the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field
52) If there is a 15 KT increase in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in
order to maintain a 3* glide slope?
a) must be decreased by 79 ft/min
b) must be increased by 79 ft/min
c) must be increased by 35 ft/min

53) An aircraft was over ‘Q’ at 1320 hours flying direct to ‘R’. Given: Distance Q to R 3016 NM, TAS
480 KT, Mean wind component out -90KT, Mean wind component back +75KT, safe endurance 10:00
hours. The distance from Q to the point of safe return R is?
a) 1510 NM
b) 2370 NM
c) 2290 NM

54) What is the chart distance between longitudes 179*E and 175*W on a direct Mercator chart
with a scale of 1:5000000 at the equator?
a) 128 NM
b) 133 NM
c) 142 NM

55) What is the local mean time, position 65*20’N 123*45’W at 2200 UTC?
a) 1345
b) 1415
c) 1815

56) The main reason that day and night throughout the year have different duration is due to the?
a) the changing distance between the sun and earth
b) the changing speed of rotation of the earth
c) the inclination of ecliptic to the equator

57) If QNH is 1000 hPa and field elevation is 4500’ AMSL, what is QFE?
a) 850 hPa
b) 900 hPa
c) 750 hPa

58) How far can the aeroplane fly out from base and return in one hour, when flying at TAS 260 KT
on a track of 090*, if the W/V is 045*/50 KT?
a) 158 NM
b) 175 NM
c) 128 NM

59) Pressure altitude is ?

a) the altitude above sea level
b) the altimeter indication when QFE is set on the sub scale
c) the altimeter indication when 1013.25 hPa is set on the sub scale

60) From where does the ADC obtain altitude data?

a) Radio altimeter
b) barometric altitude source
c) OAT sources

61) Radio altimeter determines A/C height by:

a) phase comparison
b) measuring time interval
c) comparing frequency

62) DME in an A/C flying at FL 390 indicates 15 DME. Approximate horizontal distance of aircraft
from DME station is
a) 11.5
b) 12.5
c) 13.5

63) When descending through an inversion at constant CAS?

a) TAS increases
b) TAS and Mach number decreases
c) Mach number increases

64) What is Vfe?

a) maximum speed for extending or retracting the flaps
b) maximum speed for flight with the flaps extended
c) maximum speed for the flight envelope

65) Transponder code for hijacking is

a) 7600
b) 7500
c) 7700

66) Typical holding pattern is

a) race track
b) rectangular
c) ellipse

67) Air speed indicator consists of a casing which has

a) pitot pressure
b) pitot and static pressure
c) static pressure

68) Convert 95 metres/second into knots?

a) 135 KTS
b) 166 KTS
c) 185 KTS

69) An aircraft was over ‘A’ at 1435 hours flying direct to ‘B’. Given: Distance A to B 2900 NM, TAS
470 KT, Mean wind component out +55 KT, mean wind component back -75 KT. The ETA for reaching
the point of equal time between A and B is?
a) 1657
b) 1721
c) 1744

70) An increase of 0.15 Mach results in an increase of 93 KTS TAS. The local speed of sound is?
a) 560 KT
b) 580 KT
c) 620 KT

71) Given FL 350, Mach 0.80, OAT -55*C. Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of sound (LSS)
a) 460 KT, LSS 575 KT
b) 460 KT, LSS 570 KT
c) 460 KT, LSS 567 KT

72) Compared to VSI what error is eliminated by IVSI

a) Lag
b) Turning
c) Pressure

73) 265 US-Gal equals? (Specific gravity 0.80)

a) 800 kg
b) 803 kg
c) 810 kg

74) In a Mercator chart the scale varies as

a) secant of latitude away from equator
b) secant square of latitude away from equator
c) sin of latitude away from equator

75) Rigidity of the spinning axis of gyroscope can be increased by:

a) increasing the speed of the aircraft
b) flying according to the gyro
c) increasing the speed of spin and mass of the rotor

76) A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aircraft’s structural limits:
Maximum ramp mass: 69900 kg, Maximum take-off mass: 69300 kg, Maximum Landing Mass:
58900kg, Maximum zero fuel mass: 52740 kg. Take-off and landing mass are not performance
limited. Dry operating mass: 34930 kg, trip fuel: 11500 kg, taxi fuel: 250 kg, contingency and final
reserve fuel: 1450 kg, alternate fuel: 1350 kg. The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
a) 21170 kg
b) 17810 kg
c) 21070 kg

77) The total length of the 70*N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 120 cm. What is the
approximate scale of the chart at latitude 40*S?
a) 1: 16 050 000
b) 1: 7 250 000
c) 1: 25 500 000
78) Isogonals are
a) lines joining all the places of the same angle of dip
b) lines joining all the places of same angle of variation
c) line joining all the places of nil deviation

79) How do rhumb lines (other than meridians) appear on Polar stereographic chart?
a) as lines curve concave to the nearer pole
b) as straight lines
c) as lines convex to the nearer pole

80) Position A is 55*N 030*W and B is 54*N 020*W. What is the rhumb line bearing from A to B, if
the great circle track from A to B measured at A is 100*T?
a) 110*T
b) 90*T
c) 104*T

81) What is the longitude of a position 15 NM to the east of 58*42’N 094*00’W?

a) 093*51.3’W
b) 093*31.1’W
c) 094*13.0’W

82) What does the green arc on an ASI indicate?

a) Vs1 at the lower end and Vno at upper end
b) Vs1 at the lower end and Vne at upper end
c) Vle at the lower end and Vlo at the upper end

83) There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming
that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error
in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be?
a) same from both the beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180* and 360*
b) greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
c) greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland

84) In regard to radio, what does the term frequency mean?

a) the number of waveforms in one hour
b) the number of complete waveforms passing a point in one second
c) speed of radio waves in metres per second

85) What is the approximate theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL 140 could receive
information from a VDF facility which is sited 1050 FT AMSL?
a) 190 NM
b) 193 NM
c) 220 NM

86) The VOR system is limited to about 1* of accuracy. One degree at 250 NM represents a width of:
a) 4.4 NM
b) 2.5 NM
c) 2.0 NM
87) Given: Maximum structu ral take-off mass: 8600 kg, Maximum structural landing mass: 8600 kg,
Zero fuel mass: 6500 kg, Taxi fuel: 15 kg, contingency fuel: 110 kg, alternate fuel: 600 kg, final
reserve fuel: 130 kg, trip fuel: 970 kg. The expected landing mass at destination will be:
a) 8600 kg
b) 8325 kg
c) 7340 kg

88) Find the maximum range if the Pulse recurrence frequency (PRF) is 1500
a) 100 NM
b) 54 NM
c) 135 NM

89) Radio waves in SHF band mainly propagate by

a) Direct wave
b) Ground wave
c) Sky wave

90) What will happen to the indicated altitude if an aircraft in level flight passes into a warmer air
mass?
a) Over indicate
b) Under indicate
c) remain constant

91) In sky wave propagation, the distance between the end of the surface wave and the first
returning sky wave is called the:
a) Skip distance
b) Maximum usable range
c) dead space

92) A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 125 NM. The chart scale is?
a) 1: 5 000 000
b) 1: 6 000 000
c) 1: 6 500 000

93) When in flight, the needle of a needle and ball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right,
the aircraft is?
a) Turning left with not enough bank
b) Turning right with not enough bank
c) Turning right with not enough bank

94) The airborne weather radar cannot detect:

a) moderate rain
b) hail
c) snow

95) In an IRS system?

a) both the platform and accelerometers are gyro-stabilised
b) both the platform and accelerometers are strapped down
c) the platform is strapped down, but the accelerometers are gyro-stabilised

96) When fitted with a Mode C transponder, a TCAS II system may provide?
a) RA only
b) TA only
c) TA and RA

97) To double the range of a primary radar, the power must be increased by a factor of:
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16

98) Which Q code gives true track from a VDF station?

a) QDM
b) QUJ
c) QTE

99) What is the shortest distance between Point A (35*43’N 08*41’E) and Point B (54*17’N
171*19’W) ?
a) 5400 NM
b) 6557 NM
c) 6000 NM

100) Given: Runway direction 083*(M), surface W/V 035/35 KT. Calculate the effective headwind
component.
a) 24 KT
b) 27 KT
c) 34 KT

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